‘Test Boolilet No. ‘Test Booklet Code JPCi4-1 ater gitar ort PAPER I / 3ya-U8 1 MAIN TEST BOOKLET) eu war gfe Do not open thie Test Booklet until you are asked to do's. pa the fear at ae a a we Tes TA ATE | Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. pa te ferent onto ee Fe eet cas Ba | ‘atten ferent Fee ‘This Booklet contains 48 pages. ryt ds eT INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES tenfifat a fore fdr ‘you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the ‘Anawer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and ‘Side- carefully with blue / black ball point pen only 2, The test is of 2% hours duration and consists of 2 160 questions. There iz no negative marking. 3 Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing], particulars on this page/marking responses ia the Answer Sheet. 4. The CODE for this Booklet is M. Make sure that the CODE| « printed oo Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that ‘n this Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and [Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate ahould immediately report the matter to. the Inviglator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the| }5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, Ul, TH, IV and V,_ eansisting of 160 Objective Type Questions, and each carries mark : PartI_ : Child Development and Pedagogy (@. Nos. 1-30) Part Il : Mathematics 1. Nos. 32-60) Part IIT: Environmental Studies (@. Nos. 61 - 90) Part IV : Language 1 (English/Hlindi) (@. Nos. 91 120) Part V_: Language Il - (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 121 - 160) |6. eS i etn ee at aly questions pertaining to gioTEaSioh and Hind lanpeage Save on given! Tn cane the anguage(o} you have opted yuestions in| 7 the one, from the Let of] 1. Candidates are required to a Pani iin s nnguage other thooca an Eanguage T (ln {8 Roagh werk should be done only in the space provided in the TeetBodlecforthecame. 9. The gover are be recorded. the OME, Anne She, i, Mark your rerponses carefully. No whitener is allowed forchanaang answers. "L ‘Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) stand ram (x3 ora): Roll Number (sages) in figures (sii #) rin words (xed #) Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : vader 3% (aS seal #) : Candidate's Signature : adhere Bs TER: Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When] 1. ‘Answer Sbeet. 5. Invigilator’s Signature Fitters 3 gear OME ae ws wa wm Geer & we HE) we hen ofr Whew wh a TE, at gee oH Pret BL BH yee T oar 8 Sac aheTe aa vite Ba fer SE vtten <6) raft 2% We tod sen H aso set HL HY serene aie we | “ee ere sig od awe ee Fes ToT fr ‘Bea sree ter fe a IT HT | a ofean ar vit BM. oe at w sea | a, SC ee Twa vibe a eer te A GAR Se See Fe tien gfeteer Hate wet 1, 11, IL, TV atk v &, far so aegis & eon ee 1 i wh ‘faeora 3 fiereres (HRT. 1-30) ami RIL: Sahar sree wer rv: wet I~ (abt / feet) mE: HIM TL (sift / fa) BRU A mg rer(@) att At rere t At BET Te Saver ere te fee ir fn | flee ert a sr “ae ota 88 Ey otter oa GA HE STH B srazT Hey ord arf | vader tv (erret 11) & Ferg, wre Rh a Beh weet ZH ‘ah pra gr 1 (eH TV) GA TT RAAT | er gn Haas ee 8 af a 1 wh sem Sar OMR so HT Gee BE 1 oY THY sar sifis wt | gor kee By wha ta ar it Ata(2) PARTI / I CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY / ate fara 3 Renee Directions.: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option. 1. Cognitive development is supported by (Q) conducting relevant and well-designed tests as frequently as possible Presenting activities that traditional methods @) reinforee| 8) @ providing a rich and varied environment focussing more on individual activities in comparison to collaboration. Human development is (1) quantitative (2) qualitative (3) unmeasurable to a certain extent (4) both quantitative and qualitative ‘The nature-nurture debate refers to (2) genetics and environment (2) behaviour and environment (3) environment and biology (4) environment and upbringing ‘Which of the following is a passive agency of socialization ? (2) Health club @) Family (3) Eco club (4 Public library Ader : Reser seat & sere OF & fore wroret aferer Rewer fe 1 darren fore fer #8 fae gro ania ane? () fier dra Bt af ongft @ dra sik ‘afiatiier véensi 61 aris CT (Fi afafaftet a mega sor A one afte ge wh & 3) agg sk Rawat emacr sre aT (4) aedhrers A otter Safes ufafaReet a ofits car Sir aor wea fie 1 (Tare (2) TOT (3) $e din ae one (4) Bearers atk qorens aH sepft-stonr faerg Firafafan F @ fred easier ee mM (2) @) w argaifiret ua arearacor CATE UF STATA arena Os sft FT areata ee TRAY fra Ha Sear autor A fifa wh & 7 (Ree @ War @) tat (4) ardaPes yerarert5 (3) In Vygotsky's theory, which aspect of| development gets neglected ? (D Social 2) Cultural (@) Biological (4) Linguistic Which of the following stages are involved’ when infants “THINK” with their eyes, ears and hands ? w @ (3) «@ Concrete operational stage Pre-operational stage Sensory motor stage ‘Formal operational stage Ria does not agree with Rishabh about setting up a class picnic. She thinks that the rules can be revised to suit the majority. This kind of peer disagreement, according to Piaget, refers to (2) Heteronomous morality 2) Cognitive immaturity (8) Reaction (4) Morality of cooperation Which one of the following is a form of! ‘Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of Intelligence ? (W) Practical Intelligence (2) Experimental Intelligence (3) Resourceful intelligence (4) Mathematical Intelligence 6. 1 M apices & ficgia i, fara & freee # & ad veg A sha eit B? ay annie (2) Btephrs has ure @) ® we at ae & fig oe aig, ar a mit a “Gra” , at afefas § & staan en enfter aaa? ag difarers et Gates a pasta Ts a ang afiearars ee a @ (3) w fen man Rafa aa eel oq fey & sere af 3 1 ae chart 8 fe agua & sige wari & fee fran an gies fet or wea 8 1 ae aad) dtu, fant & sigan, fraferfad t 3 fee raft & 7 (fast Afacrar ) UasMTers sraftwaaat (3) staf (Fein Fi Afsea fe 4 a aha wiet ar ae a feat figia a ue BTR? cD erretes afe (2) wre af (3) Harel af (a) afi af10. te 12. 13. (a) ‘Who developed the first intelligence test? | 9. (2) David Wechsler (2) Alfred Binet (3) Charles Edward Spearman (4) Robert Sternberg 10. Phonological awareness refers to the ability to (1) reflect and manipulate the sound structure (2) speak fluently and accurately (3) know, understand and write (4) master the rules of grammar uu. Gender discrimination in a classroom (1) does not affect the performance of the students may lead to diminished effort or performance of the students may lead to enhanced effort or performance of the male students is done more by the male teachers than their female counterparts @ @) @ 12. Which one of the following is an example of| learning style ? () Visual (2) Accrual (8) Pactual (4) Tactual 18. ‘A teacher collects and reads the work of the class, then plans and adjusts the next lesson to meet student needs. He/She is doing (1) Assessment of learning (2) Assessment as learning (3) Assessment for learning (4) Assessment at learning frat aa vee fe sheer at Fatt frat 2 () 3fas Azer 2) Wears RA (3) wed ead eheta tad iat afar ameam frafafar #3 fre amar 8 arafard 8 2 a) aft dren n free wor a sat aor (2) Bema @ oresaTe te (3) SAT, wage @ feret (4) eaten & Rett a car aT warn B Stet (fer) fate (a Rrenist & froagt a mentee sel acer @ (> franfitit & grtage vere sear Freres Hl HOT as TAT e @) Wes renal & afesaqe verah steer POTEAU SH HAT B @)aigen rest A ote gee Rrrerst & ere aftr feat sir & fer 8a sham dat FH teh Hi UH scecT a? a) wat 2) ae 3) Ta @) Behari ew fiers war & ard a wa aaa 8 aK FR weer %, Jae ate Sten weret & sit eR BIT ure a frente ft sraraerarstt a ET ae fam arrtfia aren Bee TRIER zt ay akaa wT sre 2) drat & wy 8 ore (a) ahaa & fre orecrt @ tas oe aa14. 16. 16. 1. (5) Teachers who work under School Based Assessment (1) are overburdened as they need to take frequent tests in addition to Monday tests (2) need to assign project work in each subject to individual students (8) observe students minutely on a daily basis to assess their values and attitudes (4) feel a sense of ownership for the system “How do grades differ from marks ?” ‘This question belongs to which of the following classes of questions ? (1) Divergent: (2) Analytic (8) Open-ended (4) Problem-solving Girl students (1) learn questions on Mathematies well but | face difficulty only when they are asked to reason them out (2) are as good in Mathematics as boys of| their age (@) perform less competently concepts than boys of their age in spatial (4) possess more linguistic and musical abilities Difficulty in recalling sequence of letters in words and frequent loss of visual memory is associated with Dyslexia, Dysealeulia w @ (3) Dysgraphia (4) Dyspraxia 14, 16. 16. 1. M 8 Ree of faces srenfta sneer % siete, ard axa & () FX ote and ar ate cen 8, aif ¥% dren A oder afer ome ahaT A ret Fe wate fra? a wate fier Ft afer ard Sat wear & Rrenfidt & aR ott argh a sree FO & fa ase Fa ae saci we (4) saaeer & faq caries ft rer wat & “de sat 8 a ster & 2” we ve fier 9 8 fea san % wet a aay wa 8? Q) avert (2) faectororer (3) Wat.3ia (4) rena ‘orart QQ) Tira} aaa aed a chad € ces FE we wea ont @ aa a He ah ait A gar rt 8 ane an gal Ft ate fra F area z 3) ae a & ase A gent 9 eats Sees eee 4) ie sit ait wat ofits amant wart wedi i aarti & wa St oat F afeag a oN wor sit sia ange taf er Ere a wafer 21 ay feeafaear 2) Peeegitrn (3) feenfier ) Reuter @ @ @18. 19. aL. (6) “Education-of-all-in-schools-for-all’ could be a tagline for which of the following ? 18. Q) Cohesive education (2) Inctusive education (3) Cooperative education (4) Exclusive education Fluency, elaboration, originality and flexibility |19. are the factors associated with (2) giftedness (2) talent (3) divergent thinking (4) acceleration Gifted students may be asked to spend more time on questions dealing with () remembering (2) understanding (8) creating (4) analysing Learning disabilities in Mathematics can be| 21. assessed most appropriately by which of the following tests ? (2) Aptitude test (2) Diagnostic test (8) Screening test (4) Achievement test Sart & fore faeerat 4 anh F ra’ Feat 4a fees fou van area a caer 87 cy Aafenetier Fran (2) art fire (3) wears Ret @) pre fren waepin, een, fea sit acter are ae oF sft m arrears Fara @ @ @ mT sftrenef frend a aR ve 1 sites ama BAS fee we aT BT BL aR @ we awh faxeon @) w afre Fo afin Rater a areas fier ta fee wtem aa aif sfia a @ fen on eam 8? (area atert @) Renters afer “ean wet safety adhere 3) @(7) "28, Concept maps are most likely to increase understanding of new concepts by (1) transferring knowledge between content areas (2) focusing attention on specific detait (8) prioritizing academic content for study (4) increasing ability to organize information logically According to the theory of social learning of| Albert Bandura, which one of the following is true? (2) Play is essential and should be given Priority in school. (2) Modelling is principal way for children to learn. (3) An unresolved crisis can harm a child. (4) Cognitive development is independent of] social development. Deductive reasoning involves @ @) @ reasoning from general to particular reasoning from particular to general active construction and reconstruction of| knowledge (4) methods including inquiry learning and heuristics When children learn a concept and use it, practice helps in reducing the errors committed by them. This idea was given by (1) EL, Thorndike Q) Jean Piaget (3) J.B. Watson 22, 24, 25. (A) Lev Vygotsky M fergia faa & go adh seurersit Hwa ag ei 2) famadat & ata ar & aria (2) fafire Fae oe ea Bia HE @) fern & flu dete fag A rafter aa et @ whol aa qeasit a mae ae A ater #t age wad tear & arn stom ficcin gare Ber 4-& wha.an wal 8? a @a afar & oh sa free 9 refit & arf antec | 2) weal & Hat % faq sfier (nish) up yer attr @ | @) sHge tae TS a Gee Veet THT a @) Sararers frera annfres fears 3 cada ti Poorer aon & anftet 878 GQ) ara a fafte at sin to @) fire a ara A sik who (3) a & aba faim ait gahiaio @ aes den sik wa Ghee ware Tafa Wa Sw sau # drat 2 3k saR yeh ae 2, at ene ss aT At A are ata at aq ae a ag eer 2 | ae fan an fener @ $a. affera 2) fa Rad (3) 3, aizert @) da areca= 27. (8) ‘Which of the following skills is associated with | 26. emotional intelligence ? 1) Memorising (2) Motor processing (3) Envisaging (4) Empathising ‘The inner force that stimulates and compels a behavioural response and provides specific direetion to that response is (1) Motive (2) Perseverance (3) Emotion (4) Commitment Which term is often used interchangeably | 28, with the term “motivation” ? (Incentive (2) Emotion (3) Need ______. motives deal with the need to! reach satisfying feeling states and to obtain Personal goals. () Effective (2) Affective (3) Preservation-oriented (4) Safety-oriented Which one of the following is a factor that affects learning positively ? (2) Fear of failure (2) Competition with peera (8) Meaningful association (4) Pressure from parents 27. fer #8 waar at dana gfe 2 waft 2 2 QQ) ae or 2) fee wR @) Fan eer @) Bagufe Sa w aiais aa at arent eer & ott rae sftieen % fee arex axa 8 ud ge fairer wt fafire fem sueter erat 2, a a afar (2) semaare (@) Bar 4) Tere fra 48 aaa ect or: “after” & AY sia-aamna & arer eee oh Te 2 > () SReer (aes) @ Fa 3) BraeReaT @) sao _____ dent sayfa & agian A serait ae ug ak dates cet swe Ba A sragen at were ait & | a mari (2) wT 3) wast ® Reset fates 4 8 shan are afm a BeOS SER a see aa B 2 apts) aor ar (2) wenfeat & sferatfita (3) rdgh ararey ® waa A sik 8 eraDirections = (9) PART I / art IT MATHEMATICS /afért der ; Reatilers wea & ae 8? & fre ware sfert Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option. 31. 32. 34. ‘The difference of the place value and the face value of 5 in 35362 is @o (2) 495 3) @) 5005 10 ones + 10 tens + 10 thousands equals (11100 (2) 101010 (3) 10110 (4) 11011 The sum of the positive factors of 210 is a) 576 @) 575 (3) 573 (4) 366 Gorang worked ak hours on Monday, 190 minutes on Tuesday, from 5 : 20 a.m. to 9:10 a.m. on Wednesday, and 220 minutes on Friday. He is paid @ 42 per hour. How much did he earn from Monday to Friday ? a * 560 (2) = 580 (3) © 540 @) © 637 freer gfe | 31. 32. 35362 4 5% canta ara oer yee ifr HH sae 8 @o (2) 495 (3) 4995 (4) 5005 10 Sars + 10 Tere + 10 BHM aT 11100 (2) 101010 (3) 10110 (@) 011 210% waren quel apr aeeet & () 576 @ 575 (3) 573 (4) 366 wer 3 tan a ak eR, nea at 190 Pez, Guan BH 5:20am. 89:10am, ‘ae, otk YAN BH 220 five a fee | se Uh Bel ay we & 40 fret S| rea aa a dar Bran 7 Het fe warT 2 (D © 560 (2) © 580 @ = 540 (4) 637 ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 7 ard & Ferg ag5 37. (10) ‘The sum of the greatest 4-digit number and the smallest 3-digit number is (7000 (2) 9899 (3) 10099 (4) 10999 ‘Twenty-six and twenty-six hundredths is written as () 2626 2) 2626 (8) 262-6 (4) 2-626 ‘The product of remainders of 19009 9090 + 11 is a4 @ 5 @ 8 @ a @) (3) @ 12 15 18 20 35. 36. 4aret ach waa ad dem ait 3.siat art wad Od) eT ar arreet e (1) 7000 (2) 9899 (3) 10099 (4) 10999 valle ait gala arate a fever ate & () 2626 (2) 2626 (3) 2626 (4) 2626 19009 + 11 Sit 9090 + 11 & a Stes wT pret & m4 @ 5 @ 8 @ RB ah ifm 2 te 12 15 18 20 ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ti: ward & fore srg40. aL qa) 39, Whet number should be subtracted from the product 1109 x 505 so as to get 505050? (1) 49495 (2) 55005 (3) 54995 (4) 59495 Which of the following is not correct ? (2) 1 mmis one-tenth of lem (2) 1 kg 12 grams = 1-012 kg (3) 10 metre 10 em = 1010cm 23 @ T59 7280 A tank contains 240 litres (L) 128 millilitres (mL) of milk, which can be filled completely in 16 jars of the same size. How much milk will be their in 22 such jars ? (1) 3301176 mL. (2) 3811760 mL (3) 381L176 mL (4) 332 L650 mL Number of degrees in four and two-third right-angles is @ 310 (2) 420 (3) 330 (4) 400 39, M se 1109 « 505 4 8 aaah Hear wer aT, ‘af 505050 37H B17 w @ @ « fre iS aaa we aah 2? (a) 1 firefistter, 1 Hétcer ar Uw-carit & (2) 1 firetta 12 7m = 1-012 fret (3) 10 set 10 Heteter = 1010 Here 28 == 22:30 100 49495 55005 54995 59495 @ wm StF 240 ater (L) 128 Prefiettet (mL) Ga 2 frat 16 wri, a um & age (AM) & &, F ypieen ro on aaa 8 1 BS 22 wel # fea aT em? (2) 330 L176 mL (2) 331 L760 mL (3) 331.176 mL (4) 332 L650 mL an atte a-fererg amet PRAT A area B (310 (2) 420 (3) 330 4) 400 ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U5 tard & fere orgM 43, (12) Awater tank is 11 m long, 10 m wide and 9 m|43. high. It is Glled with water to a level of 6 m. What part of the tank is empty ? 1 yi os 1 @ = 3 1 a i @% 2 (4) = 3 Perimeters of a rectangle and a square are| 44, equal. Perimeter of the square is 96 em and breadth of the rectangle is 4 cm less than the side of the square. Then two times the area (Gin square em) of the rectangle is @ 560 (2) 960 (3) 1040 (4) 1120 Difference of (smallest common multiple of 4,5 and 6) and (smallest common multiple of | 5, 6 and 9) is (D 30 (2) 45 (3) 48 (4) 60 Wh Ht ew eet 11 Hex eat, 10 the AS ae 9 Hier Sa 1 gee 6 shee AM Ser aH oe mr Te 8 1 eof ar fect HT Teh & 7 a (2) (3) eelto Ole wl mle @ we ard at wm af & aftr sue # | ef ar aftary 96 Serie 8 atk saa A ates wf FT war a 4 Sethe ee 2 | aa oa & aaa (at Steer 8) ar Gy fina wear 8? (1) 560 (2) 960 (3) 1040 (4) 1120 45 sk 6 a waa sa ad pp ait 6,6 sit 9 wm waa wer ard I) wT sie @ 30 (@) 45 (3) 48 @) 60 ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / tm werd & ferq wITe(3) 48. As per NCF 2005, teaching of numbers and operations on them, measurement quantities, etc. at primary level caters to the a @ @ narrow aim of teaching mathematics higher aim of teaching mathematics aim to mathematise the child's thought, Process (4) aim of teaching important mathematics 47. In Class 3, a teacher asked the students to add 4562 and 728. A student responded to the question as follows : 4562 +728 11842 ‘The response reflects that the child lacks the (Q)_ Skill of addition (2) Concept of place value (8) Skill of addition by regrouping (A) Concept of order property of addition Which of the following problems from the textbook of Class IV refers to ‘multidisciplinary problem’ ? (1) Draw the flag of India and identify the number of lines of symmetry in the flag. @ @) Draw the mirror image of a given figure, How many lines of symmetry are there in a given figure ? To draw a line of symmetry in a given geometrical figure. 4) of| 46. 47, 48. M usa versal ft sitet 2005 & sqER, safe aR R dene ak TK afr, arareit aor are, omfg a Fivaret a) Tre Rereror & eicbtol Sees Bt aT Hee B (2) fbra fara & Fer Sees aI YT aT e 8) Fa A fae iar} afore} eT ag aa Feel fire Ram & sera st ge wecaT 2 war 34, wa free Rrenfihit #4562 sf 728 vat at eet & Ferg sear @ | Ua Areelf sees oat a Fer ven & wfiBeer Fe : 4562 +728 “T1842 ~ ae wfatrer ag auth 8 f 7S F iq wie! a) a seer @) area A sar (3) Greagier % ga aS ater ar ad aa A samo wa iv A mergers 2 4 ng frfefed wait HS aA aR sTyMTETE Te Ht ait debe Het B 7 @) Hat & 88 ar oe aree at we HF anftfe tara 6 don Ht year Fh | @ ng arpa A chr of (after) a rita wage, | 87g argh A Paro anf Yar & 2 feet & mg senfitter orp Hear HA a diet | @ @ @ ‘SPAGE FOR ROUGH WORK [Ww wd & fq wreM 49. 50. 51. (14) The following grid is drawn on a square|49, fi fits anton srs we When en 8: paper: 7 TT THe : : Th HT OO Th HT O iaieseedeee Per eeE Eb ag Fewer Fach oh aie are ‘This representation reflects Q) Praca (ame) oe Sears Hy fate (1) position of numbers on abacus (2) eerie om ft sauroT (2) concept of place value (3) ere otk gang A era @ 4) afta ae equivalence of tens and ones (4) mathematical game Children at primary stage are able to classify! the given shapes based on their appearance. According to Van Hicle levels of geometry, they are at (1) Visualization stage (2) Analytic stage (3) Informal deduetion stage (4) Formal deduction stage Manipulative models, static pictures, written symbols, spoken and written language, real; world situations or contexts are five ways to represent (2) Mathematical thinking and ideas (2) Geometrical proof (3) Mathematies curriculum (4) Mathematical vocabulary 51. wats en aa dong srpfaat 1 sh fear % aren T atiga BAH ae Fa ares & sigan 3 seca R a a @) @ cy Feira STH, FRR Far, Fafa sett, wifes arate Param eae Rector eR srirarite: fr cat strates Pama et ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / tm werd & fore wre(18) 52. After teaching the concept of division, a teacher created a ‘Mathematical Wall’ in the| classroom and asked the students to write any two division facts in the assigned columns within 48 hours : ‘MATH WALL Ankit Ankur | Babita | Bobby 254+5=5) 0+6=0 Pragya | Dhrav | Sohan | Harsh Rahul Smita | Sunil | Tushar This activity can help the teacher to (1) make the classroom environment noise free (2) engage the students for next two days in some mathematical work (3) give opportunity of expression to every’ child and to learn from each other (4) keep the record of number of facts learnt by the students Possible indicator pertaining to visual memory barrier hampering with ~—_learner’s mathematical performance is (1) difficulty in retaining mathematical facts and difficulty in telling time (2). difficulty in using a number line (8) difficulty to count on within a sequence (4) difficulty in handling small manipulations we tet | fen | fies | ame ae niafafe wade | CL) NR eae STAT ATT (2) srl St feat & fore fRrenfetel st fare nifdta art fora wa 3) sale ae at oftrafe & at weg a at & ora (4) Rrenfiiat gra dha me aeat fl ater ar ‘featé wat H fers Al reer Fe (2) Rear tar a sein wet Hare (3) GH wr A oon Be 8 afer 4) Be vftarertt & ere caaen wet afog ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / tH ard & fore argM 54, (16) A teacher in Class II distributed the following. cards and asked the children to match the same shapes. [sp 2a [o> pj Vp pA > ps Objective of this game is to (2) make the classroom —_environment!| engaging and joyful (2) help children to recognize same shapes in different orientations a) @) enhance eye-hand coordination develop the concept of similarity and congruency Geo-Board is an effective tool to teach (2) basie geometrical concepts like rays, lines and angles @ (3) w geometrical shapes and their properties difference between 2D and 3D shapes concepts of symmetry 54, we fiers maT 1H Refit wef ar frat wean & ait gat at ae ongtat a fre wer & fore sem 8 [bp pa] ap 0 VD OA > © a Ga HT sea B ) saa aa A oa ak argRTas SAT @ fia after 3 aa onpitd & Tear OF aa A neg So 8) sega} aaa sh age @ aman sit watrar 1 srauroT freita aT RATE (Geo-Board) feae fre HTH sure area & ? @ sep safe saeronsil B28 fr, Fart ai FI (2) Safire srpfeat ait sat fasted (3) feften sik fifa onefaai § one eer (4) Batata Bt sree, ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Tw ard & fry wg57. a7) Proficiency in Mathematical language in classroom can be enhanced by presenting the problems in the following sequence : () Everyday language + Mathematized situation language —> Language of Mathematical problem solving > Symbolic language 2) Symbolic language > Language of| Mathematical problem solving > Mathematized situation language —> Everyday language (8) Everyday language > Language of| Mathematical problem solving > Mathematized situation language — Symbolic language Language of Mathematical solving —> Mathematized language > Symbolic language — Everyday language @) problem situation Procedural fluency in Mathematics implies knowledge of rules, formulae or algorithms and implementing them with accuracy and, flexibility and efficiency. Flexibility in Mathematies refers to (2). ability to solve different types of problems from the same topic ability to solve problems from arithmetic and geometry with same efficiency ability to solve a particular kind of problem using more than one approach @) @) (4) ability to solve problems with accuracy, writing all steps 57. M sé. arama afore aren A Agora wt Peaferfat ee Faucet at seftts aa} gM sera TT wane: (tart A omm | aferdita feafa cet > nforfta aaen Barer a UTET wearers ATT selene arn > aida eRe ear Bt out niin feefe are + aot are deed & rn 5 afta aren ee A am — afore feat ae dere art afta wen we ff aT cftrtaecn fefa set > wetter set o> tan Ht rst (@ @ w nia 3 sea aah waren ar ant & Rani, at oft ser faftrdiaen afta a aH Sat okt sigan, ates i Agen & are ant Beara Ber | afta % creer A ait dha wae () War wea a fata wan A aRETTt aT wre &ea At ae (2) Fa Fagen & arr sieafra sie serftt A arensit a aT Be St AeA (3) Ww 8 afte sara wr eT aA AE Be TER A aHeT wl aE at A ara aftgyger % arr arena a Ta BT ott ash seit i fered A ater @ ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / tH ard & ferg org.M 58. A child mentally calculated (27 + 38) as 65. ca) When he was asked to explain his method of addition, he responded that 38 is near to 40 so (27 + 40) is 67, then I removed 2 to get 65. This stratogy of addition is (1) Direct modelling (2) Regrouping (3) Compensating (4) Incrementing Mental Math activities are important. because| gq. they provide a chance to (1) develop mental computation procedures| as the students try to identify the relationship between numbers for fast calculations (2) master procedures Jearnt in class using} paper-pencil (3) master algorithms learnt and practice more number of problems in Jess time (4) develop their speed with accuracy for: calculations and help to improve performance in examinations A child of primary class is not able to differentiate between number, operation symbols, coins and clock hands. This indicates that the child has problem regarding (1) Auditory memory (2) Working memory (3) Visual processing (4) Language processing 58, we wen wafer By a (27 + 38) 8 65% iewiea Bar 2 | Fa SB at a anh Sat F onen ad % foe aera dt sfatiran % eo F wer fe 38, 40% aadte gafeag (27 + 40), 67 @, aR 65 at Ta wt fem ower faq 1 aim Ba Hae a () yeaa steer (2) yardage (a) after @) date arafirs nftra meal nfafafttat agah & wif ae fraferfiad #8 fd us & sea sree art F QQ) safes dor wears sent a fare wis freer ta af a derit & vtteer & de mad ft war ee Ft aif at & @ Mita a sein ea a ae F sisal oh dhe? § Ago sma aa 3) Fer fle (Rete) aw ahad FH Ayre ma et ott aa ae 4 sift den F TST A HAT BAT (4) Ree A akegaa & ate sah ah at gen otk atenst ¥ aa fore F gue we Haag eo 424 Cea oe ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 1 rd & FerqarTg(19) PART III / #07 HT ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES / wafam sterrt Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option. 61. Bronze is a mixture of two metals. These two| metals are (1) Copper and Zine (2) Copper and Tin (8) Copper and Iron (4) Aluminium and Tin Select from the following a group that! comprises of methods of cooking food : (2) Boiling, Kneading, Roasting (@) Baking, Boiling, Rolling (3) Frying, Soaking, Roasting @) Baking, Frying, Roasting Select the correct statement about Mount) Everest : (2) It is a part of Jammu and Kashmir and the height of its peak is 8900 m. It is a part of Nepal and the height of its peak is 8900 m. It is a part of India and the height of its peak is 9850 m, It is a part of Tibet and the height of its peak is 9850 m. @ @ @ “Desert Oak” is a tree whose roots go deep into the ground till they reach water. The depth of| these roots is nearly 30 times the height of the ‘tree, This tree is found in (2). Rajasthan (2) Abu Dhabi (3) Australia 4) Russia Peer: Reateiteaa sel % son 33 & fore eraret afer Arr FAT | 61, star (ata) ad ergot ar fier @ 13 St rgd & (Dafa afk sea (fire) (2) ater ait fea (3) diet af citer (area) 4) tefian oft fa 62, frafafaa wag 38 sa mag at gh faa art Tar % aos (en) Rees: GQ) Fareret, Hea, ERT (2) Sera, TaTeTR, Fer (a) aera, Raitare, ype (4) Beat, TER, HHT 63, WIsZ Wate & at Fad we ga: a) ae wa otk wet aT oT 2 sik geht ‘ald Ht Sang sooo sex 81 (2) we Ane a HM a sik wat Ta Srag 900 Hit @ | (3) Fe UR wr TT a ate gat HA at Sag 9850 Hex @ | (4) -e frera ar arr @ ait get TA FY Sra 9850 Hie 2 | 64. “Utcart site” wm tg a am 2 at ae aa meg a5 Geta H after ret & wa aes Re oe ae 7 Wes ord | ge de AH et oA mead ea Ag % Sad A are 30 Th att 2 tae 8s set ara Sra & 2 (TEI (2) arg ert (3) sifegfern (4) eM 65. A train started from 67. (20) Gandhidham on 16" July, 2014 at 05:15 hours and reached ‘Nagercoil on 18" July, 2014 at 04:45 hours. ‘The distance covered by the train is 2649 km. ‘The average speed of the train, in km/hr, is nearly @ 57 @) 56 @) 56 (a) 54 Which is the best period for the people of Bihar state to start bee-keeping ? (QD). January to March (2) April toJune (8) July to September (4) October to December Select the correct statements about the. ‘Khejadi’ tree : a. This tree is mainly found in desert areas. >. It grows without much water. ¢._Itisashady tree and children like to play in its shade. d. It stores water in its trunk and people! use thin pipes to drink this water. () aybande @ b,candd @) acandd @) a,bandd Which one of the following statements is correct about elephants ? (1) Elephants like to take too much rest because of their heavy bodies. A. three-month-old baby elephant generally weighs about 2 quintals, 2 (3) An adult elephant can eat even more than 2 quintals of leaves and twigs in one day. Elephants sleep for 8 to 10 hours in a day. @ 67. ag termi nites @ 16 gerd, 2014 Wa: 05:15 43 Re Steer 18 Gers, 2014 FT Bie, 04:45 A ANE Vera we Tea BI Yeni ger at we qo 2649 feo 2 1 Fe Yams i stea aa, fashvder H, een e a 57 @) 56 @) 55 4) 64 fan Toe % chil & faa ayaa Te Ye wa A aad aredt wal strat ah 37 a wat a at @ wae (3) gang & Perera ) sat a eat ‘aad gad at i aa wat A ste a. ee 1 bafta aa A raga ae ae | c 7 BME ga @ fe wen F we Sern weg A EI a. Fe A A oe wae wT 8 oft in wad oe a 9a we A ha EI @) abate @ db esita 3) acaitd @) aboika ‘eafteat & fava Hota fear mar ata wer wat a? a) wet area srcaftres AR SPT A BCT AEA HT WS He FI (2) da ade eet & Fea wr AK BETTE: wane 2 fice état BL (3) seen wre oe Ra H 2 faeicat 8 Hf onfir wa sik afgai a am 2 (® wel fiat a 10s ata EI70. n 72. (21) Read the following paragraph written by a student about his house in a village : “have come from a village. It rains heavily at our place. Hence our houses are made almost 10 to 12 feet (3 to 3 metres) above the: ground. They are made on bamboo pillars. The inner sides of our houses are also made of) wood.” This village must be in (1) Andhra Pradesh @ @) wo Assam Tamil Nadu Uttarakhand In Braille script, rows of raised dots are made ona thick paper. This script is based on a @) ) @ 4 points 6 points 8 points 10 points Which one of the following birds can rotate its, neck backwards to a large extent ? () Mynah @) Owl 3) w Crow Koel In which of the following parts of our country do people grow eatables such as tapioca and coconut in their courtyards and they find food prepared using these to be very tasty ? (2) Andhra Pradesh (2) Assam (3) Goa (4) Kerala 69. 70. 1. 72. M A fear er roms sige fe ais oH oa ar ae fava F fern 2: “Safa & aren & 1 eat aia areas asf Sf 2 | eafaq et at ae & am 10 a 12 Fe (38 35 fiz) Saw AA Fe aT aia & wait oe aa ara 21 A oa aad & 4 aa 2” ag ta a aie Gy sie wea 3 @ sae (3) dia ag t (4) serreeg oa fat 4, We ara we TR gy fy A aT % 1 ae fart omenta ah @ (4 fergait a (2) 6 firgsit x (3) 8 fargat (4) 10 fargait ae frafefaa viel # a ate ari eq ae seh 1 Hi HS oH OT BHAT a? aw a (2) Se (3) #3 (4) ara wa 2a & a8 fee ay fee wn A an Ht 3a efister sik ahaa a cin om a ait 4 Gi ond 2 ott 58 Ha | GM HI ATG FEI HEH TAT 8? GQ) atiw wet aR (a) thar w ae74, 1, 6. cin (22) A doctor prescribed some medicines to a patient and also suggested him to eat jaggery, amla and more green leafy vegetables. This patient must be suffering from @ 2 @ @ Fever Typhoid Malaria Anaemia Some birds can see four times as far as we can. see. These birds are (1) Crows, Kites, Nightingales (2) Eagles, Pigeons, Parrots (3) Kites, Fagles, Vultures (4) Doves, Crows, Peacocks With respect to the location of Delhi on the map of India, the capital of Himachal Pradesh (Shimla) and the capital of Madhya Pradesh (Bhopal) are located respectively in its (1) North-East and North-West (2) South-West and South-East (3) North and South (4) South-East and North-West ‘The abbreviation EVS stands for (1) Environmental Skills (2) Environmental Science (3) Environmental Sources (4) Environmental Studies Which one of the following is not an objective of teaching of EVS at primary stage ? (1) Learning in the classroom must be linked to the life outside the school Teachers must ensure perfect discipline in the classroom Children must be encouraged to ask questions Children must be encouraged to explore their immediate environment @ (3) (4) 73. 14. 15. 6. 11. wi tect Us His a Gr & fee Ho careat faan @ ait ay ai 7g, sizer ait ef Tat aferet se Gr a gare tar 2 | ae ats ee a 8 chfSa err fee? @ FR (2) Rend gare (3) wafeH 4) aera wo veh eet qa Fan al afte 2 aw da wea J 1B vat SF (sn, aa, Free (2) FS, aR, Ae 3) fet, ata, firg @) erat, sen, ae ona & arte # ferch ft fate & arta ferraa wea At corer (Reem) sik nea we At rant (state) aor: fea & Reet GQ) sre ak sreafiea ¥ 2) farming site afer. a (3) a stivefin F 4) aod ait sacar taixa, sae aed vq dar 8 @) Wardiza farce 2) Garcies aa 3) Warrstea aa 4) Warrdiza wets frafefan 4 8 aa waft eR water ores & rer at sexe ze B 2 (sere Fe are afters at frees are after & ara agar fiers aera Fo as ote a afta Ft wail awe yea & fee arava afte aon enfant wait st seri Repeat after & after ar wal & fear stare siiaite wer anfee @ 8 4)(2a) 78. Aanchal frequently asks probing and imaginative questions in her Class V EVS| lass. By doing so, she aims at improving (1) observation skills (2) emotional skills (3) thinking skills (4) speaking skills While teaching the topic on ‘Our friend — Birds’ to Class IIT students, Nalini followed the following methodologies : a. Showing a documentary film on birds. b. Using a chart having pictures of different birds and explaining briefly. c. Taking the students to the nearby park’ and asking them to observe the birds carefully. Nalini is using different approaches of learning in order to wD @ follow her lesson plan meet different requirements of learners having multiple intelligences (3) impress other teachers and parents (4) promote reasoning skills in the students ‘Which one of the following teaching strategies will be more effective for maximum involvement of students in teaching the topic| of ‘Games we play’? (1) Take the students to the play-field and| make them play different games on| different days (2) Make play-cards of different games and show it to students Ask the students to learn the names of| different indoor and outdoor games Ask the students to watch sports programmes on television and prepare a simple project on the same 3) @ 78. 19. M aise ore en Vv # qatar sree, ft Fa A seat met stetearea are it HETATTTH we ved 21 seh gu wi yen ao ae ge eT? Q) sacs sere (2) Hamers store (3) Ria eter 4) Se ware srett H wat 111% Perenfaha ot euit eter — gal?” ve Pee eee fel a arenes ga-fas ern | a. fafa oftral ft aed are ar ar sei eon oft daa Ff saan sols eT | a. Rirenfdet at adh wh FA ara oft Be ofa st carr S Ber | fore HEAT | afer fra seer & fare dhet & fafa srr wr wen az oH 2? QQ) anefl gece ar oe eT 2) agg ar Rrenfiat Af fata STEHT BT YT BAT at reat ott anna a wna ara @) Reaket a shes a free eer Sa sh ew Gad F veer] Are frrantlet Ft after anftatter & fay Fer a a etd Rremats often wih ert 2 G) Rrenieit st Ge & dem Ha ora otk we aes fei 7 aoe Ga fear 2) fafa dei } aaaws wr sk Te renter at earn (3) frend at shat ote stat Set STF aT fafa Geil & am ag we & fer eT @ frank a echfisa x aa ware ore #1 3at ok va Hamat carer afedorn ard aa 3 fore eT81. (24) Which one of the following is not a suitable Formative Assessment task in EVS ? () Explain the definitions of important| terms given in the lesson (2) Perform the given practical activity and record your observations (3) Draw labelled diagram experimental set-up of given () Discuss disadvantages of water pollution ‘After teaching the lesson on animals, Sheetal| arranged a visit of her Class IV students to the zoo. This would help the students to a develop skills of animal protection (2) have a change in the daily time-table routine (8) co-relate classroom learning to real-life! situations (4) develop sensitisation about how to domesticate animals Shalini wants to introduce the topic on ‘Nutrition’ to her Class V students. She should (2) draw the diagram of the digestive system on the black-board 2) give examples of different foods rich in nutrients (3) use chart showing different kinds of foods @ ask the students to open their tiffin boxes, see the contents, followed by her| explanation 81. 83. fe 4 a eran vale A aan A eae oer a1 eafad ae aa 8? Wet tne agragt weqact A oot A aren a 2) Rene wanes feared BT YT FCT ah ae sade 8 Gt wT fe me weiner eT Prelate one rT 4) Se saan A aha & at a eal ser @) Sta sigat 1 swetta os at wer & arg, vitae wan IV & Rrenfat & fe fafgar & seer wr aria Saft 2 1 ae % Renita Al Fee BUT | Sasi team & stereit & ferara fre ented A wat § ager weraea aftr ay aris star afterall & are sits shasigeit a weg 8 aren are sf aerate Reefer ack w (2) @) @ sleet aan Vv & Rarenftat a atewr ox sent, waren & oie ae are BE () Wrng Fore oa ar aiite wae eTee ) Twe wei 8 waq fafa wer & tise & ‘sere 3 aR (3) fifa wan & ibe a oefiit ea aT ws ar sar He The frenfiat @ wen aafey ff 3 ao Refs alge ate, seh aril ar oractas wt oft gas are 8 caren Soh afer a)4, 87. (25) Rashmi was taught the following steps (not in sequence) to be followed while preparing a ‘question paper i, Writing the questions ii. Preparing the design iii, Editing the question paper iv. Preparing the blueprint The correct sequence of steps to be followed is (Diy, ii, i, iii (2). ii, iv, i, iii (3) iv, i, ti, iii (4) i, ii, iv, iif Harpreet wants to suggest to her students as to how an individual can contribute in the best possible way towards environmental protection. Her best suggestion would be (use public transport system for travelling (2) do not keep a personal vehicle like car, scooter, ete avoid frequent travel outside the home get the engine of personal vehicle checked regularly @) ) Out of the following, the most effective way to arouse curiosity in Class V students is to (2) provide more hands-on experiences 2) give them more practice in written work (3) conduct frequent unit tests (4) ask probing and imaginative questions 87. Asking the question “How will our life get affected if there were no electricity for a month aims at (2) sensitizing the students on using electricity judiciously (2) assessing the students on sources of electricity (3) promoting imaginative and thinking skills of students (4) assessing the students on their general awareness M vei at ae fara aia @ fae ae se wT ara fir aeeli (an aa 8) a1 ogre a - i. ve aren ; ii, BRarAeare ta se ii, Rea ar ATTA OTT iv. wapfie dan ec sagem faq ort ara wet ar ae a aha a? @ ii, iv, Hi (3) i co) Bola ott frenfiat at ag gare tar are & fe cata sear & fee fea we we oui aaa aed awnfea atts & aren aire % aa 2 | sam aad emt Gare a THT ze () sro & fee eetaten erect ar ve = aR, Feet, safe ta afters area a wa (3) Wa ae RR aa a aaa (4) ot safesra aver & gor ht fafa she weer v & frenfist # faeren sara eet a fat Ha aad weet ater t () afte were ayy ye BET (2) fefian ord i 8 safe area ear (3) Seber garg wdanil er arise Be 4) Tea stars att SAT WET TAT “fe wa Has & fore farrell 2 at a ware saa fee sane wna aor 2” ga RH aH YEA aT eae iv, i, i, ii i, ii, iv, ii @ Gy wafaa ade 8 faseh ar sao ae & va farential at daca sara (2) faweh & aid & ak A frank a AREA GT (3) fren 3 serra afk Rrra atareil apr feerra oT (4) frente 61 arr, arrears =uM (26) 88. The section on ‘Survey and Write’ in some chapters of EVS textbook for Class V) primarily aims at (1) assessing the students on their general awareness (2) providing opportunity to students to explore and learn helping the students to learn basic| concepts of the subject, (3) (4) improving practical skills of students Gunjan organises the following activities on different days to sensitise students to the concept of conservation of trees : ‘a. Encouraging every student to adopt a tree and look after it b. Organizing a debate conservation on forest ¢. Organizing 2 poster-making” competition on trees d. Showing children storage of logs of wood. Which one of the above activities will be least effective in achieving the desired objective ? Ma @ b @) ad ‘After having taught the lesson ‘What if it finishes’ to Class V students, Sheela administered a test to know the level off ‘understanding of students about the topic. To her surprise, she observed that large number of students had not understood the related concepts. This could be mainly due to the reason that (1) she did not use the correct methodology to teach the topic the cognitive level of students was not good the topic was not suitable for inclusion in the textbook students did not find the topic interesting @ @ @ 88. man VA Gala sreaes A) TST. GETH 3% TH ae & ‘adam sit aay HG WMT Hl EST wae Q) Reni A aera ret ar TRH =r @) Renhidt a saat sreen aT fF tot Basi otk he (a) Rea A sere sraureail wt aah A arena At eq CAT (4) Rrenfiat & onaertts stare A gue FET a den A rar & aH Rela Renta as faa he Fefefes we. wets renef at a ara & fore steartes sen fi a weue ga A org site sel Sarre HE we. waa ate fee sfteitfan SRSA RAT naa omens seein wea ‘sfratitar ar ones GT a, Rrenflat a adh crefeait & sere fea wifes sea at wm EA ae A aE aati Ha seat ead aa weed eh 2 QM * Qa @ 4 @ 7 pan Vv & Renhiat st caf ae waa a ae ae Ta & arg sien sewer & at F Penile Fama et & a ora & few ws aha wants wet 2 1 we ae HT ora Brat & fe we ad dea 4 fran watts seer aa aa Bas TG aT TS HT GI aT e G) A yeu FT gh & fee we safe a vain at fee at ‘frenfifat ar arate BT sree HEF aT ae yam mergers 3 ufia fee ort ara aét or Rrenfehat A ae seme Taw AE ST (2) @ @(a7 Candidates should answer questions from the following Part only if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE - I. udanet feafaftad um & sedi & sax daa att ¢ ae ae wrt — Ia freed stsh a a iM (28) PART IV LANGUAGE I ENGLISH Directions : Read the passage given below and|91. The floating village is famous for its answer the questions that follow (@. No. 91 to 99) by () Black River selecting the most appropriate option. (2) craze for sports In this floating village in Brazil, there is only (3) annual flooding one way to travel. Students go to school by (A) suffering of the locals boat. Locals go to worship by boat. Taxis arrive by boat. Even the soccer field is often a|92% The wooden goal posts had nets that are ___ during floods. boat. There are three homemade fields on land, but, neat ectaa they are submerged now in the annual fe flooding of the Black River. If the wooden goal posts jayaeelies had nets, they would be useful this time of year only stellt for catching fish. So, young players and adults improvise. They play soccer ata community centre|98. “The passing boats sometimes knocked down that has a roof but no walls. They play on the dock power lines” suggests that the of a restaurant. And they play on a parked ferry, @ (1) rescue boats are careless few wearing life jackets to cushion their fall. The’ (2) water was charged high-water mark in the Rio Negro this year was the (8) the flood levels were high fifth highest in more than a century off (4) _ electric poles had fallen Leela 94. A word that can best replace the word As scientists study the impact of deforestation ‘improvise’ is on the Amazon basin, and the cooling and (1) contrive warming of the Pacific Ocean, extreme patterns (2) share observed over the last 25 or 30 years raise an @) plan important unanswered question : “Are these trends, (4) devise hhaman-indveed climate change, or can we explain| 4... Ptelstebtaltcalteelet this with natural variability 2” (separate Villagers said that passing boats sometimes (2) protect Knocked down power lines during periods of] — (g) faq exceptionally high water. And while the soccer fields aitebate are usually available for about _hallf| 96, Identify the correct statement. the year, the land has recently been dry enough for only four or five months of play. “We don't have a lace for the children to play,” said de Sousa, a shop owner. “They are stuck in the houses, bored.” The most adventurous, though, will find a game somewhere. Flooding has (2) remained the same (2) been increasing (8) been unpredictable (4) been decreasing over a period of time,(29) 97. Pick out the false statement. (D The lines remain in place during the floods. (2) The residents enjoy football the most. (3) The goal posts and nets are useless during the floods. (4) The community centre is the only space for playing. 98. The antonym of the word ‘exceptionally’ is (2) extraordinary (2) generally (3) markedly (4) easily 99, “... will find a game somewhere” suggests that (2) _ people will play football in the water (2) football is lost during the floods (3) the Black River is no threat to a game of| football (4) high grounds are reserved for the popular game Directions : Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 100 to 105) by selecting the most appropriate option. ‘THE LAST CONQUEROR Victorious men of earth, no more Proclaim how wide your empires are; ‘Though you bind-in every shore And your triumphs reach as far As night or day, Yet you, proud monarchs, must obey And mingle with forgotten ashes, when Death calls ye to the crowd of common men. Devouring Famine, Plague, and War, Each able to undo mankind, Death’s servile emissaries are; Nor to these alone confined, He hath at will More quaint and subtle ways to kill; A smile or kiss, as he will use the art, Shall have the cunning skill to break a heart. 100. 101. 102, 103. 104, 105. “... servile emissaries” means (1). risky behaviour (2) humble messengers (3) those who protect (4) messengers of peace “More quaint and subtle ways to kill; Assmile or kiss, as he will use the art,” ~ tolls the reader that the speaker (A) believes in human goodness (2) is afraid of his enemies (8) hates wars (@) distrusts human nature «... the cunning skill” ~ refers to Q) a weapon of war (2) skilful soldier (3) a manipulative king (4) hidden threat ... mingle with forgotten ashes” means (2) dead persons (2) fires on the battlefield (3) threats to life (4) hidden dangers Here, ‘subtle’ means GQ). stupid (2) hidden (8) suggestive (4) sullen “And your triumphs reach as far As night or day,” = The poetic device found in these words is @ (1) pathetic fallacy (2) metaphor (3) simile (4) formulaM Directions : (30) Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option. 106. 107. 108. 109. ‘The teaching of reading by associating! characters or groups of characters with sounds is the method. (1) morphemic (2) direct (2) phonic (4) whole-language ‘Teachers can remediate for the student with Janguage learning difficulty by (1) focusing on individual progress with individualized instruction (2) providing notes that are summarized and simplified initially, giving information as reading only, no writing conduct extra classes for the student to ‘catch up’ with others a) “ ‘Teachers can demystify abstract grammatical terminology so that students can write through the o 2) explicit teaching of certain structures separating of spoken and written forms of language linking of spoken language with writing frequent feedback on only grammatical errors 3 @ Language is taught by beginning with simple sentences instead of the initial sounds and blends. This implies that (1) communication is based on complete sentences (2) pronunciation has no place in language acquisition (3) grammar and pronunciation have equal place in language teaching (4) grammar is an important basis of communication 110, im. 112. Which activity best supports the practice of speaking kills ? (1) Students independently research a topic and present a formal report (2) Teacher's giving purposeful dictation by integrating it with a spoken activity (3) Individually, students read a case-study and draft a response (4) Students tell their version of a story based on some hints, and apply it to a problem-solving situation Develop a resource box for Class I. Teacher gives 3 instructions to each student regarding which items are to be put in it. leg. : puppets, pieces of coloured fabric, brushes, stencils, colour pencils, small toys, ete]. Student follows instructions. The activity is (1) listening with concentration for specific information needed for a task (2) stage in a listening session when a listener completes a task (3) listening to natural conversation between teacher and student (@) listening to a which semi-scripted speech is Vorabulary in the target language should be kept under control, ie., graded. This can be done by (1) teachers providing a short list of words that are commonly used (2) students learning and practising in the context of real situations (8) students write/speak using a graded list of new words students read a prescribed book and take a vocabulary quiz @118. 114, 115. 116. (31) To achieve communicative competence, learners need to be competent in four aspects : linguistic, sociolinguistic, discourse, and strategic competences. Here, linguistic| competence’ concerns students’ (1) use of syntax, lexis and structures (2) expression of meaning of what they communicate (3) use of formats and stylistic devicos (4) content organization and use of | vocabulary Examples of “Creative Reading” projects for assessment are (1) reference work done in the library for more information on the theme (2) surfing the internet for related information (3) dramatization, role-play and re-writing| from a different point of view (4) reading for meaning ‘The teacher's cues for activities are given in the first language, in a second language class. This exploits the communicative potential of a given structure, (2) sandwich approach (2) communicative approach (8) bilingual technique (4) structural technique ‘The second language classroom is a confluence of varied languages. Teachers should give their students @ (@) adequate self-explanatory notes summaries and simplified versions of texts (8) worksheets with a variety of tasks while covering the syllabus (4) comfortable environments to develop, requisite skills M supply ‘comprehensible input’ in low anxiety situations” is the basis of language acquisition. An example would be 117. (Q) teacher-directed learning inthe classroom (2) collaboration of students in learning situations (8) home-work designed to use parents’ support students receive feedback for correction regularly w error 118. How can teachers respond to or ‘correct’ students’ writing in ways that are effective ? (1) Correcting every error in the essay (2) Writing detailed comments in the margin (3) Offering encouraging and remarks summary (4) Locating patterns of error and suggesting improvement 119, Some parents of students with learning difficulties may have unrealistic expectations from their children. The teacher can support such students by (1) persuading them to liaise with other such students explaining to the parents about the child’s characteristics and abilities @ (8) providing instructions for dealing with the students at home making a clear reference to the learning objectives @ 120. Educators use YouTube to teach visual learners with videos, podcasts for auditory learners and interactive games for tactile learners in a language class. Here, multi-media caters to individual (1) linguistic differences (2) learning styles (3) authentic second language (4) learning disabilities(32) Candidates should answer questions from the following Part only if they have opted for HINDI as LANGUAGE - I. aden Preafeftsa apr & seat h sat aaa aft ¢ af aA a — la faces xt sat a(33) ar Iv art] fet Pde: wan 3) ogee ficafefiza me (7.31. 91 Bh 99) 3 rare aPera Fraser fie | Fea Fi, a fers wea ae one fares Rae? fae, wa 4 fran ¥, Re Aa eo eA aa aM @, ya aT eT a | A vet ad aa ae GI ara Ba ore wef eh 8 Tew at an cast fora ar ahd aac agi at | ge eer ara ae on fae 8 afte... ore ara raw ae agar... oe ais argh... gf A at tar A ge weld Hem ZI ifs a gs BS are eat H ToS a San A eat sraea € 1 fava GA, AO ara we | a ae | oy ore aha er Ua ster aaa ett Fe HET aE eit aH weet a ake | aia a, wen a, a aa A a a ae ae Tee ate, Bey wt te ater A Bar 8 afk | 91. 9a Tear fra é ah fers fae att F 2 Q) Wests (2) firea art areth & (3) ea @) Aisa & 92. TMK & agen feet ae & ge Foe tae What 8 | geet omer ae 8 A Q) Bae eae at wate raat 2 2) Fas wea H Ren wee 3) Fas at oat ate area 93. 97. (a) Saa A dent, mengya oz 3 ate GH tas & fae gad erage ara ae 8? a) ater @) Afar (3) Fe @) aa fra oft wer a Ter FAB? C) ae aR ae 8 eS a (2) vit aw ae ara TE (3) afer gre weer STE, @) Bee re wr aT FCAT 5, era a aa wh fae with we wed H 2 () ae aa ses oH Vea TH 8 ar aT (2) ae cara R sien F aet a 8 a Aa 3) aeaa att gra aud ae 8 ET 4) Rite he ae apa feat & vad an aa ara B 2 (1) Pets fore sear & Rr Hee @) Ra wee 4) wit en? Ser H a 2 a) feet (2) fear @) Te (on(34) HE a ter attr a Ba A wafee Var A fra we & te, al aa am ae Pree : tear a age Aeakatirs seat (9.8. 100 4 105) 9 arart sferer frase fg | va ae oT =r ead 1 8 it ret aaaR, AR él aad dg sa A aft wet at ate Smet sitar, afte rH wea aM See a et ana sie, Sire ara, BARE sepia feat & are El eh TST wh & fee ward 2 oe ae Sarit & shee Teet wate Serer, Sere wat ate oR 102. 103. 104. 105. urd weer & on} ae FT eM? (yaaa wel (2) Sra Tea at (3) vat wet at @) safe wit SA SS aT SRT HT Me @ Far ge wah at aT 2) Far ga ae RA oT @) Far ae ae a aT (4) FR a A eC ae oT weit Raa oft argent al act 2 a Fee sf (2) waft & fe @) Fant sf (4) sede att & vf pfarer & aia H aan ata fara mae? (WER A sar & sft adanh A (2 Fart a oe gars wer at ge (3) Fa & star sine Hh Re Fy 3H oe E (4) Sarat 3 Serer gre Bw aK Rate ‘oa wel TA Sie? er Ta 2 () 9ra Sire aT oT ere AT 2 wade wa ag at (@) ae stra eae BF aT (Q) Sa srett GRE ae eA ‘Set ar vateartt EF @ a) Sara Q a @ wr 4) Fea106. 107. 108. 109. (35) fader : te fee me meat % feng wad wei Frey] gfe! mati eae ae rer Preah fh ate afer & (wal & ere afar aT 2) wait at wert gat 3) wal veager & aroha difedt arias fart @) wait at nn ar alr art & fafa oat a wa wna a GQ) waits gaz 2) fenfie at & (3) agit fae (4) MITA BAT eae wrens ee 9 Prem eer ATE ‘fara ait arte, Sits arr sree a4 ar anfee wea H pT at sree ono dal-fren % waa i feiefaa 7 a aha Her wel 8? wa qa on a gd a et hh a ae BAe! wa eae ore Ht rm diaa FL wa ot van 8 & arn stad F 1 we wpa Foams an a at san at w @ (3) @ #1 110, i. 112, M wats ea 36 oraeegeat a Frain a8 ama cm Ft Fr tr» (afte aaa of cra enftie a feed re & Aferergeh wa afte saterere ore ante wohl aftie-a-sfte afic a @ 3) (4) urs % fa F sreara aft nfafattat 2 a ster z Q) Fail @ siftroats saat Gar (2) ait A ona vat 2g nfefefirat sar @) Fat Sag ae tg amet secre BF wera A (4) Teeert sft ent ger wats ee a we afters 8 walle aratiag & GQ) meergere 4 dh ag met werinfaensit wt eta SOT weit a are are ar si oT Rear aan oh aan & ae wat St sew & fan sieafea ee wal A fin ster at @) “wM 11s, see 8 ogee ahaa ae wR 7 14, 115. 116. (36) @) sat Fonm diet A sara ae ait a (2) weit Hoare seat A sera aT ET wa (3) Fat Fare Atal A amar aga ciftre ah (4) weil a1 care frat Fed & ars Wormer A wBRAT @) Wa & aia § eq saat & ore 8 et 2 2) aalfaar & dea Herd ® (@) Fae seit ar roar wrt & fare eel 2 a eee a afta =e At sf A fewer ge watt 8 2 SINTRA aT (2) ST weit (3) Tage HT (4) an eT yea Stat A wir a feat after aalfirs| wrerayet 2 2 Q) Sretribrren Ft (2) arenes & Broke seat @) Weagerm Ft raat At 118. 120, 117. ws Bare eT Tareas a fire fir aT ad after cam cea afee ? wh wal Boa oT 8 yeas GT ah well 8 aaa ofafals F anf oF a fara renee son @) haat a wm tert eT G@) fase se A qea-aea anh er sean oT @ @ um afta ea F ariceh 3 fea m we safer: oat feat @ 2 CD arst A creagera (2) Baa FSF are a-seitt we (3) afta A steht art arch se @) ward aefl oF are sre Te reat Tee TeT Fare; ah TAG TE A @) Tae AT aR wor aed AS are 2) Fa areata F ata aed ois oe, (3) we fafa feeftel & sre at vere sat GH @) FS ore} mae a HT wall 6 ret an sirect & & fore aad shire atte war 8 2 Q) sat & fafa ater aT 2) Fat S eras a race BHT (3) wat @ fora sgar @ wat a cart eer(37) Candidates should answer questions from the following Part only if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE - II. udenet frafeafed am & wat & at pat wt ¢ afe se are — a fraser aight gat |(38) PART V LANGUAGE I ENGLISH Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 129) by selecting the most appropriate option. World Animal Day had been observed on 4" October since 1931, as a way of highlighting the plight of endangered species. Since then, it has become a day for remembering and paying tribute to| all animals and the people who love and respect them. It's celebrated in different ways in every) country, with no regard to nationality, religion, faith or political ideology. Since the official World Animal Day website was launched by Naturewatch Foundation, the number of events taking place throughout the world has increased and the trend continues. And, that is the aim of the World Animal Day initiative: to encourage everybody to use this special day to highlight their importance in the world; celebrate, animal life in all its forms; celebrate humankind’s, relationship with the animal kingdom; acknowledge! the diverse roles that animals play in our lives — from being our companions, supporting and helping us, to bringing a sense of wonder into our lives; and acknowledge and be thankful for the way, in which animals enrich our lives. Increased awareness will lead the way to improved standards of animal welfare throughout the world. Building the initiative is a way to unite the animal welfare movement with something that everyone can join in, whether they are part of an organization, group, or as an individual. Through education, we can help] create a new culture of respect and sensitivity, to| make this world a fairer place for all living| creatures. On the website people will find everything they need to make World Animal Day a reality in their area. If we care about animals, we shouldn't miss this special day to help make animal welfare issues front page news around the globe — a vital catalyst for change. 121, In reading this passage, we learn that the World Animal Day is an/a celebration (2) monthly, on the 4™ @ 3 (4) year long, annual commemoration held in 1931 122, The writer points out that animals are important because they 2) can replace people by being more resourceful (2) will outlive human beings in the years to ‘come (8) can be put to work in many ways (4) make us appreciate the diversity of life 123. The launch of the website is to (Q) promote social networking by animal lovers (2) provide guidelines to celebrate Animal Day (8) give information about endangered animal species (4) serve as a source of reference about animals 124. ‘The writer implies that animals are (1) treated cruelly by human beings @) @ @ usually given due protection ignored altogether often subject to mistreatment(39) 125. Identify the correct statement. (1) Animals often pose a danger to people. (2) People tend to forget to celebrate Animal Day. (8) Animal Day reminds us to care for other species. (4) The new website was started by the writer. 126. The expression : ‘a sense of wonder’ means (1) acritical reaction (2) asympathetic attitude (8) an emotional response (4) a deep understanding A closest synonym for the word ‘sensitivity’ as used here is (1) passivity (2) affection (3) awareness (4) tolerance 128. ‘The antonym of the word ‘initiative’ is @ (2) @) @) enterprise idleness indifference advance 129. A word in the essay that means ‘impetus’ is (2) trend (2) catalyst (3) reality () welfare M Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (@. No. 130 to 185) by selecting the most appropriate option. Meditating can have an almost instant effect on reducing stress, researchers have found. They say three consecutive days of 25-minute sessions can hhave a dramatic effect.“ Researchers studied ‘mind meditation’ — the guiding principle is to live more ‘the moment, spending less time going over past stresses and worrying about future problems. ‘Techniques include moving the focus of attention around the body and observing sensations that arise — the so-called ‘body scan’. A secular practice, it is said to help people recognise and overcome negative thoughts. For the study, the research team had 66healthy individuals aged 18-30 years old participate in a three-day experiment. Some Participants went through a brief mindfulness meditation training program; for 25 minutes for three consecutive days, the individuals were given breathing exercises to help them monitor their breath and pay attention to their present moment experiences. A second group of participants completed a matched three-day cognitive training program in which they were asked to critically analyze poetry in an effort to enhance problem-solving skills. Following the final training activity, all participants were asked to complete stressful speech and mathematical tasks in front of stern-faced evaluators. Each individual reported their stress levels in response to stressful speech and mathematical performance stress tasks, and provided saliva samples for measurement of cortisol, commonly referred to as the stress hormone. The participants who received the brief mindfulness meditation training reported reduced stress, perceptions to the speech and mathematical tasks, indicating that the mindfulness meditation fostered psychological stress resilience. 180. The text isa @) factual (2) descriptive (8) biographical (reflective The writer's attitude to meditation is (2) indifferent @) different (3) suspicious sometimes (4) supportive piece of writing. 131.