Key - 2544436 - 2024-02-22 06 - 26 - 13 +0000-1

NEET Level Test (25- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Feb-24) 8527521718
Physics - Section A If V = −5 V and V = +5 V, then:

A
1. D conducts, D cuts off

1
B
The wavelength of Lyman series of hydrogen atom 2. D conducts, D cuts off

1 2 1
3. Both D , D conduct
1 2
appears in:
4. Both D , D cut off
1. visible region
1 2
2. far infrared region Diodes are identical and ideal. The load resistor
4 D1 , D2
3. ultraviolet region
(100 Ω) is connected between C and the ground. The input
4. infrared region
voltages are applied at A, B.
2 Diodes D1 , D2 are identical and ideal. The load resistor

If an AC-voltage of 5 V peak value is applied between A and

B, the current i will have the variation as in:
If V = +5 V and
A VB = −5 V, the current i through the
resistor will be:
1. 0.05 A 2. −0.05 A
3. 0.1 A 4. −0.1 A 1. 2.
3 Diodes D1 , D2 are identical and ideal. The load resistor

3. 4.
Page: 1
Feb-24) 8527521718
5 A ray of light is incident onto the surface of a medium, at 8 A circuit has two p-n junctions which are to be connected
an angle of incidence θ, in air. The reflected and refracted rays in series or in parallel. Which connection will allow current to
are at right angles to each other. Then, flow through whether V > V or V > V ?
A B B A
1.
2.
3.
1. μ = tan θ
2. μ = sin θ 4.
3. μ = cos θ
4. μ = cot θ
Consider the following statements regarding 9 Given below are two statements:
6
photoelectric effect and choose the correct option: Light waves of two different wavelengths, if
Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave allowed to superpose on a screen, will form
Statement I: Assertion (A):
nature of light. an interference pattern but it will change with
time.
The number of photoelectrons emitted is
Statement II: Light waves show interference and
proportional to the frequency of incident light. Reason (R):
diffraction.
1. Only Statement I is correct.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
2. Only Statement II is correct. 1.
explanation of (A).
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
4. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct. 2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
7 Light travels a distance x in time t1 in air and 10x in
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
time t in another denser medium. What is the critical angle
2
for this medium? Photons having an energy of eV are incident on

10
+
60 He
10t1
1. sin −1
( )
t2 ions in their ground state. As a result,
t2
2. sin −1
(
t1
) 1. no photons are absorbed by the ions
10t2 some photons are absorbed, and re-emitted without any
3. sin −1
( ) 2.
t1 change in the energy of the ions or photons
t
4. sin 3. all photons are completely absorbed by the ions

−1 1
( )
10t2
4. some photons are absorbed, and electrons emitted
11 Choose the incorrect statement about light-emitting

diodes (LED):
1. This is a p-n junction in forward biasing.
2. Usually, it is prepared from Gallium-arsenide-phosphide.
3. It can be prepared from Si or Ge.
4. p-layer is kept in the uppermost portion.
Page: 2
Feb-24) 8527521718
12 If the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in a Bohr 15 Two waves from coherent sources meet at a point in a
orbit be λ B, then the total energy in the nth orbit is: phase difference of ϕ and path difference Δx. Both waves
1 have same intensities I . Based on this information, match
0
1. ∝ λB 2. ∝
λ column-I and column-II:
B
1
Column-I Column-II
3. ∝ λ
2
4. ∝
2 λ
B λ
B a. If Δx = 3
(p) resultant intensity will be 3I 0
b. If ϕ = 60 ∘
(q) resultant intensity will be I
The variation of stopping potential (V ) with frequency
0
13 s
c. If Δx =
λ
(r) resultant intensity will be zero
(ν ) for a photosensitive material is correctly shown in which 4
of the following graphs? d. If ϕ = 90 ∘

(s) resultant intensity will be 2I 0
1. a(q), b(p), c(s), d(s)

2. a(s), b(p), c(s), d(q)
3. a(q), b(s), c(s), d(p)
1. 2. 4. a(s), b(r), c(q), d(r)
16 A magnifying glass is held in front of a manuscript and it

is observed that the letters are enlarged by 5 times (linearly).
The focal length of the lens is 5 cm. The lens is held at a
distance of (from the manuscript):
1. 1 cm
2. 4 cm
3. 4. 3. 6 cm
4. 1.25 cm
17 The de-Broglie wavelength of a body of mass 1 kg

moving with velocity 2000 m/s is:
14 With the increase in wavelength of the interfering beam, 1. 3.32 × 10 Å−27
the fringe width in Young's double-slit experiment: 2. 1.6 × 10 Å

7
1. decreases 3. 0.55 × 10 Å
−22
2. increases 4. none of the above

3. remains the same
18 During which one of the following events do the atomic
4. can increase or can decrease
number and the mass number of the emitting nuclei, both
change?
1. α-decay
2. β-decay
3. γ-emission
4. neutron-emission
19 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 10

14
Hz is
produced by a laser. The energy of a photon of this light beam
will be: (Take h = 6.63 × 10 J-s)
−34
1. 3.98 × 10 J
−16
2. 3.98 × 10 J
−17
3. 3.98 × 10 J
−18
4. 3.98 × 10 J
−19
Page: 3
Feb-24) 8527521718
20 The radius of the innermost electron orbit in the 1. D = D 1 + D2
2. D = D − D2
hydrogen atom is m. What is the radius of the
−11 1
5.3 × 10
D +D
1 2
third orbit? 3. D = 2
1. 11.3 × 10 −11
m D1 −D2
4. D =
2. 12.9 × 10 −11
m 2
3. 15.9 × 10 −11
m
25 A ray of light falling on a 2
∘
-prism (thin prism)
4. 47.7 × 10 −11
m
undergoes a 3 -deviation on the first surface and no deviation
∘
21 The nuclear radius of which of the following nuclei is on the second. The refractive index of the material of the
approximately twice that of deuterium ( 2
? prism is:
1H )
1. 1.5
1. H e 4
2
2. 1.75
2. Li 8
3
3. 2.0
3. Be 8
4
4. 2.5
4. O 8
16
26 A divergent beam ∘
(3 ) of light is incident onto a thin 2
∘
22 A convex lens of focal length, f and refractive index, μ

g
glass prism (μ = 1.5) in air; the rays emerge after refraction.

is immersed in a transparent liquid having a refractive index,
The emerging rays will:
μ . If μ > μ , then:
l l g
1. f will not change

2. f will increase
3. convex lens will behave as a diverging lens (concave lens)
4. convex lens will behave as a glass slab
23 Photons, emitted by excited hydrogen atoms undergoing

the transition corresponding to the 1st line of the Balmer
series, are incident on a photocathode whose work-function is
1 eV. As a result,
electrons emitted have a maximum kinetic energy of

1. 1. diverge at 4 ∘
0.9 eV
electrons emitted have a maximum kinetic energy of 2. diverge at 2 ∘
2. 3. diverge at 3 ∘
2.9 eV
electrons emitted have a maximum kinetic energy of 4. be rendered parallel

3.
1.9 eV
4. electrons are not emitted 27 A converging lens is placed near a small object, but the
image appears to be extremely large. A second identical lens is
24 If two thin prisms, made of the same material, are placed placed just behind the first one and very close to it. The final
back-to-back but in opposite sense then their net deviation image will be:
(D) will be related to the individual deviations (D , D ) by: 1 2
1. real and magnified
2. real and diminished
3. real and of the same size
4. virtual
28 A source of light is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a

photocell and the stopping potential is found to be V . If the 0
distance between the light source and photocell is made 25

cm, the new stopping potential will be:
1. V /2
0
2. V 0
3. 4V 0
4. 2V 0
Page: 4
Feb-24) 8527521718
29 Given below are two statements: 33 A thin biconvex lens is cut into four parts, which are
Binding energy per nucleon for nuclei (atomic rearranged as shown in the figure. If the power of the lens is
Assertion (A): number 30 to 107) is independent of atomic P , the power of the combination after rearranging will be:
number.
Reason (R): Nuclear force is short-range force.
1.
explanation of (A).
2.
explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
30 A polariser and an analyser are inclined to each other at

1. P
an angle θ. If the intensity of polarised light emerging from 2. 2P
analyser is I then the intensity of unpolarized light incident
0 3. 4P
on the polariser will be: 4. zero
I I
1. 2.
0 0
cos
2
θ 2 cos
2
θ
34 A refracting telescope consists of an objective lens
2I I
3.
0
4. 0
cos
2
θ
(O, focal length f ) and an eyepiece (E, focal length f )
O E
2 2
cos θ
placed co-axially, with a separation d. The object is at infinity
and the image formed by the objective lens is viewed through
31 A ray of light is incident on the spherical interface
the eyepiece: the eye being placed just behind the eyepiece, E.
separating two media: medium-1 (refractive index-μ ) and 1
medium-2 (refractive index-μ ). It travels parallel to the

2
principal axis, undergoes two consecutive reflections and then

emerges opposite to its initial direction. The centre-of-
curvature (C) and the pole (P ) are shown in the figure.
The magnification of this telescope, when the final image is at

infinity, is:
f
O
1.
f
E
f
2. 1+
O
fE
d
3.
f
O
fE
The angle of incidence of the ray at the surface is: 4.

f
O
1. 0
∘
2. 90
∘
3. 45
∘
4. 135
∘
35 If, in a nuclear fusion reaction, the mass defect is 0.25%
th
then the energy released in the fusion of 1 kg mass is:
32 The time period of revolution of the electron in the n
1. 22.5 × 10 J 11
2. 28 × 10 J 12
Bohr orbit is proportional to: 3. 4.

22.5 × 10
13
J 28 × 10
14
J
1. n
3/2
2. n
3
3. n
−3
4. n
−1/3
Page: 5
Feb-24) 8527521718
Physics - Section B 37 The output (Y ) of the digital logic circuit shown in the
diagram is:
36 Which, of the following circuits, can be used for
measuring the stopping potential?
1.
1. A AND B AND C 2. (A AND B) OR C
3. B OR C 4. none of these
38 In an experiment on the photoelectric effect, photons

incident onto a photocathode cause the emission of electrons;
and these electrons move in circular paths in a uniform
magnetic field B, with a maximum radius R. The work
function of the photocathode is ϕ . e denotes the charge on
W
2. the electron and m its mass.

The maximum possible energy of the emitted electron is:
2 2
(eBR) (eBR)
1. 2.
2m m
(eBR) eBR
3. 4.
m 2m
39 In an experiment on the photoelectric effect, photons

incident onto a photocathode cause the emission of electrons;
and these electrons move in circular paths in a uniform
3. magnetic field B, with a maximum radius R. The work
function of the photocathode is ϕ . e denotes the charge on
W
the electron and m its mass.

The energy of the incident photon is:
2 2
(eBR) (eBR)
1. ϕ − 2. ϕ +
W W
2m 2m
eBR eBR
3. ϕ
W
− 4. ϕ
W
+
2m 2m
4.
Page: 6
Feb-24) 8527521718
40 In a Zener-diode circuit which is setup properly to 43 A Young's double-slit experiment is set up, as shown in
provide a constant current through a 1 kΩ load resistor (R ), L the figure. The fringes formed on the screen are indicated by
an additional p-n diode (D) is to be connected. The rest of the the variation in intensity. The notation used is standard. The
circuit is NOT SHOWN. Which, of the connections, will still fringes, each, subtend an angle of 1 at the location of the
∘
maintain a constant current through R ? L

double-slit. The wavelength of light (λ) is:
πd 180d
1. 2.
180 π
D d
3. 180
4.
180
1. A 2. B
3. either A or B 4. neither A nor B 44 A parallel beam of light is brought to focus on its axis at
F, by a lens, as shown in the figure. The focal length of the
41 A small luminous body (S) is located at the bottom of a
lens is f . The intensity of the refracted beam is proportional
pool of liquid of refractive index =√3, and depth 2 m, and to:
emits light in all directions. What is the radius of circular area (x is the distance from lens where intensity is measured)
of light formed at the surface?
1. x 2
1
2.
1. 1 m 2. 1.2 m x
2
3. √2 m 4. √3 m 3. (f − x) 2
1
4. 2
(f −x)
42 Hole current in a semiconductor is due to the:

1. movement of valence electrons 45 The band gap between the valence band and the
2. movement of conduction electrons conduction band in a certain material is 3 eV. What is the
3. movement of positrons longest wavelength of light that can create an electron-hole
4. movement of positive ions pair in the material, with the electron in the conduction band
and the hole in the valence band? (Take hc=1240 eV-nm.)
1. 414 nm 2. 300 nm
3. 830 nm 4. 207 nm
Page: 7
Feb-24) 8527521718
46 In which of the following circuits is the current through

48 The dopant that can be used to produce p -type
the resistor (R) always in the same direction (during both
cycles), when AC-voltage is applied across A, B? semiconductors is:
1. Arsenic 2. Aluminium
3. Antimony 4. Phosphorus
49 An electrical device which offers a low resistance to the

current in one direction but high resistance to the current in
opposite direction is called:
1. resistor
2. capacitor
3. inductor
4. diode
1. A 50 Consider the logical expression:

2. B (A OR B) AND (A OR C), where A = TRUE, B = FALSE
3. Both A & B and C can be either TRUE or FALSE, then the value of the
4. Neither A nor B expression,
1. is TRUE
47 The truth table of the given circuit is:
2. is FALSE
3. can be either TRUE or FALSE
4. is neither TRUE nor FALSE
Chemistry - Section A
51 A sample of 0.50 g of an organic compound was treated
A B Y
according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved was
1 0 1 absorbed in 50 mL of 0.5 M H SO . The residual acid
2 4
1. 0 0 0 required 60 mL of 0.5 M solution of NaOH for neutralization.

1 1 1 The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound is:
1. 52%
0 1 1
2. 61%
3. 56 %
A B Y
4. 54 %
1 0 1
2. 0 0 0
1 1 0
0 1 1
A B Y
1 0 1
3. 0 0 1
1 1 1
0 1 1
A B Y
1 0 0
4. 0 0 0
1 1 0
0 1 0
Page: 8
Feb-24) 8527521718
52 The number of compounds that give iodoform test 54 The correct match of column I (chemicals) with column
among the following compounds, is/are: II (used to detect a functional group) is:
Column I Column II
Chemicals Detection
Ammoniacal Detect or confirm the position of the
a. solution of (p) double
silver nitrate bond
b. I /N aOH (q) Presence of a strongly acidic group
2
Presence of acetylene group or CHO

c. N aH CO (r)
3
group
Presence of
−CH − CH3
d. Ozonolysis (s)
|
OH
a b c d
1. r p q s
1. 3
2. q s p r
2. 2
3. 1 3. r s q p
4. 4 4. s q p r
53 Match Column-I (vitamins) with Column-II (disease 55 Which of the following vitamins is helpful in delaying
caused by the deficiency of Vitamins given in Column I): blood clotting?
Column I Column II 1. Vitamin C
(Vitamins) (Diseases) 2. Vitamin B
(A) Vitamin A (p) Scurvy 3. Vitamin E
4. Vitamin K
(B) Vitamin B 2 (Riboflavin) (q) Xerophthalmia
(C) Vitamin B1(Thiamine) (r) Cheilosis 56 Choose the correct match of the reactions given in
(D) Vitamin C (s) Beri Beri Column I with the statements given in Column II
1. A(q); B(r); C(s); D(p) Column I Column II
2. A(r); B(q); C(p); D(s)
3. A(q); B(r); C(p); D(s) Test to distinguish 3o, 2o, and
(A) Ammonolysis (p) o
4. A(p); B(r); C(s); D(q) 1 alcohols
Gabriel phthalimide Test to distinguish 3o, 2o, and
(B) (q) o
synthesis 1 amines
Reaction of phthalimide with
(C) Lucas Reagent (r)
KOH and R-X
Reaction of alkyl halides with
(D) Hinsberg’s reagent (s)
N H3
1. (A)-(q), (B)-(r), (C)-(p), (D)-(s)

2. (A)-(p), (B)-(q), (C)-(r), (D)-(s)
3. (A)-(s), (B)-(r), (C)-(p), (D)-(q)
4. (A)-(r), (B)-(s), (C)-(p), (D)-(q)
Page: 9
Feb-24) 8527521718
57 Aniline is reacted with bromine water, and the resulting 63 The most suitable reagent for the conversion of 2-
product is treated with an aqueous solution of sodium nitrite in phenylpropanamide into 1-phenylethylamine is:
the presence of dilute HCl. The compound so formed is 1. H2, Pd/C
converted into a tetrafluoroborate diazonium salt, which is 2. Br2, NaOH
subsequently heated to dryness. The final product is: 3. LiAlH4, Et2O
1. 2,4,6-Tribromofluorobenzene 4. NaBH4, MeOH
2. 1,3,5-Tribromofluorobenzene
3. p-Bromoaniline A biomolecule gives the following observations:
4. o-Bromofluorobenzene
64
(i) With Br2/H2O, it gives monocarboxylic acid
58 Aniline in a set of reactions (as captured below) yielded a (ii) With acetate, it gives tetraacetate
product D. (iii) With HI/Red P, it gives isopentane
The correct structure of the biomolecule, from the following,
is:
The structure of the product D would be: 1. 2.

1. C6H5CH2NH2
2. C6H5NHCH2CH3
3. C6H5NHOH
4. C6H5CH2OH
59 A molecule, among the following, capable of showing

tautomerism is: 3. 4.
1. R CNO
3 2
2. RCH NO 2 2
3. (CH ) N H 3 2
4. (CH ) CN O 3
3
The most stable diazonium salt among the following is : 65 Consider the following statements about sucrose:
60
1. p‐Nitrobenzene‐diazonium chloride a: It is a dextrorotary compound.
2. 2,4‐Dinitrobenzene‐diazonium chloride It is composed of α − D−Glucose and β − D− Fructose
b:
3. 2,4,6‐Trinitrobenzene‐diazonium chloride units
4. p‐Methoxybenzene‐diazonium chloride c: It reduces Tollens' reagent.
The correct statements are:
61 Which set of reactants among the following produces
1. (a) and (b) only 2. (b) and (c) only
anisole? 3. (a) and (c) only 4. (a), (b), and (c)
1. CH3CHO, RMgX
2. C6H5OH, NaOH, CH3I The correct set of ascending order of boiling points for
66
3. C6H5OH, neutral FeCl3
the following three organic compounds is:
4. C6H5-CH3, CH3COCl, AlCl3
A: Butanamine
B: N,N-Dimethylethanamine
62 Which compound, among the following, gives a red
C: N-Ethylethanamine
precipitate upon reaction with copper sulphate and sodium 1. C < B < A
tartrate? 2. A < B < C
1. CH CH O3 3. A < C < B
2. CH COCH
3 3 4. B < C < A
3. CH COOH
3
4. C H COOH
2 5
Page: 10
Feb-24) 8527521718
67 Identify X & Y in the following reaction: 69 Choose the wrong match among the following:
4-Hydroxy-3-
1. -
methoxybenzaldehyde
5-Methylcyclohexane-
2. -
carbaldehyde
1.
3. - 2-(2-Chlorophenyl)ethanal
2.
4. - Penta-1, 4-dien-3-one
3.
70 The number of C-atoms in the second member of an ester

4.
are:
1. 2
2. 3
68 Which, among the following, diazonium chlorides 3. 4
undergoes coupling reaction most readily? 4. 5
71 Given is a reaction for your reference:
1. 2.
The final product [C] is:
3. 4. 1. 2.
3. 4.
Page: 11
Feb-24) 8527521718
72 Which compound among the following exhibits the 76 Grignard reagent and organolithium compounds react
fastest rate of dehydration? with dry ice separately. Hydrolysis of the products from these
two reactions will give:
1. Ketones and carboxylic acids, respectively.
2. Carboxylic acids and ketones, respectively.
3. Only carboxylic acids
1. 2. 4. Only ketones
77 What is the reason for the lower solubility of phenol in

water?
1. non-polar nature of phenol
2. Acidic nature of -OH group
3. non-polar hydrocarbon part in phenol
4. None of the above
3. 4.
78 The correct order of stability among the following is:
1.
73 Choose the correct match of List I (name reaction) and
List II (reagent used in name reaction given in List I):
List – I List – II 2.
P. Clemmensen's reduction i. Conc. KOH
Q. Reimer-Tiemann reaction ii. Br2/NaOH
R. Cannizzaro's reaction iii. CHCl3/KOH 3.
Hoffmann bromamide degradation
S. iv. Zn −Hg/HCl
reaction 4. Both (1) & (3)
1. P–(i), Q–(ii), R–(iii), S–(iv)
2. P–(iv), Q–(iii), R–(i), S–(ii) 79 Positional isomers among the following are:
3. P–(ii), Q–(iii), R–(iv), S–(i)
(I) CH = CH − CH = CH
4. P–(iii), Q–(iv), R–(i), S–(ii)
2 2
(II) CH − CH − C ≡ CH
3 2
(III) CH − C ≡ C − CH
74 The compound, among the following, that has the highest 3 3
1. I, II
pKa is: 2. I, III
1. CH COOH
3 3. II, III
2. H COOH 4. None of the above
3. C H COOH
6 5
4. (CH ) CH COOH
3 2 80
Select the correct option based on the statements below: Assertion Anilinium chloride is more acidic than
75 (A): ammonium chloride.
The bond angle in ethers is slightly less than Reason (R): Anilinium ion is resonance-stabilised.
Assertion (A):
the angle of tetrahedral.
There is repulsion between the two bulky Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
Reason (R): 1.
(— R) groups. explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 2.
1. explanation of (A).
explanation of (A). 3. (A) is True statement but (R) is False.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 4. Both (A) and (R) are False statements.
2.
explanation of (A).
Page: 12
Feb-24) 8527521718
81 IUPAC name of the given compound is: 84 Which of the following characteristics correctly describes
the differences between structural (constitutional) isomers?
I: These compounds may have different carbon skeletons.
Chemical properties are altered due to the differences in
II:
functional groups.
Functional groups may occupy different positions on the
III:
carbon skeleton.
1. 5-Oxo-2-methyl hexanoic acid.
2. 2-Methyl-5-oxohexanoic acid. 1. I only 2. II and III only
3. 5-Oxo-2-methyl pentatonic acid. 3. I and III only 4. I, II, and III
4. 5-Carboxy-2-oxohexane.
85 Purine base among the following is:
82 Reagents that can be used to convert alcohols to
1. Guanine
carboxylic acids are: 2. Cytosine
(A) CrO3 - H2SO4 3. Thymine
(B) K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 4. Uracil
(C) KMnO4 + KOH/H3O+
(D) Cu, 573 K Chemistry - Section B
(E) CrO3+ (CH3CO)2O
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given 86
below:
Assertion CCl4 does not give a white precipitate with
1. (B), (C) and (D) only 2. (B), (D) and (E) only
(A): AgNO3.
3. (A), (B) and (C) only 4. (A), (B) and (E) only
Reason (R): CCl4 is a covalent compound.
83 Match the following:

Column I Column II 1.
explanation of (A).
Reaction Product/colour
Yellow ppt of 2.
a. N a2 [F e(CN )5 N O] + N a2 S → (p) explanation of (A).
(N H4 )3 P O4 .12M oO3
3. (A) is a True statement but (R) is False.
Blue colour due
b. N aSCN + F eCl3 → (q) 4. Both (A) and (R) are False statements.
to F e [F e(CN ) ]
4 6 3
Blood red colour Given below is a reaction sequence:

c. N a4 [F e(CN )6 ] + F e
3+
→ (r)
due to F e(SCN ) 3
87
N aCN H2 /N i
H N O3 Violet colour due CH3 CH2 Cl −−−−→ X −−−−→ Y

d. (s)
N a3 P O4 + (N H4 )2 M oO4 −−−
− →
to N a [F e(CN ) N OS]
4 5 Acetic Anhydride
Y −−−−−−−−−→ Z
Z in the above reaction is:

1. (a) → (q), (b) → (r), (c) → (p), (d) → (s)
1. CH3CH2CH2NHCOCH3
2. (a) → (s), (b) → (r), (c) → (q), (d) → (p) 2. CH3CH2CH2NH2
3. (a) → (p), (b) → (q), (c) → (r), (d) → (s) 3. CH3CH2CH2CONHCH3
4. (a) → (r), (b) → (p), (c) → (s), (d) → (q) 4. CH3CH2CH2CONHCOCH3
Page: 13
Feb-24) 8527521718
88 Which compound among the following will have the 91 The vitamins that can be stored in our body are:
least value of dipole moment? 1. Vitamin A, B, D and E
2. Vitamin A, C, D and K
3. Vitamin A, B, C and D
4. Vitamin A, D, E and K
1. 2. 92 The open structure of glucose cannot be established by:

1. HCN
2. Schiff’s test
3. Hydroxylamine test
4. Reaction with HI
93
x
CH3 − CH2 − CH = CH2 ⟶ CH3 CH2 − CH2 − CH2 OH
The suitable reagent x in the above reaction is:

3. 4.
1. H /Pt
2
2. B H |THF, H O | OH
2 6 2 2
−
3. Br /HCl
2
4. HBr/H O 2 2
94 A polar protic solvent among the following is:

89 The correct order of nucleophilic substitution, for the
1. Acetone
following compounds, when reacted with NaOH is:
2. DMF
3. Ethanol
4. CCl4
95
In DNA molecules, the sugar moiety is β-D-2-
Statement I:
deoxyribose.
In RNA molecules, the sugar moiety is β-D-2-
Statement II:
1. A > B > C > D arabinose.
2. D > C > A > B
3. D > C > B > A 1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. A > B > D > C 2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the given 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
90
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
below molecule:
96 In the given compound, how would you classify the

position of -Br?
I: The molecule is a carbohydrate.

II: The stereochemical designation of the molecule is D.
The molecule rotates polarized light either in clockwise
III: 1. Benzyl
or in anti-clockwise direction.
2. Allyl
1. I only 3. Vinyl
2. II only 4. Alkyl
3. I, and II only
4. I, II, and III
Page: 14
Feb-24) 8527521718
97 Identify the major product obtained in the following

Biology I - Section A
reaction:
101 Bacillus thuringiensis is a:
Gram negative pathogen causing serious infections in
1.
humans
2. Bio-insecticide
3. Model organism for studying developmental genetics
4. Pro-biotic
1. 2. The restriction endonuclease enzymes have been

102
isolated from:
1. Bacteria 2. Yeasts
3. Algae 4. Fungi
3. 4.
103 RNAi has been used as a novel strategy in tobacco
plants to make them:
1. enriched with nutrients
The name of the given compound is : 2. produce more tobacco per plant
98 3. drought resistant
4. pest resistant
104 The activated sludge process in sewage treatment is a

type of:
1. Catechol
1. Filtration process
2. Resorcinol
2. Disinfection
3. Hydroquinone
3. Biological treatment
4. Cresol
4. Sedimentation process
99 The correct representation of the chemical formula for

105 Consider the two statements:
freon gas from the options given below is:
1. C2Cl2F4 I: Pacific salmon fishes breed only once in their lifetime.
2. C2F2H4 Most birds and mammals breed many times during their
II:
3. CHF3 lifetime.
4. CCl2F2 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
The least basic compounds/species among the following 3. Both I and II are correct
100 4. Both I and II are incorrect
is:
106 The primary objective of anaerobic sludge digestion in
1. 2. sewage treatment is:

1. removal of nutrients from the polluted water
2. methane production
3. disinfection
4. promotion of growth of algae and cyanobacteria
3. 4.
107 In agar gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are

separated on the basis of their difference in:
1. Charge 2. Size
3. Shape 4. Colour
Page: 15
Feb-24) 8527521718
108 Which ecological pyramid can never be inverted in any 115 What can be predicted about the growth status in
natural ecosystem? coming future of the population for which the age sex pyramid
1. Pyramid of numbers is shown below?
2. Pyramid of biomass
3. Pyramid of energy
4. All ecological pyramids can be inverted
109 In their interactions with each other, both the species:

I: benefit in mutualism
II: lose in competition
1. Only I is correct 1. It will remain stable
2. Only II is correct 2. It will grow in size
3. Both I and II are correct
3. It will decline in size
4. Both I and II are incorrect
4. Nothing can be predicted on the basis of the given pyramid
110 An attribute present only in a population and not in an
116 Toddy, a traditional drink of some parts of southern
individual will be:
1. Birth 2. Death India is made by fermenting sap from:
1. Barley
3. Sex 4. Sex ratio
2. Potato
3. Rice
111 Mycorrhizal symbiotic fungi in plant roots primarily
4. Palm
help in:
1. Nitrogen fixation 117 If in a pond, there were 20 lotus plants last year and 8
2. Phosphate absorption
plants died in a year, taking the current population to 12, the
3. Photosynthesis
death rate of lotus plants in this pond will be:
4. Bicontrol
1. 8 offspring per lotus per year
What specific role the symbiotic microbes like 2. 12 offspring per lotus per year
112
3. 0.8 offspring per lotus per year
Rhizobium play in agriculture?
They facilitate nitrogen absorption by the leaves of the 4. 0.4 offspring per lotus per year
1.
plants
118 During decomposition of detritus, water-soluble
2. They perform biological nitrogen fixation
3. They carry out denitrification inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get
precipitated as unavailable salts by a process called:
4. They enable plants to assimilate nitrogen efficiently
1. Catabolism 2. Leaching
3. Chelation 4. Ion exchange
113 Alexander von Humboldt:
was German and worked in South America and gave Citric acid, used in the food and beverage industry, is
1.
species-area relationship
119
commercially produced with the help of:
was French and worked in South East Asia and gave
2. 1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
species-area relationship
2. Lactobacillus
was English and worked in South East Asia and gave 3. Aspergillus niger
3.
resource partitioning concept 4. Streptococcus thermophilus
was Spanish and worked in South America and gave
4.
character displacement concept 120 An estimate by Robert May puts the number of species,
global species diversity, at:
114 A functional unit of nature, where living organisms
1. 3 million 2. 7 million
interact among themselves and also with the surrounding 3. 20 million 4. 30 million
physical environment is called as:
1. Population 2. Biological community
3. Ecosystem 4. Biome
Page: 16
Feb-24) 8527521718
121 What process from the ones given below will lead to an 128 What type of biodiversity are we talking about when we
increase in population size? say India has more than 1000 varieties of mangoes?
I. Natality 1. Genetic diversity
II. Mortality 2. Species diversity
III. Immigration 3. Ecological diversity
IV. Emigration 4. Evolutionary diversity
1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III 129 The most successful plants on Earth are:
3. Only III and IV
1. Algae 2. Angiosperms
4. Only II and IV
3. Bryophytes 4. Ferns and allies
122 The main function of the primary treatment in sewage
treatment plants will be: 130 A herbivore:
1. Biological decomposition I: consumes plants.
2. Removal of suspended solids II: is also called as secondary consumer.
3. Disinfection 1. Only I is correct
4. Nutrient removal 2. Only II is correct
123 What is the approximate share of India in global species 4. Both I and II are incorrect
diversity? During which stage of the PCR is the temperature
1. 2.1 % 2. 5%
131
highest in the apparatus?
3. 8.1 % 4. 11.2 %
1. Denaturation
2. Annealing of primer
124 Decomposition rate:
3. Extension of primer
is slower if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble 4. During all the three stages
I:
substances like sugars.
132 “Two closely related species competing for the same
II: is faster in warm and moist environment.
1. Only I is correct resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively
2.Only II is correct inferior one will be eliminated eventually” – the statement is
3. Both I and II are correct often described as:
1. Gause ‘s competitive exclusion principle
125 After insects and molluscs, the most diverse 2. Connell’s competitive release hypothesis
invertebrates are: 3. McArthur’s resource partitioning hypothesis
1. Cnidarians 2. Echinoderms 4. Humboldt’s species – area relationship
3. Crustaceans 4. Annelids
133 To isolate DNA in a pure form from a bacterial cell, the
126 The source of energy for almost all ecosystems on
bacterial cell must first be treated with:
Earth, ultimately, is: 1. Ice 2. Calcium chloride
1. the sun 2. chemosynthesis 3. Cellulase 4. Lysozyme
3. decomposition 4. water
134 The top vertical stratum of a forest is occupied by:
127 In agriculture, Trichoderma can play an important role
1. Trees 2. Tree dwellers
in: 3. Shrubs 4. Herbs and grasses
1. Antibiotic production
2. Nitrogen fixation The production of Vitamin B12 enriched curd or yogurt
3. Biocontrol of plant pathogens
135
4. Fermentation is carried out by the use of microbe:
1. Lactic Acid Bacillus
2. Saccharomyces
3. Escherichia coli
4. Streptococcus
Page: 17
Feb-24) 8527521718
Biology I - Section B 140 Different techniques in plant tissue culture may offer
certain advantages over traditional methods of propagation,
Tilman in his experiments found that: including:
136
The production of exact copies of plants that produce
Plots with more species showed less year to year variation I:
1. particularly good flowers, fruits, or other desirable traits.
in total biomass.
II: To quickly produce mature plants.
Plots with more species showed more year to year variation
2. III: To produce a large number of plants in a reduced space.
in total biomass.
1. Only I and II
Plots with less species showed less year to year variation in
3. 2. Only I and III
total biomass.
3. Only II and III
There is no relation between species diversity and biomass 4. I, II and III
4.
production.
141 Consider the given two statements:
137 Consider the two statements:
When resources in the habitat are unlimited,
Penicillin was the first antibiotic to be discovered, and it Assertion (A): the population grows in an exponential or
I:
was a chance discovery. geometric fashion.
Full potential of penicillin as an effective antibiotic was When resources in the habitat are unlimited,
II:
established by Alexander Fleming. Reason (R): each species has the ability to realise its
1. Only I is correct innate potential fully and grow in number.
3. Both I and II are correct 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
The number of correct statements from the given explain (A)
138 3. (A) is True, (R) is False
statements is/are:
4. (A) is False, (R) is True
I: Yeast is used for commercial production of ethanol.
Lipases from microbes are used in detergent Consider the given two statements:
II:
formulations.
142
Bottled fruit juices are clearer when clarified by the use Earthworm is considered as enemy of
III: Assertion (A):
of pectinases and proteases derived from microbes. farmers.
1. 0 Reason (R): They loosen off the soil.
2. 1
3. 2 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
4. 3 Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally 4. (A) is False, (R) is True
Assertion (A):
inverted.
The biomass of fishes far exceeds that of 143 Consider the given two statements:
Reason (R):
phytoplankton.
Net primary productivity (NPP) is the amount of
Statement
energy that primary producers create minus the
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) I:
energy they use to grow and survive.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly Statement Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the total
2.
explain (A) II: amount of energy that primary producers create.
3. (A) is True, (R) is False 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. (A) is False, (R) is True 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
Page: 18
Feb-24) 8527521718
144 An upright ecological pyramid with a base wider than 149 There are certain limitations of ecological pyramids
the top will generally signify: which include:
1. Stable ecosystem They do not take into account the same species belonging
2. Unstable ecosystem I:
to two or more trophic levels.
3. Equal distribution of energy II: They do not accommodate a food web.
4. Random distribution of energy
1. Only I is correct
145 Soil bacterium used to transform dicot plant cells in
rDNA procedures is: 4. Both I and II are incorrect
1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. Bacillus thuringiensis 150 Consider the given two statements:
3. Azotobacter
India has more biodiversity than Scandinavian
4. Clostridium tetani Assertion (A):
countries.
Consider the given two statements: In general, there is a decrease in biodiversity
146 Reason (R):
from tropical latitudes to temperate latitudes.
Assertion Tropics have provided more evolutionary time
(A): for species diversification
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
The species diversity in tropics is lower than in
Reason (R): Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
the temperate regions. 2.
explain (A)
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2.
explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False Biology II - Section A
151 Which of the following is not an adverse effect of abuse
147 In plant-animal pollinator mutualistic relationships: of anabolic steroids in females?
1. masculinisation (features like males)
Plants need the help of animals for pollinating their
I: 2. decreased aggressiveness
flowers and dispersing their seeds.
3. mood swings
Plants offer rewards or fees in the form of pollen and 4. abnormal menstrual cycles
II: nectar for pollinators and juicy and nutritious fruits for
seed dispersers.
152 Amongst the recent extinctions, dodo got extinct from:
1. Only I is correct 1. Mauritius 2. Africa
2. Only II is correct 3. Russia 4. Australia
153 AIDS is caused by the Human Immuno deficiency Virus
(HIV), which:
Consider the given two statements: 1. is a member of a group of viruses called reoviruses
148
2. lacks an envelope
Predators keep prey populations under
Assertion (A): 3. has double stranded RNA genome
control.
Predation is nature’s way of transferring to 4. is a member of a group of viruses called retroviruses
Reason(R): higher trophic levels the energy fixed by
plants. 154 The principle of immunisation or vaccination is based
on the property of:
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) I: ‘memory’ of the immune system.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly II: ability to distinguish between self and non-self.
2.
explain (A) 1. Only I
3. (A) is True, (R) is False 2. Only II
4. (A) is False, (R) is True 3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Page: 19
Feb-24) 8527521718
155 A person can get pneumonia by: 163 B lymphocytes:

I: Droplet transmission are of two types, where one is responsible for humoral and
I:
II: Through articles used by an infected person the other for cell mediated immune response.
III: Arthropod vectors II: secrete antibodies into body fluids.
1. Only I and II 1. Only I is correct
2. Only I and III 2. Only II is correct
3. Only II and III 3. Both I and II are correct
4. I, II and III 4. Both I and II are incorrect
156 The vaccine against Hepatitis B virus is: 164 The most important phagocytes in human body include:
1. a live attenuated vaccine 1. Lymphocytes and Acidophils
2. a recombinant vaccine 2. Acidophils and Basophils
3. an oral vaccine 3. Neutrophils and Lymphocytes
4. an intra-nasal vaccine 4. Neutrophils and Monocytes
The exploration, discovery, and commercialization of 165 Which enzyme must not be used when isolating DNA in
157
valuable products or compounds derived from biological pure form from a cellular pool of biomolecules?
resources, particularly those found in nature is called as: 1. DNase 2. RNase
1. Bioremediation 2. Biopiracy 3. Protease 4. Lipase
3. Bioprospecting 4. Biofortification
166 Cirrhosis of liver is a complication most frequently
158 What holds the polypeptide chains in the antibody associated with chronic abuse of:
molecule? 1. Cocaine 2. Atropine
1. Hydrogen bonds 3. Wine 4. Nicotine
2. Van der Waals forces
3. Disulphide bonds The plasmid of which of the following bacteria was
167
4. Hydrophobic interactions
used to produce human insulin?
Unlike pneumonia, common cold virus generally does 1. Salmonella typhimurium
159 2. Klebsiella pneumoniae
not affect: 3. Escherichia coli
1. Lungs 2. Nasal cavity 4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3. Nasopharynx 4. Pharynx
168 Competence can be induced in bacteria by the use of
160 Herbivores, in a broad ecological context, are not very which of the following divalent cations?
different from: 1. Zinc 2. Magnesium
1. predators 2. parasites 3. Iron 4. Calcium
3. commensals 4. decomposers
169 Morphine:
161 Zoological parks and wildlife safari are: I: is derived from Papaver somniferum
1. in-situ methods for conservation of biodiversity II: is a CNS stimulant
2. ex-situ methods for conservation of biodiversity
3. always parts of biosphere reserves 3. Both I and II are correct
solitary secluded areas where human movement is 4. Both I and II are incorrect
4.
forbidden by law
162 The extrachromosomal circular double stranded DNA

found in some bacterial cells and used in rDNA procedures is:
1. Genophore 2. Nucleoid
3. Plasmid 4. Pili
Page: 20
Feb-24) 8527521718
170 Consider the given two statements: 177 The ‘Earth Summit’ was held in:
Benign tumors normally remain confined to their original 1. Ramsar, Iran 2. Rio, Brazil
I: location and do not spread to other parts of the body and 3. Doha, Qatar 4. Geneva, Switzerland
therefore, cause little damage.
The malignant tumors are a mass of proliferating cells 178 A physiological barrier available in innate immune
II: called neoplastic or tumor cells and spread to other parts
response in humans is:
of the body.
1. Skin and mucus membrane
1. Only I is correct 2. Presence of HCl in gastric secretions
2. Only II is correct 3. Phagocytes in tissues
3. Both I and II are correct 4. Secretion of interferons
179 Interferons are produced in our body in response to:
171 The primary lymphoid organs:
1. Viral infection 2. Bacterial infections
I: include spleen and lymph nodes
3. Malignancy 4. Parasitic infections
are the organs where immature lymphocytes differentiate
II:
into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes. Which diagnostic technique uses strong magnetic fields
180
1. Only I is correct and non-ionising radiations to accurately detect pathological
and physiological changes in the living tissue?
1. CT Scan 2. Ultra Sound
3. MRI 4. PET SCAN
181 A phenomenon, where cells cease their movement or

172 When a host is exposed to antigens, which may be in
division when they come into contact with surrounding cells,
the form of living or dead microbes or other proteins, is called as:
antibodies are produced in the host body. This type of
1. Apoptosis 2. Contact inhibition
immunity is called:
1. Cell mediated immunity 3. Transfection 4. Transformation
2. Humoral immunity
3. Active immunity 182 Typhoid fever can be diagnosed by:
4. Passive immunity 1. Widal test 2. Schick test
All the following diseases are caused by a bacterial 3. VDRL test 4. Hemogram
173
pathogen except: In cases of snakebites, the injection which is given to
183
1. Diphtheria 2. Measles
the patients, contains:
3. Typhoid 4. Plague 1. different toxins present in snake venom
2. preformed antibodies against the snake venom
174 What stage of the development of the malarial parasite 3. a cocktail of different antibiotics
is infective to man? 4. adrenaline, noradrenaline and cortisol
1. Merozoite 2. Sporozoite
184 Nile perch has become invasive in:
3. Ookinete 4. Hypnozoite
1. Lake Chilka 2. Lake Wular
175 What class of antibodies are involved in allergic 3. Lake Victoria 4. Lake Sambhar
responses?
185 The first recombinant therapeutic product approved for
1. IgA 2. IgE
3. IgG 4. IgM human use was:
1. Human Growth Hormone
Which of the following is least likely to cause 2. Erythropoietin
176
3. Human insulin
hallucinations? 4. Factor VIII
1. LSD 2. Cocaine
3. Atropine 4. Paracetamol
Page: 21
Feb-24) 8527521718
Biology II - Section B 190 Consider the given two statements:

Gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments
I:
186 Transmission of HIV infection can generally occur by: based on their size.
DNA fragments move through the gel towards the positive
I: sexual contact with infected person II:
electrode because DNA is negatively charged.
II: mere touch or physical contact
III: transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products 2. Only II is correct
1. Only I and II 3. Both I and II are correct
2. Only I and III 4. Both I and II are incorrect
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III 191 Restriction enzymes are named:
Which symbiotic relationship is best defined as a 1. after the scientists who discover them.
187
2. based on the bacteria from which they are derived.
process in which the fitness of one species (measured in terms
of its ‘r’, the intrinsic rate of increase) is significantly lower in 3. after the bacteriophage whose DNA is cut by them.
the presence of another species? There is no convention or principles for naming restriction
4.
1. Competition 2. Amensalism enzymes.
3. Commensalism 4. Mutualism
192 Which subspecies of tiger is not extinct?
188 Consider the given two statements: 1. Bali 2. Javan
The discovery of restriction enzymes led to 3. Caspian 4. Royal Bengal
Assertion (A): the birth of recombinant DNA technology as a
discipline. 193 Consider the given two statements:
Restriction enzymes help in the precise Any subsequent encounter with the same
cleavage of DNA at specific recognition sites, Assertion (A): pathogen elicits a highly intensified secondary
Reason (R):
facilitating the insertion of foreign genes into or anamnestic response in human body.
plasmids. When our body encounters a pathogen for the
Reason (R): first time, it produces a response called
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct primary response which is of low intensity.
1.
explanation for (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2.
explanation for (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
3. (A) is True, but (R) is False. 2.
explain (A)
4. (A) is False, but (R) is True. 3. (A) is True, (R) is False
Temperature is the most important abiotic 194 All the following are biodiversity hotspots in India
Assertion (A):
factor affecting living organisms. except:
Reason (R): Temperature affects enzyme kinetics. 1. Western Ghats 2. Eastern Himalayas
3. Indo-Burma 4. Rann of Kutch
1.
explanation for (A) Regarding Ascariasis:
195
2. I: It is caused by a nematode.
explanation for (A).
II: It is transmitted through arthropod vectors.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 1. Only I is correct
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 2. Only II is correct
Page: 22
Feb-24) 8527521718
196 Sticky ends produced in fragments resulting from the 200 The spleen:
action of restriction enzymes: I: mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes.
1. immobilise the fragments in agar gel. acts as a filter of the blood by trapping blood-borne
II:
help them in attaching to the cellulose membrane in micro-organisms.
2.
southern blot. III: has a large reservoir of erythrocytes
3. facilitate the function of DNA ligase. 1. Only I and II are correct
do not allow insertion of foreign DNA into the vector 2. Only I and III are correct
4.
DNA. 3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct
Assertion (A): Predators in nature are ‘prudent’. Fill OMR Sheet*
Predators keep prey populations under
Reason (R):
control.
*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly for the questions in the test.
2.
explain (A)
198 Consider the given two statements: CLICK HERE to get

Assertion (A):
DNA normally does not pass through the cell
membrane. FREE ACCESS for 2
Reason (R): DNA is a hydrophobic molecule
days of ANY
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
NEETprep course
2.
explain (A).
199 During the progression of HIV infection, when the

population of T helper cells is significantly reduced:
the person suffers from bouts of fever, diarrhoea and
I:
weight loss.
the person starts suffering from infections that could have
II:
been otherwise overcome
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NEET Level Test (25- Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Physics - Section A If V = −5 V and V = +5 V, then:

1. D conducts, D cuts off

The wavelength of Lyman series of hydrogen atom 2. D conducts, D cuts off

2 Diodes D1 , D2 are identical and ideal. The load resistor

If an AC-voltage of 5 V peak value is applied between A and

3 Diodes D1 , D2 are identical and ideal. The load resistor

for this medium? Photons having an energy of eV are incident on

4. sin 3. all photons are completely absorbed by the ions

4. some photons are absorbed, and electrons emitted

11 Choose the incorrect statement about light-emitting

of the following graphs? d. If ϕ = 90 ∘

1. a(q), b(p), c(s), d(s)

16 A magnifying glass is held in front of a manuscript and it

17 The de-Broglie wavelength of a body of mass 1 kg

the fringe width in Young's double-slit experiment: 2. 1.6 × 10 Å

2. increases 4. none of the above

19 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 10

20 The radius of the innermost electron orbit in the 1. D = D 1 + D2

22 A convex lens of focal length, f and refractive index, μ

glass prism (μ = 1.5) in air; the rays emerge after refraction.

1. f will not change

23 Photons, emitted by excited hydrogen atoms undergoing

electrons emitted have a maximum kinetic energy of

electrons emitted have a maximum kinetic energy of 2. diverge at 2 ∘

electrons emitted have a maximum kinetic energy of 4. be rendered parallel

28 A source of light is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a

distance between the light source and photocell is made 25

30 A polariser and an analyser are inclined to each other at

medium-2 (refractive index-μ ). It travels parallel to the

principal axis, undergoes two consecutive reflections and then

The magnification of this telescope, when the final image is at

The angle of incidence of the ray at the surface is: 4.

Bohr orbit is proportional to: 3. 4.

38 In an experiment on the photoelectric effect, photons

2. the electron and m its mass.

39 In an experiment on the photoelectric effect, photons

the electron and m its mass.

maintain a constant current through R ? L

42 Hole current in a semiconductor is due to the:

46 In which of the following circuits is the current through

49 An electrical device which offers a low resistance to the

1. A 50 Consider the logical expression:

1. 0 0 0 required 60 mL of 0.5 M solution of NaOH for neutralization.

Presence of acetylene group or CHO

1. (A)-(q), (B)-(r), (C)-(p), (D)-(s)

The structure of the product D would be: 1. 2.

59 A molecule, among the following, capable of showing

70 The number of C-atoms in the second member of an ester

71 Given is a reaction for your reference:

The final product [C] is:

77 What is the reason for the lower solubility of phenol in

83 Match the following:

Blood red colour Given below is a reaction sequence:

H N O3 Violet colour due CH3 CH2 Cl −−−−→ X −−−−→ Y

Z in the above reaction is:

1. 2. 92 The open structure of glucose cannot be established by:

The suitable reagent x in the above reaction is:

94 A polar protic solvent among the following is:

96 In the given compound, how would you classify the

I: The molecule is a carbohydrate.

97 Identify the major product obtained in the following

1. 2. The restriction endonuclease enzymes have been