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Q.1) With reference to the recommendations of the ʻGadgil Committeeʼ constituted in
India for the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), consider the following statements:
1. It envisaged the establishment of a State Election Commission for the conduction
of elections to the Panchayats.
2. It recommended that the members of the Panchayats at all three levels should be
directly elected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.2) Which of the following is/are the objectives of the ʻPanchayats (Extension to the
Scheduled Areas)ʼ Act, 1996?
1. It aims to extend the provisions of Part IX-A of the Constitution to the Scheduled
areas with certain modifications.
2. It aims to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of Tribal
communities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.3) With reference to Panchayat Elections, consider the following statements:
1. State Legislatures may make provisions with respect to all the matters related to
elections of Panchayats.
2. No election to any panchayat is to be questioned except by an election petition
presented to such authority and in such manner as provided by the Governor of
State.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.4) Assertion: Lord Riponʼs Resolution of 1882 was hailed as the ʻMagna Cartaʼ of
local government.
Reason: Lord Ripon is regarded as the ʻfather of local self-government in India
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Q.5) Consider the following statements about the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee:
1. It called for the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj System.
2. The Panchayat Samiti and Zila Parishad should be constituted by directly elected
members.
3. The District Collector should be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q.6) Which of the following are true of the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta
Committee on Panchayati Raj?
1. Creation of Mandal Panchayat covering a population of 10,000 to 15,000.
2. The state legislature has a committee on Panchayati Raj to look after the needs of
weaker sections.
3. If Panchayati Raj institutions are superseded, elections must be held within one year.
4. Nyaya Panchayats should be presided over by the village development officer.
A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. only 2
Q.7) Which of the following Parts of the Indian Constitution envisages a grass root
level democracy in India?
1. Part IV
2. Part IV-A
3. Part IX
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding the history of Panchayats in India:
1. Self-governing village communities were created in India during ancient times in
the form of ʻsabhasʼ.
2. Elected local government bodies were created after 1882 called Local Boards.
3. Under the Government of India Act, 1919, local self-government became a Federal
List subject.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q.9) Consider the following statements:
1. The 65th Constitutional Amendment Bill was passed in Rajya Sabha during the
Prime Ministership of Rajiv Gandhi.
2. The Twelfth Schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the 74th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.10) Which of the following is the subject matter of the Eleventh Schedule?

A. Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats

B. Powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities.
C. Provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State
Legislatures.
D. Languages recognized by the Constitution.
Q.11) Which of the following Constitutional Amendments gave Constitutional Status
to the cooperative societies?

A. 24th Constitutional Amendment Act

B. 62nd Constitutional Amendment Act
C. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act
D. 99th Constitutional Amendment Act
Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding the Inner Line Permit:
1. The Inner Line Permit is applicable in Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, and
Assam.
2. The concept originates from the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act (BEFR),
1873.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.13) Consider the following statements with regards to the ʻPanchayati Raj Systemʼ
in India.
1. The Constitution of India mandates the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes
(Sc), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and Other Backward Classes (OBC) in the panchayat
elections in proportion to their population.
2. The reservation of seats in favour of Scheduled Castes (Sc), Scheduled Tribes (ST)
and Other Backward Classes (OBC) shall not exceed 50% of the total seats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.14) Under which of the following conditions, the UPSC can serve the needs of a
state?
1. When requested by the President
2. When requested by the Governor
3. With the approval of Parliament
4. With the approval of President
5. With the approval of the concerned state legislature.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 5
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 5
Q.15) With reference to ʻGram Nyayalayas Actʼ in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Nyayadhikari is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High
Court.
2. The Gram Nyayalaya can try criminal cases only.
3. The Gram Nyayalaya is bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 3 only
Q.16) Who provides for the adjudication concerning disputes of recruitment and
conditions of service of persons appointed to public services?
1. Council of States
2. Inter-State Council
3. Union Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
4. Parliament
5. Council of Ministers
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2, 3 and 5 only
B. 2, 4 and 3 only
C. 4 only
D. 3, 2 and 1 only
Q.17) Which of the following are the differences between Articles 323 A and 323 B?
1. Article 323 A contemplates the establishment of tribunals for different matters like
taxation, and Article 323 B contemplates the establishment of tribunals for public
service matters only.
2. Under Article 323 A, only one Tribunal for the Centre and one for each State or two
or more states may be established, whereas, under Article 323B, a hierarchy of
tribunals may be created.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.18) Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India.
2. The Conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and
the Regional Commissioners are determined by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding the Cooperative Societies in India:
1. The maximum number of Directors of a Co-operative Society cannot be more than
Ten.
2. The co-opted Members of a Cooperative Societyʼs Board are eligible to be elected
as Office Bearers.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.20) Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Constitution does not fix the number of members of the UPSC.
2. One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under
the Government of India or of a state at least for five years.
3. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of five years or until
they attain the age of 60 years.
4. The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are determined by the
Parliament.
5. The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
A. 2, 4 and 5
B. 1 and 5
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 4 and 5
Q.1) With reference to the recommendations of the ʻGadgil Committeeʼ constituted in
India for the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), consider the following statements:
1. It envisaged the establishment of a State Election Commission for the conduction
of elections to the Panchayats.
2. It recommended that the members of the Panchayats at all three levels should be
directly elected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Solution - C
Explanation -
● The Committee on Policy and Programmes was constituted in 1988 by the
Congress party under the chairmanship of V.N. Gadgil. This Committee was asked
to consider the question of “how best Panchayati Raj institutions could be made
effective”. Establishment of a State Election Commission for the conduction of
elections to the Panchayats. (Statement 1 is correct)
● The term of Panchayati Raj Institutions should be fixed at five years. The members
of the Panchayats at all three levels should be directly elected. (Statement 2 is
correct)
Q.2) Which of the following is/are the objectives of the ʻPanchayats (Extension to the
Scheduled Areas)ʼ Act, 1996?
1. It aims to extend the provisions of Part IX-A of the Constitution to the Scheduled
areas with certain modifications.
2. It aims to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of Tribal
communities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Solution - B
Explanation -
● Some of the objectives of the ʻPanchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas)ʼ Act,
1996 are:
● Extending Constitutionʼs Part IX provisions which are related to the Panchayats to the
Scheduled areas with certain modifications. (Statement 1 is not correct)
● Providing self-rule for the bulk of the Tribal population.
● To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make the Gram
Sabha a nucleus of all activities.
● Evolving a suitable administrative framework consistent with traditional practices.
● Safeguarding and preserving the traditions and customs of Tribal communities.
(Statement 2 is correct)
Q.3) With reference to Panchayat Elections, consider the following statements:
1. State Legislatures may make provisions with respect to all the matters related to
elections of Panchayats.
2. No election to any panchayat is to be questioned except by an election petition
presented to such authority and in such manner as provided by the Governor of
State.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Solution - B
Explanation -
● According to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, the State legislature
may make provisions with respect to all matters relating to elections to the
panchayats.So, Statement 1 is correct
● The Act bars interference by courts in the electoral matters of panchayats. It
declares that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies
or the allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in any court.
● It further lays down that no election to any panchayat is to be questioned except
by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as
provided by the State Legislature. (Statement 2 is not correct)
Q.4) Assertion: Lord Riponʼs Resolution of 1882 was hailed as the ʻMagna Cartaʼ of
local government.
Reason: Lord Ripon is regarded as the ʻfather of local self-government in India
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
 Solution - B
Explanation -
● Lord Ripon is known for the Resolution of 1882, which would give Indians the right
to local self-government but that doesnot give him the status of father of local self
governance.
● It was the constitutional amendment act 73 which gave formal recognition to local
self government
Q.5) Consider the following statements about the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee:
1. It called for the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj System.
2. The Panchayat Samiti and Zila Parishad should be constituted by directly elected
members.
3. The District Collector should be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
 Solution - C
Explanation -
● Establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayats in villages,
Panchayat Samitis in blocks, and Zila Parishads in districts. (Statement 1 is correct)
● The Panchayat Samiti and Zila Parishad should be constituted by Indirectly
elected members. (statment 2 is incorrect)
● Statement 3 is correct :The District Collector should be the Chairman of the Zila
Parishad.
Q.6) Which of the following are true of the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta
Committee on Panchayati Raj?
1. Creation of Mandal Panchayat covering a population of 10,000 to 15,000.
2. The state legislature has a committee on Panchayati Raj to look after the needs of
weaker sections.
3. If Panchayati Raj institutions are superseded, elections must be held within one year.
4. Nyaya Panchayats should be presided over by the village development officer.
A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 2
 Solution
Explanation -
- D
Its main recommendations were:
1. The three-tier system of Panchayati raj should be replaced by the two-tier
system, that is, zila parishad at the district level, and below it, the mandal
panchayat consisting of a group of villages with a total population of 15,000 to
20,000.
2. A district should be the first point for decentralisation under popular supervision
below the state level.
3. Zila parishad should be the executive body and made responsible for planning
at the district level. Hence it doesnot talk about statement 1,3,4 . Only statement 2
is correct
Q.7) Which of the following Parts of the Indian Constitution envisages a grass root
level democracy in India?
1. Part IV
2. Part IV-A
3. Part IX
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
 Solution - C
Explanation -
● Article 40 of Part IV of the Indian Constitution got a practical shape by the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. Article 40 envisages the organisation of
village panchayats and endows them with the necessary powers and authority to
enable them to function as units of self government . hence statement 2 is
incorrect.
Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding the history of Panchayats in India:
1. Self-governing village communities were created in India during ancient times in
the form of ʻsabhasʼ.
2. Elected local government bodies were created after 1882 called Local Boards.
3. Under the Government of India Act, 1919, local self-government became a Federal
List subject.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
 Solution - C
Explanation -
● Statement 1 is correct- Self-governing village communities existed in India from the
earliest times, in the form of ʻsabhasʼ (village assemblies). In the course of time, these
village bodies took the shape of Panchayats (an assembly of five persons), and these
Panchayats resolved issues at the village level. Sabha and Samiti were two assemblies
that are mentioned by the Rigveda and Atharvaveda as also the Chandogya Upanishad.
● Statement 2 is correct- In modern times, elected local government bodies were created
after 1882. Lord Rippon, who was the Viceroy of India at that time, took the initiative in
creating these bodies. They were called local boards. Lord Riponʼs Resolution of 1882
has been hailed as the ʻMagna Cartaʼ of local self-government. He is called the father of
local-self-government in India
Q.9) Consider the following statements:
1. The 65th Constitutional Amendment Bill was passed in Rajya Sabha during the
Prime Ministership of Rajiv Gandhi.
2. The Twelfth Schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the 74th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Solution - A
Explanation -
● Statement 1 is not correct: The Rajiv Gandhi government tabled the 65th
Constitutional Amendment Bill (also known as the Nagarpalika Bill) in the Lok
Sabha in August 1989. It aims at giving the Constitutional status to the municipal
bodies to strengthen them. Despite being passed by the Lok Sabha, the Bill was
rejected in the Rajya Sabha in October 1989 and therefore lapsed
Q.10) Which of the following is the subject matter of the Eleventh Schedule?

A. Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats

B. Powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities.
C. Provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State
Legislatures.
D. Languages recognized by the Constitution.
 Solution - A
Explanation -
● The 73rd Constitutional Amendment granted constitutional status and protection
to the Panchayati raj institutions. For this purpose, the Amendment has added a
new Part-IX entitled ʻthe panchayatsʼ and a new Eleventh Schedule. The Schedule
Specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats. It has 29
matters
Q.11) Which of the following Constitutional Amendments gave Constitutional Status
to the cooperative societies?

A. 24th Constitutional Amendment Act

B. 62nd Constitutional Amendment Act
C. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act
D. 99th Constitutional Amendment Act
 Solution - C
Explanation -
● The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave constitutional status and
protection to cooperative societies. In this context, it made the following three
changes in the Constitution: 1. It made the right to form cooperative societies a
fundamental right (Article 19). 2. It included a new Directive Principle of State
Policy on the promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43-B). 3. It added a new
Part IX-B in the Constitution, which is entitled “The Cooperative Societies” (Articles
243-ZH to 243-ZT).
Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding the Inner Line Permit:
1. The Inner Line Permit is applicable in Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, and
Assam.
2. The concept originates from the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act (BEFR),
1873.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Solution - B
Explanation -
● Statement 1 is not correct:
● A concept drawn by colonial rulers, the Inner Line separated the tribal-populated
hill areas in the Northeast from the plains. To enter and stay for any period in these
areas, Indian citizens from other areas need an Inner Line Permit (ILP). The Inner
Line protects Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram, and Manipur was added
later.
● Statement 2 is correct:
● The concept originates from the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act (BEFR),
1873. The policy of exclusion first came about as a response to the reckless
expansion of British entrepreneurs into new lands, which threatened British
political relations with the hill tribes
Q.13) Consider the following statements with regards to the ʻPanchayati Raj Systemʼ
in India.
1. The Constitution of India mandates the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes
(Sc), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and Other Backward Classes (OBC) in the panchayat
elections in proportion to their population.
2. The reservation of seats in favour of Scheduled Castes (Sc), Scheduled Tribes (ST)
and Other Backward Classes (OBC) shall not exceed 50% of the total seats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Solution - B
Explanation -
● The 73rd constitutional amendment, passed in 1992, mandated the creation of a 3
tier panchayat structure in rural India. Statement 1 is not correct
● And statement 2 is correct: The Constitution of India mandates the reservation of
seats in favour of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in proportion to
their population.
Q.14) Under which of the following conditions, the UPSC can serve the needs of a
state?
1. When requested by the President
2. When requested by the Governor
3. With the approval of Parliament
4. With the approval of President
5. With the approval of the concerned state legislature.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 5
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 5
 Solution - C
Explanation -
● The UPSC presents, annually, to the president a report on its performance. The
President places this report before both the Houses of Parliament, along with a
memorandum explaining the cases where the advice of the Commission was not
accepted and the reasons for such non-acceptance.
Q.15) With reference to ʻGram Nyayalayas Actʼ in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Nyayadhikari is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High
Court.
2. The Gram Nyayalaya can try criminal cases only.
3. The Gram Nyayalaya is bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 3 only
 Solution - C
Explanation -
● The Gram Nyayalaya shall be the Court of Judicial Magistrate of the first class. In
consultation with the High Court, The Presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) shall be
appointed by the State Government. (Statement 1 is correct)
● The Gram Nyayalaya shall try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes which
are specified in the first and second schedule of the Act. (Statement 2 is not
correct)
Q.16) Who provides for the adjudication concerning disputes of recruitment and
conditions of service of persons appointed to public services?
1. Council of States
2. Inter-State Council
3. Union Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
4. Parliament
5. Council of Ministers
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2, 3 and 5 only
B. 2, 4 and 3 only
C. 4 only
D. 3, 2 and 1 only
 Solution - C
Explanation -
● Part XIVA Tribunals: According to the Article 323A of the Constitution of India, the
Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication or trial by administrative
tribunals of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of
service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the
affairs of the Union or of any State or of any local or other authority within the
territory of India. Parliament consists of the President and both Houses, i.e., Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Q.17) Which of the following are the differences between Articles 323 A and 323 B?
1. Article 323 A contemplates the establishment of tribunals for different matters like
taxation, and Article 323 B contemplates the establishment of tribunals for public
service matters only.
2. Under Article 323 A, only one Tribunal for the Centre and one for each State or two
or more states may be established, whereas, under Article 323B, a hierarchy of
tribunals may be created.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Solution - B
Explanation -
● Statement 1 is not correct: While Article 323 A contemplates the establishment of tribunals
for public service matters only, Article 323 B contemplates the establishment of tribunals
for the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters:
● Taxation
● Foreign exchange, import and export
● Industrial and labour
● Land reforms
● Ceiling on urban property
● Elections to Parliament and state legislatures
● Foodstuff
● Rent and tenancy rights
Q.18) Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India.
2. The Conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and
the Regional Commissioners are determined by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Solution - B
Explanation -
● The President shall make the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and
other Election Commissioners. (Statement 1 is correct)
Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding the Cooperative Societies in India:
1. The maximum number of Directors of a Co-operative Society cannot be more than
Ten.
2. The co-opted Members of a Cooperative Societyʼs Board are eligible to be elected
as Office Bearers.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Solution - C
Explanation -
● Statement 1 is not correct: The Board of Cooperative Society contains such a number of
Directors as may be provided by the State Legislature. However, the maximum number of
Directors of a Cooperative society shall not exceed twenty-one.
● Statement 2 is true. The election of Directors and delegates shall take place at the General
Meeting called for the purpose. Where a Board fails to arrange for holding election before
the expiry of the term of the Board or delegates or where there are no Directors remaining
on the Board, the Registrar shall convene a General Meeting by appointing an Officer of
the Cooperative Department for Constitution of the Board within ninety days from the
date of such appointment and the officer so appointed shall perform all functions of the
Board during the said period of ninety days at the cost of the Society.
Q.20) Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Constitution does not fix the number of members of the UPSC.
2. One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under
the Government of India or of a state at least for five years.
3. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of five years or until
they attain the age of 60 years.
4. The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are determined by the
Parliament.
5. The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
A. 2, 4 and 5
B. 1 and 5
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 4 and 5
 Solution - B
Explanation -
● The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years
or until they attain the age of 62 years, , whichever is earlier (in the case of UPSC,
the age limit is 65 years). However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by
addressing their resignation to the governor. The acting chairman functions till the
person appointed as chairman enters on the duties of the office or till the
chairman is able to resume his duties.
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