INDIAN POLITY 2

Indian Polity is a discipline that includes a wide range of topics ●● The remaining provisions of the Constitution came into
such as the development of the Constitution, Citizenship, force on 26th January, 1950 which is the date of the
Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles commencement of the Constitution and is also celebrated
of state policy, the executive and legislative power of the as 'Republic day'.
President, the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers, ●● On January 26, 1950, the Indian Government also adopted
Judiciary, Executive and legislative powers of Governor, State National Emblem of India depicting wheel, bull and horse.
Governments, Local Government, Election system, and many Currently it can be seen at sarnath, which is also lion
more. Indian Polity is one of the essential disciplines of Social capital of Ashoka.
Science that makes us understand our democratic governance ●● The design of the National Flag was adopted by the
as well as our rights. Constituent Assembly of India on 22 July 1947.
●● The National Calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra
THE CABINET MISSION
as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was
World War II in Europe came to an end on May 9,1945. Three adopted from 22 March 1957
British cabinet ministers were sent to find a solution to the ●● Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in Bengali by
question of India's Independence. This team of ministers (Lord Rabindranath Tagore, was adopted in its Hindi version by
Pethick Lawrence, Stafford Cripps, A V Alexander) was called the Constituent Assembly as the National Anthem of India
the Cabinet Mission. The Mission was in India from March 1946 on 24 January 1950. It was first sung on 27 December 1911
to May 1946. The Cabinet Mission discussed the framework at the Calcuta (Kolkata) Session of the Indian National
of the constitution and laid down in detail the procedure to Congress.
be followed by the constitution drafting body. The constituent
Assembly began work on 9 December 1946. SOURCES OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION
The Indian Constitution is borrowed from almost all the major
INDIAN POLITY: FRAMING THE CONSTITUTION
countries of the world at that time but has its own unique
(1946-1950) features too. Major sources are:
●● The Constitution of India was drawn up by the Constituent
Government of India Act, Federal Scheme, office
Assembly. 1935 of Governor, Judiciary,
●● The Assembly met for the first time on December 9, 1946. Public Service Commission,
●● The Assembly constituted a Drafting Committee, under the Emergency Provisions and
chairmanship of Dr.B.R.Ambedkar, to frame a Constitution administrative details.
for India. British Constitution Parliamentary System, Rule
●● Indian Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949 of law, Legislative Procedure,
and came into effect on January 26, 1950. Single
●● It is the longest written Constitution in the world Citizenship, Cabinet
System, Prerogative
containing 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules.
Writs, Parliamentary
●● Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected its Permanent Chairman Privileges and
on December 11,1946 Bicameralism.
●● The Draft Constitution was published in January, 1948. The US Constitution Fundamental rights,
people of India were given 8 months to discuss the draft independence of judiciary,
and propose amendments. As many as 7,635 amendments judicial review, impeachment of
were proposed and 2,473 were actually discussed. President, removal of Supreme
●● The Constituent Assembly held 11 sessions. court and high court judges and
●● The Draft Constitution was considered for 114 days. In parts of Vice President.
all,the Constitutional Assembly sat for 2 years, 11 months Irish Constitution Directive Principles of State
and 18 days to draft the constitution. Policy, nomination of members
●● The New Constitution of India was adopted by the to Rajya Sabha and method of
election of President
Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949 and
signed by the President, Dr. Rajendra Prasad. 15 Articles
(5,6,7,8,9,60,324,366,367,372, 380, 388, 391,392 and
393) came into force at once.

66
 Canadian Constitution Federation with a strong Part XIV Services under the Union Art. 308 to 323
Centre, vesting of residuary and the States
powers in the centre, Part XIVA Tribunals Art. 323A to 323B
appointment of State Governor
by the Centre and advisory Part XV Elections Art. 324 to 329A
jurisdiction of Supreme Court. Part XVI Special provisions relating Art. 330 to 342
to certain classes
Australian Concurrent list, joint sitting
Constitution of two Houses of Parliament, Part XVII Official Language Art. 343 to 351
Freedom of trade commerce Part XVIII Emergency Art. 352 to 360
and intercourse. Provisions
Wiemar Constitution Suspension of Fundamental Part XIX Miscellaneous Art. 361 to 367
of Germany Rights during Emergency.
Part XX Amendment of the Art. 368
French Constitution Ideals of liberty, equality and Constitution
fraternity in the Preamble and Part XXI Temporary, Transitional and Art. 369 to 392
republic. Special Provisions
South Procedure Part XXII Short title, Art. 393 to 395
African Constitution for amendment of the commencement,
constitution and election of authoritative text in Hindi
members of Rajya Sabha. and repeals
Japanese Constitution Procedure established by Law.
Constitution of former Fundamental duties, ideals of IMPORTANT SCHEDULES IN THE CONSTITUTION
USSR (now Russia) justice (social, economic and
political) in Preamble. Schedule 1 States, Union Territories and their Territorial
Jurisdiction
PARTS DESCRIBED IN THE CONSTITUTION Schedule 2 Emoluments, allowances, privileges and son
There are 395 articles in Indian Constitution with 22 parts and on of:
12 Schedules. ●● President and Governor of a state.
●● Speaker, deputy speaker of house of
Part Subject Articles people and legislative assembly and
Part I The Union and its territory Art. 1 to 4 chairman and deputy chairman of
council of states and legislative councils
Part II Citizenship Art. 5 to 11 of states (wherever it exists)
Part III Fundamental Rights Art. 12 to 35 ●● Judges of SC and HC
●● Comptroller and auditor general of India.
Part IV Directive Principles of State Art. 36 to 51
Policy Schedule 3 Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for:
Part IVA Fundamental Duties Art. 51A ●● Union Ministers
●● Candidates for election to the Parliament
Part V The Union Government Art. 52 to 151 ●● Members of Parliament
Part VI The State Government Art. 152 to 237 ●● Judges of Supreme Court
Part VII Repealed by Constitution (7th Amendment) ●● Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
Act, 1956 Art. 238 ●● State Ministers
Part VIII The Union Territories Art. 239 to 242 ●● Candidates for election to state
legislature
Part IX The Panchayats Art. 243 to 243O
●● Members of State legislature
Part IXA The Municipalities Art. 243P to ●● Judges of High Courts
243ZG
Schedule 4 Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to States
Part IXB The Co-operative Societies Art. 243ZH to and Union territories.
243ZT
Schedule 5 Provisions for the administration and control
Part X The Scheduled and Tribal Art. 244 to 244A
of scheduled area and ST's.
Areas
Schedule 6 Provisions for the administration of tribal
Part XI Relations between the Art. 245 to 263
Union and the States areas in states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura,
and Mizoram
Part XII Finance, Property, Contracts Art. 264 to 300A
and Suits Schedule 7 Union List(97), State List(66), Concurrent
List(47)
Part XIII Trade, Commerce and Art. 301 to 307
Intercourse within the Schedule 8 Languages
Territory of India Schedule 9 Land Reforms

67
 Schedule 10 Anti Law Defection I. By renunciation
Schedule 11 Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural local II. By termination
government) III. By deprivation
Schedule 12 Municipalities (urban local government). FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS (ART. 12 TO ART. 35 )

UNION AND THE TERRITORY: ART. 1 TO ART. 4
●● India i.e., Bharat shall be union of states. (Article 1)
●● Article 2 empowers the parliament by law to admit into the
union of India, or establish ,new states on such terms and
conditions as it thinks fit.
●● Formation of New states and alteration of their areas,
boundaries or names is done after the recommendation
of President to Parliament. (Article 3)
●● Such laws (Article 2 and 3) can be passed by a simple
majorty and by the ordinary legislative process.(article 4).
CITIZENSHIP: ART. 5 TO ART. 11
●● A citizen is a person who enjoys full membership of the
community or State in which he lives or ordinarily lives.
●● The State demands extra duties from its citizen which
cannot be asked from non-citizens.
●● 42nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976 has inserted
10 Fundamental Duties in Article 51-A.
●● Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1986 provides five ways to
acquire citizenship of India. These five ways are:
I. Citizenship by Birth
II. Citizenship by Descent
III. Citizenship by Registration
IV. Citizenship by Naturalization
V. Citizenship by Incorporation of Territory
●● Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three ways of losing
citizenship. They are:
●● They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the courts
for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.
●● They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme
Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can directly go to the
Supreme Court.
●● They can be suspended during the operation of a National
Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20
and 21.
●● Further, the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be
suspended only when emergency is declared on the
grounds of war or external aggression.
●● Originally the Constitution provided for seven fundamental
rights, viz,
I. Right to equality [Art. 14-18]
II. Right to freedom [Article. 19-22]
III. Right against exploitation [Article.. 23-24].
IV. Right to freedom of religion [Article.. 25-28]
V. Cultural and educational rights [Article.. 29-30]
VI. Right to property [Article.. 31]
VII. Right to constitutional remedies [Article.. 32]
●● However, the ‘Right to property’ was deleted from the
list of fundamental rights by the 44th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1978. It has been made a legal right
under Article 300- A in part XII of the Constitution. So at
present, there are only six fundamental rights.

Category consists of
1. Right to Equality (Articles ●● Equality before law and equal protection of laws. (Article 14)
14-18) ●● Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
(Article 15)
●● Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
●● abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice. (Article 17)
●● abolition of titles. (Article 18).

2. Right to Freedom (Article ●● Protection of six rights regarding freedom of:

19-22) ▪▪ speech and expression [Article 19(1)a],
▪▪ assemble, peacefully without arms [Article 19(1)b]
▪▪ association, [Article 19(1)c]
▪▪ movement, [Article 19(1)d]
▪▪ residence, [Article 19(1)e] and
▪▪ profession. [Article 19(1)g]
●● Protection in respect of conviction for offences. (Article 20)
●● Protection in respect of life and personal liberty (Article 21 )
●● Rights to elementry education (Article 21 A )
●● Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22)

68
 3 Right against exploitation ●● Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23)
(Articles 23-24 ) ●● Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc (Article 24).

4. Right to fredom of religion ●● Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article
(Article25-28) 25).
●● Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
●● Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any religion (Article 27).
●● Freedom from attending religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational
institutions (Article 28)

5. Cultural and educational ●● Protection of language, script and culture of minorities(Article 29).
rights (Article 29-30) ●● Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions(Article 30)

6. Right to constitutional ●● A declaration of fundamental rights is meaningless unless there is an effective machinery
remedies (Article 32) for the enforcement of the rights. Hence the provision of the Constitutional remedies.
●● This Fundamental Right is called the "Heart and soul of the Indian Constitution "by Dr. B.
R. Ambedkar.
●● Under this Article, Supreme Court can issue following writs:
▪▪ Habeas Corpus:'You to have the body' (a person unlawfully detained is sought to be
set at liberty)
▪▪ Mandamus: 'We command' (a person or body to do that which it is his, or its duty)
▪▪ Prohibition : 'to forbid' (issue primarily to prevent an inferior court from exceeding
its jurisdiction)
▪▪ Certiorari: 'to be certified' (Orders the removal of suit from an inferior court to a
superior court)
▪▪ Quo warranto: 'By what authority or warrant' (Restrains a person from acting in a
office to which he is not entitled.)
●● Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of
the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agency
and analogous forces discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline among
them.
●● Article 34 empowers the Parliament to identify any government servant or any other
person for any act done by him in connection with the maintenance or restoration of
order in any area where martial law was in force.
●● Article 35 lays down that the power to make laws, to give effect to certain specified
fundamental rights shall vest only in the Parliament and not in the state legislatures.

●● Application of the principles contained in this part. (Article

DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY (ART. 36 TO
51)
The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the
ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating
policies and enacting laws. It includes the legislative and
executive organs of the Central and State governments,
all local authorities and all other public authorities in the
country. The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature,
that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their
violation. Therefore, the government cannot be compelled to
implement them. They aim at providing social and economic
justice to the people.
Some Important Points
●● Definition of state (Article 36)
69
37)
●● State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare
of the people. (Article 38)
●● Citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an
adequate means of livelihood (Article39 )
●● Equal justice and free legal aid (Article 39A)
●● Organization of village panchayats (Article 40).
●● Right to work, to education and to public assistance in
certain cases: in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness
and disablement. (Article 41)
●● Provision for just and humane conditions of work and
maternity relief. (Article 42)
●● To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life social and
cultural opportunities for all workers. (Article 43)
●● Participation of workers in management of industries.
(Article 43 A)
●● Promotion of co-operative societies. (Article 43 B)
●● Uniform civil code for the citizens. (Article 44).
●● Provision for early childhood care and free education for
all the children below the age of six years. ( Article 45)
●● Promotion of educational and economic interests of
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker
sections. (Article 46)
●● Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the
standard of living and to improve public health (Article
47).
●● Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry (Article
48)
●● Protection and Improvement of Environment and
safeguarding of forests and wildlife. (Article 48A)
●● Protection of Monuments and places and objects of
national importance.(Article 49).
●● Separation of judiciary from executive(Article 50)
●● Promotion of international peace and security (Article 51)
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
A list of ten fundamental duties was included in the Indian
Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in the form of
Article 51 A. They are:
●● To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and
instructions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
●● To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the
national struggle for freedom.
●● To uphold and protect the sovereignty,unity and integrity
of India.
●● To defend the country and render national service when
called upon to do so.
●● To promote harmony and the spirit of common
brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending
religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities
and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of
women.
●● To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country's
composite culture.
●● To protect and improve the natural environment including
forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion
for living creatures.
●● To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of
inquiry and reform.
●● To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
●● To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual
and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises
to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
●● To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward
between the age of six and fourteen years. This duty was
added by the 86th constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
THE UNION EXECUTIVE
THE PRESIDENT (ART. 52-ART. 62)
President of India (Article 52)
●● There shall be a President of India.
70
Executive power of the Union (Article 53)
●● The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the
President and shall be exercised by him either directly or
through officers subordinate to him in accordance with
this constitution.
●● The supreme command of the defence forces of Union
shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof
shall be regulated by law.
●● Nothing in this article shall
▪▪ be deemed to transfer to the President any functions
conferred by an existing law on the Government of
any State or other authority; or
▪▪ prevent Parliament from conferring by law functions
on authorities other than the President.
Election of the President ( Article 54)
●● The President of India is elected by indirect election.
●● The provisions dealing with the manner of election of the
President of India are provided in Article 55.
●● The Electoral College consists of:
▪▪ The elected members of both Houses of Parliament
(nominated members are not the members of
electoral college)
▪▪ The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies
of the States (including National Capital Territory of
Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry)
Manner of Election of the President (Article 55 )
●● He is elected by an electoral college in accordance with
the system of proportional representation by means of
the single transferable vote and the voting at such election
shall be big secret ballot.
●● Article 62 of the Constitution provides that an election
to fill a vacancy in the office of President shall be held as
soon as possible after, and in no case later than six months
from, the date of occurrence of the vacancy (if such
occurrence of vacancy is caused by resignation or death
or impeachment or otherwise).
Qualification for election as President (Article 58)
●● He must be a citizen of India.
●● He must have completed the age of 35 years.
●● He must be qualified for election as a Member of the
House of the People.
●● He must not hold any office of Profit under Government
of India or the Government of any State or under any local
or other authority subject to the control of any of the said
Govt.
●● A sitting President or Vice-President of India/Governor of
any state/A minister of the Union or of any State is not
deemed to hold any office of profit and hence qualified for
Presidential election.
Term of office of President (Article 56)
●● The President holds office for a term of five years from the
date on which he enters upon his office.
●● He can resign at any time by addressing the letter to the
Vice-President.
 The inspection of budget proposals PRACTICE EXERCISE
●● Committee on Estimates 1. In which year did the Parliament adopt Indian
●● Constituted for the first time in 1950, on the Constitution?
recommendation of John Mathai, then the Finance a) 1947 b) 1949
minister is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 c) 1950 d) 1952
Members. (all from Lok Sabha) 2. The Constitution of India came into force on ______.
●● Term of office of the Committee is one year. a) December 9, 1946
●● The functions of the Estimates Committee are: b) January 26, 1949
▪▪ to report what economies, improvements in c) January 26, 1950
organisation, efficiency and administrative reform, d) November 26, 1951
consistent with the policy underlying the estimates
3. The Montagu-Chelmsford report formed the basis of
can be effected;
______.
▪▪ to suggest alternative policies in order to bring about
a) The Indian Council Act, 1909
efficiency and economy in administration; b) The Government of India Act, 1919
▪▪ to examine whether the money is well laid out within c) The Government of India Act, 1935
the limits of the policy implied in the estimates; d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
▪▪ to suggest the form in which the estimates shall be
4. The first definite step to provide Parliamentary control
presented to Parliament.
over East India Company was taken by ______.
Cut Motion a) The Regulating Act, 1773
b) The Pitt's India Act, 1784
• A veto power given to the members of the Lok Sabha
c) The Charter Act, 1793
to oppose a demand in the financial bill discussed by the
d) The Charter Act, 1813
government.
• There are Three types of Cut Motions: 5. Which of the following Acts was described by Jawaharlal
▪▪ Disapproval of Policy Cut: The amount of the demand Nehru as 'Charter of Slavery'?
be reduced to Re. 1. a) Regulating Act of 1773
▪▪ Economy Cut: the amount of the demand be reduced b) Pitt's India Act of 1784
by a specified amount to affect economy in the c) Government of India Act, 1919
expenditure. d) Government of India Act, 1935
▪▪ Token Cut: The amount of the demand be reduced by 6. The first attempt to introduce a representative and
Rs. 100. popular element in the governance of India was made
through ______.
The bills are forwarded to the Rajya Sabha for comment. Rajya
a) Indian Council, Act, 1861
Sabha is bounded to return the bill within 14 days. The Lok
b) Indian Council, Act, 1892
Sabha, however, is not obligated to accept the comments and
c) Indian Council, Act, 1909
the Rajya Sabha cannot delay passage of these bills.
d) Government of India Act, 1919
Important Facts related to Budget 7. Which of the following acts introduced communal
●● The first Union Budget of Independent India was presented electorate in India?
by the first Finance Minister of Independent India, Sir R. K. a) Indian Council, Act; 1861
Shanmukham Chetty, on November 26, 1947. b) Indian Council, Act; 1892
●● Indira Gandhi, the then prime minister who also held c) Indian Council, Act; 1909
the finance portfolio, became the first woman finance d) Government of India Act; 1935
minister of India to present a Budget in Parliament. 8. Which one among the following was not a feature of
●● In 2001, Yashwant Sinha, broke the colonial practice of the provincial executive according to the Government of
announcing the Union Budget at 5 in the evening. Instead, India Act, 1935?
he delivered his Budget speech at 11 am on the last a) The executive authority of the province was vested in
working day of February. the Governor
●● Former Prime Minister of India Morarji Desai, who b) There was a Council of Ministers to advise the Governor
presented 10 Union Budgets in his role as finance minister, c) Dyarchy established by the Government of India Act,
is credited with presenting the highest number of Union 1919 was abolished at the provincial level
Budgets in the history of Independent India. d) The Governor could be removed by a vote of no-
●● The Budget presented by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley for confidence of the provincial legislature
the financial year 2017-18 was unprecedented in that, for 9. Which of the following is not one of the grounds for
the first time ever, a Railway Budget was not presented disqualification for being elected as a Member of
separately. This practice was discontinued and both Union Parliament?
Budget and Railway Budget were merged and presented 1. If the person holds an office of profit under the State
together. Government.
87
 2. If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a c) The Governor was the executive head of category A
foreign State. states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of
3. If the person has/had been detained under the category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the
Preventive Detention Law.
executive head of categories C and D states
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) Only 2 d) Only 3 d) The Governor was the executive head of category A
states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of
10. Assertion (A): The Government of India Act of 1858
transferred the Governance of India from the East India categories C and D states
Company to the Crown. 16. The Constituent Assembly of India started functioning
Reason (R): The East India Company was unwilling to
from ______.
administer India any more.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation a) 9th December, 1946 b) 1st January, 1947
of A c) 26th January, 1947 d) 15th August, 1947
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 17. How many members were initially there in the Constituent
explanation of A
Assembly of India?
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true a) 389 b) 380
c) 395 d) 392
11. Which of the following vested the Secretary of State
for India with supreme control over the Government of 18. The number of members included in the Constitution
India? Drafting Committee was ______.
a) The Charter Act, 1853
a) Seven b) Nine
b) Government of India Act, 1858
c) Indian Council Act, 1861 c) Eleven d) Thirteen
d) Morely-Minto Reforms, 1909 19. Who presided over the first meeting of the Indian
12. Dyarchy in provinces of British India was introduced Constituent Assembly?
under ______. a) Dr. Rajendra prasad
a) Morely-Minto Reforms b) Sachchidananda Sinha
b) Mont-Ford Reforms
c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
c) Simon Commission Plan
d) Government of India act, 1935 d) H.V. Kamath
13. Which of the following was/were the main feature(s) of 20. In the Constituent Assembly, union powers committee
the Government of India Act, 1919? was headed by ______.
1. Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims. a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Sardar Patel
2. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre.
c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar d) J. B. Kripalani
3. Expansion and reconstitution of the Central and
Provincial Legislatives. 21. Consider the following statements.
Select the correct answer using the cods given below. The objective of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of
a) Only 2 b) 1 and 3 1919 was ______.
c) Only 3 d) 2 and 3
1. To give power to the local government.
14. Consider the following acts. 2. To establish dyarchy in the provinces.
1. The Regulating Act
3. The extension of provincial government.
2. Pitt's India Act
3. The Charter Act Which of these statements are correct?
4. Indian Council Act a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
What is the correct chronological sequence of these acts? c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 1, 3, 4
c) 4, 3, 2, 1 d) 3, 4, 2, 1 22. Match the following.

15. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in List I List II
categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In this context (Chairman) (Committee)
which of the following statements is correct? Union Powers
A. KM Munshi 1.
a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of Committee
category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive B. Rajendra Prasad 2. Drafting Committee
head of category B states. The Governor was the
executive head of categories C and D states Jawahar Lal
C. 3. Business Committee
Nehru
b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category
A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive D. BR Ambedkar 4. Steering Committee
head of categories B and C states. The Governor was a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
the executive head of the category D states c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

88
23. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using 30. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from
the codes given below the lists. the codes given below the lists.
List I List II List I List II
(Act) (Feature) (Forms of Government) (Principles)
The Indian Introduction of Separation of
A. 1. A. Presidential System 1.
Councils Act, 1892 provincial autonomy powers
The Indian Introduction of the Close relationship
B. 2. Parliamentary
Councils Act, 1909 principle of election B. 2. between executive
System
The Government Introduction of and legislative
C. 3.
of India Act, 1919 diarchy in provinces C. Federal System 3. Division of power
Introduction of Concentration of
The Government D. Unitary System 4.
D. 4. separate electorate power
of India Act, 1935
for the Muslims a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 31. The cardinal features of political system in India are
______.
24. The most essential feature of a Federal government is 1. It is a democratic republic.
______. 2. It has a parliamentary form of Government.
a) Division of a Power between the Federal and State 3. The supreme power vests in the people of India.
Government 4. Independent Judiciary
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3
b) Supremacy of Parliament
c) 2, 3 and 4 d) All of these
c) Supremacy of Judiciary
32. What is/are the major difference(s) between a written
d) Single Citizenship
and an unwritten constitution?
25. Which of the following are features of parliamentary 1. A written constitution is the formal source of all
form of government in India? constitutional laws in the country and the unwritten
a) Presence of nominal and real executives constitution is not the formal source.
2. A written constitution is entirely codified whereas an
b) Collective responsibility of the executive to the unwritten constitution is not.
legislative Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
c) Majority Party Rule a) Only 1 b) Only 2
d) All off these c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. The English Crown is an example of ______. 33. Statement I: The Constitution of India is a liberal
a) Real executive Constitution.
b) Quasi-real executive Statement II: It provides Fundamental Rights to
individuals.
c) Nominal executive
a) Both the statements are true and statement II is the
d) Nominated executive
correct explanation of statement I
27. The declaration that Democracy is a Government of b) Both the statements are true but statement II is not the
the people, by the people, for the people; was made by correct explanation of statement I
______. c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
a) Abraham Lincon d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true
b) George Washington 34. Which of the following statements about democracy are
c) Theodre Roosevelt correct?
d) Winston Churchill 1. Democracy is a government of the people, for the
28. The most essential feature of the Parliamentary form of people and by the people.
Government is the ______. 2. Democracy is a rule of majority.
3. Democracy provides an opportunity to the people to
a) Sovereignty of the Parliament
voice their grievances in peaceful manner.
b) Written Constitution
4. Democracy always leads to disintegration of the
c) accountability of the executive to the legislature
society.
d) Independent Judiciary
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
29. What is Gandhi's definition of 'Ram Raj'? a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4
a) Sovereignty of the people based on pure moral c) 1 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3
authority 35. The concept of Judicial Review in our Constitution has
b) The rule as it was during the time of Rama been taken from the constitution of ______.
c) The greatest good of all a) England b) USA
d) The absolute power concentrated in the hands of a c) Canada d) Australia
king
89
36. The Federal System with strong centre has been borrowed 43. Which Amendment Act introduced changes in the
by the Indian Constitution from ______. Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
a) USA b) Canada a) the 38th Amendment Act, 1975
c) UK d) France b) the 40th Amendment Act, 1976
c) the 42th Amendment Act, 1976
37. The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the
d) the 44th Amendment Act, 1979
Constitution of India has been borrowed from the
______. 44. For which one of the following judgements of Supreme
a) Constitution of Canada Court of India, the Kesavanand Bharti Vs State of India
b) Weimar Constitution of Germany case is considered a landmark?
c) Constitution of Ireland a) The religion cannot be mobilised for political ends
d) Constitution of USA b) Abolishing untouchability from the country
c) Right to Life and Liberty cannot be suspended under
38. The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on
any circumstance
which one of the following?
d) The basic structure of the Constitution, cannot be
a) Parliamentary Commissioner of UK
altered by amending the constitution
b) Ombudsman in Scandinavia
c) Procurator General of Russia 45. The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation
d) Council of State in France because it ______.
39. Via which among the following amendments of the a) uses value oriented words
Constitution of India, Delhi was designated as National b) contains the real objective and philosophy of the
Capital Territory (NCT)? Constitution
a) 69th Amendment Act c) is a source of power and limitation
b) 63rd Amendment Act d) gives and exhaustive list of basic features of the
c) 76th Amendment Act Constitution
d) 74th Amendment Act 46. Which Article of Indian Constitution enumerates
40. Match List I (Provision of the Constitution of India with Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens?
List II source) and select the correct answer using the a) Article 50 A b) Article 50 B
codes given below the lists. c) Article 51 A d) Article 51 B

List I List II 47. Which of the following are stated as Directive Principles
of State Policy by Article 51 of the Constitution of India?
Directive Principles Constitution of
A. 1. The state shall endeavour to
of State Policy Ireland
1. promote international peace and security.
Emergency Power Constitution of
B. 2. 2. maintain just and honorable relations between
of the President Germany
nations.
The Union-State Constitution of
C. 3. 3. Encourage settlement of International disputes by
Relations Canada
arbitration.
Amendments of Constitution of Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
D. 4.
the Constitution South Africa
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
48. In which part of the constitution, details of citizenship are
41. Which of the following statements is/are not correct? mentioned?
1. The Constituent assembly was directly elected by the a) I b) II
people of India.
c) III d) IV
2. The Muslim League boycotted the first meeting of the
Constituent assembly which was held on 9th Dec, 1946. 49. How many schedule in our Indian constitution?
3. BN Rau was appointed as the constitutional advisor to a) 8 schedule b) 15 schedule
the Assembly. c) 12 schedule d) 9 schedule
4. On December 13, 1946 Pandit Nehru moved the 50. Part III of the constitution of India relates to ______.
historic 'Objectives Resolution'. a) Fundamental Rights
a) 1 and 2 b) 3 and 4 b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) 2, 3 and 4 d) Only 1 c) Fundamental Duties
d) Citizenship
42. At the time of enactment of the constitution, which one
of the following ideals was not included in the Preamble? 51. The item 'Education' belongs to the ______.
a) Liberty b) Equality a) Union List b) State List
c) Concurrent List d) Residuary subjects
c) Socialist d) Justice

90
52. The article of Indian Constitution related to abolition of 62. The master plan of National Capital Region (NCR) was
untouchability is ______. approved in ______.
a) Article 15 b) Article 16 a) 1959 b) 1962
c) Article 17 d) Article 18 c) 1981 d) 1996
53. Consider the following statements. 63. Which of the following states is a member of the 'Seven
1. The Article 20 of the Constitution of India states that no Sister'?
person can be convicted for an offence except for the a) West Bengal b) Tripura
c) Odissa d) Bihar
violation of law in force at the time of the commission
of the act charged as an offence. 64. The Boundary of a State in India can be altered through
2. The Article 21 of the Constitution of India lays down the procedure laid down under the article ______.
that no person shall be deprived of his life and personal a) 260 b) 130
liberty except according to procedure established by c) 70 d) 3
law. 65. Consider the following statements:
Which of these statement is/are correct? 1. In India, only three Union Territories have Legislative
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 Assemblies.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the three North-
Eastern States of India, have only one seat each in the
54. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Lok Sabha.
institution of Panchayati Raj? Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) Article 36 b) Article 39 a) Only 1 b) Only 2
c) Article 40 d) Article 48 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
55. The article of the Constitution of India which deal with 66. What is the correct chronological order in which the
Directive Principles of State Policy are ______. following States of the Indian Union were created or
a) 26 to 41 b) 30 to 45 granted full statehood?
c) 36 to 51 d) 40 to 55 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Maharashtra
3. Nagaland 4. Haryana
56. Part IV of Constitution of India deals with ______. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) Fundamental Rights a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 1, 3, 4
b) Citizenship c) 1, 2, 4, 3 d) 2, 1, 4, 3
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
67. Consider the following statements and state which of
d) Union executive
them is/are correct with the help of given codes.
57. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution 1. The term 'Union of States' has been used in the
of India has provision for the President to proclaim state Constitution because Indian States have no right to
emergency? recede.
a) Article 352 b) Article 355 2. The SK Dhar Commission preferred reorganisation of
c) Article 356 d) Article 360 States on administrative convenience rather than on
linguistic basis.
58. The method for Constitutional Amendment is provided 3. The Congress Committee under Pt. Nehru, Sardar Patel
under ______. and Pattabhai Sitaramayya did not favour linguistic
a) Article 348 b) Article 358 basis for reorganisation of states.
c) Article 368 d) Article 378 a) Only 1 b) 1 and 2
59. Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for c) 1 and 3 d) All of these
the appointment of a commission to investigate the 68. Which one among the following has the power to regulate
conditions for the improvement of ______. the right of citizenship in India?
a) socially and educationally backward classes a) The Union Cabinet
b) socially and economically backward classes b) The Parliament
c) educationally and economically backward classes c) The Supreme Court
d) scheduled castes and scheduled tribes d) The Law Commission

60. The "Tenth Schedule" of Indian Constitution deals with 69. With what subject do the Articles 5 to 11 of the
Constitution of India deal?
______.
a) Indian Union and its territory
a) Anti-defection Law
b) Citizenship
b) Panchayati Raj c) Fundamental duties
c) Land Reforms d) Union Executive
d) Distribution of powers between the Union and States
70. The brand name of 12 digit unique identification number
61. The Indian Constitution describes India as a union of to be assigned to each individual in the country will be
states under ______. ______.
a) Article 16 b) Article 20 a) Pehchan b) Maadhyam
c) Article 27 d) Article 1 c) Aadhaar d) Aabhar

91
71. Which country doesn't accept the policy of Dual 79. Which one of the following is not a fundamental right?
Citizenship? a) Right to Freedom
a) India b) Canada b) Right to Equality
c) Austria d) U.S.A. c) Right to Property
d) Right against Exploitation
72. Objective of 'AADHAAR' programme is ______.
a) To help senior citizens 80. Which of the following can a court issue for enforcement
b) To provide nutritional support to adolescent woman of Fundamental Rights?
c) To train people for social defence a) A decree b) An ordinance
d) To provide identity to Indian residents c) A writ d) A notification
73. Which one of the following are NOT the Civil Rights of the 81. As per Article 359 of Indian Constitution, which of the
citizens? following Articles cannot be suspended by a Presidential
a) Right to property order?
b) Right to have family a) Articles 14 and 15 b) Articles 16 and 17
c) Right to equality c) Articles 20 and 21 d) Articles 24 and 25
d) Right for exploitation 82. Which of the following right has been articulated by
74. Which one of the following statement describe the Supreme Court to be a Fundamental Right but not
responsibilities of citizens? enumerated in the Constitution of India?
a) Right to privacy
a) Not paying taxes
b) Equality before law
b) Obeying laws enacted by government
c) Abolition of untouchability
c) Destroy the public property
d) Right to form association or union
d) Always favour untouchability
83. The Right to Information means and includes ______.
75. Match the following.
1. inspection of documents
List I 2. taking out files from office to any place desired by the
List II
(Article related applicant
(Related Explanations)
to Citizenship) 3. taking photograph of files.
Rights citizenship of certain 4. obtaining information in tapes.
A. Article-6 1. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
migrants to Pakistan
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3
Citizenship right of
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 2 and 4
certain persons who have
B. Article-7 2.
migrated to India from 84. Which of the following right has been articulated by
Pakistan. Supreme Court to be a Fundamental Right but not
Rights of citizenship of enumerated in the Constitution of India?
C. Article-8 3. persons of Indian origin a) Right to life
residing outside India b) Equality of opportunity in matters of public
employment.
Persons voluntarily
c) Protection of personal liberty
acquiring citizenship of
D. Article-9 4. d) Right to health
a foreign state not to be
citizens 85. Fundamental Rights are ______ in Nature.
a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 a) Absolute b) Justiciable
c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 c) Irrelevant d) Necessary

76. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted 86. Which Indian State has the largest number of seats
by five Articles. They are ______. reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?
a) Article 13 to Article 17 a) Madhya Pradesh b) Andhra Pradesh
b) Article 14 to Article 18 c) Rajasthan d) Bihar
c) Article 15 to Article 19 87. Consider the following statements about preventive
d) Article 16 to Article 20 detention.
I. A person can be arrested or detained under preventive
77. What is true about Fundamental Rights?
detention, if the government feels that the person can
a) They are restrictions imposed upon the state
be a threat to the law and order or to the peace and
b) They are justiciable .
security of the nation.
c) They have a legal sanction behind them
II. The preventive detention can be extended only for
d) All of the above
3 months, after which such a case is required to be
78. Under which Article of the constituent of India, Right to brought before an advisory board for review.
Abolition of Titles is mentioned as a Fundamental Right? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Article 14 b) Article 19 a) Only I b) Only II
c) Article 18 d) Article 22 c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
92
88. The writ of 'Prohibition' is issued by a superior court 94. Which one of the following is a Directive Principles of
______. State Policy?
a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding a) The state shall endeavour to protect and improve the
its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural environment
justice
b) Freedom to practice any occupation
b) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasi-
c) The state shall not discriminate against any person on
judicial functions to transfer the record of proceedings
in a case for its review grounds of sex, religion, or place of birth
c) where it can call upon a person to show under what d) Enforcement of untouchability
authority he/she is holding the office 95. The Directive Principles of State Policy are ______.
d) to an authority to produce an illegally detained person a) Justiciable
before the court for trial b) Non-Justiciable
89. Consider the following statements: c) Only some of the provisions are Justiciable
The Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution d) None of these
are fundamental because
1. they are protected and enforced by the Constitution 96. 'Equal pay for equal work' has been ensured in the Indian
2. they can be suspended only in the manner prescribed Constitution as one of the ______.
by the Constitution. a) Fundamental Rights
3. they are enforceable against the State. b) Directive Principles of State Policy
4. they cannot be amended. c) Fundamental Duties
Which of the statements given above are correct? d) Economic Rights
a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3
97. The concept of a welfare state is included in the
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3
constitution of India in the ______.
90. Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How
a) Preamble
do democracy help?
b) Fundamental Right
a) Women in democracies have equal degree of political
representation in legislature c) Fourth Schedule
b) Women in democracies have guaranteed rights and d) Directive principles of State policy
are always treated with respect 98. Which one of the following Articles under Directive
c) Women in democracies are not subjected to sex Principles of State Policy provides for international peace
discrimination in most aspects of social life and security?
d) In democracies, the principle of equality is accepted as
a) Article 51 b) Article 48 A
legal norm, which makes it easier to guarantee them
c) Article 43 A d) Article 41
freedom and dignity
91. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the 99. The main purpose of including directive principle of state
"Right against Exploitation" in the Constitution of India? policy in the Indian constitution is ______.
1. Prohibition of traffic in human being and forced labour. a) to establish a welfare state
2. Abolition of untouchability b) to provide best opportunities of development
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities. c) to check the arbitrary actions of government
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and d) to establish a secular state
mines.
100. The Supreme Court has held that the freedom of speech
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3 and expression under Article 19 also includes ______.
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3 a) freedom of the press
b) freedom of silence
92. Which Directive Principles bears the direct impact of
c) freedom of commercial advertisements
Gandhi's moral philosophy?
a) Equal pay for equal work d) All of these
b) Provision of free legal aid and advice 101. Which among the following provisions of the Constitution
c) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance
d) Protection of the moments of historical importance Programme launched by the Government of India?
93. Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been 1. Fundamental Rights
provided under which of the following parts of the Indian 2. Fundamental Duties
Constitution? 3. Directive Principles of State Policy
a) The Preamble
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
b) The Fundamental Rights
c) The Directive Principles of State Policy a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3
d) The Seventh Schedule c) Only 3 d) 1 and 2

93
102. The Constitution of India has provisions to abolish / 111. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of
prohibit which of the following social evils prevalent in ______.
India? a) Two types b) Three types
1. Untouchability c) Four types d) Five types
2. Dowry 112. Which of the following appointments is not made by the
3. Child Marriage President of India?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
a) Only I b) Only II and III b) Chief Justice of India
c) All I, II and III d) Only I and III
c) Chief of Air Staff
103. In which year Fundamental Duties of citizens were d) Chief of Army
introduced by 42nd amendment?
113. A candidate for the office of the President of India should
a) 1975 b) 1976
not be less than ______.
c) 1977 d) 1980
a) 25 years of age b) 35 years of age
104. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian c) 30 years of age d) 40 years of age
Constitution?
114. In India, the President is elected by ______.
a) Nine b) Eleven
a) Direct Election
c) Twelve d) Twenty
b) Single Transferable Vote
105. Fundamental Duties do not enjoy any ______. c) Open Ballot System
a) Social sanction b) moral sanction d) None of these
c) legal sanction d) political sanction
115. Which of the following are available to the President of
106. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty? India but not to the Governor of a State?
a) To respect the National Anthem 1. Power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.
b) To safeguard public property 2. Diplomatic powers.
c) To vote in public elections 3. Power to veto the bills passed by the State Legislature.
d) To protect and improve the natural environment 4. Power to declare emergency.
107. Right to Education Act (2002) was introduced to help a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3
which of the following group of society? c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 4
a) Children of age of 6 to 14 years 116. How many times the President of India Can seek re-
b) College going teenagers election to his post?
c) All adults who could not get formal education a) once
d) Those who are interested in technical education b) 2 times
108. Protection of which one of the following is a fundamental c) 3 times
duty in India? d) any number of times
a) Village Panchayat 117. Consider the following statements:
b) Government 1. The President may, by writing under his hand
c) Scheduled castes/Scheduled tribes addressed to the Vice-President, resign from his office.
d) Wild life 2. Executive power of the Union is vested in the President.
109. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen do not include Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
______. a) Only 1 b) Only 2
a) Promoting communal harmony c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) Developing scientific temper 118. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force ______.
c) Safe guarding public property a) For three months b) For six months
d) Protecting children from hazardous employment c) For nine months d) Indefinitely
110. Which of the following statements regarding the 119. What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the Post of
Fundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of the President of India?
India are correct? a) 58 years
1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ b) 60 years
jurisdiction. c) 62 years
2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the d) There is no maximum age limit
Constitution of India since its adoption.
3. Fundamental Duties have become a part of the 120. Consider the following statements about the powers of
Constitution of India in accordance with the the President of India.
recommendations of the Swarn Singh Committee. 1. The President can direct that any matter on which
4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to citizens of decision has been taken by a minister should be placed
India. before the Council of Ministers.
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 2. He can seek any information relating to the
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct administration of affairs of the union.
c) 2 and 3 are correct 3. The President has the right to address and send
d) 3 and 4 are correct messages to either House of the Parliament.

94
 4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the 129. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two year's
administration of Union must be communicated to time?
the President. a) B.J.P.
Which of the Statements given above are correct? b) Janata Party
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) Janata Dal
c) 2 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 d) Samajwadi Janata Party
121. Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from 130. Who among the following is the Chairman of the National
Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha? Integration Council?
a) Minorities Commission a) The President
b) President of India b) The Vice-President
c) The Prime Minister
c) Prime Minister
d) The Chief Justice of India
d) Vice-President
131. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
122. Election to the office of the President is conducted by
a) The Vice-President of India holds office for a period of
______.
five years
a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
b) The Vice-President of India can be removed by a simple
b) The Prime Minister's Office majority of votes passed in the Rajya Sabha only
c) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs c) The Vice-President of India continues to be in office
d) The Election Commission of India even after the expiry of his term till his successor takes
123. Who is the Executive head of State in India? over
a) Governor d) The Supreme Court of India has to take into all disputes
b) Chief Minister with regard to the election of the Vice-President of
c) Leader of the Opposition India
d) Chief Secretary, Government of India 132. Who was the first woman to become the Prime Minister
124. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? of a country?
a) The President b) The Vice-President a) Golda Meir
c) The Prime Minister d) The Speaker b) Margaret Thatcher
c) Indira Gandhi
125. The proposal relating to dismissal of the Vice-President d) Sirimavo Bhandharnaike
can be presented in ______.
133. Who exercises the actual executive power under the
a) Any House of the Parliament
parliamentary form of Government?
b) The Rajya Sabha
a) Parliament b) Prime Minister
c) The Lok Sabha
c) President d) Bureaucracy
d) None of these
134. How does participatory budgeting seek to make the
126. The resolution for removing the President of India can be functioning of local governance institutions more
moved in the ______. transparent and accountable?
a) Lok Sabha alone 1. By allowing citizens to deliberate and negotiate over
b) Either House of Parliament the distribution of public resources.
c) Joint sitting of Parliament 2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in deciding
d) Rajya Sabha alone how and where resources should be spent.
127. Consider the following statements regarding the Vice- 3. By allowing historically excluded citizens with access to
President of India important decision-making venues.
1. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
consisting of all the members of the both Houses of a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
the Parliament. c) Only 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The Constitution is silent about a person who is having 135. ln India, the Prime Minister remains in office as long as he
the duties of the Vice-President during the period of enjoys the ______.
vacancy. a) Support of armed forces
Which of these statements is/are correct? b) Confidence of Rajya Sabha
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Confidence of Lok Sabha
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) Support of the people

128. 'Shakti-Sthal' is related to whom? 136. Generally the Prime Minister is ______.
a) Smt. Indira Gandhi a) A member of Vidhan Sabha
b) Rajiv Gandhi b) An experienced administrator
c) Mahatma Gandhi c) Not a member of Parliament
d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru d) A member of Lok Sabha

95
 CHAPTER – 2 : INDIAN POLITY
Practice Exercise
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (c)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (c) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (d)
91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (d)
101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (b) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (d) 110. (d)
111. (b) 112. (a) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (d) 120. (d)
121. (b) 122. (d) 123. (a) 124. (b) 125. (b) 126. (b) 127. (c) 128. (a) 129. (c) 130. (c)
131. (b) 132. (d) 133. (b) 134. (d) 135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (b)
141. (b) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (c) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (c)
151. (a) 152. (a) 153. (b) 154. (a) 155. (c) 156. (b) 157. (a) 158. (d) 159. (a) 160. (c)
161. (a) 162. (c) 163. (a) 164. (a) 165. (d) 166. (c) 167. (d) 168. (d) 169. (d) 170. (a)
171. (d) 172. (d) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (c) 176. (d) 177. (c) 178. (a) 179. (d) 180. (c)
181. (d) 182. (b) 183. (a) 184. (a) 185. (b) 186. (d) 187. (b) 188. (a) 189. (d) 190. (b)
191. (b) 192. (d) 193. (d) 194. (a) 195. (c) 196. (c) 197. (c) 198. (c) 199. (a) 200. (d)
201. (b) 202. (c) 203. (b) 204. (b) 205. (d) 206. (a) 207. (d) 208. (d) 209. (c) 210. (d)
211. (a) 212. (b) 213. (c) 214. (a) 215. (b) 216. (b) 217. (d) 218. (a) 219. (a) 220. (a)
221. (a) 222. (d) 223. (c) 224. (c) 225. (c) 226. (b) 227. (a) 228. (c) 229. (d) 230. (b)
231. (b) 232. (c) 233. (b) 234. (d) 235. (b) 236. (d) 237. (b) 238. (c) 239. (d) 240. (c)
241. (b) 242. (d) 243. (c) 244. (c) 245. (b) 246. (b) 247. (d) 248. (a) 249. (d) 250. (b)
251. (a) 252. (d) 253. (b) 254. (a) 255. (b) 256. (d) 257. (d) 258. (b) 259. (b) 260. (a)
261. (d) 262. (d) 263. (a) 264. (c) 265. (a) 266. (b) 267. (a) 268. (c) 269. (d) 270. (a)
271. (d) 272. (b) 273. (d) 274. (c) 275. (a) 276. (c) 277. (b) 278. (d) 279. (c) 280. (c)
281. (c) 282. (c) 283. (c) 284. (d) 285. (a) 286. (b) 287. (d) 288. (b) 289. (c) 290. (d)
291. (b) 292. (b) 293. (c) 294. (a) 295. (a)

272