PHÒNG GD&ĐT QUỲNH LƯU ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI SƠ TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI

LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề gồm 11 trang) Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

ĐIỂM HỌ TÊN, CHỮ KÍ GIÁM KHẢO SỐ PHÁCH

Bằng số: Giám khảo 1:
………………………………….. ………………………………………
Bằng chữ:……………….. Giám khảo 2:
………………. ………………………………………

SECTION A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1 (20 points). You will hear a woman talking to a man about joining a drama club and fill in
the blank with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and /or A
NUMBER for each answer in the spaces provided. You will hear the recording twice.

MIDBURY DRAMA CLUB

Background
Example: Answer
 Club started in __ 1957 __
 prize recently won by (1) ________________________ section
 usually performs (2) ________________________ plays
Meetings
 next auditions will be on Tuesday, (3) ________________________
 help is needed with publicity and (4) ________________________
 rehearsals take place in the (5) ________________________ hall
 nearest car park for rehearsals in Ashburton Road opposite the (6)
________________________
Costs
 annual membership fee is £ (7) ________________________
 extra payment for (8) ________________________
Contact
 secretary’s name is Sarah (9) ________________________
 secretary’s phone number is (10) ________________________

Part 2 (10 points) You will hear a talk on local radio about a ‘short film’ festival in the town of
Adbourne. Answer the questions by writing T (True), F (False) in the numbered boxes.
1. The Film Festival was started to encourage local people to make films.
2. The price range for tickets is £1.00-£2.50.
3. As well as online, tickets for the films can be obtained from the two festival cinemas.

Page 1 of 11 pages
4. Last year’s winning film was about green transport options.
5. This year the competition prize is film-making equipment.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 3 (20 points) You will hear a woman, Vanessa, talking about a journey she made with her
husband, Robert, and her baby, Ben. For each question, put a tick in the correct box.
1. What did Vanessa and Robert decide to do last year?
A. get married B. travel to England by boat C. look for new jobs
2. How long did it take Vanessa to get ready for the trip?
A. six months B. eight months C. a year
3. Vanessa was worried that ________.
A. they wouldn't be prepared. B. the conditions would be bad. C. the baby would get ill.
4. Their first stop in the journey was ________.
A. Hong Kong B. England C. Singapore
5. How did Vanessa feel when they reached Singapore?
A. She wondered if she should fly home.
B. She was worried about the boat.
C. She enjoyed the break from travelling.
6. How long did they stay in Singapore?
A. six days B. six weeks C. six months
7. Why was Vanessa's father-in-law particularly helpful?
A. He was a good cook. B. He looked after the baby. C. He helped to sail the boat.
8. Did the baby enjoy the trip?
A. Yes, he did B. No, he didn’t C. Not really, he’s too small
9. Because of spending so much time on the boat, the baby ________.
A. learnt to walk late. B. didn't play by himself. C. only liked certain food.
10. What is Vanessa's advice for people sailing with children?
A. Don't take more than one child. B. Go for a short time. C. Don't let children get bored.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (25 points)

Part 1 (15 points). Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write A, B, C
or D in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. David is the captain of the school basketball team, __________ his father before him.
A. similar to B. just like C. such as D. as well as
2. I had two copies of this book originally, but I can’t find _______one now.
A. another B. other C. the other D. the others
3. Lion has______; he loves cakes, chocolates, ice-cream-anything which is sweet.
A. a sweet mouth B. sweet lips C. a sweet tongue D. a sweet tooth
4. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. He is very ________.
A. open-minded B. kind-hearted C. narrow-minded D. absent-minded
5. A completely new situation will _______ when the examination system come into existence.
A. arise B. rise C. raise D. arouse

Page 2 of 11 pages
6. Professor Baker was worldwide known as an __________ on the greenhouse effects.
A. author B. authority C. authorized D. authorship
7. Mr. Adam is the big _______ in the company as he has just been promoted to the position of
Managing Director.
A. bread B. meat C. cheese D. apple
8. We camped in the middle of _______ and all we could hear were the sounds of wild animals.
A. nowhere B. anywhere C. everywhere D. somewhere
9. She resigned ______. No one forced her to do so.
A. for her own sake B. of her own accord C. with a will D. on purpose
10. He told me that it was a genuine diamond, and I was completely _______.
A. put down B. turned down C. pulled up D. taken in
11. _______ that some areas may never recover.
A. It was such devastating the floods B. So devastating were the floods
C. Such devastating were the floods D. So were devastating the floods
12. Don't call Pam just now. Something has gone wrong with the computer; she's ______ because she
can't
get the data she needs.
A. in a stew B. out of a rut C. in the swim D. under the sink
Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined words in the following question.
13. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.
A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money
Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in the following question.
14. All the presentations and activities at the ASEAN Youth in January 2006 Camp echoed that
theme named “Water and the Arts”.
A. reflected B. mentioned C. illustrated D. remembered
Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes the following
exchange.
15. Alan: “_________ .” - Jimmy: “It’s not likely.”
A. How important is it to attend university?
B. Is it possible to get a good job without attending university?
C. Would you be interested in attending university in a foreign country?
D. Is it very important to attend a university in a foreign country?

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 2 (10 points). Read the passage below, which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and
write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. Number 0 is an example.

Line TV AND OUR LIFE

0 How we watch TV and what we watch has changed greatly in recent years. We have no longer
1 bothered by the limited number of channels and show that our regular TV services can offer.
2 Nowadays, streaming platforms always have numerous shows for you enjoying in your free
3 time. A good example is Netflix, a streaming service that provides spectators with a wide
variety

Page 3 of 11 pages
 4 of movies, TV shows, and documentaries. You can watch as many programs as you like for
5 affordable month plans ranging from 160,000 VND to 260,000 VND. With just one
6 account, you can access and download your favorite movies on any device - as far as it has an
7 internet connection. But how about the darkest side of this new form of entertainment? With
8 inconvenient streaming technology, viewers often find themselves binge-watching shows for
9 hours on end. Scientists believe if watching too much TV may lead to a lack of sleep, and
10 if you don’t sleep enough, you can be depressed. A Netflix subscription should, nevertheless,
be carefully considered.

Your answers:
Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction
0 have are

SECTION C. READING (65 points)

Part 1 (15 points). Read the passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers A, B, C or D in
the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

TEXT MESSAGING

Nowadays, more than a billion messages are zapped from one mobile phone to another per day.
However, although texting has become (1) ______ in Europe and Asia, it has failed to take off in
America. Globally, the average number of messages sent or received each month (2) ______ a mobile
subscriber is now around 30, or one message per day. In some parts of Asia, such as Singapore and the
Philippines, where large numbers of free messages are thrown in with monthly (3) ______ plans, the
number of messages sent per subscriber per month is as high as 200. But the (4) ______ for America is
just over seven, according to the Cellular Telecommunication’s Internet Association. Why is such a
high-tech nation eschewing texting?
The short answer is that in America (5) ______ is cheap. Here local calls on land lines are
usually (6) ______. That’s why wireless operators have to (7) ______ big “bundles” of minutes to
persuade subscribers to use mobile phones instead.
American telecoms regulations, which encouraged different mobile operators to choose different,
(8) ______ technologies, are also responsible for the dearth of texting. (9) _______ last year did the
largest American operators agree to pass text messages between their networks, an agreement still only
patchily (10) ______. (11) ______, texting is not included as standard in most subscription packages in
America, but as an (12) ______ for which customers must pay a few dollars per month. “You have to
pay for it, most people’s phones don’t have it, and I don’t know how many of my friends have it (13)
______ , says Vince Tobkin, an analyst at Bain & Company in San Francisco. In text- crazed Europe, in
contrast, all these conditions are (14) ______ by default and you can be pretty sure that your message
will (15) ______.
1. A. familiar B. commonplace C. friendly D. basic
2. A. to B. from C. by D. off
3. A. invoicing B. cost C. billing D. pricing
4. A. numeral B. figure C. score D. rate
5. A. talk B. speak C. say D. tell
6. A. expensive B. free C. costly D. inconvenient

Page 4 of 11 pages
 7. A. suggest B. recommend C. propose D. offer
8. A. incompatible B. unsuitable C. modern D. incomparable
9. A. Just B. Only C. Already D. About
10. A. imposed B. implemented C. restricted D. announced
11. A. Therefore B. Nevertheless C. However D. Moreover
12. A. advert B. award C. extra D. addition
13. A. empowered B. installed C. enabled D. purchased
14. A. met B. made C. followed D. overruled
15. A. get through B. get by C. turn down D. fly away

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 2 (10 points). Read the text below and fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. Write the
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
As everyone knows, the kangaroo is one of Australia’s most iconic animals. Kangaroos (1)
______ different types live in all areas of Australia, from cold-climate areas and desert plains to tropical
rainforests and beaches. Kangaroos are herbivorous, eating a range of plants and, in some cases, fungi.
Different kangaroo species inhabit different habitats. Some, for example, make nests on the ground
while tree- kangaroos live (2) ______ the ground. Larger species of kangaroo tend to shelter under trees
or in caves.
Most kangaroos are distinguished from other animals by the way they hop on their strong back
(3) ______. A kangaroo’s tail is used to balance while hopping and (4) ______ a fifth limb when
moving slowly. All female kangaroos have front-opening pouches that contain four teats. (5) ______ is
in here that the ‘joey” or baby kangaroo is raised until it can survive outside the pouch. Most kangaroos
have no set breeding cycle and are able to breed all year round. (6) ______ they are such prolific
breeders, a kangaroo population can increase fourfold in five years.
Kangaroos have long been important to the (7) ______ of Australia’s indigenous people, who
have hunted them for tens of thousands of years, using both the meat and the skins. (8) ______
Europeans arrived in Australia in the late eighteenth century, they too (9) ______ kangaroos for
survival. Kangaroos continued to be used as a resource but only under strict government controls.
Nowadays only the four most abundant species of kangaroo may be commercially harvested for export,
and then only by licensed hunters in accordance with (10) ______ approved management plan.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3 (10 points). Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the
questions. Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered boxes provided.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global warming.
Scientists have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers
blooming earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they
live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides
toward higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats
grow too warm. In many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that
find cities or farmland blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique
ecosystems, such as those found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because

Page 5 of 11 pages
migration to new habitats is not possible. For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic
are already threatened by dwindling sea ice but have nowhere farther north to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have
estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees
of further warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and
animals. Some species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, may not be able to
adjust quickly enough and may disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global
warming. Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead
to the death of the coral. Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead
to widespread bleaching and death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in
the atmosphere enters the ocean and increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further
stresses ocean ecosystems.
1. Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers to ______.
A. die instantly B. bloom earlier C. become lighter D. lose color
2. According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move ______.
A. south-eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
B. north-westwards and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
C. toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
D. toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
3. The pronoun “those” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. species B. ecosystems C. habitats D. areas
4. The phrase “dwindling sea ice” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the frozen water in the Arctic B. the violent Arctic Ocean
C. the melting ice in the Arctic D. the cold ice in the Arctic
5. It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees, ______.
A. half of the earth’s surface would be flooded B. the sea level would rise by 20 centimeters
C. water supply would decrease by 50 percent D. 20 to 50 percent of species could become
extinct
6. If some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer temperatures, ______.
A. they may be endangered B. they can begin to develop
C. they will certainly need water D. they move to tropical forests
7. The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 most probably means ______.
A. very large B. easily damaged C. rather strong D. pretty hard
8. The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates ______.
A. the water absorption of coral reefs B. the quick growth of marine mammals
C. the blooming phase of sea weeds D. the slow death of coral reefs
9. The level of acidity in the ocean is increased by ______.
A. the rising amount of carbon dioxide entering the ocean
B. the decrease of acidity of the pole waters
C. the extinction of species in coastal areas
D. the loss of acidity in the atmosphere around the earth
10. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles B. Effects of global warming on animals and
plants
C. Global warming and possible solutions D. Global warming and species migration

Page 6 of 11 pages
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4 (10 points). You are going to read a magazine article about students who travelled around
Australia alone during their long summer vacation. For questions 1-10, choose from the students (A-
D). The students may be chosen more than once.

Which student mentions …

1. liking not having to agree an itinerary with others?

2. missing having someone to help with decision-making?

3. the advantages of not having fixed plans?

4. the advisability of going for the best accommodation you can afford?

5. welcoming the support of professional people?

6. a good way of keeping travel plans flexible?

7. appreciating not having to waste time organising practical details?

8. feeling better after keeping in touch with others?

9. feeling more confident as a result of the experience?

10. having doubts at the beginning of a trip?

Solo travel in Australia

A. Danny Holt
Travelling solo creates opportunities to meet new people. There’s no substitute for sharing the
experiences of the day with a companion, and being on your own forces you to seek someone out. I’ve
got to know people I wouldn’t have if I’d been travelling with friends. There’s also the wonderful
freedom to do what you like, when you like, without having to convince anybody else that it’s a good
idea. However, there are downsides; meal times are something I’ve never really got to grips with in all
the years I’ve travelled alone.
But my advice would be to give solo travel a go — it can be very liberating. Maybe try a short trip to
begin with, just in case it’s not for you. Another thing is stay in the nicest places your budget permits.
I’ve been in a few miserable hostels, and they really can spoil a trip. And if you really are happy being
anti—social, that MP3 player is great for ensuring the person in the next plane seat, or the poolside
know-it-all, doesn’t bore you to death!

B. Leila Stuart
Without doubt, you meet all sorts of people when you travel alone. I even made a friend on the plane out
to Australia. Some people are keener to make friends than others, of course, but if someone’s chosen to
do the same type of trip as you, you’ve probably got lots of ideas in common. The advantages of a pre-
planned tour are that you can get an agency to take care of all the arrangements, which can be time-
consuming to do yourself — but it does mean that you’re tied to a predetermined itinerary, which
wouldn’t suit everyone. There’s also the safety aspect in terms of the places you visit often being very
remote. If you go off trekking in the wilds of a foreign country alone, it could be difficult to get help if
things go wrong. If you join a group expedition for those parts of your trip, then you have the support of

Page 7 of 11 pages
the group leader and your fellow travelling companions.

C. Phil Morston
It was the classic scenario really. My girlfriend didn’t want to go travelling. I did, so I went on my own. I
do remember sitting in the plane thinking to myself: ‘What have I let myself in for?’ Then the first few
days in Australia were scary: I was all on my own, with nothing planned, and on the other side of the
world. But in no time at all, I'd met up with other travellers. Of course, some you get on with and others
you don’t, but there’s always someone to travel with. Some of them had planned every day of every
week, though. In practice, things can change and it’s great to have the freedom to go with the flow. And
that’s easy enough to do. For example, you can take the Oz Experience bus down the west coast,
jumping off whenever you want, then catching the next bus when you're ready to move on again. Being
away for a year, you do occasionally get lonely, so I’d sit down and write a fortnightly email home about
everything I’d been up to, and that really cheered me up.

D. Kerry Wintenon
Fun as it is, travelling solo does undoubtedly have its low points, including occasional loneliness and the
pressure that you’re under to make your own mind up about everything. I chose to travel alone because I
wanted to do something different, with it being the last summer before starting my final year at
university. The worst things were when I missed people from home, or when I fell out with the people
I’d met along the way. But I learnt to accept that some people have different attitudes to mine — that you
have to put up with irritating people in hostels and accept not having as much privacy as you’re used to
at home. The best thing for me about travelling alone was that it was a brilliant experience that enhanced
my independence and helped me feel more self-assured. I knew I was on my own, which made me make
more effort to speak to people and by doing so I made lots of great friends.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 5 (20 points). Read the passage and do the tasks.

Social housing in Britain
A During the past 20 years in Britain there has been a significant decrease in the number of social
homes in the housing stock, down from 5.3m to 4.8m. The proportion of social housing has fallen from
29% to 18% during the same period. This is largely due to the policies of Margaret Thatcher's
government during the 1980's which forced local councils to sell homes under market price to existing
tenants under a 'right to buy' scheme and prevented them from building new houses. New social homes
were then to be paid for by central government and managed by local housing associations.

B Next month, the government is expected to announce a significant increase in the Social Housing
Department's £1.7 billion annual budget and also intends to make the application process for social
housing simpler. The additional £2 billion will build about 50,000 new houses each year at current
building costs. Still more houses could be built if subsidies were reduced.

C The UK government is hoping that the extra investment will improve the housing situation. Britain
with her increasing population builds fewer new houses than are needed, with a shortfall of 100,000 a
year according to Shelter, a housing charity. The result is a boom in house prices that has made owning
a home unaffordable for many, especially in London and the south of England. Key public sector
workers, such as nurses and teachers, are among those affected.

D In order to increase the social housing stock the government is using a process known as planning
gain. Town councils are increasing the amount of social housing developers must build as part of a new
building project and which they must give to the local housing association. Even without the financial
support of the central government, some local councils in England are using planning gain to increase

Page 8 of 11 pages
the proportion of social housing stock. In expensive Cambridge, the council wants 25% of new housing
to be social; the figure is 35% in Bristol, while Manchester is planning 40% over the next twenty years.

E Will this housing policy create new sink estates? Hopefully, not. Housing planners have learnt from
the mistakes of the 1960s and 1970s when large council housing estates were constructed. Builders have
got better at design and planning mixed-use developments where social housing is mixed with, and
indistinguishable from, private housing. Social housing developments are winning design awards - a
project in London won the Housing Design Award — though it is true that some council estates that
now illustrate some of the worst aspects of 1960s architecture won awards at the time.

Task 1 (10 points). For questions 1-5, choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the
list of headings below. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. You may use each
heading only once. There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.

List of Headings
i. Still difficult to move around
ii. Councils give way to housing associations
iii. Increased spending
iv. The cost of moving home
v. A shrinking supply
vi. Learning from the past
vii. Public-sector workers squeezed out
viii. New demands on developers

1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C
4. Paragraph D
5. Paragraph E
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Task 2 (10 points): For questions 6-10, write in the corresponding numbered boxes
YES if the statement agrees with the information
NO if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

6. During the Thatcher years, there was a block on building social homes.
7. The housing problem in London is worse than in the rest of south-east England.
8. Local authorities are starting to depend on the 'planning gain' scheme.
9. One way to make social housing more successful is to make it similar to private housing.
10. Local councils are unable to deal with crimes committed on social housing land.
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION D. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1 (10 points). Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. Use
the word given in capital letters if given and the word mustn’t be changed in any way.

Page 9 of 11 pages
1. Is it possible to walk from the hotel to the city centre? (WITHIN)
→ Is the city center________________________________________________ of the hotel?
2. Laura needs to arrive soon or we'll have to go without her. (BEHIND)
→ We’ll have to______________________________________________________ up soon.
3. He was suspended for two matches for swearing at the referee.
→ Swearing at the referee earned ____________________________________________.
4. It is Sam’s responsibility to ensure everyone has left the museum before closing time. (CHARGE)
→ Sam __________________________________ sure everyone has left the museum before closing
time.
5. They believe that Oliver failed his exam because he was nervous. DOWN
→ Oliver's failure in his exam ____________________________________the fact that he was nervous.

Part 2 (20 points). Write about 100-120 words in reply to Emma.

Dear Emma,
………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 10 of 11 pages
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Part 3 (30 points). Choose ONE option only:
Option 1:
Write a story of about 180-200 words having the title: AN UNEXPECTED GIFT
Option 2:
Write an essay of about 200-250 words on the following topic:
Peer pressure is among the hottest problems that teenagers are facing today. What are the
causes and how to solve it?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 11 of 11 pages
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
______ THE END ______

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI SƠ TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI
THAM KHẢO Lớp 9 Năm học: 2023 – 2024
Đề thi môn: Tiếng Anh
(Hội đồng chấm thi có hướng dẫn chi tiết riêng)

SECTION A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1 (20 points). You will hear a woman talking to a man about joining a drama club and fill in
the blank with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and /or A
NUMBER for each answer in the spaces provided. You will hear the recording twice.
10 x 2 = 20 pts
1. youth 6. sports centre
2. comedy 7. 180
3. 12th March/ March 12 8. costumes/ costume hire
4. lights 9. Sawdicott
5. FGcommunity 10. 07955240063

Part 2 (10 points) You will hear a talk on local radio about a ‘short film’ festival in the town of
Adbourne. Answer the questions by writing T (True), F (False) in the numbered boxes.
5 x 2 = 10 pts
1. F 2. T 3. F 4. T 5. T

Part 3 (20 points) You will hear a woman, Vanessa, talking about a journey she made with her
husband, Robert, and her baby, Ben. For each question, put a tick in the correct box. (25 points)
10 x 2 = 20 pts
1.B 2.A 3.C 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.B 8.A 9.B 10.C

SECTION B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (25 points)

Part 1 (15 points). Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write A, B,
C or D in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
15 x 1 = 15 pts
1.B 2.C 3. D 4. C 5.A 6.B 7. C 8.A
9.B 10.D 11.B 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.B

Part 2 (10 points). Read the passage below, which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and
write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. Number 0 is an example.
10 x 1 = 10 pts
Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction
0 have are 6 far long
1 show shows 7 darkest dark
2 enjoying to enjoy 8 inconvenient convenient
3 spectators viewers 9 if that
4 for with 10 nevertheless therefore
5 month monthly

Page 12 of 11 pages
 SECTION C. READING (65 points)
Part 1 (15 points). Read the passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers A, B, C or D
in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
15 x 1 = 15 pts
1.B 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.A 6.B 7.D 8.A 9.B 10.B 11.D 12.C 13.C 14.A 15.A

Part 2 (10 points). Read the text below and fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. Write the
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
10 x 1 = 10 pts
1. of 2. above / off 3. legs 4. as 5. It
6. Because/As/Since 7. survival 8. when 9. hunted 10. an
Part 3 (10 points). Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the
questions. Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered boxes provided.
10 x 1 = 10 pts
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.A 10.B

Part 4 (10 points) : You are going to read a magazine article about students who travelled around
Australia alone during their long summer vacation. For questions 1-10, choose from the students (A-
D). The students may be chosen more than once.
10 x 1 = 10 pts
1.A 2.D 3.C 4.A 5.B 6.C 7.B 8.C 9.D 10.C

Part 5 (20 points). Read the passage and do the tasks:

10 x 2 = 20 pts
1. v 2. iii 3. vii 4. viii 5. vi
6. NO 7. NOT 8. YES 9. YES 10.
GIVEN NOT
GIVEN

SECTION D. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1 (10 points). Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one.
Use the word given in capital letters if given and the word mustn’t be changed in any way.
5 x 2 = 10 pts
1. …within walking distance…
2. …leave Laura behind unless she turns…
3. …earned him a two-match suspension. / ... earned him a suspension for two matches.
4. …is in charge of making…
5. …was put down to…
Part 2 (20 points). Write about 100-120 words in reply to Emma.
- Length (1pt): 100-120 words
- Ideas (10 pts):
+ Opening
+ 3 main ideas
+ Closing
- Organization and Style (2pts): informal
- Vocabulary and grammar (7pts)
Part 3 (30 points). Choose ONE option only:
Option 1:
Write a story of about 180-200 words having the title: AN UNEXPECTED GIFT

Page 13 of 11 pages
Option 2:
Write an essay of about 200-250 words on the following topic:
Peer pressure is among the hottest problems that teenagers are facing today. What are the
causes and how to solve it?
The mark given to part 3 is based on the following criteria:
1. Length: (2pts).
2. Organization & style: (3pts) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and
clarity appropriate to writing stories
3. Ideas (15 pts)
4. Grammar and Vocabulary (10pts) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted lower-secondary school students.

TOTAL: 200 points/ 10 = 20 points

Page 14 of 11 pages