All India Test Series (JEE–2024)

AJAM1/05 Test- 05 Arjuna JEE 2024

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 11/02/2024 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Latest Full Syllabus of 11th by NTA
Chemistry: Latest Full Syllabus of 11th by NTA
Mathematics: Latest Full Syllabus of 11th by NTA

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are
compulsory and are of Objective Type and last 10 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’
where answer needs to be rounded off to the nearest integer. Only 5 questions have to be attempted out of the last
10 questions of each section.
5. There is only one correct response for each objective type question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
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[1]
 IMPORTANT CONSTANTS

Speed of light in free space, : 3.00 × 108 ms–1

Permeability of free space, : 4 × 10–7 Hm–1
Permittivity of free space, : 8.85 × 10–12 Fm–1
The Planck constant, : 6.63 × 10–34 Js
Rest mass of electron, : 9.1 × 10–31 kg
Rest mass of proton, : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Molar gas constant, : 8.31 JK–1 mol–1
The Avogadro constant, : 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
The Boltzmann constant, : 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1
Gravitational constant, : 6.67 × 10–11 N m2kg–2
Acceleration of free fall : 9.8 ms–2
Rydberg Constant : 1.097 × 107 m–1
Atomic mass unit : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Charge on proton : 1.6 × 10–19 C

IMPORTANT VALUES

2 = 1.414 ln 10 = 2.303
3 = 1.732 log102 = 0.3010
5 = 2.236 log103 = 0.4770
 = 3.142 log107 = 0.845
e (Euler’s constant) = 2.718

* Use above values unless otherwise specified in a question.

❑❑❑

[2]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions internal energy of water in this process is: (density
1. A lake is covered with ice 2 cm thick. The a water is water = 1000 kg/m3)
temperature of ambient air is –15°C. Find the (1) Zero
rate of thickening of ice. For ice thermal (2) 2250 J
conductivity k = 4 × 10–4 kilo-Cal-m–1s–1(°C)–1. (3) 2066 J
Density = 0.9 × 103 kg/m3 and latent heat of (4) 2434 J
fusion of ice L = 80 kilo Cal/Kg.
(1) 1.5 cm/h (2) 0.75 cm/h 6. A satellite is moving around the sun in an
(3) 3 cm/h (4) 2 cm/h elliptical orbit. 'M' is the mass of sun and 'a' is
semi major axis of elliptical orbit. The velocity of
2. A cylindrical glass flask is filled with mercury up satellite when it reaches at A is
to a mark with volume 50cc at temperature 18°C.
If the flask and mercury are heated to 38°C, then
how much mercury will be above the 50cc mark
(coefficient of linear expansion of glass α = 9 ×
10–6/°C and coefficient of real volume expansion
of mercury  = 180 × 10–6/°C)?
4GM 2GM
(1) 0.85 cc (2) 0.46 cc (1) (2)
a a
(3) 0.153 cc (4) 0.05 cc
GM GM
(3) (4)
3. A cuboidal metal block floats in mercury. γ1 and 2a a
γ2 are the coefficients of volume expansion of the
metal block and mercury respectively. If the 7. A uniform hollow hemisphere having mass m is
temperatures of both mercury and the metal block closed with a circular disc of same mass and
are increased by ∆T. The fraction of the volume of radius R is hanging at one of its ends P, freely as
the metal block submerged in mercury changes by shown in figure. The system is slightly disturbed
the factor of. (Neglect the effect of surface so that it oscillates perpendicular to the plane of
tension) the disc. The time period of oscillation is
(1) (1 + γ2 ∆T)/(1 + γ1 ∆T)
(2) 1 + γ2 ∆T
(3) 1 + γ1 ∆T
(4) (1 + γ2 ∆T)/(1 – γ1 ∆T)

4. Consider the cyclic process ABCDA, as shown in

35R 35R
figure, performed on a sample of n moles of an (1) 2 (2) 2
ideal gas. Net heat supplied to the gas during the 6 17 g 12 5 g
process is 4nRT0. Then the work done during the 35R 35R
process AB will be: (3) 2 (4) 2
3 17 g 6 5g

8. A rectangular block is resting on a piston which

executes simple harmonic motion in vertical plain
with a time period of 2.0 s in vertical plane with
an amplitude just sufficient for the block to
separate from the piston. The maximum velocity
(1) 3nRT0 (2) nRT0(4 + n 3)
of the piston is (take acceleration due to gravity
(3) nRT0(3 + n3) (4) nRT0 (2 + n3) g = 10 m/s2)
5 10
(1) m/s (2) m/s
5. At constant temperature and constant atmospheric π π
pressure (105 Pa), 1 gm of water at 100°C π 20
(3) m/s (4) m/s
converts into 1841 cm3 of steam. If latent heat of 2 π
vaporization of water is 2250 J/gm. The change in

[3]
9. The fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire is remaining system; the amplitude of ensuing
100 Hz. When the weights producing the tension vibration of mass m2 is:
in the wire are completely immersed in water the
fundamental frequency reduces to 80 Hz and on
immersing the weights completely in a certain
other liquid the fundamental frequency further
reduces to 60 Hz. The specific gravity of the
liquid is
(1) 1.42 (2) 1.78 (1) m1g / k (2) m2 g / k
(3) 1.82 (4) 1.21
(3)
( m1 +m2 ) g (4)
( m2 -m1 ) g
10. A glass capillary of length l and inside radius r (r k k
<< l) is submerged vertically into water. The
upper end of the capillary is sealed. The 13. The mean value of the kinetic energy of helium
atmospheric pressure is p0. To what length h has molecules under normal conditions is close to
the capillary to be submerged to make the water (Given: the pressure and temperature of helium
levels inside and outside the capillary coincide. under normal conditions are p0 = 1.013 × 105 Pa
Assume that temperature of air in the capillary and T0 = 273 K respectively. From tables, we find
remains constant. (given, surface tension of water the molar mass of helium. M = 4 × 10–3 kg /mol,
= T, angle of contact between glass water the Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 J/K , the
interference = 0°) Avogadro constant NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1, and the
density of helium under normal conditions, 0 =
0.18 kg/m3.)
(1) 5.65 × 10–21 J
(2) 9.34 × 10–21 J
(3) 5.65 × 10–24 J
l l (4) 9.34 × 10–24 J
(1) (2)
p r p r
1+ 0 1+ 0
T 2T 14. Under same pressure and volume condition if
l l mass of He gas is 4 times that of hydrogen gas,
(3) (4) then mean velocity of He gas is (Assume ideal
p r 2 p0 r
1+ 0 1+ gas)
4T T
(1) 2 times of hydrogen gas -mean velocity value
11. A plane longitudinal wave having angular
1
(2) times of hydrogen gas -mean velocity value
frequency ω = 500 rad/sec is travelling in negative 2
x-direction in a medium of density  = 1 kg/m3 (3) 4 times of hydrogen gas -mean velocity value
and bulk modulus 4 × 104 N/m2. The loudness at a (4) Same as hydrogen gas -mean velocity value
point in medium is observed to be 20 dB.
Assuming at x = 0 initial phase of the medium 15. A hollow cone (M, R) of semi apex-angle 30° is
particles to be zero. The maximum pressure rolling without slipping on a fixed cone (same
change in the medium and equation of wave is radius and semi-angle) as shown. If angular speed
given by of rotation is 2 rad/s, find energy due to motion of
the cone. (Given that moment of inertia of a
 5 
(1) 4 × 10–4 N/m2, y = 2 × 10–9 sin  500t + x  m. hollow cone about its slant axis AB is
 2 
 5 
(2) 2 × 10–4 N/m2, y = 2 × 10–9 sin  500t + x  m.
I=
MR 2
4
( )
1 + 3cos 2 (  ) , where α is semi apex-
 2 
angle of cone)
(3) 4 × 10–4 N/m2, y = 4 × 10–9 sin (500 t + 5x) m.
 5 
(4) 2 × 10–4 N/m2, y = 4 × 10–9 sin  500t + x  m.
 2 

12. Masses m1 and m2 are suspended together in a

vertical plane by a massless spring of constant k
as shown in the figure. When the masses are in (1) 4J (2) 6J
equilibrium, m1 is removed without disturbing the (3) (8/3) J (4) (39/4) J
[4]
16. A rectangular smooth Block B has mass m and is
released from rest when it is on top of smooth
wedge A, which has a mass 3m. Determine the
tension in horizontal light cord CD needed to hold
the wedge from moving while B is sliding down
A. Neglect friction
19. In the figure three identical springs are shown.
From spring A, a mass of 4 kg is hung and spring
shows elongation of 1 cm at equilibrium. But
when a weight of 6 kg is hung on B, the Hook
descends by:

mg (1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm
(1) 2 mg cos θ (2) cosθ
2 (3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm
mg
(3) sin 2θ (4) mg sin 2θ
2 20. Statement-1: In a standing wave formed in a
stretched wire, the energy of each element of
17. A small point size ball of mass m moving with the wire is same.
constant velocity u collides perfectly elastically Statement-2: The net energy transfer in a
with a smooth horizontal surface at O as shown in standing wave is zero.
Figure. The y-axis is drawn normal to the (1) Statement-1 is True. Statement-2 is True:
horizontal surface at the point of impact O and Statement -2 is a correct explanation for
x -axis is horizontal as shown. Among the Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is True. Statement-2 is True:
following, about which point will the angular
Statement -2 is NOT a correct explanation
momentum of ball be conserved? (Neglect gravity
for Statement-1.
and friction)
(3) Statement -1 is True. Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False. Statement-2 is True.

Integer Type Questions

21. A string with linear mass density μ = 5.00 × 10–2
kg/m is under a tension of 80.0 N. Power that
must be supplied to the string to generate
(1) Point A (2) Point B sinusoidal waves at a frequency of 60.0 Hz and an
(3) Point C (4) None of these amplitude of 6.00 cm is equal to x Watt. Value of
x
18. A smooth circular track of mass M is vertically to the nearest integer is equal to_________.
100
hung by a string down the ceiling. Two small
rings, each of mass m are initially at the top of the
22. A solid uniform cylinder of mass m performs
track. They slide down simultaneously along the
small oscillations due to action of two springs of
track in opposite directions. Find the position of
combined stiffness equal to k (figure). The period
the rings, when tension in the string becomes zero of these oscillations in the absence of sliding is
for the first time.
xm
T = . Then find x:
2k

5  3M
(1)  = cos−1  1 + 1−  
23. The vertical section of a frictionless surface is as
 3  2m   shown in the figure. A smooth small block of
mass 2 kg is released from rest from position A;
5  3M  
(2)  = sin −1  1 + 1− 
Find the Kinetic energy (in Joule) of the block as
 3  2m   it reaches at position C (g = 10 ms –2 ) (Assume
1  that the block doesn't lose contact with the tracks)
3M  
(3)  = cos−1  1 + 1− 
 3  2m  
1  3M  
(4)  = sin −1  1 + 1− 
 3  2m  

[5]
24. A body of mass m = 4kg starts moving with
velocity v0 in a straight line in such a way that on
the body work is being done at the rate which is
proportional to the square of velocity as given by
0.693 N − sec
P = βv2 where  = . Find the time
2 m
elapsed in second before velocity of body is
doubled.
29.
25. If work done in stretching a wire by 1 mm is 2 J,
the work necessary for stretching another wire of
same material by 1mm, but of double the radius
and half the length of earlier wire (in joules)
is ________.
26. A uniform spherical drop of liquid of density  is
floating half-immersed at the surface of an
immiscible liquid of density d. If the surface
tension of the liquid is  then the diameter of the
3
drop of the liquid is given by n then
g (2 d )
find the value of n (assume angle of contact is
180°)
28. A thief is running away on a straight road in a car
moving with a constant speed of 9 ms–1. A
policeman chases him on a motor bike moving at
a constant speed of 20 ms–1. If the instantaneous
separation of the car from the motor bike is 99 m,
how long (in seconds) will it take for the
policeman to catch the thief?
A hollow sphere (mass m, radius R) is put inside a
hollo cone (mass m, base radius 3R and semi
apex-angle 30°) as shown in the figure. The whole
arrangement is rigidly fixed to the ground at the
apex of the cone. Both the sphere and the cone are
made of the same material (α = 10–4/°C).
Considering that major changes in dimensions
could happen only due to heating effects, find the
increase in potential energy (in mJ) of the system
if it's temperature is increased by 100°C. (g = 10
m/s2)

27. A liquid of density  = 1000 kg/m3 viscosity

 = 0.1Ns/m2 is flowing down in vertical pipe of
30.
large cross section. A small ball of density 0 =
100 kg/m3 and r = 5cm will be at rest in flowing
liquid, if velocity of flowing liquid is 10K m/s.
Then find the value of K. (g = 10 m/s2)
A point size body of mass m rises to a height
h =R / 5 from the earth's surface where R is
earth's radius. If g is acceleration due to gravity at
the earth's surface, the increase in potential energy
X
is mgh where X and Y are non divisible integers
Y
then find the value of X + Y

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)

Single Correct Type Questions (1) K1 K22 (2) K1 –K2

31. A sodium streetlight gives off yellow light that
has a wavelength of 600 nm. Then
(1) Frequency of this light is 7× 1014 s–1
(2) Frequency of this light is 5× 1014 s–1
(3) Wavenumber of the light is 3 × 106 m–1
(4) Energy of the photon is approximately 4.14 eV
32. The equilibrium constant for the following two
reactions are K1 and K2 respectively.
XeF6 (g) + H2O (g)  XeOF4 (g) + 2HF (g)
XeO4 (g) + XeF6 (g)  XeOF4 (g) + XeO3F2(g)
The equilibrium constant for the given reaction
is:
XeO4 (g) + 2HF (g)  XeO3F2 (g) + H2O (g)
(3) K2 / K1 (4) K1 / K2
33. Which one of the following statements is correct
in relation to ionization enthalpy?
(1) Electron-electron interaction in the outer
orbitals of the elements increases the
ionization enthalpy.
(2) Removal of electron from orbitals bearing
higher ‘n’ value is easier than from orbitals
having lower ‘n’ value.
(3) The ionization enthalpies of iso-electronic
species, F–, Ne and Na+ are same because
their size and electronic configuration are
same.
(4) End of valence electrons is indicated by a
small jump in ionization enthalpy.

[6]
34. CoCl42– (aq) is blue in color while [Co(H2O)6 ]2+ (aq)
is pink. The color of reaction mixture
[Co(H2O)6]2+ (aq) + 4Cl– (aq) CoCl42– (aq)
+ 6H2O()
is blue at room temperature while it is pink when
cooled hence,
(1) reaction is exothermic
(2) reaction is endothermic
(3) equilibrium will shift in forward direction 42.
on adding water to reaction mixture
(4) equilibrium can shift in either direction on
adding water to equilibrium mixture.
41. Consider the following reaction:
aP4(s) + bOH–(aq) + cH2O(l) → xPH3(g) +
yH 2 PO 2– (aq)
The equivalent weight (in g/eq.) of P4(s) in the
reaction is
(1) 31 (2) 124
(3) 41.33 (4) 62
Benzene undergoes Friedel-Crafts reaction with
acid chloride in the presence of a Lewis acid. The
product (P) having highest % yield among the
given products of the following reaction is

35. In which pair is the stronger bond found in the

first species?
(1) O2– , O2 (2) N2 , N2+
– +
(3) NO , NO (4) O2, O22+

36. From the following pairs, containing reaction

intermediates or compounds involved in organic (1)
reaction, select the pair in which first species is
more stable than the second.
(1)

+ +
(2) CH3 – CH 2 , ( CH3 )3 C (2)
(3) CH3 – CH 2 – CH = CH 2 ,
CH 3 – CH = CH – CH 3
– –
(4) Ph − CH 2 , ( CH3 )3 C
(3)
37. Which of the following orbitals has zero
probability of finding the electron in xy plane?
(1) pz (2) d 2
z
(3) d (4) px
x 2 – y2
(4)
38. The set representing the correct order of first
ionization potential is:
(1) K > Na > Li (2) Be > Mg > Ca
(3) B > C > N (4) Ge > Si > C
43. What is the relation between methyl ethanoate
39. In lassaigne test thio urea is converted into: and 3-hydroxy propanal:
(1) NaSCN (2) Na2S (1) Chain isomer
(3) NaCN (4) Na2SO4 (2) Positional isomer
(3) Functional isomer
40. Consider the following hydroboration oxidation (4) Metamers
reactions of alkene to form alcohol:

44. Which of the following is not true for maleic acid

and fumaric acid.
(1) Configurational isomers
Select the correct statement. (2) Stereo isomers
(1) A and B have different molecular formula (3) Z and E isomers
(2) A and B are identical compounds
(4) Optical isomers
(3) A and B are structural isomers
(4) A and B are 3°-alcohols
[7]
45. The compound C4H10O can show 2K + 2 + 22 HNO3 → 2HO3 + 2KO3 + 22NO2
(1) Metamerism + 10H2O
(2) Functional isomerism (1) 1075.2 Lt (2) 739.2 Lt
(3) Positional isomerism (3) 44.8 Lt (4) 67.2 Lt
(4) All the above
Integer Type Questions
46. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas (Cv = 5 cal K–1 51. If the solubility of Ag2SO4 in 10–2 M Na2SO4
mol–1) was transformed from initial 25°C and 1 L solution be 2 × 10–8 M then Ksp of Ag2SO4 will be
to the state where temperature is 100°C and x × 10–18, the value of x is______.
volume 10 L. The entropy change of the process
can be expressed as (R = 2 calories/mol/K) 52. For a hydrogen like species radial wave function
298 for an orbital is given as
(1) 3 ln + 2 ln 10
373
4  r 2  e− r/3a 0
373 R (r) =  6r − 
(2) 5 ln + 2 ln 10 81 3a 3/2  a 0  a 0
298 0 
373 1 The sum of spherical and planar nodes for the
(3) 7 ln + 2 ln
298 10 given orbital is______.
373 1
(4) 5 ln → + 2 ln
298 10 53. The melting point of a solid is 300 K and its
latent heat of fusion is 600 cal mol–1. The entropy
47. From the following pair of properties, select the change for the fusion of 1 mole of the solid (in
pair in which both properties (in general) either cal K–1) at the same temperature would be_____.
increase or both properties decrease as we move
down the group in modern periodic table.
Cl /hv
(1) Metallic character and electronegativity 54. ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 → total products
monochlorination
(2) Acidic nature of oxide and atomic radius (excluding stereoisomers)
(M)
(3) Atomic radius and electronegativity
(4) Acidic nature of oxide and electronegativity The value of M is_______.

48. The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy 55. Calculate total number of geometrical isomers
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of a hydrogen-like possible for the compound with molecular
species is: formula C2FClBrI.
(1) 1/2 (2) –1/2
(3) 1 (4) –1 56. The number of compounds given with correct
IUPAC name is______.
CH3
49. With 14 moles of A and 20 moles of B, 8 moles |
of C are formed according to the following (i) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH – CH 2 – CH 3
|
reaction CH2CH3
3A + 4B → 2C 3–Methyl–4–ethyl heptane
Select the correct options
(ii) 3–Methyl–butan-2-ol
(1) 8 moles of B react
(2) 10 moles of A react (iii)
(3) 4 moles of B left
(4) 8 moles of A left 2–Ethyl–3–methyl–but–1–ene

(iv)
50. If 3 mole of K & 2 moles 2 are reacted with
excess of HNO3. Volume of NO2 gas evolved at
4–Methylpent-2-yne
NTP is:
The balanced reaction involved is

[8]
57. A 50 mL solution is prepared by dissolving 0.53
g Na2CO3 and 1.05 g NaHCO3. The prepared
solution is titrated with 0.5 M HCl solution. The
volume (in mL) of HCl solution used till
phenolphthalein end point is_____.
58. Kjeldahl method is used for quantitative
estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound.
During a Kjeldahl estimation of nitrogen, the
ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of an organic
compound required 13.5 mL of 0.75 M H2SO4
solution for complete neutralization. The
percentage of nitrogen in the compound is _____.
(nearest integer)
59. Consider the decomposition of ferrous sulphate
as per the following equation
FeSO4(s) → Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g)
A 40 g sample of FeSO4 (impure) on
decomposition left a residue of 22 g. The %
purity of the sample is
(assume impurity to be inert)
60. A solution saturated in lime water has a pH of 12.
Then the Ksp for Ca(OH)2 is x × 10–7, then the
value of x is____.

SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions (3) {1, 2, 3, 4} (4) {1, 2, 4, 5}
 z −1  −1 + i 3 100
61. If Re   = 1, where z = x + iy, then the 66. Let  = . If a = (1 +  ) 2 k and
 2z + i  2 k =0
100
b =  3k , then a and b are the roots of the
point (x, y) lies on a
 1 3 k =0
(1) Circle whose centre is at  − , − 
 2 2 quadratic equation
(1) x2 – 101x + 100 = 0
2
(2) Straight line whose slope is − (2) x2 – 102x + 101 = 0
3 (3) x2 + 101x + 100 = 0
5 (4) x2 + 102x + 101 = 0
(3) Circle whose diameter is
2
67. The area of a quadrilateral whose vertices are
3 1, i, , 2, where  ( 1) is an imaginary cube
(4) Straight line whose slope is
2 root of unity, is
3+ 2 3
62. If A + B + C = 3/2, (1) sq. units
4
then cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2C= 3+ 2 3
(1) 1 – 4 cosA cosB cosC (2) sq. units
2
(2) 4sin A sin B sin C
3+2
(3) 1 + 2 cos A cos B cos C (3) sq. units
(4) 1 – 4 sin A sin B sin C 4
3+2
(4) sq. units
63. The S.D. of the series a, a + d, a + 2d, ….…, 2
a +2nd, is
68. Which of the following is incorrect for the
n ( n + 1) 2 n ( n + 1) hyperbola x2 – 2y2 – 2x + 8y – 1 = 0?
(1) d (2) d
3 3 (1) Its eccentricity is 2
n ( n − 1) n ( n − 1) (2) Length of the transverse axis is 2 3 units
(3) d2 (4) d (3) Length of the conjugate axis is 2 6 units
3 3
(4) Length of latus rectum is 4 3 units
64. Given g(f (x)) = x2 + 2x + 3, then the expression 69. A line L passing through the focus of the
for f (x) if g ( x ) = x − 1 is
parabola y 2 = 4 ( x − 1) intersects the parabola in
(1) f (x) = x4 + 4x3 + 10x2 + 12x + 10
(2) f (x) = x4 – 4x3 + 10x2 – 12x + 10 two distinct points. If ‘m’ be the slope of the line
(3) f (x) = x4 + 4x3 + 10x2 – 12x + 10 L then
(4) f (x) = x4 + 4x3 + 10x2 + 12x – 10 (1) −1  m  1
(2) m  −1 or m  1
65. If A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {3, 4, 5},
(3) m  R
then (A – B)  (B – A) is
(1) {1, 2, 3, 5} (2) {1, 2, 4} (4) m  R − 0

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 2 4
70. Number of positive integer(s) which DO NOT (3) (4)
3 3
1
1 log 2 x 78. Four numbers are chosen at random from
2 1
satisfy {1, 2, 3, …, 40}. The probability that they are not
1 log 2 x 2
consecutive, is
(1) 2 (2) 3
1
(3) 1 (4) 4 (1)
2470

(1 – cos 4x ) sin
4
4 4 2
4x (2)
7969
71. lim
x→0 x 2469
(3)
(1) Is –2 9/4
2470
(2) Is 29/4 7965
(3) Does not exist as LHL does not exist (4)
7969
(4) Does not exist as LHL  RHL
79. Let mean of 100 data points be 55 and variance
72. An isosceles triangle with base 24 and legs 15
(each) is inscribed in a circle with centre at (–1, be 16. Now if every data point is increased by
1), then locus of the centroid of that  is 2 units, then the sum of mean and standard
(1) 4 (x2 + y2) + 8x – 8y – 73 = 0 deviation of new data points will be
(2) 2 (x2 + y2) + 4x – 4y – 31 = 0 (1) 70 (2) 81
(3) 2 (x2 + y2) + 4x – 4y – 21 = 0
(3) 51 (4) 61
(4) 4 (x2 + y2) + 8x – 8y – 161 = 0

73. The coefficient of x4 in the expansion of 80. Consider the following statements:
(1 + x + x2)10 is 123 then  is (A) Mean is not independent of change of scale
(1) 5 (2) 6 (B) Variance is independent of change of origin
(3) 7 (4) 8 and scale.
Which of these is/are correct?
74. The number of ways in which an examiner can (1) Both A and B correct
assign 30 marks to 8 questions giving not less (2) Only B correct
than 2 marks to any question, is (3) Only A correct
(1) 21C7 (2) 21C2 (4) Both A and B incorrect
25
(3) C8 (4) 30C8
Integer Type Questions
75. Consider a convex polygon, which has 44
81. The largest integral value of a for which all the
diagonals, then the number of triangles joining
roots of the equation (a – 1) (x2 + x + 1)2 = (a + 1)
the vertices of the polygon in which exactly one
side common in triangle and polygon, is (1 + x2 + x4) are imaginary, is
(1) 57 (2) 67
(3) 77 (4) 73 82. If the area of the quadrilateral formed by the lines
x + y – 1 = 0, 2x – y – 2 = 0, 3x + 2y – 10 = 0,
76. Five numbers are in A.P., whose sum is 25 and and 2x – 3y – 11 = 0 is λ, then 10λ is
product is 2520. If one of these five numbers is
1
1
– , then the greatest number amongst them is  3x 2 + 2  x2 1
2 83. lim  2  is equal to k , then k is
x →0 7 x + 2
(1) 15 (2) 14   e
(3) 12 (4) 16
84. Let  be the 7th root of unity. Then
77. The locus of the point of intersection of the lines 8
log3 1 +  +  2 +  3 +  4 +  5 − is equal to
3 x − y − 4 3m = 0 and 3mx + my − 4 3 = 0 
(where m is a parameter) is a hyperbola whose
eccentricity is 85. If e1 and e2 are the eccentricities of the ellipse
(1) 3 (2) 2 x2 y 2 x2 y 2
+ = 1 and the hyperbola – =1
18 4 9 4

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 respectively, and (e1, e2) is a point on the ellipse sin x + ae x + be− x + c ln (1 + x )
15x2 + 3y2 = k, then k is equal to 88. If A = lim , where
x →0 x3
A is a finite non-zero number, then greatest
86. If integer value of y which satisfy in equation
 tan  + cot   1  3  [|y + a| – b]  2c is, where [.] represents the
y ( ) = 2   + 2 ,   ,   ,
 1 + tan   sin   4 
2
greatest integer function.
dy 5
then at  = is
d 6 89. If A = (2, 6, 8) and B = (5, 10, 13) and distance
between these two points is a 2 , then the value
87. Let P(x) = x – x – x – x – x and Q(x) = x – x –
6 5 3 2 4 3
of a is
x2 – 1. If    and  are the roots of Q(x) = 0,
x
x+5
If the value of lim 
then the value of P() + P() + P() + P() is 3k
90.  is e , then k is
equal to x → x − 7
 

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