Calculus Inverse+Hyperbolic+Functions

Calculus 2 Tutor
Worksheet 4
Inverse Hyperbolic Functions

Worksheet for Calculus 2 Tutor, Section 4:
Inverse Hyperbolic Functions
1. For f (x) = sinh−1 x :

e − 1e

(a) Find f .
2
(b) Find f (0).
(c) Find the domain and range of f (x).
(d) Is f (x) an odd or an even function? That is, is f (−x) = −f (x) (odd) or f (−x) =
f (x) (even)?
c 2018 MathTutorDVD.com 1
(e) Challenge. Find the algebraic expression for y = sinh−1 x. In other words, if
y = sinh−1 x, find y in terms of x. Hint: you may need to use the algebraic substi-
tution of ey = z and then the quadratic formula.
(f) Challenge. Using the results of the previous question, prove that d
dx
sinh−1 x =
√ 1 .
x2 +1
2. For f (x) = tanh−1 x:
(a) Find f (0).
4

(b) Find f 5
. Hint: the answer is of the form ln y for some y.
(c) Find the domain and range of f (x).
(d) Challenge. Find the algebraic expression for y = tanh−1 x. In other words, if
y = tanh−1 x, find y in terms of x.
(e) Challenge. Using the results of the previous question, prove that d
dx
tanh−1 x =
1
1−x2
.
3. Evaluate the following derivatives where they are defined:
(a) d
dx
sinh−1 (x2 )
√
(b) d
dt
cosh−1 t
(c) d
dz
tanh−1 (sin z)
(d) d
da
coth−1 (cot a)
(e) d
dθ
sech−1 (ln θ)

d −1 1
(f) dq
csch q
4. Determine the tangent line to the function at the given points:
(a) The function y = cosh−1 x at x = 5

4
. As a challenge, check your result for
the slope of the line using the formula for the derivative of an inverse function,
d −1 1
dx
f (x)(a) = f 0 (f −1 (a))
.
(b) The function y = sech−1 x at x = 20

101
. As a challenge, check your result for
the slope of the line using the formula for the derivative of an inverse function,
d −1 1
dx
f (x)(a) = f 0 (f −1 (a))
.
5. Prove the following identities about inverse hyperbolic functions:
d −1 1
(a) Using the formula for the derivative of an inverse function dx
f (x)(a) = f 0 (f −1 (a))
,
√
show that cosh(sinh−1 x) = 1 + x2 .
d −1 1
(b) Using the formula for the derivative of an inverse function dx f (x)(a) = f 0 (f −1 (a))
,
√
show that sinh(cosh−1 x) = x2 − 1. Why is this function only defined for x ≥ 1?
Can this be derived using the previous result for cosh(sinh−1 x)?
6. Solve the following indefinite integrals:
√ 1
R
(a) a2 +x2
dx (where a is positive)
√ 1
R
(b) a2 +x2
dx (where a is negative)
1
R
(c) √
M x2 −1
dx (where M is positive)
x
R
(d) 1−x4
dx (in the range where −1 < x < 1)
√ 1
R
(e) e2x +1
dx Hint: use a hyperbolic cosecant substitution.
7. Solve the following definite integrals:

R3
(a) 4 √ 1 dx
0 1+x2
R 3a 1
(b) 2a
q
2 for a positive
( xa ) −1
R ee44 −1
+1 1
(c) 0 1−x2
dx
R∞ 1
(d) e4 +1
1−x2
dx
e4 −1
Answer key.
1. Values of sinh−1 x.
1(a). Answer: 1 . The meaning of

1 1
e− e−

e −1 e
f = sinh
2 2
is the value of y so that
1
e− e
sinh y =
2
The definition of sinh y is
ey − e−y
sinh y =
2
and the equation
1
ey − e−y e− e
=
2 2
has the clear solution y = 1 . That is,
1
e−

−1 e
sinh =1
2
or
1
e− e
sinh 1 =
2
1(b). Answer: 0 . The meaning of
f (0) = sinh−1 0

sinh y = 0
The definition of sinh y is

ey − e−y
sinh y =
2
and the equation
ey − e−y
0=
2
or
ey = e−y
has the clear solution y = 0 . That is,
sinh−1 0 = 0
or
sinh 0 = 0
1(c). Answer: −∞ < x < ∞, −∞ < sinh−1 x < ∞ . The domain and the range of
sinh−1 x are both the entire set of real numbers. The domain of sinh−1 x is the
set of values of x so that sinh−1 x is defined. The expression sinh−1 x is defined if
sinh−1 x = y
for some y. That is, sinh−1 x is defined if
x = sinh y
for some y. As we showed on the last worksheet, the range of sinh y is −∞ <
sinh y < ∞, so sinh y = x can take on all values. Therefore, the domain of sinh−1 x
is −∞ < x < ∞ . The range of sinh−1 x is the set of outputs y so that
sinh−1 x = y
or
x = sinh y
Since the domain of sinh y is −∞ < y < ∞ (and because it is one-to-one as we

showed on the last worksheet), the range of sinh−1 x is −∞ < y < ∞ .
1(d). Answer: this function f (x) = sinh−1 x is odd . To check if it is odd, we check if
sinh−1 (−x) = − sinh−1 x
Then, we take sinh of both sides to check if
−x = sinh − sinh−1 x

Since sinh x is odd, as we showed on the last worksheet, then we need to check
if
−x = − sinh sinh−1 x

which is true. Therefore, the function is odd .
√
1(e). Answer: sinh−1 x = ln x + x2 + 1 . To find the algebraic expression for y =
sinh−1 x, we rewrite it as
sinh y = x
or
ey − e−y
=x
2
We can rewrite this as
e2y − 1 = 2ey x
Making the algebraic substitution ey = z, we can rewrite this as
z 2 − 2zx − 1 = 0
Using the quadratic formula, we see that

√
2x ± 4x2 + 4 √
z= = x ± x2 + 1
2
√
Since z is an exponential, it is certainly positive; but x− x2 + 1 is always negative
so the unique answer is
√
z =x+ x2 + 1
or
√
y = ln x + x2 + 1
√
Thus, sinh−1 x = ln x + x2 + 1 . To check our work, we can check
sinh sinh−1 x = x

That is, we are checking

√ √
eln(x+ x2 +1)
− e− ln(x+ x2 +1)
=x
2
or
√ 1
x+ x2 + 1 − √ = 2x
x + x2 + 1
√
Multiplying by x + x2 + 1, we are checking
√ √
x2 + 2x x2 + 1 + (x2 + 1) − 1 = 2x(x + x2 + 1)
which is true, verifying our answer.
d 1
1(f). Answer: sinh−1 x = √ . Given that
dx x2 + 1
√
sinh−1 x = ln x + x2 + 1
we take the derivative

d √
ln x + x2 + 1
dx
by the chain rule:
√ √

d 1 d
ln x + x2 + 1 = √ x + x2 + 1
dx x + x2 + 1 dx
Again by the chain rule, this interior derivative evaluates to
2x
1+ √
2 x2 + 1
So we see
√

1 d 1 x
√ 2
x+ x +1 = √ · 1+ √
x + x2 + 1 dx x + x2 + 1 x2 + 1
which simplifies to √
1 x2 + 1 + x
√ · √
x + x2 + 1 x2 + 1
or
1
√
x2 + 1
d 1
That is, sinh−1 x = √ .
dx 2
x +1
2. Values of tanh−1 x.
2(a). Answer: 0 . The meaning of
f (0) = tanh−1 0

tanh y = 0
The definition of tanh y is

sinh y
tanh y =
cosh y
For tanh y = 0 we need sinh y = 0. In the last problem we found that
sinh−1 0 = 0
Therefore, y = 0 also has tanh y = 0 and tanh−1 0 = 0 .
2(b). Answer: ln 3 . The meaning of

4 4
f = tanh−1
5 5

4
tanh y =
5
Since
ey − e−y
tanh y =
ey + e−y
we want to find y so that
ey − e−y 4
y −y
=
e +e 5
We want to see if there is an answer so that y = ln z for some z. If so, then
1
z− z 4
1 =
z+ z
5
which reduces to
z2 − 1 4
2
=
z +1 5
That is,
5z 2 − 5 = 4z 2 + 4
or z = 3 (the positive answer is required because y = ln z so z must be positive

for its logarithm to be defined.) Then, we see the answer of y = ln 3 .
2(c). Answer: −1 < x < 1, −∞ < tanh−1 x < ∞ . That is, the domain of the function
is (−1, 1), but the range is (−∞, ∞). The domain of tanh−1 x is the set of values
of x so that
x = tanh y
for some y. On the last worksheet, we proved that
−1 < tanh y < 1
by proving that
tanh y 6= ±1
We can also show that tanh y takes on all values between −1 and 1 by the inter-
mediate value theorem. Therefore, the domain of tanh−1 x is −1 < x < 1 . The
range of tanh−1 x = y is the set of values of y so that tanh−1 x = y; that is, so that
tanh y = x
for some x. Since the domain of tanh is the entire real line, tanh y will always be
equal to some x for any y. Therefore, the range of tanh−1 x is −∞ < tanh−1 x < ∞ .

−1 1 1+x
2(d). Answer: tanh x = ln . If
2 1−x
tanh−1 x = y
this means that

x = tanh y
or
ey − e−y
x=
ey + e−y
Making the substitution
ey = z
we see that
1
z− z
x= 1
z+ z
We simplify and multiply through to see that
(z 2 + 1)x = z 2 − 1
Writing it as a quadratic equation in terms of z, we see that
(x − 1)z 2 + (x + 1) = 0
Simplifying, we see that r

1+x
z=
1−x
Since z = ey this means that

1 1+x
y = ln
2 1−x

−1 −1 1 1+x
Our answer is that the algebraic expresson for tanh x is tanh x = ln .
2 1−x
We can check this by seeing if
tanh tanh−1 x = x
That is, we need to check if
e 2 ln( 1−x ) − e− 2 ln( 1−x )

1 1+x 1 1+x
=x
1
ln( 1−x
1+x
) − 12 ln( 1−x
1+x
)
e 2 +e
Reducing, we need to check if
q q
1+x 1−x
1−x − 1+x
q q =x
1+x 1−x
1−x + 1+x
We can combine the fractions and cancel the denominators to see that we need
to check if p 2 p 2
(1 + x) − (1 − x)
p 2 p 2 = x
(1 + x) + (1 − x)
The fraction reduces to
2x
2
1 1+x

which is indeed equal to x. Lastly, we can verify that the domain of 2
ln 1−x
is
indeed −1 < x < 1 because here (and only here) is the argument of the logarithm
positive.
d 1
2(e). Answer: tanh−1 x = To find the derivative
dx 1 − x2
d
tanh−1 x
dx
we can take the derivative of the logarithmic expression for tanh−1 that we found
in the previous problem:

d 1 1+x
ln
dx 2 1−x
By the chain rule, this is

1 1 d 1+x
1+x

2 1−x
dx 1−x
By the product rule, we can write

d 1 d 1 d 1
(1 + x) = (1 + x) + (1 + x)
dx 1−x dx 1−x dx 1 − x
This simplifies to

1 1
+ (1 + x)
1−x (1 − x)2
which simplifies to
1 − x + (1 + x) 2
2
=
(1 − x) (1 − x)2
Plugging this in, we see that

d 1 1+x 1 1 2
ln = 1+x
·
dx 2 1−x 2 1−x
(1 − x)2
The factor 1 − x cancels and so does the factor 2, leaving us with
1
(1 + x)(1 − x)
d 1
Thus, tanh−1 x =
dx 1 − x2
3. Evaluating derivatives:
2x
3(a). Answer: √ . This problem is a simple application of the chain rule. Taking
1 + x4
the equation
d 1
sinh−1 y = p
dy 1 + y2
dy
we simply substitute in y = x2 and multiply by dx
= 2x. Then we have that
d 1
sinh−1 x2 = √ · 2x
dx 1 + x4
2x
so the answer is √ .
1 + x4
1
3(b). Answer: √ . This problem is also a simple application of the chain rule.
2 t2 − t
Taking the equation
d 1
cosh−1 x = √
dx 2
x −1
√
we simply substitute in x = t and multiply by dxdt
1
= 2√ t
. Then we have that
d √ 1 1
cosh−1 t = q √ · √
dt
t −1 2 t
2
1
We simplify and multiply the denominators to get the answer √ . Note
2 t2 − t
√
that this is only defined for t > 1. For t < 0 the problem is not defined since t is
√
not a real number, and for 0 < t < 1 the argument t of cosh−1 x is less than 1,
which means that cosh−1 x is undefined and there can be no real derivative.
3(c). Answer: sec z . To solve this problem using the chain rule, we first must use the
equation
d 1
tanh−1 x =
dx 1 − x2
Note that this is only defined for −1 < x < 1. The argument sin z satisfies −1 <
π
sin z < 1 everywhere except at z = 2
+ πn for some integer n. Then, by the chain
rule,

d 1 d
tanh−1 (sin z) = · sin z
dz 1 − (sin z)2 dz
Using the basic trigonometric identity 1 − sin2 z = cos2 z, this reduces to
1 1
2
· cos z = .
cos z cos z
π
This is defined everywhere except cos z = 0; that is, z = 2
+ πn which is already
excluded. So the answer is d
dz
tanh−1 (sin z) = sec z .
1
3(d). Answer: . The function coth−1 x is defined for x < −1, x > 1. The
cos2a − sin2 a
function cot a < −1 for − π4 < a < 0 and a shifted from this range by a factor of
π
π; likewise, cot a > 1 for 0 < a < 4
and shifted by a factor of π. This range of a
ensures that coth−1 (cot a) is defined. When it is defined, the derivative of coth−1 x
is
d 1
coth−1 x = .
dx 1 − x2
Then, by the chain rule,
d 1 d
coth−1 (cot a) = · cot a
da 1 − (cot a)2 da
The derivative of cot a is

d
cot a = − csc2 a
da
We can simplify the expression
1 1 1 1
· − csc2 a = − 2a · 2 = .
1 − (cot a)2 cos
1 − sin2 a sin a cos a − sin2 a
2
The points where the denominator is equal to zero, ± π4 , have already been ex-
cluded. So on the range − π4 < a < 0, 0 < a < π
4
and shifted by a factor of π, the
1
answer is .
cos a − sin2 a
2
−1
3(e). Answer: q . The function sech−1 x is defined for 0 < x < 1. The
2
θ ln θ 1 − (ln θ)
function 0 < ln θ < 1 is true for 1 < θ < e. When sech−1 x is defined, its derivative
is
d −1
sech−1 x = √
dx x 1 − x2
By the chain rule,
d −1 d −1
sech−1 (ln θ) = q · ln θ = q
dθ dθ
ln θ 1 − (ln θ)2 θ ln θ 1 − (ln θ)2
−1
This is defined for 1 < θ < e, 0 < ln θ < 1 so it is the answer: q .
2
θ ln θ 1 − (ln θ)
1
3(f). Answer: p . The function csch−1 x is defined for all x 6= 0: if csch−1 x = y,
2
q +1

1 −1 1
then x = sinh y
and the range of sinh y is −∞ < sinh y < ∞. Therefore, csch q
is defined for all q. The derivative

d −1
csch−1 x = √
dx |x| 1 + x2
means that, by the chain rule,

d −1 1 −1 d 1
dq
csch
q
= r 2 · dq q
1 1
q
1+ q
Since
d 1 −1
= 2
dq q q
this simplfies to
|q|
q
q 2 +1
q2 q2
In the case where q is positive, this reduces simply to

1
p
q2 + 1
In the case where q is negative, this can be written as
−1
q
q 2 +1
q q2
1
Factoring the q2
out of the square root, the answer is −q since we factor a positive
number outside of the square root and the answer is again √ 12 . To verify the
q +1
sign of the answer, we note that the derivative of csch−1 x = √1

|x| 1+x2
is positive
for any argument x so our answer should be positive also. So the unique answer
1
is p . This is similar to the derivative of a hyperbolic sine function. If
2
q +1
csch−1 1
q
= y then 1
q
= csch y and q = sinh y. Then, y = sinh−1 q proving that
1
csch−1 = sinh−1 q
q
and the derivative of both functions is the same.
4. Finding tangent lines:

4 5
4(a). Answer: y = x + ln 2 − . To find the tangent line, we need to first find its
3 3
slope, which is given by the derivative. The derivative of cosh−1 x is
d 1
cosh−1 x = √
dx x2 − 1
Therefore, the slope of cosh−1 at 5
4
is
1 1 4
q =q = .
5 2
9 3
4
−1 16
Therefore, the tangent line will have the equation y = 34 x + b for some constant b.
We can determine b because we know that one point on the line is

5 −1 5
, cosh
4 4
To simplify this point, we need to evaluate cosh−1 54 . That is, we need to find y so
that
5
cosh y =
4
or
5
ey + e−y = .
2
1 5
We can write y = ln z for some z. Then, z + z
= 2
which has the solution z = 2
(using the quadratic equation) or
y = ln 2
The line passes through

5
, ln 2
4
so
4 5
ln 2 = · +b
3 4
Then,
5
b = ln 2 −
3

4 5
or y = 43 x − 45 + ln 2. Now

so the tangent line is given by y = x + ln 2 −
3 3
that we know the point ( 54 , ln 2) is on the line, we can also evaluate the derivative
at that point using the inverse derivative formula:
d −1 1
f (x)(a) = 0 −1
dx f (f (a))
If f (x) = cosh x then the derivative is f 0 (x) = sinh x. We evaluate this at the point

−1 −1 5
f (a) = cosh = ln 2
4
Then,
1 1 4
= 3 =
sinh(ln 2) 4
3
verifying that the slope of the line is 43 .

−10201 101
4(b). Answer: y = x + ln 10 + . The slope of the tangent line is given
1980 99
by the derivative. The derivative of sech−1 x is
d −1
sech−1 x = √
dx x 1 − x2
which is defined for 0 < x < 1. Therefore, the slope of sech−1 at 20

101
is
−1 −1 −1 −10201
q = q = 20 99 =
20
1− 400 20 9801
101
· 101 1980
101 10201 101 10201
−10201
Therefore, the tangent line will have the equation y = 1980
x+b for some constant
b. We can determine b because we know that one point on the line is

20 −1 20
, sech
101 101
To simplify this point, we need to evaluate sech−1 20

101
. That is, we need to find y so
that
20
sech y =
101
or
101
ey + e−y =
10
We write y = ln z and the simple answer is z = 10 or y = ln 10. The line passes
through

20
, ln 10
101
so
−10201 20
ln 10 = · +b
1980 101
or
101
ln 10 = − +b
99

−10201 101
Therefore, the equation of the tangent line is given by y = x + ln 10 +
1980 99
or y = −10201 20 20

1980
x − 101 +ln 10. Now that we know that the point 101 , ln 10 is on the
line, we can also evaluate the derivative at that point using the inverse derivative
formula:
d −1 1
f (x)(a) = 0 −1
dx f (f (a))
If f (x) = sech x then the derivative is f 0 (x) = − tanh x sech x. Then we evaluate at
the point f −1 (a) = ln 10. We already know that sech−1 ln 10 = 20
101
and we can see
that tanh−1 ln 10 = 99
. Then, − 1
20 99 = − 10201 verifying the slope of the line.
101 ( 101 · 101 ) 1980
5. Prove the following identities about inverse hyperbolic functions:
√
5(a). Answer: cosh(sinh−1 x) = 1 + x2 . Using the formula
d −1 1
f (x)(a) = 0 −1
dx f (f (a))
we have that
d 1
sinh−1 (x)(a) = d
(sinh x)(sinh−1 (a))

dx dx
That is, the derivative of sinh−1 (x) evaluated at a is given by the reciprocal of
d
dx
sinh x evaluated at x = sinh−1 a. We already know that the derivative of sinh−1 x
evaluated at a is √ 1 and we know that d
sinh x = cosh x so we see that
1+a2 dx
1 1
√ =
1 + a2 cosh(sinh−1 a)
which proves the result.
√
5(b). Answer: sinh(cosh−1 x) = x2 − 1 Using the formula for the derivative of an
√
inverse function, show that sinh(cosh−1 x) = x2 − 1. We have that
d 1
cosh−1 (x)(a) = d
(cosh x)(cosh−1 (a))

dx dx
That is, the derivative of cosh−1 x evaluated at a is given by the reciprocal of

d
dx
cosh x evaluated at x = cosh−1 a. We already know that the derivative of cosh−1 x
evaluated at a is √ 1 so we see that
a2 −1
1 1
√ =
2
a −1 sinh(cosh−1 a)
which proves the result. This is only defined for a ≥ 1 because cosh−1 x is only
defined for x ≥ 1. This is also a corrolary of the previous result, because if
√
cosh(sinh−1 x) = 1 + x2
we can take cosh−1 of both sides followed by sinh to show that
−1
√
x = sinh cosh 1 + x 2
√
If we let y = x2 − 1 we see that
x = sinh−1 (cosh y)
Then, we also have that

p
x= y2 − 1
so
p
y 2 − 1 = sinh−1 (cosh y)
which also proves the result.
6. Solving indefinite integrals:
x
−1
6(a). Answer: sinh + C . Since a is positive, we can factor a2 out of the square
a
root to simplify to
Z
1
q dx
x 2

a 1+ a
This is of the form √ 1

1+x2
that integrates to yield sinh−1 x, so we make the u-
substitution of
x
u=
a
Then,
du 1
=
dx a
and
dx = adu
Substituting, the factors of a cancel, so the integral can be rewritten as

Z Z
1 1
√ · adu = √ du = sinh−1 u + C
a 1+u 2 1+u 2
x
Then, the answer is sinh−1 +C
a
x
6(b). Answer: − sinh−1 + C . Here a is negative, but we observe that the inte-
a
grand is actually exactly the same as the previous problem! (since a2 = (−a)2 )
However, since a is negative, we compute
Z Z
1 1
√ dx = q dx
2
a +x 2 x 2

−a 1 + a
where the term in the front is a negative a because

√
a2 = −a
if a is negative. Then, this integral is

Z
1 x
− √ du = − sinh−1 u + C = − sinh−1 + C
1 + u2 a
x
The answer, − sinh−1 + C , can also be written as
a

−1 x
sinh +C
−a
since sinh−1 is odd.
1 √
6(c). Answer: √ cosh−1 x M + C . This problem invites the u-substitution of
M
√
u=x M
which will make the function of the form √ 1

u2 −1
which is the derivative of cosh−1 u.
We see that
du √
= M
dx
which means that
du
dx = √
M
Substituting, the integral can be written as
Z
1 1
√ √ du
M u −12
which is
1
√ cosh−1 u + C
M
1 √
so the answer is √ cosh−1 x M + C .
M
1
6(d). Answer: tanh−1 x2 + C . To solve this problem, we make the u-substitution of
2
u = x2
du
Then, dx
= 2x or
du
dx =
2x
We substitute to simplify the integral to
Z Z
x 1 1 1
2
· du = du
1 − u 2x 2 1 − u2
−1
R 1
This is familiar from our table of integrals as 1−u2 du = tanh u since −1 < x < 1
so 0 < u < 1. So the answer is
1
tanh−1 u + C
2
1
which is tanh−1 x2 + C .
2
6(e). Answer: − csch−1 (ex ) + C . We use the hint inviting a hyperbolic cosecant sub-
stitution. The derivative of csch−1 x is √−1
|x| x2 +1
. To make the integrand look like
this, we make the u-substitution of
u = ex
du
Then, dx
= ex so
1
dx = du
ex
Substituting, the integral is written as
Z
1 1
√ · x du
u2 + 1 e
We once again substitute u = ex to write the integral as

Z
1
√ du
u u2 + 1
Here, u is always positive, since it is of the form ex , so this is indeed −1 times

the derivative of csch−1 ! (That is, there is no need for the absolute value.) So the
answer is
− csch−1 u + C
or − csch−1 (ex ) + C
7. Solving definite integrals:
7(a). Answer: ln 2 . The integrand √ 1

1+x2
we recognize as the derivative of sinh−1 x so
the answer is
43
sinh−1 x

0
This is evaluated as
3
sinh−1 − sinh−1 0
4
This requires us to find sinh−1 3
4
or the point x when sinh x = 34 . We have already
found that sinh−1 3
4
= ln 2 on this worksheet. We have also found sinh−1 0 = 0.
Therefore, the answer is
ln 2 − 0
which is ln 2 .
7(b). Answer: a(cosh−1 3 − cosh−1 2) . This integral invites the u-substitution of
x
u=
a
du
and dx
= a1 , so
dx = adu
Substituting, we need to evaluate

Z 3a
a
√ du
2a u2 − 1
We recognize this as the derivative of a cosh−1 u so the answer is
3a
a cosh−1 u 2a

Again substituting
x
u=
a
we see that the answer is a(cosh−1 3 − cosh−1 2) .
7(c). Answer: 2 . We recognize the integrand as the derivative of tanh−1 x (because
the boundaries of the integrand are between −1 and 1, so the antiderivative is
tanh−1 and not coth−1 .) Then, the answer is the evaluation of
ee44 −1
tanh−1 x
+1
0
We see that
−1 e4 − 1
tanh
e4 + 1
is just 2 since
1
sinh 2 e2 − e2
tanh 2 = = 2 1
cosh 2 e + e2
As we have calculated before, tanh−1 0 = 0. Therefore the answer is 2 − 0 = 2 .
7(d). Answer: −2 . We recognize the integrand this time as the derivative of coth−1 x
(because the boundaries of the integrand are greater than 1, so the antideriative
is coth−1 x which is defined for x > 1 and not tanh−1 x which is defined only for
x < 1.). Then, the answer is the evaluation of
∞
coth−1 x e4 +1

e4 −1
At the lower boundary of the limit, similarly to what we saw in the last problem,
e4 + 1
coth−1 =2
e4 − 1
At the upper bound of the limit, we can evaluate
lim coth−1 a
a→∞
Near what value of y is coth y = a very large? When the denominator of coth y =
cosh y
sinh y
is very small, or near y = 0. Therefore,
lim coth−1 a = 0
a→∞
Then, the integral evaluates to 0 − 2 = −2 .

Calculus Inverse+Hyperbolic+Functions

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Calculus Inverse+Hyperbolic+Functions

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Calculus 2 Tutor

Inverse Hyperbolic Functions

Inverse Hyperbolic Functions

1. For f (x) = sinh−1 x :

(b) Find f (0).

(c) Find the domain and range of f (x).

2. For f (x) = tanh−1 x:

(a) Find f (0).

3. Evaluate the following derivatives where they are defined:

4. Determine the tangent line to the function at the given points:

(a) The function y = cosh−1 x at x = 5

(b) The function y = sech−1 x at x = 20

5. Prove the following identities about inverse hyperbolic functions:

6. Solve the following indefinite integrals:

7. Solve the following definite integrals:

1(a). Answer: 1 . The meaning of

is the value of y so that

The definition of sinh y is

has the clear solution y = 0 . That is,

for some y. That is, sinh−1 x is defined if

Since the domain of sinh y is −∞ < y < ∞ (and because it is one-to-one as we

sinh−1 (−x) = − sinh−1 x

Then, we take sinh of both sides to check if

which is true. Therefore, the function is odd .

Making the algebraic substitution ey = z, we can rewrite this as

Using the quadratic formula, we see that

That is, we are checking

which is true, verifying our answer.

we take the derivative

Again by the chain rule, this interior derivative evaluates to

2(a). Answer: 0 . The meaning of

is the value of y so that

The definition of tanh y is

Therefore, y = 0 also has tanh y = 0 and tanh−1 0 = 0 .

is the value of y so that

or z = 3 (the positive answer is required because y = ln z so z must be positive

for some y. On the last worksheet, we proved that

−1 < tanh y < 1

this means that

We simplify and multiply through to see that

Writing it as a quadratic equation in terms of z, we see that

Simplifying, we see that r

e 2 ln( 1−x ) − e− 2 ln( 1−x )

The factor 1 − x cancels and so does the factor 2, leaving us with

The derivative of cot a is

is defined for all q. The derivative

In the case where q is positive, this reduces simply to

sign of the answer, we note that the derivative of csch−1 x = √1

The line passes through

which is defined for 0 < x < 1. Therefore, the slope of sech−1 at 20

To simplify this point, we need to evaluate sech−1 20

which proves the result.

That is, the derivative of cosh−1 x evaluated at a is given by the reciprocal of

we can take cosh−1 of both sides followed by sinh to show that

Then, we also have that

which also proves the result.

This is of the form √ 1

Substituting, the factors of a cancel, so the integral can be rewritten as

where the term in the front is a negative a because

if a is negative. Then, this integral is

since sinh−1 is odd.

which will make the function of the form √ 1

We once again substitute u = ex to write the integral as

Here, u is always positive, since it is of the form ex , so this is indeed −1 times