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Memory Based
Answers & Solutions
Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The maximum marks
are 300.
(3) This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is
Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
(6) Section - A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(7) Section - B (21 – 30) contains 10 Numerical value based questions. The answer to each question
should be rounded off to the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and
–1 mark for wrong answer.
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
PHYSICS
SECTION - A R l d
= +2
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 R l d
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices = 0.3 %
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 4. 4 identical particles of mass m each are placed at 4
Choose the correct answer: corners of a square. The gravitational force exerted
1. The logical circuit shown below is equivalent to on one of the mass by other masses is
2 2 + 1 Gm 2
. The distance of side of square is :
32 l 2
(1) 2l (2) 4l
(1) NAND (2) NOR
l
(3) AND (4) OR (3) (4) l
2
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
Sol. Output, Y = A B = A + B
Sol.
2. The block M of mass 10 kg is having acceleration
2 m/s2 in the direction shown. Find mass (m) of the
other block.
Gm 2 1
FNet = 2
+ 2
(1) 2.5 kg (2) 7.5 kg a 2
(3) 12.5 kg (4) 5 kg
2 2 + 1 Gm 2
=
Answer (3) 2 a2
Sol. a =
( M sin53 − m sin37 ) g 2a2 = 32l2
(M + m ) a = 4l
m=
15
kg 5. T – V graph is given for two different pressures P1 &
2 P2. Then
3. If the percentage error in measuring length and
diameter of a wire is 0.1% each, then the percentage
error of the resistance of the wire is
(1) 0.3% (2) 0.2%
(3) 0.1% (4) 0.4%
Answer (1)
l
Sol. R =
A (1) P2 > P1 (2) P1 = P2
4l (3) P2 < P1 (4) P2 P1
R=
2
d Answer (1)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
dt 1 M1 + M2
= 2x + = (3)
dx v M2
1 M1
v= (4)
2x + M1 + M2
2 Answer (1)
vdv −1 1
Also, a = = 2
dx 2x + 2x + Sol. By conservation of momentum
−2 P1 = –P2
a=
( 2x + )3 K1 P12 2M2 M2
= =
K 2 2M1 P22 M1
= –2v3
9. The fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe is
a = −2v 3
equal to the frequency of first overtone of open organ
7. Two resistances having coefficient of variation of pipe of length 60 cm. The length of closed organ pipe
resistivity 1 and 2 are having equal resistance. is
Equivalent temperature coefficient of resistivity in (1) 45 cm
series and parallel carburation are. (2) 30 cm
1 + 2 (3) 15 cm
(1) , 1 + 2 (2) 1 + 2, 1 + 2
2
(4) 60 cm
1 + 2 + 2 1 + 2
(3) 1 + 2 , (4) 1 , Answer (3)
2 2 2
V V
Answer (4) Sol. = 2
4L1 2L2
Sol. R1 = R0(1 + 1T)
L1 = Length of closed organ pipe
R2 = R0(1 + 2T)
L2 = Length of open organ pipe
R0 (1 + 1T ) + R0 (1 + 2T ) – 2R0
s =
2R0T L2 = 4L1
+ 2 L
s = 1 L1 = 2 = 15 cm
2 4
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
10. When a small spherical ball is dropped into a long 12. Two charges q & 3q are placed at a distance r from
cylindrical pipe filled with glycerine, then what will be each other. Find the distance from q where electric
the v versus t graph? field is zero.
r r
(1) (2)
3 +1 2
(1) (2) r 2r
(3) (4)
3 −1 3
Answer (1)
kq k 3q
Sol. =
x 2
(r − x )2
(3) (4) r −x
x=
3
r
x=
Answer (3)
( 3 + 1)
Sol. F = mg − B − 6rv 13. The refractive index of thin prism of an apex angle A
A
Where B : Buoyancy is cot . Then the minimum angle of deviation is:
2
dv
m = ( mg − B ) − ( 6r ) v (1) 180° – 3A (2) 180° – 2A
dt
constant constant (3) 180° – A (4) 180° – 4A
15. When light of wavelength is incident on a metal, 17. Calculate the average energy density of an
the stopping potential is 8 V. If the wavelength is electromagnetic wave whose electric field is
made 3 the stopping potential becomes 2 V. Find oscillating with amplitude 50 v/m and frequency
5 × 1010 Hz.
the threshold wavelength for the photoelectric
effect. (1) 2 × 10–6 J/m3
(2) 1.1 × 10–8 J/m3
(1) 2.6 × 10–6 m
(3) 3 × 10–7 J/m3
(2) 2.8 × 10–7 m
(4) 1.6 × 10–7 J/m3
(3) 1.24 × 10–6 m
Answer (2)
(4) 1.24 × 10–7 m
1
Sol. Average energy density = 0 E02
Answer (3) 2
1
Sol. (8e) =
hc
− 0 …(i) = 8.85 10 –12 2500
2
= 1.106 × 10–8 J/m3
hc
(2e) − 0 …(ii) 18.
3
19.
0 = 1 eV
20.
th = 12400 Å
SECTION - B
th = 1.24 × 10–6 m Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
16. In YDSE, intensity at two sources are in ratio of 1 : 9. contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
If sources are coherent, then intensity at central point
integer.
is I1 and if sources are coherent (and phase differs by
I 21. A ball dropped from height H rebounds upto height
60°), then intensity at central point is I2, then 1 is h after colliding with horizontal surface. If coefficient
I2
1 H
10 of restitution for collision is e = then shall be
(1) 2 h
13
Answer (4)
5
(2) 1 2gh
13 Sol. Defn of e = =
2 2gH
8
(3) 1 h
13 =
4 H
7
(4) 4
11
22. Find equivalent resistance between A and B for
Answer (1)
given circuit in ohms.
Sol. I1 = 1 + 9 = 10
I2 = 1 + 9 + 2 9 cos 60 = 13
I1 10
=
I3 13 Answer (1)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
2, 2 are parallel 1 d
Induced emf (e) = – N
dt
1 & 2 in series = 3
1000
22 = N 2 10 –3
2
1
Re q = ( 3 ) = 1
3 N = 22
23. A uniform disk of mass 50 kg is rolling with speed 26. A parallel plate capacitor with plates separated by
5 mm then it draws current of I0 from AC source.
of 0.4 m/s. Find minimum energy (in J) required to
1 1 mr 2 2 Answer (2)
Sol. KE = mv 2 +
2 2 2
Sol.
3
K= mv 2
4
3
= 50 (4) (0.4)
4
=6J
i = 0c
30.
Answer (22)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
v
CHEMISTRY
(3) SnO2 and PbO2 Sol. Conductivity of electrolytic cell is affected by Conc.
of electrolyte, nature of electrolyte and temperature
(4) CO and SiO
5. Decreasing order of electron gain enthalpy of the
Answer (3)
following elements (magnitude only).
Sol. SnO2 and PbO2 are amphoteric oxide.
Sulphur A
SiO is weakly acidic oxide.
Bromine B
SiO2 is acidic oxide. Fluorine C
CO is neutral oxide. Argon D
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
(1) A > B > C > D (2) D > C > B > A Sol. A(g) B(g) + C(g)
(3) C > B > A > D (4) A > B > D > C At t = 0 pi atm 0 atm 0 atm
Answer (3) At t = t (pi – x) atm x atm x atm
Sol. Electron gain enthalpy values in kJ/mol where pi is initial pressure
S = –200 pt = pi – x + x + x
Br = –325 pt = pi + x
F = –333 x = pt – p i
Ar = 96 2.303 p
k log i
The correct answer is C > B > A > D t pi x
(3) Free radical (4) Nitrene 9. Assertion : pKa value of phenol is 10.0 while that
of ethanol is 15.9
Answer (2)
Reason : Ethanol is stronger acid than phenol
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and
Sol. reason is the correct explanation for assertion
Carbon has 6 electrons in valence shell. (2) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect
7. The compound which is white in colour is (3) Both assertion and reason are correct but
reason is not correct explanation for assertion
(1) ZnSO4 (2) CuSO4
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
(3) FeSO4 (4) FeCl3
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
Sol. Since pKa of phenol is less than ethanol, phenol is
Sol. Zn2+ : 4s0 3d10 (Colourless)
the stronger acid.
8. Find the rate constant for first order gaseous
10. Which of the following solution shows positive
reaction.
deviation from Raoult’s law?
A(g) B(g) + C(g)
(1) CHCl3 + C6H6
2.303 pi
(1) k log (2) CH3COCH3 + CS2
t 2pi p t
(3) CH3COCH3 + CHCl3
2.303 2pi
(2) k log (4) CH3COCH3 + C6H5NH2
t pi p t
Answer (2)
2.303 p pt
(3) k log i
t 2pi Sol. Acetone and CS2 is an example of solutions
showing positive deviation from Raoult’s law. Since
2.303 2p t
(4) k log acetone – CS2 attractions are weaker than acetone-
t 2pi p t
acetone attractions.
Answer (1)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
11. Assertion (A): Noble gases have very high boiling Sol. Adsorption principle is used in chromatography in
point. which different compounds are adsorbed on an
Reason (R): Noble gases have strong dispersion adsorbent to different degrees.
forces hence they liquify at low temperature, hence 14.
they have high boiling point. 15.
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) 16.
(2) (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A) 17.
(3) (A) and (R) are false 18.
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false 19.
Answer (3) 20.
Sol. Noble gases have very low boiling point due to SECTION - B
weak van der Waals forces of attraction. Noble Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
gases do not have interatomic forces other than contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
weak dispersion forces. each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
Therefore, both (A) and (R) are false. integer.
12. Statement-I: IUPAC name of compound 21. How many of the following compounds have sp3
hybridized central atom?
is H2O, NH3, SiO2, SO2, CO, BF3
7-hydroxyheptan-2-one.
Answer (3)
Statement-II: In IUPAC name –OH is taken as
Sol. H2O, NH3, SiO2 have sp3 hybridized central atom.
main functional group.
Structure of SiO2 is
(1) Both statements I and II are correct
(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Answer (28)
13. Adsorption principle is used in
Sol. NH3 acts as WFL with Ni+2 and hybridisation of
(1) Distillation
complex [Ni(NH3)6]2+ is sp3d2
(2) Differential extraction
Ni+2 = 3d8
(3) Chromatography
(4) Vacuum distillation
Answer (3)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
No. of unpaired electron = 2 27. How many of the following can be used as electrode
in batteries?
= n(n 2) 2(4) 8
(i) Zinc
= 2.82
(ii) Zinc-Mercury amalgam
= 28.2 × 10–1 BM x = 28
(iii) Lead
23. If one Faraday of electricity is used in the (iv) Graphite
discharging of Cu2+, then find the mass (in g) of Cu Answer (4)
deposited (Nearest integer) Sol. All 4 given species can be used as electrode in
Answer (32) batteries.
25. Moles of CH4 required for formation of 22 gm of CO2 (i) Chromate ion is square planar.
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A Sol.
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
x 10. ABCD is a parallelogram where A(, ), B = (1, 0),
ln = y
y C(, ) and D(3, 2) and AB = 10 . The value of 2(
+ + + ) is equal to
x
loge = y as y > 0 (1) 8 (2) 10
y
(3) 12 (4) 16
4x + 3 Answer (3)
8. If f(x) = and g(x) = f(f(x)),
6x − 4 Sol.
then g(g(g(g(x)))) = ?
(1) x (2) 2x
(3) –x (4) – 2x
Answer (1)
4x + 3
Sol. f ( x ) = Using mid point formula
6x − 4
+=4
g(x) = f(f(x))
+=2
4x + 3
4 +3
6x − 4 16x + 12 + 18x − 12 +++=6
= = 2( + + + ) = 12
4 x + 3 24 x + 18 − 24x + 16
6 −4
6x − 4 11. Let g(x) be a linear function and
34x g ( x ), x 0
= =x
f ( x ) = x + 1 x
1
34 , iscontinuous at x =0.
, x 0
g(g(g(g(x)))) = x x + 2
x3 2x 2 + 1 1 + 3 x If f(1) = f(–1) then the value of g(3)is
2 3
9. If f ( x ) = 3 x + 2 2x x + 6 , then the value of 4
4
1 1 1
x3 − x 4 x2 − 2 (1) log e 9 + 1 (2) log e 9e 3
3 3
2f(0) + f(0) is equal to 4
4
13
9 9e
(1) 18 (2) 54 (3) loge –1 (4) log e
(3) 48 (4) 42 Answer (4)
Answer (4) Sol. Let g(x) = px + q
2 2
3x 2x + 1 1 + 3 x Since f(x) is continuous at x = 0
Sol. f ( x ) = 3
6x 2x x +6 + x +1
1
x
2 2 g (0) = lim+ =0
3x − 1 4 x −2 x →0 x + 2
g(x) = px (q = 0)
x3 4x 1 + 3x x3 2x 2 + 1 3
Now, f(1) = f(–1)
3x 2 + 2 2 x3 + 6 + 3x 2 + 2 2x 3x 2 1
1+ x x
3
x −x 0 x −2 2 3
x −x 4 2x y =
2+ x
0 1 1 1 1+ x
ln y =
x 2 + x
ln
Now, f (0) = 2 0 6 = 12
0 4 −2 1 –1 1 + x 1 1 ( x + 2) – ( x + 1)
dy = 2 ln +
0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 3 y x 2 + x x 1+ x (2 + x )2
2+ x
and f (0) = 0 0 6 + 2 2 6 + 2 0 0
–1 4 −2 0 0 −2 0 4 0 at x = 1
= –6 + 0 + 24 = 18 2 2 3 1
f (1) = –ln +
2f(0) + f(0) = 2 × 12 + 18 = 42 3 3 2 9
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
–2 2 1 13. If denotes the number of real solutions of (1 – i)x
+
3 3 9
= ln
|z|
= 2x and = ,
arg z
–2 2 1
f (–1) = –P = ln +
3 3 9 1 − i −i
where z = (1 + i )4 + , i = −1
2 2 1 4 + i 1 + i
p= ln –
3 3 9 then distance of (, ) from the line 4x – 3y – 7 = 0
2 1 4
g(3) = 3p = 2ln – = ln + log e
( ) –1
3
is
3 3
9 (1) 2 (2) 3
4 (3) 7 (4) 4
ln 1 Answer (2)
9e 3
12. The distance of the point Q(0, 2, –2) from the line 1+ + + 1
Sol. z = (1 + i )4
passing through the P(5, –4, 3) and perpendicular 4 i (1 + ) − +
to the lines r = (−3iˆ + 2kˆ ) + (2iˆ + 3 jˆ + 5kˆ ), R
2 (1 + i )4 −
and r = (iˆ − 2 jˆ + kˆ ) + (−iˆ + 3 jˆ + 2kˆ ), R is = (1 + i )4 = = i (1 + i )4
4 (i ) 2 i 2
(1) 66
| z |= − | i || 1 + i |4 = (1)( 2)4 = 2
(2) 74 2 2
(3) 56 −
z= (−4i ) = 2i arg( z) =
(4) 46 2 2
Answer (2) 2
= =4
iˆ ˆj kˆ
2
Sol. = 2 3 5 = iˆ(6 − 15) − ˆj (4 + 5) + kˆ(6 + 3)
Also, (1 – i)x = 2x
−1 3 2
Taking modulus both sides
= −9iˆ − 9 jˆ + 9kˆ
( 2) ( 2)
x x
= 2x =0
x −5 y +4 z −3
Required line (L) : = = =
1 1 −1 at x = 0
x = + 5, y = − 4, z = 3 − 1 solution = 1
Perpendicular distance from (1, 4)
4(1) − 3(4) − 7 4 − 12 − 7
= =3
5 5
14. Let S be the set of positive integral values of ‘a’ for
ax 2 + 2 ( a + 1) x + 9a + 4
which 0 x
x 2 − 8x + 32
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (31-01-2024)-Morning
(3, 2) R 24. If the system of linear equation x – 2y + z = – 4, 2x
+ y + 3z = 5 & 3x – y + z = 3 has infinitely many
(2, 4) R
solutions then 12 + 13 is equal to
then (3, 4) R then (4, 3) R (for symmetric)
Answer (58)
so set S = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (1, 2), (2, 1),
Sol. x – 2y + z = – 4
(2, 3), (3, 2), (2, 4), (4, 2), (1, 3), (3, 1), (1, 4), (4,
1), (3, 4), (4, 3)} 2x + y + 3z = 5
n = 13 1 −4 1
23. If | a | = 1, | b | = 4 are a b = 2 2 = 2 5 3 = 0
3 3
also, c = (3a b) − b and is the angle between
(5 – 9) + 4(2 – 9) – 9 = 0
b and c then the value of 192sin2.
13 = 54
Answer (167)
54
Sol. | c |2 = 9(| a b |)2 + | b |2 + 0 =
13
| c |2 = 9(16 − 4) + 16
1 −2 −4
3 = 2 5 = 0
{ | a b |2 = | a |2| b |2 − (a b )2 }
3 −1 3
| c |2 = 124
(3 + 5) + 2(–9) – 4(–2 – 3) = 0
| c | = 124
3 + 5 –18 + 8 + 12 = 0
c = (3(a b)) − b
1
=
2 3
c b = − | b | = − 16
4 25.
sin = 1 −
31
26.
27
sin = 27.
31
28.
27
Then, 192sin2 = 192
31 29.
167.2 30.
❑ ❑ ❑
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