Self-Assessment Questions under Ethical and Legal issues

The answers to the Self-Assessment Questions can be found in Appendix B.

Choose the word(s) that best complete the following sentences.

Chapter 1 Questions
1. The term ______refers to social conventions about right and wrong that are so widely
shared that they become the basis for an established consensus.
Ans: morality
2. ________ is a set of beliefs about right and wrong behavior within a society.
Ans: Ethics
3. _______ are habits of acceptable behavior.\
Ans: Virtues
4. A person who acts with integrity acts in accordance with a personal ________
Ans: code of principles
5. _________ are one’s personal beliefs about right and wrong.
Ans: Morals
6. ________ is the concept that an organization should act ethically by taking
responsibility for the impact of its actions on the environment, the community, and the
welfare of its employees.
Ans: Corporate social responsibility.
7._______ focuses on developing and maintaining a supply chain that meets the needs of
the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs.
Ans: Supply chain sustainability.
8. The public ______ of an organization strongly influences the value of its stock, how
consumers regard its products and services, the degree of oversight it receives from
government agencies, and the amount of support and cooperation it receives from its
business partners.
Ans: reputation
9. The corporate ethics officer provides the organization with _____ and ____ in the area
of business conduct.
Ans: Vision and leadership
10. _______ is a system of rules that tells us what we can and cannot do.
Ans: Law
11. ______ requires public companies to disclose whether they have codes of ethics and
disclose any waiver to their code of ethics for certain members of senior management.
Ans: Section 406 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act
12. The goal of the Sarbanes–Oxley Act was to ________.
Ans: renew investor’s trust in the content and preparation of disclosure documents by
public companies;
13. _______ highlights an organization’s key ethical issues and identifies the
overarching values and principles that are important to the organization and its decision-
making process.
Ans: Code of ethics
14. A/an ______ enables an organization to review how well it is meeting its ethical and
social responsibility goals, and communicate new goals for the upcoming year.
Ans: social audit
15. ______ makes employees more aware of a company’s code of ethics and how to
apply it, as well as demonstrates that the company intends to operate in an ethical
manner.
Ans: formal ethics training
16. The most important part of the decision-making process is _______.
Ans: problem definition
17. The ______ approach to ethical decision making is based on a vision of society as a
community whose members work together to achieve a common set of values and goals.
Ans: Common good approach
18. _________ is a clear, concise description of the issue that needs to be addressed.
Ans: Problem definition
 Chapter 2 Questions
1. A professional is someone who:
a. requires advanced training and experience
b. must exercise discretion and judgment in the course of his or her work
c. does work that cannot be standardized
d. all of the above
Ans: d
2. Although end users often get the blame when it comes to using illegal copies of
commercial software, software piracy in a corporate setting is sometimes directly
traceable to members of the _________ organization.
Ans: IT
3. The mission of the Business Software Alliance is to __________
Ans: stop the unauthorized copying of software produced by its members
4. Whistle-blowing is an effort by an employee to attract attention to a negligent, illegal,
unethical, abusive, or dangerous act by a company that threatens the public interest. True
or False?
Ans: True
5. ____________is the crime of obtaining goods, services, or property through deception
or trickery.
Ans: Fraud
6. ____________means to be in accordance with established policies, guidelines,
specifications, or legislation.
Ans: Compliance
7. Society expects professionals to act in a way that:
a. causes no harm to society
b. provides significant benefits
c. establishes and maintains professional standards that protect the public
d. all of the above
Ans: d
8. Most organizations have a(n)________ team with primary responsibilities to
determine that internal systems and controls are adequate and effective.
Ans: Internal audit

9. ____________is a process that one undertakes voluntarily to prove competency in a

set
of skills.
a. Licensing
b. Certification
c. Registration
d. all of the above
Ans: b
10. Senior management (including members of the audit committee) has the option of
ignoring or suppressing recommendations of the internal audit committee. True or
False?
Ans: True
11. _________has been defined as not doing something that a reasonable person would
do, or doing something that a reasonable person would not do.
Ans: Negligence
12. A/an________ states the principles and core values that are essential to the work of a
particular occupational group.
Ans: code of ethics

Chapter 3 Questions
1. According to the 2010/11 CSI Computer Crime and Security Survey, which of the
following was the most common security incident?
a. being fraudulently misrepresented as a sender of email messages requesting personal
information
b. malware infection
c. laptop or mobile hardware theft
d. employees, abuse of Internet access or email
Ans: b
2. Computer security incidents occur around the world, with personal computer users in
developing countries being exposed to the greatest risk of their computers being infected
by malware. True or False?
Ans: True
3. An attack on an information system that takes advantage of a vulnerability is called
a/an________
Ans: exploit
4._________ software operates in a software layer that runs on top of the operating
system and enables multiple virtual machines each with their own operating system to
run on a single computer.
Ans: Virtualization
5. The number of new software vulnerabilities identified has steadily increased each year
since 2006. True or False?
Ans: False
6. A/an _______ takes places before the security community or software developer
knows about the vulnerability or has been able to repair it.
Ans: Zero-day attack
7. Software that generates and grades tests that humans can pass but that all but the most
sophisticated computer programs cannot be called _______
Ans: CAPTCHA
8. _______ is a form of malware that, if a user unknowingly downloads it to his or her
smartphone, takes control of the device and its data until the owner agrees to pay a
ransom to the attacker.
Ans: ransomware
9. A/an _______ attack is one in which a malicious hacker takes over computers via the
Internet and causes them to flood a target site with demands for data and other small
tasks.
Ans: Distributed denial-of-service
10. A/an __________ is malicious code hidden inside a seemingly harmless program.
Ans: Trojan horse
11. A/an ________ is a large group of computers controlled from one or more remote
locations by hackers, without the knowledge or consent of their owners.
Ans: botnet
12. ______ is a method of computing that delivers secure, private, and reliable
computing experiences.
Ans: Trustworthy computing
13. The process of assessing security-related risks from both internal and external threats
to an organization’s computers and networks is called a(n) .
Ans: risk assessment
14. The written statement that defines an organization’s security requirements as well as
the controls and sanctions used to meet those requirements is known as a:
a. risk assessment
b. security policy
c. firewall
d. none of the above
Ans: b
15. Implementation of a strong firewall provides adequate security for almost any
network. True or False?
Ans: False
16. In a security incident, the primary goal must be to monitor and catch the intruder.
True or False?
Ans: False

Chapter 4 Questions
1. The purpose of the Bill of Rights was to:
a. grant additional powers to the federal government
b. identify exceptions to specific portions of the Constitution
c. identify additional rights of individuals
d. identify requirements for being a “good” U.S. citizen
Ans: c
2. ___________is part of the pretrial phase of a lawsuit in which each party can obtain
evidence from the other part by various means.
Ans: discovery
3. Like many other countries, the United States has developed a single, overarching
national data privacy policy. True or False?
Ans: False
4. The _________ Act is enforced by the FTC and is designed to ensure the accuracy,
fairness, and privacy of information in the files of credit-reporting companies and to
check those systems that gather and sell information about people:
a. Gramm-Leach-Bliley
b. Fair Credit Reporting
c. HIPAA
d. USA PATRIOT
Ans: b
5. The Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act allows consumers to request and
obtain a free credit report once each year from each of the three primary consumer credit
reporting companies. True or False?
Ans: True
6. Under the provisions of __________, healthcare providers must obtain written
consent from patients prior to disclosing any information in their medical records.
Ans: HIPAA
7. According to the Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act, a Web site that caters to
children must:
a. offer comprehensive privacy policies
b. notify parents or guardians about its data collection practices
c. receive parental consent before collecting any personal information from preteens
d. all of the above
Ans: d
8. _________is a federal law that assigns certain rights to parents regarding their
children’s educational records.
Ans: Family Educational Right and Privacy Act
9. _________ v. United States is a famous court ruling that helped form the basis for the
requirement that there be a reasonable expectation of privacy for the Fourth Amendment
to apply.
Ans: Katz
10. The _______Act describes procedures for the electronic surveillance and collection
of foreign intelligence information in communications between foreign powers and
agents of foreign powers. It also created a special court which meets in secret to hear
applications for orders approving electronic surveillance anywhere within the United
States.
Ans: Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act
11. Which of the following identifies the numbers dialed for outgoing calls?
a. pen register
b. wiretap
c. trap and trace
d. all of the above
Ans: a
12. In 2011, the Department of Justice submitted 1,745 applications for electronic
surveillance to the FISA court and none of those applications were denied. True or
False?
Ans: True
13. The _______Act gave sweeping new powers both to domestic law enforcement and
U.S. international intelligence agencies, including increasing the ability of law
enforcement to search telephone, email, medical, financial, and other records.
Ans: USA PATRIOT
14. The European philosophy of addressing privacy concerns employs strict government
regulation, including enforcement by a set of commissioners; it differs greatly from the
U.S. philosophy of having no federal privacy policy. True or False?
Ans: True
15. ____________ is a term for a set of guidelines that govern the collection and use of
personal data.
Ans: Fair Information Practices
16. Nearly half the cost of a data breach is a result of lost business opportunity
associated with customers whose patronage is lost due to the incident. True or False?
Ans: True
17. A/an ________ is a text file that a Web site can download to a visitor’s hard drive to
identify visitors on subsequent visits.
Ans: Cookie
18. The agency that is responsible for protecting the privacy of U.S. consumers is the:
a. FBI
b. SEC
c. Department of Homeland Security
d. FTC
Ans: FTC

Chapter 5 Questions
1. The __________ to the U.S. Constitution was adopted to guarantee the right to
freedom of expression.
Ans: First Amendment
2. An important Supreme Court case that established a three-part test to determine if
material is obscene and therefore not protected speech was ________
Ans: Miller v. California
3. The right to freedom of expression is restricted when the expressions, whether spoken
or written, are untrue and cause harm. True or False?
Ans: True
4. Because defamation is defined as an untrue statement of fact, truth is an absolute
defense against a charge of defamation. True or False?
Ans: True
5. ________of the Communications Decency Act provides immunity to an Internet
service provider that publishes user-generated content, as long as its actions do not rise
to the level of a content provider.
Ans: Section 230
6. Which of the following laws required federally financed schools and libraries to use
some form of technological protection to block computer access to obscene material,
pornography, and anything else considered harmful to minors?
a. Telecommunications Act
b. Child Online Protection Act
c. Children’s Internet Protection Act
d. Communications Decency Act
Ans: c
7. is the control or suppression of the publishing or accessing of information on the
Internet.
Ans: Internet censorship
8. An anti-SLAPP law is used by government officials against citizens who oppose them
on matters of public concern. True or False?
Ans: False
9. ________ involves the examination of Internet records in an attempt to reveal the
identity of an anonymous poster.
Ans: Doxing
10. All anonymous email and blog postings are either illegal or unethical. True or False?
Ans: False
11. A/an ________ lawsuit can be filed against a defendant whose identity is temporarily
unknown because he or she is communicating anonymously or using a pseudonym.
Ans: True
12. The California State Court in Pre-Paid v. Sturtz et al set a legal precedent that courts
apply when deciding:
a. whether material is obscene
b. if a library must install filters on its computers
c. whether or not to approve subpoenas requesting the identity of anonymous Web
posters
d. whether speech is merely annoying or hate speech
Ans: c
13. A person who posts material on the Web that is illegal in a foreign country can be
prosecuted if he visits that country; however, U.S. laws do not allow a person to be
extradited for an activity protected by the U.S. Constitution. True or False?
Ans: True
14. Pornography purveyors are free to produce and publish whatever they want;
however, if what they distribute or exhibit is judged obscene, they are subject to
prosecution under obscenity laws. True or False?
Ans: True
15. Sexting is a fast-growing trend among U.S. teenagers. True or False?
Ans: False
16. The Act specifies requirements that commercial emailers must follow in sending out
messages that advertise or promote a commercial product or service.
Ans: CAN-SPAM

Chapter 6 Questions
1. Which of the following is an example of intellectual property?
a. a work of art
b. a computer program
c. a trade secret of an organization
d. all of the above
Ans: d
2. Copyright law protects authored works; _______ law protects inventions.
Ans: patent
3. Software can be protected under copyright law, but it can also be patented. True or
False?
Ans: True
4. The courts may award up to triple damages for which of the following?
a. patent infringement
b. copyright infringement
c. trademark infringement
d. theft of trade secrets
Ans: a
5. Two software manufacturers develop separate but nearly identical programs for
playing an online game. Even though the second manufacturer can establish that it
developed the program on its own, without knowledge of the existing program, that
manufacturer could be found guilty of copyright infringement. True or False?
Ans: False
6. Title II of the _______ amends the Copyright Act by adding a new section that
enables a Web site operator that allows users to post content on its Web site to avoid
copyright infringement if certain “safe harbor” provisions are followed.
Ans: Digital Millennium Copyright Act
7. A/an __________ is a logo, package design, phrase, sound, or word that enables a
consumer to differentiate one company’s products from another’s.
Ans: trademark
8. Many large software companies have ______ agreements with each other in which
each agrees not to sue the other over patent infringement.
Ans: cross-licensing
9. The ______ doctrine established four factors for courts to consider when deciding
whether a particular use of copyrighted property is fair and can be allowed without
penalty.
Ans: fair use
10. A ________ is a form of protection for intellectual property that does not require any
disclosures or the filing of an application.
a. copyright
b. patent
c. trade secret
d. trademark
Ans: c
11. The WTO developed the _________, which established minimum levels of
protection that each government must provide to the intellectual property of all WTO
members.
Ans: Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement
12. Plagiarism is an issue only in academia. True or False?
Ans: False
13. The process of taking something apart in order to understand it, build a copy of it, or
improve it is called _________.
Ans: reverse engineering
14. As part of the patent application, the USPTO searches the existing body of
knowledge that is available to a person of ordinary skill in the art. This existing body of
knowledge is also called _________.
Ans: prior art
15. Almost all the data needed for competitive intelligence can be collected either
through carefully examining published information or through interviews. True or False?
Ans: True
16. The main tactic used to circumvent is to register numerous domain name variations
as soon as an organization thinks it might want to develop a Web presence.
Ans: cybersquatting

Chapter 7 Questions
1. Which of the following is true about a high-quality software system?
a. It is more difficult to learn and use.
b. It meets its users’ needs.
c. It operates more slowly and deliberately.
d. It operates in an unreliable manner.
Ans: b
2. Software ________is the degree to which a software product meets the needs of its
users.
Ans: quality

3. Which of the following is a major cause of poor software quality?

a. Many developers do not know how to design quality into software or do not take the
time to do so.
b. Programmers make mistakes in turning design specifications into lines of code.
c. Software developers are under extreme pressure to reduce the time to market of their
products.
d. All of the above are major causes of poor software quality.
Ans: d
4. A decision support system might be used to do which of the following?
a. process large numbers of business transactions
b. assist managers in developing accurate forecasts
c. control manufacturing processes
d. perform all of the above
Ans: b
5. The liability of manufacturers, sellers, lessors, and others for injuries caused by
defective products is commonly referred to as _______.
Ans: product liability
6. A standard, proven work process for the development of high-quality software is
called a/an_________.
Ans: software development methodology
7. The cost to identify and remove a defect in an early stage of software development is
typically about the same as the cost of removing a defect in an operating piece of
software after it has been distributed to many customers. True or False?
Ans: False
8. A software _________ is any error that if not removed could cause a software system
to fail to meet its users’ needs.
Ans: defect
9. Methods within the development cycle designed to guarantee reliable operation of the
product are known as _________.
Ans: quality assurance
10. Which of the following is a form of software testing that involves viewing a software
unit as a device that has expected input and output behaviors but whose internal
workings are known?
a. dynamic testing
b. white-box testing
c. integration testing
d. black-box testing
Ans: b
11. Which of the following is an approach that defines the essential elements of an
effective
process and outlines a system for continuously improving software development?
a. CMMI-DEV
b. FMEA
c. ISO-9000
d. DOD-178B
Ans: a
12. One of the most important and difficult areas of safety-critical system design is the
system-human interface. True or False?
Ans: True

13. The provision of multiple interchangeable components to perform a single function

to cope with failures and errors is called:
a. risk
b. redundancy
c. reliability
d. availability
Ans: b
14. A reliability evaluation technique that can determine the effect of system and
equipment failures is________.
Ans: failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA)
15. When discussing system performance, the terms reliability and safety mean the
same. True or False?
Ans: False
16. In a lawsuit alleging ________, responsibility is limited to harmful defects that could
have been detected and corrected through “reasonable” software development practices.
Ans: negligence

Chapter 8 Questions
1. Which of the following statements about the standard of living is not true?
a. It is frequently measured using the gross domestic product per capita.
b. It varies little among groups within the same country.
c. Industrialized nations generally have a higher standard of living than developing
countries.
d. It varies greatly from nation to nation.
Ans: b
2.____________ is the amount of output produced per unit of input.
Ans: productivity
3. The period of time with the highest level of nonfarm productivity in the United States
is ______.
a. 1947–1973
b. 1973–1979
c. 2000–2007
d. 2007–2012
Ans: a
4. A study of 527 large U.S. firms from 1987 to 1994 found that the benefits of applying
IT grow over time and that an IT investment can take:
a. one to three years to break even.
b. three to five years for its users to become efficient in its use.
c. over seven years to fully recover the initial investment costs.
d. five to seven years to result in a substantial increase in productivity.
Ans: d
5.________ is a term used to describe the gulf between those who do and those who
don’t have access to modern information and communications technology, such as cell
phones, smartphones, personal computers, and the Internet.
Ans: Digital divide
6. It is estimated that during 2011, roughly of employed Americans worked at
least one day per week from home.
a. 0% to 10%
b. 10% to 20%
c. 20% to 30%
d. 30% to 40%
Ans: c
7. The group(s) of people living in the United States that is least likely to have Internet
access is/are ____________
a. Hispanics and African Americans
b. urban dwellers
c. residents of the Northeast
d. Asians
Ans: a
8. North America has a greater Internet penetration rate than Asia. True or False?
Ans: True
9. The_______ program was designed to eliminate the digital divide in the United
States by helping schools and libraries obtain high-speed Internet connections.
Ans: E-rate
10. Which of the following statements about healthcare spending is not true?
a. U.S. spending on health care in 2011 was about $2.7 trillion.
b. The development and use of new medical technology in the United States has clearly
led to a reduction in healthcare costs.
c. Much of the growth in healthcare costs is due to the continued aging of the population
in the United States.
d. U.S. spending on health care is expected to increase an average of 6.3 percent from
2015 until 2021.
Ans: b
11. Some studies have estimated that at least 98,000 people die in hospitals each year
due to preventable mistakes. True or False?
Ans: True
12. A(n) is a summary of health information generated by each patient encounter in any
healthcare delivery setting.
Ans: electronic health record (EHR)
13. Under the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act,
increased Medicaid or Medicare reimbursements will be made to doctors and hospitals
that demonstrate of EHR technology.
Ans: meaningful use

Chapter 9 Questions
1. A/an _______brings shoppers and sellers together in a social networking environment
in which participants can share information and make recommendations while shopping
online.
Ans: social shopping network Web site
2. How many people are estimated to be Internet users worldwide?
a. over 1 billion
b. about 1.5 billion
c. over 2 billion
d. over 3 billion
Ans: c
3. _________ is a popular business-oriented Web site used for professional networking,
with over 100 million unique visitors each month.
Ans: Linked-In
4. Averaged across all ages, U.S. males spend over 6 hours per month and females over
8 hours per month on social networking sites. True or False?
Ans: True
5. ________ encourages individuals to pass along a marketing message to others, thus
creating the potential for exponential growth in the message’s exposure and influence as
one person tells two people, each of those two people tell two or three more people, and
so on.
a. direct advertising
b. viral marketing
c. indirect advertising through groups
d. a company-owned social networking Web site
Ans: b
6. Employers can legally reject a job applicant based on the content of the individual’s
social networking Web site as long as the company is not violating discrimination laws.
True or False?
Ans: False
7. There are over 747,000 registered sex offenders in the United States, and 90,000 of
them were found on and subsequently banned from the social networking Web site
_______.
Ans: My Space
8. Based on a formal survey of 15,000 middle and high school children, it is estimated
that as many as 45 percent of teenagers have experienced cyberbullying in their lifetime.
True or False?
Ans: False
9. Current federal statutes thoroughly address all aspects of cyberstalking, with no gaps
in federal and state laws. True or False?
Ans: False
10. Which of the following measures is employed by social networking Web sites to
avoid the posting of objectionable material?
a. The terms of use agreement for most social networking Web sites states that the Web
site reserves the right to delete material or terminate user accounts that violate the
site’s policies.
b. Social networking Web sites employ people to review material submitted.
c. Other users sometimes report objectionable material.
d. All of the above
Ans: d
11. To date, no practical business applications of online virtual worlds have been
implemented. True or False?
Ans: False
12. The two primary objectives of social media advertisers are driving traffic to a Web
site to increase product sales and raising ________.
Ans: brand awareness

Chapter 10 Questions
1. The IT position with the highest 2010 median salary is:
a. system administrator
b. programmer
c. database administrator
d. software developer
Ans: d
2. Which of the following statements is true about future job prospects in the IT
industry?
a. The Bureau of Labor Statistics estimates that as of 2010, 3.4 million people were
employed in IT-related positions in the United States, and the agency expects this
sector to add around 750,000 new jobs between 2010 and 2020.
b. After several years of increasing, the number of undergraduate degrees granted
in computer science, computer engineering, and information systems is now
declining.
c. U.S. employers should have no problem recruiting IT workers with the skills that
meet their needs.
d. None of the above
Ans: a
3. Which of the following is not an advantage for organizations that employ contingent
workers?
a. The company can release contingent workers when they are no longer needed.
b. Training costs are kept to a minimum.
c. Contingent workers provide a way to meet fluctuating staffing needs.
d. The contingent worker’s experience may be useful to the next firm that hires him or
her.
Ans: d
4. Depending on how closely workers are supervised and how the job is structured,
contingent workers can be viewed as permanent employees by the IRS, the U.S.
Department of Labor, or a state’s workers’ compensation and unemployment agencies.
True or False?
Ans: True
5. A temporary working visa granted by the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
for people who work in specialty occupations—jobs that require at least a four-year
bachelor’s degree in a specific field, or equivalent experience—is called a (an) visa.
Ans: H-1B
6. Which of the following countries was the top country of birth for H-1B workers in the
United States in 2011?
a. Canada
b. Mexico
c. China
d. India
Ans: d
7. Many observers believe that reducing the number of foreign nationals that U.S. firms
hire would lessen growth and investment in the United States. True or False?
Ans: True
8. According to A.T. Kearney, the three most attractive offshoring destinations are:
a. India, Egypt, and Philippines
b. India, China, and Malaysia
c. Vietnam, Philippines, and Chile
d. China, Mexico, and Thailand
Ans: b
9. The cost advantage for Indian workers over U.S. workers continues to increase.
True or False?
Ans: False
10. Which of the following statements about whistle-blowing is true?
a. Violators of the False Claim Act are liable for four times the dollar amount that the
government is defrauded.
b. Whistle-blowing is an effective approach to take in dealing with all work-related
matters, from the serious to mundane.
c. From the moment an employee becomes known as a whistle-blower, a public battle
may ensue, with negative publicity attacks on the individual’s personal integrity.
d. A whistle-blower must be an employee of the company that is the source of the
problem.
Ans: c
11. Which of the following are desirable characteristics of a “green computer”?
a. It runs on less electricity than the typical computer.
b. It contains a high percentage of reusable or recyclable materials.
c. Its manufacturer has a program to help consumers dispose of it at the end of its life.
d. All of the above
Ans: d
12. It is estimated that over 1 million tons of computers, monitors, and hard copy devices
were disposed of in the United States in 2010. True or False?
Ans: True

13. __________ was the highest-ranked manufacturer by Greenpeace for its excellent
corporate policies in regard to toxic chemicals, recycling, and climate change in 2012.
Ans: Wipro
14. Products are ranked in EPEAT according to three tiers of environmental
performance, with ______ being the highest.
Ans: gold