CHAPTER 1-9 CHAPTER 1 1 Which of the following is not considered a roorganism? 2. archaeon ». bacterium «. protozoan Qyesrcom 7 An area of microbiology that i concerned with the occurrencf of disease in human populations is 2. immunology ». parasitology Ouse bioremediation 3. Which process involves the deliberate alteration of an organism's senetic material? 2. bioremediation b, biotechnology decomposition 4. prominent difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is the a. larger size of prokaryotes b. lack of pigmentation in eukaryotes 4. presence ofa cell wall in prokaryotes 5. Which of the following parts was absent from Leeuwenhoek’s microscopes? 2. focusing screw b. lens specimen holder Cueondenser6. Abiogenesis refers to the . development of life forms from preexi ms from nonliving matter ing life forms c. development of aseptic technique d. germ theory of disease 7. A hypothesis can be defined as a. a belief based on knowledge b. knowledge based on belief & scientific explanation that is subject to testing d. a theory that has been thoroughly tested 8. Which early microbiologist was most responsible for developing ‘standard microbiology laboratory techniques? 2. Louis Pasteur (Pyorer Koch «Carl von Linn d. John Tyndall 9. Which scientist is most responsible for finally laying the theory of ‘spontaneous generation to rest? 2. Joseph Lister b, Robert Koch «Francesco Redi Qos Pasteur 10. When a hypothesis has been thoroughly supported by long-term study and data, itis considered a.alaw b. a speculation Oven d. proved 11. Which is the correct order of the taxonomic categories, going from most specific to most general? ‘a. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, speciesb. division, domain, kingdom, class, family, genus, species Opes. genus, far d. species, family, class, order, phylum, kingdom /, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain 12. By definition, organisms inthe same are more closely related than are those in the same a. order, family eiess, phyium «. family, genus 4. phylum, division 13. Which of the following are prokaryo! a. bacteria b. archaea c. protists Cuee 15. Which of the following not an emerging infectious disease? oven inftuem b.tyme das Qeonmoncoi G2. West ever 15 How nul you categorie vis? ase pstanoe bss eat (Done otees cries CHAPTER 2 1. The smallest unit of matter with unique characteristics is a. an electron b.a molecule Qpsem d.a proton2.The charge of a proton is exactly balanced by the charge of a (an). a. negative, positive, electron b. positive, neutral, neutron . Dostive, negative, electron 4. neutral, negative, electron 3. Electrons move around the nucleus of an atom in pathways called a. shells, Bos c.circles 4. rings 4, Which parts of an element do not vary in number? a. electrons b. neutrons Gyotons 4. Allof these vary. 5. fa substance contains two or more elements of different types, Its considered Qs compound b.a monomer ¢.a molecule 4. organic 6. Bonds in which atoms share electrons are defined as, bonds. a. hydrogen ». lonic double yowient 7. Abhydrogen bond can form between adjacent to each other. 2. two hydrogen atoms b. two oxygen atoms © tveroeen atom and an oxygen atom4. negative charges 8. An atom that can donate electrons during a reaction is called aan oxidizing agent > eesucing agent €. an tonic agent 4.an electrolyte 9. Ina solution of NaCl and water, NaCl isthe. and water is the a. acid, base b. base, acid Boers sotvent 4. solvent, solute 10. Asolution with a pH of 2 than a solution with a pH of 8. a. has less Ht Cys more Ht © has more OH- d.is less concentrated 11, Fructose is a type of a. disaccharide Qmonosaccnaride «. polysaccharide 4d. amino acid 12. Bond formation in polysaccharides and polypeptides is accompanied by the removal of a 2. hydrogen atom b. hydroxyl ion carbon atom 13. The monomer unit of polysaccharides such as starch and cellulose is a. fructoseQeicose c.ribose d, lactose 14. A phospholipi contains a. three fatty acids bound to glycerol b. three fatty acids, a glycerol, and a phosphate Qe fatty acids and a phosphate bound to glycerol d. three cholesterol molecules bound to glycerol 15, Proteins are synthesized by linking amino acids with __bonds. a. disulfide b. glycosidic 16, The amino acid that accounts for disulfide bonds in the tertiary structure of proteins is a. tyrosine b. glycine Cysteine d.serine 17. DNAs a hereditary molecule that is composed of Qyoouritose, phosphate, and nitrogen bases b, deoxyribose, a pentose, and nucleic acids «. sugar, proteins, and thymine 4. adenine, phosphate, and ribose 28. What is meant by the term ONA replication? 2. synthesis of nucleotides b. cell division «. interpretation ofthe genetic code Be exact copying of the OWA code into two new molecules 39, Proteins can function as a. enzymesb. receptors c. antibodies 20. RNA plays an important role in what biological process? 2. replication protein synthesis metabolism d. water transport CHAPTER 3 1. Which of the following is not one of the six "I's"? a. inspection d. incubation b. identification €. inoculation QYurination 2. The term culture refers to the growth of microorganisms in a. rapid, an incubator @rvcroscopic, media . microscopic, the body 4. artificial, colonies 3. Amixed culture is, a, the same as a contaminated culture b. one that has been adequately stirred Gre that contains two or more known species 4. a pond sample containing algae of a single species 4, Agar is superior to gelatin as a solidifying agent because agar 2. does not melt at room temperature b, solidifies at 75°C is not usually decomposed by microorganisms haandc 55. The process that most accounts for magnification is a. a condenser « illumination Qeetracion of light rays d, Resolution6. Asubcultureis a 2. colony growing beneath the media surface b. culture made from a contaminant ¢. culture made in an embryo Qpatwre made from an isolated colony T-Resciton_ th longer wavelength fe a. improved c. not changed Doren 4. pose 8, A real image is produced by the a. ocular c. condenser d.eye 9. Amicroscope that has a total magnification of 1,500x when using the oll immersion objective has an ocular of what power? a. 150 Q* b.1se 6.30 10. The specimen for an electron microscope is always a. stained with dyes on b. sliced into thin sections J. viewed directly 11, Motility is best observed with a ‘anging drop preparation «streak plate . negative stain 6. flagellar stain 12, Bacteria tend to stain more readily with cationic (positively charged) dyes because bacteria a. contain large amounts of alkaline substances ¢-are neutral Byontain arge amounts of aciaic substances d. have thick cell walls 413, The primary difference between a TEM and SEM is in 2a, magnification capability b, colored versus black-and-white images ]Yreparation of the specimen 4. type of lenses,14, A fastidious organism must be grown on what type of medium? 2. general-purpose medium synthetic medium ». differential medium CBpnenea medium 15, What type of medium is used to maintain and preserve specimens before clinical analysis? 2. selective medium -enriched medium 16. Which of the following is NOT an optical microscope? a. dark field (Saronic force b. confocal 4. Fluorescent cHapTer 4 4, Which structure is not a component of al cells? Oeetiat € genetic material ».cell membrane 4. Ribosomes a. they are not cells ¢. they lack metabolism. 3. Which of the following is not found in all bacterial cells? csi — b.anucleoid 0 actin cytoskeleton ci ep Sn cad aa QYrceta «.fimbriae bei 4. cilia 5. Pili are appendages in bacteria that serve as a means of. 2 gram-positive, genetic exchange b. gram-positive, attachment Cyernecative, genetic exchange & gram-negative, protection 6. An example ofa glycocalyxis Bernie outer membraneb. pili d.a cell wall 7. Which of the following is a primary bacterial cell wall function? b. motility d. adhesion 8, Which of the following is present in both gram-positive and gramnegative cell walls? a. an outer membrane «. teichoie acid 2 peptidoglycan 4. lipopolysaccharides 9, Metachromatic granules are concentrated found in a. fat, Mycobacterium ¢. sulfur, Thiobacllus b. dipicolinic acid, Bacillus (jos conevacterium 10, Which of the following prokaryotes lacks cell walls? a. ickettsias Mycobacterium (@ppreontesmas 4. Archaea 11 The LPS layer In gram-negative cell walls releases, that___cause. a. enzymes, pain «. techole acid, inflammation C@protonins, fever d. phosphates, lysis 12, Bacterial endospores function in a. reproduction ¢. protein synthesis Qanval 4d. storage 13. An arrangement in packets of eight cells is described as a. 2. micrococcus «tetrad b. diplococcus GQ sarcina 14. The major difference between a spirochete and a spirillum is a. presence of flagella QDire nature of motility b. the presence of twists d. size 15. Which phylum contain bacteria with a grape call al? a. Proteobacteria CPrmiewes b. Chori 4. spirochetes jomain Bacteria 116. To which taxonomic group do cyanobacteria belong? a, Domain Archaea b. Phylum Actinobacteria d. Phylum Fusobacteria17. Which stain is used to distinguish differences between the cell walls, of medically important bacteria? b. acridine orange stain d. negative stain 18. The first living cells on earth would most likely resemble which of these? a. a cyanobacterium €.3 gram-positive cell b, an endospore former Oi archaeon Chapter 5 1, Both flagella and cilia are found primarily in a. algae «fungi b gor Cyr 4. both band c rod a. ribosomes b.adouble membrane structure \) J . pores that allow communication with the cytoplasm e. all of these 43 The cell wall is usually found in which eukaryotes? a. fungi c. protozoa i b. algae 4, What is embedded in rough endoplasmic reticulum? QBprvsomes «. chromatin b. Golgi apparatus 4. vesicles 5. Yeasts are___fungi, and molds are_fungi a. macroscopic, microscopic O& icellular, filamentous motile, nonmotile d. water, terrestrial 6. In general, fungi derive nutrients through2. photosynthesis b. engulfing bacteria Cjeessne organic substrates d. parasitism 7. Ahypha divided into compartments byugross walls is called . imperfect d. Perfect 8, Algae generally contain some type of a. spore Qpreroohvt € locomotor organelle d. toxin 9, Which algal group is most closely related to plants? a. diatoms Eyreroenva © Euglenophyta 4d. dinoflagellates 10. Which characteristic(s) is/are not typical of protozoan cells? a. locomotor organelle pore b. cyst d. trophozoite 11. The protozoan trophoroite is the active feeding stage b. inactive dormant stage infective stage 4. spore-forming stage 12. All mature sporozoa are a. parasitic b. nonm c.carried by an arthropod vector Deon aandb 13. Parasitic helminths reproduce witha. spores da cysts ees and sperm e.all of these mitosis 14. Mitochondria likely originated from a. archaea b. invaginations of the cell membrane & ickettsias <. cyanobacteria 15, Human fungal infections involve and affect what areas of the human body? askin b, mucous membranes 16. Most helminth infections 2. ae localized to one stein the body Gpread through major systems ofthe body €. develop within the spleen d. develop within the liver 1. Avirus isa tiny infectious b. living thing d. nucleic acid a. plants fungi b. bacteria ® organisms 3. Theseapsidis composed of protein subunits called a. spikes . virions b. protomers Ge“A. The envelope of an animal virus is derived from the ____ofits host cell. a. cell wall c. glycocalyx: Dremrane 4. receptors 5. The nucleic acid of a virus is 2. DNAonly b. RNA only ¢. both DNA and RNA Ov DNA or RNA 6. The general steps in a viral multiplication cycle are @exnHon, penetration, synthesis, assembly, and release 'b. endocytosis, replication, assembly, and budding «. adsorption, duplication, assembly, and lysis d. endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation, and exocytosis 7. A prophage is a/an stage in the cycle of On bacterial viruses fective, RNA viruses: «early, poxviruses d. late, enveloped viruses 8, The nucleic acid of animal viruses enters the host cell through 2. Injection endocytosis b.fusion b and 9. In general, RNA viruses multiply in the cell and DNA viruses multiply in the cell a. nucleus, cytoplasm c.vesicles, ribosomes plasm, nucleus d. endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus 10, Enveloped viruses carry surface receptors called a, buds fibers Eine d. sheaths 1LL, Viruses that persist in the cell and cause recurrent disease are considered a. oncogenic Caeb. cytopathic d. resistant bb enbnes (Doda 13. Clear patches in cell cultures that indicate sites of virus infection are called d. prions is not a general pattern of virus morphology? 2. enveloped, helical ¢. enveloped, icosahedral b. naked, icosahedral Jomplex, helical 15. Which of these is true of prions? ‘a, They are small RNA viruses. . They replicate in the nucleus. They lack protein. &- ‘cause death of brain cells. CHAPTER 7 metab ‘An organic nutrient essential to an organist cannot be synthesized itself is termed a/an a, trace element _— Ggrowth factor b, micronutrient 4. mineral 2. The source of the necessary elements of life is Op» inorganic environmental reservoir b. the sun rocks 4. the air 3. An organism that can synthesize all ts required organic components from CO2 using energy from the sun is a Cypsonreron €. chemoautotrophb. photoheterotroph d. chemoheterotroph_ 4. An obligate halopie requires igh aot Qs bs temperature a. pressure 5, Chemoautotrophs can survivéon_ alone. FD minerals © and CO2 b. COZ d. methane 6. Whit of the following substances are required by all organisms? 2. organic nutrients growth factors CBDporganic nutrients d. oxygen ges 7.A pathogen would most accurately be described as a (Sparse € saprobe b. commensal 4d. symbiont 8. Which of the following is true of passive transport? eS requires a gradient ¢ itincludes endocytosis Tt uses the cell wall d. t only moves water ‘9, Acell exposed to a hypertonic environment will__ by osmosis. a. gain water . neither gain nor lose water se water d, burst 10. Active transport of a substance across a membrane requires Q. expenditure of ATP d. diffusion b. on the human body d. at low pH ‘a. accumulation of inducer molecules bb. a certain level of bi density self-monitoring (Zsese ofseetie mater 13. Superoxide ion is toxic to strict anaerobes because they lacka. catalase mutase b. peroxidase idase 14, The time required for a cell to undergo binary fission is called the a. exponential growth rate (~c. gdneration time b. growth curve fag period 15. Ina viable plate count, each represents a from the sample population. a.cell, colony hour, generation ny, cell 4. cell, generation The stage in population growth with the highest rate of cel division isthe b. lag phase <¢. enlargement phase CHAPTER 8 1. is another term for biosynthesis. 2. Catabolism ¢ Metabolism 4d. Catalyst 2 Catabolism isa form of metabolism in which molecules are transformed into molecules. yee smaller . amino acid, protein by smaller, larger 4. glucose, starch 3. An enzyme the activation energy required for a chemical aa cine over ‘a, becomes part of the final products b. is nonspecific for substrate cis consumed by the reaction est and pt able sie _ 5.Amapoenzyme is where theacsae is located.a. cofactor QBereneime 6. Many coenzymes contain a. metals «proteins Qptemins d. substrates 7. To digest cellulose in its environment, a fungus produces a/an a. endoenzyme catalase Cyrene d, polymerase 8. Energy in biological systems Is primat Adinemica d. mechanical Bir enerey a vont 6 nei phosphate 6B release potential energy c. form bonds b. consume energy d. occur only outside the cell a. NAD+ (2ymon 0 aor yenoaf devon ¢ ation fongen Y adton felecrons é.reonlofoeen 13. A product or products of glycolysis is/are 14, Fermentation of a glucose molecule has the potential to produce a net fumber of ___ATPs. 15 com otaonof gcesn aoe epatonby a eatancte could potentially yield a net maximum output of __ATPs.16. The compound that enters the Krebs cycle is a. citric acid ©. pyruvic acid b. oxaloacetic acid cetyl coenzyme A 17. The FADH2 formed during the Krebs cycle enters the electron transport system at which site? 2.NADH dehydrogenase ——_c. complex IV Corie 0 4. ATP synthase 18. The proton motive force is the result of ‘a. ATP synthase transporting protons during ATP synthesis »-an electron gradient between the matrix and the intermembrane space of a mitochondrion & Proton gradient between the matrix and intermembrane space of a mitochondrion 4. a buildup of negatively charged ions 18. Photosynthetic organisms convert the energy of ___into chemical energy. a. electrons Cyrotons b. protons 4. hydrogen atoms 20. The Calvin cycle operates during which part of photosynthesis? 2. only the light-dependent phase b. only in the dark O: light-independent phase ‘only during photosystem | 21. The oxygen produced by photosynthesis comes from: b.No3 4. Glucose CHAPTER 9 1. What is the smallest unit of heredity (genotype)? a. chromosome codon Ore 4. nucleotide 2. Anucleotide contains which of the following? a. S-carbon sugar d. band c only b. nitrogen base & ofthese ©. phosphate3, The nitrogen bases in DNA are bonded to the ‘a. phosphate ribose (Bycouribose d. hydrogen “2. DNA replication is considered semiconservative because the strand will remain as half of the molecule 2. antisense, ONA «. sense, mRNA Dermat rato 4. codon, anticodon 5. In DNA, adenine is the complementary base for and cytosine is the complement for GW ymive, guanine b. uracil, guanine 4. thymine, uracil ‘a. guanine, thy 6. The base pairs are held together primarily by ‘a. covalent bonds (Spcroeen bonds b. ionic bonds E gyrases 7. Why must the lagging strand of DNA be replicate short pices? a. because of limited space b. otherwise, the helix will become distorted [Bpneona ponerse can yes inalyone rection d. to make proofreading of code easier 8, Messenger RNA is formed by ofa gener the ONA template sand, (Qrereroton e tamaton w.eepteaton dransormation o-Transfer RNA the molec that a. contributes to the structure of ribosomes Qadents the genetic code to protein structure < transfers th DNA code 0 mNA d. provides the master code for amino acids 10.Asa genera ue, he ist eodon on 3 the ONA emplatestrand hat signals the start for a protein is ey cATGb. au UAC +11, What components are involved in transcription? a. sigma factor d.only band b. RNA polymerase G of these . promotor 12. The lac operon is usually in the Position and is activated by a/an molecule, 2.0n, repressor .0n, inducer OQ inducer d. off, repressor _ 15. For mutations to have an effect on populations of microbes, they must be 2. inheritable \ (daandb b. permanent e. all of these «. beneficial 14. Which of the following characteristics isnot true of a plasmid? 2. Itis a circular piece of DNA. & {s required for normal cell function. ¢ Its found in bacteria. 4. tecan be transferred fom cellt cel methods of intemicrobial transfer? a. an coli cromosome b.Ffactor & resistance genes daande e. all of these 16. Which ofthese features is found in eukaryotes but not bacteria? a. polygene mRNAs stop codon Ore 4. AUG codon 17, Which ofthe following s present in prokaryotes but not eukaryotes? a. exonsb. polyribosomes «.spliceosomes @ypotorcows transcription and translation‘CHAPTER 10 1. Which gene is incorporated into plasmids to detect recombinant cells? a. restriction endonuclease Dene for antibiotic resistance b. virus receptors 4. reverse transcriptase 2. Which of the following is not essential to carry out the polymerase chain reaction? a. primers Dect crave b. DNA polymerase d. high temperature 3. Which of the following is not a part of the Sanger method to sequence DNA? - > a. dideoxynucleotides ¢. electrophoresis b. DNA polymerase everse transcriptase 4, The function of ligase isto Cys segments of DNA ®, make longitudinal cus in DNA synthesize cONA 4. break down ligaments - 5. The pathogen of plant roots that is used as a cloning host is a, Pseudomonas Escherichia coli EOYerobacterium 4. Saccharomyces cerevisiae 6. Which of the following sequences, when combined with its complement, would be clipped by a restriction endonuclea: a. ATCGATCGTAGCTA ao b. AAGCTTCGAA d. ACCATTGGA, 7. Which DNA fragment will be closest to the top (negative electrophoretic gel? a. 450 bp b. 3,560 bp d. 1,500 bp8. Which of the following is or are required for cloning a gen a. restriction endonuclease b. vector nd b d. €. dloning host or of these 8. For which ofthe folowing would not require anucligacid probe? a. locating a gene on a chromosome b. developing a Southern blot > . Identifying a microorganism with FISH oe" a recombinant plasmid |APTER 11 1. A microbicidal agent has what effect? a. sterilizes b. inhibits microorganisms .Is toxic to human cells Qpestroys microorganisms 2, Microbial control methods that kill are able to sterilize. a. viruses Cdendospores b. the tubercle bacillus 3d. cysts 3. Any process that destroys the non-spore-forming contaminants on inanimate objects is a. antisepsis c. ster Eysintection 4d. degermation n 4, Sanitization is a process by which O- microbial load on objects is reduced objects are made sterile with chemicals . utensils are scrubbed 4d, skin is debrided 5. An example of an agent that lowers the surface tension of cells is, a. phenol (erb. chlorine d. formalin igh temperatures and low temperatures. infect I cells, inhibit cell growth . denature proteins, burst cells d, speed up metabolism, slow down metabolism 7. The primary action of heat is to. a. dry, destroy cell walls . moist, kill vegetative cells c.dry, dissolve lipids 8. The standard temperature-pressure combination for an autoclave is a. 100°C and 4 psi c.131°C and 9 psi Ca and 15 psi 4d, 115°C and 3 psi Microbe(s) that is/are the target(s) of pasteurization include(s) 2. Clostridium botulinum ¢.Salmonelia species 'b. Mycobacterium species Ga bande 10. lonizing radiation like removes from atoms. a. UY, protons 'gamma rays, electrons b. X-rays, the charge d. cathode rays, ions 11. The primary mode of action of nonionizing radiation is to a. produce superoxide ions make pyrimidine dimers . denature proteins d. break disulfide bonds 12. The most versatile method of sterilizing heat-sensitive liquids is a. UV radiation . beta propiolactone b. exposure to ozone fation 13. is the iodine antiseptic of choice for wound treatment.a. 8% tincture O« lodophor b.5% aqueous 4. 7.5% potassium iodide solution 14, A chemical with sporicidal properties is 2. phenol ¢. quaternary ammonium compound b. alcohol Rayprreene 15. Silver sulfadiazine is used 8 b. as a mouthwash d. to disinfect water antisepsis of burns . to treat genital gonorrhea 16, Detergents are a. high-level germicides Duurecants c. excellent antiseptics 4d. used in disinfecting surgical instruments 17. Which of the following is an approved sterilant? 2. chorhexaine Cpr ote b. betadyne d. ethyl alcohol CHAPTER 12 1. Acompound synthesized by bacteria or fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is a(n) synthetic drug . antimicrobial drug Opniiiotic 4d. competitive inhibitor 2. Which statement is not an aim in the use of drugs for antimicrobial chemotherapy? The drug should a. have selective toxicity b. be active even In high dilutions & broken down and excreted rapidly d. be microbicidal 3. Microt resistance to drugs is acquired through a. conjugation . transductionb. transformation all of these 4, R factors are that contain a code fOF a. genes, replication Byes, drug resistance © transposons, interferon d. plasmids, conjugation 5. When a patient's immune system becomes reactive to a drug, thi an example of 2. superinfection Odes b. drug resistance d. toxicity 6. An antibiotic that disrupts the normal flora can cause a. the teeth to turn brown Cpe superinfection b. aplastic anemia 4d. hepatotoxicity 7. Most antihelminthic drugs function by a. weakening the worms so they can be flushed out by the intestine @ yr ing worm metabolism . blocking the absorption of nutrients 4. inhibiting egg production e- all of these 8. Select a drug or drugs that can prevent a viral nucleic acid from being replicated. a. retrovir ¢. saquinavir b. acyclovir Cay aandb 9. Which of the following effects do antiviral drugs not have? Cyestoving extracellular viruses b. stopping virus synthesis . inhit 18 Virus maturation d. blocking virus receptors 10. Which of the following modes of action would be most selectively toxic?a. interrupting ribosomal function b. dissolving the cell membrane (preventing cell wall synthesis d. inhibiting DNA replication 11. The MIC is the of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe. b. standard dose d. lowest dilution 12, An antimicrobial drug with a therapeutic index is a better choice than one with a therapeutic index a. low, high oe low CHAPTER 13 1. The best descriptive term for the resident microbes is b. parasites 4. contaminants 2. Resident microbiota is commonly found in the a. liver c. salivary glands b. kidney 3. Normal resident microbes are absent from the a. pharynx c.intesfine Oye 4. Virulence factors include a. toxins b. exoenzymes 5, The specific action of hemolysis is to ‘a. damage white blood cells b. cause fever d. cause leukocytosis6. The is the time ono} between encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms, a. prodrome ©. period of convalescence b. period of invasion riod of incubation 7.A short period early in a disease that manifests with general malaise and achiness is the geriod of incubation sequela sfodrome 4, period of invasion 8. The presence of a few bacteria in the blood is termed a. septicemia (Spacer b. toxemia d.a secondary infection 9. A(n) infection is acquired through exposure in a hospital a. subclini Cat rosocomiay b. focal ] d. secondary 10. A/an is a passive animal transporter of pathogens. b. biological vector d. asymptomatic carrier 11. An example of a noncommunicable infection is a. measles ¢. tuberculosis b.leprosy Won 12. A general term that refers to an increased white blood cell count is a. leukopenia leukocytosis b. inflammation 4. leukemia 13. The occurrence of Lyme disease mainly in areas where certain species of ticks live would define it as a(n) disease. a. epidemic demic b. pandemic d. sporadic 14. A positive antibody test for HIV would be a of infection.O sign . syndrome b. symptom d. sequela 15. Which of the following would not be a portal of entry? Or meninges c.skin b. the placenta 4. small intestine 416. Which of the following is not a condition of Koch's postulates? a. isolate the causative agent of a disease b. cultivate the microbe in a lab . inoculate a test animal to observe the disease (Gin the effects of a pathogen on humans ‘CHAPTER 14 1. An example/examples of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is/are a. unbroken skin .cilia in respiratory tract Oponrnein saliva d. all of these 2. Which nonspecific host defense is associated with the trachea? a. lacrimation c. desquamation ciliary lining, d. lactic acid 3. Which of the following blood cells function primarily as phagocytes? a. eosinophils c. lymphocytes b. basophils (Byerortis 4. Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue? a. spleen c.lymph node Oyrois sland .GALT 5. What is included in GALT? a. thymus ¢. tonsils O patches 4d. breast lymph nodes € A signaling molecule from microbes recognized by phagocytes is a. pyrogen c. complement we d. lectin7. Monocytes are leukocytes that develop into . a. granular, phagocytes Qperanvir, macrophages b. agranular, mast cells 4. granular, T cells, 8. Which of the following inflammatory signs specifies pain? a. tumor folor b. calor 4. rubor 9. Tolblike receptors are proteins on hagocytes that recognize foreign molecules b. viruses that stimulate immune reactions cells that provide barriers to infection d. lymphocytes that damage parasitic worms 10. An example of an inflammatory mediator that stimulates vasodilation is & b. collagen d. interferon istamine ¢. complement CSa 11. is an example of an inflammatory mediator that stimulates chemotaxis. a. Endotoxin Q fibrin clot b. Serotonin 4. Interleukin-2 12. An example of an exogenous pyrogen is a. interleukin-1 c. interferon b. complement ndotoxin 13. interferon, produced by T lymphocytes, activates cells led and is involved in destroying viruses. a\Gamma, fibroblasts Cys natural killer cells b Jeeta, Ivmphocytes 4. Beta, fibroblasts 14. In what process is tumor necrosis factor (TNF) not involved? a. chemotaxis of phagocytes b. fever. the inflammatory response he classic complement pathway - Which of the following substances is not produced by phagocytes to destroy engulfed microorganisms? a. hydroxyl radical c. hydrogen peroxide b. superoxide anion radykinin 16. Which of the following is the end product of the complement system? a. properdin Crembrane attack complex b. cascade reaction 4d. complement factor C9 CHAPTER 15 1. Which of these characteristics is not a major factor in adaptive or acquired immunity? a. specificity . recognition (Drrtos d. memory 2. The primary B-cell receptor is on alga «lee 4.1g6 /n humans, 8 cells mature in the and T cells mature in the a. GALT, liver Qhoone marrow, thymus b. bursa, thymus 4. lymph nodes, spleen 4, Small, simple molecules are antigens. oor b. never «effective 4. mosaic Avnich type of cell actually secretes antibodies? a.Teell b. macrophage Qpinins cell d. monocyte 6. CDA cells are cells and CD8 cells are cells. a. killer, suppressor c. cytotoxic, helper Qreives cytotoxic 48,7 7. Helper T cells receive antigen from , and cytotoxic T cells receive antigen from .a. macrophages, B cells . viruses, bacteria piss UN MHC, class I MC 4. class I MHC, class! MHC 8, The cross-linkage of antigenic cells by antibodies is known as, a. opsonization OD utination b. a cross-reaction 4d. complement fixation 9. The greatest concentration of antibodies is found in the fraction of the serum. Cama globulin c. beta globulin b. albumin d. alpha globulin 10. T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells. a. sensitized felper b. cytotoxic 4. natural killer b.allergy ‘ lof these 42. Vaccination is synonyndSus with immunity a. natural active C Persea active . artificial passive d. natural passive 13. Which of the following can serve as antigen-presenting cells (APCs)? a.T cells, |. dendritic cells b. Bells \c, and d . macrophage 14. All 1g microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered a toxoid c. denatured Geert d.an adjuvant 15. A vaccine that contains parts of viruses is called acellular ‘aeb. recombinant d. attenuated 16. Widespread i munity that protects the population from the spread of disease is called a. seropositivity ¢. epidemic prophylaxis b. cross-reactivity CQ herd immunity 17. DNA vaccines contain DNA that stimulates cells to make gens. a.human, RNA c. human, protein (PD icrobial, protein d. microbial, polysaccharide 18. What is the purpose of an adjuvant? 2. to kill the microbe b. to stop allergic reactions fo improve the contact between the antigen and lymphocytes 4d. to make the antigen more soluble in the tissue (CHAPTER 16 1. Pollen is which type of allergen? a.contactant c.injectant b. ingestant inhalant a.asthma ¢. tuberculin reactions b. anaphylaxis Qporr aandb 3. Which hypersensitvities are T-cell mediated? a. type! «type ll b.typell v 4, The contact with allergen that results in Symptoms is called the a. sensitizing dose Qrovoeative dose jegranulation dose d. desensitizing dose a. contact dermatitis . Arthus reactionQe: d. both a and b 6. The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of a. the allergen directly on smooth muscle b, the allergen on B lymphocytes rere ‘mediators released from mast cells and basophils d. IgE on smooth muscle 7. Theoretically, type blood can be donated to all persons because it lacks. a. AB, antibodies AB, antigens O antigens 4.0, antibodies ‘An example of a type Ill immune complex disease is Ooun sickness c.graft rejection b. contact dermatitis d. atopy 9. Type Il hypersensitivities are due to a. IgE reacting with mast cells b. activation of cytotoxic T cells .IgG-allergen complexes that clog epithelial tissues -omplement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies 10. Production of autoantibodies may be due to a. emergence of forbidden clones of B cells . production of antibodies against sequestered tissues . infection-induced change in receptors @ of these are possible. 11. Rheumatoid arthritis is an that affects the a. immunodeficiency disease, muscles b. autoimmune disease, nerves c. allergy, cartilage Jautoimmune disease, joints12. A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of CO: delayed-type allergy ¢. acute contact dermatitis b. autoimmunity d. eczema 13. Contact dermatitis can be caused by a. pollen grains @bremicas absorbed by the skin ¢. microbes found in foods 4. prot 14, Which disease would be most similar to AIDS in its pathology? 2. Xlinked agammaglobulinemia b.sciD c. ADA deficiency Poiceorge syndrome 15. Which of these immunopathologies could be treated with a stem cell transplant? a. arthus reaction da and only Qsw band conly . anaphylaxis 16. How is the immune system involved in development of cancer? Daatuce in immune surveance b, mutation in cytotoxic T cells c. autoantibody formation 4. overreaction to environmental chemicals CHAPTER 17 2. Which of the following methods is most sensitive for identi different strains of a microbe? b. hemolysis on blood agar d. agglutination test ‘a, microscopic exai 3. In agglutination reactions, the antigen is a__; in precipitation