Roll No.: || Test Date: 04-12-2022 Booklet Gogo ALL NOIR ARASH for Aakash *tas Test Sens Medical Entrance Exam - 2023 National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) (XII Passed Students) Read each question carefully. his mandatory to use BlvefBlack Ball Point Pen to darken the pproprate arleintheanswer sheet. |. Mark shouldbe dark and should complotly il eccle. | Rough workmustnotbedone onthe answer sheet Do nat use whitesid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet No changein theanswer once markedis allowed. ‘Studenteannatuse log ables and calculators or any other material inthe examination hall 7. Belore attempting the question paper, student should ensure thet thetest paper contains allpages andno page's missing. Each correct answer caries four marks. One mark will be deducted foreachincorrect answer tom thetotal score. Before handing over the answer sheet othe inviglator, candidate should check that Roll No, and Centre Code have been filed and marked correcty Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer sheet lobe retumnedto theinvigiator. ‘There are wo sections in each subjecti.e, Section-A& Section 8, You have to attempt all 35 questions trom Section-A & only 10 questions outot 15 rom Section, Note: Itis compulsory to fil Roll No, and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered,eT Physical World, Units and Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane ‘Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom Structural Organisation in Animals — Animal Tissues, Biomoleculesne) Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min. [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer: SECTION-A Parsec is the unit of ic (1) Time (2) Angle the percentage errors in the measurements of A, 8 an %, 2% at el Q) Distance (4) Mass id C are 1%, 2% and 0.5% respectively. Each side of a cube is measured to be 2.32 m, The total surface area of the cube with appropriate significant figure is (1) 32.2944 m2 (2) 32.3 m? (3) 32.29 m? (4) 32.294 m2 Column | contains the four fundamental forces and column Il contains their ranges. Match the column | with column II Column I Column It Gravitational force =P. 10“ m Electromagnetic force Q. 10“ m Strong nuclear force R._ Infinite Popp Weak nuclear force (1) ASP,B3R,C3Q,D5P (2) ASR,BIR,C3Q,D5P (3) ASR,B>P,C3Q,D5R (4) A>Q,B>P,C>P,0>Q The sum of the three vectors shown in the figure is, zero. The magnitudes of the vectors OB and OC are respectively, If |OA “3x (2) 10/2 m,10¥2 m (4) 20m, 10/2 m (1) 10m,10¥3m (3) 10V2 m,20m The maximum percentage error in calculation of X is (1) 2% (2) 4% (3) 3% (4) 6% The least count of a watch is 0.01 s. The time of 40 oscilations of a pendulum is measured to be 40 seconds. The maximum percentage error in the measurement of time will be (1) 25% (2) 4% (3) 0.25% (4) 0.025% A.unitless quantity (1) May not be dimensionless (2) Is always dimensionless (3) Is not always dimensionless (4) Does not exist ‘The SI unit of mass is now defined in terms of (1) Planck's constant (2) Boltzmann constant (3) Gravitational constant (4) Stephan’s constant Which among the following is dimensionally incorrect? (Here h— height, T— surface tension, p -> density, P — Pressure, V—> volume, n > coefficient of viscosity, v -> frequency, ! -» moment of inertia, g > acceleration due to gravity, R > radius, t— time, m— mass, L > length) 2T cose P 1) 2 (1) PRG (2) Pont E () var (4) v=2n/ Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456,ENCES) UIST ving along 2 sant ne wih 10. 6 Hf dimensions of a physical quantity are given by *T®, then the physical quantity will be (1) Torque ita = 2, b= (2) Force a= 1, b= 2, (3) Strainifa=0.d= 0.6 (8) Suess if a= 1, b=—1,6= Jn summers, the Gaytime temperature is recorded as (86 4 1)'C and in night it is recorded as (38 2 17°C. The fall in temperature should be reported as () Beoyre (2) (Ba 1y'C (3) (822/C (4) (7822yC Consider the following statements. A. 00.920280 has two significant zeros D._ 0.875 is equal t0 0.48 in two significant figures Choose the incorrect statements). (7) aony (2) bonly (5) Botha and (2) Neither a nor b Wfor0e (F), veloety (v) and time (T) are taken as the fundamental unis, then the representation of Young's modulss "Y will be @) FAT (2) Feet] @ =] (9) IFT ‘Which among the following is/are dimensionless? (1) Poisson's ratio. (2) Relative density (3) Density (4) Both (1) and (2) Which among the following can be deduced using mensional method? (3) me + mah (2) asinat + boosit @) v= (4) v=at A person goes to hospital, for taking booster dose of the vaccination of Covid-19 from his home, with uniform speed 20 mls and stays in hospital for sat four and then retums to home with uniform speed of 10 mis. Ifthe distance between home and hospital is 590 m then average speed and average veigaty for complete journey will be respectively (1) 0.53 mis, 2210 (2) Zero, 0.23 mis (2) 022 mls, 0.33 mis (4) 0.53 mls, 13.33 mls 17, 18. 19, 20. A particle is mo inform acceleration. If position (%) i oftime (f) as x = (80 + 4t-+.8)m. Then (1) ts initial velocity is 18 m/s attime f= 3s is 86 m/s is given in terms (2) Its velocity (3) Its acceleration is 5 m/s? = 36m (4) Position at f= 2.818 o vi The velocity (v)- time (t) graph for a particle m ng along x axis is shown in the figure. The averag velocity in the time interval f= 0 to f= 6 sis vimnis) 20 = ts) 0 -20 (y Sms (4) 2mis (3) Smis ‘The diagram shows the part of vernier scale on a air of calipers. The correct reading is (least count 01 cm) 45cm $.0cm 55cm (1) 4.74 em (2) 4.56 em (8) 4.70 cm (4) 4.76 em ‘The angular velocity of a particle moving in circle of radius 50 cm, is increased from 200 revolution per minute to 440 revolution per minute in 2 minutes. The tangential acceleration of the particle is 1) Z mis? (1) 39 ms B sate? mi (2) Ze misi 4 as? ay 1 (8) gp ms (4) 30 mvs? Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-t 10005, Phono : 011-47623466eC a 22. 23. 24. The horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile is R and H respectively. If a constant horizontal acceleration “fis imparted to the projectile due to wind, then ‘its new increased horizontal range will be (g is acceleration due to gravity) (1) aR (2) R+H (3) R+2H @ Reo A paticle moving in x = z plane have x and 2 co-ordinate at any time t as x = 2+ 7t+ 4 and 2 = St, where x and z are in metre and tin second ‘The acceleration ofthe particle at time (1) V89 mis? (2) J69 mis? (3) 8 mis? (4) 13 mis? A particle is moving is x - y plane with velocity ie 2-17 +}, where tis in sand vin ms. the sis a particle starts from origin, then y-coordinate of particle when its x-coordinate becomes zero after start, will be (4) (1613) m (2) (73) (3) (14/3) m (4) (8/3) m. ‘Aman can swim at speed of 3 km/h in still water. He ‘wants to cross @ 500 m wide river flowing at 2 kmih. ‘The man keeps himself always at an angle 127° with the river flow while swimming. The point on the opposite bank, where he will arrive is (1 2mm te Sesion of er ow Hom (2 222mm te secon of Her flow tom oppose pit onthe ter bark ce) 22m topos dean of ie flow fom pee ere car (25% min opt tetono er ow o the opposite point on the other bank 25. A particle A is moving in x - y plane with velocity, (3i + 4]) m/s and particle B is moving in y -z plane with velocity (3) +4%)mis. The magnitude of velocity of particle 8 w.r.t. velocity of particle A is, closest to (1) Zero (2) Smis (3) 10 mis (4) 20 mis, 26. The equation of trajectory of projectile is y = V3x~10x2. The angle of projection and initial speed of (g= 10 mis?), (1) 30%, 2 mis projection are respectively (2) 60°, V2 mis (3) 60°, 2m/s (4) 30°, 1 mis 27. Which of the following represents the motion of @ particle in straight line, with uniform (non-zero) acceleration? (2) 3) (4) Corporate Office = Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47625455Ee 28. A particle located at origin at time 0, starts moving along positive y direction with a velocity v that varies as v= Jy. The displacement of the Particle varies with time as fe 2 0 @) @s (a) 2t 8 Mt relation between time (I) and position (x) is 1 = 36° + 2x, Then relation between velocity and acceleration is () exw? Q) ax @) anv () ax-4 v 30. Attime f (in second), positions of three particles A, Band Care as follows xa=(2t+8)m xe= (3% +214 14)m xe (SP +48 + 81) m ‘Then we can conclude that (1) All the particles are moving with nonzero acceleration constant (2) Panicle A moves with constant acceleration non-zero (3) Panicle 8 moves with constant acceleration non-zero (4) Particle C moves with constant acceleration non-zero 31. In the given velocity-time (v- {) graph the distance travelled by a particle in 6 s will be v (avs) 20 10 ts) 10} (1) 69m (2) 50m (2) 40m (4) 30m 32. 33, 34. Eas The position-time graph for the motion with negative acceleration is a (@) @ -— (4) a t Aparticle moves in x - y plane according to the rule, asinot and y = acos{ ot +E The particle follows (1) An elliptical path (3) A parabolic path (2) A circular path (4) A straight line path AA projectile is projected from the ground as shown in the figure. y, u p A x The correct relation among the xs, x2, yr and 0 is is f % (22% no @ m(, +X Xho (On (2% sto (a) o-[ zit Jawto Xm % Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456REC 36. 36. 37. Change in a vector may occur due to 38. (1) Rotation of frame of reference (2) Translation of frame of reference (3) Rotation of vector (4) Both (1) and (2) SECTION-B A particle is projected from ground, such that at the maximum height of projectile, velocity of particle becomes times its initial velocity (u). 2 From this information match the column | with column It Column t Column I a, Square oftimeof p32 flight of projectile 4g p, Maximum heightot g, 524 the projectile 2g c, Horizontal range ofp, the projectile p, Radius of curvatures, at maximum height (1) ASR, B>P,C2Q0>8 (2) A+R,.B>Q,C>S,D>P @) A3P,B>R,C7Q,D9S8 (4) A9R,B>S,C>Q,04P Two vectors Aand& are given as A=3i and B=]. The component of vector A in direction of vector 6 is (3) (4) Zero 29, 40. 44 -) 4 PURE eae Two projectiles A and B are projected witn angle of projections 25° and 45° respectively. If Rx and Re are their respective horizontal ranges, then (1) Re= Ro (2) Ra> Re (3) Ra< Re (4) Data is insufficient Six particles situated at the comers of a regular hexagon of side 4 m, moves with a constant speed 2 mis. Each particle maintains a direction towards the particle at the next comer. The time at which the particles will meet each other, will be (1) 45 2) 2s (3) 1s (4) 3s Rain is falling vertically downwards with speed 4@ km/h, wind starts blowing with 2.5 mis from east to west direction. In which direction should a boy waiting for school bus hold his umbrella? () toner} veri wad ot (2) anange or'(2) wih seraltovartsos (3) Atangle tan-(2) with vertical towards west (8) Aten angle tanr'() win vertcal towards west A particle is moving with constant speed on a circular path centred at origin. At one point (x = 2m, y = 0), the particle has velocity (-4]) mls. The acceleration of the particle at this point is (1) (-8i) mvs? (2) (-8)) mis* (3) (Gi) mis? (4) (-8k) mis? A particle is projected with velocity u, at an angle 53° from horizontal. If time taken by the velocity of particle to makes an angle 37° from the horizontal is 1s, then wis nearest to (1) 40 mis (2) 30. mis (3) 18 mis (4) 60 mls Corporal Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Ea |43. aa, 45. 46. All india Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023) Aciass XI student measured the length of a rod and ‘wrote it as 7.50 cm, Which instrument did he use to measure i? (1) Ameter scale (2) A vemier calliper where the 10 divisions on ‘vermier scale is equal to 9 divisions on main scale with 1 MSD = 1 mm (3) A screw gauge having 50 divisions on the circular scale and pitch as 1 mn (4) A screw gauge having 100 divisions on the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm. The equation of state of a gas is given by “5 (Pep (V-xb)=07, where PV and T are Pressure, volume and temperature respectivly and 2, band care dimensional constants, the dimension ot labyis © Mur] 2) MUT) @) Mut] @) DELTA na new system of units called as ‘Aakash unit, unit ‘of mass is taken as 10 hg, unit of length is taken as 114m and unit of ime is 1 minute, The value of 1 J in Aakash unit’ system is (1) 3.6 = 10° unit (2) 3.6 * 10-5 unit, (4) 3.8 x 10* unit ‘Column I contains some name of units of length and column Il contains its value in SI unit. Match the column with eolumn I (3) 3.8 * 10+ unit Column! Column it A. Astronomical unit 10m B. Light year 10m C. Fermi R 1.496 10"'m D. Angstrom S 9.46% 10"%m (1) A5R,B50,C+P,058 (2) A>R,B4S,C+P,04+0 (2) A+P,B40,C-+R,05S (4) A>R.B>P,C48,D40 a7. 49, 50, A particle is dropped from rest from a large heigh, Assume g to be constant throughout the motion, The time taken by it to fall through successive distances of 2 m each, will be fa 1) Avoqual, being oqualto 4 5 (1) Altea 0 \o (2) Inratio, V4: V2: V3. (3) In ratio; Ji: (v2 ~ V4): (V3 - V2):. ee vi v2 a" A ball is projected upwards with speed 27 mis. The Uistance travelled in 3 second of motion is equal to (= 10 mis?) (1) 2m (3) 72.9m (4) In ratio; (2) 29m (4) 79m Two trains A and B are moving in opposite direction on parallel racks, The length of train A is 100 m and length of train Bis 80 m. The velocity of shorter train is two times to that of the longer train. If the trains take 3 s to cross each other, then the velocities of the trains are (1) va= 20 mis, ve = 40 mis Q)v, Qy (4) v= A ball is projected from point O with some velocity wat an angle 60° with the vertical as shown in the figure. Consider a target at point ‘P’. The ball wil hit the target if itis projected with vs equal to oP (1) Sims (2) 6 mis (3) 7 mvs, (4) 10.mvs Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Phone : 011-47623456,eek) £ 58. 56. 57, IR See [CHEMISTRY] SECTION: Number of molecules of glucose present jn 400 mL. of 7 M glucose solution is (2) RTs 10" (2) 602 (3) 12* 1D? (4) 24 10% MW mass percentage of sulphur in a protein molecule ' 0.2% then the number of sulphur atoms present In 25 9 of protein is (1) 84 * 10% @) 3. (2) 24 10" (4) 3654 < 108 6.25 g of an impure sample of limestone gives 2.2.4 ‘9102 on complete decomposition. The percentage of ACOs present in the sample is « 3) 80% (2) 98% (4) 85%. mass ratio of methane and sulphur dioxide is 2:5 then the ratio of mole of their atoms will be 2:8 (2) 8:5 @) 5:3 (4) 8:3 Ratio of the radius of the first orbit of Li? to the third orbit of He* will be (1) 2:8 (2) 2:27 (3) 4:27 () 1:8 Orbital angular momentum of electron present in 3p orotals (1) Zero 2) Ven @) r (4) 28m 112 £4 wet bulb emits monochromatic radiation of wavelength 909 nm then the number of photons ‘emitted per second by the bulb is (Planck's constant 2664 10 Js) (1) 47107 (2) 2102 (3) 8 10 (4) 410" ‘An element X has two isotopes, 4% and “x. mass percentage of heavier isotope is 40% then average omic mass of the element X vill be (1) 5520 (2) $4.60 (2) 5540 (4) 66.0u 59. 60, 6. 62, 63. 64, Volume of O> required at with 64 g of methane is (1) 179.24 (3) 134.4 STP to react completely (2) A965 (4) 224 Correct order of energy of orbitals for filing electrons in multielectronic species is (1) 41> Sd>5s>5p (2) 4f> Sd>5p> 5s (3) Sd>5p>5s>4f (4) Sd>4f> Sp>5s Consider the following sets of quantum numbers free eae renee) a4 2 = boa ot 2 « 5% 3.0. a2 2 41 Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are not possible? (1) (@)and(b) only (2) (b), (c) and (4) only (3) (b) and (¢) only (4) (a), (b) and (d) only Ifa particle of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity of 600 mis then the de Broglie wavelength associated with the moving particle will be (Planck's constant (h) = 6.6 10% Js) (1) 14 1051m (2) 11105 m (3) 141 10%m (4) 11108 m, Maximum number of electrons accommodated in the orbitals of an atom for which n = 4 and I= 2is (1) 6 (2) 16 a) 5 (4) 10 Number of electrons present in p orbitals of a gallium atom is (Atomic number of gallium = 31) (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 13 14 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Phone : 011-4762345665. 66, 68. ES eae Statement |: Cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles, called electrons. Statement Il: The characteristics of cathode rays Gepend upon the nature of gas present in the cathode ray tube, In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer, (1) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (2) Both statement | and statement I! are incorrect (8) Statement 1 is correct but statement II is incomect (4) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement Il is correct 2.408 x 10° molecules of urea are present in 200 mL of aqueous solution, The molarity of the solution is () OM @ osm (3) 0.02M (4) 0.08M 21.9 of Nis reacted with 4 9 of Ho. The mass of ‘ammonia produced after completion of the reaction is (1) 22.619 (2) 25.09 @) 19259 () 17219 Assertion (A): According 10 Heisenberg uncertainty principle, itis impossible to determine simultaneously, the exact position and exact momentum of an electron, Reason (R): The effect of Heisenberg uncertainty Principle is significant both for the motion of ‘microscopic objects and macroscopic objects In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) (A)is correct but (R) is not correct (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (4) (A)is not correct but (R) is correct 69. 70. m1. 72, 73, 74. 7. 76. Total energy and kinetic energy of electron presen, in second orbit of He" ion respectively are (1) -3.4 eV and 3.4 eV (2) 13.6 eV and 3.4 eV (3) -13.6 eV and 13.6 eV (4) -27.2 eV and 13.6 eV Which among the following metals has lowest value of work function? (1) Mg (2) Li (3) Cu (4) k Total number of nodes and radial nodes present in 5p osrbitals respectively are (1) Sand 3 (2) 4and 3 (3) 3and2 (4) 4 and 2 100 mL of 4 M NaOH solution was mixed with 400 ml. of 2 M NaOH solution. The molarity of resultant solution becomes (1) 32M (2) 28M (3) 24M (4) 30M Which among the following contains lowest number of molecules? (1) 22.4 L of CHs at STP (2) 2g molecule of Nz (3) 34.2.9 of sugar (CiaH2201) (4) 18 mL of H20 (density of water, 1 g/mL) 'fmass percentage of Zn®* in an enzyme is 0.327%, then the minimum molar mass of the enzyme will be (Atomic mass of Zn = 65.4 u) (1) 4000 g mot (2) 80000 g mot (3) 20000 g mot (4) 10000 g mot" In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in the third Bohr's orbit is (Bohr's radius, a= 52.9 pm) (1) 105.85 pm (3) 211.62 pm (2) 317.4x pm (4) 423.2 pm The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in S8sr respectively are (1) 38, 50 and 50 (2) 88, 38 and 50 (3) 38, 50 and 38 (4) 38, 126 and 50 Corporate Oifice : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, Now Delhi-1 10005. Phone »011-47623456SEIS 71. 78. 79. 80. 81 82. 83. If mole fraction of ethanol in water is 0.18, then molality of ethanol in the solution will be (2) 82m (4) 122m (1) 65m (3) 104m ‘Statement I: Zeros preceding to first non-zero digit are significant. ‘Statement Il: 0.08 has three significant figures. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Statement | is correct but statement II is incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect but statement I is correct (8) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect (4) Both statement | and statement Il are correct Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom does not fal in infrared region? (1) Pfund (2) Lyman (3) Brackett (4) Paschen Correct order of energy of 2s orbital of potassium, lithium and sodium is (1) EzdK) > Ezs(Na) > Exs(Li) (2) E2s(Na) > Ead(k) > Exs(Li) (8) Exs(Li) > Eas(Na) > Eau) (4) Ead(Li) > Eas(k) > Ezs(Na) The maximum number of orbitals that can be identified by the following quantum numbers in an atom is n=5,1=2,m (a) 4 23 3) 2 a4 ‘Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY and XYs. If 0.2 mole of XY weigh 24g and 0.1 mole of XY3 weigh 16 g then atomic weights of X and Y respectively are (1) 80 and 160 (2) 80 and 20 (3) 60 and 60 (4) 100 and 20 If the density of methanol is 0.9 g/mL, then volume ‘of methanol needed for making 2 L of 0.5 M solution (1) 35.6 mL. (3) 65.5 mL (2) 42.4 mb (4) 101.1 mL Haale) 84. Angular momentum of an electron in third stationary orbit of hydrogen atom will be h (1) 35 (2) 3h h 2h @) $ « 24 85. Energy required to excite the electron in hydrogen atom from first orbit to second orbit is (1) 1.6 10780 (2) 2.4% 10-94 (3) 3.6 x10 J (4) 3.6 «10-7 J SECTION-B 86. Number of degenerate orbitals present in the third shell of He* fon is (1) 6 5 @9 4) 3 87. Consider the following statements about photoelectric effect, a. The number of electrons ejected is proportional to the frequency of light used. b. There is no time lag between the striking of light beam and the ejection of electrons from metal surface. c. The kinetic energy of ejected electrons increase with the increase of frequency of light used. The correct statement(s) is/are (1) (b) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (c) only 88. Match the atom/ion given in column | with the number of unpaired electrons given in column Il. Column t Column i a|N |s ».| cr Wi Ja c. | Mrz Gil) | 3 d. | Fe (iv) | 6 The correct match is (1) alii), bi), c(i), div) (2) ail), Biv), efi), di) (3) aii), Biv), efi), dQ) (4) ali, BEiv), of), ii) Corporate Ofice ; Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-4762345690. 91. 92, 95. RUE ‘The pair of compounds which does not follow Law of multiple proportions is (1) CO and co (2) SOs and SOs (3) H2S and #30 (4) NO2 and NzO The quantum number which gives information about the spatial orientation of orbital with respect to standard set of co-ordinate axis is (1) Azimuthal quantum number 2) Spin quantum number (3) Principal quantum number (2) Magnetic orbital quantum number Wa radiation of energy 5.25 eV falls on a metal Surface, then the maximum kinetic onergy of ejected electron will be (work function of metal = 3.25 eV) (1) 3.2% 10585 (3) 3.2% 10205 (2) 1.6 «10-45 (4) 16% 10-75 If all the given molecules are moving with same velocity, then the molecule whose wavelength will be maximum is (1) oO: (2) cH @) He (4) Ne Correct order of wavelength of the given radiations is (1) UV rays > IR > Microwave > Radio waves (2) Radio waves > Microwave > IR > UV rays (3) Radio waves > IR > Microwaves > UV rays (4) UV rays > Microwaves > IR > Radio waves How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 200 mL of 4.0 M HNOs? (concentrated HNOs is 70% (wiw) HNO») (1) 5049 @ 729 (3) 65g (4) 42.69 Statement I: Law of definite proportions states that @ given compound always contains exactly the same proportion of elements by weight. Statement Il: Mass percentage of copper in CuCOs is 44.5%. (Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 u) 96. 97, 98, 99, 100. Inlight ofthe above statements, choose the coreg, answer. q (1) Statement | is incorrect but statement 1) ig | correct (2) Statement | is correct but statement I ig incorrect (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (4) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect Mass of CaCOs required to react completely with 50 mL of 1.5 M HCI solution is (1) 6.459 (2) 10.25 g (3) 5.19 (4) 3.759 Consider the following statements about Dalton's atomic theory a. Atoms of a given element have different mass, b. Matter consists of indivisible atoms. ©. Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction, The correct statements are (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (@), (b) and (c) If mass percentage of carbon in a hydrocarbon is 80%, then the empirical formula of the compound will be (1) Colts (2) CHe (3) CH (4) CHs Set of Isoelectronic species is (1) N,, 0} and co (2) CN"N, and No* (3) F_, 03 and No (4) Ca.Nj and 8; The number of nitrogen atoms present in 20 litre of air containing 78% nitrogen by volume at STP is (1) 2.5Na (2) 4.1Na (3) 6.5Na (4) 1.4Nq Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone 7011-4 7623456101. 102. 103, 104 105. 106. GUE ede [BOTANY] SECTION-A Select the incorrect statement from the following. (1) Reproduction either sexual or asexual is fundamental characteristic of living organisms (2) Growth is not a defining feature of living beings because it is not found in some of the simplest organisms (3) Both anabolism and catabolism occur in an organism (4) All characteristic features of living beings are not necessary to be defining feature The taxonomical aid that is based on couplets and leads is (1) Herbarium (2) Manual (3) Key (4) Monograph Which of the following specific epithets is not associated with kingdom Plantae? (1) melongena (2) tigris: (3) indica (4) aestivum Soloct the correct option regard of Robert Brown, (1) He first saw and described the live c 19 the contribution (2) Ho first classifiod the living and non-living (3) He discovered tho chromosomes in the nuctous (4) He discovered tho nuctous in the cell Rogarding peroxisome, find out the option Incorrect, tig (1) Itis prosent in the cytoplasm (2) Itis a membrane bound structure (3) Weontains enzymes (4) Itis included in endomemibrane system Satellite is structure in cell which is associated with (1) Chromosome. (2) Nuclear membrane (3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Centrosome 407. Which of the following sets of cures are oresent in both prokaryotic anc eukaryotic cells? (1) Cilia, fagelia anc oil (2) Ribosomes, cell wall and plasma membrane (3) Chromosomes, nuclear membrane and inclusion bodies (4) Ribosomes, lysosomes and vacuoles 408. The smallest living cell known lacks (1) DNAas genetic material (2) Cettwalt (3) Ribosomes with 50S subunits (4) Proteins in plasma membrane 409. Regarding the procedure developed by Gram, bacteria can be classified into two groups. This classification is on the basis of (1) Chemical nature of cytoplasmic inclusion bodies. (2) RNA types in nbosomes (3) Presonee ang abse wall ce of proteins in tho coll (2) The ditferences in the cell envelopes and tesponse to the particular stain 4 the following columns and choose the correct option 1 Colvmat Column tt | a Cytoplasm (Circular DNA b. Contnote (i) Main arena of collvlar activities Plasmid (ii) Contains chromatin 6. Nudooplas (iv) Hotps in colt division (1) ale). BE, ef). aia) (2) afi), BLD, efiv), Ait) (3) ala). BG. efi). 410) (4) ali, Dfiv), efi), Ali) 111, The outermost layer in the three enveloped covering in bacteria can be all, except (1) Mucopeptide cell wall (2) Loose sheath of slime (3) Glycocalyx (4) Thick and tough capsule Corporate Oifice = Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01147623456aM ria. DEE ee Enzymes in lysosome are optimally active at (0) Alkaline pl (2) Neutral ps (3) Acigie pM (2) Basie pH Filament, hook and basel body are the parts of (0) Alocomotary structure present in Paramoecium (2) A structure present in all eukaryotic cells which 's responsible for locomotion (3) A double membrane bound structure present in animal cells only (2) A filamentous extension locomotion in bactena responsible for ‘The structures in some bacteria that help to attach the bacteria to the host tissue aro (1) Mesosome (2) Fimbriae (3) Flagena (4) Cilia Select the incorrect statement regarding the component in prokaryotic cell which is site of protein synthesis (1) Tis a non-membrane bound structure 2 's found to be associated with plasma membrane (3) Ihhas two subunits-608 and 40S (4) ttforms polysome Inclusion bosies in prokaryotes do not include (7) Cyanophycean granules (2) Glycogen granules 3) Gas vacuoles (4) Plasmids ‘Select the incorrect match from the following, (1) Cytoskeletal structure Present in animal cells (2) 708 ribosomes = Absent in higher plants (2) Large central vacuole ~ Absent in animal cells (4) Organised nucleus Has nuclear envelope 18. 119, 120. 121, ldontty the following statements as true (T) orf {F) and choose the option accordingly. A. Gall membrane is mainly composed of sugars and lipids. 4 8. Polar heads of lipids are towards inner side of the plasma membrane. ©. Major ipids in cell membrane are phospholipids D. Integral proteins are partially or totally buried in the membrane. eaB HE CHEE. (QT FO OT F QF oF oT OT QF TT F MT FOF TF Tho layer that glues the noighbouring plant cells togothor is _())_ composed of _(i)_ Solect the correct option to fill in the blanks (and (i), “o ti (1) Middle tametta Calcium carbonate (2) Cell walt Galactans (3) Middle lamella (4) Secondary wall Calcium pectate Hemicellulose ‘The endoplasmic reticulum that bears ribosomes on \ts surface is frequently observed in the cells which are (1) Involved in the synthesis of glucose but not proteins (2) Actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion (3) Without nucleus such as mature RBC (4) Not showing any biochemical processes Match the following columns and choose the correct option, Column t Column i a. Amyloplast () Membrane of vacuole b. Chloroplast (i) Stores starch ©. Tonoplast (i) Stores ois 4. Elaioplast (iv) Traps sunlight energy (2) alii, B&H), efi), ai) (4) alii, bf), c(i), ait) (1) ai), bliv), efi, atiy (3) ali), b¢i), efiv), (iy Corporate Ottica : Aakash Toner, 8, Pusa Road, Now Delhi-110005. Phono / 01 -ATGZSI65eke 122. 123, 124, 128. 126. 427. Select the centrosome. incorrect statement regarding (1) Iteontains two cylindrical structures (2) It is surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar material (3) Its components have nine doublets of peripheral microtubules (4) The cylindrical structure in ithas an organization like the cartwheel A cell cycle involves a. DNA replication b. Cell division Cell growth ¢.Nuclear division ‘The correct ones are (1) (@).(b) and (6) only (2) Alla), (0), (€) and (a) (8) (@) and (4) only (4) (@), (c) and (d) only The most active stage of a cell cycle that occupies most of the time of the cell eycle is (1) Interphase (2) Cytokinesis (3) Gz phase (4) Mitotic phase The phase of a cell cycle in which cell does not proliferate but remains metabolically active is called (1) Go phase (2) Synthesis phase (4) Gap 1 phase ‘The amount of DNA doubles but the number of chromosomes remains the same. This statement is true for a cell present in (1) Ge phase (2) Mphase (3) G: phase (4) Sphase Which of the following functions occur in both Gr phase and Gz phase of cell cycle? (8) Resting phase (1). Separation of chromatids and synthesis of RNA (2) Duplication of cell organelles and protein synthesis @) (4) DNA replication and centriole duplication Protein synthesis and centriole duplication 128. The most dramatic period of cell cycle involves (1) Two stages of karyokinesis and a cytokinesis (2) Four stages of nuclear division only (3) Four stages of karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis (4) One stage of cytokinesis, followed by karyokinesis 129, Select the odd one out w.rt. prophase of mitosis. (1) Chromosome material condenses (2) Centrosomes move towards opposite poles (3) Nuclear envelope disintegrates (4) Spindle fibres of mitotic apparatus dissolve In which stage of mitotic division, spindle fibres attach to the kinetochores? (1) Anaphase (2) Telophase (3) Metaphase (4) Cytokinesis ‘The feature which is unique to the metaphase | of meiosis is a (2) @) 130, 131. Formation of metaphasic plate Separation of sister chromatids Alignment of bivalent chromosomes on the equatorial plate (4) Movement of chromosomes towards equatorial plate 132. Arrange the following events of mitotic division in correct order and choose the option accordingly. ‘8, Condensation of chromosomes is completed b. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles ©. Golgi complex and nucleolus disappear 4. Chromatids move to opposite poles (1) doe>asb (2) c+a>dob (@) boascod (4) codsboa 133. How many duplication(s) of centrosome occurs in ‘one complete meiotic division in an animal cell? (1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Deihi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ECE ieuhinadouenbiokone oar) a] SiiSeon 139 laentty te following statements as true (T) oF falgg (1) Zyaotene = (2) Diakinasis = correct match rom the following Occurrence of synapsis, Disappearance of Pucleolus (3) Leototene Coiling of chromatin (4) Pachytene — Chiasmata shits to the tip of chromosome, In coll division. the enzyme recombinase is involved ‘during the process thet () Solis centromere and separates sister chromatids apart (2) Causes genetic variations in all the four Saughter cells ) Align the homologous chromosomes together (2) ts responsible for the "ynaptonemal complex formation of, SECTION-B ‘entity the ineorreet match from the following, (1) Allo ~ Angiospermae (2) Petumia ~ Nonocytoledonae (2) Wnezt- Posceae (2) Lespard — Felidae The Set of rules and recommendations dealing with the formal names of an organism is given in ICBN. Which amongst the following characteristics would de there in this organism? ® Presence of both membrane bound and non- membrane bound organelles, 2. Heterovophic mode of nutrition is predominant © Presence of rigid cell wall made up of cellulose. ¢. Occurrence of 705 ribosomes in the cytosol The correct one(s) is/are (1) Alleb.cendd (2) conly (2) 8.cand only (4) aandc only The fundamental structural and functional unit of all tiving organisms is (1) DNA (2) Protoplasm (2) Ce (4) Nucleus 140, 141, 142. 143, ” lao (F) and choose the option accordingly. n essential part of every A is 8. Telocentric chromosomes lack primary constriction. ©. Secondary constrictions are _non-staining regions in the chromosomes. A BC tT oF OT aro oT oT (3) ere, mr oT oF According to the cell theory given by Rudolf Virchow. (1) Genetic information is stored in the chromosomes in a cell (2) Allcells arise from pre-existing cells (3) Different cell organelles pertorm different types of activities (4) Same type of cells together form a tissue A special structure in prokaryotic cells that help in Cell wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells, (1) Does not have respiratory enzymes (2) Is anon-membranous structure (3) Is formed by invagination of plasma membrane (4) Surrounds the region that has the genomic DNA Disc shaped structure present on the centromere is known as. (1) Acrosome (2) Kinetochore (3) Chromatin (4) Telomere Polyribosome is an association of (1) Many RNA molecules in a ribosome (2) Many ribosomes attached to a single mRNA (3) Several mRNA molecules around a single ribosome (4) Different types of ribosomes within a single organelle Comporate Otlice : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, Now Delhi-110005. Phona 7011 -AT62O186Posie) 422, Ina cell all ofthe following ate the locations where ATP ge syothesized. excopt (2) Nucleopiasm (2) Mitochonarion (2) Cytopiasm 4a5_ Tre Etructure which is important fot osmoregulation ana pxcrotion in Amoeba is (3) Chloroplast (0) Gas vacuole ) 725 he (2) Lysosome Contractile vacuole (2) Food vacuole yeast cell completes a cell cycle in 0 minutes, what would be the approximate time for its Mt phase? (1) &B minutes (2) 85 minutes (3) 45 minutes (2) 85 minutes CUM eas ey "ng Which stage of meiosis, chasmata becomes visiol (1) Anaphase | (2) Diptotene (3) Telonhase | (4) Diakinesis 149, The event that occurs during anaphase | af melosis, ‘s (1) Separation pf homologous chromosome from each other (2) Spliting of centromere (3) Formation of nuclear membrane 427. Which of the following is not the significance of IG) Gisenpearancs ot qucieotus meine? 160. Phragmoplast is formed by Golgi complex and (1) Increasing genetic vanabilty inthe population rows contefugaly to form coll plate. This event ae rogarding cytokinosis occurs in . All the nisms: have (3) Production of new cells for healing and o Bite cd ecole regeneration (2) Plant cells (@) Maimienance of chromosome number in (9) Bacteria and unicotular eukaryotes sexually reproducing organisms (4) All oukaryotes [ZOOLOGY] SECTION-A (1) Glycine 251. Select ne cots present in areolar connecivetussue)| 2) Serine tat engutt and cigest microbes, foreign particles (2) Alanine and degenerative cells. (4) Glutamic acid (7) Fibroblasts (2) Neurogtial cells 154, Which cells of neural tissue perform many house @) Mast celts (4) Macrophages keeping functions and are non-excitable? 452. On being activated, which of the following cells of (1) Dendrites connective tissue produce and secrete fibres and histamine, respectively? mo @) @) (4) Mast cells and macrophages 453. Choose the correct option wr. name of amino acid given below Fibroblasts and adipocytes Fibroblasts and mast cells Macrophages and fibroblasts i WH, - COOH duo4 (2) Neuroglial cells (3) Macrophages (4) Osteocytes 185. White fibres which provide tensile strength against mechanical stresses and abundantly reported in connective tissue as intercellular ground substance, are (1) Inui (2) Collagen (3) Cellulose (4) Myofibrils Corporate Office» Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01147623458CULE eI) 186. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option. Smooth muscle fibres : Fusiform :: Cardiac muscle fibres : (1) Voluntary (2) Sketetal (3) Cylindrical (4) Non-striated 187. Read the following statements carefully. Statement I: Tendons are inelastic cords which connect skeletal muscles to bones. ‘Statement Il: Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly Packed in the dense connective tissue, Statement Ill: Dense iregular connective tissue Ig resent in the skin, Choose the correct option, (1) Statements I, Il and ttl are correct @) Statements | and il are correct but statement i is incorrect ) Statements | and It are incorrect but statement Mis correct. (4) Only statements I and ttl are correct, 188. The cells of cartlage are enclosed in small cavities within the matrix secreted by Select the correct option that fils the blank. (1) Chondrocytes (2) Osteocytes (3) Fibroblasts (4) Surrounding epithelium 159. Bones of limb in adult humans are chiefly formed by ossification of (1) Tendons (2) Ligaments (3) Cartitage (4) Areolar tissue 160. On the basis of chemical analysis of lving tissue of animals, which of the following is the most abundant protein in them? (1) Rut 0 (2) Chitin (2) Collagen (4) Trypsin Corporate Office : 161. Ribose is diferentiated from deoxyribose in having (1) Two extra oxygen at 2°° carbon (2) No oxygen at 3° carbon (3) No oxygen at carbon number 2 (4) Hydroxyl group at 2°° carbon 162. Read the statements carefully and select the incorrect one, (1) When @ neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated which travels along its plasma membrane. (2) Ligaments attach one bone to another. (3) Compound epithelium covers the moist surface of buccal cavity, (4) The products of exocrine glands are directly Secreted into the fluid bathing the gland, 163. Which of the following statements about enzymes is wrong? (1) Enzymes act best at their optimum temperature and pH (2) All the cells of the organism contain the same set of enzymes. (3) Enzymes are biochemical catalysts available Within the cells (4) Enzymes lower the barrier of activation energy of spontaneous reactions in the cell 164. In case of lecithin, choline is attached with (1) Third hydroxyl group of trihydroxy propane without phosphoric acid, (2) Phosphate group joined to one of the -OH Group of trihydroxy propane (8) Second hydroxyl group of glycerol with Phosphate (@) First hydroxy! group of glycerol with phosphate, 185. Choose the correct option wart. location and function of glandular epithelium, Location Function (1) Lung’s alveoli Attach skeletal muscle to bones (2) Intestine Secretion (3) Heart Contraction (4) Blood vessels Secretion and absorption ‘akash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Phone (017-47623456Poke 466. Match the type of animal tissue in column | with the location given in column Il. Column | Column It a. Simple columnar epithelium (i) Wall of heart b. Cardiac muscles (il) Tip of nose c. Adipose tissue (li) Inner lining of stomach and intestine 4. Cartilage (iv) Beneath the skin (v) Blood vessels. Choose the correct option. (1) ai), bai), cliv). ai) (2) ati, BLY), efi), AQ (3) alii), BG). civ), diy (4) alt, DG, (9, div) 167. In given diagram of certain type of connective tissue, identity A, B, C and D and select the correct option. ™~ c B. D A 8 © ° (1) Fibroblast Macrophage Collagen Mast cell flores (2) Masteell Fibroblast Macrophage Colagen ‘ores (2) Macrophage Collagen Mast calls Fibroblast fires @ Mast cell Fibroblast Macrophage 468. Which connective tissue is characterised by the presence of collagen fibres, macrophage, fibroblasts and mast cells? (1) Blood (2) Cartilage (3) Smooth muscles (4) Areolar tissue Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi pean 169. Wall of blood vessels, stomach and intestine are made of A_ muscles, which are 8 in nature. Fill the blanks A and 8 respectively with suitable terms to make the statement correct, (1) Skeletal, voluntary (2) Skeletal, involuntary (3) Smooth, involuntary (4) Striped, involuntary 170. Assertion (A): Neurons make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body. Reason (R): The neuroglial cells of the neural system protect and support neurons. In the light of above statements, choose the correct, option. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). @ @) 4) Read the following statements and choose the ‘option with incorrect statements only. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. (A)is incorrect but (R) is correct. m1. ‘a. In tissue, a group of similar cells along with intercellular substances perform a specific function. b. Organ systems split up the work in a way that exhibits division of labour. In epithelium, cells are loosely packed with litle (or no intracellular materials. é. Cell junctions hold smooth muscle fibres together and they are bundled together in a epithelial tissue sheath. (1) aandb (2) bande. (3) abande (4) candd Read the following and choose the incorrect one wrt. acid soluble pool 172 (1) Represent roughly the cytoplasmic components (2) Lipids are found in it (3) Molecules ranging from 18 to 800 Da (4) Contains most of the micromolecules "10005. Phone : 011-47625456SDT 173. Select the incorrect statement wir, nucleic acids | 177. Formation of both peptide bonds and glycosidig (ONA) bonds involves (1) Rexhipta wide varety of secondary structures, (1) Hydration (2) One of the secondary structure exhibited by DNA is the famous Watson-Crick model Esterification (3) Dehydration ) The two strands of polynucteosides are (4) Acidification eae 178, Read the statements carefully and choose the (4) The backbone is formed by the suger (iicorrel oft, osphate-sugar chain 7 kak (1) Right end of polysaccharide is called reducing Te: How many of the even biomolecules in box are fend while left end is called non-reducing end secondary metabolites? — (2) Starch can hold Ir molecules in ‘its helical Concanavalin-A, GLUT-4, Collagen, Cellulose, secondary structures but cellulose lack complex Vinblastin, Scents, Codeine, Ricin, Trypsin, helices and eannot hold iodine, Insulin ee oe (3) Starch and glycogen are branched Choose the correct option polysaccharides, a7 (4) Starch in plants and glycogen in animals are ae lore house of essential amino acids as 179. Choose the correct match, es Nature Amino acid 175. Assertion (A): Dietary proteins are the source Assertion (A): Dietary proteins are the source of fe co essential amino acids. Reason (R): A protein is a heleropolymer having (2) Basic ~ bysine about 20 types of amino acids, which can be (3) Neutral = Glutamic acid ‘essential o: non-essential (4) Aromatic = Glycine |i the itt of above statements, choose the correct a — potion, 180. Which ofthe following statements is incorrect? (9) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (1) Some secondary metabolites have ecological comect explanation of (A) importance. (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not ‘Sorrect explanation of (A). ©) Avis comect but (R) is incorrect (4) jis incomect but (Ry) is correct. (2) Primary metabolites have identifiable functions, (3) Secondary metabolites ike spices and Pigments are useful to human welfare. (4) Secondary metabolites are not found 176, Choose the correct statement, microbes and fungi etc, (7) Lipids are polymeric micromotecules, 181. How many ‘C’ atoms are reported in each molecule (2) Adenine is substiuted pyrimidine of arachidonic acid and palmitic acid respectively? (2) Physicists conjure up the molecular structures (1) 16, 16 Of proteins at four levels, (2) 20, 16 (4) Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for he (3) 16,18 ‘many biological activities of proteins, (4) 20, 18 Corporate Otfice : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, Now Delhi 10008. Phone : 011-47625456(CE 482, Each nucleotide is made up of (1) Nitrogen containing carbohydrate and pentose sugar with phosphate (2) Cyclic nitrogenous base + Pentose sugar and one to three phosphate group (3) (Nitrogen base + Hexose sugar + phosphate)» @ 183, NAD and NADP contains the vitamin (Amino sugar + Ribose + phosphate), (1) Ascorbic acid (2) Niacin (3) Thiamine (4) Riboflavin 184, A crevice or pocket of an enzyme into which the substrate fits is a/an (1) Allosteric site (2) Regulatory site ) Active site (4) Restriction site 185, Read the statements carefully and choose the correct one. (4) Assembly of a protein from amino acids does not require energy input. @ @) Catabolic pathways consumes energy. The metabolic pathway from glucose to lactic acid occurs in 10 anabolic steps called glycolysis. (4) As and when needed, bond energy (ATP) is utilised osmotic mechanical work that we perform. for biosynthetic, and SECTION-B 486. Which of the following junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transfer of molecules and sometimes big ions, small molecules? 187, 188. 189. (1) Adhering junctions (2) Gap junetior (3) Tight junctions (4) Hemidesmosomes Match column | and column Mt and choose the correct option vir. muscle fibres. Column | Column It a. Skeletal (i) Uninucleated b. Smooth (ii) Muttinucleated ©. Cardiac (ii) Uninucleated and branched (1) ati), BG), of) (2) agi, b(), efi) (3) bq), ct) (4) ai), BU), c(i) Proteinaceous enzymes exhibit substrate specificity. If an enzyme substrates, its Km value will can act on different (1) Remain same for different substrates (2) Differ from substrate to substrate (3) Remain same even in presence of competitive inhibitior (4) Change with the type of substrate but Vax is never achieved A healthy person in his twenties got injuries resulting in damage and death of several tissues and cells. Which of the cells are likely to be severely damaged, in case of reduced control over the body's responsiveness? (1) Chondrocytes (2) Osteocytes (3) Mast cells, (4) Neurons Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone 01147623455OEE 190. Match column 1 and column Iw. their location, 11. structure and Column} Column it 8. Cuboidal epithelium (i) Cardiac muscle fibres D. Cilisted epithelium (i) Inner surface of fallopian tubes Columnar epithelium (ii) Lung’s alveoli 8. Squamous epithelium fw) Lining of ducts of glands © Imtercalated dis —_(v) Nuclei are located at the base oO rea) 8) @) tw), BiH), E(w), ai), eG) ali). BI), ei), iv), ef) alli), BCH), Cv). d(¥), ef) alii), Bi), ), dCi), eC) ‘% weight of oxygen, sulphur, magnesium and nitrogen in human body respectively is (1) 03,650.33 ando.1 2) 68.0.03,0.1 and 3.3 (3) $8.0,33,46.6 ango.1 (4) 33,0.1,0.3 and 65.0 782, Which of the two groups of following formula are ‘volved in peptide bond formation between SuDveSSive amino acids? Ot ® *.N-¢-CooH R@ (1) 2ana3 2) Sands (3) tand4 (4) 4and3. 193. Read the following features 2. Spindle shaped muscle fibres ». Uninucleated and involuntary © They are abundantly reported in ivs of the eye 196. |. Choose Which type of features? (1) Skeletal (2) Smooth (3) Striped (4) Cardiac the option homopolymeric biomolecules. representing only (1) Starch, Cellulose, Glycogen and inulin (2) Insulin, Cellulose, Chitin, Collagen (3) Polypeptide, Inulin, Lecithin, Cellulose (4) Lipids, Cholesterol, Chitin, Inulin Match column | and column Il carefully. Column | Column tt a. Pigments (Concanavalin-A b. Terpenoids (ii) Monoterpenes c. Alkaloids (ii) Morphine 4. Lectins (iv) Carotenoids e. Toxins (v) Abrin Choose the correct option. (1) a(i, BG, efi, dQiv), e(vy (2) aliv), bi, efi, afi, ety) ) ali), BU), cfiv), atv), efi) (4) alii), BG), of), av), e¢ivy Choose the correct statement wrt. given figure Peptide bona y First Last amino amino acid acid (1) *€'s'C' terminal amino acid and'y'is N-terminal amino acid, (2) Bott 'x’ and 'y’ are N-terminal amino acids (3) Both’ and 'y’ are C-ten ial amino acids (4) °x'ts N-terminal amino acid and ''is C-terminal amino acid Corporate fico: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dolhi-1 T0005. Phone 014-47623456SIS) 197, What will be the molecular formula of a polypeptide having 10 glycine in a series? (1) CrotssO20Nv0 (2) Caos2O1Neo (8) CiHesOwNio (8) CisHesO No 198. Proteins carry out many functions in living The enormous diversity of protein molecules is mainly due to the diversity of organisms. (1) Amino acids based on amino group only (2) Peptide bonds formed (3) Nature of R group and sequence of amino acids within the protein molecule (4) Amino acids at C-terminal and N-terminal in protein molecule 199. What happens when the succinate dehydrogenase ‘enzymes action is inhibited by malonate? (1) Increase in Vox without affecting K~ (2) Increase in K» without affecting Venue (3) Decrease in Km without affecting Vox (4) Decrease in Vex without affecting Km 200. Identify the structures A, 8 and C given below. NH, HOCH,,0. Uracil nF i S HN igamene A 8 © Choose the correct option. A B c (1) Adenine Uridine Uracil (2) Guanine Uracil ‘Adenine (3) Uracil Adenine Adenylic acid (4) Adenosine” Adenylic acid Uracil For Answers & Solutions Please visit our website: www.aakash.ac.in Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi 410005, Phone : 011-47623456es UIE eae All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 TEST - I (Code-E) Tost Date : 04/12/2022 ANSWERS ® a0) Bt. (4) 121. (4) 164. (4) @) 22. (2) 82. (a) 122. (3) 162. (4) @) 23, (2) 83. (1) 123. (2) 163. (2) “ aa (4) BA. (2) $24. (1) 164. (2) @) 45, (3) 85. (1) 125. (1) 165. (2) @) 26. (2) 86. (3) 126. (4) 166. (3) (2) a7. (3) 87. (4) 127. (2) 467. (2) 0) 48. (2) 8B. (2) 128. (3) 168. (4) @) 49. (1) 89. (3) 429. (4) 169. (3) «@) 50. (1) 90. (4) 130. (3) 170. (4) . 8) 51. (4) 91. (1) 131. @) 171. (4) ®) 52. (1) 92. (3) 132. (2) 172. (2) @ 53. Q) 93. (2) 133. (4) 173. (3) ®) 54. (4) 94. (2) 134. (4) 174. (3) ®) 55. (2) 95. (2) 135. (2) 175. (2) 56. (3) 96. (4) 138. (2) 176. (4) 57. (2) 97. (2) 137. (4) 177. (3) 58. (2) 98. (4) 138. (3) 178. (4) 59. (1) 99. (2) 139. (1) 179. (2) 60. (4) 100. (4) 140. (2) 180. (4) 61. G) 401. (2) 141. (3) 121. (2) 62. (1) 102. (3) 142. (2) 182. (2) 63. (4) 103. (2) 143. (2) 183. (2) 64. (3) 104. (4) 144. (1) 184. (3) 65. (3) 105. (4) 145. (3) 185. (4) 86. (3) 106. (1) 146. (3) 186. (2) 67. (1) 107. (2) 147. (3) 187. (2) 68. (1) 108. (2) 148. (2) 188. (2) 69. (3) 109. (4) 149. (1) 189. (4) 70. (4) 110. (4) 150. (2) 190. (1) 71. (2) 144. (1) 151. (4) 191. (2) 72. (3) 112. (3) 152. (2) 192. (2) 73, (3) 113. (a) 483. (2) 193. (2) 74, (3) 114, (2) 154, (2) 194. (1) 75. (2) 118. (3) 155. (2) 195. (2) 76. (3) 116. (4) 186. (3) 198. (4) 77, (A) 117, (2) 187. (1) 197. (2) 78. (3) 118. (2) 158, (1) 198. (3) 79, (2) 119, (3) 189. (3) 199. (2) 80, (3) 120. (2) 160. (3) 200. (1) Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Phone : 011-47623456