2018/19-ME

PHY
Please stick the barcode label here.
PAPER 2

YOUTH NEW WORLD

2018/19 MOCK EXAMINATION FOR U

Candidate Number

PHYSICS PAPER 2

Question-Answer Book

12.00 pm – 13.00 pm (1 hour)

This paper must be answered in English

INSTRUCTIONS

(1) After the announcement of the start of the examination, you

should first write your Candidate Number in the space
provided on Page 1 and stick barcode labels in the spaces
provided on Page 1.

(2) This paper consists of FOUR sections, Sections A, B, C

and D. Each section contains eight multiple-choice
questions and one structured question which carries
10 marks. Attempt ALL questions in any TWO sections.

(3) Write your answers to the structured questions in the

ANSWER BOOK provided. For multiple-choice questions,
blacken the appropriate circle with an HB pencil. You
should mark only ONE answer for each question. If you
mark more than one answer, you will receive NO MARKS
for that question.

(4) Graph paper and supplementary answer sheets will be

provided on request. Write your candidate number, mark
the question number box and stick a barcode label on each
sheet, and fasten them with string INSIDE the Answer
Book.

(5) The Question-Answer Book and Answer Book will be

collected SEPARATELY at the end of the examination.

(6) The diagrams in this paper are NOT necessarily drawn to

scale.

(7) The last two pages of this Question-Answer Book contain a

list of data, formulae and relationships which you may find
useful.

(8) No extra time will be given to candidates for sticking on the

barcode labels or filling in the question number boxes after
the ‘Time is up’ announcement.

© 青年新世界 保留版權
Youth New World
All Rights Reserved 2019

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-1 1
Section A : Astronomy and Space Science
Q.1: Multiple-choice questions

1.1 Which of the following units of length is the largest?

A. astronomical unit A B C D
B. light year
C. kilometre ○ ○ ○ ○
D. parsec

1.2 Which of the following statements about the Ptolemaic geocentric model is/are INCORRECT?

(1) All the planets move in circular orbits with the Earth at the centre.
(2) All the planets move uniformly in circular orbits named epicycles.
(3) It is far less accurate in predicting the planets’ positions than the Copernican heliocentric model.

A. (1) only A B C D
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only ○ ○ ○ ○
D. (2) and (3) only

1.3 A planet moves around a star in an elliptical orbit as shown.

Q

P R
star

At which of the following positions is the kinetic energy of the planet the largest?

A. P
B. Q A B C D
C. R
D. The kinetic energy of the planet remains constant throughout the ○ ○ ○ ○
motion.

1.4 In which of the following situations are an astronaut inside the spacecraft experiences a state of ‘weightlessness’?

(1) The spacecraft is orbiting the Moon without firing its engine.
(2) The spacecraft is falling freely onto the Moon.
(3) The spacecraft is falling onto the Earth while experiencing air resistance.

A. (1) and (2) only A B C D

B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only ○ ○ ○ ○
D. (1), (2) and (3)

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-2 2
1.5 Given that the escape velocity at the Moon’s surface is v. An unpowered spacecraft is orbiting the Moon at a speed
of 0.5v in a circular orbit. What is the speed needed by the spacecraft to escape from the Moon’s gravitational pull?

A. 0.5v A B C D
B. 0.707v
C. 0.75v ○ ○ ○ ○
D. v

1.6 A nearby star is photographed at a half-year interval. It is observed that the star has shifted for an angle of 1.45″
against the background stars. Find the distance of the star to the Earth.

A. 0.344 pc A B C D
B. 0.690 pc
C. 1.38 pc ○ ○ ○ ○
D. 2.76 pc

1.7 The figure below shows some information of stars X, Y and Z.

luminosity (solar luminosity)

106 X
4
10
2
10
1
10−2
−4 Y Z
10

40000 20000 10000 5000 2000

temperature (K)

Which of the following best identifies the type of each star?

X Y Z
A. white dwarf main-sequence star red supergiant A B C D
B. red supergiant main-sequence star white dwarf
C. red supergiant white dwarf main-sequence star ○ ○ ○ ○
D. white dwarf red supergiant main-sequence star

1.8 Which of the following statements about the expansion of the universe is/are correct?

(1) Most of the distant galaxies are moving away from us.
(2) The universe is expanding as all galaxies are expanding.
(3) The universe is expanding at a constant rate.

A. (1) only A B C D
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only ○ ○ ○ ○
D. (2) and (3) only

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-3 3 Go on to the next page

Q.1: Structured question

The data of a star X is shown below.

radius: 8.20 × 108 km

surface temperature: 3590 K
apparent magnitude: 0.50
absolute magnitude: −5.85
radial velocity: +21.91 km s–1

(a) The luminosity L of a star is related to its radius R and surface temperature T by

L = 4πR2σT4

(i) State the Stefan’s law. Hence, deduce the above formula. (2 marks)

(ii) Calculate the luminosity of star X using the above formula. (1 mark)

(b) A star Y has an apparent magnitude of −1.46 and an absolute magnitude of +1.42.

(i) Describe the difference between apparent magnitude and absolute magnitude. (2 marks)

(ii) Which star is closer to the Earth, X or Y? Explain your answer. (2 marks)

(c) The radial velocity is calculated by observing the Doppler shift in the spectrum of a star. Note that the direction
away from the Earth is taken as positive.

(i) Describe what Doppler shift is. (1 mark)

(ii) Given that the wavelength of the Balmer Hα spectral line observed in the laboratory is 656 nm. Using the data
provided, calculate the Doppler shift of the Balmer Hα spectral line observed in the spectrum of star X. State
whether the shift is a red shift or a blue shift. (2 marks)

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-4 4
Section B : Atomic World
Q.2: Multiple-choice questions

2.1 What is the work function of a metal?

A. the minimum energy to remove one mole of electrons from the metal surface
B. the maximum energy to remove one mole of electrons from the metal surface
C. the minimum energy to remove one electron from the metal surface
D. the maximum energy to remove one electron from the metal surface

A B C D

○ ○ ○ ○

2.2 In a photoelectric effect experiment, a beam of ultraviolet radiation of frequency 2 × 1015 Hz falls onto the metal
plate of a photocell, forming a photoelectric current. The photoelectric current is dropped to zero when the potential
difference across the electrodes of the photocell is increased to 1.87 V. Find the work function of the metal plate of
the photocell.

A. 1.87 eV
A B C D
B. 6.42 eV
C. 8.29 eV ○ ○ ○ ○
D. 10.3 eV

2.3 When a beam of monochromatic light is incident on a metal plate, photoelectric effect takes place. Which of the
following statements is/are correct?

(1) Each of the electrons emitted must have the same de Broglie wavelength.
(2) Each of the electrons emitted must have absorbed the same amount of energy from the light beam.
(3) Each of the electrons emitted must have energy smaller than the work function of the metal plate.

A. (1) only A B C D
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (2) only ○ ○ ○ ○
D. (2) and (3) only

2.4 Which of the following statements about spectra is/are correct?

(1) A monochromatic neon lamp emits a continuous spectrum.

(2) A tungsten-filament lamp emits a continuous spectrum.
(3) The spectrum of the Sun contains discrete dark lines.

A. (1) only A B C D
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only ○ ○ ○ ○
D. (2) and (3) only

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-5 5 Go on to the next page

2.5 When the electron in a hydrogen atom transits to a higher energy level, which of the following quantities will
increase?

(1) the total energy of the electron

(2) the radius of the electron’s orbit
(3) the angular momentum of the electron

A. (3) only A B C D
B. (1) and (2) only
C. (2) and (3) only ○ ○ ○ ○
D. (1), (2) and (3)

2.6 When a student observes a sample using an optical microscope with a light source of wavelength 500 nm, the
angular resolution is 6 × 10–5 rad. He then switches to a light source of wavelength 650 nm. What is the new
angular resolution?

A. 2.3 × 10–5 rad A B C D

B. 3.9 × 10–5 rad
C. 4.6 × 10–5 rad ○ ○ ○ ○
D. 7.8 × 10–5 rad

2.7 Which of the following items CANNOT make use of the Lotus effect?

A. a self-cleaning T-shirt
A B C D
B. a water-proof paint
C. a pair of anti-glare sunglasses ○ ○ ○ ○
D. a water-repellent umbrella

2.8 The tip of the probe of a scanning tunnelling microscope (STM) scans over a surface at a constant height as shown.

tip
P Q R S

atoms at the surface

The tip moves gradually from point P to point S. At which point is the tunnelling current the largest?

A. P A B C D
B. Q
C. R ○ ○ ○ ○
D. S

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-6 6
Q.2: Structured question

The figure below shows the energy levels of a hydrogen atom.

energy / eV

3rd excited state 0.85

2nd excited state ?

Figure 2.1 1st excited state 3.4

ground state 13.6

NOT drawn to scale

(a) Find the energy value (in eV) of the 2nd excited state. (1 mark)

(b) Find the orbital radius and the corresponding angular momentum of an electron at the 2nd excited state.
(Given: radius of an electron at the ground state = 5.29 × 10−11 m) (3 marks)

(c) Suppose the electron in a hydrogen atom absorbs a photon and jumps from the ground state to the 3rd excited state.
Copy the energy level diagram in Figure 2.1 to your answer book and draw arrow(s) to illustrate ALL possible
subsequent electron transitions leading to emission of photons by the excited atom. (2 marks)

(d) The figure below shows the hydrogen emission spectrum.

wavelength increases
Lyman series Balmer series Paschen series

(i) According to Bohr’s model, the Balmer series represents all the electron transitions to the 1st excited state
from the higher states. Find the smallest possible wavelength of this series of emission lines. (3 marks)

(ii) State ONE limitation of Bohr’s model in explaining the hydrogen emission spectrum. (1 mark)

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-7 7 Go on to the next page

Section C : Energy and Use of Energy
Q.3: Multiple-choice questions

3.1 Which of the following statements about luminous flux is/are correct?

(1) Two light bulbs with the same luminous flux must seem to be as bright as each other.
(2) Two light bulbs with the same luminous flux must have the same input power.
(3) Two light bulbs with the same luminous flux must have the same efficacy.

A. (1) only A B C D
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only ○ ○ ○ ○
D. (2) and (3) only

3.2 A light bulb is suspended from the ceiling of a room as its only light source as shown.

bulb

4m
2m

floor
A B

Both points A and B are located on the floor, while A is 4 m away from the bulb and B is 2 m directly below the
bulb. The illuminance around A is 60 lx, what is the illuminance around B? Assume that the bulb is a point light
source that emits light uniformly in all directions. Neglect any reflection from the walls, the ceiling and the floor.

A. 15 lx A B C D
B. 30 lx
C. 120 lx ○ ○ ○ ○
D. 480 lx

3.3 Which of the following statements about cooling capacity is/are correct?

(1) It can be measured in kJ.

(2) It is always higher than the input power of a cooling system.
(3) It measures the ability of a cooling system to remove heat.

A. (2) only A B C D
B. (3) only
C. (1) and (2) only ○ ○ ○ ○
D. (1) and (3) only

3.4 Low emissivity coatings, which are made of a layer of semiconductor or metal oxide, can reduce heat transfer into a
building by reflecting

A. infra-red radiation. A B C D
B. radio wave.
C. visible light. ○ ○ ○ ○
D. microwave.

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-8 8
3.5 A building is of the dimensions 10 m × 4 m × 5 m, and has a glass door of dimensions 4 m × 3 m. The inner
surfaces of the roof, the walls and the door of the building are 4 °C cooler than their outer surfaces.

4m
5m

3m

4m
10 m

Given: U-value of the roof and the walls = 20 W m−2 K−1

U-value of the glass door = 2 W m−2 K−1
average radiation heat gain from the door = 5000 W

Estimate the Overall Thermal Transfer Value (OTTV) in W m−2 of the building.

A. 98 W m−2 A B C D
B. 103 W m−2
C. 128 W m−2 ○ ○ ○ ○
D. 133 W m−2

3.6 Find the maximum electrical power that can be generated by a solar cell of area 0.4 m2 and efficiency 15% installed
on the Earth’s surface. Given that the solar constant is 1360 W m−2 and 25% of the solar power is absorbed by the
Earth’s atmosphere.

A. 20.4 W A B C D
B. 40.8 W
C. 61.2 W ○ ○ ○ ○
D. 81.6 W

3.7 The difference in mass between a helium-4 nucleus and its constituent nucleons is 0.030397422 u. Find the binding
energy per nucleon of a helium-4 nucleus.

A. 5.31 MeV A B C D
B. 7.07 MeV
C. 21.2 MeV ○ ○ ○ ○
D. 28.3 MeV

3.8 Which of the following statements about nuclear fission reactor is INCORRECT?

A. Pressurized water is used to carry heat from the fuel rods to the boiler.
B. Fuel rods are used to contain the uranium fuel for fission to take place.
C. Control rods are used to absorb excess neutrons.
D. Neutrons should be relatively fast in order to trigger fission reactions easily.

A B C D

○ ○ ○ ○

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-9 9 Go on to the next page

Q.3: Structured question

(a) A wind farm is built in country X. It consists of a series of wind turbines with blades of length 50 m.

(i) State the energy conversion of the wind turbine when it generates electricity. (1 mark)

(ii) At a wind speed of 12 m s−1, the maximum power output of a wind turbine is 4.2 MW. Calculate the
efficiency of the wind turbine. Given that the density of air is 1.25 kg m−3. (3 marks)

(iii) State ONE reason why the efficiency of a wind turbine cannot reach 100%. (1 mark)

(iv) Do you think it is feasible to construct a wind farm in Hong Kong? Give a reason for your answer. (1 mark)

(b) Hybrid electric vehicle (HEV) is popular in country Y as it combines the best of traditional and electric vehicles.
The figure below shows the schematic diagram of an HEV.

petrol engine

regenerative
battery P brake

(i) What is component P? What is its function? State ONE advantage of having component P working together
with a traditional engine. (3 marks)

(ii) An HEV is equipped with a mechanical brake in addition to the regenerative brake. Why does a HEV need a
mechanical brake? (1 mark)

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-10 10
Section D : Medical Physics
Q.4: Multiple-choice questions

4.1 Paul wears a pair of bifocal lenses to correct his vision. The bifocal lens consists of two different parts, in which the
power of the upper part is –4.0 D and that of the lower part is 1.5 D.

–4.0 D

1.5 D

Which of the following statements about the bifocal lens are correct?

(1) The upper part of the lens is for viewing distant objects while the lower part is for viewing near objects.
(2) One of the eye defects suffered by Paul is short sightedness.
(3) The focal length of the upper part of the lens is 0.25 m.

A. (1) and (2) only A B C D

B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only ○ ○ ○ ○
D. (1), (2) and (3)

4.2 The figure below shows the positions of objects X and Y as well as the near point and far point of an eye.

object X object Y

far point near point

If the eye is focusing on object Y, what are the positions of the images of objects X and Y respectively?

image of X image of Y
A. on the retina on the retina A B C D
B. in front of the retina on the retina
C. behind the retina behind the retina ○ ○ ○ ○
D. in front of the retina behind the retina

4.3 Which of the following statements about endoscope is INCORRECT?

A. It does not contain a radioactive source. A B C D

B. It uses incoherent bundle fibres to transmit images.
C. It can be used to take suspicious tissues out from the body. ○ ○ ○ ○
D. It can only be used to examine the inner surface of hollow organs.

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-11 11 Go on to the next page

4.4 In ultrasound scanning, a water-based gel is pasted on the skin. What is the use of the gel?

A. It reduces the heat transfer between the skin and the transducer. A B C D
B. It absorbs the reflected ultrasound pulse at the skin-gel interface.
C. It increases the intensity of the ultrasound pulse transmitted into the skin. ○ ○ ○ ○
D. It reduces the noise produced by the transducer.

4.5 An ultrasound pulse of intensity Io is incident on a muscle-bone interface. What is the intensity of the transmitted
ultrasound pulse?

Given: acoustic impedance of muscle = 1.70 × 106 Rayl

acoustic impedance of bone = 7.79 × 106 Rayl

A. 0.218 Io A B C D
B. 0.412 Io
C. 0.588 Io ○ ○ ○ ○
D. 0.642 Io

4.6 Which of the following statements about X-rays is INCORRECT?

A. An X-ray is produced by hitting a metal object with fast-moving electrons.

B. Artificial contrast media can be used to increase the attenuation of X-rays.
C. The denser the tissue, the lower the intensity of the transmitted X-rays passing through it.
D. The intensity of the transmitted X-rays passing through a tissue is inversely proportional to the distance
travelled by the X-rays.

A B C D

○ ○ ○ ○

4.7 A medical tracer has a biological half-life of 2 days and a physical half-life of 4 hours. What is its effective
half-life?

A. 3.69 hours A B C D
B. 4 hours
C. 24 hours ○ ○ ○ ○
D. 28 hours

4.8 A medical image is shown below.

Which of the following medical imaging methods was used to produce the image?

A. X-ray radiography A B C D
B. Ultrasound A-scan
C. Ultrasound B-scan ○ ○ ○ ○
D. CT scan

2018/19-ME-PHY 2-12 12
Q.4: Structured question

Figure 4.1 shows the curves of equal loudness.

sound intensity level /dB

120

100
80 phons
80
60 phons
Figure 4.1 60

40 phons
40

20 phons
20

T
0

20 100 1000 10000

frequency / Hz

Given: threshold of hearing = 10–12 W m–2

(a) State what the curve T represents. (1 mark)

(b) State what the curve labelled ‘60 phons’ represents. (2 marks)

(c) Explain why the curves are not sketched for frequencies below 20 Hz. (1 mark)

(d) Mary hears a sound of intensity 10–2 W m–2 when she is 2 m away from the sound source.

(i) Calculate the sound intensity level of the sound. (2 marks)

(ii) Using Figure 4.1, find the frequency of a sound at the sound intensity level in (d)(i) that Mary perceives to
have the greatest loudness. (1 mark)

(iii) For the sound intensity level of the sound heard by Mary to drop to 50 dB, what is the distance between Mary
and the sound source? (3 marks)

END OF PAPER

Sources of materials used in this paper will be acknowledged in a publication by Youth New World at a later stage.

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