You are on page 1of 16

H2 Physics Nov 2009 GCE A-level - Solutions

Paper 1

1
Paper 2

1 (a) Scalar quantities have magnitude only.


Vector quantities have both magnitude and directions.

(b) Rate of change of velocity (with respect to time) or change of velocity per unit time.

[Examiner’s comment: A few candidates lost credit by writing “the rate of change of velocity per
unit time”]

(c) (i) = √18 + 18 = 25.5 VA = 18 ms-1

VB – VA
VB = 18 ms-1

(ii) 25.5
= = 5.79
4.4

(iii)

(iv) The resultant force is perpendicular to the direction of the motion, and as such, no work is
being done by this resultant force. Since no work is done by the resultant force, there is no
change in the kinetic energy.

Alternate answer:
The resultant force is perpendicular to the direction of the motion and is directed to the
centre of the curvature. Hence, from Newton’s Second Law, the acceleration is also
perpendicular to the motion and does not have a component in the direction of car’s travel.
As such, this centripetal acceleration will only change the direction and not the magnitude of
the car’s velocity.
Since there is no change in the magnitude of the car’s velocity, the KE of the car remains
unchanged (since Change in KE = ½ mv2 – ½ mu2)

2
2 (a) Taking upward as positive and using v2 = u2 + 2as,
02 = u2 + 2(-9.81)(1.8)
u2 = 35.316
u = 5.943 = 5.94 ms-1

(b) Taking rightward as positive,


Force = rate of change of momentum
− (0.45)(−5.2 − 6.6)
= = = −24.14 = −24.1
0,22

Therefore, Magnitude = 24.1 N


Direction of the force on the ball = towards the left

[Examiner’s comment: The average candidates often neglected the vector nature of the problem
and subtracted the magnitudes of the two horizontal velocities and hence lost one of the marks.
The weaker candidates used the initial momentum divided by the time (F = mv/t) in an attempt to
calculate the force.]

(c) No, KE is not conserved after the collision since the speed of the ball before and after the
collision has changed.

(d) The time of the flight for it to rise before the collision is the same as the time it takes to drop after
the collision. However, the horizontal component after the collision has reduced. As such, even
with the same time interval, the ball will travel a shorter horizontal distance after the rebound and
land closer to the wall.

[Examiner’s comment: The majority of candidates found this part extremely difficult. The reduction
in the kinetic energy was given as an explanation for the change in horizontal displacement.
Some good candidates failed to gain credit because of the lack of precision in their somewhat
vague statements that the “velocity had changed” or “was different”.]

3 (a) The distribution of the mass is not uniform and is concentrated more to the left side based on the
position of the centre of gravity.

(b) 1. No resultant forces (i.e. Sum of all forces = 0 in all directions)

2. No resultant torque (i.e. Sum of all moments = 0 about any point)

[Examiner’s comment: Common statements that were not rewarded were that the boat had no
acceleration and no rotation, or that the upward forces equal the downward forces. A few
candidates gave the statements for the moments of a force and for torques as though they were
two different conditions.]

(c) Taking moment about the pivot where rope 2 is attached to the boat,

3
Sum of clockwise moment = Sum of anticlockwise moment
(15000)(2.00-0.75) = T1(2.00)
T1 = 9375 N

Taking moment about the pivot where rope 1 is attached to the boat,
(15000)(0.75) = T2(2.00)
T2 = 5625 N

4 (a) (i) Diffraction refers to the bending or spreading of the light waves when the light passes
through the slits of the diffraction grating into the “shadow” region.

(ii) Coherence refers to the constant phase difference between the light waves that are
emerging from the diffraction grating.

(iii) Superposition refers to the phenomenon where the diffracted light waves, which are of the
same type of waves, emerging from the slits of the diffraction grating meeting at a point in
space, giving a resultant displacement of the waves to be equal to the vector sum of their
individual displacements at that point.

[Examiner’s comment: Very few candidates answered the question and related the terms required
to the given context of the diffraction of light by a diffraction grating.
ai) Very few candidates described the diffraction produced by the slits / elements of the diffraction
grating. The majority gave the general description of diffraction.
aii) The most common errors were to state “the same phase difference” or “the same frequency
and amplitude” or to explain coherence as a property of the light sources rather than the waves.
aiii) This part was poorly answered. Most candidates merely stated that superposition was related
to the overlapping of the waves or the vector sum of displacements. Some then went on to say
that this produced interference and bright and dark fringes. A significant number of candidates
stated that the resultant wave had an amplitude that was the sum of the amplitudes of the
amplitude of the overlapping waves. This was not given any credit.]

(b) (i) For maximum angle, the longest wavelength should be used. Using, sin =
(1 10 )
sin = (2) (650 10 )
500
= 40.54 = 40.5

(ii) For minimum angle, the shortest wavelength should be used. Using sin =
(1 10 )
sin = (3) (350 10 )
500
= 31.67 = 31.7

(iii) As the maximum angle of the second order spectrum is higher than the minimum angle of
the third order spectrum, there will be an overlap between these two orders. The colours will
be mixed up and makes viewing and determining the colours from which spectrum difficult.

4
5 (a) Using =
(1.6 10 ) (1.6 10 )
= = 57.548 = 57.5
4 (8.85 10 )(2.0 10 )

(b) It represent the work done required by an external agent to bring P1 from a distance of 2.0 x 10-15
m away from P2 to an infinite distance away.

[Examiner’s comment: A vague reference to potential energy did not score any marks. Those
candidates who described the area in terms of work done generally gained some credit.
Unfortunately the limits of the distance moved were often given as from the point 2.0 x 10-15 m
away from P2 to P2.]

(c) When the particle fuses, the products have less mass than the reactants. The energy equivalent
of this amount of mass is released as kinetic energies of the products and energy of the gamma
rays emitted.
OR
Binding energy of the products is more than the binding energy of the reactants. During fusion,
the difference between binding energies is released as kinetic energies of the products and
energy of the gamma rays emitted.
[Examiner’s comment: The vast majority of the candidates did not gain any credit for this part.
Their answers often referred to the energy transformations before fusion occurred. Many
candidates gave vague answers that had transformations such as kinetic energy to potential
energy to nuclear energy, or declared that the kinetic energy was used as binding energy to fuse
the particles together. Only a very few candidates described the energy available due to the mass
defect and where this energy was then found. Very few referred to the binding energy being
made available when the two particles fuse.]

6 (a) =
= (0.18)(30 10 24 10 )(15)
= 0.01944
= 0.019

(b) (i) There is a change in the magnetic flux linkage of the coil and hence, by Faraday’s law, an
emf will be induced in the coil.

[Examiner’s comment: A small minority gave the reason as a change in the magnetic field
rather than a change in the magnetic flux linkage through the coil and hence did not score
any marks.]

(ii) Magnitude of induced emf,


E = change in flux linkage / time taken = (0.01944-0) / 4 = 0.00486 V.

[Examiner’s comment: A significant minority used the gradient of the graph or the rate of
change of magnetic field for the calculation of the induced emf and gained no credit.]

5
(iii)

7 (a) Using pV = nRT, from the graph,


At V1 = 2.0 x 10-3 m3, p1 = 1.0 x 105 Pa and
At V2 = 8.0 x 10-4 m3, p2 = 4.0 x 105 Pa
Since p1V1 = nRT1 and p2V2 = nRT2,
(4.0 x 10 )(8.0 x 10 )
= = = 1.6 > 1
(1.0 x 10 )(2.0 x 10 )
Therefore, T2 > T1
Hence, temperature of the air increase from T1 to T2 when it is compressed from V1 = 2.0 x 10-3
m3 to V2 = 8.0 x 10-4
[Examiner’s comment: A significant number of candidates did not read the correct value for the
pressure from the pressure against volume graph when the gas had been compressed. Some
candidates did not use the ideal gas equation and tried to use thermodynamics to explain the
increase in the temperature. Some stated that pV was proportional to T without giving a reason.
However, the good candidates often scored some credit. The weaker candidates tried to explain
the increase in the temperature without any numerical analysis.

(b) Taking logarithms on both sides of the equation,


lg = lg
lg + lg = lg
lg = − lg + lg
If the relationship holds, then this graph will be a straight line with the equation in the form y = mx
+ c, where the gradient m = - and the y-intercept is lg c.

(c) (i) From Fig 7.2, when V = 1.00 x 10-3 m3, the pressure p = 2.6 x 105 Pa.
Hence, lg (p / Pa) = 5.415.

(ii) 1. When V = 1.00 x 10-3 m3, lg (V / m3) = -3.0.


2. The best fit line is shown in the figure below

6
(iii) Using the points (-3.11, 5.6) and (-2.69, 5.0),
. .
= ( )
= −1.429 = −1.43 ⟹ Hence, γ = 1.43.
. .

and lg = − lg + lg
5 = -1.429(-2.69) + lg c
lg c = 5 + 1.429(-2.69)
c = 14.4

[Examiner’s comment: A significant number of candidates made errors in reading the


coordinates from the graph when calculating the gradient.]

(d) Given that the compression ratio is 3.85 and initial volume of gas is 2.00 x 10-3 m3,
the final volume = (2.00 x 10-3) / 3.85 = 5.19 x 10-4 m3.

7
From the graph, the estimated final temperature = 530 K.

[Examiner’s comment: The reading of the temperature from the graph was only carried out
correctly by a minority of candidates, with the majority misreading the volume scale.]

(e) The high pressure causes the gas to expand very rapidly under adiabatic conditions since there is
very little or no time for heat exchange between the gas and its surrounding.

Applying the first law of thermodynamics, the decrease in internal energy is equal to the work
done by the gas in expanding.

From Figure 7.4, the temperature decreases rapidly when the volume of gas increases rapidly.

[Examiner’s comment: The vast majority of candidates struggled with this part. Many of the
answers focused on the gradient of the temperature against volume graph. A very small number
of candidates considered the short time for the expansion of the gas, realising that this meant that
there was little time for any heat exchange with the surroundings.]

8
Paper 3

1 (a) Simple harmonic motion is an oscillatory motion in which the acceleration is (always) proportional
to its displacement from a fixed point (or equilibrium position) and is always directed towards that
point.

(b) (i) 1. Angular frequency = 2πf = 2π(620) = 3896 = 3900 rad s-1
2. Maximum acceleration = |-ω2x0| = (3896)2(0.21 x 10-3) = 3187 = 3190 m s-2

(ii)

(c) If the natural frequency of the loudspeaker cone is equal to the driving frequency, resonance will
occur and the amplitude of the loudspeaker cone will increase greatly.
Hence, the sound “volume”/loudness will not be uniform.

2 (a) (i) R = V / I = (4.5) / 2.5 = 1.8 

(ii) Using, R = L / A  L = RA /  = (1.8)x [π x (0.30 x 10-3)-2] / (1.6 x 10-8) = 31.809


# turns = L / circumference = 31.809 / (8.8 x 10-2) = 361.47 = 360 turns (2 s.f.)

[Examiner’s comment: Some quoted an answer of 360 without showing the appropriate
working. The impression given was that they had worked backwards from the information
given in (iii). Working should always be shown.]

(iii) # turns per m = 360 / 0.12 = 3000 turns m-1

(b) (i) The telsa (T) is usually defined as newton per metre per ampere (N m-1 A-1) or weber per
square metre (Wb m-2).
It is a unit of the magnetic flux density and is the density of a field in which a long straight
conductor carrying a current of 1 A normal to the field experiences a magnetic force per unit
length of 1 N m-1.

9
[Examiner’s comment: Definitions were disappointing, where very few candidates being
awarded full credit. Where a unit is being defined, then any units in the definition must be
identified. For example, unit current is not acceptable where what is required is one ampere.
Furthermore, any ratios should also be made clear. For example, it is inappropriate to refer
to a force of 1 newton acting on 1 metre length. Instead, reference should be made to force
per unit length of 1 newton per metre. Very few definitions made reference to a straight wire
normal to the magnetic field.]

(ii) Using the given formula,


B = μ0nI = 4π x 10-7 x 3000 x 2.5 = 9.425 x 10-3 T = 9.43 x 10-3 T

(c) (i) Along the axis, v = 4.0 x 107 x cos 30o = 3.464 x 107 = 3.46 x 107 m s-1

(ii) Normal to the axis, v = 4.0 x 107 x sin 30o = 2.0 x 107 m s-1

[Examiner’s comment: Most candidates calculated the components correctly, but


candidates should be reminded to take care to quote any answer to an appropriate number
of significant figures. Even if the answer is a whole number, the candidate needs to
give the correct number of significant figures.]

(d) The magnetic force acting on the particle F = Bqv. This force provides the centripetal force
required to keep the particle in a circular path. Hence,
Bqv = mv2 / r  r = mv / Bq.

[Examiner’s comment: In general, answers were disappointing. Many candidates wrote down a
statement that the centripetal force equals the magnetic force and then merely listed equations.
Firstly, these answers did not make it clear that this is not an equilibrium situation, but rather that
the magnetic force provides the centripetal force. Secondly each equation was not clearly
identified with a particular force.]

(e) The normal component of the velocity determines the radius of the electron’s helical path, which
is
r = mv / Bq = (9.11 x 10-31 x 2.0 x 107) / (9.425 x 10-3 x 1.6 x 10-19) = 0.012 m
The diameter of the electron’s helical path (starting at the axis of the solenoid) is thus 0.024m,
greater than the radius of the solenoid (0.014m) and hence it will collide.

[Examiner’s comment: Only a minority of candidates came to the correct conclusion. This minority
did realise that, since the electron is injected on the axis of the solenoid, then the diameter of the
helix, not its radius, must be less than the radius of the solenoid if the electron is not to collide
with the wall.]

3 (a) Using de Broglie’s wave-particle duality equation, the momentum


p = h / λ = (6.63 x 10-34) / (2.4 x 10-10) = 2.763 x 10-24 = 2.76 x 10-24 N m

10
(b) The kinetic energy of a particle is
Ek = p2 / 2me = (2.763 x 10-24)2 / (2 x 9.11 x 10-31) = 4.19 x 10-18 J
By the Conservation of energy, the gain in KE = loss in electric PE
eV = Ek = 4.19 x 10-18
V = (4.19 x 10-18) / (1.60 x 10-19) = 26.19 = 26.2 V

4 (a) The definition, based on the number of nuclei inside the box, is inappropriate because on any
radioactive emission, another nucleus would be formed and so the number of nuclei in the box
would not change.
The definition should be based on the number of Cobalt-60 nuclei reducing to half its initial value.

[Examiner’s comment: It was common to find that candidates took issue with the use of the term
initial value. There were very few clear statements that, on emission of a B-particle, another
nucleus would be formed and so the number of nuclei in the box would not change. Reference
should have been made to the number of Cobalt-60 nuclei.]

(b) Decay constant of Cobalt-60,


(1.8 10 )
= = = = 4.172 10
/ (4.3 10 )(6.02 10 ) / (60)

Therefore, Half-life of Cobalt-60


(ln 2)
= = 1.661 10 = 5.27

5 (a) (i) The gravitational field strength at a point in a gravitational field is the gravitational force per
unit mass on a small point mass placed at that point.

[Examiner’s comment: The most common error here was to define field strength in terms of
force on a unit mass. The ratio should be made clear, that is, force per unit mass.]

(ii) Newton’s law of gravitation states that the gravitational force of attraction F between two
point masses M and m is directly proportional to the product of their masses, and inversely
proportional to the square of their separation r.

This gives rise to F = GMm / R2, where G is a constant of proportionality known as the
gravitational constant

Since gravitational field strength g is the force per unit mass m, the gravitational field
strength at a distance R from M is

11
g = F / m = (GMm / R2) / m = GM / R2

[Examiner’s comment: Comparatively few definitions included the condition that the masses
involved are point masses. Although candidates were instructed to show that the given
expression is valid, many failed to give appropriate explanation by starting with the relevant
expression for field strength, namely g = F/m.]

(b) (i) Mean density of the star = mass / volume


5.2 10
= = 2.53 10
4
(1.7 10 )
3

(ii) The density is likely to be higher nearer the centre.


The closer it is to the centre, the greater the amount of matter above with gravity pressing
inwards. Hence the outer layers would exert pressure and compress the inner layer closer
to the centre resulting in higher densities nearer the core.

[Examiner’s comment: This is a neutron star and yet candidates discussed different rock
composition in the star. Very few considered that the outer layers cause compression of the
inner layers. The most common answer was to assume constant mass and then to state
that volume depends on radius. Hence, increasing the radius would reduce the density.]

(c) (i) g = GM / R2
= (6.67 x 10-11)(5.2 x 1030) / (1.7 x 104)2
= 1.20 x 1012 N kg-1

(ii) a = r ω2 = r(2π / T)2 = (1.7 x 104) (2π / 0.21)2 = 1.52 x 107 m s-2

(iii) No, the particles will not leave the surface.

The gravitational field strength is much greater than the centripetal acceleration. Therefore,
the gravitational force acting on a particle on the surface is more than sufficient to provide
the centripetal force required to keep it in circular motion about the centre of the star.

[Examiner’s comment: Some candidates attempted to calculate an escape speed rather


than use the answers given in (i) and (ii). Others merely stated that the particles would not
fly off because the field strength is greater than the centripetal acceleration. Relatively few
went on to discuss gravitational force of attraction and centripetal force.]

(d) As the gravitational field strength of the star is very strong, the acceleration of the protons
towards the star is very high. Consequently, as accelerating charge particles emit e.m. radiation,
high energy photons are emitted. As wavelength of photons is inversely proportional to energy,
the wavelength is very short and is in the X-ray region.
OR
The strong gravitational field strength accelerates the protons to very high speeds as they stream
towards the star. As the protons smash into the star’s surface, they are decelerated and their

12
kinetic energy is converted into electromagnetic waves as braking radiation. The wavelength of
the radiation emitted is inversely proportional to the kinetic energy Ek of the protons ( = ℎ / ).
Since the protons have very large kinetic energy, their wavelength is very short and in the X-ray
region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

[Examiner’s comment: Candidates seemed to be unable to apply the concept that charged
particles that are accelerating will emit e.m. radiation, as exemplified by X–ray production in an X-
ray tube, to this situation. Candidates were given an indication of the magnitude of the
accelerations involved by their answers in (c)(i). Instead, many referred to excitations and
subsequent de-excitations of electrons in neutrons, saying these gave rise to the X-ray photons.]

6 (a) The gradient of the graph is not constant, indicating the acceleration of the ball changes with
speed. From Newton’s Second Law, it can be deduced that the resultant force also changes with
speed. Since the resultant force comprises the ball’s weight and air resistance, but weight being
constant, it may be deduced that air resistance varies with speed.

[Examiner’s comment: Surprisingly, many candidates made reference to the gradient of the
tangent to the line without then stating that this gradient is a measure of the acceleration.]

(b) When the ball is at rest (v=0) at t = 1.75 s, there is no air resistance hence the resultant force
acting on the ball is its weight alone. The acceleration of the ball at this instance is the
acceleration of free fall, which can be found from the gradient of the graph at t = 1.75 s.

[Examiner’s comment: In some answers, there was no reference to the point at which the tangent
should be drawn. Others specified the point where t = 0. Of those who did specify the point where
v = 0, the majority did not give a reason for choosing this point.]

(c) (i) Maximum height is the area under the graph from t = 0 to t = 1.75 s
= 18.75 m
= 19 m

(ii) Initial KE = ½ mv2 = (0.5)(m)(25)2 = 312.5m


Gain in GPE = mgh = m(9.81)(18.75) = 183.9m
Energy lost due to air resistance = Initial KE – Gain in GPE = 128.6m
Therefore, the required ratio = (128.6m) / (312.5m) = 0.41

13
(d) (i)

The gradient of the graph = (-21.5) / 1.6 = -13.44 = -13 m s-2

(ii) Taking downward as positive,


Weight + Air Resistance = Net Resultant Force
mg + Air Resistance = m(13)
Air Resistance = 13m – 9.81m = 1.1165 = 1.1 N.

(e)

14
[Examiner’s comment: It was expected that a smooth curve would be drawn with a final speed of
less than 15 m s-1. The areas bounded by the line above and below the x-axis should be
approximately equal.]

7 (a) (i) Volt is defined as joules per coulomb.

[Examiner’s comment: Very few candidates defined the volt as joules per coulomb. It was
common to find a reference, quite wrongly, to a current of 1 amp in a resistor of resistance 1
ohm. Others merely referred to energy and charge without giving any units.]

(ii) The electromotive force (EMF) is defined as the energy transferred per unit charge from
other forms of energy into electrical energy (by a source) when charge is moved round a
complete circuit.

Potential difference (PD) is defined as the energy per unit charge transferred from electrical
energy to other forms of energy when charge passes through an electrical component.

(b) (i) Q = It = (0.24)(5.0 x 60) = 72 C

(ii) Energy transferred = EQ = (1.5)(72) = 108 J

(iii) Energy lost in the internal resistor = Pt = I2Rt = (0.24)2(0.25)(5.0 x 60) = 4.32J
Therefore, Energy transferred in the resistor R = 108 – 4.32 = 103.68 = 104 J

(iv) Potential difference across the resistor R, VR = (103.68 / 108) x 1.5 = 1.44 V
Therefore, using R = V / I, resistance of R = 1.44 / 0.24 = 6.0 

[Examiner’s comment: The whole number for the answer misled many candidates into
quoting the answer to one significant figure.]

(c) (i) The total resistance in the new circuit, Rtotal = V / I = (1.5+1.5) / 0.41 = 7.317 
Therefore, the new resistance of R = 7.317 – 0.25 – 0.25 = 6.817 = 6.82 

(ii) A higher current causes more heating and an increase in the wire’s ionic lattice vibration,
which results in more frequent collisions between drifting electrons and the lattice. This
increases the wire’s resistivity.

(d) (i) The internal resistance of the 2 cells is less than 0.02% of the sum of the 2000  load and
the 1800  (20 oC) – 4000  (0 oC) thermistor. Hence, they can be considered negligible.

[Examiner’s comment: Candidates should be advised that a comparison is required in their


answers. A statement that ‘the resistance of the internal resistors is small’ is insufficient and
is almost a paraphrase of the question.]

(ii) 1. At 0 oC, potential difference = (4000 / 6000) x 3.0 = 2.0 V

15
2. At 20 oC, potential difference = (1800 / 3800) x 3.0 = 1.421 = 1.4 V

(iii) In order for the potential difference across the fixed resistor to be 1.2 V at 0 oC, the
resistance R should be:

3.0 = 1.2
+ 4000
R = 2667 

In order for the potential difference across the fixed resistor to be 2.4 V at 20 oC, the
resistance R should be:

3.0 = 2.4
+ 1800
R = 7200 

Since the two values of R at the two temperature are different, hence it is impossible to
achieve this range of potential difference by just substituting a different fixed resistor.

[Examiner’s comment: There were some very well explained answers where the relevant
calculations were made alongside a summary comment. It was unfortunate that many
candidates correctly calculated the resistance of the fixed resistor at the two temperatures
but did not then make any comment on their answers.]
End of solutions

16

You might also like