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JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1

CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180


ANSWER KEY
&
SOLUTION WITH EXPLANATION

Solution Sheet Available Only for 24 Hours


PART – 1 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION - 1 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains THREE (03) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : + 𝟒 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : + 𝟑 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : + 𝟐 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : + 𝟏 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −𝟐 In all other cases.

a2
1. Consider a sequence {an } with a1 = 2 and an = an−1 for all n ≥ 3, terms of the sequence being
n−2

distinct. Given that a2 and a5 are positive integers and a5 ≤ 162, then the possible value(s) of

a5 can be

(A) 162

(B) 64

(C) 32

(D) 2

Ans. (AC)

APNI KAKSHA 1
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
an a
Sol. Given a1 = 2; a = an−1
n−1 n−2

Hence, a1 , a2 , a3 , a4 , a5 , … in G.P.
Let a2 = x. Then for n = 3, we have
a3 a x2
= a2 ⇒ a22 = a1 a3 ⇒ a3 =
a2 1 2

x2 x3 x4 x
i.e. 2, x, , , , … with common ratio r = 2
2 4 8

x4
Given ≤ 162 ⇒ x 4 ≤ 1296 ⇒ x ≤ 6
8
x4
Also x and are integers.
8
x4
So if x is even, then only will be an integer.
8

Hence, possible values of x is 4 and 6. (x ≠ 2 as terms are distinct)

x4 44 64
Hence, possible value of a5 = is ,
8 8 8

2. Number of shortest ways in which we can reach from the point (0,0,0) to point (3,7,11) in
space where the movement is possible only along the x-axis, y-axis, and z-axis or parallel to
them and change of axes is permitted only at integral points (an integral point is one which has
its coordinate as integer) is

(A) equivalent to number of ways of dividing 21 different objects in three groups of size 3,7,11
(B) equivalent to coefficient of y 3 z 7 in the expansion of (1 + y + z)21

(C) equivalent to number of ways of distributing 21 different objects in three boxes of size
3,7,11

(D) equivalent to number of ways of arranging 21 objects of which 3 are alike of one kind, 7 are
alike of second type, and 11 are alike of third type

Ans. (ABD)
Sol. Total number of units to be covered is 3 + 7 + 11 = 21. A person can choose 3 units in 21
C3
ways. A person can choose 7 units in 18
C7 ways. The rest 11 units can be chosen in 1 way.
Therefore, total number of ways is 21
C3 × 18
C7 × 1 = 21!/(3! 7! 11!).
For correct answers (1) and (4), see the respective theory. For correct answer (2) see the
theory of multinomial expansion in the binomial theorem.

APNI KAKSHA 2
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
x2 y2
3. For the hyperbola a2 − b2 = 1, let n be the number of points on the plane through which

perpendicular tangents are drawn.


(A) If n = 1, then e = √2.
(B) If n > 1, then 0 < e < √2.
(C) If n = 0, then e > √2.
(D) None of these.
Ans. (ABC)
Sol. The locus of the point of intersection of perpendicular tangents is director circle

x 2 + y 2 = a2 − b2 . Now,

b2
e2 = 1 +
a2

If a2 > b2 , then there are infinite (or more than 1) points on the circle, i.e., e2 < 2 or e < √2.

If a2 < b2 , there does not exist any point on the plane, i.e., e2 > 2 or e > √2.

If a2 = b2 , there is exactly one point (center of the hyperbola), i.e., e = √2.

SECTION - 2 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +𝟑 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −𝟏 In all other cases.

4. The circle passing through the point (−1,0) and touching the y-axis at (0,2) also passes through
the point
(A) (−3/2,0) (B) (−5/2,2) (C) (−3/2,5/2) (D) (−4,0)
Ans. (D)

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JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
Sol. Equation of circle touching the y-axis at (0,2) is

(x − 0)2 + (y − 2)2 + λx = 0

It passes through (−1,0). Therefore,

1 + 4 − λ = 0 or λ = 5

∴ Equation of circle is

x 2 + y 2 + 5x − 4y + 4 = 0

Putting y = 0, we get x = −1, −4.


Therefore, the circle passes through (−4,0).
5. The line x − y = 1 intersects the parabola y 2 = 4x at A and B Normals at A and B intersect at C.
If D is the point at which line CD is normal to the parabola, then the coordinates of D are
(A) (4, −4)
(B) (4,4)
(C) (−4, −4)
(D) none of these
Ans. (B)
Sol. Solving the line y = x − 1 and the parabola y 2 = 4x, we have

(x − 1)2 = x

or x 2 − 6x + 1 = 0

or x = 3 ± √8

∴ y = 2 ± √8

Suppose point D is (X 3 , y3 ). Then,

y1 + y2 + y3 = 0

or 2 + √8 + 2 − √8 + y3 = 0

or y3 = −4

Then x3 = 4.
Therefore, the point is (4,4).

APNI KAKSHA 4
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
6. The locus of the orthocenter of the triangle formed by the lines (1 + p)x − py + p(1 + p) =
0, (1 + q)x − qy + q(1 + q) = 0 and y = 0, where p ≠ q, is
(A) a hyperbola
(B) a parabola
(C) an ellipse
(D) a straight line
Ans. (D)
Sol. The intersection point of y = 0 with the first line is B(−p, 0). The intersection point of y = 0
with the second line is A(−q, 0).
The intersection point of the two lines is
C(pq, (p + 1)(q + 1))
The altitude from C to AB is x = pq.
The altitude from B to AC is
q
y = − 1+q (x + p)

Solving these two, we get x = pq and y = −pq.


Therefore, the locus of the orthocenter is x + y = 0.

7. Let C be a curve which is the locus of the point of intersection of lines x = 2 + m and my = 4 −
m. A circle s ≡ (x − 2)2 + (y + 1)2 = 25 intersects the curve C at four points: P, Q, R, and S. If O
is center of the curve C, then OP 2 + OQ2 + OR2 + OS 2 is
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 25 (D) 25/2
Ans. (B)
Sol. x−2 =m
4
y+1=m

∴ (x − 2)(y + 1) = 4
or XY = 4
where X = x − 2, Y = y + 1
S ≡ (x − 2)2 + (y + 1)2
= 25
or X 2 + Y 2 = 25
Curve C and circle S both are concentric. Therefore,
OP 2 + OQ2 + OR2 + OS 2 = 4r 2
= 4 × 25 = 100

APNI KAKSHA 5
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH

SECTION - 3 (Maximum Marks : 24)


• This section contains 𝐒𝐈𝐗(06) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and
the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +𝟒 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 𝟎 In all other cases.

5
8. The number of distinct solutions of the equation 4 cos 2 2x + cos 4 x + sin4 x + cos 6 x +

sin6 x = 2 in the interval [0,2π] is____________.


Ans. (8)
5
Sol. cos2 2x + cos4 x + sin4 x + cos6 x + sin6 x = 2
4

5
⇒ 4 cos2 2x + (sin2 x + cos2 x)2 − 2sin2 xcos 2 x +

(sin2 x + cos 2 x)3 − 3 sin2 x cos 2 x(sin2 x + cos 2 x) = 2


5 1 3
⇒ 4 cos2 2x + 1 − 2 sin2 2x + 1 − 4 sin2 2x = 2

⇒ cos2 2x = sin2 2x

⇒ tan2 2x = 1

⇒ tan 2x = ±1
π
⇒ 2x = nπ ± 4 , n ∈ Z
π
⇒ x = (4n ± 1) 8 , n ∈ Z

π 3π 5π 7π 9π 11π 13π 15π


⇒ x = 8, , , , , , ,
8 8 8 8 8 8 8

So, number of solutions = 8.

9. For a point P in the plane, let d1 (P) and d2 (P) be the distances of the point P from the lines x −
y = 0 and x + y = 0, respectively. The area of the region R consisting of all points P lying in the
first quadrant of the plane and satisfying 2 ≤ d1 (P) + d2 (P) ≤ 4, is
Ans. (6)

APNI KAKSHA 6
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
Sol. For P(x, y), we have
2 ≤ d1 (P) + d2 (P) ≤ 4
|x−y| |x+y|
⇒2≤ + ≤4
√2 √2

2√2 ≤ |x − y| + |x + y| ≤ 4√2
In first quadrant, if x > y, we have
2√2 ≤ x − y + x + y ≤ 4√2
or √2 ≤ x ≤ 2√2
The region of points satisfying these inequalities is

In first quadrant, if x < y, we have


2√2 ≤ y − x + x + y ≤ 4√2
Or √2 ≤ y ≤ 2√2
The region of points satisfying these inequalities is

Combining above two regions, we have

Area of the shaded region = ((2√2)2 − (√2)2 ) = 8 − 2 = 6 sq. units

APNI KAKSHA 7
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
10. Tangents are drawn from the point (α, β) to the hyperbols 3x 2 − 2y 2 = 6 and are inclined at
angles θ and ϕ to the x-axis. If tan θ ⋅ tan ϕ = 2, then the value of 2α2 − β2 is_________
Ans. (7)
Sol. The given hyperbola is
3x 2 − 2y 2 = 6
x2 y2
or − =1
2 3

Equation of tangent is
y = mx ± √a2 m2 − b 2
or (y − mx)2 = a2 m2 − b2
Tangents from the point (α, β) will be
(β − mα)2 = 2m2 − 3 ( Since a2 = 2 and b2 = 3)
or m2 α2 + β2 − 2mαβ − 2m2 + 3 = 0
m2 (α2 − 2) − 2αβm + β2 + 3 = 0
β2 +3
m1 ⋅ m2 = α2−3 = 2 = tan θtan ϕ

∴ β2 + 3 = 2(α2 − 2)
or 2α2 − β2 = 7
x2 y2 x2 y2
11. Radii of director circles of curves a2 + b2 = 1 and a2 − b2 = 1 are 2r and r, respectively. If e1 and

e2 are the eccentricities of ellipse and hyperbola, respectively, then 4e22 − e12 =_________
Ans. (6)
Sol. Equations of director circles of ellipse and hyperbola are, respectively,
x 2 + y 2 = a2 + b 2
and x 2 + y 2 = a2 − b2
According to the question, we have
a2 + b2 = 4r 2
a2 − b 2 = r 2
Solving Eq. (1) and (2), we get
5r2 3r2
a2 = , b2 =
2 2
b2
e12 = 1 −
a2
3r2 2 3 2
=1− × 5r2 = 1 − 5 = 5
2
b2 3 8
e22 = 1 + a2 = 1 + 5 = 5
8 2
So, 4e22 − e12 = 4 × 5 − 5 = 6

APNI KAKSHA 8
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
12. Two circles C1 and C2 both pass through the points A(1,2) and E(2,1) and touch the line 4x −
2y = 9 at B and D, respectively. The possible coordinates of a point C, such that the
quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram, are (a, b). Then the value of |ab| is
Ans. (4)
Sol. The radical axis bisects the common tangent BD. Hence, M is the midpoint of BD.

Let C ≡ (a, b).

Now, C(a, b) lies on common chord AE which is y − 2 = −1(x − 1) or x + y = 3.


Therefore,
a+b=3
Also,
a+1 b+2
M( , ) lies on 4x − 2y = 9.
2 2

Therefore,
a+1 b+2
4( ) − 2( )=9
2 2
or 2a + 2 − b − 2 = 9
or 2a − b = 9
Solving (1) and (2), a = 4 and b = −1.
Therefore,
∴ |ab| = 4

13. If coefficient of x 2 in the expansion of


(1 + 2x + x 2 + 2𝑥 3 + 𝑥 4 + 2𝑥 5 + ⋯ . . +2𝑥 2019 )50 (1 − 𝑥 + 𝑥 3 − 𝑥 5 + 𝑥 7 − ⋯ . . +𝑥 2019 )100 is 𝑘,
then the value of k is equal to
Ans. -100

APNI KAKSHA 9
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH

SECTION - 4 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is
chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −𝟏 In all other cases.

𝑥2 𝑦2
14. Let 𝐻: 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 = 1, where 𝑎 > 𝑏 > 0, be a hyperbola in the 𝑥𝑦-plane whose conjugate axis 𝐿𝑀

subtends an angle of 60∘ at one of its vertices 𝑁. Let the area of the triangle 𝐿𝑀𝑁 be 4√3.
The correct option is:
List-I List-II
P. The length of the conjugate axis of 𝐻 is I. 8
Q. The eccentricity of 𝐻 is II. 4
√3
R. The distance between the foci of 𝐻 is III. 2
√3
S. The length of the latus rectum of 𝐻 is IV. 4

(A) 𝑃 → IV; 𝑄 → II; 𝑅 → I; 𝑆 → III (B) 𝑃 → IV; 𝑄 → III ; 𝑅 → I; 𝑆 → II


(C) 𝑃 → IV; 𝑄 → I; 𝑅 → III; 𝑆 → II (D) 𝑃 → III; Q → IV; 𝑅 → II; 𝑆 → I
Ans. (B)
Sol. Area of △ 𝐿𝑀𝑁 = 4√3
1
(2𝑏)(√3𝑏) = 4√3 ⇒ 𝑏 2 = 4 ⇒ 𝑏 = 2 ⇒ 2𝑏 = 4
2
𝑎
Here, 𝑏 = 𝑐𝑜𝑡 30∘ ⇒ 𝑎 = √3𝑏 ⇒ 𝑎 = 2√3
Now, 𝑏 2 = 𝑎2 (𝑒 2 − 1) ∴ 4 = 12(𝑒 2 − 1)
1 4 2
⇒ 𝑒2 = 1 + 3 = 3 ⇒ 𝑒 =
√3
2
Distance between foci = 2𝑎𝑒 = 2 × 2√3 × =8
√3
2𝑏 2 2×4 4
Length of latus rectum = = =
𝑎 2√3 √3

APNI KAKSHA 10
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
15. Match the following lists and then choose the correct code.
List-I List-II
P. If the vertices of a rectangle of maximum area inscribed in the ellipse I. 2
𝑥2 𝑦2 √5
+ 𝑏2 = 1 are extremities of latus rectum, then the eccentricity of
𝑎2
the ellipse is
Q. If the extremities of the diameter of the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 16 are the II. 1
foci of the ellipse, then the eccentricity of the ellipse, if its size is just √2
sufficient to contain the circle, is
R. If the normal at point (6,2) to the ellipse passes through its nearest III. 1
focus (5,2), having center at (4,2), then its eccentricity is 3
S. If the extremities of the latus rectum of the parabola 𝑦 2 = 24𝑥 are IV. 1
the foci of ellipse, and if the ellipse passes through the vertex of the 2
parabola, then its eccentricity is

(A) P → III; Q → II; R → IV; S → I


(B) P → II; Q → III; R → IV; S → I
(C) P → I; Q → II; R → IV; S → III
(D) P → II; Q → II; R → IV; S → I
Ans. (D)
Sol.

P. Let one of the vertices of the rectangle be 𝑃(𝑎𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃, 𝑏𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃). Then its area is
𝐴 = (2𝑎𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃)(2𝑏𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃) = 2𝑎𝑏𝑠𝑖𝑛 2𝜃
Hence, 𝐴𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 2𝑎𝑏
Now, the area of rectangle formed by the extremities of the latus rectum is
2𝑏 2
2𝑎𝑒 × = 4𝑒𝑏 2
𝑎
Given that 2𝑎𝑏 = 4𝑒𝑏 2
2𝑏 4𝑏 2
or 𝑒 = 1 or 𝑒2 = 1
𝑎 𝑎2

or 4(1 − 𝑒 2 )𝑒 2 = 1 or 4𝑒 4 − 4𝑒 2 + 1 = 0
1
or (2𝑒 2 − 1)2 = 0 or 𝑒 =
√2
APNI KAKSHA 11
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
Q.

For the ellipse, the distance 𝑐 between the foci, 2𝑎𝑒 = 8, and the length of the semi-
minor axis is 𝑏 = 4. Now,
𝑏 2 = 𝑎2 − 𝑎2 𝑒 2
16 1
or 16 = 𝑎2 − 16 or 𝑎2 = 32 or 𝑒 = √1 − 32 =
√2

R. Normal at point 𝑃(6,2) to the ellipse passes through its focus 𝑄(5,2). Then 𝑃 must be
the extremity of the major axis. Now, 𝑎𝑒 = 𝑄𝑅 = 1 (where 𝑅 is center) and 𝑎 − 𝑎𝑒 = 1.

∴𝑎=2
3 1
𝑏 2 = 𝑎2 − 𝑎2 𝑒 2 = 4 − 1 = 3 or 𝑒 = √1 − 4 = 2

S.

The extremities of the latus rectum of the parabola 𝑦 2 = 24𝑥 are (6, ±12).
For ellipse, 2𝑏𝑒 = 24 and the extremity of the minor axis is (0,0). Hence, 𝑎 = 6. Now,
36 1 2
𝑎2 = 𝑏 2 − 𝑏 2 𝑒 2 or 𝑏 2 = 36 + 144 = 180 or 𝑒 2 = √1 − 180 = √1 − 5 =
√5

APNI KAKSHA 12
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
16.
List-I (Equation) List-II (Solution)
P. If 𝑚𝑎𝑥𝜃∈𝑅 {5𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 + 3𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝜃 − 𝛼)} = 7, I. 2𝑛𝜋 + 3𝜋/4, 𝑛 ∈ 𝑍
then the set of possible values of 𝛼 is
Q. 𝑛𝜋 2
II. 𝜋
𝑥≠ and −(𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥)𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥−3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥+2
=1 𝑥 = 2𝑛𝜋 ± ,𝑛 ∈ 𝑍
2
3
R. √(𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥) + 21/4 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 = 0 III. 2𝑛𝜋 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 (1/3)
S. 𝑙𝑜𝑔5 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑥 = (𝑙𝑜𝑔5 4) 𝑛 ∈ 𝑍 IV. no solution
(𝑙𝑜𝑔4 (3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥))

(A) P → III; Q → II; R → IV; S → I (B) P → II; Q → IV; R → I; S → III


(C) P → I; Q → II; R → IV; S → III (D) P → II; Q → II; R → IV; S → I
Ans. (B)
Sol. P. 5𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 + 3(𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝛼)
= (5 + 3𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼)𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 − 3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝛼𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 ⇒ 𝑚𝑎𝑥 {5𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 + 3𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝜃 − 𝛼)}
𝜃∈𝑅

= √(5 + 3𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼)2 + 9𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝛼 = √34 + 30𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼


Therefore, the given equation is 34 + 30𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼 = 49
Or 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼 = 1/2 ⇒ 𝛼 = 2𝑛𝜋 ± 𝜋/3, 𝑛 ∈ 𝑍
2
Q. (𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥)𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥−3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥+2
=1
⇒ 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 − 3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 + 2 = 0 ⇒ (𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 − 2)(𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 − 1) = 0 ⇒ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 = 1
But this does not satisfy the equation because 00 = 1 is absurd.
R. √(𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥) + 21/4 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 = 0

∴ √(𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥) > 0 and so 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 < 0,


Also 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 > 0 ⇒ 𝑥 lies in the second quadrant
Equation (i) can be rewritten as 21/4 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 = −√(𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥)
On squaring, we get √2𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥
or √2𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 − √2 = 0 or (√2𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 − 1)(𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 + √2) = 0
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 ≠ −√2, therefore 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 = 1/√2
⇒ 𝑥 = 3𝜋/4 and so the general value of 𝑥 is given by 𝑥 = 2𝑛𝜋 + 3𝜋/4, 𝑛 ∈ 𝑍
S. 𝑙𝑜𝑔5 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑥 = (𝑙𝑜𝑔5 4)(𝑙𝑜𝑔4 (3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥)) ⇒ 𝑙𝑜𝑔5 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑥 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔5 (3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥)
Since 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 is real when 𝑥 > 0, we have 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑥 > 0, 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 > 0
Therefore, 𝑥 lies in the first quadrant. Now Eq. (i) gives
𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑥 = 3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 or 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 = 1/3
∴ 𝑥 = 2𝑛𝜋 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 (1/3), 𝑛 ∈ 𝑍

APNI KAKSHA 13
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
17. Match the statements in List I with those in List II [Note: Here 𝑧 takes the values in the complex
plane and 𝐼𝑚 (𝑧) and 𝑅𝑒 (𝑧) denote, respectively, the imaginary part and the real part of 𝑧]
List-I (Equation) List-II (Solution)

P. The set of points 𝑧 satisfying |𝑧 − 𝑖|𝑧 ∥ −|𝑧 + I. an ellipse with


𝑖|𝑧 ∥= 0 is contained in or equal to eccentricity 4/5
Q. The set of points 𝑧 satisfying |𝑧 + 4| + |𝑧 − 4| = II. the set of points 𝑧
10 is contained in or equal to satisfying 𝐼𝑚 𝑧 = 0
R. If |𝜔| = 2, then the set of points 𝑧 = 𝜔 − (1/𝜔) III. the set of points 𝑧
is contained in or equal to satisfying |𝐼𝑚 𝑧| ≤ 1
S. If |𝜔| = 1, then the set of points 𝑧 = 𝜔 + 1/𝜔 is IV. the set of points z
contained in or equal to satisfying |Rez| ≤ 1
V. the set of points z
satisfying |z| ≤ 3

(A) P → III; Q → II; R → IV; S → I


(B) P → II; Q → I; R → I,V; S → II,V
(C) P → I; Q → II; R → IV; S → III
(D) P → I,IV; Q → I; R → III; S → II,V
Ans. (B)
z z
Sol. P. ||z| − i| = ||z| + i| , z ≠ 0
z
is unimodular complex number and lies on perpendicular bisector of i and −i
|z|
z
⇒ = ±1 ⇒ z = ±1|z| ⇒ z is real number ⇒ lm (z) = 0.
|z|

Q. |z + 4| + |z − 4| = 10
z lies on an ellipse whose focus are (4,0) and (−4,0) and length of major axis is 10
⇒ 2ae = 8 and 2a = 10 ⇒ e = 4/5
|Re (z)| ≤ 5
R. |ω| = 2 ⇒ ω = 2(cos θ + isin θ)
1 3 5
⇒ = x + iy = 2(cos θ + isin θ) − 2 (cos θ − isin θ) = 2 cos θ + i 2 sin θ
x2 y2 9/4 9 16 4
⇒ (3/2)2 + (5/2)2 = 1 ⇒ e2 = 1 − 25/4 = 1 − 25 = 25 ⇒ e = 5

S. |ω| = 1 ⇒ x + iy = cos θ + isin θ + cos θ − isin θ


x + iy = 2cos θ
|Re (z)| ≤ 1, Im (z) = 0.

APNI KAKSHA 14
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH

PART – 2 : PHYSICS

SECTION - 1 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains THREE (03) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : + 𝟒 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : + 𝟑 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : + 𝟐 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : + 𝟏 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −𝟐 In all other cases.

18. Two long blocks m = 1 kg and M = 3 kg are placed as shown. The coefficient of friction
between the blocks is μ2 = 0.8 and between the floor and M is μ1 = 0.1. Initially M is at rest and
m is given a speed u = 28 m/s. Which of the following is/are correct?

(A) Mechanical energy dissipated out of the system of (m + M) due to friction at ground is 392 J
(B) Total work done by friction on m due to M is −392 J
(C) Total work done by friction applied by m on M is 56 J
(D) Mechanical energy dissipated out of the system of (m + M) due to friction between the
block is six time the loss due to friction at ground
Ans: (B, C, D)
Sol: Friction on m is 8 N left for t = 0 to t = 3 and during this time m will travel 48 m to right and
reach a speed of 4 m/s. During the same interval M will have a friction of 8 N on top towards
right and friction of 4 N to left from ground. It will travel 6 m to right and reach the same
common speed of 4 m/s. From t = 3 to t = 7 both blocks move together with friction between
becoming static at a value of 1 N. They travel an addition 8 m to right.
Work down by friction on m = (−8 × 48) + (−1 × 8) = −392 J
Work down by friction on M due to m = (8 × 6) + (1 × 8) = 56 J
Work down by ground friction on M = [−4 × (6 + 8)] = −56 J

APNI KAKSHA 15
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
19. A projectile is fired on a horizontal ground. Coefficient of restitution between the projectile and
T H
the ground is e. Let a, b and c be the ratio of time of flight (T1 ), maximum height (H1) and
2 2

R
horizontal range (R1 ) in first two collisions with the ground, then
2

1 1
(A) a = e (B) b = e2
1
(C) c = a2 (D) All of these

Ans: (𝐀, 𝐁)
Sol: In collision horizontal component vx remains unchanged while the vertical component uy now
2 usin θ 2uy
T= =
g g

T ∝ uy
T1 1
∴ =
T2 e
u2 sin2 θ u2y H1 1
H= = ∝ u2y ∴ = 2
2g 2g H2 e
u2 sin 2θ 2ux uy R1 1
R= = ∝y ∴ =
g g R2 e
20. A solid sphere of mass m is released on the plank of mass M which lies on an inclined plane of
inclination θ shown in figure. There is sufficient frictional force between sphere and plank and
the minimum value of co-efficient of friction between plank and surfaces is μ to keep the plank
at rest. Then

2
(A) Frictional force between sphere and plank is 7 mgsin θ, when plank is at rest.
7M+2m
(B) The value of μ is 7(M+m) tan θ

(C) If there is no friction between the plank and inclined plane, then acceleration of plank is
less than gsin θ
(D) If there is no friction between plank and inclined plane, then friction force on the sphere is
zero.
Ans: (A, B, D)

APNI KAKSHA 16
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH

Sol.

Use force and torque equation for m and M.


Also use no slip condition

SECTION - 2 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +𝟑 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −𝟏 In all other cases.

21. A small block of mass 1 kg is released from rest at the top of rough track. The track is circular
arc of radius 40 m. The block slides along the track without toppling and a frictional force acts
on it in the direction opposite to the instantaneous velocity. The work done in overcoming the
friction up to the point Q, as shown in the figure below, is 150 J.
(Take the acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s−1 ).

The speed of the block when it reaches the point Q is


(A) 5 ms−1
(B) 10 ms −1
(C) 10√3 ms −1
(D) 20 ms −1
Ans: (B)

APNI KAKSHA 17
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
Sol: Using work energy theorem
1
mgRsin 30∘ + Wf = mv 2
2
v2
200 − 150 =
2
⇒ v = 10 m/s

22. A bead of mass m is sliding down the fixed inclined rod without friction. It is connected at a
point P on the horizontal surface with a light spring of spring constant k. The bead is initially
released form rest and the spring is initially unstressed and vertical. The bead just stops at the
bottom of the inclined rod. Find the angle which the inclined rod makes with horizontal.

2mg 2mg
(A) cot −1 (1 + √ ) (B) tan−1 (1 + √ kh )
kh

mg mg
(C) cot −1 (1 + √ kh ) (D) tan−1 (1 + √ kh )

Ans: (A)
Sol: Loss in gravitational P.E = gain in spring P.E

1 2mg
mgh = k(hcot α − h)2 or (cot α − 1) = √
2 kh

2mg
cot α = 1 + √
kh

23. A series of n identical balls is shown on a smooth horizontal surface. If number 1 moves
horizontally with speed u into number 2, which in turn collides with number 3 etc... and the
coefficient of restitution for each impact is e, determine the speed of the nth ball

(1+e)n−1 u (1+e)n u
(A) (B)
2n−1 2n
(1+e)n+1 u (1−e)n u
(C) (D)
2n+1 2n

Ans: (A)

APNI KAKSHA 18
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
Sol: Series of n identical ball, ball 1 collides with ball 2 with u, e

Mu = mv1 + mv2
eu = v2 − v1
v2 − v1
e=
u
u
(1 + e) = v2
2
u
v2 = (1 + e)
2
v2 (1 + e) (1 + e)u (1 + e)2
v3 = (1 + e) = =
2 2 2 22
(1 + e)n−1 u
vn =
2n−1
24. Three blocks are placed in contact on a horizontal frictionless surface. A constant force of 18 N
is applied to m1 . The coefficient of static friction between m2 and m3 is μs = 0.51. All three
blocks accelerate together to the right. What is the magnitude of friction force exerted by m2 on
m3 ?

(A) 9 N (B) 12 N (C) 4 N (D) 7 N


Ans: (A)

Sol:

Newton's 2nd Law


F − N = m1 a
N − Ff = m2 a
Ff = m3 a
Ff = 9 N; a = 3 m/s2

APNI KAKSHA 19
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH

SECTION - 3 (Maximum Marks : 24)


• This section contains 𝐒𝐈𝐗(06) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and
the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +𝟒 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 𝟎 In all other cases.

25. A block (B) is attached to two unstretched springs S1 and S2 with spring constants k and 4k,
respectively (see figure I). The other ends are attached to identical supports M1 and M2 not
attached to the walls. The springs and supports have negligible mass. There is no friction
anywhere. The block B is displaced towards wall 1 by a small distance x (figure II) and released.
The block returns and moves a maximum distance y towards wall 2. Displacements x and y are
x
measured with respect to the equilibrium position of the block B. The ratio y is

Ans: 2
1 1 x
Sol: kx 2 = 4ky 2 ⇒ y =
2 2 2

26. A movable sledge consists of a smooth track joined to a smooth circular track of radius
R = 56 cm. The entire sledge is moving with a constant acceleration starting from rest as
shown in the figure and initially a point mass P is placed on the sledge at a distance 2R from the
bottom of the circular track. Then what minimum initial horizontal speed should be given to
the point mass P such that it will reach the top most point on the circular track? [Take gravity
as 10 m/s2 ]

Ans: 7.00
APNI KAKSHA 20
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
Sol. Calculate the effective of weight and pseudo force in the sledge frame.
The critical point with minimum normal reaction will be a point with a radial vector making an
angle of 37∘ with the vertical.
27. A solid cylinder of diameter D is resting on a rough horizontal surface as shown in the figure. It
exerts a total normal force F uniformly distributed over it's base area. The friction coefficient is
μ and if the twisting torque that must be exerted by an external agent to cause rotary motion to
μFD
impend (about its symmetry axis) is . The value of k is
k

Ans: 3
Sol: Consider a small element of radius r and width dr.
F
Normal reaction dF = π × 2πrdr
D2
4

Frictional force dFf = μdF


Frictional moment dM = rdFf = rμdF

D/2 4F
Total moment M = ∫ dM = ∫0 rμ × πD2 × 2πrdr

4F (D/2)3
= × μ × 2π ×
πD2 3
μFD
M=
3

APNI KAKSHA 21
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
28. A uniform rod has mass m = 2 kg and length ℓ = 13 m. One end of the rod is pulled with a
constant velocity of v0 = 34 m/s along a frictionless horizontal floor in the negative x direction.
The other end is moving along a parabolic fixed curve. The equation of the parabola is x 2 =
20y. Find the angular velocity of the rod ( in rad/s) when the end point 'B' is at (10,5)

Ans: 2
V0 34
Sol: r0 = 17 ⇒ ω = = 17 = 2rad/s
r0

29. A rod of mass m and length L(= 50/3 m) is hinged on a plank of same mass m. The plank is
kept on a smooth horizontal surface and rod makes an angle θ with the vertical. The system is
released from θ = 0∘ . If the velocity (in m/s ) of plank when the rod makes θ = 180∘ (g =
n
10 m/s 2 ) is 'n'. Find 2.

Ans: 5
Sol: Use linear momentum conservation in x-direction combined with energy equation.
30. Two identical uniform discs roll without slipping on two different surfaces AB and CD (see
figure) starting at A C with linear speeds v1 and v2 , respectively, and always remain in contact
with the surfaces. If they reach B and D with the same linear speed v1 = 3 m/s, then v2 in m/s
is (g = 10 m/s 2 )

Ans: 7
1 1
Sol: mgh = 2 mv 2 + 2 Icm w 2 … (1)

V = Rω … (2)
APNI KAKSHA 22
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH

SECTION - 4 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is
chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −𝟏 In all other cases.

31. A block A of mass m kg lies on block B of same mass. B in turn lies on smooth horizontal plane.
The coefficient between A and B is μ. Both the blocks are initially at rest. A horizontal force F is
applied to upper block A at t = 0 such that there is relative motion between A and B. If the
duration from t = 0 second till the lower block B undergoes a displacement of magnitude L is
large enough, match the statements in Column-I with results in Column-II.
Column - I Column - II

(A) Work done by friction force on block A is (P) Positive

(B) Work done by friction force on block B is (Q) Negative

(C) Work done by friction on block A plus work (R) More than μmgL in magnitude

done by friction on block B is

(D) Work done by force F on block A is (S) Equal to μmgL in magnitude

(A) A - QR; B - S; C - Q; D - PR
(B) A - QR; B - PS; C - Q; D – PR
(C) A - P; B - Q; C - P; D – S
(D) A - R; B - P; C - P; D - Q
Ans: (B)

APNI KAKSHA 23
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
32. Configuration of L shaped block and two other blocks are shown. System is set free to move. At
any moment, match the following parameters. (g = 10 m/s2 )

Column - I Column - II

(A) Friction force between block A and B (P) 50 N

(B) Tension in string (Q) 70 N

(C) Normal reaction on block A by block B (R) 20 N

(D) Normal reaction on block B by table (S) 10 N

(A) A - Q; B - S; C - P; D - R
(B) A - S; B - P; C - R; D – Q
(C) A - P; B - Q; C - S; D – R
(D) A - R; B - Q; C - P; D - S
Ans: (B)
Sol: Use the principle of conservation of energy and force equation for vertical circular motion.

33. A bob of mass 2 kg is suspended from a vehicle by a rope of length ℓ = 5 m, the vehicle and the
bob are moving at a constant speed v0 . The vehicle is suddenly stopped by a bumper and the
bob swings out a maximum angle of 60∘ . Match the following:

APNI KAKSHA 24
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
Column - I Column - II
(A) Net force acting on the bob at lowest point just (P) 5√3 vehicle is stopped
after the hitting
(B) Acceleration of the bob at lowest point (Q) 10
(C) Net force acting on the bob at its highest point (R) 20
(D) Acceleration of the bob at its highest point (S) 10√3
The correct option is:
(A) A - R; B - Q; C - S; D - P (B) A - Q; B - P; C - S; D – R
(C) A - S; B - R; C - P; D - Q (D) A - P; B - S; C - R; D - Q
Ans: (D)
Sol: Conceptual
34. A uniform disc of radius r and mass m is at rest inside a cylindrical room of radius R with its flat
surface lying on the floor of room and its periphery just touching the wall of the room. Figure
shows the top view of the room and disc. There is no friction between floor and disc. The
friction coefficient between wall and disc is μ. The disc is given an impulse, which imparts a
velocity V0 to its centre of mass, tangential to wall of room and initial angular velocity is zero.
Given that V0 = 20 m/s, m = 2 kg, μ = 0.5, R = 5 m and r = 1 m and g = 10 m/s2 . Which of the
following is correct?

Column-I Column-II
(A) The time at which disc starts pure rolling is (P) 40
3
(B) The speed of centre of mass of disc when it starts pure (Q) 4
rolling is 20
(C) The angular velocity of disc about its centre after it (R) 800
starts pure rolling is 9
(D) Normal force acting on the disc when it starts pure (S) 820
rolling is 9
(T) 10
3

APNI KAKSHA 25
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
(A) A − P, B − P, C − Q, D − S
(B) A - Q, B - P, C - P, D – S
(C) A - Q, B - S, C - P, D – P
(D) A - S, B - Q, C - P, D - P
Ans: (B)
Sol: Let V be the speed of disc at any instant

mV 2
N=
(R − r)
μmV 2 dv μmV 2 μ
f = μN = −m = − ∫ V 2 dv = ∫ dt
(R − r) dt (R − r) R−r
1 v μ
| = t
V v0 R − r
1 1 μt
− =
V V0 (R − r)
(R − r)V0 dv μv 2
or V(t) = − =
(R − r) + μtV0 dt R − r
mr2 mrα
fr = α or μN =
2 2

mV 2 dω dv r r ω
or 2μ = mrα = mr − = − ∫ dv = ∫ dω
(R − r) dt dω 2 v0 2 0
When pure rolling starts say at t = t 0
V = rω
(R−r)
(A) ⇒ t 0 = 2rμV
0

(R−r)V0
(B) V(t=t0) = (R−r)+μt
0 V0
V
(C) ω = r

(D) N0 = √N12 + N22

APNI KAKSHA 26
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH

PART – 3 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION - 1 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains THREE (03) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : + 𝟒 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : + 𝟑 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : + 𝟐 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : + 𝟏 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −𝟐 In all other cases.

35. For the reaction; PCl5 ( g) PCl3 ( g) + Cl2 ( g) The forward reaction at constant temperature

is favoured by:
(A) Introducing an inert gas at constant volume
(B) Introducing chlorine gas at constant volume
(C) Introducing an inert gas at constant pressure
(D) Increasing the volume of the container
Ans. (C,D)

Sol. C. Adding inert gas at constant pressure increases the overall volume, reduces the
concentration of all reactants, changing the partial pressure. The system tries to undo that
change and to increase the concentration goes in the direction where moles increase, which is
the forward direction in this case

D. This has a similar effect as adding an inert gas at constant volume. The concentration
decreases, decreasing the partial pressure, the reaction moves forward to increase the number
of moles.

APNI KAKSHA 27
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH
36. The IUPAC name(s) of the following compound is(are):

(A) 4-chlorotoluene (B) 4-methylchlorobenzene


(C) 1-chloro-4-methylbenzene (D) 1-methyl-4-chlorobenzene
Ans. AC
Sol. IUPAC name is 1 - chloro - 4 – methylbenzene
It can be also written as 4-chlorotoluene

37. Identify the binary mixture (s) that can be separated into individual compounds, by differential
extraction, as shown in the given scheme.

(A) C6H5OH and C6H5COOH (B) C6H5COOH and C6H5CH2OH


(C) C6H5CH2OH and C6H5OH (D) C6H5CH2OH and C6H5CH2COOH
Ans. (B,D)
Sol. The correct options are
B C6 H5 COOH and C6 H5 CH2 OH
D C6 H5 CH2 OH and C6 H5 CH2 COOH
For separation by differential extraction one of the component must form salt with the given
base so that the salt will be extracted in aqueous layer leaving other component in organic
layer.
(a) Both phenol and benzoic acid forms salt with NaOH, hence this mixture can't be separated.
(b) Benzoic acid forms salt with NaOH while benzyl alcohol does not, hence the mixture can be
separated using NaOH. Also benzoic acid forms salt with NaHCO3 but benzyl alcohol does not,
hence NaHCO3 can be used for separation.
(c) Neither benzyl alcohol nor phenol forms salt with NaHCO3 , mixture cannot be separated
using NaHCO3 .
(d) C6 H5 CH2 COOH forms salt with NaOH, C6 H5 CH2 OH does not, hence mixture can be
separated using NaOH. C6 H5 CH2 COOH forms salt with NaHCO3 . C6 H5 CH2 OH does not, hence
mixture can be separated using NaHCO3 .
APNI KAKSHA 28
JEE ADVANCED PAPER – 1
CLASS 11th APNI KAKSHA SAFALTA BATCH

SECTION - 2 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +𝟑 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −𝟏 In all other cases.

38. If the distribution of molecular speeds of gas is as per the figure shown below, then the ratio of
the most probable, the average, and the root mean square speeds, respectively, is

(a) 1: 1: 1 (b) 1: 1: 1.224 (c) 1: 1.128: 1.224 (d) 1: 1.128: 1

Ans. (b)

Sol. As a symmetrical graph is given, the average value of speed will be the middle symmetrical
speed which is also the most probable speed.

When we are calculating the rms speed we have to take the average of square of speeds and its
root. In square of speed, higher speeds will give more contribution so the value will be more
than the average value.

39. In which of the following species maximum atom can lie in same plane?

(A) XeF2O2 (B) PCl5

+
(C) AsH4 (D) XeF4

Ans. (D)

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Sol.

Maximum atoms that → 3 4 3 5

can lie in a plane

40. Which one of the following structures has the IUPAC name 3-ethynyl-2hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-
en-5-ynoic acid?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Ans. (D)
Sol. 3-ethynyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid
41. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is [ a0 is Bohr
radius]

h2 h2 h2 h2
(A) 4π2ma2 (B) 16π2ma2 (C) 32π2ma2 (D) 64π2ma2
0 0 0 0

Ans. (C)

h2
The correct option is C 32π2 ma2
0

According to Bohr's model,

nh n2 h2 1 n2 h2
mvr = 2π ⇒ (mv)2 = 4π2 r2 ⇒ K.E. = 2 mv 2 = 8π2r2 m

Also, Bohr's radius for H-atom is, r = n2 a0


Substituting ' r ' in Eq. (i) gives

h2 h2
K.E. = when n = 2, K. E. =
8π2 n2 a20 m 32π2 a20 m

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SECTION - 3 (Maximum Marks : 24)


• This section contains 𝐒𝐈𝐗(06) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and
the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +𝟒 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 𝟎 In all other cases.

42. Mole fraction of urea in 900 gram water is 0.05 . Density of Solution is 1.2 g/cm3 . Find molarity
of Solution. (Nearest integer)
Ans. 3
Sol. Number of moles of H2 O = 900/18 = 50
n1 /(n1 + 50) = 0.05 ( n1 is No. of moles of urea)
⇒ n1 = 2.63
Weight of urea = 2.63 × 60 = 157.8 g
Total weight = 157.8 + 900 = 1057.8 g
Volume = 1057.8/1.2 = 881.5 cm3
Molarity = 2.63/0.8 = 2.99

43. The total number of contributing structures showing hyperconjugation (involving C − H bonds)
for the following carbocation is

Ans. (6)
Sol. Number of a − H ∝ Number of hyperconjugative structures

The given carbocation has 6 -H. Therefore, total 6 contributing structures showing
hyperconjugation are possible for the given carbocation.

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44. The volume (in mL ) of 0.1MAgNO3 required for complete precipitation of chloride ions present
in 30 mL of 0.01M solution of [Cr(H2 O)5 Cl− Cl2, as silver chloride is close to

Ans. (6)

Sol. m mol of the complex = 30 × 0.01 = 0.3mmol

[Cr(H2 O)5 Cl− Cl2 → [Cr(H2 O)5 Cl2+ + 2Cl−

∵ 1 mole of the complex gives two moles of chloride ions when dissolved in a solution.

∴ 0.3m mol of complex produces 0.6mmol of Cl− .

Hence, 0.6mmol of Ag + would be required for precipitation.

0.6
Volume of AgNO3 required = 0.1 = 6 Ml

45. H2 S (5 moles) reacts completely with acidified aqueous potassium permanganate solution. In
this reaction, the number of moles of water produced is 𝐱, and the number of moles of electrons
involved is 𝐲. The value of (x + y) is

(Hint: KMnO4 + H2 SO4 + H2 S → K 2 SO4 + MnSO4 + S + H2 O

Ans. (18)
H+
Sol. KMnO4 → Mn+2

0
S −2 ⟶ S ∴ nfactor of KMnO4 = 5

nfactor of S −2 (H2 S) = 2

(nKMnO4 × 5) = (5 × 2)H2 S

[(GEN)KMnO4 = (GEP)H2 S ] ∴ nKMnO4 = 2

∴ 2KMnO4 + 3H2 SO4 + 5H2 S → K 2 SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 5 S + 8H2 O

Number of moles of water produced = ' 8 '

Number of moles of electrons involved = 10

∴ x = 8, y = 10 ⇒ (x + y) = 18
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46. A gas has a compressibility factor of 0.5 and a molar volume of 0.4dm3 mol−1 at a temperature
of 800 K and pressure 𝐱 atm. If it shows ideal gas behaviour at the same temperature and
pressure, the molar volume will be 𝐲dm3 mol−1 . The value of 𝐱/𝐲 is
[Use: Gas constant, R = 8 × 10−2 L atm K −1 mol−1 ]
Ans. 100
V
Sol. Compressibility factor (Z) = V real = 0.5
ideal

Vreal = 0.4dm3 mol−1 = 0.4 L/mol


0.4
∴ Videal = = 0.8 L/mol
0.5
∴ y = 0.8 L/mol
Using ideal gas equation : PV = nRT
1 × 8 × 10−2 × 800
P=
0.8
x = 80 atm
x 80
∴ = = 100
y 0.8

47. For the following reaction, equilibrium constant K C at 298 K is 1.6 × 1017 .
Fe2+ 2−
(aq) + S(aq) ⇌ FeS(s)

When equal volume of 0.06MFe+2 and 0.2Ms−2 solution are mixed, then equilibrium
concentration of Fe+2 is found to be Y × 10−17 M. Y is: (Nearest integer)
Ans. 9
Sol. Fe2+ + S 2− → FeS

Ini 0.06 0.2 0

After mix 0.03 0.1

At 0q/m x 0.07

1
K C = (x)[0.07] = 1.6 × 1017

∴ [Fe2+ ] = 8.928 × 10−17


= y × 10−17
∴ y = 8.93 or 8.92

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SECTION - 4 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is
chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −𝟏 In all other cases.

48. Column-I Column-II


(A) CO, CN− , NO+ , O2+
2 (P) All are paramagnetic
(B) N2+ , O+ −
2 , O2 , NO (Q) All are diamagnetic
(C) NO− , N22+ , C2 , B22− (R) All have intermixing of s and p-orbitals
(D) CN, C2+ , B2+ , N2− (S) All have same bond order
(T) All have fractional bond order
(A) A → Q,R; B→S, T; C → R, S;D→Q, R, T
(B) A → Q, S; B → P, T; C → R, S; D→P, R, T
(C) A → Q, T; B → R, T; C→ Q,S ; D → P, R,T
(D) A → Q, S ; B → R, T; C → Q, S ; D→S,T.
Ans. (B)
Sol. M.O. configuration for molecules having total number electron less or equal to 14

For molecules having total number of e− s greater than 14

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Total No. No. of unpaired e−s and Mixing of s


S. Bond
species of lieff and
No. order
e− s unpaired e− s and lieff p-orbitals

a CO 14 diamagnetic Yes 3.0

CN − 14 diamagnetic Yes 3.0

NO+ 14 diamagnetic Yes 3.0

O2+
2 14 diamagnetic No 3.0

b N2+ 13 paramagnetic Yes 2.5

O+
2 15 paramagnetic No 2.5

O−
2 17 paramagnetic No 1.5

NO 15 paramagnetic Yes 2.5

c NO− 16 paramagnetic Yes 2.0

N22+ 13 diamagnetic Yes 2.0

C2
12 diamagnetic Yes 2.0

B22− 12 Yes 2.0

d CN 13 paramagnetic Yes 2.5

C2+ 11 paramagnetic Yes 1.5

B2+ 9 paramagnetic Yes 0.5

N2− 15 paramagnetic Yes 2.5

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49. Column-I Column-II
(A) Hypo phosphoric acid (P) All hydrogen are ionizable in water

(B) Pyro phosphoric acid (Q) Lewis acid

(C) Boric acid (R) Monobasic in water

(D) Hypo phosphorus acid (S) sp3 hybridized central atom

(A) A → P, Q, S; B → P, Q, S; C → Q, R; D → Q, R,S

(B) A → Q,S;B → P,Q; C → R,S; D →P,R,S

(C) A → P, R, S ; B → Q, S; C → P,R; D → Q, R, S

(D) A → P,Q,S ; B → S,Q ; C → P,R ; D → R,S

Ans. (A)

Sol. (A) Hypophosphoric acid (H4P2O6) (P)

(B) Pyrophosphoric acid (H4P2O5) (Q)

[B(OH )4 ]

(C) Boric acid (H3BO3) (R) H3BO3 + OH
(L.B.) (L.B.) borate ion

(D) Hypophosphorus acid (H3PO2) (S)

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50. Match List-I with List-II.
LIST - I LIST - II

(P) (I) Spiro

compound

(Q) (II) Aromatic

compound

(R) (III) Non-planar

Heterocyclic

compound

(S) (IV) Bicyclo

compound

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :


(A) (P) − (II), (Q) − (I), (R) − (IV), (S) − (III)
(B) (P) − (IV), (Q) − (III), (R) − (I), (S) − (II)
(C) (P) − (III), (Q) − (IV), (R) − (I), (S) − (II)
(D) (P) − (IV),(Q) − (III),(R) − (II),(S) − (I)
Ans. (C)

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51. Column (I) Column (II)

(a) (p) 1-butyl-4-methyl cyclohexane

(b) (q) 2-bromo-1,1-dichloro cyclohexane

(c) (r) 1-Bromo-1,2-dichloro cyclohexane

(d) (s) Ethyl-2-formyl cyclohexane carboxylate

(A) a − q; b − s; c − p; d − r
(B) a − q; b − p; c − s; d − r
(C) a − p; b − q; c − s; d − r
(D) a − q; b − p; c − r; d − s
Ans. (B) 𝐚 − 𝐪; 𝐛 − 𝐩; 𝐜 − 𝐬; 𝐝 − 𝐫
Sol.

Ethyl -2- formyl cyclohexane carboxylate

1-bromo l, 2- dichloro cyclohexane

2-Bromo 1,1 dicholo cyclohexance

Butyl 4-methyl cyclohexane.

APNI KAKSHA 38

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