BREAK UP OF QUESTIONS

SUBJECT Indian History

No. of Questions
UNIT Topic
Given
Salient features of Indus Valley Civilization and Vedic age 4
Emergence of Buddhism and Jainism 1
1. Mauryan Empire: Their administration, Socio-Economic and Religious Conditions, Art
2
Ancient and Architecture, Literature
History Gupta Empire: Their administration, Socio-Economic and Religious Conditions, Art and
2
Architecture, Literature
Harshavardhana and his Achievements 1
Sub Total 10
The Chola Administrative System 0
Delhi Sultanate: Their Administration, Socio-Economic and Religious Conditions,
3
Art and Architecture, Language and Literature
2.
The Mughal Empire: Their Administration, Socio-Economic and Religious Conditions,
Medival 2
Art and Architecture, Language and Literature
History
Bhakti and Sufi Movements 5
Shivaji and the rise of Maratha Empire 0
Advent of Europeans
Sub Total 10
1857 Revolt and its Impact 1
Rise and Consolidation of British Power in India - Changes in Administration, Social and
4
3. Cultural Spheres
Modern Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th and 20th Century 1
History Indian National Movement: it's various stages and important contributors and
4
contributions from different parts of the country
Post Independence Consolidation and Reorganization within the country
Sub Total 10
TOTAL 30

AMIGOS IAS 1
 SUBJECT Geography
Interior of the Earth - Major Landforms and their features 3
Soils and Vegetation 1
Drainage System India 1
1.
Climate: Structure and Composition of Atmosphere 2
Major Physiographic Features of India 1
Major Physiographic Features of AP 2
Sub Total 10
Natural resources and their distribution 2
Agriculture and Agro-based Activities 3
Distribution of Major Industries 2
2.
Major Industrial Regions 1
Major Industrial Regions of AP 1
Natural resources and their distribution of AP 1
Sub Total 10
Demographics 3
Urbanization and Migration 2
3. Human Development 3
Racial groups 1
Tribal groups 1
Sub Total 10
TOTAL 30

AMIGOS IAS 2
 SUBJECT Indian Society
Family 1
Marriage 3
Kinship 1
Sturcutre of
Caste 1
Indian
Tribe 1
Society
Ethnicity 1
Religion 1
Women 2
Sub Total 11
Casteism 1
Communalism 1
Regionalisation 1
Social Issues
Crime against Women 0
Child Abuse and Child Labour 4
Youth Unrest and Agitation 1
Sub Total 8

Public Policies and Welfare Programmes, Constitutional and Statutory

5
Welfare Provisions for Schedule Castes, ScheduleTribes, Minorities, BCs
Mechanism Public Policies and Welfare Programmes, Constitutional and Statutory
6
Provisions for Women, Disabled and Children.
Sub Total 11
TOTAL 30

AMIGOS IAS 3
 SUBJECT Current Affairs
Polity and Governance 1

Economy 0

Geography, Environment, places in news 3

History and culture 1

Regional
Programmes and Schemes 2

Personalities in news 1

Awards and Reports 2

Sports 0
Sub Total 10
Polity and Governance 2

Economy 1

Geography, Environment, places in news 2

History and culture 0

Programmes and Schemes 1

National
Personalities in news 0

Sports 1

Science and Tech 2

Awards and Reports 1

Miscellaneous 0
Sub Toal 10
India and Neighborhood 1
India and Extended Neighborhood 0
India and Major Powers-USA, Russia, China, Etc. 1
India and Groupings 1
Rigional Groupings 1
Inter-national International Organisations 1
Miscellaneous Topics 2
Indices and Reports 1
Places in News 2
Exercises and Operations 0
Sub-Total 10
TOTAL 30

AMIGOS IAS 4
 SUBJECT Mental Ability
Data Interpretation (Bar Graph) 4
Series 3
Calendar 1
Blood Relation 1
Profit and Loss 1
Number System 3
Percentage 2
Ratio and Proportion 1
Averages 1
Time & Work 2
Time & Speed 2
Data Interpretation (Pie chart) 5
Statement & Course of action 2
Statement & Assumption 2
Total 30
GRAND TOTAL 150

AMIGOS IAS 5
 APPSC – GROUP-II, Prelims Test (14-02-2024)
1. Match List-I(Administrative tiers of Mauryan are seen as the greatest artistic creations
State) with List II(Heads) and select the of the Harappan culture.
correct answer using the codes given below 1. A seal is a stamp inscribed with the
the lists: symbol/name of its owner, while its
List I List II impression on any material is called a
1. Province A. Gopa sealing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
2. District B. Gramika 2. Both seals and sealings were essentially
3. Village C. Aryaputra marks of ownership of the sender meant to
4. A group of Villages D. Sthanika guarantee the quality of a product being
sent to faraway lands.
Codes:
a. Goods were sent from one place to
1) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
another, possibly in a bag, its mouth tied
2) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
with a rope. Its knot was sealed using a
3) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D sealing of wet clay and one or more seals
4) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C were pressed onto it. An intact sealing
Answer: 1 meant that the bag had not been tampered
Explanation: with.
Administrative Structure of the Mauryan 3. More than 2000 seals have been
Empire: discovered; they are mostly made of soft
1. Centre-headed by swami/raja river stone, steatite and are generally
2. Province-headed by rashtriya/ square in shape (2 by 2 dimension), though
kumara/aryaputra some round seals have also been found.
3. District headed by sthanika 4. Some were also made of copper, gold,
4. Sthaniya (800 villages) ivory, and terracotta. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect. If you eliminate this option,
5. Dronamukha (400 villages)
you’ll get the answer.
6. Karvatika (200 villages)
5. They were mainly used for commercial
7. Samgrahana (10 villages)-headed by gopa
purposes; but sometimes also possibly
8. Village headed by gramik used as tokens for buying and selling, or as
2. Consider the following statements about identification markers or even as amulets.
Harappan Seals: 6. The designs on the seals include a variety
1) It is a stamp inscribed with the name of its of relief figures/intaglio motifs (human,
owner animal, composite and geometric figures)
2) They are made of only steatite along with inscription in a semi-
3) The rhinoceros is the most frequently pictographic script which probably
depicted animal on the Harappan seals contained the name of the owner.
Which of the statements given above are a. The script has not yet been deciphered.
correct ? 7. The animal motifs used include the bull
1) 1 and 2 2) 1 and 3 (Zebu), rhinoceros, tiger, elephant, Indian
3) 2 and 3 4) 1,2 and 3 bison, snake, antelope, and gharial, which
Answer: 2 may also have cultic significance. The
Explanation: rhinoceros is the most frequently depicted
animal on the Harappan seals.Hence,
Seals and Sealings:
statement 3 is correct.
 Seals are possibly the most distinctive
artefact of the Harappan civilization, and

AMIGOS IAS 1
 NOTE: The source of above question is from Answer: 1
page no. 63, class 11th NCERT. The most Explanation:
frequently depicted animal in seals is unicorn Numismatics
and not humped bull. Here (Page No. 63) 1. The study of coins is called numismatics.
NCERT is mentioning unicorn as rhinoceros.
2. Largest number of punch-marked coins
Hence statement 3 is correct.
found under the Mauryas
3. Largest number of coins in general found in
3. Which of the following is the largest among the Post-Mauryan period)
all the excavated Harappan sites ?
4. Largest number of clay coins found under
1) Mohenjodaro 2) Harappa the Kushanas
3) Dholavira 4) Rakhigarhi 5. Largest number of potin and lead coins
Answer: 4 found under the Satavahanas
Explanation: 6. Largest number of gold coins found under
 The harappan sites varied immensely in the Guptas
size and function- some were large cities 5. Which of the following Inscriptions talks
while others were mere pastoral camps : about the enlargement of the stupa of
1. Largest Sites: Buddha Kanakamuni to double its size ?
a. Rakhigarhi (350 ha, after recent 1) Rummindei Pillar Inscription
excavations), 2) Sarnath Pillar Inscription
b. Mohenjodaro (200 ha) 3) Sanchi Pillar Inscription
c. Harappa (150 ha) 4) Nigalisagar Pillar Inscription
d. Dholavira (100 ha) and Answer: 4
e. Lurewala and Ganweriwala in Cholistan (a Explanation:
desert area in Pakistan that forms part of  Rummindei/Lumbini/Paderia Pillar
the Greater Thar Desert). Inscription (in Nepal)
2. About 50 ha 1. It is commemorative in character and
a. Nagoor states that king Devanampiya Piyadasi,
b. Tharo Waro Daro in Sindh. when he had been consecrated 20 years,
3. 10-50 ha came in person and worshipped here.
a. Judeirjodaro 2. Because here Sakyamuni Buddha was born.
b. Kalibangan. 3. The king caused a huge stone wall to be
4. 5-10 ha made, a stone pillar to be erected, Lumbini
a. Amri village was freed from religious cesses and
b. Lothal made to contribute one-eighth share (only,
as land revenue).
c. Chanhudaro
Nigliva/Nigalisagar Pillar Inscription (in Nepal)
d. Rojdi
1. It states that when the king Devanampiya
5. 1-5 ha
Piyadasi had been consecrated 14 years, he
a. Allahdino
enlarged the stupa of Buddha Konakamana
b. Kot Diji (Kanakamuni, a mythical Buddha) to
c. Rupar double its size.
d. Balakot 2. And when he had been consecrated 20
e. Surkotada. years, he came in person, worshipped
4. The Largest number of punch-marked coins here, and had a stone pillar erected.
were found under the 6. Consider the following:
1) Mauryas 2) Kushans
3) Satavahanas 4) Guptas

AMIGOS IAS 2
 “The father gifts his daughter after saying to Codes:
the couple, 'May both of you perform your 1) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
religious duties together’.” 2) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
Which type of marriage is described above ? 3) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
1) Prajapatya 2) Rakshasa 4) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
3) Brahma 4) Paishacha Answer: 3
Answer: 1 Explanation:
Explanation: Important Mandals of Rig veda:
Types of Marriages 1. Mandal 3 : Gayatri Mantra
● Brahma 2. Mandal 6 : Mention of term Hariyupiya
○ One in which the father adorns his 3. Mandal 7 : Battle of 10 kings
daughter with costly clothes and 4. Mandal 9 : Dedicated to Lord Soma
ornaments, and gifts hers a man learned in
5. Mandal 10:
the Veda.
a. Nadistuti Sukta(Hymn dedicated to rivers)
● Daiva
b. Nasadiya Sukta( dealing with speculations
○ The father gives his daughter in marriage to
related to the creation of universe)
an officiating priest, during the course of a
c. Purusha Sukta(dealing with division into 4
sacrifice
varnas)
● Arsha
8. With respect to Harshavardhana, Consider
○ The father gifts his daughter, after taking a
the following statements :
pair of cattle as a custom and not as sale of
1. He followed the policy of religious
daughter
tolerance
● Prajapatya
2. He held Prayag assembly in honour of
○ The father gifts his daughter after saying to
Hiuen-Tsang
the couple, 'May both of you perform your
3. He held Kannauj assembly to freely donate
religious duties together’.
his accumulated wealth to the people.
● Asura
Which of the statements given above are
○ The father gives the daughter to the groom
correct ?
in exchange for wealth.
1) 1 only 2) 2 and 3
● Gandharva
3) 1 and 3 4) All of the above
○ It is love marriage through mutual consent.
Answer: 1
● Rakshasa
Explanation:
○ One in which the girl is forcibly abducted,
Kannauj and Prayag Religious Assemblies (643
after beating or killing her relatives.
CE)
● Paishacha
 Harshavardhana was a Shaivite, but was
○ When a man has sex with a girl while she is
tolerant towards other religions and
asleep, unconscious, or mentally
extended his support as well. In the later
disordered.
part of his life, Harshavardhana became a
7. Match List-I (Rigvedic Mandal) with List II devotee and patron of Mahayana
(Subject matter) and select the correct Buddhism. Hence,statement 1 is correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
 In the year 643 CE, Harshavardhana
List I List II
summoned two religious assemblies.
1. Mandala 3 A. Purusha Sukta
1. One was a great Buddhist assembly at
2. Mandala 10 B. Battle of 10 Kings Kannauj.
3. Mandala 7 C. Gayatri Mantra
4. Mandala 9 D. Lord soma

AMIGOS IAS 3
 a. The Kannauj assembly was held in honour
of Hiuen-Tsang, for whom he had great
affection and regard.
b. In this Buddhist assembly, Harshavardhana
donated liberally to Buddhist monasteries.
c. Hence,statement 2 is incorrect
2. Kannauj assembly was followed by Prayag
assembly, in which Harshavardhana
conducted the charitable ceremony.
a. The Prayag assembly was called Moksha
Parishad, which was to be held at the end
of every five years.
b. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect
3. According to Banabhatta and Hiuen-Tsang,
Harshavardhana had the reputation for his
charitable works.
4. At the end of every five years,
Harshavardhana in the Prayag assembly
would freely donate his accumulated
wealth to the people.
5. Hiuen-Tsang has given the account of the
Prayag assembly of 643 CE.
a. He wrote that Siladitya (Harsha) performed
the ceremony of 'dana' (donation), which
lasted for about three months.
b. He donated his clothing, his jewellery, etc.
c. His generosity was indeed unbounded and
unparalleled.
9. The Ecological Imbalances theory to explain
the decline of Indus Valley civilisation was
proposed by
1) Lambrick 2) Agarwal and Sood
3) Mortimer Wheeler 4) Fairservis
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Theories of Decline:-
Flood and Earthquake: (RAIKES)
Flood
● Silt deposits above ground level
● Houses built on silt covered debris
Earthquake
● Indus area is an earthquake-prone zone
● The earthquake raised the level of the sea,
causing floods in cities flood plains,
blocking passage. of rivers water
● earthquake caused shifting of land away
from sea-coast affecting commercialities
AMIGOS IAS
Criticism
● decline of settlements outside Indus not
explained by this theory
● a river cannot be dammed by tectonic
effects
Shifting of Indus (destroyed Mahenjodaro):
(LAMBRICK)
Evidence
● silt is there which is sandy
● sand silt is not due to floods
Criticism
● This only explains desertion of
Mohenjodaro but not its decline
Increasing Aridity: (AGRAWAL & SOOD)
Evidence
● 2nd millenium BC a period of increased arid
conditions.
● decline of agriculture
● drying up of Ghaggar
Criticism
● Why Ghagghar dried up, not worked out
yet.
Aryan Invasion: (Wheeler)
Evidence
● Human skeletons lying on the streets
● Rigveda refers to fortress which god
Purandara, destroyed
● The geographical area of Rigveda Aryans
include Punjab-Ghaggar region
● Vedas mention a place called Hariyupiya on
Ravi river where Aryans fought a battle. It
has been identified with Harappa
Criticism
● Difference between 1800-1500 BC (300
years)
Ecological Imbalance: (Fairservis)
● population increase, city grew and land
veduced, forest decreased
● soil exhaustion of area
● with forests disappearing there were more
floods and droughts
● townsmen moved to Gujarat region and
Eastern area
● this decline completed by raids and attack
by nearby settlements
4
10. Nitisara, a book on statecraft addressed to
the king was written by
1) Kalidasa 2) Vishnu Sharma
3) Amoghavarsha 4) Kamandaka
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Nitisara by Kamandaka
 Nitisara by Kamandaka (4th century CE) is
a work on statecraft addressed to the king.
Panchatantra by Vishnusharman-
1. Though attributed to sage Vishnusharman,
the date and authorship of this work is
considered uncertain.
2. It is an example of nidarshana-meaning a
work that explains what should or should
not be done through illustration.
3. The work was possibly composed in the
Vakataka empire when the sage needed to
instruct three princes in the subject of niti
(policy) through engaging stories.
4. Panchatantra stories are written in prose,
interspersed with verses.
5. In most stories, animals play an important
role.
11. Match List-I(Philosopher) with List
II(Doctrine) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
1. Shankaracharya A. Vishishtadvaita
Doctrine
2. Ramanujacharya B. Dvaita Doctrine
3. Madhavacharya C. Dvaita-Advaita
Doctrine
4. Nimbarkacharya D. Advaita Doctrine
Codes:
1) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D 2) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
3) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C 4) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
Answer: 3
Explanation :
Shankaracharya and Advaita Doctrine
● In the ninth century, Hindu revivalist saint
Sankaracharya from Kaladi in Kerala gave a
philosophical impetus to the emerging
Bhakti cult. He reinterpreted ancient Hindu
scriptures and established the Hindu
centres of learning all across the country
AMIGOS IAS
including four Maths on the line of
Buddhist monasteries. These efforts of
Shankaracharya systematised the Hindu
religion which was on the verge of
degeneration with the onslaught of Islam
and growth of Buddhism.
● He redefined the Vedantic philosophy by
stressing its doctrine of Monism or Advaita.
○ Through Advaita doctrine, he proved that
the supreme reality is Brahma and the rest
is Maya or Illusion.
○ There is no dualism i.e..,the world and the
individual soul is one and that is Brahma.
○ According to him, Brahma is formless and
without any quality.
○ One can realise this formless Brahma
through meditation and the right
knowledge as given in Upanishads.
○ According to him the way to salvation is to
realise this formless Brahama.
● Through his debate on monism or Advaita
doctrine, Shankaracharya established the
supremacy of Vedanta philosophy against
the Sankhya philosophy of Mahayana
Buddhism. The Vedantic Philosophy of
Shankaracharya was revived by
Vivekananda in the second half of the
nineteenth century.
Ramanujacharya and Vishishtadvaita Doctrine
● The twelfth-century Hindu philosopher
Ramanujacharya from Tamil Nadu reacted
against the Shankara's Advaita doctrine
and its concept of Nirgunabrahma or God
without attributes.
● Ramanujacharya preached the doctrine of
Vishishtadvaita or qualified monism.
● According to this doctrine, there is an
individual soul or Atma which is one with
the Ultimate reality or Brahma.
○ The Brahma is Saguna Brahma having form
and attributes.
○ The physical world, soul, and God are real
and not illusory as claimed by
Shankaracharya.
● Ramanujacharya emphasised that the
grace of God obtained through Bhakti was
more important than the knowledge about
God to attain salvation.
5
 ○ He enrolled himself into the Vaishnava
order and followed Nayanaras Bhakti
Marga.
○ For him, worship of Vishnu was a way to
attain salvation.
● Ramanujacharya's doctrine of
Vishishtadvaita popularised the
Vaishnavite Bhakti tradition in eastern
India.
Madhavacharya and Dvaita Doctrine
● In the thirteenth century, Madhavacharya
from Karnataka propagated the Doctrine of
dualism which was in contrast with the
Advaita Vedanta of shankaracharya and
Vishishadvaita of Ramanuja.
● According to Adita Vedanta, the World is
not an illusion and there is a difference
between Atman or self soul and Brahma or
ultimate reality.
Nimbarkacharya and Dvaita-Advaita Doctrine
● He was the contemporary of
Ramanujacharya and Madahvacharya.
● Nimbarka was a Vaishnav philosopher and
commentator.
● He is known for propagating the Vaishnava
doctrine of Bhedabheda Dvaitadvaita i.e.
doctrine of duality and non-duality.
● Nimbarakacharya's doctrine of
Dvaitadvaita talks of duality and
nonduality.
○ He defines three categories of existence,
God,soul, and matter.
○ God (Isvara) is an absolute reality and
exists independently.
○ Though both soul and matter exist
independently, they are dependent upon
God.
○ For him, Krisha is an absolute reality, and
Radha-his consort and nature.
○ He, therefore, propagated Krishna-Radha
Bhakti.
● Nibarakacharya's order is known as the
Nimbarka Sampradaya which still exists.
12. With respect to Basaveshwara, consider the
following statements:
1. He served as a Prime Minister under King
Bijjala II of Kalachuri dynasty
AMIGOS IAS
2. His lingayat philosophy is close to the
Vishishtadvaita doctrine of Ramanuja
3. He referred to Mahadevi as ‘Akka'
4. Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled his
statue in London on the bank of the River
Thames
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
1) 1,2 and 3
2) 2,3 and 4
3) 1,3 and 4
4) All of the above
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Basaveshwara or Basavanna and Lingayat
Cult
 Basaveshwara or Basavanna was a 12-
century Kannada Shaivite saint-poet and a
leading social reformer of this time. He
lived during the rule of Kalyani Chalukyas
and Kalachuri rulers. He rose to
prominence under King Bijjala II of
Kalachuri under whom he served as a
Prime Minister.According to tradition,
Basavanna was the founder of the
Lingayat cult-one of the Shiva sect.
However, it is evident from research that
Basavanna was inspired by the already
existing Shiva cult known as Veerashivas,
known for ardent and heroic Shiva
worshippers. He revived and organised
the tradition of Veerashaivas into the
Lingayat cult. Basava's Lingayat
philosophy is close to the Vishishtadvaita
doctrine of Ramanuja. In Lingayat, the
individual soul or Atma is the body of God,
and that there is no difference between
Shiva and Atman.The Lingayats cult
attracted large people from lower castes,
men and women. The cult rejected temple
worship and ritualistic worship led by
Brahmins. It introduced direct and
personalised worship of Lord Shiva. It
opposed any image worship of Shiva
except other than Linga worship.
Basavanna was a radical social reformer of
Karnataka. He challenged the dominance
of Brahmanical religion and opposed any
6
 discrimination based on caste and gender.
He opposed many Brahmin practices such
as temple worship, wearing sacred
threads, etc. Instead of scared-thread, he
introduced the ritual of wearing Ishtalinga
necklace, with an image of the Shiva Linga
which was worn by every Lingayat
regardless of his or her birth. Under his
leadership, a people's movement known
as the Sharana movement emerged. The
movement opposed social injustice and
social oppression carried by the caste
system and gender inequality. To
challenge caste order, Sharanas organised
inter-caste weddings.
 Basavanna set up a spiritual academy
called Anubhava Mantapa, in which
people from all castes and communities
were welcomed to engage in spiritual and
social discourses.
 The Lingayat literature is compiled in
Shunya Sampadane, an anthology of
Kannada poems which includes the
Vachanas and dialogues of several
Lingayat saints.The government of
Karnataka has honoured this great
reformer by issuing a stamp on his name.
Recently, the government of India under
Prime Minister Nar- endra Modi unveiled
his statue in London on the bank of the
River Thames.
 Mahadevi Akka or Akka Mahadevi
 One of the prominent female saint poets
associated with the Lingayat cult was
Mahadevi Akka or Akka Mahadevi (c.
1130-1160). A fervent devotee of Shiva,
she became ascetic in her early life and
joined the Sharanas.Akka Mahadevi
considered Shiva as her husband and
expressed her spiritual relationship with
her Lord in Vachana poems. Bassavanna
and other Sharna members referred to
her ‘Akka' meaning elder sister. She was
among the earliest women reformers who
worked for women emancipation.
Together, Basavanna and Mahadevi Akka
carried the message of Virashaivism or
heroic Shaivism in Karnataka through their
Vachanas.
AMIGOS IAS
 Hence, all the statements are correct.
13. What are the reasons for relocation of the
capital of Delhi sultanate from Delhi to
Daulatabad ?
1. Central location
2. A base for the administration and
consolidation of South India
3. Mongol Menace
4. Promoting Muslim culture in the south
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
1) 1,2 and 3 2) 1,2 and 4
3) 1,3 and 4 4) All of the above
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 The reasons attributed by historians for
the relocation of the capital to Daultabad
are:
1. Daultabad was centrally located to the
empire and more strategically placed as
compared to Delhi.
2. Daulatabad served as a base for the
administration and consolidation of South
India.
3. Unlike Delhi, Daultabad was very much
safe from the foreign invasions, such as
Mongols.
4. Daultabad would serve as the centre for
promoting Muslim culture in the south and
had access to the wealth of the South.
Hence, all the statements are correct.
14. Consider the following statements about the
introduction of Token Currency by
Muhammad Bin Tughluq :
1. Global Shortage of silver was the main
reason for the introduction of it.
2. He introduced copper and brass coins
equivalent to the value of silver coins.
3. As a result of it the gold and silver coins
disappeared from the market.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect ?
1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 3
3) 1,2 and 3 4) None
Answer: 4
Explanation:
7
  Introduction of Token Currency (1329-
1330 CE)
 Another bold experiment of Muhammad
which failed miserably was the introduc-
tion of token currency. In 1329-30 CE, the
Sultan introduced copper and brass coins
equivalent to the value of silver coins.
Muhammad issued the token currency
experiment after witnessing the success
of the paper money project of China.
Historians are of the opinion that there
was worldwide shortage of silver at that
time and India too faced its serious
shortage. Therefore, the Sultan was
forced to issue token currency. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
 In the new scheme, the value of the
copper coin or jital (paisa) was kept at par
with the silver coin or tanka (rupee). So
now there was silver tanka, and also
copper tanka. Hence,statement 2 is
correct.
 This scheme of token currency resulted in
a blunder. People began to forge coins in
large numbers. They minted token coins in
their houses. The counterfeit copper coins
replaced the gold and silver coins
completely. People used fake token
currency for payment of revenue and
taxes and hoarded gold and silver coins at
their homes. The result was that the gold
and silver coins disappeared from the
market. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
This adversely affected the trade and
commerce particularly the foreign trade
as foreign merchants suspended their
business transactions with
India.Historians have blamed the Sultan
for the failure of the scheme. According to
them, the Sultan failed to take necessary
measures to check the imitation of coins.
After realising the failure of his scheme,
the Sultan withdrew the entire token
currency. The people were asked to return
the token coins and, in exchange, were
paid back gold and silver coins by the royal
treasury. Historians felt that the Sultan's
scheme of token currency was a futuristic
idea. He was not able to foresee the
AMIGOS IAS
repercussions. This created
miscommunication amongst people who
instead of cooperating with the Sultan
manipulated the opportunity.
15. Who among the following Bhakti saints
expressed Krishna Bhakti through ecstatic
songs and dance ?
1) Kabir Das
2) Ramananda
3) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
4) Lal Ded
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486-1533 CE)
 Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a renowned
Vaishnava saint poet from Bengal. He was
born into a Brahmin family as Viswambhar
Mishra in 1486 CE in Kolkata. After he
studied the scriptures, he married and
started a normal life. However, after
meeting his guru Iswar Puri at Gaya, he
renounced material life and became
ascetic and was called upon as Chaitanya
Mahaprabhu.Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
expressed his Krishna Bhakti through
ecstatic songs and dance. His Kirtanas or
devotional songs highlight Raasleela or
the celestial dance play of Krishna and
Radha. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu through
Radha Krishna Bhakti propagated the
Krishna Consciousness movement and the
chanting of the 'Hare Krishna' mantra.
16. In the context of Mughal Administration, the
office of Muhatribs is related to
1) Revenue collector
2) Censors of public morals
3) Local Record keeper 4) Spies
Answer: 2
Explanation
 Aurangzeb took the following puritanical
measures to convince and gain popularity
among the Sunni Muslims who formed the
majority among the Muslims:
1. Appointments of Muhatribs or public
censors of public morals to ensure that the
people acted according to the teaching of
the Quran. Muhatribs were appointed in
8
 every important town and city to curb the
practices of drinking, gambling and
prostitution. They had the power to punish
those who were guilty of heresy or
blasphemy.
2. Regular payments to Imams and Muzzims.
3. Order for the repair of mosques and other
Muslim religious places.
4. Prohibition for inscribing Kalima or Muslim
prayer on the coins. This practice was
considered un-Islamic.
5. Banned alcohol and other intoxicating
drugs. In addition, the cultivation of bhang
in the empire was prohibited.
6. Strong measures were taken against Sufi
saints particularly those who were
supporters of Dara Shikoh.
7. Music, dancing and gambling were
forbidden. Prostitution was strictly
prohibited.
8. He abolished the practice of observing
Navroz, the Persian New Year day.
9. Jharokdia-i-Darslum or the practice of
addressing the public at the balcony of the
emperor's forts was banned.
10.He stopped the practice of weighing the
emperor in silver and gold.
11.He dismissed royal astronomers and
astrologers.
12.Measures were adopted to control
fashions of the day. Strict orders were
issued for women to observe purdah. Every
Muslim was required to say prayers five
times a day and keep Ramadan fast.
17. “Fatwa-i-Alamgiri” written by Aurangazeb
deals with
1) Codification of unislamic Practices
2) Strategy on conquering Deccan states
3) Rule book on succession
4) Statecraft
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Fatwa-i-Alamgiri
AMIGOS IAS
 Fatwa-i-Alamgiri was a compilation of
Muslim laws. It deals with statecraft,
ethics, military strategy, economic policy,
justice and punishment. The book was
written by Aurangzeb along with other
Muslim scholars. This Muslim digest
became a rule book on law and principle
during Aurangzeb's reign.
18. Which of the following are the observations
made by Alberuni on Indian society in his text
Kitab al Hind ?
1. Closed society
2. Stagnant knowledge
3. Social evils
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1) 1 and 2 2) 1 and 3
3) 2 and 3 4) 1,2 and 3
Answer: 4
Explanation:
1. Abu'l Rayan Alberuni was a philosopher
scientist, whose Kitab al Hind was the first
and most important discussion on Indian
sciences, religion and society by an
outsider.
2. He was not just a historian.
3. His knowledge and interest covered many
other areas such as astronomy, geography,
logic, medicine, mathematics, philosophy,
religion and theology.
4. He was originally from Khwarrazon and had
served the last of the independent
Khwarazm Shah as a scholar and a diplomat
till Mahmud of Ghazni conquered this
kingdom.
a. After this, he was attached to Mahmud's
court and accompanied him to India during
various raids.
5. Alberuni's Kitab al Hind or Tahqiq-i Hind is
the survey of Indian life based on his study
and observations in India between 1017
and 1030.
a. To get a proper grip of the situation, he
learned Sanskrit so that he might go to the
sources of Hindu thought and religion.
b. He learnt Sanskrit to acquire first hand
information.
9
 c. He read the religious texts and met the
educated Indians.
6. His approach was scientific and religious
prejudices do not mar the quality of his
observations.
a. He quoted from the Bhagavad Gita, Vishnu
Puran, Kapil's Sankhya and the work of
Patanjali.
7. Alberuni's observation of Indian society are
related to:
● Caste-ridden society
● Closed society
● Stagnant knowledge
● Social evils
● Religious beliefs
● Scientific knowledge.
Hence, all the statements are correct.
19. The colossal Gomateshwara statue at
Shravanabelagola was constructed with the
patronage of
1) The Hoysalas
2) The Western Gangas
3) The Chalukyas of Badami
4) The Rashtrakutas
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Jainism
 During the early mediaeval period from
the 8th-12th Century, Jainism faded in the
northern parts of India but continued to
flourish in the south. In the south mainly
in the Karnataka region, the Digambara
Jainism prospered and reached to its great
heights. It received enormous patronage
from three major Karnataka based
dynasties of the early medieval period:
1. The Gangas
2. The Rashtrakutas
3. The Hoysalas
 Prominent Jain monks acted as advisors to
rulers and helped in their successions. The
rulers patronised the Jain community by
conferring land grants on them for
construction of Jain temples, pillars and
monasteries. The Jains received the
highest patronage from the Western
Ganga rulers. It was under Ganga ruler
AMIGOS IAS
Shivamara I, numerous temples were
built. The Ganga general Chamundaraya
constructed the Colossal statue of
Bahubali also known as
Gommateshvara—the son of
Rishabhanatha, the first Tirthankara at
Shravanabelagola.
20. Consider the following regional states:
1. Warangal 2. Jajnagar
3. Tirhut 4. Bengal
Which sultan of Delhi annexed the above-
mentioned regional states?
1) Alauddin Khalji
2) Firuz Shah Tughluq
3) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
4) Muhammad Bin Tughluq
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Foreign Policy
 Ghiyasuddin pursued the policy of
annexation. He annexed the territories of
those rulers of the south which were
tributary states under Alauddin.
1. Annexed Warangal:
a. Prataprudra Deva, the ruler of Warangal
had stopped the annual tribute.
b. Ghiyasuddin sent prince Jauna khan or
Ulugh Khan to annex the Kakatiya kingdom.
c. Prince Jauna besieged the fort of Warangal
in 1321 CE.
d. Prataprudra Deva surrendered and
Telengana was annexed to Delhi Sultanate.
e. The name of Warangal was changed to
Sultanpur.
2. Annexed Jajnagar, Orissa:
a. Jauna Khan next attacked the kingdom of
Jajnagar in Orissa.
b. Its ruler Bhanudeva II, the ruler of Jajnagar
had supported the ruler of Warangal
against the sultan.
c. In 1324, Jauna Khan after plundering
Jajnagar annexed it to the Delhi Sultanate.
3. Annexed Parts of Bengal:
a. In 1323-24 CE as a response to the request
by nobles of Firuz Shah, the independent
ruler of Lakhnauti, Ghiyasuddin marched to
Lakhnauti in Bengal and defeated its ruler.
10
 b. East and south Bengal were annexed to the
Sultanate.
4. Annexed Tirhut, Bihar:
a. On his way back from Bengal, Ghiyas-ud-
din defeated the Raja of Tirhut in north
Bihar and annexed the region into the
sultanate.
21. Consider the following statements about
Swadeshi Movement:
1. It had wider popular appeal in the History
of National movement
2. It had an economic character in Bengal only
3. It enlisted the cooperation of the Muslim
Masses of Bengal
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
1) 2 only 2) 1 and 2
3) 2 and 3 4) 1,2 and 3
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Character of Swadeshi Movement:
1. The Swadeshi Movement was more
spontaneous in character and had a wider
popular appeal than any other political
agitation preceding it. Hence, statement 1
is incorrect.
a. It was little dependent on the support and
encouragement of the oficial leaders of the
Congress.
b. This was due to the fact that the discontent
in Bengal was not confined to the educated
urban middle class but had penetrated, to
some extent, into the rural society as well.
22.
2. The Anti-Partition agitation had an
economic character in Bengal unlike the
revolutionary agitation in Maharashtra
which had a religious character.
a. Most of the leaders of the agitation in
Maharashtra were Chitpavan Brahmins.
b. The programme of swadeshi and boycott
revealed the economic character of the
Anti-Partition agitation.
c. The boycott of British goods and the 'buy
swadeshi' slogan undoubtedly gave a great
stimulus to indigenous industries.
d. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
AMIGOS IAS
3. The swadeshi movement failed to enlist
the cooperation of the Muslim masses of
Bengal for various reasons.
a. The great majority of Muslims of Eastern
Bengal felt rightly or wrongly that they had
a greater prospect of material
advancement in the newly created
province of East Bengal and Assam.
b. The boycott of British goods directly hit the
common Muslim consumers by raising the
prices of such essential commodities like
cloth, shoes and soap while there was no
Muslim trading class in Bengal which could
take advantage of the swadeshi slogans.
c. Some leaders of the swadeshi movement
like Bipin Chandra Pal, Aswini Kumar Datta,
Surendranath Banerjea and Rabindranath
Tagore of course sought to win over the
Muslims to their side, but their success was
limited.
d. Ghaznavi, a Muslim zamindar and lawyer,
took part in the Swadeshi Movement and
led the boycott of British leather goods.
e. Some common Muslims also took part in
the Anti-Partition meetings.
f. But very few of them did so with
conviction.
g. Not a single Muslim organisation officially
condemned the Partition of Bengal.
h. Unfortunately, there also occurred some
Hindu-Muslim clashes in East Bengal during
the swadeshi agitation.
i. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
The Muslim Deputation to Lord Minto in 1906
was led by
1) Sayyid Ahmad Khan
2) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
3) Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk
4) Aga Khan
Answer: 4
Explanation:
1. Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk, who had
succeeded Sayyid Ahmad Khan as the
leader of the Aligarh Movement decided to
send a Muslim deputation to the Viceroy
for impressing upon him the necessity of
safeguarding the rights and interests of the
Muslim community.
11
 2. The deputation was prompted by the
decision of the British Government to
introduce representative principles in the
legislative councils of India.
3. This deputation which met the Viceroy in
Simla in October, 1906 was composed of
35 persons, nobles, landowners,
merchants and other loyal Muslim subjects
of the British Crown and it was led by Aga
Khan, the Nawab of Dacca
23. Consider the following statements about
Lucknow Pact:
1. Bal Gangadar Tilak played a very important
role in uniting the congress and the Muslim
League
2. It kept the germs of communalism in Indian
Politics alive
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
1) 1 only 2) 2 only
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 3
Explanation:
1. At the Lucknow Session of the Congress,
the Congress and the Muslim League
brushed aside their old differences and put
forward common demands before the
government.
2. The new political atmosphere created by
the war and the two Home Rule Leagues
fostered this development to some extent.
3. The unity between the Congress and the
League was brought about by the signing of
the Congress-League pact, popularly
known as the Lucknow Pact.
4. Tilak and Annie Besant played a very
important role in uniting the two.
5. The two organisations passed the same
resolutions, put forward a joint scheme of
political reforms based on separate
electorates and demanded self-
government.
6. Bipan Chandra has remarked,
"Unfortunately, it was based on the notion
of bringing together the educated Hindus
and Muslims as separate entities; in other
words without secularisation of their
political outlook which would make them
AMIGOS IAS
realise that in politics they had no separate
interests as Hindus or Muslims."
7. The Lucknow kept the germs of
communalism in Indian Politics alive
Hence, all the statements are correct.
24. With respect to Mahatma Gandhi, Consider
the following statements:
1. He was put on trial for four inflammatory
articles against the British in Young India
2. There was no defence counsel to defend
him
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
1) 1 only 2) 2 only
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 3
Explanation:
1. Trial of Mahatma Gandhi
a. along with the publisher of Young India,
Shankarlal Banker
b. Put on Trial in 1922 for four inflammatory
articles against the British in Young India
c. there was no defence counsel or legal
advice
d. sentenced to jail for six years (beginning
1922) but set free in February, 1924.
Hence, all the statements are correct.
25. Who among the following described the
great revolt of 1857 as ‘the first struggle for
Indian Independence’ ?
1) Jayaprakash Narayan
2) Percival Spear
3) William Dalrymple
4) V D Savarkar
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 The Revolt of 1857, though a failure,
continued to inspire the Indian
nationalists and revolutionaries of the
later generation. Herein lies the
nationalist significance of the uprising.
Savarkar drew inspiration from the Great
Revolt when he described it as 'the first
struggle for Indian independence.'
26. Which of the following books were written by
B.R.Ambedkar ?
1. Buddha and His Dhamma
12
 2. The Evolution of Provincial Finance in
British India
3. Pakistan or Partition of India
4. Thoughts on Linguistic States
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
1) 1 and 4 2) 2 and 3
3) 1,3 and 4 4) All of the above
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Some of his famous books include
○ The Untouchable: Who are They and Why
They Have Become Untouchables
○ Buddha and His Dhamma
○ ‘The Rise and Fall of Hindu Women‘
○ ‘Emancipation of Untouchables’,
○ ‘The Evolution of Provincial Finance in
British India’;
○ ‘Pakistan or Partition of India‘,
○ Thoughts on Linguistic States’, etc.
Hence, all the statements are correct.
27. Consider the following statements about the
Government of India Act, 1919:
1. The majority of members in provincial
legislative councils were to be elected.
2. It introduced the system of Dyarchy
3. Items like justice, police and revenue were
kept as reserved subjects
4. Items like education, public works, public
health were kept as transferred subjects
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
1) 1,2 and 3 2) 2,3 and 4
3) 1,3 and 4 4) All of the above
Answer: 4
Explanation
 The Government of India Act (1919) or the
Montagu-Chelmsford Report
 In 1917 Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of
State, came to India and embarked on a
fact finding tour. He was accompanied by
the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford. The
following year, the two issued a report on
Indian Constitutional Reforms. This is
known as the Montagu-Chelmsford or
Montford Report. On the basis of this
AMIGOS IAS
Report the Government of India Act of
1919 was passed.
1. By this legislation the Provincial Legislative
Councils were enlarged and the majority of
their members were to be elected.
2. The provincial governments were given
more powers under the system of dyarchy.
3. Under dyarchy, the powers of provincial
governments were to be divided into
'reserved' and 'transferred' subjects.
a. The reserved subjects which included
essential areas of law enforcement such as
justice, police and revenue, would be
looked after by the Governor and two
executive councillors appointed by the
Crown.
b. In these subjects the people were not to
have any say. But in matters relating to
'transferred subjects' the people were to
have a say.
c. These included education, public works,
public health etc.
4. These Departments were under the
ministers responsible to Provincial
Legislative Councils.
a. Since the members of these Councils would
be elected by the Indian people, the people
had an indirect control on these
Departments. While some of the spending
departments were transferred, the
Governor retained complete control over
the finances.
5. At the centre, the lower house or the
Legislative Assembly, was to be manned by
41 nominated members out of the total
number of 144 members.
6. The Council of State, or the Upper house,
was to be manned by 26 nominated and 34
elected members.
7. The legislature could not exert any control
over the Governor-General and his Council.
8. The Central Government had unrestricted
control over the provincial governments.
Hence, all the statements are correct.
28. Consider the following statements about
Rowlatt Act:
1. It was aimed at curtailing the civil liberties
of the Indians
13
 2. Jinnah and Madanmohan Malavya
resigned from the legislative council in
protest against it
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
1) 1 only 2) 2 only
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Rowlatt Act (1919) and the Rowlatt
Satyagraha
1. Rowlatt Act (1919) was a repressive
measure passed in March 1919.
2. This was the Rowlatt Act which was
opposed by every single Indian member of
the Central Legislative Council.
3. The British Indian Government was
determined to arm itself with more
coercive powers.
4. The Rowlatt Act of 1919 actually aimed at
curtailing the civil liberties of the Indians in
the name of crackdown on terrorist
violence.
5. The Rowlatt Act was taken as a great blow
to the honour of the Indian nation.
6. The Act was particularly attacked because
of its timing as it came at the end of the
war, when Indians were expecting
substantial constitutional concessions.
7. The Act sparked off a movement of protest.
8. Even moderates like Surendranath
Banerjea recorded their reservations about
the Act.
9. Jinnah, Madanmohan Malavya and others
resigned from the legislative council in
protest against the Rowlatt Act.
10.The Rowlatt Act was described by
contemporary media as "a gigantic
blunder".
11.To launch a strong movement against the
measure, a Satyagraha Sabha was formed
under the leadership of Gandhi.
12.The Satyagraha Sabha decided to stage civil
disobedience movement in India
Hence, all the statements are correct.
AMIGOS IAS
29. Who was the Viceroy that held the Imperial
Durbar at Delhi in 1877 at a time when the
country was hit by a terrible famine ?
1) Lord Lytton 2) Lord Curzon
3) Lord Harding II 4) Lord Ripon
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 Regime of Lord Lytton (1876-1880)
 The holding of the Imperial Durbar at
Delhi in 1877 at a time when the country
was hit by a terrible famine triggered off
an adverse reaction among the Indians.
30. Consider the following statements about The
Ilbert Bill :
1. The legislation was passed during the
viceroyalty of Lord Ilbert.
2. It enables the Indian district magistrates to
try Europeans in criminal cases
3. The Indian reaction to it was spearheaded
by Surendranath Banerjea
4. The European reaction to it was
spearheaded by Branson.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
1) 1,2 and 3 2) 2,3 and 4
3) 1,3 and 4 4) All of the above
Answer: 2
Explanation:
1. The Indian Association played a laudable
role during the Ilbert Bill agitation.
2. In 1883, Lord Ripon sought to pass a
legislation to enable Indian district
magistrates and Session Judges to try
Europeans in criminal cases. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect. If you eliminate
this option you will arrive at the answer.
3. Under the prevalent law even the Indian
ICS officials were not empowered to try
Europeans.
4. It was an attempt to remove some
elements of racial discrimination.
5. The Europeans in India banded together
against the Bill, which came to be known
after Ilbert, the Law Member of the Council
.
14
 a. They were of opinion that even the most
highly educated among the Indians were
unfit to try an European
6. Indian public opinion was quite formidable.
They were annoyed at the racial bitterness
displayed by the Europeans. They
organised a counter campaign.
7. The Indian reaction was spearheaded by
Surendranath Banerjea and Lalmohan
Ghose of the Indian Association.
8. The European community, led by Mr.
Branson, a Barrister, even plotted to
kidnap Lord Ripon and deport him to
England.
9. The Indian Association organised meetings
and demonstrations in support of the Bill.
10.Lord Ripon eventually had to surrender to
European pressure and the jurisdiction of
only the District Magistrates and the
Session Judges was acknowledged in
principle.
11.This was another humiliating defeat for the
Indians, who lost their struggle for equality.
12.The Ilbert Bill agitation however, was a
significant chapter in the history of India's
struggle for freedom.
a. It taught the Indians the value of
combination and solidarity and made them
determined to oust their racist rulers from
the Indian soil
Hence, statements 2,3 and 4 are correct.
31. Consider the following description
This forms an interconnected chain of
mountain systems within the ocean. It is the
longest mountain chain on the surface of the
earth though submerged under the oceanic
waters. The description given above is
associated with which among the following?
1) Exogenic landforms 2) Tillite landforms
3) Mid-Oceanic Ridges 4) Abyssal plains
Ans: 3
 Mid-Oceanic Ridges: This forms an
interconnected chain of mountain
systems within the ocean. It is the longest
mountain chain on the surface of the
earth though submerged under the
oceanic waters. It is characterised by a
central rift system at the crest, a
AMIGOS IAS
fractionated plateau and a flank zone all
along its length. The rift system at the
crest is the zone of intense volcanic
activity. (Hence, the option 3 is the correct
option here)
32. Consider the following minerals
i) Talc ii) Gypsum
iii) Calcite iv) Fluorite
Arrange the minerals given above in
descending order of the degree of their
hardness?
1) i<ii<iii<iv 2) iv<iii<ii<i
3) ii<iii<iv<I 4) ii<iii<i<iv
Ans: 2
 The Hardness — relative resistance being
scratched; ten minerals are selected to
measure the degree of hardness from 1-
10. They are: 1. talc; 2. gypsum; 3. calcite;
4. fluorite; 5. apatite; 6. feldspar; 7.
quartz; 8. topaz; 9. corundum; 10.
diamond. Compared to this, for example,
a fingernail is 2.5 and a glass or knife blade
is 5.5. (Hence, the option 2 is the correct
option here)
33. Depending upon irregularities of the land
surface, the overland flow may concentrate
into narrow to wide paths, the Overland flow
causes which among the following erosion?
1) Sheet erosion 2) Rill erosion
3) Gully erosion 4) Flat erosion
Ans: A
 Overland flow causes sheet erosion.
Depending upon irregularities of the land
surface, the overland flow may
concentrate into narrow to wide paths.
(Hence, the option 1 is the correct option
here)
 Because of the sheer friction of the
column of flowing water, minor or major
quantities of materials from the surface of
the land are removed in the direction of
flow and gradually small and narrow rills
will form.
34. Match the following regarding the various
forms of the erosional landforms
Name of the Formation
erosional landform
15
 i) Canyons Form in horizontally  The river finally discharges itself into the
bedded sedimentary Bay of Bengal near the Sagar Island.
rocks. 36. Consider the following statements
ii) Gorges Form in soft rocks. Statement (I):
iii) Plunge pools Deep holes at the EI-Nino is merely an extension of the cold
base of waterfalls. equatorial current that gets replaced
Which of the pairs given above is/are matched temporarily by a cold Peruvian current or
properly? Humbolt current.
1) Only I and ii 2) Only ii and iii Statement (II):
3) Only I and iii 4) All the above EI-Nino is a complex weather system that
Ans: 3 appears once every three to seven years,
bringing drought, floods and other weather
 The valleys start as small and narrow rills;
extremes to different parts of the world.
the rills will gradually develop into long
Select the answer using the codes given below
and wide gullies; the gullies will further
deepen, widen and lengthen to give rise to 1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
valleys. correct and Statement (II) is the proper
explanation of Statement (I).
 The canyons commonly form in horizontal
bedded sedimentary rocks and gorges 2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
form in hard rocks. (Hence, the pair I is correct and Statement (II) is not a proper
matched properly and the pair is not explanation of Statement (I).
matched properly) 3) Only Statement (I) is correct
 The large and deep holes at the base of 4) Only Statement (II) is correct
waterfalls are called plunge pools. (Hence, Ans: 4
the pair iii is matched properly)  The word EI-Nino means ‘Child Christ’
35. Consider the following tributaries because this current appears around
i) Ghaghara ii) Gandak Christmas in December. EI-Nino is a
iii) Kosi iv) Mahananda complex weather system that appears
once every three to seven years, bringing
The important left-bank tributaries of the
drought, floods and other weather
Ganga River are?
extremes to different parts of the world.
1) Only i and ii 2) Only i, ii, and iii (Hence, the statement (II) is correct here)
3) Only ii and iii 4) All the above
 The system involves oceanic and
Ans: 4 atmospheric phenomena with the
 The Ganga is the most important river of appearance of warm currents off the coast
India both from the point of view of its of Peru in the Eastern Pacific and affects
basin and cultural significance. It rises in weather in many places including India.
the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900  EI-Nino is merely an extension of the
m) in the Uttarkashi district of warm equatorial current which gets
Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the replaced temporarily by a cold Peruvian
Bhagirathi. It cuts through the Central and current or Humbolt current. This current
the Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges. increases the temperature of water on the
 The Son is its major right bank tributary. Peruvian coast by 10°C. Hence, the
The important left bank tributaries are the statement (I) is incorrect here)
Ramganga, the Gomati, the Ghaghara, the 37. The Blossom Shower is a type of shower that
Gandak, the Kosi and the Mahananda. causes coffee flowers to bloom in nearby
(Hence, the option 4 is the correct option areas, these showers are common in which
here) among the following states?

AMIGOS IAS 16
 1) West Bengal 2) Tamil Nadu
3) Kerala 4) Karnataka
Ans: 3
 The Blossom Shower makes coffee flowers
blossom in Kerala and nearby areas.
 In the heart of the ITCZ in the northwest,
the dry and hot winds known as ‘Loo’,
blow in the afternoon, and very often,
they continue to well into midnight. Dust
storms in the evening are very common
during May in Punjab, Haryana, Eastern
Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
38. Consider the following statements regarding
the Coriolis force
i) It is the force that the rotation of the earth
about its axis affects the direction of the
wind.
ii) It deflects the wind to the left direction in
the northern hemisphere and the right in
the southern hemisphere.
iii) It is maximum at the equator and is absent
at the poles.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1) Only i 2) Only ii and iii
3) Only i and iii 4) All the above
Ans: 1
 The rotation of the earth about its axis
affects the direction of the wind. This
force is called the Coriolis force after the
French physicist who described it in 1844.
(Hence, the statement 1 is correct here)
 It deflects the wind to the right direction
in the northern hemisphere and the left in
the southern hemisphere. The deflection
is more when the wind velocity is high.
(Hence, the statement ii is incorrect here)
 The Coriolis force is directly proportional
to the angle of latitude. It is maximum at
the poles and is absent at the equator.
(Hence, the statement iii is incorrect here)
39. Consider the following districts of Andhra
Pradesh
i) Eluru
ii) Alluri Seetharama Raju
iii) Prakasam
iv) West Godavari
Which of the districts in Andhra Pradesh have
the boarder with the neighbouring state of
Telangana?
1) Only i and ii 2) Only i, ii, and iii
3) Only i, ii, and iv 4) All the above
Ans: 2
 Seven districts in Andhra Pradesh have a
border with the neighbouring state of
Telangana, they are:
 Alluri Seetharama Raju, Eluru, NTR,
Palnadu, Prakasam, Nandyala, and
Kurnool. (Hence, option 2 is the correct
option here)
40. Match the following regarding the state
symbols of Andhra Pradesh
Name State symbol
i) State animal Blackbuck
ii) State bird Palapitta
iii) State tree Vepa Chettu
iv) State flower Tamara puvvu
Which of the pairs given above is/are not
matched properly?
1) Only i and ii 2) Only i, ii, and iii
3) Only ii and iv 4) None of the above
Ans: 3
STATE ANIMAL: BLACK BUCK (Antilope
cervicapra)
 The blackbuck (Krishna Jinka) is a diurnal
antelope and inhabits grassy plains and
slightly forested areas. Due to their
regular need for water, they prefer areas
where water is perennially available.
STATE BIRD ROSE RINGED PARAKEET
(Psittacula krameri)
 The rose-ringed parakeet (Rama Chiluka)
also known as the ring-necked parakeet, is
a medium-sized parrot and it is sexually
dimorphic. The adult male sports a red
and black neck ring, and the hen and
immature birds of both sexes either show
no neck rings or display shadow-like pale
to dark grey neck rings.
STATE TREE NEEM (Azadirachta indica)
 Neem (Vepa Chettu) is native to the Indian
subcontinent. It is typically grown in
tropical and subtropical regions.
STATE FLOWER JASMINE (Jasminum officinale)

AMIGOS IAS 17
  Jasmine (Malle Puvvu) is a genus of shrubs
and vines in the olive family (Oleaceae).
Jasmines are widely cultivated for the
characteristic fragrance of their flowers.
Jasmine can be either deciduous or
evergreen and can be erect, spreading, or
climbing shrubs and vines.
41. Consider the following minerals
i) platinum ii) zinc
iii) tin iv) aluminium
Which of the above comes under the non-
ferrous metals group?
1) Only i, ii, and iii 2) Only ii, iii, and iv
3) Only iii and iv 4) All the above
Ans: 2
 The basic source of all minerals is the hot
magma in the earth's interior. When
magma cools, crystals of minerals appear
and a systematic series of minerals are
formed in sequence to solidify to form
rocks. Minerals such as coal, petroleum
and natural gas are organic substances in
solid, liquid and gaseous forms
respectively.
 Non-ferrous metals: include metals like
copper, lead, zinc, tin, aluminium etc.
Here platinum comes under the precious
metals category. (Hence, the option 2 is
the correct option here)
42. Consider the following tribes
i) Bakarwals
ii) Gaddis
iii) Bhotiyas
Which of the pastoral tribal groups of the
Himalayas migrate from the plains to the
mountains in summer and to the plains from
the high-altitude pastures in winter?
1) Only i 2) Only ii and iii
3) Only i and ii 4) All the above
Ans: 4
 The Movement in search of pastures is
undertaken either over vast horizontal
distances or vertically from one elevation
to another in the mountainous regions.
The process of migration from plain areas
to pastures on mountains during summers
and again from mountain pastures to plain
AMIGOS IAS
areas during winters is known as
transhumance.
 In mountain regions, such as the
Himalayas, Gujjars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and
Bhotiyas migrate from plains to the
mountains in summers and to the plains
from the high-altitude pastures in winters.
Similarly, in the tundra regions, the
nomadic herders move from south to
north in summer and from north to south
in winter. (Hence, the option 4 is the
correct option here)
43. Consider the following description
This type of agriculture is characterised by the
dominance of the rice crop and the Land
holdings are very small due to the high density
of population, this description is associated
with which of the following farming?
1) Primitive subsistence agriculture
2) Intensive Subsistence Agriculture
3) Commercial horticulture Agriculture
4) None of the above
Ans: 2
 Intensive subsistence agriculture
dominated by wet paddy cultivation: This
type of agriculture is characterised by the
dominance of the rice crop. Land holdings
are very small due to the high density of
population. Farmers work with the help of
family labour leading to intensive use of
land. Use of machinery is limited and most
of the agricultural operations are done by
manual labour. Farmyard manure is used
to maintain the fertility of the soil. In this
type of agriculture, the yield per unit area
is high but per labour productivity is low.
(Hence, the option 2 is the correct option
here)
44. In this method, vertical deep bores have to be
sunk, from where underground galleries
radiate to reach the minerals, this type of
mining is known as?
1) Opencast mining 2) Quarrying
3) Shaft mining 4) Drilling
Ans: 3
 Depending on the mode of occurrence
and the nature of the ore, mining is of two
types: surface and underground mining.
18
 Surface mining also known as open-cast
mining is the easiest and the cheapest way
of mining minerals that occur close to the
surface. Overhead costs such as safety
precautions and equipment are relatively
low in this method.
 The output is both large and rapid. When
the ore lies deep below the surface, the
underground mining method (shaft
method) has to be used. In this method,
vertical shafts have to be sunk, from
where underground galleries radiate to
reach the minerals. (Hence, the option 3 is
the correct option here)
 Minerals are extracted and transported to
the surface through these passages. It
requires specially designed lifts, drills,
haulage vehicles, and ventilation systems
for the safety and efficient movement of
people and materials. This method is risky.
Poisonous gases, fires, floods and caving
in lead to fatal accidents.
45. Assertion (A):
India ranked first in coal production.
Reason (R):
Coal accounts for almost 50 percent share in
the total installed electricity generation
capacity in India.
Select the answer using the codes given below
1) Both A and R are true, and R is the proper
explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true, and R is not a proper
explanation of A
3) Only A is true
4) Only R is true
Ans: 4
 India has the fifth largest coal reserves, is
second in coal production (after China)
and is among the largest importers of coal
(mainly from Indonesia, South Africa and
Australia). (Hence, the Assertion (A) is
incorrect here)
 Coal accounts for almost 50% share in the
total installed electricity generation
capacity in India. (Hence, the Reason is
correct here)
 Achieve the coal production target of
1012 MT for FY 2023-24. Increase coal
AMIGOS IAS
production and efficiency. Formulate a
coking coal strategy to enhance coking
coal availability in the country. Improve
the quality of coal
 Achieve CAPEX target of Rs 21030 Crores
for FY 2023-24. Monetize assets. Allocate
25 new coal mines for commercial mining
in FY 2023-24.
46. The oil extracted from the wells is crude oil
and contains many impurities, it cannot be
used directly. It needs to be refined, which
among the following is an example of a
market-based refinery in India?
1) Barauni 2) Digboi
3) Ankaleshwar 4) None of the above
Ans: 1
 Crude petroleum consists of
hydrocarbons of liquid and gaseous states
varying in chemical composition, colour
and specific gravity. It is an essential
source of energy for all internal
combustion engines in automobiles,
railways and aircraft. Its numerous by-
products are processed in petrochemical
industries, such as fertiliser, synthetic
rubber, synthetic fibre, medicines,
Vaseline, lubricants, wax, soap and
cosmetics.
 Oil extracted from the wells is crude oil
and contains many impurities. It cannot be
used directly. It needs to be refined. There
are two types of refineries in India: (a)
field-based and (b) market-based. Digboi
is an example of field-based and Barauni is
an example of a market-based refinery.
(hence, option 1 is the correct option
here)
47. Consider the following elements
i) Uranium
ii) thorium
iii) potassium
Which of the elements given above
contributes to natural terrestrial
radioactivity?
1) Only i 2) Only i and ii
3) Only ii 4) All the above
Ans: 4
19
  Uranium is a silvery-grey metallic
radioactive chemical element. It is only
naturally formed in supernova explosions.
Uranium, thorium, and potassium are the
main elements contributing to natural
terrestrial radioactivity. (Hence, the
option 4 is the correct option here)
 Uranium has the chemical symbol U and
atomic number 92.
 Uranium isotopes in natural uranium are
238U (99.27%) and 235U (0.72%).
 All uranium isotopes are radioactive and
fissionable. But only 235U is fissile (which
will support a neutron-mediated chain
reaction). Traces of Uranium are found
everywhere. Commercial extraction is
possible only in locations where the
proportion of Uranium is adequate. There
are very few such locations.
48. Consider the following crops
i) rice
ii) sugarcane
iii) jute
iv) soya
Which of the above are water-intensive crops?
1) Only I and ii
2) Only I, ii, and iii
4) Only I, ii, and iv
4) All the above
Ans: 4
 The Water need of certain crops also
makes irrigation necessary. For instance,
the water requirement of rice, sugarcane,
jute, soya etc. is very high which can be
met only through irrigation. These crops
are also known as water-intensive crops.
(hence, option 4 is the correct option
here)
49. Consider the following statements regarding
the
i) The aim of Andhra Pradesh Renewable
Export Policy -2020 is to establish 120 GW
capacity renewable power projects by
2030.
ii) The State of Andhra Pradesh is home to 4
solar parks which can accommodate 4 GW
of capacity.
AMIGOS IAS
iii) The world’s largest Integrated Renewable
Energy Storage Project is being developed
in the state and is scheduled to be
commissioned by the end of 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1) Only i and ii 2) Only ii
3) Only ii and iii 4) All the above
Ans: B
 The state government has come up with
the ‘Andhra Pradesh Renewable Export
Policy -2020’ to establish 120 GW capacity
renewable power projects by 2025. The
state is home to 4 solar parks, which can
accommodate 4 GW of capacity. The
World’s largest Integrated Renewable
Energy Storage Project (IRESP), with a
capacity of 5,230 MW is being developed
in the state and is scheduled to be
commissioned by the end of 2023. The
state has the potential to become Green
Hydrogen for the global market. IH2A
(Indian Hydrogen Alliance), has proposed
five green hydrogen hubs in India to be
developed by 2025, with capacity of 150
GW of electrolyser capacity. Out of these
five hubs two are proposed in Andhra
Pradesh at Visakhapatnam (30 MW) and
Krishnapatnam (30 MW).
50. According to the AP Socio-Economic Survey
2022-23, the total number of inter-state
rivers in Andhra Pradesh is?
1) 25 2) 11
3) 15 4) 21
Ans: 3
 Besides prominent rivers like Godavari,
Krishna, Pennar, Vamsadhara and
Nagavali, there are 40 major, medium and
minor rivers in the state of Andhra
Pradesh. Of the 40 rivers, 15 are inter-
state rivers which are: I.Bahuda River (AP
& Orissa), 2.Mahendra Tanaya River (AP &
Orissa), 3. Poondi Minor Drainages (AP &
Orissa), 4. Vamsadhara River (AP &
Orissa), 5.Nagavali River (AP & Orissa),
6.Godavari (AP, Maharashtra, Orissa,
Karnataka, Chattisgarh & Madhya
Pradesh), 7.Krishna (AP, Maharashtra&
20
 Karnataka), 8. Pennar River (AP & handicraft products, and to provide space
Karnataka), 9. Araniar River (AP & Tamil for such products from all other States.
Nadu), 10.Kortaliar River (AP & Tamil Which of the statements given above is/are
Nadu), 11. Palar River (AP, Karnataka correct?
&Tamil Nadu), 12.Ponniar River (AP, 1) Only i 2) Only ii
Karnataka &Tamil Nadu), 13.Budameru 3) Both 4) None
(AP, Telangana), 14.Errakalava (AP,
Ans: 3
Telangana), 15.Tammileru (AP
,Telangana). (Hence, option 3 is the  The setting up of Ekta/Unity Mall in the
correct option here) States was announced in the Union
Budget 2023-24 for the promotion and
51. Consider the following physical factors
sale of their ODOPs, GI products, and
i) climate other handicraft products, and for
ii) terrain providing space for such products in all
iii) availability of water other States. The Union Budget also
Which of the above physical factors provided for an outlay of Rs. 5,000 crores
determines the pattern of the population of fifty-year interest-free loans to States
distribution? under the ‘Scheme for Special Assistance
1) Only I and ii 2) Only ii and iii to States for Capital Investment 2023-24’,
3) Only I and iii 4) All the above which will be linked to or allocated for
Ans: 4 certain purposes which, inter-alia,
includes constructing the Unity Malls. At
 As far as the physical factors are
present, 27 States have submitted their
concerned, it is clear that climate along
Detailed Project Reports, out of these, 17
with terrain and availability of water
have been approved by the Department of
largely determines the pattern of the
Expenditure.
population distribution. (Hence, the
option 4 is the correct option here) 53. Consider the following factors
 Consequently, we observe that the North i) Death ii) Birth
Indian Plains, deltas and Coastal Plains iii) Fertility iv) Migration
have a higher proportion of the v) Mortality
population than the interior districts of Which of the factors is not a component of
southern and central Indian States, the population change?
Himalayas, and some of the northeastern 1) Only I, ii, and iii 2) Only iii and v
and the western states. However, the 3) Only iii and iv 4) All the above
development of irrigation (Rajasthan), Ans: 2
availability of mineral and energy
 There are three components of
resources (Jharkhand) and development
population change – births, deaths and
of transport network (Peninsular States)
migration.
have resulted in moderate to high
concentration of population in areas that  Fertility and mortality are not components
were previously very thinly populated. of population change. (Hence, option 2 is
the correct option here)
52. Consider the following statements regarding
the Unity Mall 54. What is the rank of India in the World
Happiness Report 2023?
i) The setting up of Ekta/Unity Mall in the
States was announced in the Union Budget 1) 126 2) 134
2023-24. 3) 112 4) 96
ii) the main objective of the Unity Mall is to Ans: 1
promote and sale of their own One District  Recently, the UN Sustainable
One Product, GI products, and other Development Solutions Network released

AMIGOS IAS 21
 the World Happiness Report 2023 which
ranks countries on happiness. Since 2012,
the World Happiness Report has been
released annually around March 20th as
part of the International Day of Happiness
celebration. The report ranks global
happiness based on survey data from
people in over 150 countries.
 The ranking uses six key factors to
measure happiness — social support,
income, health, freedom, generosity, and
absence of corruption. Besides ranking
the countries, the report also looks at the
state of the world in 2023.
 India ranks at 126th position out of 136
countries, making it one of the least happy
countries in the world. (Hence, the option
1 is the correct option here)
55. Consider the following statements regarding
the development
i) Development means a qualitative change
which is always value positive.
ii) Positive growth always leads to
development.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
1) Only i 2) Only ii
3) Both 4) None
Ans: 2
 Development means a qualitative change
that is always value positive. This means
that development cannot take place
unless there is an increment or addition to
the existing conditions. (The statement 1
is correct here)
 Development occurs when positive
growth takes place. Yet, positive growth
does not always lead to development.
Development occurs when there is a
positive change in quality. The statement
2 is correct here.
56. Consider the following statements regarding
the demographic transition
i) both fertility and mortality decline
considerably.
ii) The population is either stable or grows
slowly
AMIGOS IAS
iii) Sometimes there is a negative population
growth rate
Which of the above are the main
characteristics of the 4th stage of the
demographic transition?
1) Only i 2) Only i and iii
3) Only i and ii 4) All the above
Ans: 4
 In 4th stage of demographic transition
both fertility and mortality decline
considerably. the population is either
stable or grows slowly. Sometimes there is
a negative population growth rate causes
the ageing of the population. The
population becomes urbanised, literate
has high technical know-how and
deliberately controls the family size. This
shows that human beings are extremely
flexible and can adjust their fertility.
(Hence, the option 4 is the correct option
here)
57. Consider the following sectors
i) Specialists
ii) Research and development
iii) Consultants
iv) Policy formulations
Which of the sectors come under the quinary
sector?
1) Only I and iii
2) Only I, iii, and iv
3) Only I and iv
4) All the above
Ans: 2
 The quinary sector includes specialists,
decision makers, policy formulations and
consultants included under quinary
activity. (Hence, option 2 is the correct
option here)
58. How many States have notified their
respective State Logistics policies as of
December 2023?
1) 21 2) 26
3) 23 4) 18
Ans: 3
 National Logistics Policy, 2022:
 On completion of one year of the launch
of the National Logistics Policy, significant
22
 progress has been made to achieve NLP
targets, viz. reduction in logistics cost,
improvement in India’s ranking in the
Logistics Performance Index (LPI), and
create data-driven decision support
mechanism for an efficient logistics
ecosystem.
 Progress made in the implementation of
the Comprehensive Logistics Action Plan
(CLAP) is as below:
 Infrastructure gaps are being addressed
and digital initiatives undertaken (under
the National Committee on Trade
Facilitation).
 To bring a holistic focus on ‘logistics’ in
public policy at the State level, States/UTs
are developing State Logistics Plans (SLPs)
aligned with NLP. So far, 23 States have
notified their respective State Logistics
policies. (Hence, option 3 is the correct
option here)
 Draft Sector Specific Plans developed by
M/o Coal and discussed in 6th EGoS.
59. Which among the following districts in
Andhra Pradesh has the highest women
population?
1) Vishakhapatnam 2) Krishna
3) East Godavari 4) Vijayanagaram
Ans: 3
 Andhra Pradesh is the tenth-largest state
in the Country, in terms of population. As
per the 2011 Census, the State accounts
for 4.09 per cent of the total population of
the country.
 The districts which have the highest
women population are
 East Godavari (Hence, the option 3 is the
correct option here)
 Guntur
 The least women population districts are
 Vijayanagaram and Srikakulam
60. According to the tribal welfare department
government of Andhra Pradesh, which
among the following tribe is most vulnerable
tribal group in the state of Andhra Pradesh
and they still dependent on hunting and food
fathering for their survival?
AMIGOS IAS
1) Gadaba 2) Porja
3) Savara 4) Chenchu
Ans: 4
 Chenchu tribe is the most vulnerable tribal
group in the State. They are still
dependent on hunting and food
gathering. They have not attained
significant level of educational, economic
progress and are having low health
indices. (Hence, option 4 is the correct
option here)
 Recommendations:
 Konda Reddy and Porja communities have
traditional skills in bamboo basketry and
jewellery making. Whereas Savara and
Gadaba tribe mostly depend on collection
of forest produce and agricultural
activities. Thus, special training could be
imparted to these tribal groups to
improve their traditional skills in
agriculture, horticulture and micro
entrepreneurial activities.
61. In which of the following type of family, a
couple after marriage resides with the
groom’s maternal uncle’s house?
1) Patrilocal family 2) Matrilocal family
3) Bi-local family 4) Avunculocal family
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Based on residence, the family is classified as:
• Patrilocal/Virilocal family: It is the family
when the newly married wife leaves her
parents' house and goes to reside with her
husbands' parents' house.
• Matrilocal/Uxorilocal family: It is the
family, when the newly married couple
resides in the wife's parents’ residence. Ex:
Tribes of north-east such as Garo and
Khasa.
• Bi-local/Ambilocal family: Follows both the
patrilocal and matrilocal. It is also known as
family of changing.
• Avunculocal family: In this type a couple
after marriage resides with the groom's
mother's brother's family or maternal
uncles' house. Ex: Ashanti Ghana
62. Levirate marriage is practiced among which
of the following tribe?
23
 1) Toda 2) Gond
3) Chenchu 4) Erukali
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• Cross cousin marriage: It is the marriage of
a man with his maternal uncle's daughter
of paternal aunt's daughter. It means
marriage of a girl with her mother's
brother’s son or father's sister son.
• Levirate: It is the custom in which a widow
marries her husbands' brother. Ex: Toda of
Nilgiris hills.
• Sororate: It is the custom in which a
widower marries the younger sister of his
deceased wife. Ex: Tribes of Gond or Baiga.
63. Which of the following is not a major
category of right under the United Nations
Convention on the Rights of the Child?
1) Right to Survival
2) Right to Development
3) Right to Participation
4) Right to Freedom
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC)
• On November 20, 1989, the United Nations
General Assembly adopted the Convention
on the Rights of the Child. It is a
comprehensive child rights convention.
• The Convention on the Rights of the Child
was drafted in 1989 and came into force on
September 02, 1990, while India signed it
on December 11, 1992.
Highlights of CRC:
• According to this all persons less than 18
years of age are children
• The Convention provides for the rights of
the child through 52 articles under
following four major categories:
• Right to Survival - to life, health, nutrition,
name, nationality
• Right to Development - to education, care,
leisure, recreation, cultural activities
• Right to Protection - from exploitation,
abuse, neglect
• Right to Participation - to expression,
information, thought, religion
AMIGOS IAS
• The 4 core principles of the Convention on
the Rights of the Child are:
1. Non-discrimination
2. Right to life, survival and development
3. Best interests of the child
4. Respect for the child's views
64. Consider the following statements
I. Sanskritization is a process of social
mobility.
II. This concept was developed by M N
Srinivas.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• By definition, caste system is viewed as a
rigid and closed system of stratification.
That is there is no movement or mobility
from one caste status to the other.
• Social mobility is the process by which
individuals or groups move, either upwards
or downwards, from one social status to
another in the social hierarchy.
• In reality, social mobility has been an
important feature of caste system. This
clearly means that caste system is a
dynamic reality with flexibility in terms of
its structure and function.
• The concept of Sanskritization which is
basically a process of social mobility was
developed by M N Srinivas to describe the
dynamic nature of the caste system.
Hence, statements I and II are correct.
65. Which Act treated tribes as “Backward
Tribes”?
1) Government of India Act, 1935
2) Government of India Act, 1947
3) Government of India Act, 1919
4) Councils Act, 1892
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• The specification of tribes and tribal
communities as Scheduled Tribes present
some problems. Even the social scientists
have found it difficult to evolve a
24
 universally acceptable definition for a
tribe.
• The difficulty in setting out formal criteria
for' defining a tribe arises from the fact that
the tribes in India are, and have been for
some decades, tribes in transition.
• The first serious attempt to list "primitive
tribes" was, as in the case r of depressed
castes, made at census of 1931:
• Subsequently, under the Government of
India Act, 1935, a list of "backward tribes"
was specified for the Provinces of India.
• The list of Scheduled Tribes was prepared
in 1950 by making additions to the list of
backward tribes under thc Government of
India Act, 1935; in considering fresh
proposals for inclusion in the list, it was
noted in drawing up the schedule
population were not at this stage
distinctiveness as tribes; and that
communities which might be regarded as
tribes' organisation and general way of life
but which were really not primitive should
not now newly be treated as primitive".
66. Consider the following statements regarding
the Self-Employed Women Association
I. It was founded by Ela Bhatt in 1972.
II. Ela Bhatt was awarded the prestigious
Ramon Magsaysay Award.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• SEWA was born as a trade union of poor
self-employed women in 1972, in the city
of Ahmedabad, Gujarat. It grew out of the
Women’s Wing of the Textile Labour
association, TLA, India’s oldest and largest
union of textile workers founded in 1920
by Anasuya Sarabhai and Mahatma
Gandhi. The original purpose of the
Women’s Wing was to provide training in
sewing, spinning, knitting, embroidery, and
other welfare activities to the wives and
daughters of mill workers. Hence,
statement I is correct.
AMIGOS IAS
• Since 1972, SEWA membership has grown
at a steady pace, drawing self-employed
women from many different trades into
the union: from vegetable vendors to
incense-stick rollers, from junksmiths to
waste-recyclers. The Women’s Decade,
beginning in 1975 also gave a boost to the
growth of SEWA, placing it firmly within the
women’s movement. In 1977, SEWA’s
General Secretary, Ela Bhatt, was awarded
the prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award
and this brought international recognition
to SEWA. Hence, statement II is correct.
• By 1981, relations between SEWA and TLA
had become strained. The interests of TLA,
representing workers in the organized
sector did not align easily with the interests
of SEWA, representing unorganized
women workers.
67. If two persons are descended from a common
father but by different mothers, they are
called
1) Full blood relatives
2) Half blood relatives
3) Uterine blood relatives
4) Parallel cousins
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Uterine: When descent is traced through
female line.
• Siblings: Children of the same parents
• Full blood: Two persons are said to be
related to each other by full blood when
they are descended from a common
ancestor by the same wife. (Kids with same
parents)
• Half-blood: Two persons are said to be
related to each other by half-biood when
they are descended from a common
ancestor but by different wives. (Kids with
same father but different mothers)
• Uterine blood: Two persons are said to be
related to each other by uterine blood
when they are descended from a common
ancestress but by different husbands. (Kids
with same mother but with different
father).
25
 • Parallel Cousins/Kins: Children of siblings of
the same sex as children of brothers or
children of sisters. Parallel cousins can be
Matrilineal i.e. children of Mother's sister
(Chinnama) or Patrilineal i.e. children of
father's brother (Babai).
• Cross Cousins/Kins: Children of siblings of
opposite sex as children of brother(s) and
sister(s). Cross cousins can be Matrilineal
i.e. children of Mother's brother (Mama) or
Patrilineal i.e. children of father's sister
(Athama).
• Lineal kinship or the direct line of
consanguinity is the relationship between
persons, one of whom is a descendant of
the other. Examples are like from father to
son, grandfather to grandson etc
68. Consider the following pairs
Women issues Associated person
I. Sati – Raja Ram Mohan Roy
II. Child Marriage – Ishwar Chandra Vidya
Sagar
III. Widow Remarriage – Keshab Chandra Sen
Which of the above given pairs is/are correctly
matched?
1) I only 2) I and II only
3) II and III only 4) All the above
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy, the founder of
Brahmo Samaj, raised awareness among
the people and convinced the then
Governor General, William Bentick, then
British Government in 1829 brought 17th
Regulation banning Sati and thought the
practice was almost disappeared.
• But in 1986 one incident of Sati
sahagamana happened in the state of
Rajasthan, then in 1987 the Indian
Government enacted The Commission of
Sati (Prevention) Act, 1987.
Movements against Child Marriage
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Kesava Chandrasen,
Malabari, Harbilas Sharada etc.
participated in the protests against child
marriage.
AMIGOS IAS
• The Sarada Commission was set up and on
the recommendations of this commission
the Sarada Act of 1929 was enacted which
changed the age of marriage for girls to 14
years and the age of consent to 15 years
and later on (in 1978) the age was raised to
21 for boy and 18 for girl
• B M Malabari worked hard against child
marriages among Parsis.
• The British banned polygamy in 1872 due
to the efforts of Keshab Chandra Sen.
Women Remarriage Movements
• As a result of Child Marriages and
Kanyashulkam, many become widows at
an early age. They had no social and
cultural rights. They were locked in a dark
room a forbidden to see light.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar is considered
as the Champion of Widow Remarriage.
Due to his efforts, the Governor General
Dalhousie enacted the Widow Remarriage
Act in 1856 and legalized widow
remarriage. He conducted the First widow
marriage in India on December 27th, 1856
in Calcutta and his son was also married to
widow.
• Brahmo Samaj, Arya Samaj and Pradhana
Samaj participated in this movement.
• In Maharashtra this movement was led by
Pandit Vishnu Shastri, Mahadev Govinda
Ranade, RG Bhandarkar and DK Karve.
• D. K. Karve himself married a widow and
set up a Widows' Sadan in Poona. Later,
Jyotiba Phule and Bhagya Reddy Varma
also fought for the rights of widow’s part of
the backward class movements and built
houses for them to get education
employment and to provide shelter.
69. Consider the following statements
I. Negritos were the earliest people to have
come to India.
II. Austrics laid the foundation of Indian
civilization.
III. Mongoloids are found in the North-Eastern
part of India.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) I and II only
26
 3) II and III only 4) All the above
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Ethnic Composition
• India is a country with huge racial and
ethnic diversity. Indian people can be
divided into six main ethnic groups. These
include:
• Negritos They are originally from Africa.
They were the earliest people to have
come to India. They have survived in their
original habitat in Andaman and Nicobar
Islands. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Austrics They laid the foundation of Indian
civilisation. They cultivated rice and
vegetables and made sugar from
sugarcane. Now these people are found in
some parts of India, Myanmar and the
islands of South-East Asia. Their languages
have survived in the central and Eastern
India. Hence, statement II is correct.
• Mongoloids They are found in the North-
Eastern part of India. Hence, statement III
is correct.
• Mediterranean or Dravidians They are the
people of South India. They have been
believed to come before the Aryans. They
are reputed to have built up the city
civilisation of the Indus valley.
• Western Brachycephalics They include the
broad headed people living mainly on the
Western side of the country such as the
Ganga valley.
• Nordics These were the last one to
immigrate to India. They came to India
somewhere between 2000 and 1500 BC.
They are now mainly found in the Northern
and Central part of India.
70. Which of the following is the correct order of
stages in the process of growth of Youth
Agitation?
1) Discontent Stage – Initiation Stage –
Formalisation Stage – Public Support Stage
2) Initiation Stage - Discontent Stage –
Formalisation Stage – Public Support Stage
3) Initiation Stage – Discontent Stage – Public
Support Stage – Formalisation Stage
AMIGOS IAS
4) Discontent Stage – Initiation Stage – Public
Support Stage – Formalisation Stage
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Process of Growth of Agitation:
• There are some stages of youth unrest
which finally turn into youth agitations.
These stages are:
• The Discontent Stage: The discontent stage
is the stage of dissatisfaction and growing
confusion with the existing conditions.
• The Initiation Stage: In the initiation stage
a leader emerges who makes others
conscious of the causes of discontent. In
this stage excitement increases and
proposals for actions are debated.
• The Formalisation Stage: In this stage the
programmes are developed, alliances are
forged, and support is also sought from the
people concerned.
• The Public Support Stage: In this stage the
problems of the youth are recognised as
public problem. This not only creates
awareness among the public but also seeks
public support on the concerned issues.
71. Which of the following pair is incorrect?
1) Collateral joint family - Two or more
married couples between whom there is a
sibling bond live together
2) Supplemented collateral joint family -
Collateral Joint Family + unmarried,
divorced or widowed relatives
3) Lineal joint family - Two couples in which
there is lineal link (parent & married
son/married daughter) live together
4) Supplemented Lineal Joint Family - Three
or more couples are linked lineally and
collaterally
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Types of Joint Family: -
• According to Pauline Colenda, the
following are the various types of Joint
Families.
• Collateral Joint Family: - Two or more
married couples between whom there is a
sibling bond live together. Ex: Two brothers
27
 & their wives live together with their
unmarried children.
• Supplemented Collateral Joint Family: -
Collateral Joint Family + unmarried,
divorced or widowed relatives.
• Lineal Joint Family: - Two couples in which
there is lineal link (parent & married
son/married daughter) live together.
• Supplemented Lineal Joint Family: - Lineal
Joint Family + unmarried, divorced or
widowed relatives who don't belong to
either of lineally linked families. Ex:
Father's widower brother
• Lineal Collateral Joint Family: Three or
more couples are linked lineally and
collaterally.
• Supplemented Lineal-Collateral Joint
Family: Lineal Collateral Joint Family +
unmarried, widowed or separated relatives
who belong to either one of the lineal or
collateral nuclear families. Ex: Unmarried
nephew of father.
72. What are the essential elements of Muslim
marriage?
I. Marriage proposal is made by or on behalf
of the concerned parties.
II. Acceptance of the proposal in the presence
of one or two male and two female
witnesses.
III. Settlement of Dowry or Mehr.
Choose the correct option
1) I only 2) I and II only
3) II and III only 4) All the above
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• The essential elements of Muslim marriage
are
• Marriage proposal is made by or on behalf
of the concerned parties. Hence,
statement I is correct.
• Acceptance of the proposal in the presence
of one or two male and two female
witnesses. Hence, statement II is correct.
• Settlement of Dowry or Mehr. Hence,
statement III is correct.
• Marriage among Muslims is contract. It is
an obligation to be fulfilled.
AMIGOS IAS
• The arrangement of marriage is largely the
responsibility of the parents, particularly
that of the father.
73. Which of the pair is incorrect regarding the
women legislations in India?
1) Abolition of practicing Sathi – 1829
2) The Child Marriage Restraint Act – 1929
3) The Dowry prohibition Act – 1961
4) The Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act – 2006
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Abolition of Practicing Sathi -1829
• The Child Marriage Restraint Act (Sharada
Act) - 1929
• Hindu Widow Remarriage Act - 1856
• The Maternity Benefit Act (Amended in
2017) - 1961
• The Equal Remuneration Act - 1976
• The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act –
1956
• The Dowry Prohibition Act - 1961
• Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act -
1971
• The Pre-Conception and Pre- Natal
Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of sex
selection (PCPNDT)) Act, 1994 &2002 -
1994
• Indian Penal Code - 1860
• Amended Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act
- 1986
• Indecent Representation of Women
(Prohibition) Act - 1986
• The Commission of Sati (Prevention) Act -
1987
• The Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act - 2005
• The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act -
2006
• Sexual Harassment (Prevention,
Prohibition and Redressal) of Women at
Workplace Act - 2019
74. Which of the following pair is incorrect
regarding the river tribunals and states
covered?
1) Ravi & Beas – Punjab, Haryana and
Rajasthan
28
 2) Kaveri – Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and
Puducherry
3) Vamshadara – Chhattisgarh and Andhra
Pradesh
4) Mahanadi – Chhattisgarh and Orissa
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Krishna River Waters Tribunal – 1969:
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh
Telangana
• Godavari River Waters Tribunal – 1969:
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh
Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Telangana
• Narmada Waters Tribunal – 1969:
Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh &
Maharashtra
• Ravi & Beas – 1986: Punjab, Haryana &
Rajasthan
• Kaveri – 1990: Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil
Nadu, Puducherry
• Vamshadara – 2010: Orissa, Andhra
Pradesh
• Mandavi-2010: Goa, Karnataka,
Maharashtra
• 2nd Krishna Tribunal-2004: Maharashtra,
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana
• Mahanadi-2018: Chhattisgarh and Orissa
75. Consider the following statements
I. The Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955
has been comprehensively amended and
renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights
Act, 1955 in 1976.
II. The right under Article 17 is not available
against private individuals.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Abolition of Untouchability
• Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’ and
forbids its practice in any form. The
enforcement of any disability arising out of
untouchability shall be an offence
punishable in accordance with law.
AMIGOS IAS
• In 1976, the Untouchability (Offences) Act,
1955 has been comprehensively amended
and renamed as the Protection of Civil
Rights Act, 1955 to enlarge the scope and
make penal provisions more stringent. The
act defines civil right as any right accruing
to a person by reason of the abolition of
untouchability by Article 17 of the
Constitution. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The term ‘untouchability’ has not been
defined either in the Constitution or in the
Act. However, the Mysore High Court held
that the subject matter of Article 17 is not
untouchability in its literal or grammatical
sense but the ‘practice as it had developed
historically in the country’. It refers to the
social disabilities imposed on certain
classes of persons by reason of their birth
in certain castes. Hence, it does not cover
social boycott of a few individuals or their
exclusion from religious services, etc.
• The Supreme Court held that the right
under Article 17 is available against private
individuals and it is the constitutional
obligation of the State to take necessary
action to ensure that this right is not
violated. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
76. Which of the following statement is correct
regarding Article 24?
1) It prohibits employment of children below
14 years in all factories.
2) It prohibits employment of children below
18 years in all factories.
3) It prohibits employment of children below
18 years in hazardous activities.
4) It prohibits employment of children below
14 years in any factory, mine or hazardous
activities.
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Prohibition of Employment of Children in
Factories, etc. Article 24 prohibits the
employment of children below the age of
14 years in any factory, mine or other
hazardous activities like construction work
or railway. But it does not prohibit their
employment in any harmless or innocent
work.
29
 • The Child Labour (Prohibition and
Regulation) Act, 1986, is the most
important law in this direction. In addition,
the Employment of Children Act, 1938; the
Factories Act, 1948; the Mines Act, 1952;
the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958; the
Plantation Labour Act, 1951; the Motor
Transport Workers Act, 1951; Apprentices
Act, 1961; the Bidi and Cigar Workers Act,
1966; and other similar acts prohibit the
employment of children below certain age.
• In 1996, the Supreme Court directed the
establishment of Child Labour
Rehabilitation Welfare Fund in which the
offending employer should deposit a fine
of ₹20,000 for each child employed by him.
It also issued directions for the
improvement of education, health and
nutrition of children.
• The Commissions for Protection of Child
Rights Act, 2005 was enacted to provide for
the establishment of a National
Commission and State Commissions for
Protection of Child Rights and Children’s
Courts for providing speedy trial of
offences against children or of violation of
child rights.
• In 2006, the government banned the
employment of children as domestic
servants or workers in business
establishments like hotels, dhabas,
restaurants, shops, factories, resorts, spas,
tea-shops and so on. It warned that anyone
employing children below 14 years of age
would be liable for prosecution and penal
action.
• The Child Labour (Prohibition and
Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016,
amended the Child Labour (Prohibition and
Regulation) Act, 1986. It has renamed the
Principal Act as the Child and Adolescent
Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act,
1986.
77. Which of the following state does not come
under Sixth Schedule?
1) Meghalaya 2) Tripura
3) Mizoram 4) Manipur
Answer: 4
AMIGOS IAS
Explanation:
• Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution
envisages a special system of
administration for certain areas designated
as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas.
• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
deals with the administration and control
of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in
any state except the four states of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
• The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on
the other hand, deals with the
administration of the tribal areas in the
four northeastern states of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
78. Consider the following statements regarding
the Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram
I. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, which
is being implemented by the Ministry of
Minority Affairs.
II. Its implementation period is FY 2022-23 to
2025-26.
III. Projects under this scheme are approved in
the identified areas where the
concentration of minority population is
more than 50% in the catchment area.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) I and II only
3) II and III only 4) All the above
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram
• Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram
(PMJVK) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme,
which is being implemented by the
Ministry of Minority Affairs with the
objective to develop infrastructure
projects, which are community assets, in
the identified areas with development
deficits for socio-economic development
of the said areas. Hence, statement I is
correct.
• In 2022-23, the revised PMJVK has been
approved by the Government for
continuation over the 15th Finance
Commission Cycle i.e., during FY 2022-23 to
2025-26. Hence, statement II is correct.
30
 • The Revised PMJVK Scheme is
implemented for all Districts of the Country
including all the Aspirational Districts.
• Projects are approved in the identified
areas where the concentration of minority
population is more than 25% in the
catchment area (15 KM radius). Hence,
statement III is incorrect.
• In 2022-23, projects approved under the
scheme includes school buildings,
residential schools, hostels, ITIs, skill
centres, health projects including
hospitals, health centres, Sadbhav
Mandap, Community Hall, sports projects
like sports complex, working women
hostels, etc. Ministry of Minority Affairs in
collaboration with National Remote
Sensing Centre, ISRO has started geo
tagging of the infrastructure constructed
under the scheme.
79. Consider the following regarding divorce
among Muslims
I. Khula
II. Mubarat
In which of the above types of divorce,
initiation starts from woman side?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Divorce system among Muslims:
• As per Muslim law but without the
interference of the court
• Divorce initiation from woman is called as
Khula. If it is either from both then it is
called as Mubarat.
• Talaq: Can only be initiate and use by
husband.
• Talaq-e-hasan: Uttering the word talaq by
husband followed by period of conjugal
abstinence till the completion of iddat.
• Talaq-e-ahasan: Three pronouncements
made during three successive period of
menstruation and no sexual intercourse
during this time.
• Note: Talaq-e-ul-Bidat is the third type
which was recently abolished by Supreme
Court and later government through The
AMIGOS IAS
Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on
Marriage) Act, 2019.
80. As per 2011 Census, the child labour is
highest in which state?
1) Bihar
2) Rajasthan
3) Maharashtra
4) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Together, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan,
Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh
constitute nearly 55% of total working
children in India.
81. Consider the following statements regarding
the Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and
Redressal) Act, 2013.
I. Vishakha guidelines formed the basis for
this Act.
II. Employers are required to constitute an
Internal Complaints Committee at each
workplace with 10 or more employees.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Background:
• The Supreme Court in a landmark
judgment in the Vishakha and others v
State of Rajasthan 1997 case gave Vishakha
Guidelines. These guidelines formed the
basis for the Sexual Harassment of Women
at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and
Redressal) Act, 2013. Hence, statement I is
correct.
• The SC also drew its strength from several
provisions of the Constitution including
Article 15 (against discrimination on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex,
and place of birth), also drawing from
relevant International Conventions and
norms such as the General
Recommendations of the Convention on
the Elimination of All Forms of
31
 Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW),
which India ratified in 1993.
Key Provisions:
• Prevention and Prohibition: The Act places
a legal obligation on employers to prevent
and prohibit sexual harassment in the
workplace.
• Internal Complaints Committee (ICC):
Employers are required to constitute an
ICC at each workplace with 10 or more
employees to receive and address
complaints of sexual harassment. Hence,
statement II is correct.
• The Complaints Committees have the
powers of civil courts for gathering
evidence.
• Duties of Employers: Employers must
undertake awareness programs, provide a
safe working environment, and display
information about the POSH Act at the
workplace.
• Complaint Mechanism: The Act lays down
a procedure for filing complaints,
conducting inquiries, and providing a fair
opportunity to the parties involved.
• Penalties: Non-compliance with the Act's
provisions can result in penalties, including
fines and cancellation of business licenses.
82. Consider the following statements
I. Sambal sub-scheme is for safety and
security of women.
II. Samarthya sub-scheme is for
empowerment of women.
Which of the above given statements is/are
incorrect?
1) I only 2) II only
(3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• ‘Mission Shakti’ has two sub-schemes -
'Sambal' and 'Samarthya'. While the
"Sambal" sub-scheme is for safety and
security of women, the "Samarthya" sub-
scheme is for empowerment of women.
The components of 'Sambal' sub-scheme
consist of erstwhile schemes of One Stop
Centre (OSC), Women Helpline (WHL), Beti
Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) with a new
AMIGOS IAS
component of Nari Adalats - women's
collectives to promote and facilitate
alternative dispute resolution and gender
justice in society and within families.
Hence, statement I and II are correct.
83. Which of the following districts in Andhra
Pradesh are officially declared as tribal
districts?
I. Parvatipuram Manyam
II. Srikakulam
III. Vizianagaram
IV. Alluri Sitharama Raju
Choose the correct option
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) III and IV 4) I and IV
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• The state government is contemplating
granting another district for tribal areas
with Rampa Chodavaram as headquarters.
• The government has already carved out
two exclusive districts for tribal agency
areas-Alluri Sitharama Raju district and
Parvatipuram Manyam district covering
the entire tribal villages from erstwhile
Visakhapatnam, Vizianagaram and East
Godavari districts.
84. Which of the following diseases are covered
under National Trust Act?
I. Autism
II. Leprosy
III. Cerebral Palsy
IV. Mental Retardation
Choose the correct option
1) I, II and III only 2) I, III and IV only
3) II, III and IV only 4) All the above
Answer: 2
Explanation:
National Trust Act
• The National Trust is a statutory body of
the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment, Government of India, set
up under the “National Trust for the
Welfare of Persons with Autism, Cerebral
Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple
Disabilities” Act (Act 44 of 1999).
Vision of The National Trust
32
 • An inclusive society which values human
diversity and enables and empowers full
participation of Persons with Disability to
live independently with dignity, equal
rights and opportunities.
• The National Trust’s vision statement
reflects a very changed India for all Indians
and is based on a human right, i.e.
UNCRPD, approach. The vision statement
focuses NT as being a leader in the
disability sector in India. As laws focusing
on Persons with Disability are changing,
focused leadership needs to be
established. Working through local and
regional registered organizations and local
level committees, the National Trust must
make its vision and focus clear throughout
the country.
Mission of the National Trust
• The National Trust works towards
providing opportunities for capacity
development of Persons with Disability
and their families, fulfilling their rights,
facilitating and promoting the creation of
an enabling environment and an inclusive
society.
• The National Trust’s mission, or
fundamental purpose, is to create an
enabling environment, i.e. providing
opportunities for Persons with Disabilities
through comprehensive support systems
which can also be done by collaborating
with other Ministries, etc., which will lead
towards development of an inclusive
society.
Objectives
• The objectives of the National Trust in
particular are:
• To enable and empower persons with
disability to live as independently and as
fully as possible within and as close to
their community as possible;
• To facilitate the realisation of equal
opportunities, protection of rights and full
participation of persons with disability;
• To extend support to its registered
organisations to provide need-based
services; and
AMIGOS IAS
• To evolve procedures for appointments of
guardians and trustees for persons with
disabilities.
85. The book “Social Change in Modern India”
was written by?
1) S.C Dube 2) M.N Srinivas
3) G.S Ghurye 4) D.N Majumdar
Answer: 2
Explanation:
M.N. Srinivas
• “Religion and Society among the Coorgs of
South India”
• Social change in Modern India
• Caste in Modern India and other Essays
86. Consider the following statements regarding
the Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana
I. Under the Integrated Programme for
Senior Citizens scheme, assisted living
devices are distributed free of cost, in
camp mode, to senior citizens.
II. Under the Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana
scheme, Grant-in-Aid is given to
Implementing Agencies for running and
maintenance of Senior Citizens Homes.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer:4
Explanation:
• The Umbrella Scheme of Atal Vayo
Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY), being run by the
Department of Social Justice and
Empowerment, includes components to
provide financial security, healthcare,
nutrition, shelter, welfare etc. for senior
citizens.
• Under one of such components, namely,
the Integrated Programme for Senior
Citizens (IPSrC), Grant-in-Aid is given to
Implementing Agencies for running and
maintenance of Senior Citizens Homes
where basic amenities like shelter, food,
medical care, entertainment opportunities
etc. are provided free of cost to indigent
senior citizens. Hence, statement I is
incorrect.
33
 • Under Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY),
assisted living devices are distributed free
of cost, in camp mode, to senior citizens
belonging to the families living below the
poverty line or having Rs. 15000/- as
monthly income and suffering from age
related disabilities. Hence, statement II is
incorrect.
87. Which of the following articles of the Indian
Constitution are related to the women?
I. Article 39(d)
II. Article 42
III. Article 43(A)
Choose the correct option
1) I only 2) I and II only
3) II and III only 4) All the above
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• To promote the welfare of the people by
securing a social order permeated by
justice–social, economic and political and
to minimise inequalities in income, status,
facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
• To secure (a) the right to adequate means
of livelihood for all citizens; (b) the
equitable distribution of material
resources of the community for the
common good; (c) prevention of
concentration of wealth and means of
production; (d) equal pay for equal work
for men and women; (e) preservation of
the health and strength of workers and
children against forcible abuse; and (f)
opportunities for healthy development of
children (Article 39).
• To promote equal justice and to provide
free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
• To secure the right to work, to education
and to public assistance in cases of
unemployment, old age, sickness and
disablement (Article 41).
• To make provision for just and humane
conditions of work and maternity relief
(Article 42).
• To secure a living wage, a decent standard
of life and social and cultural opportunities
for all workers (Article 43).
AMIGOS IAS
• To take steps to secure the participation of
workers in the management of industries
(Article 43 A).
88. Which of the following schemes merged in
the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati
Abhuyday Yojana?
I. Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana
II. Special Central Assistance to Scheduled
Castes Sub Plan
III. Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana
Choose the correct option
1) I only 2) I and II only
3) II and III only 4) All the above
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday
Yojana (PM- AJAY) is a merged scheme of
03 Centrally Sponsored Scheme namely
Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana
(PMAGY), Special Central Assistance to
Scheduled Castes Sub Plan ( SCA to SCSP)
and Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas
Yojana(BJRCY) and has been implemented
since 2021-22 with an aim to reduce
poverty of the SC communities by
generation of additional employment
opportunities through Skill development,
income generating schemes and other
initiatives and to improve socio-economic
developmental indicators by ensuring
adequate infrastructure and requisite
services in the SC dominated villages.
89. Who is the Chairman of National Foundation
for Communal Harmony?
1) Prime Minister
2) Central Home Minister
3) President
4) Central Minority Affairs Minister
Answer: 2
Explanation:
National Foundation for Communal Harmony
• The National Foundation for Communal
Harmony, a voluntary organization with
the slogans of Vasudaika Sambhava &
Sarvadharma Sambhava, was set up by the
Central Government to prevent communal
conflicts. This organization provides
34
 scholarships and arranges educational
rehabilitation for victims of religious
persecution. And this institution observes
Kwami Ekta Week from 19th November to
25th November every year. The Union
Home Minister is the Chairman of this
organization.
90. What is the aim of the ‘CARINGS’ portal
1) To take care of women in distress
2) For facilitating adoption of orphaned and
abandoned senior citizens
3) For facilitating adoption of orphaned,
abandoned and surrendered children
4) None of the above
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• The Government has put in place a
centralized online system called the Child
Adoption Resource Information and
Guidance System (CARINGS) for facilitating
adoption of orphaned, abandoned and
92.
surrendered children under the Juvenile
Justice (Care and Protection of Children)
Act (JJ Act), 2015.
• Adoptions in the country are undertaken
through the Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection of Children) Act (JJ Act), 2015
and the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance
Act, 1956. The Ministry of Women and
Child Development administers adoptions
of orphaned, abandoned and surrendered
children under the JJ Act, 2015.
91. Consider the following statements about
Lake Victoria:
I. It is the largest freshwater lake in Africa by
surface area.
II. Lake Victoria is bordered by three
countries: Kenya, Uganda, and Tanzania.
III. It is the primary source of the Nile River.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
1) Only I 2) Only II
3) Only II and III 4) All I, II and III
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Recently, a new scientific report published
in the journal Nature shows that significant
AMIGOS IAS
precipitation changes and increasing
extreme climate events affecting the large
human populations as well as endemic
biodiversity of Lake Victoria Basin.
• Lake Victoria is the largest freshwater lake
in Africa, bordered by Kenya, Uganda, and
Tanzania, and is the primary source of the
Nile River. Hence, Statements I, II and III are
correct.
Consider the following statements about
Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
I. It is the global money laundering and
terrorist financing watchdog set up in 1989
at a G-20 meeting of developed nations in
Paris.
II. It has its headquarters in Brussels.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1) Only I 2) Only II
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• FATF is an inter-governmental policy-
making and standard-setting body
dedicated to combating money laundering
and terrorist financing.
• It was established in 1989 during the G7
Summit in Paris to develop policies against
money laundering. In 2001, its mandate
expanded to include terrorism financing.
Hence, Statement I is not correct.
• Headquarters: Paris, France. Hence,
Statement II is not correct.
• FATF members include 39 countries,
including the United States, India, China,
35
 Saudi Arabia, Britain, Germany, France,
and the EU as such.
• India became a member of FATF in 2010.
• FATF, as part of its efforts, maintains two
types of lists - the Greylist and the blacklist.
• Countries known as Non-Cooperative
Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on
the blacklist. These countries support
terror funding and money laundering
activities. The FATF revises the blacklist
regularly, adding or deleting entries.
• Countries that are considered a safe haven
for supporting terror funding and money
laundering are put on the FATF grey list.
This inclusion serves as a warning to the
country that it may enter the blacklist.
Three countries, North Korea, Iran, and
Myanmar are currently in FATF’s blacklist.
• No financial aid is given to them by the
International Monetary Fund (IMF), the
World Bank, the Asian Development Bank
(ADB) and the European Union (EU).
93. ‘Rapid Security Forces’, recently seen in
news, is related to which amongst the
following countries?
1) Palestine 2) Israel
3) Sudan 4) Syria
Answer:3
Explanation:
• Around 530 Indians have been evacuated
from Sudan so far with 250 people taken to
Jeddah in Saudi Arabia via an Indian Air
Force (IAF) aircraft and 278 on Indian Navy
Ship Sumedha, according to the Ministry of
External Affairs.
• Sudan’s military and its paramilitary forces
have been involved in a fierce battle
against each other since April 15, leaving at
least 420 people dead and more than 3,700
wounded. The clashes follow months of
heightened tension between the Army
Chief Lt Gen Abdel Fattah al-Burhan and
the Rapid Support Force (RSF) head Gen
Mohamed Hamdan Dagalo, also known as
Hemetti. Both the generals are at
loggerheads as they fight for control of
Sudan’s major institutions.
AMIGOS IAS
• The Rapid Support Forces are paramilitary
forces operated by the Government of
Sudan.
• Although formally established in 2013, the
RSF can trace its roots to the Janjaweed
militias, which is a group of Arab tribes
primarily based in western Sudan.
• They were first armed and organised in the
early 1980s to help the government
expand its influence in neighbouring civil-
war-torn Chad.
94. “Persona non grata," often appearing in the
news, means?
1) A diplomat or foreign individual whose
entering or remaining in a certain country
has been welcomed by the Head of the
State.
2) A diplomat or foreign individual whose
entering or remaining in a certain country
has been prohibited by that country.
3) A diplomat or foreign individual whose
entering or remaining in a certain country
has been non-objectionable by that
country.
4) A diplomat or foreign individual whose
entering or remaining in a certain country
is immunized from punishment by that
country.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The Canadian government declared a
Chinese diplomat "persona non grata" on
May 8th, 2023, due to allegations of
intimidation of a Canadian lawmaker who
criticised China for its human rights abuses.
As a reciprocal countermeasure, China
declared a Canadian diplomat in Shanghai
as "persona non grata."
• Persona non grata in foreign diplomacy
refers to a diplomat or foreign individual
whose entering or remaining in a certain
country has been prohibited by that
country.
• According to Article 9 of the Vienna
Convention for Diplomatic Relations, 1961,
“the host country can declare any member
of the diplomatic staff of a mission persona
36
 non grata at any point in time and for any
reason”.
95. The Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain
Awareness (IPMDA) Initiative was introduced
by
1) ASEAN
2) QUAD
3) Sanghai Cooperation Organisation
4) Comprehensive and Progressive
Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Recently, the Chief of the Naval Staff
Admiral addressed the fourth edition of the
Goa Maritime Conclave (GMC) where he
stressed that building networks and
partnerships like the Indo-Pacific Maritime
Domain Awareness (IPMDA) would be
instrumental in ensuring the security and
stability of the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
• The IPMDA, introduced by the Quad group
(consisting of India, Australia, Japan, and
the US) at the Tokyo summit, 2022, aims to
monitor "dark shipping" and create a more
comprehensive and precise real-time
maritime overview of partner nations'
waters.
• It focuses on integrating the Pacific Islands,
Southeast Asia, and the Indian Ocean
region (IOR) in the Indo-Pacific.
96. Who among the following releases the
Adaptation Gap Report?
1) UN Environment Programme
2) UN Development Programme
3) International Energy Agency
4) International Renewable Energy Agency
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• As per the latest edition of Adaptation Gap
Report, 2023 released by UN Environment
Programme, developing countries,
together, need at least USD 215 billion
every year this decade to carry out
meaningful adaptation work. In 2021, just
about USD 21 billion went to developing
countries for adaptation projects, which
AMIGOS IAS
was down about 15% from the previous
years.
• This year’s report focuses on adaptation
finance, or the availability of money to
carry out the adaptation projects.
97. "Bab-El-Mandab" is often a scene in the news
related to?
1) Mediterranean Sea 2) Red Sea
3) Black Sea 4) South China Sea
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Israeli
Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu held a
telephone discussion on the escalating
threats to maritime security in the Red Sea
because of the actions of Houthi militants
of Yemen.
• The conversation came soon after the
Pentagon announced an international
mission to counter the growing number of
attacks against Israel-bound international
traffic.
• It is a strait that connects the Red Sea
(northwest) with the Gulf of Aden and the
Indian Ocean (southeast).
• It is located between Arabia (northeast)
and Africa (southwest).
• It is an important strategic connection in
the marine commerce route connecting
the Mediterranean Sea to the Indian Ocean
via the Red Sea and the Suez Canal.
• It is one of the world's most important
seaborne commodity shipping routes,
primarily for crude oil and petroleum.
• Yemen borders it on the Arabian Peninsula,
and Djibouti and Eritrea border it on the
African coast.
37
98. Consider the following statements:
I. The New Development Bank has been set
up under Shanghai Cooperation
Organization (SCO).
II. The headquarters of New Development
Bank is in Shanghai.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The New Development Bank (NDB) is a
multilateral financial institution
established by the BRICS countries,
namely, Brazil, Russia, India, China and
South Africa. Hence, Statement I is not
correct.
• NDB is headquartered in Shanghai, China.
Hence, Statement II is correct.
99. “Free Movement Regime," often seen in the
news, is related to the affairs of India and ?
1) USA 2) Myanmar
3) European Union 4) Pakistan
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• India’s recent plans to review the Free
Movement Regime (FMR) agreement with
Myanmar and fence the India-Myanmar
border have initiated discussions,
especially in the northeastern states.
• Currently, India and Myanmar share a
1,643 km border across Manipur, Mizoram,
Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh, of which
only 10 km is fenced in Manipur.
• The FMR was established in 2018 as part of
India's Act East policy, promoting cross-
border movement up to 16 km without a
visa.
• Individuals residing at the border need a
one-year border pass for stays lasting up to
two weeks in the neighbouring country.
• It aimed to facilitate local border trade,
improve access to education and
healthcare for border residents, and
strengthen diplomatic ties.
AMIGOS IAS
100. With which of the following countries has
India signed all the four foundational
agreements?
1) Russia 2) USA
3) France 4) Australia
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Recently, the Prime Minister (PM) of India
has stated that, despite occasional issues,
India and the US have been on a positive
trajectory in relations.
• India has now signed all four foundational
agreements with the USA.
• The Logistics Exchange Memorandum of
Agreement (LEMOA) in 2016,
• The Communications Compatibility and
Security Agreement (COMCASA) in 2018
• The Basic Exchange and Cooperation
Agreement for Geo-Spatial cooperation
(BECA) in 2020.
• While the General Security of Military
Information Agreement (GSOMIA) was
signed a long time ago, an extension to it,
the Industrial Security Annex (ISA), was
signed in 2019.
101. Which of the following schemes has been
launched recently by the Prime Minister for
the protection of Ramsar sites?
1) Amrit Bharat Yojana
2) Amrit Sarovar Scheme
3) Amrit Dharohar Yojana
4) Abhinav Ramsar Yojana
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Amrit Dharohar Yojana scheme was
announced in the 2023–24 budget for a
period of three years. The scheme,
identifying the importance of the wetlands,
aims to promote their optimal use. Under
this scheme, the communities will be at the
centre of wetland protection.
• This scheme will focus on enhancing the
biodiversity in the wetlands, preserving
and increasing their carbon stock, building
upon their eco-tourism potential, and
enabling the local communities to
38
 optimally use the wetlands for II. Pawan Kumar : Kabaddi
employment generation. III. Diksha Dagar : Golf
102. For which of the following short stories has IV. Sunil Kumar : Wrestling
Patanjali Sastri won the 2023 Sahitya Which of the above pairs is/are correct?
Academi Award? 1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III
1) Tana Margam 3) Only I and III 4) All the above
2) Gaalivana Answer: 4
3) Astitvanadam Aavali Teerana Explanation:
4) Rameshwaram Kaakulu Marikonni Kathalu • Nasreen Shaikh, a standout athlete in Kho-
Answer: 4 Kho
Explanation: • Pawan Kumar belongs to kabaddi.
• The 2023 Sahitya Akademi Award for • Diksha Dagar belongs to Golf.
Telugu was given to writer Patanjali Sastry • Sunil Kumar belongs to Wrestling. Hence
for his short story “Rameshwaram Kaakulu all four pairs are correct.
Marikonni Kathalu."
105. The PRANA portal has been continuously in
• The award is sponsored by the Sahitya the news in recent times. Which of the
Akademi, a government of India following statements best explains its
institution. The award includes a cash prize objective?
of ₹1 lakh (US$1,300), a copper plaque, and
1) It is a portal for monitoring of
a shawl.
implementation of National Clean Air
• The award aims to recognise and promote Programme.
excellence in Indian writing.
2) It will provide online education to far flung
103. Consider the following statements: areas where physical infrastructure of
I. Lucknow is the India’s first Artificial education is not present.
intelligence city. 3) It will provide the Gram Panchayats with a
II. India has got its first ever AI school in single interface to prepare and implement
Kerala. their Gram Panchayat Development Plan.
Which of the above statement is/are correct? 4) It will ensure hassle-free disbursement of
1) I only 2) II only pension to retired state government
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II employees.
Answer: 3 Answer: 1
Explanation: Explanation:
• India has its first ever AI school in Kerala. • PRANA (Portal for Regulation of Air-
This pioneering development was pollution in non-attainment cities) is a
launched by Santhigiri Vidhyabhavan in portal for monitoring of the
Kerala's capital city, Thiruvananthapuram. implementation of the National Clean Air
Hence, statement II is correct. Programme (NCAP). Hence, option 1 is the
• Uttar Pradesh's government has approved correct answer.
the development of Lucknow as India's first • It will support tracking of physical as well as
artificial intelligence (AI) city. The goal is to financial status of city air action plan
revolutionise urban living by establishing implementation and disseminate
Lucknow as a hub for tech ideas and a new information on air quality management
IT hub. Hence, statement I is correct. efforts under NCAP to public.
104. Consider the following statements with • It would also disseminate information on
respect to Arjuna Awardees 2023 with their air quality to the public while also providing
sports or games: comprehensive information related to
I. Nasreen :Kho-Kho NCAP programme details, progress, city

AMIGOS IAS 39
 action plans, implementation updates by
city/state/ national level agencies, air
quality data, and trends, etc.
106. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of
India (FSSAI) comes under which of the
following ministries?
1) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
2) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
3) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
4) It is an independent body and not part of
any ministry.
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• FSSAI is under Ministry of Health & Family
Welfare. Hence option (1) is the correct
answer.
• It is an autonomous statutory body
established under Food Safety and
Standards Act (FSSA), 2006.
• FSSA 2006 consolidates various acts &
orders that had earlier handled food
related issues in various Ministries.
• It regulates and monitor, manufacture,
processing, distribution of food while
ensuring safe and wholesome food to
consumers.
• Headquarters – Delhi
107. Recently, which of the following schemes has
been launched by the central government to
make women self-reliant?
1) Dharani Matruthva yojana
2) Mahila Samman Abhyudhaya yojana
3) Mahila Samman Savings Certificate
Scheme
4) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• The Mahila Samman Saving Certificate
(MSSC) is a new small savings scheme
launched by Ministry of Finance, Govt. of
India aimed at encouraging women
investors.
• Central government has introduced this
scheme in the Budget 2023 to mark the
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav and is a
significant step towards financial inclusion
AMIGOS IAS
and empowerment of the women,
including the girls.
• The minimum investment amount is Rs.
1,000 and the maximum amount is Rs. 2
lakhs. The scheme will mature in two years
from the date of opening the account.
Interest rate for MSSC is 7.5% per annum,
compounded quarterly. The scheme is
operational during the period 01.04.2023
to 31.03.2025.
108. Which of the following is correct with respect
to the Article-1 of Indian Constitution?
1) It mentions India as its only name, and the
President can use “Bharat” at her pleasure.
2) India shall be a Federation of States.
3) The States and the territories thereof shall
be as specified in the Second Schedule.
4) The territory of India shall comprise the
territories of states, union territories, and
territories as may be acquired.
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• A possible name change for India has been
a topic of debate for some time. Some
people argue that the name Bharat better
reflects the nation's identity and culture,
while others maintain that India is a well-
established and internationally recognised
name.
• India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of
States.
• The States and the territories thereof shall
be as specified in the First Schedule.
• The territory of India shall comprise-(a)The
territories of the States;(b)the Union
territories specified in the First Schedule;
and(c)such other territories as may be
acquired.
109. Indian Railway has set a target of becoming
Net Zero Carbon Emitter by
1) 2025 2) 2027
3) 2030 4) 2035
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Indian Railway has set a target of becoming
Net Zero Carbon Emitter by 2030.
40
 • IR has taken a number of initiatives to
reduce its carbon emissions which include
use of energy efficient technologies like
completely switching over to production of
three phase electric locomotives with
regenerative features, use of head on
generation (HOG) technology, use of LED
lights in buildings and coaches, star rated
appliances and afforestation.
110. The quadrivalent Human Papilloma Virus
(qHPV) vaccine was developed against?
1) Blood cancer 2) Liver cancer
3) Cervical cancer 4) Mouth cancer
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• India’s 1st indigenously developed
quadrivalent Human Papilloma Virus
(qHPV) vaccine against cervical cancer.
• Cervical cancer develops in a woman's
cervix. Almost all cervical cancer cases
(99%) are linked to infection with high-risk
human papillomaviruses (HPV), an
extremely common virus transmitted
through sexual contact.
111. Consider the following statements with
respect to the “Abhayam App” launched by
the Andhra Pradesh government:
I. It is managed by the Police Department.
II. It helps commuters during the golden hour
after road accidents.
Which of the given statements is/are correct ?
1) I only 2) II Only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer : 4
Explanation :
ABHAYAM APP :
● Chief Minister YS Jagan Mohan Reddy
launched the Abhayam Project (App),
specially designed for the safety of children
and women travelling alone in autos and
taxis, on November 23, 2020. Hence,
Statement II is not correct.
● Initially, tracking devices were installed in
1,000 autos as a pilot project in
Visakhapatnam, and this will be
implemented.
AMIGOS IAS
● Disha App is managed by the Police
Department while Abhayam App (Project)
will continue to be under the Transport
Department. . Hence, Statement I is not
correct.
Source:
https://www.thehansindia.com/news/cities/v
isakhapatnam/abhayam-app-for-women-
on-move-785003
112. An inscription with the term “Bharatiyanam”
has been found in which of the following
places?
1) Mangalagiri 2) Ghantasala
3) Mangapatnam 4) Narsipatnam
Answer: 2
Explanation :
● Inscription with the term 'Bharatiyanam'
found at Ghantasala village in Andhra
Pradesh. Hence, Option (2) is correct.
● The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
discovered an ancient inscription in
Ghantasala village in Krishna on an
umbrella stand (chatri), dating back to the
first century CE district.
● The inscription is in the Prakrit language
and Brahmi characters. It mentions the
term "Bharatiyanam Nagila sethisa putasa
Nigokhadha sethisa Bharata sethisa."
● Bharata, the son of Nagokhada and
grandson of Nagila, belonging to the
mercantile community of Bhartiya (India),
was given the umbrella.
● The inscription is considered significant as
it contains the earliest epigraphical
reference to "Bharatiyanam," signifying
the area of Bharat (India).
● The use of the term "Bharatiyanam' is
noteworthy. suggesting a community or
clan during that period
Source :
https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/a
ndhra-pradesh/2023/Mar/11/inscription-
with-term-bharatiyanam-found-at-
ghantasala-village-in-andhra-pradesh-
113. The first generic animal medicine centre in
Andhra Pradesh is inaugurated in which of
the following cities?
41
 1) Guntur 2) Vijayawada
3) Tirupati 4) Kurnool
Answer: 2
Explanation:
● Minister of Animal Husbandry Sidiri
Appalaraju said that the YSR Animal
Medicine Network Scheme is being made
available for the first time in the country
with the aim of providing quality cattle
generic medicines at low prices to the
cattle patrons in the state.
● As part of this, 52 animal medicine centres
are being established across the state.
Minister Appalaraju inaugurated the
country's first generic animal medicine
centre at the office premises of the
Director of Animal Husbandry in
Vijayawada. Hence, Option (2) is correct.
Source:
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=w
eb&rct=j&opi=89978449&url=https://m.s
akshi.com/amp/telugu-news/andhra-
pradesh/first-generic-animal-medicine-
center-country-
1558343&ved=2ahUKEwjb6c_E14qEAxWc
tlYBHemACboQFnoECBEQAQ&usg=AOvVa
w0uYukqZWY0S1XmeMFfo3aG
114. Consider the following statements:
I. All BC women are covered under YSR EBC
Nestham.
II. A total sum of Rs.45,000 is provided in 3
years for women in the age group of 40-60.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 4
Explanation:
● The scheme aimed at improving the
livelihood and financial empowerment of
women in the OC category. Hence,
Statement I is not correct.
● This is the first-of-its-kind scheme to
benefit poor women from upper castes.
● To ensure that women become self-
sufficient, the state government brought
out EBC Nestham women from OC
AMIGOS IAS
category families who come from
economically unsound circumstances and
deserve a platform where they can become
financially self-sufficient and support their
families in any way they can.
● Under this, a total of 45,000 is provided in
3 years for women in the age group of 45–
60. Hence, Statement II is not correct.
Source:
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=w
eb&rct=j&opi=89978449&url=https://ww
w.myscheme.gov.in/schemes/ysrebcn&ve
d=2ahUKEwjNyunV-
ZCEAxVEslYBHciTBY8QFnoECB0QAQ&usg=
AOvVaw38DDUWcIXt-r_BlCIARU1W
115. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with respect to “Didayi tribe”?
I. They are one of the PVTGs from Andhra
Pradesh.
II. They inhabit the Seshachalam Hill ranges.
Select the correct answer from the options
given below.
1) Only I 2) Only II
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• The vulnerable Didayi tribe, ‘wrongly’
bracketed under the Poraja group, craves
identity.
• The Didayi and the Pengu tribes, who,
despite being different from the rest of the
tribes in the Eastern Ghats, have been
listed under the tribal common head of
Poraja, hurting their very existence.
• The Didayi inhabits the Visakha Agency
area. They are not recognised as PVTG.
Hence, both the statements are not
correct.
• There are (34) Scheduled Tribes, out of
which (7) tribal groups are categorized as
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(PVTGs).
• They are Kondareddi, Savara, Gadaba,
Porja, Kondh, Kondareddy, and Chenchu.
• Settlement: The Didayis live on the
Rangabayalu hill range, with a total
population of between 1,900 and 2,000.
42
 • The Pengus, on the other hand, inhabit the
Lakshmipuram hill range, with a total
population of about 2,400.
• Most villages in both the hill ranges have
no road connectivity, and the tribals are
forced to either trek about 18 km to reach
the nearest road point or be carried on
‘dolis’.
• The geographic seclusion also hinders
them from availing of many government
welfare schemes.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/V
isakhapatnam/vulnerable-didayi-tribe-
craves-for-identity/article67543875.ece
116. What was the sex ratio (per 1000 males) in
Andhra Pradesh according to the National
Family Health Survey 5 (NFHS 5)?
1) 1030 2) 1045
3) 985 4) 998
Answer: 2
Explanation:
● Andhra Pradesh's sex ratio is 1,045 females
to 1,000 males (NFHS-5). Hence, Option (2)
is correct.
● Child sex ratio (CSR): 934
● CSR in rural areas stands at 957 females per
1,000 males.
● Kadapa holds the worst CSR figure, with
779 females per 1,000 males.
● In the ranking, Kerala, Maharashtra,
Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand,
Arunachal Pradesh, and Nagaland are also
included as fast movers.
● Among the states and UTs ranked in the
aspirant category are Goa, Odisha, West
Bengal,
Source:
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=w
eb&rct=j&opi=89978449&url=http://rchii
ps.org/nfhs/NFHS-
5Reports/Andhra_Pradesh.pdf&ved=2ahU
KEwjElYbkyYyEAxVERmcHHbTTB5IQFnoEC
C4QAQ&usg=AOvVaw23O57IhlMxALHSYw
74L6sP
AMIGOS IAS
117. Who among the following was appointed as
the Pay Revision Commissioner of the A.P.
12th Pay Revision Commission?
1) Dr. Manmohan Singh
2) Venugopal Rao
3) P. Ramesh
4) Narayana Rao
Answer: 1
Explanation:
● The state government appointed the 12th
Pay Revision Commission.
● The government, in G.O. 68, said that the
PRC would be headed by retired IAS officer
Manmohan Singh as Pay Revision
Commissioner. The terms and conditions
of the appointment of the commissioner
would be issued separately. Hence, option
(1) is correct.
Source:
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=w
eb&rct=j&opi=89978449&url=https://ww
w.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-
pradesh/andhra-pradesh-constitutes-12-
pay-revision-
commission/article67072586.ece/amp/&v
ed=2ahUKEwjs6sGd3o-
EAxX9g1YBHSG9CU4QFnoECBQQAQ&usg=
AOvVaw3R_hMdkcQAtMOmY4q4FqYp
118. Deposits of 15 rare earth metals have been
found in which of the following districts of
Andhra Pradesh?
1) Kadapa 2) Nellore
3) Krishna 4) Anantapur
Answer: 4
Explanation:
● The Hyderabad-based National
Geophysical Research Institute has found
large deposits of 15 rare earth elements
(REE) in Andhra Pradesh's Anantapur city.
Hence, option (4) is correct.
● REE is a key component in many electronic
devices and various industrial applications,
including medical technology, aerospace,
and defence.
● The light rare earth element minerals
include lanthanum, cerium,
43
 praseodymium, neodymium, yttrium,
hafnium, tantalum, niobium, zirconium,
and scotdium.
Source:
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=w
eb&rct=j&opi=89978449&url=https://ww
w.indiatoday.in/india/story/ngri-
scientists-find-rare-earth-elements-ap-
ananthapur-2357350-2023-04-
08%23:~:text%3DHyderabad%252Dbased
%2520National%2520Geophysical%2520R
esearch,medical%2520technology%252C%
2520aerospace%2520and%2520defence.
&ved=2ahUKEwjplfbDiY-
EAxWnSWwGHYiGCvcQFnoECBAQBQ&usg
=AOvVaw05-eRCqQseBRZLMfIjYRdU
119. Best Rural Tourism Village of India in the
Silver Category, 2023, has been awarded to
which of the following villages?
1) Kondapalli 2) Lepakshi
3) Etikoppaka (4) Draksharamam
Answer: 2
Explanation:
● Lepakshi has been recognised as the Best
Tourism Village 2023 in the Silver Category.
Hence, Option (2) is correct.
● In Lepakshi, time seems to slow down, and
its air resonates with the echoes of the
past, where the artisans have breathed life
into its magnificent stone, the architectural
epitome, the Lepakshi.
● Lepakshi, with its alluring depiction of its
tradition and culture, captures the eye of
every tourist.
Source:
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=w
eb&rct=j&opi=89978449&url=https://ww
w.rural.tourism.gov.in/Lepakshi-Village-
Silver.html%23:~:text%3DLepakshi%2520h
as%2520been%2520recognized%2520as,t
he%2520architectural%2520epitome%252
C%2520the%2520Lepakshi.&ved=2ahUKE
wjV2Kz4io-
EAxUqd2wGHd2cBLkQFnoECBEQBQ&usg=
AOvVaw2dK-cUU32P2HpGuh7AVvPo
120. Consider the following statements with
respect to YSR Awards:
AMIGOS IAS
I. It is awarded in three categories: arts and
culture, literature, and social service only.
II. A cash prize of Rs 5 lakh, a bronze statue of
YSR, a memento and a commendation
letter is presented to the winners of YSR
Lifetime Achievement Award.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) Only I 2) Only II
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• The State government has announced the
recipients of YSR Lifetime Achievement and
Achievement Awards for the year 2023.
• The awards have been announced for
eminent persons in different fields for the
third consecutive year.
• The screening committee has
recommended the names of 27 eminent
persons, including 23 for the Lifetime
Achievement Awards and 4 for the
Achievement Awards.
• The selection was made based on the
exceptional contribution of the individuals
to the 7 fields like agriculture, arts and
culture, Telugu language and literature,
sports, medical and health, media and
social service. Hence, Statement I is not
correct.
• The awards will be presented on
November 1 marking the State Formation
Day.
• A cash prize of Rs 10 lakh, a bronze statue
of YSR, a memento and a commendation
letter will be presented to the winners of
YSR Lifetime Achievement Award. Hence,
Statement II is not correct.
• The YSR achievement Award carries a cash
prize of Rs 5 lakh, a memento and a
commendation letter.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nationa
l/andhra-pradesh/ap-governor-presents-
ysr-lifetime-achievement-and-ysr-
achievement-awards-2023-in-various-
fields/article67484006.ece
Directions for questions 121 to 124:
44
 Answer these questions on the basis of the D X + 48 Rank – 4
information given below.
E X + 107 Rank - 1
The following bar graph gives information
F X - 65 Rank – 8
about the runs scored by eight batsmen in a
season. For each batsman, the runs scored G X – 45 Rank – 7
relative (difference with respect to) to player H X + 72 Rank – 3
B is given. The players are ranked from one to The rank of player C was 5
eight, with the player scoring the highest
122. How many players scored fewer runs than
number of runs ranked first, the next one
player H?
second and so on. It is known that player F was
1) 3 2) 4
ranked eighth and player D was ranked
immediately above player C. 3) 5 4) 6
Answer: 3
120
107 Explanation:
100
 Five players scored fewer than player H.
90
123. If the average number of runs scored by the
80 eight players is 435, then how many runs did
72
65 player C score?
58 1) 431 2) 410
60
45 3) 460 4) None of these
40 Answer : 1
25 Explanation:
20 The total runs scored by the eight players are
0 = = x + 29 = 435
0
A B C D E F G H
Therefore x = 406
Player C scored 406 + 25 = 431 runs.
121. What was the rank of player C? 124. If player G scored 373 runs, how many runs
1) 4 2) 5 did the eight players together score?
3) 6 4) 7 1) 2966 2) 3532
Answer : 2 3) 3576 3) None of these
Explanation: Answer: 3
 As it is known that player F was ranked Explanation:
eight and that player D was ranked X – 45 = 373
immediately above player C, it can be Therefore x = 418
concluded that both C and D scored more
Total runs = 8x + 232 = 8 *418 + 232 = 3576
runs than player B, while player G scored
125. Find the wrong number in the series.
fewer than player B. So also, as the
difference between the runs scored 12, 33, 55, 84, 114, 147, 183
by player A, E and H and player B is more 1) 55 2) 84
than that of player F, all the three must 3) 33 4) 147
have scored more runs than player B. Answer: 1
Therefore, If player B scored 0 ‘x’ runs, the Explanation:
runs scored by the other players are as The given logic is as follows.
follows: 12+21, 33+24, 57+27, 84+30, 114+33, 147+36, 183
A X + 90 Rank – 2 Hence, the wrong number in the series is 55.
𝑪 𝑬 𝑮 𝑲 𝑴
B X Rank – 6 126. , , , __, 𝟏𝟑𝟐, 𝟏𝟖𝟐
𝟏𝟐 𝟑𝟎 𝟓𝟔
C X + 25 Rank – 5

AMIGOS IAS 45
 1) 5:11 2) 6:7
1) 2) 3) 6:13 4) 4:9
Answer: 3
Explanation:
3) 4)
Let the total monthly sales of companies A and
B be Rs. 2x and Rs. 3x and their total monthly
Answer: 4 expenditures be Rs. 3y and Rs. 4y.
Explanation: Given that A’s profit = 1/5 of sales = (2x/5)
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
, , , , , Therefore, 2x – 3y = 1/5(2x) = 4/5(2x) = 3y = y
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
( ) = x
( )
Profit of company B
= 3x – 4y = 3x – 4 ( x) =
Hence, is the missing term in the series Hence the ratio of the profits of the two
companies are 𝑥: = 6:13
127. If in a calendar year, there are 541 days and 130. The number of digits in the square root of a
10 days a week, then how many odd days will thirteen-digit number is
be there in that year? 1) 6 2) 7
1) One 2) Two 3) 8 4) Either (a) or (b)
3) Three 4) Four Answer: 2
Answer: 1 Explanation:
Explanation: Suppose a number x has m digits
 To find the number of odd days, we have i.e., 10m-1 ≤ x < 10m
to find the remainder of 541/10. The Therefore, 102m-2 ≤ x2 < 102m
remainder is one. Hence, there is one odd
i.e., x2 has 2m or 2m -1 digits. Conversely, if a
day
number has 2m – 1 or 2m digits, its square
128. If A’s father is B, C is the father of B and D is root has m digits. Therefore, if a number
A’s mother, then how is C related to D? has 13 digits, its square root as 7 digits.
1) Father 2) Grandfather
131. If LCM (x, y, z) = (x) (y) (z), HCF (y, z) = ?
3) Father-in-law 4) Uncle 1) 1 2) 2
Answer: 3 3) X 4) Cannot be determined
 A’s father is B and mother is D. Therefore, Answer: 1
D is B’s wife and C is the father of B. Hence,
Explanation:
C is D’s father-in-law.
If the LCM of two or more numbers equals
their product, the numbers must be co-
prime, hence the HCF of any two numbers
would be 1. In the given problem,
LCM (x,y,z) = x.y.z
Therefore HCF (y,z) = 1
132. Find the remainder when 1643276569 is
129. The total monthly sales of two companies A divided by 25.
and B are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their total 1) 9 2) 19
monthly expenditures are in the ratio 3 : 4. 3) 24 4) 4
Find the ratio of the profits of the two Answer: 2
companies given that company A’s profit is Explanation:
equal to a fifth of its sales.

AMIGOS IAS 46
 The remainder when any number is divided by Therefore, 1.5x = 600
25 is the remainder when the number formed 135. Dinesh started a business with Rs. 20000 and
by the last two digits of that number (i.e., 69) after 5 months, Dhiraj joined him with Rs.
is divided by 25 which is 19 45000. Dinesh received Rs. 45250 including
133. A village has 10000 people, 68% of the people 10% of the profits as commission for
are males. The total literate population of the managing the business. What amount did
village is 6000. There are 1200 more male Dhiraj receive?
illiterates than female illiterates. What per 1) 56000 2) 47250
cent of the female population are illiterates? 3) 66000 4) 36500
1) 37.25% 2) 43.75% Answer: 2
3) 47.25% 4) 33.75% Explanation:
Answer: 2 Ratio of the shares of profits is
Explanation: (20000 x 12) : (45000 x 7) = 240 : 315 = 16 : 21.
Number of males = 6800 Let the total profit be P. As Dinesh receives
Number of females = 3200 10% of this as commission, the remaining
If x males are literates, 6000 - x females are 90% of P, is shared in the ratio of 16 : 21.
literates. Hence, Dinesh’s receipts will be 16/37th of
Number of male illiterates = 6800 - x. 90% of the total profit plus his commission.
Number of female illiterates = 3200 - (6000 - 0.1p + 16/37 (0.9p) = 45250
x) = x - 2800. P = Rs. 92500
Therefore, 6800 - x = x - 2800 + 1200 Dhiraj’s share = Total profit - payment to
x = 4200 Dinesh = 92500 - 45250 = Rs. 47250
Percentage of female illiterates = (100) 136. A batsman scored an average of 54 runs in
the first 6 tests. If the first test is not counted,
= (100) = 43.75% and the seventh is counted, then his average
score goes up to 58 runs. If his score in the
134. 1000 people voted on a resolution and 10% first test was 50 runs, find his score in the
of the votes were invalid. After some seventh test
discussion the 1,000 people voted again and 1) 62 2) 57
this time there were 20% invalid votes. The 3) 88 4) 74
opponents increased by 50% while the Answer: 4
motion was now rejected by a majority which Explanation:
is 300% more than that by which it was Total score in the first 6 tests = 6 x 54 = 324
formerly passed. How many people voted runs
against the resolution after the discussion?
Total score in the last six tests = 6 x 58 = 348
1) 480 2) 450 runs.
3) 540 4) 600 Score in the seventh test = Total score in all the
Answer: 4 7 tests - Total score in the first 6 tests
Explanation: = 348 + 50 - 324 = 398 - 324 = 74
137. Three taps A, B and C together can fill an
For Against empty tank in 4 hours. After 1 hour, C is
Case (i) (900 - x) X closed and the tank is filled in 6 more hours.
Find the time in which C alone can fill the
Case (2) (800 – 1.5x) (1.5x)
empty tank.
1) 5 2) 8
(900 – 2x) (1 + 300/100) = 3x – 800 3) 7 4) 3
Therefore, 4400 = 11x = x = 400 Answer: 2

AMIGOS IAS 47
 Explanation:
Work done by A, B and C in 1 hour = 1/4th.
Remaining part of the tank = 1 (1/4) = ¾
Time taken by (A and B) to fill this 3/4th part
of the tank = 6 hours
⇒ A and B together fill the tank in 6/(3/4) 8
hours. Now, we know A, B and C take 4
hours and A and B take 8 hours.
Part of the tank filled by C in hour = ¼ - 1/8 =
1/8
So, C alone can fill the tank in 8 hours
 Since A has a start of 150 m at the time B
starts at the starting point, A is already
150 m ahead and hence he has only 750 -
150 = 600 m to cover.
 In the time B covers 750 meters, A would
have covered (2/3) x 750 = 500 m
 Hence, he would be 100 m from the
finishing point. Hence, B wins the race and
at the time he finishes the race the
distance between him and A would be 100
metres.

138. Wages for 80 women for 60 days are Rs. Directions for question 141 to 145:
43,200. How many men must work for 40 Go through the data set given below and solve
days to earn Rs. 57,600, if the daily wages for the questions based on it.
a man is four times that of a woman? Following pie chart shows the break-up of
1) 40 2) 35 employees working in various departments of
3) 20 4) 42 an organisation. Table provides the ratio of
men to women. It is given that Total Number
Answer: 1
of Employees = 1800
Explanation:
Daily wages of a woman =
,
∗
= Rs. 9 Percentage Break up of
Daily wages of a man = 4 * 9 = Rs. 36 Marketing employees Accounts
, Dept. Dept.
Therefore, number of men = = = 40
18% 17%
139. A man can row 3/7th of a kilometre upstream
in 36 minutes and return in 12 minutes. Find
the speed of the water current
1) 1/3 kmph 2) 5/7 kmph IT Dept.
23% Producti
3) 2/9 kmph 4) 4/9 kmph on Dept.
Answer: 2 28%
HR Dept.
Explanation: 14%
Upstream speed = (3/7) (36/60) = (5/7) kmph
Ratio of Men to Women
Downstream speed = (3/7) (12/60) = (15/7)
kmph Department Men Women
Speed of the water current = (1/2) [(15/7) – Production 11 1
(5/7)] = (5/7) kmph HR 1 3
140. In a 750 m race, the ratio of speeds of two IT 5 4
runners A and B is 2 : 3. A has a head start of
Marketing 7 5
150 m. Who wins the race and by what
distance? Accounts 2 7
1) B wins the race by 20 meters 141. What is the number of men working in the
2) A wins the race by 120 meters Marketing department?
3) B wins the race by 100 meters 1) 132 2) 174
4) A wins the race by 110 meters 3) 126 4) 189
Answer: 3 Answer: 4
Explanation: Explanation:

AMIGOS IAS 48
 Number of men working in the Marketing Number of people working in the Accounts
department department: 306
= 1800 x x = 189 Number of men working in the accounts
department: 68
Total number of employees be 1800
Hence required ratio = 68:306 = 2:9
Production = 504
145. The number of men working the Production
HR = 252
department of the organisation forms what
IT = 414 percentage of total number of employees
Marketing = 324 working in that department? (Rounded off
Accounts = 306 two digits after decimal)
142. The number of women working in the IT 1) 89.76 2) 91.67
department of the Organisation forms 3) 88.56 4) 94.29
approximately what per cent of the total Answer: 2
number of employees in the Organisation
Explanation:
from all departments together?
Required percentage = 11/12 * 100 = 91.67
1) 7 2) 10
3) 19 4) 15
Directions for questions 146 & 147:
Answer: 2
In each question below is given a statement
Explanation:
followed by two courses of action numbered I
Number of women working in IT department and II. You have to assume everything in the
= 1800 x x = 184 statement to be true. Then decide which of
the two suggested courses of action logically
Hence required percentage = x 100 = 10
follows for pursuing.
Given Answers
143. What is the respective ratio of the number of 146. Statement:
women working in the HR department of the
A lot of unscrupulous and non-affiliated
organisation and the total number of
colleges have started to lure unsuspecting
employees in the department?
students by giving attractive advertisements.
1) 3:4 2) 2:5
Courses of Action
3) 2:9 4) 3:7
I. Students should make appropriate enquiries
Answer: 1 while enrolling in any course.
Explanation: II. The government should initiate strict action
Total number of employees in the department against such college authorities.
= 252 1) If only I follows
Number of women working in the HR 2) If only II follows
department = 252 * ¾ = 189
3) If both I and II follow
Ratio of women working the HR to total
4) If neither I nor II follows
number of employees = 189 : 252
Answer: 3
Hence the required ratio = 3:4
Explanation:
144. What is the respective ratio of the number of
Both the courses of action are logical and
men working in the Accounts department to
the total number of employees working that recommended in the given situation.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
department?
1) 9:2 2) 7:6 147. Statement:
3) 2:9 4) 6:7 The U.S. and its allies have been claiming that
Iran is developing dangerous chemical,
Answer: 3
biological and nuclear weapons.

AMIGOS IAS 49
 Courses of Action I. The University authorities have never
I. The international community should boycott taken such strong actions earlier.
Iran. II. The examination administration
II. The U.S. should wage war against Iran just committee had prior knowledge about this
as it did against Iraq a few years ago. issue.
1) If only I follows Answer: 4
2) If only II follows Explanation :
3) If both I and II follow Neither assumption is implied.
4) If neither I nor II follows 150. Obtain the missing term B, G, K, ?
Answer: 4 1) N 2) P
Explanation: 3) M 4) L
Neither course of action is logical because Answer: 1
both are too drastic just on the basis of Explanation:
claims made by one party against the  The series is defined by the 2nd, 7th, 11th
other. Hence, option (d) is correct. term of the alphabet. Hence, the next
Directions for questions 148 & 149: term would be the 14th term i.e., N. Option
In each question below is given a statement (a) is the correct answer.
followed by two assumptions numbered I and
II. Consider the statement and decide which of
the given assumption is implicit.
Given answer
148. Statement:
It is clear from the past records of the gym that
most people who exercise at the gym regularly
maintain the perfect correlation between
height and weight.
Assumptions
I. Exercise at the gym is essential for everyone.
II. If one wants to have weight according to his
height, he should exercise at the gym
regularly.
1) If only assumption I is implicit.
2) If only assumption II is implicit.
3) If both I and II are implicit.
4) If neither I nor II is implicit.
Answer: 4
Explanation:
There could be many different ways of
maintaining the perfect correlation
between height and weight. Neither
assumption is valid.
149. Statement:
Many students were caught red-handed and
rusticated while using unfair means during the
recent university examinations.
Assumptions

AMIGOS IAS 50