JCJ Exam Previous Question Papers

J.C.J.
EXAMINATION
PREVIOUS
QUESTION
PAPERS
Collected by:
K. VENKATA LAKSHMI
Advocate
PUTTUR.
(Chittoor District)
JUDICIAL PRELIMINARY EXAM (2009)
1. According to sec. 2(b) of Cr.P.C, 1973, Charge includes -
(a) Heading of Charge
(b) Any head of charge when the charge contains head
(c) Any head of charge when the charge contains more heads than one
(d) All the above
2. As per the Amendment Act, 2008 of Cr.P.C, the new definition that was inserted under Sec.
2(wa) is -
(a) Audio-Video Electronic means
(b) Victim
(c) Victim Compensation
(d) Victim Compensation Scheme
3. The examination of a witness by the adverse party is -

(a) Examination-in-chief
(b) Cross Examination
(c) Re-examination
(d) Oral Examination
4. Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if by themselves or in connection with other facts
they make the existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable is
relevant under
(a) Sec. 9 of Evidence Act
(b) Sec. 10 of Evidence Act
(c) Sec. 11 of Evidence Act
(d) Sec. 12 of Evidence Act
5. State the correct sequence:

(a) Issue, Trial, Arguments, Pleadings, Decree, Judgement
(b) Pleadings, Trial, Issues, Arguments, Decree, Judgement
(c) Pleadings, Issues, Arguments, Trial, Judgement Decree
(d) Pleadings, Issues, Trial Arguments, Judgement, Decree
6. During the pendency of a suit relating to a house, the defendant is about to leave the local
limits of the Court with an intension to delay the suit. The plaintiff files an application under
Order 38-Rule 1 for the arrest of the defendant. Now the defendant-
a. Cannot be arrested
b. Can be arrested
7. When the immovable property of one person is, by the act of parties or operation of law,
made security for the payment of money to another, such transaction is -
(a) Pledge
(b) Accession
(c) Mortgage
(d) Charge
8. A gift made in expectation of death is known as -

(a) Universal Gift
(b) Onerous Gift
(c) Resumable Gift
(d) Donatio mortis causa
9. A Contract to do or not to do something, if some event collateral to such contract does not
happen, is known as -
(a) Wagering Agreement
(b) Quasi Contract
(c) Contingent Contract
(d) Impossible Contract
10. An agreement where the parties express opposite views regarding an uncertain event and
which results into a gain to one person at the loss of another person, is known as
a. Wagering Agreement
b. Contingent Contract
c. Continuing Agreement
d. Standing form Contract
11. When an instrument in writing does not express the real intention of the parties due to
fraud or mutual mistake of the parties, a suit can be instituted for -
a. Cancellation of Instrument
b. Rectification of Instrument
c. Declaration of Instrument
d. Rescission of Contract
12. What is the time limit to institute a suit for recovery of the property on the basis of
dispossession under the provisions of C.P.C. when the plaintiff was disposed ofa house by
the defendant?
(a) 60 days from the date of dispossession
(b) 6 months from the date of dispossession
(c) 6 years from the date of dispossession
(e) None of the above
13. The involvement of Five or more persons is essential for the offence of ..
(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) robbery
(d) Dacoity
14. Three persons A, B & C went to a Bank. A stood outside the bank holding a revolver with him
and watching at the road. B & C entered the bank and asked the Cashier by showing
revolvers at him, to handover the cash to them. On the refusal to do so, C shot at the Cashier
and took away money from Counter. Now
(a) C is liable for the murder and A & B are liable for abetment.
(b) B & C are liable for murder and A is liable for abetment.
(c) A, B & C are liable for murder.
(d) None of them is liable because it is not a murder but only culpable homicide not
amounting to murder.
15. Sans recourse indorsement means -

(a) Indorsement with limited liability.
(b) Indorsement without liability.
(c) Indorsement with absolute liability.
(d) Indorsement with conditional liability
16. What is the punishment under Sec. 138 of N.I. Act.

(a) Imprisonment upto 2 years or with fine which may extend to twice the amount of
cheque or with both.
(b) Imprisonment upto 2 years and with fine which may extend to twice the amount of
cheque.
(c) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years and fine of 10,000.
(d) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years or fine of 10,000 - or with both.
17. The limitation period for enforcement of a perpetual injunction is -

(a) 1 year
(b) 3 years
(c) 12 years
(d) None of the above.
18. What is true with regard to application of Limitation Act, 1963?

(i) It has no application to Sec. 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(ii) This Act shall not apply to any suit or other proceeding relating to marriage
and divorce.
(iii) Where any special or local law prescribes for any suit, appeal or application a
period of limitation different from the period prescribed by the schedule, the
provisions of Sec. 3 shall apply as if such period where the period prescribed
by the schedule.
(iv) The provisions of Section 4 to 24 shall apply, unless expressly barred by
special or local law.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct.
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(c) (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct.
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
19. An easement right is a right-

(a) in rem
(b) in personam
20. Of the following, which is not a mode of acquiring easement?

(a) Easement by law
(b) Easement by grant
(c) Easement by prescription
(d) Easement by necessity
21. Whether Principle of res judicita applies to claim petitions under Order 21, Rule 58?
(a) No
(b) Yes
22. X files a suit against Y and when the suit is called on for hearing neither party appeared in
the Court. The Court dismissed the suit under Order 9, Rule 3 thereafter X may -
(a) File a fresh suit, subject to the law of limitation
(b) Apply to the Court for restoring the suit by showing or sufficient cause.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
23. Every Police Officer making an investigation shall enter day to day proceeding for a case in a
Diary Called
(a) General Diary
(b) Special diary
(c) Duty Diary
(d) Case Diary
24. Mr. Kumar voluntarily causes hurt to Gowtham. Gowtham goes to Police Station to lodge
F.I.R. The concerned Police Officer refuses to record the F.I.R. whether the act of the Police
Officer is valid?
(a) No
(b) Yes
25. Khan commits an offence of grievous hurt in Hyderabad. However, he makes a confession
before the Judicial Magistrate at Adilabad, who has no power to try the case. Whether the
confession recorded, after following the procedure, by the Magistrate is valid?
a. No
b. Yes
26. The Limitation Act, 1963 applies to the proceedings before -

(a) Courts
(b) Executive Authority
(c) Quasi-Judicial Tribunals
(d) none of the above
27. Section 5 of the Limitation Act deals with

(a) Bar of Limitation.
(b) Extension of prescribed period in certain cases.
(c) Doctrine of Legal Disability.
(d) None of the above.
28. The provision of improvements made by bona fide holders under defective title is dealt in
(a) Sec. 50 of T.P. Act
(b) Sec. 51 of T.P. Act
(c) Sec. 53 of T.P. Act
(d) None of the above
29. Of the following which is misfit matching:

(a) Sec. 81 of T.P. Act – Marshalling Securities.
(b) b) Sec. 82 of T.P. Act - Doctrine of Contribution.
(c) c) Sec. 92 of T.P. Act. - Doctrine of Subrogation.
(d) d) Sec. 93 of T.P. Act - Charge.
30. According to Section 60 of T.P. Act, a clog on redemption is

(a) valid subject to certain conditions
(b) absolutely valid
(c) voidable
31. Of the following which is a misfit matching

(a) Agreement to supply goods from time to time-Continuing Offer
(b) Responsibility of Finder of Lost goods - Agent
(c) Betting Agreement Wagering Agreement.
(d) An agreement to pay 100/-, if it rains on Sunday - Contingent Contract
32. A Contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the
conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person, is called
(a) Contract of Guarantee
(b) Contract of Insurance
(c) Contract of Bailment
(d) Contract of Indemnity
33. According to Section 69 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932, an unregistered firm can file a suit
against an outsider for recovery of an amount not exceeding 100/-
(a) Yes
(b) No
34. An Agency coupled with interest' can be revoked by Principal

(a) Yes
(b) No
35. Doctrine of estoppel can be applied against a minor

(a) No
(b) Yes
36. As per Sec. 3 of Indian Evidence Act, Fact means and includes
(a) Physical Facts
(b) Psychological Facts.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) or nor (b)
37. Can an evidence obtained by committing the offence of theft be admitted in a case of
criminal nature?
(a) Yes
(b) No
38. A tape record of speech is

(a) Documentary Evidence
(b) Oral Evidence
39. Mr. Lallu, an accused writes a letter, in his own handwriting with his signature, addressing a
Police Officer that he murdered his wife. The letter was found near the dead body of his
wife. Is the confession made by Lallu in the letter admissible in evidence against him?
(a) Yes, the letter is relevant
(b) No, it is not relevant
40. Mr. Bhallu is accused of a Murder. The police have produced an axe from a place and he said
that it was the weapon with which the deceased was killed. Whether this statement made
by him is relevant under Sec. 27 of Evidence Act?
a) Yes, it is relevant to the extent of axe.
b) No, it is not relevant as Sec. 27 is not applicable to the present case.
41. Mr. Varlu fires at Venkat with an intention to kill him. Venkat sustains serious injuries. He
lodges a F.I.R. against Varlu and subsequently, Venkat dies due to injuries. Whether this
F.I.R. can be treated as dying declaration.
a) Yes, the F.I.R. can be treated as dying declaration.
b) No. it is not a statement made by him regarding his death.
42. How many witnesses are required to prove a Criminal case beyond all reasonable doubts?
a) minimum Two
b) minimum Three
c) minimum four
d) None of the above
43. Any Question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to
receive' is called,
a) Patent Question
b) Latent Question
c) Leading Question
d) Misleading Question
44. As per Sec. 5 of the Evidence Act, evidence can be adduced relating to a:-
a) Fact in issue
b) relevant fact
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (6)
45. Under Sec. 3 of the Evidence Act, evidence means

a) Documentary Evidence
b) Occular Evidence
c) Neither (a) nor (b)
d) Both (a) & (b)
46. As per Sec. 167(5) Cr.P.C.a Magistrate can pass an order of stopping further investigation
and discharge the accused, in a summons case, if the investigation is not completed within a
period of months from the date on which the accused was arrested.
a) 2 Months
b) 3 Months
c) 6 Months
d) None of these
47. As per Sec. 357-A of Cr. P.C (Amendment Act, 2008) Who is the authority to decide the
Quantum of Compensation payable to the victim?
a) The Trial Court
b) The Sessions Court
c) The High Court
d) The District or State Legal Service Authority
48. What is true with regard to plea bargaining?

a) It has application where offence attracts imprisonment exceeding 7years
b) It is applicable where the offence affect Socio-economic Conditions of the
Country
c) Plea bargaining will not be allowed where the offence has been
committed against a Woman, or a Child below where the offence
d) All the above
49. Whenever a case is tried summarily, the sentence of imprisonment shall not exceed
a) 2 Months
b) 3 Months
c) 6 Months
d) None of these
50. A, B and C are charged by a Magistrate of 1 Class with, and convicted by him of, robbing D,
A, B & C were afterwards charged with and tried for decoity on the same facts. Now -
a) They can take protection under Sec. 300 Cr. PC
b) They cannot take protection under Sec. 300 Cr.PC
51. A and B are the joint owners of a horse. A takes the horse of B's possession intending to use
it. However, A sells the horse and appropriates the whole proceeds to his own use. Now A is
guilty of
a) No offence
b) Criminal Breach of Trust
c) Mischief
d) Dishonest Misappropriation
52. A& B are the Joint Owners of a horse A Shoots intending thereby to cause wrongful loss to B
now A is guilty of -
a) No offence
b) Mischief
c) Criminal Breach of Trust
d) Criminal Misappropriation
53. Sec.84 of I.P.C provides for -

a) Medical Insanity
b) Legal Insanity
c) Both Medical and Legal Insanity
54. Abetment under Sec. 107 I.P.C. can be constituted

a) Instigation
b) Conspiracy
c) Intentional Aid
d) All the above
55. Rama, an Officer of a Court of Justice, was ordered by the Court arrest Raheem, after due
enquiry believing Raheemuddin to be Raheem, Rama arrest Raheemuddin. Rama is exempt
from Criminal Liability under
a) Sec.76 I.P.C.
b) Sec. 78 I.P.C.
c) Sec. 79 I.P.C.
56. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public tranquility, they
are said to commit the offence of
a) Affray
b) Rioting
c) Nuisance
d) All the above
57. Sec. 34 of I.P.C.

a) Creates a substantive offence
b) is a rule of evidence
58. Culpable homicide is not murder, if it is committed under

a) grave and sudden provocation
b) Self- intoxication
c) irresistable impulse
d) All the above
59. For a unlawful assembly under sec. 141 I.P.C the minimum number of persons required is
a) Two
b) Three
c) Five
d) Seven
60. Causing disappearance of evidence of offence or, giving false information to screen to screen
offender, is an offence under
a) Sec. 200 I.P.C.
b) Sec. 201 I.P.C.
c) Sec. 202 I.P.C.
d) Sec. 203.I.P.C.
61. What is the punishment for the offence of Theft?

a) Imprisonment upto 3 years and fine
b) Imprisonment of not less than 3 years and fine
c) Imprisonment 3years or fine
d) Imprisonment up to 3 years or fine or with both
62. Can there be more than one preliminary decree and one final decree?
a) Yes
b) No
63. Whether Doctrine of legal disability applies to Pre-emption Suits?

a) Yes
b) No
64. Whether an interpleader' suit can be instistuted by the agent aganist principal?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Yes, when a third party claims right through principal
65. Whether an ex-parte decree can be challenged by way of appeal?

a) No
b) Yes
66. When a material proposition of fact of law is affirmed by one party and denied by the other,
it is known as
a) An assertion
b) An allegation
c) An admission
d) An issue
67. Mr. Vinod of Adilabad makes a proposal to sell his house, situated in Vikarabad, to Vikram of
Nizamabad. In the sale agreement they provide a clause stating that all disputes arising out
of the transactions are to be decided by the Court of Nizamabad. There after when a dispute
arises Vikram must file a suit.
a) In the Court of Adilabad
b) In the Court of Nizamabad
c) In the Court of Vikarabad
d) All the above
68. Every Warrant of Arrest issued by a Court remains in force for

a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 3 years
69. According to Order VI C.P.C. 'pleading shall mean

a) Plaint
b) Written Statement
c) Plaint and Written Statement
d) Plaint or Written Statement
70. Under Sec. 167 Cr. P.C, the nature of custody can be changed from judicial custody to police
custody
a) During the period of first 14 days
b) During the period of first 15 days
c) During the period of first 30 days
d) Name of the above
71. If a Plaintiff fails to sue for the whole of the claim which he is entitled to make in respect of a
cause of action in the first suit then he is precluded from suing again respect of portion so
omitted, by virtue of
a) Sec. 11 of C.P.C.
b) Explanation IV of Sec. II
c) Order II, Rule 2
d) Order II, Rule 3
72. A suit for possession of immovable property on the basis of previous possession and not on
the basis of title can be filed under Sec. 6 of S.R. Act, 1963
a) Within 3 months of dispossession
b) Within 6 months of dispossession
c) Within 1 year of dispossession
d) Within 6 years of dispossession
73. Confession of one accused is admissible against Co-accused

a) If they are tried for different offences but jointly
b) If they are tried for same offences but jointly
c) If they are tried for same offences but not jointly
d) If they are tired for different offences but not jointly
74. In execution of a money decree for 2,000/- the Civil Prison shall be
a) Not exceeding 6 weeks
b) Not exceeding 3 months
c) Not exceeding 6 months
75. Whether an objection as to jurisdiction relating to subject matters (Competency) can be

raised before the supreme court without being in the trial court or first appellate court?
a) No
b) Yes
76. In connection with Commercial transactions what should be the rate of interest from the
date of decree to the date of payment?
a) Not exceeding 6%
b) Exceeding 6% but not exceeding Contractual rate if any
c) Not exceeding the Contractual rate and in the absence of it the rate at
which moneys are lent by nationalised banks in relation to commercial
transaction.
d) Not exceeding 18%
77. The amount of Compensatory Costs under Sec. 35-A, C.P.C. shall not exceed
a) 1000/-
b) 3000/-
c) 5,000/-
d) No such limit
78. Of the following which cannot be attached in execution of a Decree

a) Money
b) Hundies
c) Books of Accounts
d) Bank Notes
79. When a Plaint is rejected by the Court under Order VII, Rule 11, the plaintiff can
a) Prefer an appeal
b) Present a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Nether (a) nor (b)
80. When Commission is issued under 18, Rule 4 for examination of witness, within what period
the Commissioner shall submit his report?
a) Within 30 days
b) Within 60 days
c) Within 60 days or within the extended period
d) No such time limit
81. When an application is made by the J.dr, after the decree is passed, for payment of decretal
amount in installment for the order of installment payment whether Court should take the
Consent of the D.hr?
a) Yes
b) No
82. Whether the purchaser of a Property in execution sale can make an application for set aside
the sale on the ground that the J.dr had no saleable interest in the property sold?
a) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 89
b) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 90
c) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 91
d) No, as he is purchase he cannot get the sale set aside
83. When the next friend or guardian of a minor wants to enter into any agreement or
Compromise on behalf of the minor, whether the leave of the Court is mandatory?
a) No
b) Yes
84. When an ad interim injunction is Granted by the Court within what period the application
shall be disposed of?
a) within 30 days from the date of injunction
b) within 3 months from the date of injunction
c) within 1 Year from the injunction
d) No such time is prescribed.
85. Under which provision of law, the Appellate Court can adduce the additional evidence?
a) Under Order 41, Rule 23
b) Under Order 41, Rule 25
c) Under Order 41, Rule 27
d) Under Order 41, Rule 29
86. of the following which are compulsorily attestable documents?

a) Sale deed and Mortgage deed
b) Mortgage deed and Lease deed
c) Gift deed and Lease deed
d) Mortgage deed and Gift deed
87. In case of a transfer hit by "Doctrine of lis pendens' the question of good faith of the
a) Relevant
b) Irrelevant
88. If case of Gift, if the donee dies before acceptance, then the gift is
a) Valid
b) Void
c) Reduced
d) Court has to decide
89. Who cannot be arrested in execution of Money Decree?

a) A Woman
b) A Magistrate while going to and coming from the Court or in the Court
c) An Advocate while going to and coming from the Court or in the Court
d) All the above
90. A declaratory decree passed under Sec. 34 of S.R.Act, 1963 operates

a) Jus in rem
b) Jus in personam
91. Whether an injunction can be granted in a case where for the breach of the Contract Specific
performance cannot be granted?
a) No
b) Yes
92. According to Sec.5 of the T.P.Act, 1882- living person includes a Company or Association or
Body of individuals -
a) Which is incorporated
b) Whether incorporated or not
93. According to Sec.6(e) of the T.P.Act, Right to sue for a certain sum of money.
a) Is not transferable
b) Is transferable
94. In a contract of sale of goods, a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the Contract is
known as -
a) Warranty
b) Guarantee
c) Clog
d) Condition
95. As per Sec.34 of A.P. Tenancy (Telengana Area) Act, 1950, Protected tenant means a person
who has the land continuously for a period not less than -
a) 5 Years
b) 6 Years
c) 7 Years
d) 8 Years
96. Under A.P. Escheats and Bona Vacantia Act, 1974, bona vacantia applies to the property -
a) For which there is no rightful owner
b) For which the owner dies intestate (without legal heirs)
97. Which section of the A.P.Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction) Control Act, 1960 provides the
grounds for eviction of a tenant?
a) Sec.8
b) Sec.9
c) Sec.10
d) Sec.11
98. According to which section of A.P. Gaming Act, 1974'Game of Skill' is not an offence under
the Act?
a) Sec.12
b) Sec.13
c) Sec.14
d) Sec.15
99. A.P. Pawn Brokers Act, 2002 carrying on Pawn Broking business without licence is an offence
punishable for -
a) Imprisonment for not less than 1 Year and upto 3 years and fine upto
50,000-
b) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
c) imprisonment upto 3 Years or fine upto 50,000/- or with both
d) Imprisonment upto 1 Year and fine upto 50,000/-
100. According to Sec. 4 of A.P. Prohibition of Ragging Act, 1997 if a person causes
ragging or abets, ragging which causes the death, he shall be punished with -
a) Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine upto 50,000/-
b) Imprisonment of life and fine upto 50,000/-
c) Imprisonment upto 7 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
d) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
SOLUTIONS
1 C 41 A 81 A
2 B 42 D 82 C
3 B 43 C 83 B
4 C 44 C 84 A
5 D 45 D 85 C
6 A 46 C 86 D
7 D 47 D 87 B
8 D 48 D 88 B
9 C 49 B 89 D
10 A 50 B 90 B
11 B 51 D 91 A
12 D 52 B 92 B
13 D 53 B 93 B
14 C 54 D 94 D
15 B 55 A 95 B
16 A 56 A 96 A
17 D 57 B 97 C
18 D 58 A 98 D
19 B 59 C 99 A
20 A 60 B 100 A
21 B 61 D
22 C 62 A
23 D 63 B
24 A 64 C
25 B 65 B
26 A 66 D
27 B 67 C
28 B 68 D
29 D 69 D
30 D 70 B
31 B 71 C
32 D 72 B
33 B 73 B
34 B 74 D
35 A 75 B
36 C 76 C
37 A 77 B
38 A 78 C
39 A 79 C
40 B 80 C
JUNIOR CIVIL JUDGES MODEL EXAM – 2012
HIGH COURT OF A.P STATE, HYDERABAD
TIME : 2HRS DATE : 29/04/2012 MARKS : 100
_____________________________________
1. Where a certified copy of a decree of any of the superior Courts of any

reciprocating territory has been filed in a District Court, the decree may
be executed in India as if it has been passed by the District Court.
a. True
b. False
c. None of the above
2. Where a judgment-debtor has been committed to the civil prison, he

may be released therefrom:
a. By the State Government on the ground of the existence of any
infectious disease
b. By the committing Court or any Court to which that Court is
subordinate on ground of serious illness
c. By the State Government on the ground of the existence of any
contagious disease
d. All the above
3. A suit to obtain an urgent or immediate relief against the Government

or any Public Officer may be instituted in respect of an act purporting
to be done by public officer in his official capacity:
a. Without serving any notice under Section 80(1) of the Code of
Civil Procedure
b. After due service under Section 80(1) of the Code of Civil
Procedure
c. With the leave of the Court without serving any notice under
Section 80(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure,-
d. None of the above
4. (A) Women, who due to the customs and manners of the country, ought
not be compelled to appear in public are exempted from personal
appearance in Court.
(B) However nothing shall be deemed to exempt such women from
arrest in execution of civil process in any case in which the arrest of
women is not prohibited by the Code of Civil Procedure.
a. Both (A) and (B) of the above statement are correct.
b. Only (A) of the above statement is correct.
c. Only (B) of the above statement is correct.
d. Neither (A) nor (B) is correct
5. An application for bringing on records the legal representatives of a

party has to be filed within:
a. 30 days of the death
b. 75 days of the death
c. 15 days of the death
d. 90 days of the death
6. The order noting compromise amongst the parties as passed under the
provisions of Order XXIII Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908:
a. Has to be in writing
b. Has to be in writing and duly signed by the respective parties
c. May not be in writing
d. Has to be in writing but may not be signed.
7. When an ex parte decree is passed the defendant:

a. Can file an appeal under Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure
b. Can file an application under Order 9 Rule 13 of the Code of Civil
Procedure
c. To opt either (a) or (b)
d. If an application (b) above is dismissed can file appeal to dispute
the correctness of order passed
8. A decree may be executed by:

a. District Judge
b. Commissioner
c. Court which has passed the decree
d. Either by the Court which has passed the decree or to which the
decree is sent for execution
9. By which judgment, the Hon'ble Apex Court upheld the constitutional

validity of amendments made in the Code of Civil Procedure vide
amendment Acts of 1999 and 2002:
a. Salem Advocates Bar Association, Tamil Nadu vs. Union of India
b. Civil Court Bar Association vs. Union of India
c. Indian Courts Bar Association vs. Union of India
d. West Bengal High Court Bar Association vs. Union of India
10. The power of a Court to correct clerical or arithmetical mistakes in

judgments, decrees or orders:
a. May at any time be exercised by Court of its own motion
b. May at any time be exercised on an application by any of the
Parties
c. Either (a) or (b)
11. The Commissioner as appointed under the provisions of Order XVIII of

the Code of Civil Procedure for the purposes of recording of evidence
cannot:
a. Re-examine a witness
b. Decide objections raised during the recording of evidence
c. Neither of the above
d. Both (a) and (b)
12. A sues B on a bill of exchange for 1000/ B holds a judgment against A for
2000/-
a. Pecuniary demand may be set off because both claims are
definite
b. Claims cannot be set off because issues are different
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
13. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure it is necessary for
a party to prove that in spite of all due diligence, the matter could not
be raised before the commencement of the trial:
a. Order XI Rule 12
b. Order VI Rule 17
c. Order VI Rule 16
d. Order V Rule 15
14. A Magistrate while passing an order for disposal of property must

decide the:
a. Question of entitlement to possession on the basis of decision on
the question of title
b. Question of entitlement to possession without deciding the
question of title
c. Question of Title
d. Question of Title as well as the question of entitlement to
possession
15. The period of limitation in case of an offence punishable with fine only
as provided under Section 468 of the Code of Criminal Procedure is:
a. 3 years
b. 6 months
c. 15 days
d. 3 months
16. Inquiry, Trial or other Proceedings conducted in wrong place

a. Cannot be set aside unless the same has resulted into failure of
justice
b. Cannot be set aside even if the same has resulted into failure of
justice
c. Makes them void ab initio
d. Either (a) or (b)
17. Offences not covered under Section 320 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure are:
a. Non-compoundable
b. Compoundable with the leave of Trial Court
c. Compoundable with the leave of Court of Sessions
d. Compoundable with the leave of High Court
18. Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure contains a special

procedure relating to recording of confessions and statements. In view
of the provision which is the correct proposition:
a. Any Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate may, whether has
jurisdiction or not in the case, can record confession or statement
made in the course of an investigation.
b. Confession can also be recorded by a Police Officer on whom any
power of a Magistrate has been conferred.
c. The recording of statement can only be done by the Magistrate
who has the jurisdiction.
d. Any Magistrate may, whether has jurisdiction or not in the case
can record confession or statement made in the course of an
investigation.
19. A, a surgeon, sees a child suffer an accident, which is likely to prove fatal
unless an operation be immediately performed. There is no time to
apply to the child's guardian. A performs the operation in spite of the
entreaties of the child, intending, in good faith, the child's benefit.
a. A is liable as he performed the operation without taking due
consent
b. A is not liable because the act was done in good faith for benefit
of a person, even without consent
c. A should not have performed the operation, even if it was in good
faith and since the operation was performed, A is liable.
20. Grave and sudden provocation is:
a. A question of law
b. A question of fact
c. A mixed question of fact and law
d. A presumption under law
21. Dishonest intention must precede the act of committing:

a. Robbery
b. Criminal Misappropriation
c. Theft
d. Criminal Breach of Trust
22. Abatement of an offence is:

a. Always an offence
b. May be an offence depending on the circumstances but not
always
c. Never an offence
d. May not be an offence depending on the circumstances
23. What does a fight under Section 159 of the Indian Penal Code Signify:
(a) Two parties one of which is actively involved
(b) Two parties both of which are passive
(c) Two parties one of which is passive
24. Five persons went to A's house armed with bats to beat A. One (X)
amongst the five persons was carrying a pistol concealed underneath
his shirt. During the incident of beating, X fired a shot resulting in A's
death:
(a) All being members of unlawful assembly are liable for
causing death
(b) All will be liable only for beating A
(c) Only A will be liable for causing death
25. X, a good swimmer, sees Y drowning. However, X does not save Y and Y
was drowned. In these circumstances, whether X is liable for
committing:
a. Murder
b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. Abetment of suicide
d. No offence
26. "Restitution stops where repayment begins”, is a principle which can

correctly be applied against:
a. Lunatics and Idiots only
b. Alien Enemy only
c. Minors only
d. All the above
27. The reciprocal promises provide for doing certain things which are legal
and certain others which are illegal. In view of the provisions of Section
57 of the Indian Contract Act:
a. Promises become void
b. First set of promises is valid, whereas the second is void
c. First set of promises is voidable, whereas the second is void
d. All promises are valid
28. A contract can be discharged:

a. By frustration of contract
b. By performance of contract
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
29. Novation of Contract means

a. Renewal of original contract
b. Cancellation of contract
c. Substitution of a new contract in place of the original contract
d. Alteration of contract
30. Who amongst the following is not an agent:

a. A procurement agent
b. An independent buyer
c. A person who advices another in matters of business
d. All the above
31. Bank Guarantee is an independent contract between:

a. Creditor and Debtor
b. Buyer and Seller
c. Bank and Beneficiary
32. Ratification of an act:

a. Has to be express only
b. Has to be implied
c. Has to be both - express and implied
d. Can either be express or implied
33. Section 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act introduces:

a. Endogamy
b. Monogamy
c. Exogamy
d. All the above
34. In the absence of any proceeding under the Hindu Marriage Act,
between the parents of the children, an order for the custody,
maintenance and education of minor children can be passed by the:
a. Guardianship Court
b. High Court
c. District Court
d. All the above
35. In a suit for dissolution of marriage:

a. Permanent alimony can be granted
b. Maintenance pendente lite can be granted
c. Both maintenance pendente lite and permanent alimony can be
granted
d. Neither maintenance pendente lite nor permanent alimony can
be granted
36. When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by

different wives, they are said to be related to each other by:
a. Uterine Blood
b. Half Blood
c. Full Blood
d. Either (b) or (C)
37. Failure of one branch of the family to question the validity of an

alienation in a suit:
a. Would bar the right of the other branch
b. Would not bar the right of the other branch
c. May or may not bar the right of the other branch
d. Either (a) or (c)
38. A family arrangement binds:

a. All members including minors and children in the womb
b. All members except minors and children in the womb
c. All members including minors but excluding children in the womb
d. Either (b) or (c)
39. If the two persons are related by blood or adoption wholly through
males, each is known to_________ to other:
a. Cognate
b. Agnate
c. Full blood
d. Half Blood
40. If two or more heirs succeed together to the property of an intestate,

they shall take the property:
a. As expressly provided in the Hindu Succession Act, per capita and
not per stripes
b. As tenants-in-common and not as joint tenants
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Either (a) or (b)
41. After the institution of suit for partition by a member of the joint family:
a. There is no effect in the shares by virtue of births and deaths
b. Subsequent births in the family diminish the share
c. Subsequent deaths in the family augment the share
42. Easement is a right

a. In personam
b. In rem
c. In rem in general but in personam in exceptional cases
d. Both (a) and (b) are not correct
43. An easement
a. Cannot be extinguished
b. Extinguishes when the servient owner leaves on his own
c. Extinguishes when the dominant owner releases it expressly or
impliedly to the servient owner
d. Upon the death of the dominant owner
44. As per Section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, presumption in
regard to the date of a negotiable instrument is that every negotiable
instrument bearing a date was made or drawn:
a. On such date
b. Prior to that date
c. May be on or prior to such date
45. A perpetual injunction means:

a. A judicial process
b. Thing prevented is a wrongful act
c. Preventive in nature
d. All of the above
46. A declaratory decree under the Specific Relief Act can:

a. Be commuted
b. Be withheld
c. Be declined
d. Cannot be declined
47. The provision of Mandatory Injunction is regulated by Section_____ of

the Specific Relief Act:
a. 42
b. 41
c. 40
d. 39
48. What is incorrect about a temporary injunction:

a. It finally settles the mutual rights of the parties and directs a
party for all time to do or abstain from doing a thing
b. Can be granted ex-parte
c. Preserves the property in dispute in status quo till the disposal of
suit
d. Continues unless a specific time
49. Mistake contemplated under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act is:
a. Bilateral mistake
b. Mutual mistake
c. Mistake in framing of the instrument
d. All the above
50. For protection under Section 124 of the Evidence Act, the
communication is to be made:
a. To a public officer in official confidence
b. To a pubic officer as an ordinary cause of his duties
c. To a public officer as a routine matter
d. Either (a) or (b) or (c)
51. Which of the following is true as to the standard of proof in civil and
criminal proceedings:
a. It is balance of probabilities in both civil and criminal proceedings
b. It is beyond reasonable doubt in both civil and criminal
proceedings
c. In criminal proceedings it is upon the balance of probabilities and
in civil proceedings it is beyond reasonable doubt.
d. In civil proceedings it is upon the balance of probabilities and it is
beyond reasonable doubt in criminal proceedings
52. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means and includes:
a. Documentary evidence
b. Ocular evidence
c. Both, the ocular and documentary evidence
d. Ocular evidence based on documents only
53. Admission by agents are:

a. Admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has the authority
to make admissions
b. Admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances
c. Never admissible in criminal proceedings
d. Both (a) and (c)
54. Under the provisions of Section 45 of Evidence Act, the opinion of an

expert can be for:
a. Identity of finger impression
b. Identity of hand writing
c. Both (a) and (b)
55. Privilege under Section 121 of the Evidence Act is:

a. Not available to an Arbitrator
b. May or may not available to an Arbitrator
c. Available to an Arbitrator
56. Acknowledgement after the period of limitation:

a. Gives rise to an independent and enforceable contract
b. Is of no effect
c. Both (a) and (b)
57. A suit against the obstruction in the enjoyment of easement rights

acquired under Section 25 of the Limitation Act must be filed within
______years of obstruction:
a. 12
b. 7
c. 4
d. 2
58. A decree of mandatory injunction can be enforced with in a period of:
a. 12 years
b. 9 years
c. 6 years
d. 3 years
59. The unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit:
a. Within 75 days of the birth
b. Within 60 days of the birth
c. Within 90 days of the birth
60. The principle of lis pendens embodied in Section 52 of the Transfer of

Property Act pertains to:
a. Public policy
b. Auction sale
c. Bona fide purchase
d. Bona fide sale
61. A suit to obtain a decree that a mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred

of his right to redeem the mortgaged property is called:
a. Suit for claim
b. Suit for interest
c. Suit for cost
d. Suit for foreclosure
62. The power of a Magistrate under the Protection of Women from

Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is:
a. To attempt to communicate with aggrieved person and to isolate
any assets used by both the parties
b. To pass protection order in favour of aggrieved person
c. To enter a workplace or any other place frequented by aggrieved
person
d. All the above
63. Domestic relationship means:

a. Relationship with family members living together as a joint family
b. Relationship with family members living together in a nuclear
family
c. Relationship as sisters, widow, mother, single women, living with
abuser
d. All the above
64. Documents (other than wills) remaining unclaimed in any registration

office for a period exceeding years ______ may be destroyed
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
65. 'Building' as defined in the Andhra Pradesh Buildings (Lease, Rent and
Eviction) Control Act means:
a. Any house or hut or part of a house or hut, let or to be let
separately for residential or non-residential
b. Gardens, grounds let or to be let
c. Garages and out houses let or to be let
d. All the above
66. 'Controller under the Andhra Pradesh Buildings (Lease, Rent and
Eviction) Control Act means:
a. Any person not below the rank of a Tahsildar
b. Any person not above the rank of a District Collector
c. Any person equivalent to the rank of District Judge
d. None of the Above
67. Under Section 18 of the Andhra Pradesh Buildings (Lease, Rent and
Eviction) Control Act, for conversion of residential building into a non-
residential building, a written permission of is _______ required:
a. Controller
b. Commissioner
c. District Judge
d. Either of the above
68. A registered document relating to a property takes precedence over the
unregistered document relating to the same property under___ section
of the Registration Act:
a. 53
b. 52
c. 51
d. 50
69. An agreement in restraint of marriage is:

a. Voidable at the option of the promisor.
b. Voidable at the option of the promisee.
c. Expressly void
d. A valid contract.
70. A contract of insurance is what kind of contract?

a. Contract of guarantee.
b. Contract of indemnity.
c. Contract of surety.
d. Contract of bailment.
71. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the following right is not available
to an agent:
a. Right to retain
b. Right to sell
c. Right to claim compensation
d. All of the above
72. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agency shall stand terminated in
the below mentioned case:
a. Death or insolvency of principal
b. Death or insolvency of agent
c. Death or insolvency of both the agent and the principal
d. Death or insolvency of either the agent or the principal
73. Finder of lost goods under Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a:
a. Bailor
b. Surety
c. Bailee
d. Principal debtor
74. The maximum limit for a sentence of solitary confinement as provided

under Section 73 of Indian Penal Code is:
a. Six months to one year
b. Six months
c. Eighteen months
d. Three months
75. Right of private defence is provided under following provision of Indian

Penal Code
a. Section 96
b. Section 95
c. Section 99
d. Section 92
76. Under the provisions of sub-section 2 of Section 18 of the Limitation

Act, oral evidence of the date of acknowledgment is permissible if the
acknowledgment:
a. Is dated
b. Is undated
c. Date in acknowledgment is altered
d. All the above
77. The provisions of Section 14 of the Limitation Act are applicable:

a. Only if on the opening day plaint is presented before the proper
Court.
b. Even if on the opening day the plaint is not presented in the
proper Court
c. Both (a) and (b)
78. Dominant tenement means:

a. Land on which liability is imposed
b. Land, for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right exists
c. Both (a) and (b)
79. Documents not covered under Section 74 of the Evidence Act are called:
a. Semi Public Documents
b. Quasi-Public Documents
c. Private Documents
d. All of the above
80. Due execution and authentication of a power of attorney shall be

presumed under Section 85 of the Evidence Act when executed before
and authenticated by:
a. A judge
b. A Notary
c. A Magistrate
d. All of the above
81. Notice under Section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act can be waived
by:
a. Express consent of the person to whom it is given
b. Express or implied consent of the person to whom it is given
c. Implied consent of the person to whom it is given
d. Notice from either party
82. A gift to two or more donees, one of whom does not accept it, is;
a. Valid at the option of the heir
b. Voidable at the option of the donor
c. Void as to interest which he would have taken had he accepted
d. Valid as to the interest which he would have taken had he
accepted
83. In the option_________ below, there is no estoppel:

a. Attestation of Deed
b. Point of Law
c. Statute
d. All the above
84. In a situation where a person competent to compound an offence is

dead, the compounding:
a. Cannot be done
b. Can be done by the legal representative of the deceased
c. Can be done by the legal representative of the deceased with the
due permission of the Court
85. A Magistrate under Section 311A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, can
order any person to:
a. To give specimen signatures
b. To give specimen handwriting
d. All of the above
86. Under Section 29(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the Court of a
Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a
term not exceeding three years, or of fine not exceeding____or both.
a. Five thousand rupees
b. Seven thousand five hundred rupees
c. Ten thousand rupees
d. Fifteen thousand rupees
87. Under Section 174(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, when the
officer in charge of a Police Station receives an information that a
person has committed suicide, or has been killed by another or by an
animal or by machinery or by an accident, or has died under
circumstances raising a reasonable suspicion that some other person
has committed an offence, he shall immediately give intimation thereof
to the nearest________ empowered to hold inquests.
a. Executive Magistrate
b. SDO
88. An act of criminal conspiracy is committed when -persons agree to do,

or cause to be done an act:
a. Two persons
b. Two or more persons
c. Five Persons
89. A person accused of an offence may apply for a plea bargain in

a. In the Court in which his case is pending trial
b. In any Court
c. In the High Court
d. In the police station
90. The provision relating to extension of Indian Penal Code to extra-

territorial offences is provided in Section ____ the Indian Penal Code:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
91. Wrongful confinement is defined under Section of the Indian Penal

Code:
a. 339
b. 340
c. 343
d. 346
92. Promoting enmity between different groups on the grounds of religion,

race etc is an offence under Section ________ of the Indian Penal
Code:
a. 153A
b. 120A
c. 153AA
d. 146
93. X, with intent to murder Y, instigates his six year old servant A, to do an
act which will cause death of Y. A does the act, but in the absence of X.
The act of A resulted in the death of Y.
a. A is liable
b. X is liable and is subject to the punishment of death
94. In regard to sale of perishable property, if the person entitled to the

possession of such property is not known or absent and the property is
subject to speedy and ale natural decay, the Magistrate may direct it to
be sold within _______ of the date of such proclamation:
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. Nine months
95. In terms of the provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure, the power to

recall any witness can be exercised:
a. Before the evidence of the prosecution is closed if the witness is
to be called on the motion of the prosecution
b. Even after the evidence of both the sides is closed
c. Even after the evidence of prosecution is closed, but before the
evidence of defence is closed
96. Personal attendance of an accused can be dispensed with under the

provisions of Section ________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure:
a. 202
b. 203
c. 204
d. 205
97. Abetment of an offence is:

a. Always an offence
b. May be an offence depending on the circumstances but not
always
c. Never an offence
d. May not be an offence depending on the circumstances
98. Where investigation is not completed within the stipulated period of 90

or 60 days, as the case may, the accused who has been in custody, on
the expiry of above mentioned period, gets entitled to:
a. Be discharged
b. Be released on bail on making an application for release on bail
c. Be released on bail without making an application
99. If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable

exclusively by the Court of Session, under Section 202 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, while delaying the issue of process against the
accused, the Magistrate:
a. May order for investigation by Police
b. Commit the case to Sessions Court
c. Examine the complainant and all his witnesses
d. Return the complaint for presentation before the Court of Session
100. A confessional statement under Section 164 of the Code of

Criminal Procedure, can be recorded:
a. During the course of investigation or at any time afterwards
before the commencement of inquiry or trial
b. During the course of investigation only and not afterwards
c. During investigation as well as during inquiry but before the
commencement of trial
1 A 41 A 81 C
2 D 42 B 82 B
3 C 43 C 83 A
4 A 44 A 84 C
5 D 45 D 85 D
6 B 46 C 86 C
7 C 47 D 87 A
8 D 48 A 88 B
9 A 49 D 89 A
10 C 50 A 90 A
11 B 51 D 91 B
12 A 52 C 92 A
13 B 53 D 93 B
14 B 54 C 94 C
15 B 55 C 95 B
16 A 56 B 96 D
17 A 57 D 97 A
18 A 58 D 98 B
19 B 59 D 99 C
20 B 60 A 100 A
21 C 61 D
22 62 D
23 D 63 D
24 C 64 A
25 D 65 D
26 C 66 A
27 B 67 A
28 C 68 D
29 C 69 C
30 A 70 B
31 C 71 B
32 D 72 D
33 B 73 C
34 C 74 D
35 D 75 A
36 B 76 B
37 B 77 A
38 A 78 B
39 B 79 C
40 C 80 D
JUNIOR CIVIL JUDGES – EXAM - 2015
STATE OF TELANGANA AND A.P
_____________________________________
1. Provisions of Section 10 CPC are

a. discretionary
b. mandatory
c. both
d. none of the above
2. Jurisdiction of Civil Court to adjudicate an industrial dispute is

a. not barred
b. expressly barred
c. impliedly barred
3. A judgment passed by a Court having no jurisdiction

a. operates as res judicata
b. does not operate as res judicata
c. operates as res judicata in certain circumstances
4. Against a decree of the Court in the original suit where the subject matter does not exceed
Ten Thousand Rupees
a. no appeal lies
b. appeal lies
c. appeal lies on a question of law
5. Pleadings shall state

a. evidence
b. material facts
c. material facts and evidence
6. Inconsistent pleas can be raised

a. in the plaint
b. in the written statement
c. cannot be raised in the plaint or written statement
7. Under the Indian Penal Code, preparation to do a criminal act is
a. an offence
b. not an offence
c. an offence only in respect of certain criminal acts
8. The word "injury" in the Indian Penal Code means

a. injury to the body of a person
b. injury to the property
c. injury to the mind
d. injury to the body, mind, reputation or property
9. The provision relating to one of the accused to represent the other accused is contained in
a. Rule 17 of Criminal Rules of Practice
b. Rule 34 of Criminal Rules of Practice
c. Rule 37 of Criminal Rules of Practice
10. Judicial work on holidays can be taken up

a. if the Judicial Officer wants to take up on any day
b. it cannot be taken up at all
c. it can be taken up in exceptional circumstances and with the consent of both parties
11. A is entitled for more than one relief against B in respect of same cause of action. A sued B
for one relief and omitted other reliefs.
a. he can file a suit subsequently for the remaining reliefs
b. he cannot sue for the remaining reliefs
c. he can sue for the remaining reliefs if he omitted to sue earlier with the leave of the
Court.
12. . Under Order VI, Rule 17 CPC, after commencement of trial, amendment shall be allowed
a. liberally
b. in exceptional cases
c. when the Court comes to the conclusion that inspite of due diligence the party could
not have raised before the commencement of trial
13. After recording entire evidence and hearing arguments the Court comes to the conclusion
that it has no jurisdiction over the subject matter. In such an event
a. the Court shall proceed to pronounce the judgment
b. reject the plaint
c. return the plaint
14. Evidence in relation to extra judicial confession

a. is hearsay evidence
b. not substantive evidence
c. substantive evidence
15. Which of the following statement is correct:

a. A dying declaration is not substantive evidence
b. Dying declaration cannot be acted upon without corroboration
c. Conviction can be entirely based on dying declaration
16. Which of the following statement is correct:

a. The Court is bound to grant specific performance when it is lawful to do so
b. The Court has absolute power to refuse specific performance
c. At its discretion which has to be exercised properly
d. None of the above :
17. The period of limitation for taking cognizance of an offence Punishable with imprisonment
for a period of one year is
a. six months
b. one year
c. three years
d. no limitation is prescribed
18. The period of limitation for possession of immovable property not based on title is
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 12 years
19. Maintenance pendente lite and expenses of the proceedings under Section 24 of the Hindu
Marriage Act can be granted to
a. the wife
b. the husband
c. either the wife or the husband
20. If either of the parties has a spouse living at the time of marriage, the marriage is
a. valid
b. void
c. voidable
21. If consent of one of the parties to the marriage is obtained by force, fraud as to any material
fact or circumstance, the marriage is
a. void
b. valid
c. voidable
22. In a prosecution for the offence U/Sec. 354 or 376 IPC, or to commit any such offence, if the
question of consent is in issue, the evidence of the character of the victim or such person's
previous sexual experience
a. becomes relevant under certain circumstances
b. shall not be relevant
c. shall be relevant
23. Which of the following statements is correct:

a. Criminal Court cannot make any alteration in the judgment
b. It can alter the judgment if it finds an erroneous finding is given by mistake
c. It can correct the clerical or arithmetical errors in the judgment
24. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, the powers of revision are conferred on
a. the High Court
b. the Sessions Court
c. the High Court as well as the Sessions Court
25. The object of conducting inquest under Section 174 Cr.P.C is

a. to commence the investigation
b. to note down the injuries on the body of the deceased
c. to know the cause of death
26. In a suit by or against the Central Government, the Authority to be named as plaintiff or
defendant, as the case be, shall be
a. Central Government represented by the concerned Ministry
b. Union of India represented by the highest ranking officer In-charge of the de
concerned Ministry :
c. Union of States, represented by the concerned Department
d. Central Government represented by the Collector and District Magistrate
27. One Mr. M employed N, caused damage to the property of 'O' and agrees indemnify 'N' all
consequences of such an act. Accordingly, 'N' has caused damaged to the property of 'O' and
had to pay to 'O'. In such a scenario:
a. M is liable to indemnify N for the damages
b. Mis liable to pay damages to directly
c. M is liable to indemnify N for the damages
d. N can avoid payment of damages to O
28. When a contract has been broken, if a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be
paid. In case of such breach, the party complaining of the breach is entitled to
a. whether or not actual damage or loss is true, the party is entitled to receive the
amount so named
b. only when the actual loss or damage is proved, which is in excess of the amount so
stipulated, the party is entitled to receive the amount so stipulated
c. the party who complained of the breach is entitled to a reasonable compensation,
not exceeding the amount so name
d. Party is entitled to receive the amount so specified unless breach is proved
29. 'A' a tradesman, leaves goods at 'B's house by mistake. 'B' treats the goods as his own. In
such a case,
a. 'A' is not entitled for the value of the goods
b. 'A' is entitled to receive only such amount representing a reasonable rent for the
usage of goods by 'B' :
c. 'B' is liable to pay only damages, but not the value of the goods
d. 'B' is liable to pay for the value of the goods
30. The essential requirement for constituting novation is that:

a. there should be a second contract in continuation of the first one
b. there should be a new contract in substitution of the old one
c. the first contract should be operational so that, new contract can proceed there
from
d. original contract should be a void contract
31. Any fact constituting a motive or preparation for any fact in issue:
a. is a relevant fact
b. not a relevant fact
c. is a relevant fact, if it forms part of the same transaction
32. In criminal proceedings, the fact that the person accused is of a good character is....
a. irrelevant
b. relevant
c. important for imposing lesser punishment
33. If a document is required by law to be attested, it shall not be used as evidence.

a. until both the attesting witnesses have been called for proving its execution
b. atleast one attesting witness has been called for proving its execution
c. in case of unregistered document, attesting witness need not be called
d. none of the above :
34. When a contract of sale of immovable property is made, does it create any charge on such
property?
a. yes, it does
b. it does, provided promise fulfills his part of the obligations
c. at the option of the promissory, it does
d. it does not on itself create any charge on such property
35. If a wife withdraws herself voluntarily from the company of her husband who has been
diagnosed as infected by H.I.V positive due to improper and careless blood transfusion, can
the husband seek restitution of conjugal rights?
a. yes, as the fault is not of his
b. no
c. yes, in case is undergoing treatment from a approved hospital
36. A & B were married. 'C' was born to them. Subsequently, the marriage between A & B was
declared as void
a. Can 'C' be a illegitimate child
b. legitimate child
c. it is for the Court to determine the status of C
37. When will the property of a female Hindu dying intestate devolve upon her mother who is
alive?
a) when there are no sons and daughters to her, but husband is alive
b) when the husband and a son of a predeceased, son and a daughter of pre-
deceased daughter is available
c) in the absence of husband or sons or daughters or their children
d) none of the above
38. : One of the following is not liable for attachment under Sec. 60 CPC:
a. bank notes
b. hundies
c. shares in a corporation
d. books of accounts
39. A files a suit against B for recovery of money before the competent Court of Law. The said
suit is returned with certain office objections, to be complied and resubmitted within
fifteen(15) days. Due to certain reasons, A forgets to represent the same within the 15 days.
Under which provision of CPC can a petitioner seek extension of time?
a. 148
b. 148-A
c. 142
d. 146
40. Under which provision of CPC Government has to be put on notice before instituting a suit
against the Government
a. 80
b. 92
c. 65
d. Order I Rule 10
41. Does the police have power to reinvestigate into a crime, in which charge sheet has already
been filed into the Court?
a. yes
b. no
c. yes, with the permission of the Court
d. yes, with the permission of the Public Prosecutor
42. Is the offence under Sec - 497 compoundable in the States of Andhra Pradesh and
Telangana?
a. yes
b. no
c. yes, with the permission of the court
d. yes, with the permission of the Public Prosecutor
43. What is the statutory notice period intimating dishonour of the cheque under Sec- 138 of
Negotiable Instruments Act?
a. one month
b. fifteen days
c. two weeks
d. three weeks
44. Under what provision of I.P.C, giving false evidence is an offence?
a. 190
b. 191
c. 192
d. 193
45. 'X' works in the night shift as a security guard for apartment 'A'. X finds the keys to Z's flat
situated in apartment'A'. That Every same night X commits house- tresspass by unlocking Z's
house. X is guilty of which of the following offences under the IPC?
a. house breaking
b. lurking house trespass by night
c. house breaking by night
d. house trespass
46. B goes to C shop to buy a boat and offers to pay Rs.2 lakhs for it. C offers to sell it for Rs.3
lakhs. B goes home and writes a cheque for Rs.3 lakhs. When he comes back, C has already
sold the boat to D for Rs.2 lakhs. What is B's remedy against C in the Court of Law?
a. file suit for compensation
b. file suit specific performance
c. no remedy
d. B can only prosecute C for cheating
47. Under IPC what is the punishment prescribed for attempting to commit offence punishable
with imprisonment?
a. one half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence
b. one third of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence
c. one fourth of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence
d. full term of imprisonment provided for the offence
48. Under what provision of Indian Contract Act,1872, remote and indirect losses do not require
to be compensated?
a. Sec.71
b. Sec.72
c. Sec.73
d. Sec.74
49. Under what provision of Cr.P.C can the Metropolitan Magistrate dispense with the presence
of the accused and permit him to be represented by an Advocate?
a. Sec.206
b. Sec.251
c. Sec.256
d. Sec.205
50. Under what provision of Cr.P.C District and Sessions Judge has power to quash a criminal
complaint?
a. Sec- 482
b. Sec -319
c. Sec - 364
51. Under Sec 125(3) Cr.P.C if the Person who is ordered to pay maintenance fails to pay
Magistrate may impose maximum sentence of imprisonment for:
a. one month
b. fifteen days :
c. six weeks
d. eight weeks
52. Under Criminal Procedure Code, Complaint means :

a. an allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate
b. an allegation made orally or in writing to a Police
c. an allegation made in writing to a police
d. a and b
53. What is the period required for a spouse, under the Hindu Law, to file a divorce petition on
the ground of desertion:
a. one year
b. two years
c. three years
d. seven years
54. In the absence of a specific contract, liability of surety with that of the de principal debtor is:
a. co-extensive
b. independent
c. liability of surety activates upon principal debtor's incapacity
d. less in priority vis a vis the principal debtor
55. Does a registered mortgage deed require attestation? If yes, how many witnesses?
a. registration is required and two witnesses shall attested
b. registration is not required but two witnesses shall attest
c. registration is not required and no attestation is required
d. registration and attestation is optional
56. If the mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage money on a certain date and : transfer
his property to the mortgagee absolutely with the condition that the said property shall be
transferred upon payment of the mortgage money, as agreed, such mortgage is called:
a. usufructuary mortgage
b. mortgage by conditional sale
c. simple mortgage
57. A, who is General Manager, is terminated by his employer contrary to the terms and
conditions of his employment. What is the relief A can seek against his employer:
a. suit for specific performance of contract of service
b. suit for compensation Sole
c. a and b
58. Res subjudice is defined in the following enactment?

a. Civil Procedure Code
b. Criminal Procedure Code ban
c. Transfer of property Act
59. A delivers his car to B for repairs. After the car is repaired to A's satisfaction, he refuses to
pay the charges for such repair. Can B retain the car till he is paid for his services:
a. yes
b. no
c. yes, but with the permission of the court
d. yes, by putting A on a written notice
60. Compounding of offence is made under which provision of Cr.P.C

A. Sec.320
B. Sec.328 :
C. Sec.315
D. Sec.319
61. Under which provision of Cr.P.C can a person be added as an accused when his role surfaces
during the course of evidence:
a. Sec.319
b. Sec.219
c. Sec.183
d. Sec.366
62. What is meant by 'Mutatis Mutandi'?
a. as is where is
b. mutual understanding
c. mutually exclusive
63. Any suit has to be filed in a -

a. court of District Judge
b. high court
c. any court nearest to plaintiff
d. lowest grade court of pecuniary jurisdiction
64. Whether equitable mortgage can be made at any place

a. yes
b. only where property is situate
c. only where parties reside
d. only at notified towns
65. Parents unable to maintain seek maintenance from married and unmarried daughters
having sufficient means whether parents' claim maintainable ?
a. maintainable
b. only against married daughter
c. only against unmarried daughter
d. not maintainable - :
66. Whether a tenant who pays rent of 4000/- p.m is protected under the A.P. Buildings (Lease,
Rent & Eviction) Control Act?
a. yes
b. no
c. depends on rental agreement
d. if tenancy is for residential purpose
67. Whether probate of will is compulsorily executed in State of A.P. or Telangana?

a. yes
b. only in A.P
c. Only in Telangana
d. Not necessary
68. When the document can be impounded?

a. cancellation
b. declaring document as not genuine
c. unstamped or insufficiently stamped
69. How do you describe a 'tender' notice issued by Government?

a. an offer
b. a notice
c. an invitation to offer
70. A executes a power of attorney in favour of B, whether B can delegate that power to C?
a. yes
b. only if B is incapacitated
c. no
d. only with the permission of A
71. Permanent alimony to wife fixed by court while granting decree of divorcee. Can wife seek
further increase after three/four years?
a. yes :
b. no
c. only if High Court permits
d. only if parties agree
72. A sells his motor car to B Whether registered sale deed is essential?
a. yes
b. optional
c. no
73. An attester/witness to a document, whether bound by contents thereof

a. no
b. yes
c. depends on nature of document
74. Anything done by a child of what age does not constitute an offence under the Indian Penal
Code?
a. between 9 and 12 years of age
b. 8 years of age
c. Less than 7 years of age
d. 7 years of age
75. A fair copy of the civil court's judgment required for the court record shall be prepared
within how many days from the date of pronouncement of judgment?
a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
d. 30 days
76. Under Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act,1955, which of the following diseases does not
qualify as a ground for seeking divorce?
a. schizophrenia
b. leprosy
c. venereal disease
d. cancer
77. Which of the following provisions deals with the power of the appellate court to condone
the delay in the presenting of the appeal?
a. 0.41 R.3-A CPC
b. 0.41 R 11-A CPC
c. 0.41 R5 CPC
d. 0.41 R 12 CPC
78. What is the maximum period from the date of conclusion of hearing of the case within which
the civil court must ordinarily pronounce judgment?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
79. Under Section 16(1)(c) of the Specific Relief Act,1963, which one of the following has to be
averred and proved to seek specific performance of a contract?
a. readiness and willingness
b. mental capacity
c. consideration for the contract
d. limitation
80. Are offences punishable under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, compoundable?
a. yes
b. no
c. only if permitted by the Cr.P.C
81. Section 27 of the Limitation Act,1963 deals with:
a. easements by prescription
b. exclusion of time in certain cases :
c. extinguishment of right to property
d. computation of time mentioned in instruments
82. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to:
a. applications to set aside ex parte decree
b. applications under the Arbitration Act, 1996
c. applications under Order 21 CPC
d. applications for leave to appeal
83. A person unlawfully dispossessed of immovable property may bring a suit for recovery of
possession under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act,1963 before expiry of what time from
the date of dispossession?
a. 4 months
b. 5 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months
84. A decree of perpetual injunction may be executed under:

a. Order 39 Rule 2-A CPC
b. Article 226 of the Constitution
c. Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act,1963
d. Order 21 Rule 32 CPC
85. Which of the following documents is not compulsorily registrable in law?

a. gift deed of immovable property
b. will deed
c. lease deed of immovable property exceeding one year
d. agreement of sale of immovable property
86. Cancellation of registered document may be sought by way of a suit under:

a. Section 31 of Specific Relief Act,1963 :
b. Order 37 CPC
c. Section 15 of the Specific Relief Act 1963
d. Order 32-A CPC
87. The Hindu Succession Act 1956 does not apply to:
a. buddhits
b. jains
c. Sikhs
d. Parsis
88. Which of the following is not, by its very nature, a void contract?
a. a contingent contract
b. a contract in restraint of trade
c. contract by way of wager
d. a contract in restraint of legal proceedings
89. Under Section 15(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 the property of a female Hindu dying
intestate lastly devolves upon the heirs of the
a. husband
b. father
c. mother
d. predeceased son
90. Which of the following rights cannot be acquired by prescription?

a. a right of way
b. a right to receive light
c. a right to underground water
91. What is the period mentioned in Section 15 of the Indian Easements Act 1882 for acquisition
of an easement by prescription in respect of property not belonging to be Government?
a. 12 years
b. 15 years :
c. 20 years
d. 30 years
92. Under Section 10-C of the A.P. Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction) Control Act,1960, the
right to recover immediate possession of the premises is given to an
a. handicapped person
b. ex-serviceman
c. state government employee
d. minor
93. Sections 70 and 72 of the Indian Contract Act,1872, relate to the principle of:
a. unjust enrichment
b. consideration
c. frustration
d. performance
94. The order passed by the executing Court upon an application under Order 21 Rule 97
resisting or obstructing a decree for delivery of possession of immovable property is:
a. revisable under Section 115 CPC
b. appealable under Order 43 Rule 1 CPC
c. appealable under Section 96 CPC
95. The 'Doctrine of Non-Traverse' is incorporated in:

a. Order 8 Rule 1-A PC
b. Order 8 Rul3 3 CPC
c. Order 8 Rule 5 CPC
d. Order 8 Rule 6 CPC :
96. A representative action may be brought by one person under:
a. Order 1 Rule 8 CPC
b. Order 1 Rule 10 CPC
c. Order 1 Rule 5 CPC
d. Order 1 Rule 12 CPC
97. Can a suit, akin to a public interest litigation, be instituted?
a. no, only a writ petition lies under A.226 of the Constitution
b. yes, a suit lies under Section 91 CPC
c. no, only a writ petition lies under A.32 of the Constitution
d. yes, a suit lies under Section 92 CPC
98. As per the Civil Rules of Practice, third party exhibits are marked with what capital letter
followed by a numerical?
a. C
b. P
c. X
d. Y
99. Section 376 D IPC deals with

a. rape by a person in authority
b. gang rape
c. rape by a minor
d. rape by a repeat offender
100. Adultery is punishable with imprisonment which may extend upto:

a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 2 years
1 B 35 B 69 C
2 C 36 B 70 C
3 B 37 C 71 A
4 C 38 D 72 C
5 B 39 A 73 A
6 B 40 A 74 C
7 C 41 B 75 A
8 D 42 B 76 D
9 C 43 A 77 A
10 C 44 B 78 C
11 C 45 C 79 A
12 C 46 C 80 A
13 C 47 A 81 C
14 C 48 C 82 C
15 C 49 A 83 C
16 C 50 D 84 D
17 B 51 A 85 B
18 C 52 A 86 A
19 C 53 B 87 D
20 B 54 A 88 A
21 C 55 A 89 C
22 B 56 D 90 C
23 C 57 B 91 C
24 C 58 A 92 A
25 C 59 A 93 A
26 B 60 A 94 C
27 C 61 A 95 C
28 C 62 A 96 A
29 D 63 D 97 B
30 B 64 D 98 C
31 A 65 A 99 B
32 B 66 B 100 B
33 B 67 D
34 D 68 C
_____________________________________
1. In order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must be:

(a) absolute and unqualified
(b) absolute and qualified
(c) silent
2. When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation, the

agreement is a contract which is:
(a) void
(b) voidable at the option of the consenting party
(c) neither voidable nor void
3. Where a person contracts to sell a certain immovable property without having any title
thereto, can the purchaser compel him make good the contract?
(a) purchaser only compensation for the breach
(b) purchaser can seek damages
(c) yes, if the vendor has acquired title to the property in question subsequent to the
contract
4. 'A' has entered into an agreement with 'B' by misrepresentation, the contract is:
(a) valid
(b) void
(c) voidable
(d) illegal
5. Ram contracted to pay to Suresh a sum of 25,000/- if Suresh's house is gutted in fire. This
contract is called:
(a) wagering contract
(b) contingent contract
(c) quasi contract
(d) unconscionable contact
6. Normally the breach of contract to transfer immovable property
(a) can be compensated in money
(b) cannot be compensated in money
(c) cannot be adequately compensated in money
7. If the transferee takes possession of immovable property in part performance of contract

and is ready and willing to perform his part of contract
(a) can obtain the relief of specific performance notwithstanding the law of limitation
(b) can get a decree declaring his title
(c) can protect his possession
8. If a wife withdraws from the company of her husband, who was diagnosed to be suffering
from AIDS, can the Court order for restitution of conjugal rights?
(a) yes, if the husband is undergoing treatment regularly from an approved physician
(b) yes if the husband establishes that he is regularly taking medicines
(c) yes if the husband establishes that he acquired AIDS not due to his fault
(d) not at all
9. Marriage between two persons took place but it turned out that one of them was pregnant
by some other 3rd party. In such a case the marriage is:
(a) void marriage
(b) it is a valid marriage, if the other party has knowledge of the event
(c) voidable marriage
(d) it all depends upon the will of the woman
10. A marriage solemnized after 1-10-2006 can be dissolved by a decree of divorce if:
(a) the opposite party deserted the petitioner for a continuous period of at least 1 year
(b) the opposite party deserted the petitioner for a continuous period of at least 2 years
(c) the opposite party deserted the petitioner for a continuous period of at least 3 years
(d) the opposite party deserted the petitioner for a continuous period of at least 4 years
11. If a petition is presented under Section 13-B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, by both
parties, a decree of divorce can be passed by the Court:
(a) depending upon the urgency pleaded, immediately
(b) not earlier than 6 months period has elapsed from the date of presentation of the
petition
(c) only after expiry of 1 year period from the date of marriage
(d) only after expiry of 18 months period from the date of marriage
12. Can a provision be made by the Court in a decree drawn in proceedings initiated under
Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, for the custody of minor children?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) separate proceedings should be taken out under the Guardianship Act, 1956
13. Can irretrievable breakdown of marriage be a ground for seeking divorce under the Hindu
Marriage Act?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) yes, if permitted by court
(d) yes, upon payment of permanent alimony to the counter part
14. Under Section 8 (a) of the Hindu Succession Act, the property of a male Hindu dying
intestate shall devolve firstly upon the heirs being relatives specified in class I of the
Schedule to the Act. The class - I heirs do not include:
(a) widow
(b) son
(c) mother
(d) father
15. Can be the provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 apply to an illegitimate child one of
whose parents is a Buddhist and the other follower of Arya Samaj?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) yes, by will
16. The daughter of a coparcener of a joint family is recognized as coparcener by birth by the
Central Amendment (through Parliament) to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 with effect
from 9.9.2005 to one of the following sections:
(a) Section 29A
(b) Section 6
(c) Section 6B
(d) Section 29B
17. General rules of succession in the case of a female Hindu is governed by one of the following
provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:
(a) Section 8
(b) Section 12
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 9
18. An easement is a right which the owner or occupier of certain land possesses:
(a) over his own land for the beneficial enjoyment of such land
(b) over certain other land which is not his own, for the beneficial enjoyment of his own
land
(c) over certain other land which the community owns, for the beneficial enjoyment of
his own land
(d) over certain other land which should share a common boundary with his own land
19. Can an easement be extinguished?

(a) yes, only if the dominant heritage is completely destroyed, leaving intact the
servient heritage
(b) yes, only if the servient heritage is completely destroyed, leaving intact the
dominant heritage
(c) yes, in complete destruction of dominant or servient heritages
(d) in none of the cases above
20. What is the period prescribed for acquisition of right of easement of light or air for any
building without interruption?
(a) twenty years
(b) twelve years
(c) three years
(d) thirty years
21. Company'A' has entitled to a contract for acquiring a certain immovable property belonging
to 'B'. Subsequently, company 'A' got amalgamated with company 'C can company 'C' seek
specific performance of contract entered into by and between 'A' and 'B'?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) only with the leave of the court
22. If a person is not entitled to recover compensation for breach of a contract, can he seek
specific performance of the contract?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) it is for the discretion of the court
23. In a suit for specific performance of a contract, can a plaintiff be awarded compensation?
(a) no
(b) it is for the discretion of the court
(c) yes, if compensation is claimed in the plaint
24. Specific performance of part of contract

(a) can be enforced
(b) cannot be enforced
(c) enforced in certain exceptional circumstances
25. A contract dependent on the volition of parties

(a) can be specifically enforced
(b) cannot be specifically enforced
(c) can be enforced in exceptional cases
26. Against decree passed in a suit filed under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act
(a) only review is allowed
(b) appeal can be filed
(c) no appeal or review is allowed
27. Can a suit instituted after the prescribed period be dismissed?

(a) yes, if limitation has been set-up as a defence
(b) yes, even though limitation has not been set-up as a defence
(c) no
28. The period prescribed for institution of a suit expired on Sunday that followed the last
working day of the Court before it's summer recess. During summer recess, provision is
made for receiving urgent cases. However, the suit is instituted on the reopening day of the
court after summer recess. Can a suit be treated to have been filed in time?
(a) no
(b) yes
(c) only if the delay is properly explained
(d) when leave is obtained by the court
29. Can the time consumed for deciding an application for leave of suit as a pauper, which
application is ultimately rejected be excluded from computation of the period of limitation
when a suit was subsequently instituted?
(a) no
(b) yes
(c) yes, with consent of defendant
30. When can the period of limitation run when a suit is instituted seeking relief against the
consequence of a mistake?
(a) from the date the mistake is discovered with due diligence
(b) from the initial cause of action
(c) a notice pointing out the mistake is drawn
31. 'A' instituted a suit against 'B' and 'C' on 6.12.2012. 'D' was added as a plaintiff on
20.11.2014. When is suit deemed to have been instituted as regards 'D?
(a) On 6.12.2012
(b) On 20.11.2014 subject to court directing any earlier date
(c) On any date as agreed by 'B' & 'C'
32. Sandeep executed a promissory note in favour of Vijay for 5 lakhs on 18.10.2010. On
15.11.2013 he has acknowledged his liability in writing under his signature. On 16.12.2013
Vijay filed suit for recovery. The suit is:
(a) barred by limitation
(b) not barred by limitation
(c) maintainable on condonation of delay
(d) maintainable subject to discretion of court
33. 'A' institutes suit against 'B' in a civil court and realises that he instituted the suit which lacks
jurisdiction. Under which provision of the Limitation Act, 1963, can such period be excluded
for computing limitation?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 17
(d) Section 13
34. What is limitation period for filing a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act?
(a) 1year
(b) 3 years
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 years
35. The following can be transferred under the Transfer of Property Act:
(a) a right to future maintenance
(b) salary of a public officer whether before or after it has become payable
(c) a mere right to sue
(d) assignment of property
36. 'Immovable property', as defined under the Transfer of Property Act includes:
(a) standing timber
(b) growing crops
(c) agricultural land
(d) grass
37. A is the paternal uncle of 'B'. His wife ‘C’ died recently. They have no children. 'B' is taking
complete care of 'A'. 'A' has suffered a major heart attack a couple of months ago. ‘A’,
therefore executed a will bequeathing all his immovable properties in favour of 'B' and got it
registered. To clear some of the hospital bills, 'B' intends to sell and transfer some of the
immovable properties owned by 'A'. Can he do so?
(a) yes
(b) yes, if there are no Class-I or Class-II heirs of 'A' available
(c) no
38. Where, on a transfer of property, an interest therein is created in favour of a person to take
effect only upon the happening of a specified uncertain event, such interest is called:
(a) vested interest
(b) contingent interest
(c) eventual interest
(d) preferential interest
39. Can one of several co-owners of immovable property transfer his share of such property or
interest therein in favour of another person who is not a member of the family?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) yes, if the co-owners give their consent
(d) yes, if the co-owners have been given the first option for transfer
40. If the donor dies before acceptance of the gift by donee?
(a) the gift is valid
(b) the gift is void
(c) the gift is voidable
41. Doctrine of lis pendense provided under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act lays
down:
(a) pending suit, parties are prohibited to alienate the property
(b) parties are at liberty to alienate the property
(c) if alienation is made, it is subject to certain conditions
(d) the parties are bound by the decree passed by the court
42. 'A' has a chance to succeed to the property of 'B' in future,

(a) he can alienate his right
(b) he cannot alienate his right
(c) he can alienate his right under certain circumstances
43. 'A' wants to gift away landed property worth 2 lakhs in favour of a Deity:
(a) the gift shall be registered
(b) the gift need not be registered
(c) the gift does not require registration if the leave of the court is obtained
44. Who is a 'tenant holding over?

(a) person having subsisting lease
(b) person having right for grant of lease
(c) person whose lease is terminated but continues in possession
45. What is essential ingredient to claim part performance under Section 53-A of the Transfer of
Property Act?
(a) payment in full
(b) written agreement
(c) 50% payment
(d) Written agreement, payment in full an followed by possession of the transferee
46. The Indian Penal Code extends to:

(a) the whole of India
(b) the whole of India except Arunachal Pradesh
(c) the whole of India except Nagaland and Mizoram
(d) the whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir
47. The provisions of the Indian Penal Code shall apply also to any offence committed by:
(a) a person of Indian origin and a citizen of a foreign country in any place beyond India
(b) any person on any ship or aircraft registered anywhere in the world
(c) any citizen of India in any place beyond India
(d) any person in any place without or beyond India, committing offence targeting a
computer resource located anywhere in Common Wealth Nations
48. Whoever harbours an officer who has deserted the Army is liable to be punished under
Section 136 IPC with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years. This provision
does not extend to the case in which the harbour is given by:
(a) a wife to her husband
(b) a mother to her son
(c) a sister to her brother
49. 'A' in exercise in good faith of right of private defence caused death of 'B' with the
knowledge that it is likely to cause his death but without the intention of causing his death.
'A' is liable to be sentenced
(a) to imprisonment for life
(b) to imprisonment for 10 years or fine or with both
(c) death
(d) not liable for conviction
50. In case of dowry death punishable under Section 304B of IPC, the presumption under
Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act shall be drawn if the death takes place within how
many years of marriage?
(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 11
(d) 7
51. In an offence of rape, the consent given by a minor is no consent. What is the age of minor
mentioned in section 375 of IPC:
(a) 16 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 21 years
(d) 14 years
52. An instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking signed by the maker to
pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of
the instrument is called:
(a) cheque
(b) currency note
(c) bill of exchange
(d) promissory note
53. When no interest rate is specified in the instrument, Section 80 of the Negotiable of
Instruments Act requires interest on the amount due thereon to be calculated at the rate of:
(a) 18% per annum
(b) 15% per annum
(c) 12% per annum
(d) 9% per annum
54. The section governing the dishonour of cheque for insufficiency of funds is:
(a) section 132
(b) section 129
(c) section 138
(d) section 136
55. A promissory note is required to be attested by a minimum of

(a) one witness
(b) two witnesses
(c) three witnesses
(d) no attestation is required
56. Ram holding an account in a bank at Hyderabad issued a cheque to Krishna, a resident of
Vijayawada for discharging his liability in respect of a transaction which took place at
Chittoor. The said cheque got dishonoured where can Krishna filed complaint under Section
138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Vijayawada
(c) Chittoor
(d) Any place of his choice
57. Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument?

(a) promissory note
(b) bond
(c) bill of exchange
(d) cheque negotiable
58. Under section 85 of the Registration Act, documents (other than wills) remaining unclaimed
in any registration office for a period exceeding may be destroyed:
(a) two years
(b) eighteen months
(c) one year
(d) six months
59. Under Section 47 of the Registration Act a document once registered takes effect from:
(a) the date of registration
(b) one month after the date of registration
(c) the date of its execution
(d) one month after the date of execution
60. A certificate of sale granted to the purchaser of any immovable property sold by public
auction, by a civil or revenue officer, the value of which exceeds 100
(a) is not liable to be compulsorily registered
(b) is liable to be compulsorily registered
(c) the authority who conducted the auction can grant exemption from compulsory
registration
(d) the Collector of the District in which the property is located when applied for, can
grant exemption from compulsory registration.
61. Under Section 33 (1) of the Stamp Act, every person in-charge of a public office,
except__________may impound an instrument which is not duly stamped:
(a) a District Court
(b) the Sub Collector
(c) the Tahsildar
(d) a police officer
62. Under Section 35 of the Indian Stamp Act, no instrument chargeable with duty, unless such
instrument is duly stamped, shall be admitted in evidence:
(a) except regarding any collateral transaction only
(b) for any purpose
(c) except in the case of a contract in a suit for specific performance only
(d) both (a) and (c)
63. Under Section 30 of the Indian Stamp Act, any person receiving any money exceeding rupees
_______shall, on demand by the person paying the money, give a duly stamped receipt for
the same:
(a) ten
(b) twenty
(c) fifty
(d) hundred
64. An insufficiently stamped instrument can be admitted in evidence upon:

(a) payment of the differential amount which would make up the duty properly
chargeable
(b) payment of the differential amount together with penalty of 5/- or ten times the
differential amount whichever is higher
(c) payment of the differential amount together with fixed penalty of ten times the duty
chargeable
(d) payment of the normal duty chargeable upon the instrument
65. Under the Andhra Pradesh Buildings (Lease, Rent & Eviction) Control Act, 1960 no tenant
shall be evicted, whether in execution of a decree or otherwise, except in accordance with
the provisions of:
(a) section 10 of the Act
(b) section 16 of the Act
(c) section 20 of the Act
(d) none of the above :
66. The Andhra Pradesh Buildings (Lease, Rent & Eviction) Control Act, 1960 shall apply to:
(a) buildings belonging to State Government
(b) buildings belonging to Central Government
(c) buildings belonging to Cantonment Board
(d) buildings belonging to private individuals
67. For initiating eviction petition under the Andhra Pradesh Buildings (Lease, Rent & Eviction)
Control Act, a prior notice of termination to tenant is compulsory-
(a) not correct
(b) correct
(c) not correct, if Court dispenses with
68. Where a suit has been duly instituted summons may be issued to the defendant, under
section 27 of the Civil Procedure Code, to be served in the manner prescribed on such day
not beyond ________ days from the date of institution of the suit:
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 120
69. Under Section 40 of the Civil Procedure Code, where a decree is sent for execution in
another State, it shall be sent to such Court and executed in such manner as may be
prescribed by rules in force:
(a) in the State where the decree was passed
(b) in the State where the decree was sent for execution
(c) either of the above
(d) neither of the above :
70. Pleading means:

(a) plaint or rejoinder
(b) plaint or written statement
(c) plaint or written statement or rejoinder
(d) plaint alone
71. When a suit is pending in a Foreign Court,

(a) the trial of the very same suit in India is barred
(b) it is not barred
(c) it is not barred if it is not based on the same cause of action
72. Both parties entered into agreement that the suit has to be filed at place- A. But the part of
cause of action arose at places B and C also,
(a) the suit is maintainable at places - A, B and C
(b) suit is maintainable at place - B only
(c) with the leave of the Court, can be filed at places - A, B or C
73. Objection as to the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Court of first instance can be taken in the
appellate court
(a) at any time before the disposal of the appeal
(b) cannot be taken unless the objection was taken in the court of first instance before
the settlement of issues
(c) can be taken at any time on the ground that there has been a consequent failure of
justice
74. The judgment debtor in execution proceedings raised objection that the trial court has no
jurisdiction over the subject matter :
(a) he cannot raise such objection unless he raised the same before the trial court
(b) he has to challenge the same only by way of filing the appeal
(c) he can raise the said issue for the first time in executing court
75. In a money suit the court granted interest at the rate of 12% per annum from the date of
suit till the date of decree. The decree is silent about payment of further interest on
principal sum from the date of decree to the date of payment. In such an event
(a) further interest can be granted at the rate of 12% per annum int in the execution
petition
(b) further interest can be granted at the rate of 6% per annum in the execution
petition
(c) no such further interest can be granted as the court shall be deemed to have
refused such further interest
76. After pronouncing judgment the court found that there are some clerical and arithmetical
mistakes
(a) it cannot correct them and they can be corrected by appellate court only
(b) it can correct if both parties agree for such correction
(c) it can correct on its own without notice to the parties
77. What is meaning of expression 'indigent?

(a) made in India
(b) a liberal and carefree person
(c) dishonest person
(d) pauper
78. A suit is filed against 'A' and his sons, daughters and wife for declaration of ownership of
plaintiff and permanent injunction. 'A' dies pending suit. No application is filed for setting
aside abatement and for substitution. Whether the suit abates?
(a) no
(b) yes
(c) no, if the Court passes order for addition of State
79. Application under Order 6, Rule 17 C.P.C for amendment of written statement to withdraw
admissions of plaintiff's claim. Whether permissible?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) no, beyond 30 days from the date of filing of written statement
80. On completion of investigation, the officer incharge of a police station shall forward the
police report under Section 173 (2) Cr.P.C, to:
(a) Sessions Court
(b) High Court
(c) District Collector
(d) Magistrate empowered to take cognizance of the offence
81. In the absence of a special order of a Magistrate, no police officer shall detain in custody a
person arrested without warrant for a period exceeding _________ hours, exclusive of the
time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Court of the Magistrate.
(a) 12 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 36 hours
(d) 48 hours
82. Under Section 125 Cr.P.C a Magistrate can order a person to make a monthly allowance for
the maintenance of:
(a) his married daughter who has attained majority
(b) his brother
(c) his sister
(d) his father
83. Maximum sentence prescribed for offences in a summons case is:

(a) two years
(b) one year
(c) three years
(d) five years
84. Amendment to the Code of Criminal Procedure can be made

(a) by Parliament
(b) by State Legislature
(c) by both
85. Cognizable offence means

(a) offence of serious nature
(b) non bailable offence
(c) bailable offence
(d) an offence where police officer may arrest without warrant
86. In a complaint to the Magistrate

(a) name of the accused shall be mentioned
(b) name of the accused need not be mentioned
(c) name of the accused need not be mentioned if the descriptive particulars of the
accused are given
87. Police report under the Code of Criminal Procedure means

(a) report given to the police
(b) complaint
(c) charge sheet
88. At the stage of consideration for application for discharge can the accused summon a
document or thing?
(a) he has a right to summon
(b) he has no right to summon
(c) he can exercise such right with the permission of the court
89. The investigating officer while recording statement of a witness under section 162 Cr.P.C
(a) shall obtain the signature of the witness
(b) shall not obtain the signature of the witness
(c) it is left to the discretion of the Investigating Officer
90. After taking cognizance the Magistrate issued process to the accused
(a) he can reconsider his decision
(b) he has no power to reconsider his decision
(c) in exceptional circumstances he can reconsider his decision
91. An "admission" can be used against

(a) a witness
(b) party who makes it
(c) opposite party
92. Evidence of hostile witness
(a) cannot be taken into consideration for any purpose :
(b) it can be relied on by the prosecution
(c) it can be relied on by the defence
(d) it can be relied on by the prosecution as well as the defence
93. Motive becomes more relevant in a case based on

(a) direct evidence
(b) circumstantial evidence
(c) direct and circumstantial evidence
94. In an application seeking bail in a non- bailable offence

(a) notice to the prosecution is not necessary
(b) notice is mandatory
(c) notice is mandatory only when the provision relating to the offence alleged so
requires
95. Which of the statements is correct?

(a) a related witness is unreliable
(b) a related witness is reliable
(c) evidence of related witness shall be subjected to strict scrutiny
96. When the evidence is improperly admitted or rejected at the trial

(a) it shall be ground for new trial
(b) it shall not be ground for new trial
(c) it shall be ground for new trial, when there was no sufficient evidence, other than
the evidence which was objected
97. In a criminal case, previous good character is

(a) not relevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant in rare cases
98. Evidentiary value of report of handwriting expert?
(a) conclusive
(b) opinion subject to acceptance by court
(c) nil, since irrelevant
99. Rule 5 of the Criminal Rules of Practice enables cases relating to Juvenile Offenders and
women to be tried:
(a) in camera
(b) open court house
(c) mobile courts
(d) all the above
100. Effect of death of the sole defendant in a money suit in between the date of
conclusion of the hearing and that of the pronouncement of the judgment:
(a) suit abates
(b) suit does not abate, judgment can be pronounced
(c) judgment cannot be pronounced, re- hearing of the suit
(d) none of the above :
1 A 35 D 69 B
2 B 36 C 70 B
3 C 37 C 71 B
4 C 38 B 72 B
5 B 39 A 73 C
6 C 40 B 74 C
7 C 41 D 75 C
8 D 42 B 76 C
9 C 43 B 77 D
10 B 44 C 78 A
11 B 45 D 79 B
12 A 46 D 80 D
13 B 47 C 81 B
14 D 48 A 82 D
15 A 49 B 83 A
16 B 50 D 84 C
17 C 51 B 85 D
18 B 52 D 86 B
19 C 53 A 87 C
20 D 54 C 88 B
21 A 55 D 89 B
22 B 56 A 90 B
23 C 57 B 91 B
24 C 58 A 92 D
25 B 59 C 93 B
26 C 60 A 94 C
27 B 61 D 95 C
28 B 62 B 96 C
29 B 63 B 97 B
30 A 64 B 98 B
31 B 65 A 99 A
32 A 66 D 100 B
33 B 67 A
34 C 68 A
TIME : 2HRS DATE : __________ MARKS : 100
_____________________________________
1. Two persons are within the degree of prohibited relationships, if they are related
by
a. Full blood
b. Half or Uterine Blood
c. Adoption
d. All the above
2. A contracts to pay B 10,000/- if B's house is burnt. This is ____

a. Void Contract
b. Contingent contract
c. Wager
3. Abetting the commission of suicide is dealt with under

a. Section 306 IPC
b. Section 307 IPC
c. Section 308 IPC .
d. Section 309 IPC
4. Section 75 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

a. Primary evidence
b. Secondary evidence
c. Public document
d. Private document
5. Admission is defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in_

a. Section 16
b. Section 17
c. Section 18
d. Section 20
6. An Executive Magistrate is empowered to grant remand u/s 167 of the Cr.P.C.,
for a maximum period of
a. 15 days
b. 7 days
c. 30 days
d. 90 days
7. A and B jointly sued C for 20, 000/- Whether C can set off for the debt due to him
by A alone? .
a. Yes
b. No
c. Neither A nor B
8. A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, but finds no
jewels inside the box after it is opened. Which is the provision of law under
which, he may be held guilty?
a. Section 511 IPC
b. Section 420 IPC
c. Section 379 IPC
9. The act of a child under ------years of age is not an offence

a. 5
b. 7
c. 14
d. 18
10. What will be the effect of mistake as to law in force on the agreement
a. Not voidable
b. Voidable
c. Void.
d. Not void
11. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that marriages of all
persons should be made compulsorily registrable?
a. Seema Vs. Ashwinikumar
b. Geeta Jagdish Vs. Jagdish
c. Durga Tripati Vs. Arundati Tripati
d. Ramesh chand Vs. Rameshwari Bai
12. A marriage under the Hindu Marriages Act must be solemized in accordance
with customary rights of_
a. The bride .
b. The bridegroom
c. Both the bride and the bridegroom
d. Either the bride or the bridegroom
13. Robbery is dacoity when the minimum number of persons involved is_
a. 10
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2
14. Easement is a right

a. In Rem
b. In Personam
c. Neither a nor b
d. Sometimes in Rem and sometimes in personam
15. The Expression good faith in Sec. 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is used
in the light of ------
a. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930
b. The General Clauses Act, 1897
c. The Registration Act, 1908
d. The Specific Relief Act, 1963
16. Secondary evidence of a document under the Indian Evidence Act, means
a. Copy of the document
b. Oral account of the contents of the document
c. Both a and b
d. Only a and not b
17. A co-defendant in a case-------

a. Cannot be cross examined by another co-defendant in any circumstance
b. Can be cross examined by another co- defendant
c. Can be cross examined by another co- defendant when their interests are
adverse to each other
d. None of these
18. The remedies available against an ex parte decree
a. Appeal
b. Review
c. Application to set aside
d. All the three
19. Rescission cannot be granted -------

a. Where restitution to the original position not possible
b. Where the contract stands ratified
c. In severable contracts
d. In all the above
20. Where there is a conflict between marshalling and contribution, Sec. 82 of the
Transfer Property Act provides that -------
a. Contribution prevails
b. Marshalling prevails
c. Subrogation prevails
21. An agreement not supported by consideration is called_

a. Nudum Pactum
b. Consensus Ad Idem
c. Quid Pro Quo
d. Noscitur A Sociis
22. For his commission or remuneration, an agent has a

a. General lien
b. Particular lien
c. No lien at all
23. A time barred debt can be claimed as

a. Counter claim
b. Fresh suit
c. Set off
24. The offence of conspiracy is complete as soon as the parties have agreed to do an
illegal act. This is
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
25. How many types of punishment are prescribed in the IPC

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
26. The use of force by itself will not convert the theft into robbery. This is
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
27. The Protection Officer under the Domestic Violence Act works under the control
and supervision of the ________
a. District Collector
b. Family Court
c. Magistrate
d. State Government
28. The burden of proof as to ownership under the Indian Evidence Act lies on
a. The owner
b. The tenant
c. The person who asserts it
d. In all these
29. An appeal under the AP Land Encroachment Act shall be made ordinarily before
the expiry of
a. 30 days of the date of the order
b. 60 days of the date of the order
c. 90 days of the date of the order
d. 120 days of the date of the order
30. Threat to commit suicide is
a. Coercion
b. Undue influence
c. Misrepresentation
d. Intimidation
31. Assault can be caused by

a. Mere words
b. Mere gestures
c. Mere preparations
d. None of these
32. Where consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or

misrepresentation, the contract is ________
a. Valid
b. Voidable at the option of the party, whose consent was so caused
c. Void ab initio
33. The transfer of property pending suit is hit by the

a. Doctrine of lis pendens
b. Doctrine of subjudice
c. Doctrine of subrosa
d. Doctrine of res judicata
34. Which of the following is not a decree?

a. Rejection of a plaint
b. Dismissal for default
c. Both a and b
35. Does a party to the suit have a right to summon the opposite party to give
evidence?
a. Yes
b. No
d.
36. Can the court examine witnesses before framing of issues?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Never
d. None of these
37. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that delay in
pronouncing the judgment amounts to denial of justice?
a. Surendra Singh vs. State of U.P.
b. Anil Rai vs. State of Bihar
c. State of U.P. vs. Chandra Bhushan
38. Can the Court allow the party to summon a witness, whose name is not included
in the witness list?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Never
d. None of these
39. Normally, the plaintiff , who succeeds, would be entitled to mesne profits for the
period of
a. One year
b. Two year
c. Three years
d. Four years
40. Whether in suit for specific performance, a third party to contract claiming
independent title and possession is entitled to add as party to suit to adjudicate
his case?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Sometimes
d. a and c
41. After the preliminary decree, whether the party is entitled to raise a fresh plea in
the appeal filed against the final decree?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Depends
42. Whether the Court has power to extend the time granted for the performance of
any act after the time granted by it had expired under Section 148, CPC?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Depends
43. Whether the widow of the deceased Hindu is entitled to claim a share in the
deceased husband's property after the remarriage
a. Yes
b. No
c. Depends
44. Can a plaint be amended after the suit has been disposed of, by invoking Section
152 and 153, CPC?
a. Yes
b. No
45. Is it permissible for the Court to pass more than one preliminary decree?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Depends
46. Limitation for filing an application u/s 152 and 153 of CPC?
a. One year
b. Two year
c. Three years
47. Whether a party could be allowed to withdraw an admission made in the

pleadings by way of amendment?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Depends
48. There remedy of the plaintiff when the plaint is rejected

a. To file a revision
b. To file a review
c. To file an appeal
49. Whether the interim order passed in a suit that was dismissed for default will
revive after the suit is restored?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Depends
50. The Court can issue warrant for the arrest of the defendant to ensure his
appearance under Section __________of CPC
a. 95
b. 94
c. 94(a)
d. Order V Rule 1 CPC
51. The suit for damages for breach of contract can be filed at the place
a. Where contract was executed
b. Where the plaintiff resides
c. Where the contract was to be performed
d. Both a and b
52. In which of the following situations, the Court can grant exemption to the
plaintiff from the necessity to substitute the legal representative of any
defendant who died during the pendency of the suit proceed to pronounce the
judgment?
a. The defendant has remained ex parte
b. The defendant has failed to file written statement
c. The defendant having filed the written statement, has failed to appear
and contest at the hearing
d. All the above
53. Which of the following can exceed the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Court?
a. Set off
b. Counter claim
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
54. U/s 10 of CPC, the earlier suit is liable to be

a. Stayed
b. Dismissed
c. Rejected
d. Neither a nor b nor c
55. A counter claim can be set up in

a. Money suits only
b. Suits for recovery of damages only
c. All suits
56. The guidelines regarding the arrest in cognizable offences punishable upto 7
years were issued by the Supreme Court in _________
a. Sania vs Ram Singh
b. Kumar (a) Jaikumar vs State of TN
c. Arnesh kumar vs State of Bihar
d. Sekar vs. State
57. Imprisonment in execution of a decree is

a. Rigorous imprisonment
b. Simple imprisonment
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
58. Right of private defence is available

a. Against all members of an unlawful assembly
b. When a reasonable apprehension of the danger to the body arises from an
attempt
c. Threat to commit an offence though offence might not have been
committed
d. All the above
59. Withdrawal of suits is governed by
a. Order XXIII Rule 1 of CPC
b. Order XXIII Rule 3 of CPC
c. a and b
d. Order XXIII Rule 3(A) of CPC
60. Order passed under order XXI Rule 97 by the Executing Court is
a. Appealable
b. Revisable
c. Reviewable
61. In the law of evidence, fact means and includes

a. Anything perceived by the senses
b. State of things capable of being perceived by the senses
c. Mental condition of a person of which, a person is conscious
d. All the above
62. X is accused of an offence of rape. He can be subjected to the following tests for
investigation:
a. Polygraph test
b. Narco analysis test
c. Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) test
d. None
63. Which of the following charges cannot be compounded without permission of

the Court, before which the prosecution is pending?
a. Section 298 of IPC
b. Section 426 of IPC
c. Section 491 of IPC
d. Section 338 of IPC
64. A indulges in voluntary sexual intercourse with B, a married woman, without the
consent of her husband. He is guilty of adultery. The married woman B is liable
to be tried with A as an
a. Abettor
b. Adulteress
c. Jointly as co-accused
65. 65. A person accused of an offence before a Criminal Court can be called upon to
give evidence on oath.
a. Upon a request in writing from the Public Prosecutor
b. By an application made by the complainant
c. By a direction of the court
d. By the accused, on his own request in writing
66. Section 34 of the IPC

a. Creates a substantive offence
b. Introduces the principle of vicarious liability for an offence committed by
the co-accused
c. Recognizes that the co-participant in a crime must be made liable for his
act in the commission of the crime by the co-accused
d. Both b and c
67. Test identification parade pertains to the field of

a. Investigation
b. Trial
c. Satisfaction of the investigating officer that he is proceeding in the right
direction
d. a and c
68. Which of the following Criminal Minor Acts was amended by the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2013?
a. The Immoral Traffic Act
b. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000
c. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
d. Criminal Procedure Code
69. Which of the following Acts is passed based on the Supreme Court guidelines
a. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
b. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Work Place Act, 2013
c. Juvenile Justice Act, 2000
70. Which of the following new offences are introduced in the IPC by the Criminal
Law (Amendment), 2013
a. Stalking
b. Voyeurism
c. Acid Attack
d. All the above
71. Which of the following new section is inserted by the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2013
a. Section 354A of the IPC
b. Section 326A of the IPC
c. Section 370A of the IPC
d. All the above
72. In which of the following cases, is a preliminary enquiry permitted by the o

Supreme Court in the Lalitha Kumari so judgment
a. Matrimonial disputes or family disputes
b. Commercial offence
c. Medical negligence cases
d. All the above
73. In which of the following judgments, has the Supreme Court ruled that the victim
of a bigamous marriage is entitled to maintenance ?
a. Pinakin Mahipatray Rawl Vs. State of Gujarat
b. Badshah Vs. sou. Urmila Badshah Godse
c. Indra Sharma Vs. V.K.V. sharma
74. The guidelines regarding the arrest of Judicial Officers by the Police were issued
by the Supreme Court in
a. Joginder Kumar vs State of UP
b. M. C. Abraham vs. State of Maharashtra
c. D. K. Basu vs. State of WB
d. Delhi Judicial Services Association vs. State of Gujarat
75. What is the maximum period of remand , which can be ordered under Sec.
309(2) of the Cr.P.c?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
76. The right of private defence of property against robbery continues
a. As long as the offender causes or attempts to cause to any person death
or hurt or wrongful restraint
b. As long as the fear of instant death or of instant hurt or of instant
personal restraint continues
c. a and b
77. The common object of unlawful assembly can be gathered from

a. Nature of assembly
b. Weapons used
c. The behaviour of the assembly on or before the occurrence
d. All of the above
78. Section 149 of IPC is a

a. Rule of evidence
b. Specific offence
c. Definition clause
79. In the absence of substantive evidence

a. Corroborative evidence can be used
b. Corroborative evidence has no worth
c. Corroborative evidence may be or may not be used as per the discretion
of the Court
80. Answers given by the accused U/S 313 of the Cr.P.C. are
a. Evidence
b. Not evidence
c. Presumptions
81. The Rule of res gestae is applicable to

a. Civil cases only
b. Criminal cases only
c. Civil as well as criminal cases
82. Conduct of an accused is
a. Not relevant against him
b. Relevant against the co-accused
c. Not relevant against the co-accused
d.
83. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court issued guidelines to prevent
acid attacks?
a. Laxmin vs. Union of India
b. PUCL vs. Union of India
c. Sakshi vs. Union of India
84. A bargain where one party agrees to assist another in recovering property and to
share in the proceeds of the action is called
a. Accord and satisfaction
b. Wager and betting
c. Champerty
d. Consideration
85. In a lease of immovable property, what is transferred is

a. Right to enjoy the property
b. Mere possession alone
c. Interest in the property
d. Mesne profits
86. Caveat venditor means

a. Seller beware
b. Buyer beware
c. Let the parties beware
87. Handing over the keys of the godown where the goods are stored is
a. Constructive delivery OR
b. Symbolic delivery
c. Actual delivery
88. What is transferred in a mortgage is
a. Ownership
b. Possession
c. Interest
d. Right
89. The principle of qua timet means

a. Some past injury to the rights or interest of a person
b. Some future probable injury to the rights or interests of person
c. Some small injury not capable of valuation
d. Some small injury incapable of valuation
90. U/s 13 of CPC, a foreign judgment can be challenged on the grounds of

a. Competency of the court pronouncing the judgment.
b. Being obtained by fraud
c. Sustaining a claim founded on a breach of law in force in India
d. All the above
91. The maxim res-Ipsa loquitur' is

a. Rule of law
b. Rule of procedure
c. Rule of evidence
d. Rule of negligence
92. Judgment on a admission can be given

a. Under Order XII Rule 8 of CPC
b. Under Order XII Rule 6 of CPC
c. Under Order XII Rule 4 of CPC
d. Under Order XII Rule 2 of CPC
93. Compensatory costs under Section 35A of CPC can be imposed to the extent of
a. 3,000/
b. 5,000/
c. 10, 000/
d. Without any limit
94. An admission constitutes a

a. Substantive piece of evidence
b. Corroborative piece of evidence
c. Conclusive proof
95. A caricature is a document within the meaning of Section 3 of the Evidence Act
a. True
b. Not true
c. Partly true
d. True in some conditions
96. Conditions when hearsay evidence may be admissible

a. When contemporaneous
b. When there is no interval enabling fabrication
c. Both a and b
97. After murder, the accused surrenders to the police with the severed head and
gives confession. His conduct is relevant under section
a. 10 of the Evidence Act
b. 8 of the Evidence Act
c. 7 of the Evidence Act
d. 11 of the Evidence Act
98. Test Identification Parade conducted during investigation is relevant under

section
a. 16 of the Evidence Act
b. 8 of the Evidence Act
c. Both a and b
d. 9 of the Evidence Act
99. Extra judicial confession can be given before

a. The Investigating Officer
b. The Judicial Magistrate
c. A police officer other than the Investigating Officer
d. Village Administrative Officer
100. An injunction cannot be granted when the plaintiff has no personal

interest in the matter
a. True
b. False
c. Partly true
d. True under certain circumstances
1 D 35 A 69 B
2 B 36 A 70 D
3 A 37 B 71 D
4 D 38 A 72 D
5 B 39 C 73 B
6 B 40 B 74 D
7 B 41 B 75 D
8 A 42 A 76 C
9 B 43 A 77 D
10 A 44 B 78 B
11 A 45 A 79 B
12 D 46 D 80 B
13 B 47 B 81 C
14 A 48 C 82 C
15 B 49 A 83 A
16 C 50 C 84 C
17 C 51 A 85 A
18 D 52 D 86 A
19 D 53 D 87 B
20 B 54 D 88 C
21 A 55 C 89 B
22 B 56 C 90 D
23 D 57 D 91 C
24 A 58 B 92 B
25 C 59 A 93 A
26 A 60 A 94 A
27 C 61 D 95 A
28 C 62 D 96 C
29 B 63 D 97 B
30 A 64 D 98 D
31 D 65 D 99 D
32 B 66 D 100 A
33 A 67 D
34 B 68 C
TIME : 2HRS DATE : _________ MARKS : 100
_____________________________________
1. The Word "Judge” is defined in

a. The Indian Penal code.
b. The Civil Procedure Code
c. The Criminal Procedure Code.
d. a and b alone
2. The Words" A Will" is defined in

a. Transfer of Property Act.
b. The Indian Penal code
c. The Indian Succession Act.
d. a, b and c
3. For the purpose of IPC, the possession of.... is the possession of the person
concerned
a. Wife
b. Clerk
c. Servant
d. All the above
4. The Words "year" and "Month" are defined in IPC to mean the year of month
according to
a. English Calendar
b. British Calendar
c. Gregorian Calendar
5. Under the Indian Penal Code, words which refer to acts done, extend also to
a. Omissions
b. illegal Omissions
c. Commissions
d. illegal commissions
6. Under IPC, while calculating fractions of terms of punishment, imprisonment for
life shall be reckoned as equivalent to imprisonment for
a. 14 years
b. 20 years
c. Life
7. Under IPC, the death of the offender does not discharge from the liability, any
property which is liable for his debts if a fine has been levied.
a. Correct
b. Incorrect
c. Partly Correct
d. Depends
8. In executing a sentence of solitary confinement such confinement shall in no case

exceed
a. 14 days at a time
b. 14 days
c. 7 days
d. 15 days.
9. Under the IPC, Wrongful gain includes

a. Wrongful retention.
b. Wrongful appropriation
c. Wrongful acquisition.
d. a and c
10. Under Chapter IX-A of IPC, an electoral right means

a. Right to stand as candidate in an election.
b. Right not to stand as candidate in an election
c. Right to refrain from voting
d. All the above.
11. The Word "Character" appearing in Section 52, 53, 54 and 55 of the
Evidence Act includes.
a. Reputation and disposition
b. Antecedents.
c. Reputation only
12. Right to property is

a. A constitutional right
b. A fundamental right.
c. A human right
d. a and c
13. Conditions when hearsay evidence may be admissible

a. When contemporaneous
b. When there is no interval enabling fabrication
c. Both a and b
14. Section 57 of the evidence Act obliges the court to take judicial notice of
a. The name of all Advocates authorized to appear before it.
b. Public documents
c. The rule of the road, on land or at sea.
d. a and c
15. Which of the following is correct?

a. An affirmation is an oath taken in the name of God
b. An oath is an affirmation in the name of God
c. An affirmation is a solemn statement made on a sacred religious book
d. An oath is a swearing in the name of God
16. The burden of proving that a person is dead, will be on the person
affirming it, if the person is shown to have been alive within.
a. 7 year
b. 14 year
c. 30 years
17. Under Section 122 of the Evidence Act, the following is a privileged
communication
a. Communications during marriage.
b. Communications to one's own • advocate
c. Communications to a Judge in the course of Trail.
d. Official communications of confidential nature
18. Under the Indian Contract Act, one of the requirements for a person to be
competent to contract is that he should be
a. Of the age of majority.
b. Of the age of majority according to the law to child he is subject
c. Of the age of 18 year
d. Of the age of 21 years
19. The Rule that an agreement without consideration is void, is subject

under Contract Act, to
a. 2 exceptions
b. 3 exceptions
c. 4 exceptions
d. 1 exception
20. The difference between Wager and Contingent Contract is that

a. The former is valid and the latter is voidable
b. The former is voidable and the latter is valid
c. The former is void and the latter is valid
d. The former is void and the latter cannot be enforced till the event
happened.
21. Under the Contract Act, the original contract need not be performed if the
parties agree
a. to substitute a new contract.
b. to rescind the contract.
c. to alter the contract.
d. All the above
22. The Indian contract Act imposes a responsibility upon a finder of goods
a. To the same extent as a bailee
b. To hand it over to the police.
c. To the same extent as bailee, if he takes them into his custody.
d. None of the above.
23. Difference between contract of indemnity and contract of guarantee is

a. That the former is a contract to save another from loss and the latter is a
contract to perform the promise of a third person in case of his default.
b. That the former is a contract to discharge the liability of the third party
while the latter is a contract to protect against loss.
c. That the former is a cover against the loss if the loss was caused by the
promisor himself and not otherwise.
d. That the latter should always be in writing while the former could be oral.
24. The expression "instrument" is defined in the Transfer of Property Act to

mean.
a. a non-testamentary instrument.
b. a testamentary instrument.
c. Both a testamentary and non- testamentary instrument.
d. any document.
25. Some Chapters and Sections of Transfer of Property Act are to be taken as
part of
a. The Indian Contract Act.
b. The sale of Good Act.
c. The Indian Stamp Act.
d. Easements Act.
26. The difference between a mortgage and a charge is that

a. The former is created by act of parties, while the latter is created by
operation of law
b. The former is created by act of parties, while the latter can be created
either by act of parties or by operation of law
c. The former is created by operation of law, while the latter is created by
act of parties.
d. The former is on immovable property, while the latter is on movable
property.
27. To be a valid gift under the Transfer of Property Act the gift must be
accepted
a. By the donee.
b. By or on behalf of the donee.
c. By or on behalf of the donee during the lifetime of the donor
d. By or on behalf of the donee during the lifetime of the donor when he is
still capable of giving me
28. Chapter VII of the Transfer of Property Act does not apply to gifts.
a. Made is contemplation of death
b. Of movable or immovable property made in contemplation of death
c. Of movable property made in contemplation of death.
29. The Provision of The Hindu Succession Act 1956 shall not apply to
a. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
b. Scheduled Castes
c. Scheduled Tribes
d. Converts to Hinduism
30. In case of simultaneous deaths, there is presumption under the Hindu

Succession Act
a. That the younger survived the elder.
b. That the elder survived the younger.
c. That both died together
31. Section 118 of the Negotiable Instrument Act raises

a. 5 presumptions.
b. 6 presumptions.
c. 7 presumptions.
d. 8 presumptions
32. Under Section 80 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, the rate of interest is
to be calculated, where
a. At the rate of 6% p.a.
b. At the rate of 12% p.a.
c. At the rate of 18% p.a.
d. At the rate of 245% p.a.
33. Under Section 82 of The Negotiable Instruments Act, discharge from

liability happens.
a. By cancellation.
b. By release
c. By payment.
d. All the above
34. The Word "building" under The Rent Control Act includes
a. gardens and grounds
b. gardens and ground appurtenant to the house.
c. gardens and grounds appurtenant to the house as well as furniture.
35. Under Section 32 of The A.P. Rent Control Act, as building is substantially
renovated if
a. 50% of the premises is built new.
b. 75% of the premises is built new.
c. Not less than 75% of the premises is built new.
36. Who appoints the Protection Office under The Domestic Violence Act?
a. Central Government
b. Central Government in co-ordination with the State Government,
c. State Government.
d. State Government in Consultation with the High court.
37. The word Child under the Domestic Violence Act means and includes
a. Step child
b. Forester Child
c. Adopted Child
d. All the above
38. Domestic Violence under the Domestic Violence Act includes

a. Physical, mental and sexual abuse.
b. Physical, mental and economic abuse.
c. Physical, sexual, verbal and emotional and economic abuse.
d. Physical mental, sexual and economic abuse.
39. The limitation for filing an appeal to the Court of Session from the order
of the Magistrate under the Domestic Violence Act is.
a. 30 days.
b. 45 days.
c. 60 days.
d. 90 days
40. Under the Limitation Act, a "bill of exchange" includes
a. Cheque.
b. Hundi.
c. Promissory note
d. a and b
41. The rules of limitation contained in the Limitation Act, apply to all suits
instituted in the territories to which the Act applies.
a. Only if the suit is on contracts entered into within the territories to which
the Act extends.
b. Even if the contract on which the suit is filed was entered into outside the
territory of India.
c. Only if the cause of action had arisen.
42. The Limitation for enforcing payment of money secured by a mortgage or

otherwise charged upon immovable property is
a. 30 years
b. 3 years
c. 12 years
43. The exception under Section 27 to the general rule that "Limitation
extinguishes the remedy but not the right” applies to suit for
a. Possession of any property.
b. Compensation for libel.
c. Partition.
44. Limitation is a question of

a. Fact
b. Law
c. Fact and law
45. In computing the period of imitation for any suit for which the previous
consent/ sanction of the Government is required, the time required for obtaining
the consent shall be
a. Included
b. Excluded
c. Included but depends.
46. Section - of the Specific Relief Act deals with recovery of specific movable
property?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
47. Words and expression used but defined in Specific Relief Act, shall have
same meaning as assigned to them under
a. Contract Act.
b. Sale of Goods Act.
c. Transfer of Property Act
d. All the above.
48. It is possible under the Specific Relief Act for a party to a contract, to seek
rectification of the contract and then its specific performance
a. Not possible
b. If the contract does not express the real intention of the parties.
c. If due to mutual mistake, the contract does not express the real intention
of the parties.
d. No provision in the Act.
49. The dismissal of a Suit to prevent the breach of an obligation, is a bar

under Section 40 (3) of the Specific Relief Act
a. to institute another suit for injunction.
b. to sue for damages for such breach.
c. to sue for possession.
d. b and c
50. Under Section 3 (f) of the Hindu Marriage Act, Sapinda relationship
extends as far as
a. the 3rd generation in the line of ascent through the mother and 5th
through father
b. the 3rd generation in the line of ascent through the mother and 3rd
through father
c. the 5th generation in the line of ascent through the mother and 3rd
through father.
d. the 3rd generation in the line of ascent through the mother and 3rd
through father.
51. A Hindu Marriage is solemnized only when the ceremony of saptapadi is

completed
a. True.
b. False
c. Party true.
52. The rules that a document, not duly stamped or registered, is in

admissible in evidence does not apply to proceedings under The Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955.
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes, subject to certain conditions
d. Yes subject to proof
53. Under Section 27 of the Hindu Marriage Act, the decree may contain a
provision with respect to any property
a. presented to the wife at the time of marriage
b. presented to wife or husband.
c. presented to either, but belonging jointly to both.
54. The exercise of the power under Section 133 Cr.P.C. by a sub divisional
Magistrate in a case led to the leading decision of the Supreme Court in
Environmental law in
a. Municipal Council, Ratlam Vs. Vardhichand
b. M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India
c. Godavarman Thirumulpad Vs. Union of India
d. LK. Pandey Vs. Union of India
55. While Making an order under Section 133 Cr.P.C. the magistrate has
power to grant
a. injunction pending enquiry
b. local investigation to be made.
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
56. The power of the Executive Magistrate under Section 145 Cr.P.C. is to be
exercised only when there is a dispute.
a. likely to cause breach of peace.
b. relating to land or water.
c. relating to land or water causing breach of peace.
d. a and b
57. Under the Cr. P.C. an offence committed outside India may be dealt with,
if it was committed
a. by a citizen
b. by a non-citizen on a ship/aircraft registered in India.
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
58. The rule that no person other than the husband of the women shall be
deemed to be aggrieved by an offence under Section 497 or 498 IPC
a. is absolute
b. Has 1 exception
c. Has 2 expectations
d. Has 3 exceptions
59. A limited right is conferred upon the victim by Act No. 5 of 2009
a. to appeal against acquittal.
b. to appeal against the quantum of penalty
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
60. The term near relative in the Proviso to Section 394 (2) Cr.P.C. means
a. Parent and spouse.
b. Parent, spouse, brother or sister
c. lineal descendant.
d. b and c
61. The expression "beneficial enjoyment" in Section 4 of the Easement Act

includes
a. A remote advantage but not an amenity
b. An amenity but not a remote advantage.
c. A remote advantage and even a mere amenity
62. Easement whose enjoyment is continual without the act of man is called
a. apparent easement
b. non-apparent easement
c. continuous easement
d. discontinuous easement
63. Acquisition by prescription under Section 15 of the Easement Act in

respect of a Government property is
a. 12 years
b. 20 years
c. 30 years
d. 60 years
64. Which of the following rights cannot be acquired by prescription under

the Easement Act?
a. Right to the free passage of light or air in an urban development area sud
b. Right to the free passage of light or air to an open space ground.
c. Right to the free passage of light or air in an apartment complex
d. Right of easement to a canal
65. To be a "license" within the meaning of Section 52 of the Easement Act,

the right conferred
a. Should not amount to an easement
b. Should not amount to an interest in the property
c. a and b
d. Neither a nor b
66. As license cannot be revoked by grantor

a. If it is coupled with a transfer of to property which is in force.
b. the licensee has executed some wok on the property incurring expenses.
c. a and b
d. the licensee has entered into a contract with third parties.
67. The word "conveyance" is defined in Section 2(10) of the The Indian
Stamp Act to include
a. every order of a Civil Court by which property is transferred
b. every decree or final order of Civil Court by which property is transferred.
c. every preliminary decree for partition.
d. every final decree for partition.
68. The definition of "instrument of partition" in Section 2(15) of the Indian

Stamp Act, 1899 includes
a. an award of an arbitrator
b. a final order of a revenue authority for effecting partion
c. a and b
d. Neither a nor b
69. An instrument chargeable with duty, but not duly stamped is inadmissible
in evidence
a. in all Courts of law.
b. in all civil and criminal proceedings.
c. in all proceedings except some
d. a and b.
70. The definition of the word "cheque" in the Indian Stamp Act and the
definition of the word in the Negotiable Instruments Act,
a. are in pari materia
b. are not in pari materia
c. the latter is more elaborate than the former
d. are just the same
71. Under the Registration Act, growing crops and grass are
a. movable property
b. immovable property
c. immovable property if fastened to earth
72. Under Section 17 (1) of The Registration Act, the following document is
compulsorily registerable
a. A lease of immovable property.
b. A lease of immovable property from year to year
c. A lease of immovable property for a term exceeding 1 year.
d. A lease of immovable property in writing.
73. The Sub-Registrar can condone the delay in presenting a document for
registration
a. upto 30 days
b. upto 2 months
c. upto 4 months
74. A registered document operates from the time

a. it is presented for registration.
b. the procedure for registration is complete
c. from which it would have commenced to operate if no registration was
required
d. date mentioned in the document
75. Revenue Court under Section 5(2) CPC means a Court having jurisdiction
to entertain Suits or other proceedings
a. for profits of agricultural land
b. for transfer of title
c. for determining questions relating to title to agricultural lands
76. The expression "former suit" in Section 11 CPC denotes a suit

a. decided prior in point of time.
b. Instituted prior in point of time
c. Instituted in a superior court
d. in which an interim decree is passed.
77. Suit for compensation for wrong a person can be instituted

a. in the Court within whose jurisdiction the wrong was done.
b. in the Court within whose jurisdiction the plaintiff resides
c. in the Court within whose jurisdiction defendant resides
d. a and c
78. An application under Section 22 CPC can be made

a. to the High Court within whose jurisdiction the court to which transfer is
sought, is located
b. only to the Supreme Court if several courts having jurisdiction are
subordinate to different high courts
c. to the High Court to which the court in which the suit is brought is
subordinate, even if jurisdictional Courts are subordinate different High
Courts.
79. For the purpose of Section 34 CPC, a transaction is commercial

transaction if it is connected with
a. trade, commerce or profession of the party incurring the liability
b. trade, commerce or business of the party incurring the liability
c. trade, industry or business of the party incurring the liability.
d. trade, commerce or profession of the party suing
80. The power of the Executing Court under Section 42 CPC includes
a. power to send the decree to another Court for execution.
b. power to order attachment of a decree.
c. power to order execution at the instance of transferee of the decree.
d. a and b
81. A person detained in prison in execution of a decree cannot be released

without the order of the Court
a. even if the amount mentioned in the warrant is paid to the office in-
charge of the prison.
b. even is subsistence allowance is not paid.
c. even on the request of the person on whose application he was detained
d. even if matter compromised
82. A property sold in execution of a decree gets vested in the purchaser from
the time
a. when the property is sold
b. when the sale becomes absolute
c. when the sale certificate is issued
d. when the sale is confirmed
83. Under Section 75, CPC the Court can issue a commission
a. to adjust accounts.
b. to perform a ministerial act.
c. a and b
84. For Examining a witness residing at a place not within India, the Court
may issue, in lieu of commission
a. A precept
b. A letter through the Embassy
c. Letter of request.
85. The powers conferred by Section 92 CPC on the Advocate general may
also be exercised in some circumstances.
a. by Additional Advocate General
b. by the Collector,
c. by Executive Magistrates
86. No Judge or other Judicial officer is liable to arrest under civil process.
a. while going to or returning from Court.
b. while on an official visit.,
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
87. The Expression "proceedings" in Section 141 CPC does not include.
a. Proceedings under Order IX
b. Proceedings under Article 226
c. Proceeding in Execution
d. a and b
88. The difference between Sections 152 and 153 CPC is

a. the power under S.152 relates to decrees and orders while the power
under S. 153 relates to any proceeding.
b. the former is suo motu, but the latter is not.
c. the latter is suo motu, but the former is not.
d. at the state at which they are exercisable.
89. Under the CPC the right to begin is with the plaintiff except when
a. 2 condition are satisfied
b. 3 conditions are satisfied
c. 4 conditions are satisfied
d. 1 condition is satisfied
90. For transposition of a defendant as plaintiff, the defendant should have
a. a substantial question be decided against the other defendants.
b. a substantial question to be decided against any of the other defendants.
c. a substantial question to be decided against the plaintiff
91. The 'other expressions' not defined in the Civil Rules of practice shall have
the same meaning prescribed in the
a. General Clauses Act, 1897
b. The Evidence Act
c. The Code of Civil Procedure
d. Bothe (a) and (c)
92. The Civil Rules of practice are issued in exercise of the power conferred
by.
a. Article 227 of the Constitution of India.
b. Section 122 of the Code of Civil Procedure
c. Section 124 of the Code of Civil Procedure
d. Both (a) and (c)
93. The Civil Rules of Practice enables a person who is not a party to a suit to
apply for copies of
a. Judgments, decrees or order
b. Pleadings and documents
c. Documents exhibited in the suit
d. Both (a) and (c)
94. Before a warrant is issued by a civil court for arresting a public servant a
notice has to be given to his superior officer
a. Not necessary
b. 7 days’ notice to be given
c. 48 hours’ notice to be given
d. Just before effecting arrest
95. Rule 300 of the Civil Rules of Practice requires every court to maintain a
panel of advocates comprising of
a. One part
b. Two parts
c. Three parts
d. Four parts
96. The Criminal Rules of Practice are issued by
a. The Government on consultation with the High Court
b. The Governor with the previous approval of the High Court
c. The High Court with the previous approval of the Governor
d. The High Court with the previous approval of the Government
97. All arrests, surrenders and releases of the members of the state
legislature shall be given to the
a. Presiding Officer of the House
b. Home Ministry of the Government of India
c. Home Secretary to the State Government
d. Both a and c
98. Under Rule 38 of the Criminal Rules of practice affidavits intended for use
in judicial proceedings may be sworn or affirmed before
a. Any advocate
b. A Municipal Councilor
c. A member of Zilla Parishad
d. Both (b) and (c)
99. The expenses of complainants and witnesses will be paid on behalf of the
Government in
a. Cases shown in the second schedule to the code as non-bailable
b. Cases instituted with the sanction of the government
c. Both (a) and (b)
100. In computing the period of detention as per proviso to Section 167(2) of

the Cr.P.C
a. The date of remand order and the date of production to be included
b. The date of actual production before the magistrate to be excluded
c. The date of actual production before the magistrate to be included
d. The date of remand order and the date of production to be excluded
1 A 35 C 69 C
2 B 36 C 70 C
3 D 37 D 71 A
4 B 38 C 72 A
5 C 39 A 73 D
6 B 40 D 74 C
7 A 41 B 75 C
8 A 42 C 76 A
9 D 43 A 77 A
10 D 44 C 78 C
11 A 45 B 79 C
12 D 46 B 80 D
13 C 47 A 81 C
14 D 48 C 82 A
15 D 49 B 83 C
16 C 50 A 84 C
17 A 51 C 85 B
18 B 52 A 86 A
19 B 53 C 87 B
20 D 54 A 88 A
21 D 55 C 89 A
22 C 56 D 90 B
23 A 57 C 91 D
24 A 58 B 92 A
25 A 59 A 93 D
26 B 60 D 94 B
27 D 61 C 95 B
28 C 62 C 96 C
29 C 63 C 97 A
30 A 64 B 98 D
31 C 65 C 99 C
32 C 66 A 100 B
33 D 67 B
34 C 68 C
TIME : 2HRS DATE : ___________ MARKS : 100
_____________________________________
1. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 does NOT apply to ______who/that are included within the
meaning of Article 366 of the Constitution of India.
(a). Other Backward Classes
(b). Scheduled Tribes
(c). Buddhists
(d). Scheduled Castes
2. Under Section 386 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the appellate court while dealing
with an 'appeal from a conviction' has NO power to:
(a). dismiss the appeal
(b) alter the nature of the sentence given by the lower court
(c) alter the finding of the lower court
(d) enhance the sentence
3. In which of the following cases did the Delhi High Court hold that it is legal to refer a
criminal compoundable case as one under Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act to
mediation?
(a). Mode Cements Limited Vs. Kuchil Kumar Nandi
(b). Dalmia Cement (Bharat) Ltd. Vs. M/s. Galaxy Trades & Agencies Ltd.
(c). Sanjay Verma Vs. Gopal Halwai
(d). Dayawati Vs. Yogesh Kumar Gosain
4. Section 20 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 provides that the interest created in
favour of an unborn person becomes vested:
(a). on attaining 16 years
(b). one year after his birth
(c) immediately on his birth
(d) one month after his birth
5. In calculating fractions of terms of punishment, imprisonment for life shall be reckoned as

equivalent to imprisonment for:
(a) 21 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years
6. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, mentions 'Estoppeľ' ?

(a). Section 118
(b). Section 77
(c). Section 115
(d). Section 124
7. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

(a). An act which is not illegal means, such an agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy.
(b). No agreement except an agreement to commit an offence shall amount to a criminal
conspiracy unless some act besides the agreement is done by parties to such agreement in
pursuance thereof.
(c) In order to constitute criminal conspiracy, three or more persons must agree to do, or
cause to be done an illegal act.
(d) It is immaterial whether the illegal act is the ultimate object of such agreement, or is
merely incidental to that object.
8. Section 26 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is related to:

(a) jurisdiction
(b) the institution of suits
(c) summons to witness
(d) summons to defendant
9. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

(a). An inscription on a metal plate or stone is not a document
(b). That a man heard or saw something is a fact
© That a man said certain words is a fact
(d). A writing is a document
10. Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with:

(a). recovery of specific movable property
(b). rectification of instruments
(c). mandatory injunctions
(d). contracts not specifically enforceable
11. As per Section 29 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 where
shall the appeal from the orders of the Magistrate lie?
(a). To the Court of Session
(b). To the High Court
(c). To the Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) To the Family Court
12. Under Section 139 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a man summoned only to produce a
document:
(a). becomes a witness by the mere fact that he produces the document
(b). cannot be called as a witness and can never be cross-examined
(c). cannot be cross-examined unless and until he is called as a witness
(d). can be cross-examined although he has not been called as a witness
13. Which act was repealed by the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act,
2000?
(a). Juvenile Act, 1986
(b). The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
© Guardians and Wards Act, 1890
(d). Children Act, 1905
14. As per Section 24 of the Registration Act, 1908, when a document is executed by several
persons at different times, such document may be presented for registration and re-
registration within_______ months from the date of each execution.
(a). 6
(b). 8
(c). 2
(d). 4
15. In which of the following cases did the apex court hold that 'the heinous and serious
offences by public servants CANNOT be quashed on the ground of compromise between the
parties' and issue guidelines ?
(a). Mala Singh Vs. State of Haryana (2019)
(b). The State of Madhya Pradesh Vs. Laxmi Narayan (2019)
(c). Rajan Gohein Vs. State of Assam (2019)
(d). Devendra Prasad Singh Vs. State of Bihar (2019)
16. As per Section 12 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 what is
the time limit stipulated for orders of reliefs?
(a). Within a period of sixty days from the date of complaint
(b). Within a period of sixty days from the date of its first hearing
(c). Within a period of ninety days from the date of its first hearing
(d). Within a period of ninety days from the date of complaint
17. Which of the following sections of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deals with notional
partition ?
(a). Section 9
(b). Section 6
(c). Section 12
(d). Section 14
18. According to Section 182 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a/an is a person employed to
do any act for another, or to represent another in dealings with the third person.
(a). subagent
(b). principal
(c). agent
(d). surety
19. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a). The Court cannot return the plaint if the Court finds that it has no territorial jurisdiction
(b). The Court cannot return the plaint if the Court finds that it has no jurisdiction as to the
subject matter
(c). The Court cannot return the plaint if the Court finds that it has no pecuniary jurisdiction
(d). The Court can return the plaint at any stage of the suit if the Court finds that it has lack
of jurisdiction
20. _________has the power to make rules under Section 104 of the Transfer of Property
Act, 1882.
(a). The Central Government
(b). A State Government
(c). The Supreme Court
(d). A High Court
21. As per Section 226 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 who shall open the case?
(a). Attorney
(b). Prosecutor
(c). Magistrate
(d). Complainant
22. Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 lays down the general rules of succession in
the case of:
(a). females
(b). males
(c). non-blood relations
(d). non-family members
23. According to Section 2(i) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement which is
enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but NOT at the
option of the other or others, is :
(a). a contingent contract
(b). invalid
(c). a voidable contract
(d). void
24. The Indian Stamp Act, 1899 came into force on:
(a). 1 October 1899
(b). 15 October 1899
(c). 1 July 1899
(d). 15 July 1899
25. Any order made under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 shall
be:
(a). enforceable throughout India
(b). enforceable throughout the world
(c). enforceable throughout the concerned state
(d). enforceable throughout India except the state of Jammu and Kashmir
26. 'Child' under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act means a person
who has NOT completed______ years of age.
(a). 12
(b). 16
(c). 15
(d). 18
27. Order V of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with :

(a). disposal of the suit at the first hearing
(b). judgement
(c). is sue and service of summons
(d). institution of suits
28. Which of the following options represents the correctly matched pairs with respect to
the sections under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(a). Section 14 - Welfare expert
Section 19 - Residence orders
Section 18 - Protection orders
Section 21 - Custody orders
Section 15 - Welfare expert
(b). Section 19 - Residence orders
(c). Section 18 - Residence orders
(d). Section 19 - Residence orders
29. Which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with ambigous instruments ?
(a). Section 11
(b). Section 15
(c). Section 17
(d). Section 14
30. Section 38 of the Registration Act, 1908 deals with:

(a). time for presenting documents
(b). provision where delay in presentation is unavoidable
(c). persons exempt from appearance at registration office
(d). destruction of unclaimed documents
31. Under Section 91(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 in the case of a public nuisance,
a suit for declaration and injunction may be instituted by:
(a). even a single person, with the consent of the Public Prosecutor
(b). two or more persons, without the leave of the Court
(c). two or more persons, with the leave of the Court
(d). even a single person, with the consent of the Advocate General
32. Consider the following statements :

An injunction CANNOT be granted :
1. When the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter.
2. To restrain any person from applying to any legislative body
3. To restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a criminal matter.
Which of the above statements are correct as per Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
(a). 1 and 3 only
(b). 1, 2 and 3
(c). 1 and 2 only
(d). 2 and 3 only
33. Which of the following is NOT a suit of a civil nature ?

(a). Suit for specific reliefs
(b). Suit relating to rights to property
(c). Suit for restitution of conjugal rights
(d). Suit involving purely religious rites or ceremonies
34. When the party to whom notice of dishonour is dispatched is dead, but the party
dispatching the notice is ignorant of his death, then the notice is :
(a). insufficient
(b). negligible
(c). sufficient
(d). considered as want of notice
35. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with 'alibi' ?
(a) Section 10
(b). Section 11
(c). Section 14
(d). Section 12
36. What is the period of limitation for filing a suit for specific movable property lost,
acquired by theft, or dishonest misappropriation or conversion ?
(a). 12 years
(b). 9 years
(c). 3 years
(d). 5 years
37. ________of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides that a decree for nullity of marriage
may be obtained in cases of bigamy or where the parties are within prohibited degrees of
relationship or were sapindas of each other.
(a). Section 12
(b). Section 16
(c). Section 15
(d). Section 11
38. As per Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which of the following leases of
immovable property can be made by oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession
(without a registered instrument)?
(a). Leases from month to month
(b). Leases for a term exceeding one year
(c). Leases from year to year
(d). Leases reserving a yearly rent
39. A charge shall be written in :

(a). the language of the Court
(b). any language that the parties agree to
(c). English
(d). the language of the accused
40. 'Electronic record' under Section 29A of the Indian Penal Code shall have the meaning
assigned to it as in of Information Technology Act, 2000.
(a). Section 2(1)(t)
(b). Section 2(1)(s)
(c). Section 2(1)(e)
(d). Section 2(1)(d).
41. Presumption as to documents 30 years old is given under which section of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?
(a). Section 88
(b). Section 91
(c). Section 89
(d). Section 90
42. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is admissibility of electronic
records mentioned ?
(a). 85B
(b). 85A
(c). 65A
(d). 65B

1. A review of an order passed in a suit instituted under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act,
1963 cannot be allowed.
2. A review of an decree passed in a suit instituted under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act,
1963 cannot be allowed.
3. An appeal from an order passed in a suit instituted under Section 6 of the Specific Relief
Act, 1963 cannot be allowed.
4. An appeal from a decree passed in a suit instituted under Section 6 of the Specific Relief
Act, 1963 cannot be allowed.
Which of the above statements are correct as per Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 ?
(a). 1 and 4 only
(b). 2, 3 and 4 only
(c). 2 and 3 only
(d). 1,2,3 and 4
44. According to the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation for a suit for arrears of
rent is _______year/s from the date when the arrears become due.
(a). 12
(b). 1
(c). 3
(d). 2
45. As per Section 376AB of the IPC whoever commits rape on a woman under twelve years
of age shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall NOT be less than
:
(a). 14 years
(b). 10 years
(c). 20 years
(d). 12 years
46. A sits on a dharna at Z's door with the intention of causing it to be believed that, by so
sitting, he renders Z an object of divine displeasure. A has committed :
(a). no crime
(b). the offence defined under Section 507 of IPC
(c). the offence defined under Section 508 of IPC
(d). the offence defined under Section 509 of IPC
47. Compensation order under Section 22 of the Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act, 2005 does NOT address damages for :
(a). mental torture
(b). monetary loss
(c). emotional distress
(d). injuries
48. 'Facts judicially noticeable need NOT be proved' is given under which section of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a). 55
(b). 56
(c). 58
(d). 57
49. In which of the following cases was it held that "once the court has drawn presumption
of existence of legally enforceable debt as per Section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments
Act, factors like source of funds are NOT relevant if the accused has NOT been able to rebut
the presumption ?
(a). Balakrishna Pillai Vs. Abdullakutty
(b). Smt. Asha Baldwa Vs. Ram Gopal
(©) Rohitbhai Jivanlal Patel Vs. State of Gujarat and ANR
(d). T K Khungar Vs. Sanjay Ghai
50. What is the cap of interim compensation permissible under Section 143A of the
Negotiable Instruments Act ?
(a). 10% of the cheque amount
(b). 20% of the cheque amount
(c). 25% of the cheque amount
(d). 30% of the cheque amount
51. Section 87 of the Negotiable Instruments Act is subject to which Sections?

(a). Sections 20 and 49,86 and 125 of Indian Contract Act
(b). Sections 20 and 49 of Negotiable Instruments Act and Sections 86 and 125 of Code of
Criminal Procedure
(c). Sections 20, 49, 86 and 125 of Negotiable Instruments Act
(d). Sections 20, 49, 86 and 125 of Indian Evidence Act
52. As per which article/s of the Constitution of India does the Juvenile Justice ( Care and
Protection of Children) Act, 2015 extend to the whole of India except the State of Jammu
and Kashmir ?
(a). Article 39(e) and Article 39(f)
(b). Article 39(e), 39(f), 15(3), 45 and 47
(c). Article 45 and Article 47
(d). Article 15(3)
53. Which the following sections of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides the meaning of 'period
of limitation' ?
(a). Section 2(k)
(b). Section 20(j)
(c). Section 2(d).
(d). Section 2(a).
54. Which authority constitutes the 'Child Welfare Committee under the Juvenile Justice
(Care and Protection of Children) Act?
(a). State Government
(b). NGOs
(C) Central Government
(d). Juvenile Justice Board
55. As per Section 3 of the Registration Act, 1908, the Inspector-General of Registration is
appointed by :
(a). State Government
(b). Supreme Court
(c). High Court
(d). Central Government
56. Which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides a right of
review?
(a). Section 114
(b). Section 113
(c). Section 108
(d). Section 101
57. Section 4 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act deals with:
(a). Juvenile Justice Board
(b). Central Authority
(c). Central Adoption Resources Authority
(d). Child in conflict with law
58. Which of the following Acts is mentioned in Section 1 of the Negotiable Instruments Act?
(a). Indian Paper Currency Act, 1871
(b). Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(c) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973
(d). Income-tax Act, 1961
59. Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with :

(a). review
(b). revision
(c). reference to High Court
(d). appeal from original decree
60. What is the meaning of prescribed period' under the Limitation Act, 1963 ?
(a). The period of limitation computed in accordance with the provisions of the Limitation
Act, 1963
(b). The period of limitation prescribed for any appeal by the schedule of the Limitation Act,
1963
(c). The period of limitation prescribed for any suit by the schedule of the Limitation Act,
1963
(d). The period of limitation prescribed for any application by the schedule of the Limitation
Act, 1963
61. Which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides the rule of
Res Judicata?
(a). Section 10
(b). Section 15
(c). Section 13
(d). Section 11
62. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with dying declaration ? ( )
(a). Section 32(1)
(b). Section 32(4)
(c). Section 32(3)
(d). Section 32(2)
63. P lets a farm to Q on the condition that he will shall walk 150 miles in one hour. As per
Section 25 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the lease is :
(a). valid
(b). enforceable
(c). void
(d). voidable
64. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure prohibits a public servant concerned in
sale from purchasing or bidding for property ?
(a). Section 479
(b). Section 480
(c). Section 481
(d). Section 468
65. Which of the following options represents the correctly matched pairs with respect to
the sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
(a). Section 12 - Chief Judicial Magistrates
Section 13 Special Judicial Magistrates
Section 21 - Executive Magistrates Section 20 Special Executive Magistrates Section 11 -
Chief Judicial Magistrates
(b). Section 12 Special Judicial Magistrates
Section 20 - Executive Magistrates
Section 21 Special Executive Magistrates
Section 12 - Chief Judicial Magistrates
(c). Section 13 Special Judicial Magistrates

Section 15 - Special Executive Magistrates
Section 12 - Chief Judicial Magistrates
(d). Section 13 Special Judicial Magistrates

Section 21 Special Executive Magistrates
66. According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 the formal expression of any decision of a
Civil Court which is not a decree, is :
(a). notice
(b). judgement
(c). order
(d). pleading
67. Section 199 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 allows complaint by a non-aggrieved
person:
(a). if the aggrieved person is an idiot or a lunatic
(b). if the aggrieved person is a woman under twenty one years of age
(c). if the aggrieved person is below fifteen years of age
(d). if the aggrieved person is a governor of a state
68. Z saves the property of Y from fire. The circumstance indicate that Z intended to do so
gratuitously. Under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872:
(a). Z is entitled to compensation from legal representative of Y
(b). Y is bound to give compensation to Z
(c). Z is entitled to compensation from the local administration
(d). Z is not entitled to compensation from Y
69. A suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 CANNOT be filed against :
(a). a firm
(b). a company
(c). a minor
(d). the government
70. P is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally of sound mind. At one time, he becomes
sound and makes a contract. The contract is :
(a). void
(b). not enforceable by law
(c). voidable
(d). valid

(a). Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other, is an
agreement.
(b). The person accepting a proposal is called the promisor.
(c). An agreement enforceable by law is a contract
(d). A proposal, when accepted, becomes a promise.
72. A, knowing that B has committed dacoity, knowingly conceals B in order to shield him
from legal punishment. Here:
(a). B is liable to imprisonment for life and A is liable of either description for a term not
exceeding three years, and is liable to pay fine.
(b). Only B is liable for punishment
(c). A has not committed any offence
(d). Both, A and B are liable for the same punishment
73. Which of the following statements as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is
correct?
(a). No Judge or Magistrate may, at any stage of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding, visit
and inspect any place in which an offence is alleged to have been committed.
(b). No Judge or Magistrate may, at any stage of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding, visit
and inspect any place in which an offence is alleged to have been committed, after obtaining
permission from State Government.
(c). No Judge or Magistrate may, at any stage of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding, after
due notice to the parties, visit and inspect any place in which an offence is alleged to have
been committed
(d). Only Police Officer can visit and inspect any place in which an offence is alleged to have
been committed.
74. Consider the following statements : A lease of immovable property is determined : 1. by

efflux of the time limited thereby 2. by implied surrender 3. where such time is limited
conditionally on the happening of some event - by the happening of such event. Which of
the above statements are correct as per Section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 ?
(a). 1 and 2 only
(b). 1, 2 and 3
(c). 2 and 3 only
(d). 1 and 3 only
75. Who among the following is a class I heir under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 ?
(a). Sister's son
(b). Widow of a pre-deceased son
(c). Father's widow
(d). Brother's widow
76. The monetary relief granted under Section 20 of the Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act, 2005 shall be:
(a). fair, just and reasonable
(b). adequate, fair and reasonable
(c). consistent with a decent standard of living
(d). adequate, fair, reasonable and consistent with the standard of living to which the
aggrieved person is accustomed
77. A, intending to cause injury, fear or annoyance to Z, incites a dog to spring upon Z,
without Z's consent. Here, A is said to:
(a). have used force
(b). have used criminal force
(c). have provoked a dangerous animal
(d). have assaulted Z

When the defendant invades the plaintiff's right to enjoyment of property, the court can
grant perpetual injunction :
1. where the injunction is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of judicial proceedings
2. where the defendant is the trustee of the property for the plaintiff
3. where the invasion is such that compensation in money would not afford adequate relief
Which of the above statements are correct as per Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
(a). 2 and 3 only
(b). 1, 2 and 3
(c). 1 and 3 only
(d). 1 and 2 only
79. The offence of breach of protection order under the Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is:
(a). cognisable and non-bailable
(b). bailable
(c). non-cognisable
(d). non-cognisable and bailable
80. If a trial has taken place in a wrong sessions and such an error hasn't in fact occasioned a
failure of justice, then the resultant finding, sentence or order of the Criminal Court:
(a). shall not be set aside
(b). shall be voidable
(c). shall be set aside
(d). shall be treated as void ab initio
81. According to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, an opinion of an expert is relevant under:
(a). Section 45
(b). Section 44
(c). Section 42
(d). Section 43

(a). The plaint can be rejected if the suit appears from the statements in the plaint to be
barred by any law.
(b). The plaint can be rejected if the plaint does not disclose a cause of action.
(c). The plaint cannot be rejected if the plaint is not filed in duplicate.
(d). The plaint can be rejected if the relief claimed by the plaintiff is undervalued and the
valuation is not corrected within the time fixed by the court.

(a). The law of any foreign country regarding promissory notes shall be presumed to be the
same as that of India unless and until the contrary is proved.
(b). Foreign bills of exchange must be protested for dishonour when such protest is not
required by the law of the place where they are drawn.
(c). Every offence punishable under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is compoundable.
(d). The legal representative of a deceased person cannot negotiate by delivery only a
cheque payable to order and endorsed by the deceased but not delivered
84. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 amends :

(a). the Indian Penal Code and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(b). the Indian Penal Code only
(c). the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and the Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences Act, 2012
(d). the Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
and the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
85. Which of the following is NOT a grievous hurt?

(a). Causing severe bodily pain
(b). Dislocation of a tooth
(c). Permanent disfiguration of the face •
(d). Emasculation
86. Which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is related to
summoning and attendance of witnesses?
(a). Order XVII
(b). Order XIV
(c). Order XV
(d). Order XVI
87. _______of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, allows for divorce by mutual consent if the
petition for divorce is jointly presented to the Court by both parties to the marriage. ()
(a). Section 21A
(b). Section 28A
(c). Section 23A
(d). Section 13B
88. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?()

(a). Cross-examination is the examination of a witness by the adverse party.
(b). Leading questions cannot be asked in cross-examination.
(c). Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to
receive is called a leading question.
(d). Examination-in-chief is the examination of a witness by the party who calls him.
89. What is the period of limitation for filing a suit for possession of immovable property
based on previous possession and NOT on title, when the plaintiff while in possession of the
property has been dispossessed?
(a). 10 years
(b). 15 years
(c). 12 years
(d). 5 years
90. A domestic incident report that has been filed under Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is a report made in the prescribed form on receipt of a
complaint of domestic violence :
(a). from an aggrieved person
(b). from any family members of the aggrieved person
(c). from the respondent
(d). from the guardian of an aggrieved person
91 Z's will contains the words "I direct that all my remaining property be equally divided
between A, B and C. "A dishonestly scratches out B's name, intending that it may be believed
that the whole was left to himself and C. A has committed :
(a). criminal intimidation
(b). tampering
(c). breach of contract
(d). forgery
92. Every warrant issued under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall remain in force:
(a). until the party appears before the court
(b). for the time mentioned in it
(c). for a period of one year
(d). until it is cancelled by the court which issued it or until it is executed.
93. The definition of domestic relationship' under the Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act, 2005 does NOT cover:
(a). consanguinity
(b). monogamous relationships
(c). polyamorous relationships
(d). adoption
94. Which of the following is NOT a discharge from liability ?

(a). Novation
(b). Cancellation
(c). Payment
(d). Release

(a). Section 79 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with interpleader suit
(b). In an interpleader suit, an immovable property can never be in dispute
(c). The plaintiff claims no interest in the subject matter of the interpleader suit except
charges or costs
(d). The plaintiff claims full interest in the subject matter of the interpleader suit.
96. A threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Z unless Z gives him money. 2 S He
thus induces Z to give him money. A has committed.
(a). extortion
(b). mischief pro
(c). cheating
(d). breach of trust
97. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 aims at providing effective
protection to women: ()
(a). who are victims of violence of any kind occuring within the family
(b). who are victims of physical violence occuring within the family
(c). who are victims of psychological violence occuring within the family
(d). who are victims of gender violence of any kind occuring within the joint family
98. As per Section 310 of the IPC, what is the definition of the word 'thug'?
(a). Association with dacoits
(b). Habitual association with others for the purpose of committing robbery or child-stealing
by means of accompanied with murder.
(c). Habitual association with kidnappers
(d). Associatio with murderers
99. According to Section 63 of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, if a person fails to cancel an
adhesive stamp, he shall be punishable with fine which may extend to :
(a). 600
(b). 1,000
(c). 2,000
(d). ₹ 100
100. Section 85A of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 deals with :

(a). cheques
(b). drafts
(c). debit note
(d). pay order
1 B 35 B 69 D
2 D 36 C 70 D
3 D 37 D 71 B
4 C 38 A 72 A
5 D 39 A 73 C
6 C 40 A 74 B
7 C 41 D 75 B
8 B 42 D 76 D
9 A 43 D 77 B
10 D 44 C 78 B
11 A 45 C 79 A
12 C 46 C 80 A
13 A 47 B 81 A
14 D 48 B 82 C
15 B 49 C 83 B
16 B 50 B 84 D
17 B 51 C 85 A
18 C 52 B 86 D
19 D 53 B 87 D
20 D 54 A 88 B
21 B 55 A 89 C
22 B 56 A 90 A
23 C 57 A 91 D
24 C 58 A 92 D
25 A 59 D 93 C
26 D 60 A 94 A
27 C 61 D 95 C
28 D 62 A 96 A
29 C 63 C 97 A
30 C 64 C 98 B
31 C 65 D 99 D
32 B 66 C 100 B
33 D 67 A
34 C 68 D
TIME : 2HRS DATE : 11-05-2019 MARKS : 100
_____________________________________
1. Under Sec. 127 of the Code of Criminal procedure, every public officer making an
investigation shall enter the proceeding in the diary
a. On a day-to-day basis
b. Every alternative day
c. On a monthly basis
d. On a weekly basis
2. In which of the following section of The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 are the
conditions for Hindu Marriage laid down?
a. Section 8
b. Section 13
c. Section 6
d. Section 5
3. A child who is alleged or found to have committed an offence and who has not
completed 18 years of age on the date of commission of such offence is
designated as a/an________
a. Child in conflict with the law
b. Child in need of care
c. Aggrieved child
d. Juvenile offender
4. Under section 9 of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, who has the power to reduce,
remit or compound duties?
a. Government
b. Assistant Collector
c. Collector
d. High court
5. Which of the following provisions of the code of civil procedure deals with
presumption as to foreign judgment?
a. Section 14
b. Section 10
c. Section 9
d. Section 51
6. Section 13 of the Indian Easement Act, 1882 deals with

a. Servient owners
b. The details of who may acquire easement
c. Acquisition by prescription
d. The easement of necessity and quasi easement
7. Section 4 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 states that specific relief can be granted
for the purpose of enforcing
a. Individual civil rights only
b. Rights of community
c. All rights of an individual
d. Individual civil and penal rights
8. Which of the following of execution of a decree under Section 51 of the code of

civil procedure is not permissible?
a. Delivery of property
b. Appointment of a receiver
c. Attachment and/or sale of property
d. Immediate arrest of judgement debtor
9. Select the CORRECT statement from the following statements:

a. All objections on the ground of mis- joinder of cause of action can be
taken at any time
b. Every suit shall as far as practicable be framed so as to afford ground for
final decision.
c. All orders and notices served under the code may be in writing or oral
d. It shall be necessary that every defendant shall be interested as to all
relief claimed in any suit against him.
10. Section3 of the Domestic Violence Act, 2005, deals with the
a. Powers and duties of a protection officer
b. Power to grant interim orders
c. Definition of domestic violence
d. Procedure of obtaining relief
11. Any person against whom a decree has been passes is known as a
a. Decree holder
b. Debtor
c. Judgment debtor
d. Legal representative
12. According to Section 31 of the Domestic Violence Act, 2005, the punishment for
the breach of a protection order by the respondent is
a. 2 months
b. 1 years
c. 1 months
d. 6 months
13. In which of the following cases, supreme court held that where a statutory
enactment only creates rights liability but does not provide remedial forum the
doors of civil court are always open
a. Mafatlal industries vs. U.D.I., 1997445 SCC 536
b. Saraswati and ors. vs. Lachanna Dead through Lrs. 1994 1 SCC 611
c. Shiv kumar Chadha vs. Municipal Corporation, Delhi, 1993 3 SCC 161
d. C.T. Nikam vs. M.C. of Ahmedabad AIR 2002 SC 997
14. A report made in the prescribed form on receipt of a complaint of domestic

violence from an aggrieved person is known as a
a. First information report
b. Domestic incident report
c. Police report
d. Domestic violence report
15. Order 1 of the Code of Cvil Procedure deals with

a. Frame of suit
b. Parties to the suit
c. Recognized agent and pleaders
d. Institution of suit
16. Which of the following statement is incorrect

a. A negotiable instrument must be in writing
b. An authority to draw bills of exchange does not itself import authority to
indorse
c. A promissory note in which no time for payment is specified is payable on
demand
d. Every indorser after dishonour in not liable as upon an instrument
payable on demand
17. Which of the following sections of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 makes the
provision for instruments chargeable with duty?
a. Section 11
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 10
18. Section 255 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 deals with offence relating to
a. Counterfeiting government stamp
b. Giving false evidence
c. Counterfeiting coin
d. Import of counterfeit Indian coin
19. According to Section 23 of The Registration Act 1908 a document other than a
will should be presented for registration within of execution.
a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 3 months
20. The leading case of Bhagwandas Goverdhan Das Kedia vs. M/s. Girdharilal
Purshothamdas 1966 AIR 543 relates to
a. Minor as party to contract
b. Agency
c. Offer and acceptance
d. Revocation of contract
21. The offence of defamation is explained in which section of the Indian Penal Code,
1860?
a. Section 498A
b. Section 497
c. Section 499
d. Section 498
22. Which of the following documents do not required compulsory registration

under Section 17 of the Registration Act 1908?
a. Instrument of gift of immovable property
b. Sale deed for immovable property
c. Lease of immovable property from year to year
d. Wills
23. Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with which of the following?
a. Damages in lieu of injunction
b. Effect of declaration
c. Injunction when refused
d. Mandatory injunctions
24. Under which of the following section of The Registration Act, 1908, is a record of
books required to be kept in computer floppies and diskettes?
a. Section 19
b. Section 16
c. Section 16A
d. Section 15
25. In which of the following cases did the supreme court hold that the burden of
establishing plea of self-defence is on the accused and the burden stands
discharged by showing preponderance of probabilities in favour of that plea on
the basis of material on record?
a. Balbir Singh vs. State of Punjab AIR 1957 SC 216
b. Roop Kumar vs. Mohan Thedani AIR 2003 SC 2418
c. Shankar vs. State of TN 1994 4 SCC 478
d. Raghbir Singh vs. state of Haryana, AIR 2009 SC 1223
26. Which of the following provisions was added to the Criminal Procedure Code
(Amendment) Act, 2005 to authorize a medical practitioner to examine person
accused of rape?
a. Section 49
b. Section 51
c. Section 50A
d. Section 53A
27. Any man who monitors, the use by a woman of the internet, email, or any other
form of electronic communication, commits the offence of:
a. Voyeurism
b. Stalking
c. Use of force to disrobe a woman
d. Harassment
28. Where the acquisition by prescription is claimed over the property which
belongs to the government, the period of uninterrupted enjoyment shall be
years.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 20
d. 50
29. Under Section 75 of the code of civil procedure, power of court to issue
commissions does not include
a. Power to make local investigation
b. Power to make partition
c. Power to examine any person
d. Power to arrest and detention
30. The Juvenile Justice Amendment Act, 2018, seeks to give power to the to issue
adoption orders
a. District collector
b. District court
c. High Court
d. District magistrate
31. Sec 185 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that
a. No consideration is necessary to create an agency
b. The authority of an agent may be expressed or implied
c. The agent is responsible to the principal for the acts of the sub-agent
d. A sub-agent is a person employed by the original agent
32. Select the correct pairing of subject and section under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
a. Punishment for bigamy - Section 16
b. Permanent alimony and maintenance - Section 25
c. Legitimacy of children of void marriages - Section 15
d. Custody of children - Section 28
33. Which of the following pairing of subject and section is correct?

a. When facts not otherwise relevant become relevant - Section 10
b. Admission not conclusive proof, but may estop - Section 31
c. Burden of proof-Section 99
d. Presumption as to dowry death Section 112
34. Section 56 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, deals with
a. The child welfare board
b. Adoption
c. The registration of child care institutions
d. Rehabilitation of a child
35. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be

a. Qualified
b. Absolute
c. Absolute and unqualified
d. Unqualified
36. According to Section 36 to The Specific Relief Act, 1963, the grant of preventive
relief is:
a. Discretionary for court
b. Rightful claim of person
c. Obligatory for court
d. Mandatory for court
37. Which of the following sections of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that if the
parties to a contract agree to substitute a new contract for it, or rescind or alter
it, the original contract need not be performed
a. Section 62
b. Section 60
c. Section 56
d. Section 61
38. Which of the following has been inserted in the Code of Civil Procedure
Amendment Act, 1999?
a. Provision for interpleader suit
b. Release on ground of illness
c. Partial exemption of agricultural produce
d. Settlement of dispute outside court
39. Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure, provides for:

a. Partition of estate
b. Prohibition of arrest or detention of woman in execution of decree
c. Subsistence allowance
d. Arrest and detention
40. According to Section 91 of The Code of Civil Procedure, in case of public
nuisance, a suit for declaration and injunction may be instituted by
a. Advocate genera
b. Any person
c. Any lawyer of high court
d. Municipal councilor
41. The classification of offence has been provided in which of the following
schedules of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
a. Second schedule
b. Form No. 20 of the second schedule
c. Third schedule
d. First schedule
42. Which of the following sections deals with pecuniary jurisdiction of the courts as
per the Code of Civil Procedure?
a. Section 6
b. Section 14
c. Section 11
d. Section 18
43. According to Section 138 of the Indian Evidence Act, the order of examination
shall be:
a. No particular order is necessary
b. Examination-in-chief, then cross- examination and then re-examination
c. Examination-in-chief, then re- examination and then cross- examination
d. Examination-in-chief, then examination-in-chief and then re- examination
44. In which of the following case has the supreme court laid down mandatory
guidelines to be followed when a person is arrested?
a. State of Maharashtra vs. CCW Council 2004 Cri.L.J. 14 SC
b. Shahadat khan case AIR 1965, SC 1039
c. Kastuiribal vs. State of U.P. AIR 1965, SC 1039 LEA
d. DK Basu vs. State of W.B 1977 Cri.L.J. 743 SC

a. At least three witnesses are required for the proof of any fact
b. No particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the
proof of any fact
c. A minimum of four witness are required for the proof of any fact
d. A minimum of two witness are required for the proof of any fact
46. Which of the following provision of code of civil procedure states that the
judgment shall be dated and signed by the judge in open court at the time of
pronouncing it?
a. Order XX, Rule 3
b. Order XX, Rule 1
c. Order XX, Rule 2
d. Order XX, Rule 6
47. The relevance of facts forming a part of the same transaction under section 6 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is known as
a. res sub-judice
b. res ipsa loquitur Ono
c. resgastae
d. res judicata
48. To which of the following communities does the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
apply?
a. Muslims
b. Jews
c. Buddhists
d. Parsis
49. 'A' and 'B' are jointly tried for the murder of 'C'. It is proved that 'A' said to B that
I murdered 'C'. The Court:
a. Should not consider the effect of this confession as against 'B'
b. Cannot consider the effect of this confession as against 'B'
c. Shall consider the effect of this confession as against 'B'
d. May consider the effect of this confession as against 'B'
50. According to Rule 2A of Order XXXXIX of the Code of Civil Procedure, the term for
civil imprisonment shall not exceed
a. Three months
b. One month
c. Six months
d. Two months
51. As per Section 2 of The Limitation Act, 1963, which of the following statements is
not correct?
a. A bill of exchange includes a Hundi and a Cheque
b. A suit includes an appeal
c. An application includes a petition
d. A trustee does not include a benamindar
52. Section 73A relating to proof as to verification of digital signature was inserted
into the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 by which of the following acts?
a. Information Technology Act, 2000
b. Right to Information Act, 2005
c. Evidence Amendment Act, 2000
d. Evidence Amendment Act, 2017
53. According to Section 12 of The Limitation Act, 1963 in computing the period of
limitation for any application to set aside the awards, the time required shall be
excluded.
a. In obtaining copy of award
b. For publication for award
c. For communication of award
d. For making copies of award
54. The provision relating to a person who may obtain specific performance of a
contract is mention in which of the following sections of The Specific Relief Act,
1963?
a. Section 17
b. Section 18
c. Section 13
d. Section 15
55. An offence in which a police officer may arrest without a warrant is known as
a. Cognizable offence
b. Non-bailable offence
c. Bailable offence
d. Non-cognizable offence
56. For summary trial under Section 262 of the Code of criminal procedure, a
maximum sentence of up to can be passed.
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. Two months
d. One month
57. Explanation IV of the Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with the
principle of:
a. Bar to further suit
b. Res gestae
c. Res sub-judice
d. Constructive res judicata
58. Recent supreme court judgemnet in T. Ravi vs. B. Chinna Narasimha 2017 SCC
342 is relate to:
a. Part performance section 105 of the Transfer of property Act
b. Gift Section 122 of the Transfer of property Act
c. Lis pendens Section 52 of the Transfer of property Act
d. Lease - Section 105 of the Transfer of property Act
59. Duties and functions of a protection officer are laid down in which of the
following sections of the Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
a. Section 12
b. Section 9
c. Section 6
d. Section 10
60. Which of the following pairings is correct with reference to the code of civil
procedure?
a. Power of Supreme Court to transfer suits - Section 25
b. Costs - Section 30
c. Summons to defendants – Section
d. Arrest and Detention - Section 51
61. Which of the following pairing is not correct as per the code of civil procedure?
a. Reference to high court - Section 113
b. Inherent powers of the court - Section 151
c. Appeal to supreme court - Section 109
d. Review - Section 115
62. The suit for recovery of possession of immovable property under Section 6 of
The Specific Relief Act, 1963 can be filled within months of dispossession.
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Six
63. Provision for a child welfare committee under The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, is
provided in which of following sections?
a. Section 17
b. Section 27
c. Section 15
d. Section 10
64. Provision for dismissal of suit where summons is not served in consequence of
plaintiff failure to pay cost was substituted by
a. Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002
b. Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2013
c. Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976
d. Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2003
65. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public
peace, they are said to commit a and
a. Unlawful assembly
b. Affray
c. Arson
66. The recent leading judgment of the Supreme Court in N. Parameswaran Unni vs.
G. Kannan 2017 5 SCC737 is related to
a. Promissory note
b. Dishonor of cheque
c. Bill of exchange
d. Indorsement
67. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?

a. Apart from dominant heritage, an easement CANNOT be transferred
b. Chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate CANNOT be
transferred
c. A mere right to sue can be transferred
d. A public offence cannot be transferred
68. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 States that, "No
confession made to a police officer shall be proved against a person accused any
offence"?
a. Section 24
b. Section 19
c. Section 28
d. Section 25
69. According to Sections 74 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 in executing a sentence
of solitary confinement, such confinement shall in NO case exceed--------- days at
a time.
a. Fourteen
b. Ten
c. Thirty
d. Seven
70. Effect of fraud or mistake of defendant has been provided in section of the
Limitation Act, 1963.
a. 11
b. 16
c. 15
d. 17
71. In which of the following sections of the code of civil procedure, provisions for
second appeal are provided?
a. Section 96
b. Section 51
c. Section 99
d. Section 100
72. Provisions for exemption of member of legislative bodies from arrest and
detention under civil process are provided under of the Code of Civil Procedure.
a. Section 134
b. Section 135
c. Section 133
d. Section 135A.
73. According to Section 57 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 which of the following
facts must a court NOT take judicial notice of?
a. Articles of war for the Indian Army, navy and air force
b. The disputed facts
c. The rule of the road on land or at sea
d. All laws in force in the territory of India
74. A man dedicated to the public the right to occupy the surface of certain land for
purpose of passing and re-passing. This right is
a. A license
b. A lease
c. Not an easement
d. An easement
75. According to the provisions of Section 64 of the code of civil procedure, private
alienation of property after attachment shall be.
a. Illegal
b. Valid
c. Void
d. Voidable
76. Divorce by mutual consent under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is provided in which
of the following sections?
a. Section 13A
b. Section 14
c. Section 13B
77. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
expert opinion?
a. Section 32
b. Section 107
c. Section 45
d. Section 43
78. Section 25 of The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is related to

a. Succession when heir is disqualified
b. Equal right to daughters in coparcenary property
c. Right of child in womb
d. Murderer disqualified
79. The exhaustive meaning of public servant has been given in which section of the
Indian Penal Code, 1860.
a. Section 16
b. Section 19
c. Section 21
d. Section 14
80. According to Section 102 of the code of Civil Procedure, no second appeal shall
lie from decree where recovery of money is not exceeding
a. 25,000
b. 1,00,000
c. 28,000
d. 50,000
81. According to Indian Easement Act, 1882, the land for the beneficial enjoyment of
which the right exists is called'
a. Prescription
b. Servient heritage
c. Dominant heritage
d. License
82. When two person mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for ownership of
another, neither thing or both things being money only, the transaction is called
a. Mortgage
b. Gift
c. Exchange
d. Lease
83. The public prosecutor for a high court is appointed by the central or state
government after consultation with the.
a. Advocate general
b. High court
c. Attorney general
d. Governor
84. A sells, by auction to b, a horse which a knows to be unsound. a says nothing to b

about the horse's unsoundness. This is
a. Fraud in a
b. Not fraud in a
c. Misrepresentation in a
d. Coercion in a
85. Section 144 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 empower district magistrate to
issue order
a. In cases of nuisance or apprehended danger
b. To arrest an absconder
c. To detain a person causing harm to public property
d. To register a case against offender
86. Section 211 of the code of criminal procedure deals with a/an
a. Charge
b. Joinder of charge
c. FIR
d. Trial of warrant case
87. 'A' incites a dog to spring upon Z, without 'Z's consent. Here, if a intends to cause
injury, fear or annoyance to 'Z' then a is guilty of
a. Causing hurt
b. Criminal force
c. Assault
d. Act endangering life
88. Transfer of an interest is specific immovable property for the purpose of

securing the payment of money advance or to be advanced by way of loan is
know as:
a. License
b. Lease
c. Sale
d. Mortgage
89. The recent judgment of the constitution bench of 5 judges of the supreme court
has declared which of the following section of the Indian Penal code as
unconstitutional?
a. Section 377
b. Section 498A
c. Section 303
d. Section 497
90. An instrument in writing containing an unconditional order signed by the maker
directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to or to the order
of, a certain person or the bearer of the instrument is called a
a. Bill of exchange
b. Draft
c. Cheque
d. Promissory note
91. In which of the following sections of the code of civil procedure, provisions for
filing a suit for compensation for wrongs to person or movables are provided?
a. Section 19
b. Section 23
c. Section 17
d. Section 15
92. If a witness is residing at place that is not within India the court may according to
Section 77 of the code of civil procedure, issue a
a. Warrant
b. Summons
c. Commission
d. Letter of request
93. Order XXXIII of The Code of Civil Procedure deals with

a. Temporary injunctions
b. Execution of decree
c. Suits by indigent persons
d. Attachment of property
94. Which of the following is not included in immovable property as per Section 3 of
the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
a. Standing timber
b. Buildings
c. Walls of buildings
d. Land
95. Person a finds a valuable diamond ring, not knowing to whom it belongs. He sells
it immediately without attempting to discover the owner. He is guilty of
a. Misappropriation of property
b. Theft
c. Criminal breach of trust
d. Dishonest misappropriation of property
96. In which of the following orders of the code of Civil Procedure, provisions for
arrest and attachment before judgment are provided?
a. Order XXXI
b. Order XXXIV
c. Order XXXVIII
d. Order XXXIX
97. Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each
other is:
a. A guarantee
b. A contract
c. An agreement
d. A performance
98. Which of the following sections of The Limitation Act, 1963 states the following:
where once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability to institute a suit or
make an application stops it.
a. Section 7
b. Section 9
c. Section 6
d. Section 8
99. In which of the following sections of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, are the
general rules of succession in case of males provided?
a. Section 5
b. Section 8
c. Section 10
d. Section 13
100. When a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque is transferred to any

person, so as to constitute that person the holder thereof, it is called a/an
a. Indorsement
b. Payment in due course
c. Transfer
d. Negotiation
1 A 35 C 69 A
2 D 36 A 70 D
3 A 37 A 71 D
4 A 38 D 72 D
5 A 39 B 73 B
6 D 40 A 74 C
7 A 41 D 75 C
8 D 42 A 76 C
9 B 43 B 77 C
10 C 44 D 78 C
11 C 45 B 79 C
12 B 46 A 80 A
13 C 47 C 81 C
14 B 48 C 82 C
15 B 49 D 83 B
16 D 50 A 84 B
17 B 51 B 85 A
18 A 52 A 86 A
19 B 53 A 87 B
20 C 54 D 88 D
21 C 55 A 89 A
22 D 56 A 90 A
23 C 57 D 91 A
24 C 58 C 92 D
25 D 59 B 93 C
26 D 60 A 94 A
27 B 61 D 95 D
28 B 62 D 96 C
29 D 63 B 97 C
30 D 64 A 98 B
31 A 65 B 99 B
32 B 66 B 100 D
33 B 67 C
34 B 68 D
HIGH COURT OF A.P
_____________________________________
1. A suit in India, in which the matter in issue is directly and substantially in
issue in the previously instituted suit in Sri Lanka between the same
parties on the same cause of action,
a. Suit in India cannot be proceeded in view of Section 10 of the
Code of Civil Procedure.
b. Suit in India can be proceeded.
c. Suit in Sri Lanka cannot be proceeded as per Section 10 of the
d. Suit in India cannot be proceeded in view of Section 11 of the
2. Where any period is fixed by the Court for doing of any act prescribed or
allowed by the Code of Civil Procedure under Section 148 of the Code,
the Court may, in its discretion, from time to time, enlarge such period,
not exceeding-
a. Sixty days in total.
b. Three months.
c. One month.
d. Thirty days in total.
3. When an appellate court dismisses an appeal under Rule 11 of Order XLI

Code of Civil Procedure, which court can exercise the power to amend
the decree or order?
a. High Court
b. Appellate Court
c. Trial Court
d. Both Trial Court and Appellate Court
4. In execution of a money decree seeking arrest and committal of

judgment debtor to civil prison, if the judgment Debtor fails to appear in
pursuance of notice under Order XXI Rule 37 (1) of the Code of Civil
Procedure, the next immediate step to be followed by the Court is:
a. Set the judgment Debtor ex parte
b. Record the evidence of Decree Holder and dispose of the EP on
merits without setting the judgment Debtor ex parte
c. The Court shall, if the Decree Holder so requires, issue a warrant
for the arrest of the Judgment Debtor.
5. When an execution petition is dismissed, whether the Court shall pass

an order regarding continuation of attachment, if so, under which
provision?
a. Yes, The Court shall direct whether the attachment shall continue
or cease and shall also indicate the period of continuation of the
attachment by assigning sufficient reasons.
b. No Attachment will cease automatically in view of dismissal of E.P.
c. The Court cannot continue attachment and there is no provision
to extend the attachment while dismissing the E.P.
d. Without application of decree holder, there cannot be
continuation of attachment.
6. Whether a Court can order/direct inspection and preparation of

inventory of subject matter of the suit, if so, under which provision?
a. No. A Court cannot order inspection and preparation of inventory
of the subject matter of the suit as the same would amount to
collection of evidence.
b. Yes. A Court can order inspection and inventory under Order XXVI
Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
c. Yes. A Court can order inspection and inventory under Order
XXXIX Rule 7 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
d. Yes. A Court can order inspection and inventory by appointing
receiver under Order XL Rule 1 of the code of Civil Procedure.
7. When an application under Order XLI Rule 3A (1) of the Code of Civil
Procedure is filed for condonation of delay in presenting the appeal.
a. The Court can make an order of stay of execution of decree
against which the appeal is to be filed.
b. The court may make an order of stay of execution of decree
against which the appeal is proposed to be filed subject to
condition to deposit or furnish security.
c. The court shall not make an order for the stay of execution of the
decree against which the appeal is proposed to be filed, so long as
it does not decide to hear the appeal.
d. The court may grant order of stay of execution of decree subject
to payment of costs and furnishing bank guarantee for the whole
or part of the amount decreed or ordered.
8. Which of the following is not correct regarding the appealable orders?

a. An order returning a plaint to be presented before the proper
court is appealable.
b. An order setting aside or refusing to set aside a sale under Order
XXI Rule 72 or 92 of the Code of Civil Procedure is not appealable.
c. An order refusing to grant adjournment is not appealable.
d. An order for deposit of money or other thing in Court or for its
delivery to the person entitled is appealable.
9. Inscription on a stone is-

a. Documentary evidence.
b. Not evidence.
c. Corporal evidence
d. Oral evidence.
10. The question is as to the date of A's birth. An entry in the diary of a
deceased surgeon, regularly kept in the course of business, stating that,
on a given day he attended A's mother and delivered her of a son, is-
a. Irrelevant fact.
b. Conclusive proof.
c. Relevant fact.
d. Admitted fact.
11. For a dying declaration to be admissible in evidence, which one of the

following is not correct?
a. The person making the statement was under the expectation of
death.
b. It relates to the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in
his death.
c. It should relate to the cause of the death of the person.
d. Dying declaration may be oral and to any person in any form.
12. Resumption as to truth of signature and handwriting of any particular

person can be drawn in respect of.
a. 90 years old document under Section 91 of the Indian Evidence
Act.
b. 12 Years old document under Section 113 of the Indian Evidence
Act.
c. 30 years old document under Section 90 of the Indian Evidence
Act.
d. 5 Years old document under Section 90A of the Indian Evidence
Act.
13. 'A' wishes to prove, by secondary evidence, the contents of a lost

document.
a. 'A' need not prove that the contents are known to him.
b. 'A' must show that primary evidence is with him.
c. 'A' can rely on the evidence without any further proof.
d. 'A' must prove that the document has been lost.
14. 'A' is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket. The burden of
proving that he had a ticket is on him, is governed by which of the
following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act?
a. Section 103
b. Section 106
c. Section 105
d. Section 108
15. Whether a person summoned to produce a document can be cross

examined?
a. Yes, if he is called as a witness and to produce a document.
b. No. He cannot be cross examined under any circumstances.
c. Yes. He can be cross-examined even if he simply produces the
document.
d. No. He cannot be cross examined even if he is examined as
witness and produces a document.
16. If a witness makes a statement before the Court, which was not stated
before the police under Section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, it
is called as-
a. Contradiction
b. Omission
c. Mistake
d. Improvement
17. As per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land

Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, 'Marginal
farmer' means-
a. An agricultural farmer having 2 acres of wet land or 4 acres of dry
land.
b. A cultivator with an un-irrigated land holding up to 2 hectares or
irrigated land holding up to 4 hectares.
c. An agricultural farmer having 2 1/2 acres of wet land or 5 acres of
dry land.
d. A cultivator with an un-irrigated land holding up to 1 hectare or
irrigated land holding up to 1 1/2 hectare.
18. When any land, acquired under the Right to Fair Compensation and
Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act,
2013, remains unutilized for a period of........years from taking over the
possession, the same shall be........
a. 5. Years; the absolute property of the appropriate Government.
b. 4 years; returned to the Land Bank of the particular State.
c. 2 years; returned to the original land owner.
d. 5 years; returned to the original land owner or to the Land Bank of
the appropriate Government.
19. Whether there is any prohibition of alienation of any land possessed by
a person under the A.P. Land Reforms (Ceiling on Agricultural Holdings)
Act, 1973?
a. There is no prohibition.
b. There is prohibition of any kind of alienation like sale, lease, gift,
exchange, settlement, surrender, mortgage etc., until a
declaration is furnished.
c. Third party alienations alone are barred.
d. Partition alone is permissible and other alienations are barred.
20. What is the period for which a cultivating tenant can hold the land on
lease?
a. Only six years.
b. As per the agreement between the parties.
c. One year.
d. For a minimum period of six years, renewable successively for a
further minimum period of six years.
21. In the event of the death of a tenant, the right of tenancy of residential
and non- residential premises shall not devolve for the remaining period
of tenancy to his-
a. Spouse
b. Sons/unmarried daughters
c. Unmarried sister
d. Parents.
22. The Andhra Pradesh Residential and Non- Residential Premises Tenancy
Act, 2017, applies to-
a. Premises owned by Wakf registered under the Wakf Act, 1995
b. Premises owned by cantonment board
c. Premises owned by local authority
d. Commercial premises owned by a private individual
23. In the Constitution of India, the word "Economic Justice" is found in:
a. Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
b. Preamble and Directive Principles.
c. Preamble and Fundamental Rights.
d. Preamble only.
24. The Practice of untouchability is abolished by the Constitution of India

under which of the following Articles:
a. Article 17
b. Article 18
c. Article 24
d. Article 15
25. In which case the Hon'ble Apex Court held that the Parliament can
amend any of the provisions of the Constitution including Fundamental
Rights by its amending power under Article 368 of the Constitution,
provided such amendments do not touch the basic structure of the
Constitution.
a. Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
b. Sajjan Singh vs. State of Rajasthan
c. Kesavananda Bharathi vs. State of Kerala
d. Sankari Prasad Singh Deo Vs. Union of India
26. Equal justice and free legal aid are provided under which Article of the
Constitution of India?
a. Article 14
b. Article 21
c. Article 39A
d. Article 51A
27. Upholding and protecting the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is-
a. Preliminary duty
b. Fundamental duty
c. Fundamental right
d. Civil duty
28. The Directive Principles of State Policy are aimed at:

a. Securing political democracy through a welfare State.
b. Securing social and economic democracy through a Welfare State
c. Executive supremacy
d. Judicial Supremacy
29. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution stipulates that
the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all Courts
within the territory of India?
a. Article 32
b. Article 141
c. Article 142
d. Article 140
30. The Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978-

a. Deleted the fundamental right to acquire, hold and dispose of
property.
b. Introduced the fundamental right to free and compulsory
education.
c. Deleted fundamental right to work.
d. Suspended the fundamental right to constitutional remedies.
31. The rule against perpetuity is dealt under which of the following
provisions of the Transfer of Property Act?
a. Section 19
b. Section 14
c. Section 25
d. Section 10
32. A gives 500/- to B on condition that he shall marry A's daughter C. At the
date of the transfer, C was dead. The transfer is-
a. Valid
b. Voidable
c. Void
d. Illegal
33. A gift comprising both, existing and future property-

a. Valid as to latter
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Void as to latter
34. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Consideration can only be future
b. Consideration can only be present
c. Past consideration is no consideration
d. Consideration can be past, present or future
35. A owes money to B under a contract. It is agreed between A, B & C that

B shall hence forth accept C as his debtor, instead of A. It is-
a. Contract of guarantee
b. Novation of contract
c. Bailment
36. Right of general lien is available to-

a. All bailees
b. Bankers, factors, wharfingers
c. Attorneys of High Court and policy- brokers
d. (2) & (3)
37. Which of the following is/are correct?

1. A person who has not completed the age of 18 years is minor.
2. A Contract with a minor is void.
3. A minor can be a promisee or a beneficiary in a contract.
4. A minor cannot be a partner, but may be admitted to the benefits
of partnership.
a. All the above are correct

b. A to C are correct and D is wrong
c. A & B only are correct
d. A, B & D are correct and C is wrong
38. In addition to the amount of compensation, Claims Tribunal under the

Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, can award-
a. Simple interest from such date not earlier than the date of making
the claim petition.
b. Simple or compound interest for any period as per the discretion
of the Tribunal
c. Simple interest from the date of accident.
d. Simple or compound interest from the date of the accident.
39. Whether an insurance company, having issued policy, can avoid its
liability on the ground of dishonour of cheque issued by the insurer
towards the premium?
a) No. It cannot avoid under any circumstances.
b) Yes. It can always.
c) It is bound to pay the compensation unless policy is
cancelled and intimation of such cancellation has reached
the insured before the accident.
d) Yes. It can avoid if the accident occurred prior to
dishonour of cheque.
40. In a recent decision, the Hon'ble Supreme Court standardized the

amount of Consortium, Loss of Estate and Funeral Expenses
a) 70,000 + 20,000 + 20,000
b) 30,000 + 50,000 + 50,000
c) 50,000 + 10,000 + 10,000
d) 40,000 + 15,000 + 15,000
41. Specific relief can be granted for the purpose of enforcing-

a) Penal Law.
b) Constitutional remedies
c) Fundamental rights
d) Individual civil rights
42. If any person is dispossessed from an immovable property, he can file a

suit for recovery of possession, within six months from the date of
dispossession. Against the decree passed in the said suit-
a. Appeal lies to High Court.
b. Review of the decree and judgment is the remedy.
c. No appeal shall lie. But, there is no bar for filing suit to establish
title and to recover possession.
d. It is final and operates as res judicata also.
43. Section 20A of the Specific Relief Act is a provision to restrict the powers
of the Court in granting any injunction against one of the following-
a. Registered Companies dealing with information technology.
b. Registered firms.
c. Infrastructure project.
d. Government undertakings
44. Which of the following is/are punishable under the provisions of the
Andhra Pradesh Prohibition Act, 1995?
I. Consuming liquor except in accordance with the Andhra
Pradesh Prohibition Act or Andhra Pradesh Excise Act, 1968.
II. Transporting liquor other than arrack except in accordance
with the Andhra Pradesh Excise Act, 1968.
III. Collecting liquor other than arrack except in accordance
with the Andhra Pradesh Excise Act, 1968.
IV. Manufacturing liquor other than arrack except in
accordance with the Andhra Pradesh Excise Act, 1968.
a. I only
b. I, II and IV
c. I, II, III and IV
d. II and IV
45. Where the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 applies,
a. Application of the Guardians & Wards Act is wholly excluded.
b. Application of the Guardians & Wards Act is excluded where the
parties expressly agreed in writing.
c. Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act is supplemental to and not
in derogation of Guardians and Wards Act.
d. Application of the Guardians & Wards Act can be excluded by the
court at its discretion.
46. Hindu Succession Act

a. Does not apply to illegitimate child.
b. Applies to any child, legitimate or illegitimate, one of whose
parents is a Hindu, Buddhist, Jain or Sikh by religion.
c. Applies to only legitimate child whose both parents are Hindus.
d. Does not apply to any illegitimate child, one of whose parent is
Buddhist, Jain or Sikh by religion.
47. In a legal proceeding under Hindu Marriage Act, either for divorce or
restitution of conjugal rights, whether the respondent can make a
counter claim and, if so, whether the Court can award the relief of
counter claim to the respondent?
a. No. Relief of counter claim is not contemplated in matrimonial
proceedings. The respondent has to initiate separate proceedings.
b. Yes. The respondent can make the counter claim and the Court
may grant any relief.
c. Counter claim is contemplated only in civil suits.
d. Counter claim is not necessary. The Court can grant relief to the
respondent, if necessary.
48. Whether a Hindu daughter is liable to pay maintenance to her aged or

infirm stepmother?
a. Yes.
b. No.
c. Yes. If some property is inherited from her father.
d. Yes. If some property is taken as gift from stepmother.
49. The word 'partition' for the purpose of Section 6 of Hindu Succession
(Amendment) Act, 2005 means-
a. The partition made by execution of a deed of partition duly
registered under the Registration Act, 1908 or partition effected
by a decree of a Court.
b. The oral partition.
c. The past partition which is reflected in unregistered document.
d. A deed of family arrangement.
50. The children born out of a marriage which is null and void under Section
11 of the Hindu Marriage Act are -
a. Legitimate
b. Illegitimate
c. Legitimate at the option of the parents.
d. Illegitimate at the option of the parents.
51. To maintain a petition under Section 10 (ix) of the Divorce Act, 1869, the
petitioner must prove that the respondent has deserted the petitioner
for at least-
a. One year immediately preceding the presentation of the petition.
b. Six months immediately preceding the presentation of the
petition.
c. Two years immediately preceding the presentation of the petition.
d. Three months immediately preceding the presentation of the
petition.
52. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has held that
"...marriage of all person who are citizens of India belonging to various
religions should be made compulsorily registerable in their respective
states where the marriage is solemnized...."?
a. Githa Hariharan v. Reserve Bank of India.
b. Seema v. Ashwani Kumar.
c. Durga Prasanna Tripathi v. Arundathi Tripathi.
d. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India.
53. Whether a party to a proceeding before a Family Court is entitled for

assistance of legal practitioner as a matter of right?
a. Yes.
b. No.
c. Only when the Family Court considers it necessary, it can permit.
d. One party cannot take the assistance of the advocate, but if both
parties engage advocates, it is permissible.
54. What is an easement?

a. A right which the owner or occupier of certain land possesses for
the beneficial enjoyment of that land, to do something in respect
of certain other land not his own.
b. Right in immovable property is granted to do something which is
otherwise unlawful.
c. Transfer of right to enjoy property for a certain time for price etc.
d. Right to remove and appropriate any part of the soil, material
resources such as timber, minerals etc.
55. A suit is filed for obstructing a right of way. The plaintiff shows the
enjoyment of the right peacefully and openly for 20 years and proves the
obstruction by the defendant. The defendant proves that the right was
enjoyed by the plaintiff under a lease.
a. The plaintiff is entitled to a decree.
b. The plaintiff is not entitled to a decree.
c. The defendant cannot resist the suit.
56. Malice in law is-

a. An act which one has a legal duty to do, but failed to do.
b. Wrongful act done intentionally without just cause or excuse.
c. Unmindful omission of act legally bound to do.
57. Although limitation has not been set up as a defence, suit or appeal or
application filed after prescribed period-
a. Shall be dismissed.
b. Cannot be dismissed.
c. May be dismissed.
d. May or may not be dismissed.
58. Where any special or local law prescribes for any suit, appeal or
application a period of limitation different from the one prescribed
under Limitation Act, 1963, which will apply?
a. Period of limitation prescribed under the provisions of the
Limitation Act will apply.
b. Period of limitation prescribed under the provisions of special or
local law will apply.
c. In view of conflict, both will not apply and Court will decide what
is the limitation.
d. Whatever is beneficial to accused in a criminal case and plaintiff in
civil proceedings will apply.
59. An action for infringement of Trade Mark/ passing off can be filed in a
District Court within whose jurisdiction,
a. The plaintiff (Trade Mark Proprietor) resides or carries on
business.
b. The defendant resides or carries on business.
c. (1) & (2).
60. Which of the following conducts of a person does not amount to

infringement of copy right?
a. Reproduction of literary, dramatic, musical or artistic work in the
form of cinematography film without licence by the owner.
b. Without licence by the owner of copy right or registrar of copy
rights does something which is an exclusive right conferred upon
the owner.
c. A fair dealing with a literary, dramatic, musical, artistic work for
the purpose of private use including research.
d. Exhibits in public for trade purpose without the permission of the
owner.
61. An unregistered agreement of sale of immovable property of value of
100/- and upwards-
a. Can be received in evidence of any transaction affecting such
property.
b. Can be received as evidence of a contract in a suit for specific
performance.
c. Can be received as evidence of collateral transaction not required
to be effected by registered instrument.
d. Both 2 & 3
62. X executed sale deed in favour of Y and presented for registration on
10th January, 2020. Registration was kept pending for some time and at
last, the registration of o document was effected on 10th March, 2020.
a. The document operates from 10th March, 2020
b. The document operates from 10th January, 2020.. 1
c. The document operates from 10 days after its presentation.
d. The document operates from the date of delivery of possession of
property.
63. Which of the following are not goods?

a. Stock & shares
b. Growing crop
c. Grass and things attached to land agreed to be severed under a
contract of sale.
d. Money and actionable claims.
64. When the buyer wrongfully neglects or refuses to pay for the goods
when the goods are passed to him, the seller can-
a. Recover the goods delivered.
b. Claim damages
c. File a suit for recovery of the price of the goods.
65. Which of the following statements is correct? Natural guardian is always

entitled to guardianship and custody of a minor. Welfare of minor is
always paramount Ser consideration for guardianship of custody.
a. A & B are correct
b. B alone is correct
c. A alone is correct
d. Neither A nor B is correct
66. X, a minor, ordinary resident of Nellore, temporarily camped at

Visakhapatnam. The property of minor is situated at Ananthapur. In
which Court, the application for appointment of guardian of the
property of minor can be filed?
a. At Nellore only
b. Either at Nellore or at Ananthapur
c. At Ananthapur only
d. At Visakhapatnam
67. Without instituting a suit, who can apply by petition to a principal Court
of original jurisdiction, for its opinion, advice or direction in respect of
the management or administration of trust property, other than
questions of details, difficulty or importance, for summary disposal?
a. Any interested person in the trust.
b. Any two persons from the public.
c. Any trustee.
d. No one can file an application. Only suit shall be filed.
68. If the accused pleads guilty under Section 228 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, the Judge-
a. Shall convict the accused.
b. May, in his discretion, convict the accused.
c. Shall hear the prosecution.
d. Need not hear anyone.
69. At the time of pronouncement of judgment by the Subordinate

Appellate Court-
a. The accused shall attend to her the judgment.
b. Unless the appellate court otherwise directs, the accused is not
required to attend to hear the judgment.
c. The accused is not required to attend to hear the judgment.
d. The attendance of accused is required even though it is acquittal
of the accused.
70. Where a person is required to produce a document by Criminal Court,

whether he shall personally appear and produce the document before
such Criminal Court?
a. He shall appear and produce the document in person.
b. He shall take permission for dispensing with his appearance.
c. It is sufficient if he causes such document to be produced before
the Court instead of attending personally to produce the same.
d. He shall produce the document and give evidence in respect of
that document.
71. A is tried upon a charge of theft as a servant and acquitted. On the same
facts of theft, whether A can be charged with criminal breach of trust?
a. No. A is entitled for the benefit of Section 300 Cr.P.C.
b. Yes. The charge being different, the subsequent prosecution on
the ground of breach of trust is permissible.
c. There is no legal bar for fresh prosecution
d. A may be charged with the permission of the Court.
72. Who will decide the quantum of compensation payable to a victim in

terms of Victim Compensation Scheme under Section 357A of the Code
of Criminal Procedure?
a. The concerned Court.
b. The District Collector.
c. The District Legal Services Authority or State Legal Services
Authority.
d. The State Government.
73. The set off of period of detention of an accused during trial is available
against,
a. The term of principal imprisonment alone.
b. The term of principal imprisonment w as well as the imprisonment
imposed in default of payment of fine.
c. The term of imprisonment imposed in default of payment of fine
alone.
d. The accused is not entitled for set off under any circumstances.
74. The time space within which three offences of same kind committed by
an accused can be charged together is-
a. 06 months
b. 01 year
c. 02 years
d. 03 years
75. A proclamation for person absconding under Section 82 of the Code of

Criminal Procedure, 1973, requiring him to appear must be published
giving ......time to the concerned person.
a. Not less than 10 days
b. More than 2 months
c. Not less than 20 days
d. Not less than 30 days
76. A instigates B to murder D. B, in pursuance of the instigation, stabs D.D

recovers from the wound. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. A is not guilty of instigating B to commit murder.
b. B is guilty of instigating A to commit murder.
c. A is guilty of instigating B to commit murder.
77. A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by entering into the house of
B through a window, and finds after so entering the house, that there
are no jewels but only books, and leaves the house without taking
anything
a. A is guilty under Section 511 IPC.
b. A is guilty under Section 453 IPC.
c. A is guilty under Section 453 & 511 IPC.
d. A is guilty of no offence.
78. A forged a promissory note and filed the suit.

a. A is punishable for forgery of record of Court.
b. A is punishable for forgery.
c. A is punishable for both (1) & (2).
d. All the above are correct.
79. If a father or mother of a child under the age of 12 years, leaves the child
in any place with intent to abandon such child,
a. It is not an offence.
b. It is an offence.
c. It is an offence only if such child dies.
d. None of the above and the child care is only a social obligation.
80. A, knowing that his effects are about to be taken in execution in order to
satisfy a debt due from him to Z, destroys those effects, with the
intention of thereby preventing Z from obtaining satisfaction of the
debt.
a. A has committed no offence as he has damaged his own property.
b. A has committed fraud.
c. A has committed mischief.
d. A has committed criminal breach of trust.
81. If a person, having been charged with an offence and released on bail or
bond without sureties, fails to appear, without sufficient cause, before a
Court in accordance with the terms of the bail or bond.
a. He has committed no offence.
b. He has committed an offence and is liable for punishment.
c. His sureties are liable for punishment.
d. Only warrant can be issued against him for disobedience.
82. Disclosure of identity of the victim of certain offences is punishable
under Section -
a. 225A of the Indian Penal Code
b. 228A of the Indian Penal Code
c. 225B of the Indian Penal Code.
d. 229A of the Indian Penal Code.
83. In case of the offence punishable under Section 494 of the Indian Penal
Code, 1860, who can make a complaint?
a. Any social institute
b. Neighbours
c. Mother, father, brother or sister on behalf of the wife.
d. All the above.
84. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, Prohibits untouchability for-
a. Enforcing religious disabilities.
b. Enforcing social disabilities.
c. Refusing to sell goods or render any services.
d. All of the above.
85. Whether the victim under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, has got right to be heard at the time
of hearing the bail application or the discharge petition moved by the
accused?
a. Yes, subject to the gravity of the offence.
b. No victim has no right in any circumstance.
c. Depends on the discretion of the court.
d. Yes, in all cases.
86. Whether the Special Court constituted under Section 14 of the

Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act,
1989, can take cognizance of the offence directly?
a. No. Committal is necessary.
b. Yes. Committal is not necessary.
c. Committal is not necessary, if the offence is committed after the
Amendment Act 1 of 2016 came into force.
d. Depending on the nature of the offence, Special Court can take
cognizance directly.
87. In an appeal against the judgment of conviction of the offence under

Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act,
I. the appellate Court may order the appellant to deposit such sum
which shall be a minimum of 20% of the fine or compensation
awarded by the trial Court,
II. The amount payable as above shall be in addition to any interim
compensation paid by the appellant under Section 143A of the
Act.
a. A is correct and B is wrong.
b. A&B are wrong.
c. A & B are correct.
d. B is correct and A is wrong.
88. Presumption provided under Section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments

Act does not apply to the following:
a. Consideration.
b. Date
c. The holder is a holder in due course.
d. Execution of the instrument.
89. Sentence awarded under Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances

Act, 1985-
a. Can be suspended as per the provisions of Cr.P.C.
b. Can be remitted as per the provisions of Cr.P.C.
c. Can be commuted as per the provisions of Cr.P.C.
d. Cannot be suspended or remitted or commuted (other than the
sentence under Section 27 of the Act).
90. The Special Courts constituted under Section 36 of the Narcotic Drugs
and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, can try the offences which are
punishable with imprisonment for a term of-
a. More than 5 years.
b. Less than 1 year.
c. More than 7 years.
d. More than 3 years.
91. Who among the following does not fall under the expression 'public
servant' as defined under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
a. Any Judge.
b. Any arbitrator.
c. Member of Legislative Assembly.
d. An unpaid worker in a government office assisting the regular
government servant.
92. As per Section 15 of the Andhra Pradesh Excise Act, 1968, for the sale or
buying of excisable articles within a district, the authority to grant a
licence is.
a. Prohibition and Excise Superintendent
b. Deputy Commissioner,
c. Excise Commissioner.
d. Executive Magistrate.
93. The cognizance for the offences under Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972,
shall be taken by the Court basing on-
a. A police report
b. A complaint made by any private person, without issuing any prior
notice to the Central Government or the State Government.
c. A complaint by the authorities under the Wild Life (Protection)
Act, 1972
94. In the event of any difference of opinion among the members of Juvenile
Justice Board,
a. Opinion of majority shall prevail.
b. Opinion of members shall prevail.
c. Where there is no majority opinion, the opinion of principal
Magistrate shall prevail.
d. 1& 3
95. An appeal against any order passed to determine the mental capacity of
the juvenile above 16 years for committing heinous offence lies to-
a. Court of Session.
b. Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. Children Court.
d. POCSO Court.
96. Whether injunction can be granted by any court or other authority in

respect of any action taken or to be taken in pursuance of any power
conferred by or under the Electricity Act ?
a. Yes
b. May be
c. No
d. Must be
97. Grant of maintenance to a woman who has lived for a substantial period
of time with a man without marrying him, and is then deserted by him, is
a. Alimon
b. Palimony
c. Paramoly
d. Grant
98. Against the orders of the Court of Judicial Magistrate of First Class under
the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act,
a. No appeal lies.
b. Appeal lies against any order to Court of Sessions within 30 days.
c. Appeal lies to High Court.
d. Appeal lies only against maintenance order.
99. The licencing authority cannot refuse to grant licence for fire arm on the
following grounds:
a. Person requiring licence is of unsound mind.
b. Person requiring the licence is below the age of 21 years.
c. Person requiring the licence does not own or possess sufficient
property.
d. Person requiring the licence has been sentenced to imprisonment
on conviction of any offence involving moral turpitude.
100. Sort out the sequence of actions performed under the Andhra
Pradesh Forest Act, 1967, with respect to the constituting of a reserved
forest,
I. Proposal Notification by the Government in the Andhra Pradesh
Gazette and the District Gazette concerned.
II. Proclamation by Forest Settlement Officer
III. Bar of accrual of fresh rights and prohibition of clearings.
IV. Adjudication of claims before the Forest Settlement Officer.
a. II, IV,III,I
b. I, II, III, IV
c. IV, II, III, I
d. III, I, IV, II
1 B 35 B 69 B
2 D 36 D 70 C
3 C 37 A 71 A
4 C 38 A 72 C
5 A 39 C 73 A
6 C 40 D 74 B
7 C 41 D 75 D
8 B 42 C 76 C
9 A 43 C 77 C
10 C 44 C 78 B
11 A 45 C 79 B
12 C 46 B 80 C
13 D 47 B 81 B
14 B 48 A 82 B
15 A 49 A 83 C
16 B 50 A 84 D
17 D 51 C 85 D
18 D 52 B 86 C
19 B 53 C 87 C
20 D 54 A 88 D
21 C 55 B 89 D
22 D 56 B 90 D
23 B 57 A 91 D
24 A 58 B 92 A
25 C 59 C 93 C
26 C 60 C 94 D
27 B 61 D 95 A
28 B 62 B 96 C
29 B 63 D 97 B
30 A 64 C 98 B
31 B 65 B 99 C
32 C 66 B 100 B
33 D 67 C
34 D 68 B

JCJ Exam Previous Question Papers

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

JCJ Exam Previous Question Papers

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

J.C.J.

3. The examination of a witness by the adverse party is -

5. State the correct sequence:

8. A gift made in expectation of death is known as -

15. Sans recourse indorsement means -

16. What is the punishment under Sec. 138 of N.I. Act.

17. The limitation period for enforcement of a perpetual injunction is -

18. What is true with regard to application of Limitation Act, 1963?

19. An easement right is a right-

20. Of the following, which is not a mode of acquiring easement?

26. The Limitation Act, 1963 applies to the proceedings before -

27. Section 5 of the Limitation Act deals with

29. Of the following which is misfit matching:

30. According to Section 60 of T.P. Act, a clog on redemption is

31. Of the following which is a misfit matching

34. An Agency coupled with interest' can be revoked by Principal

35. Doctrine of estoppel can be applied against a minor

38. A tape record of speech is

45. Under Sec. 3 of the Evidence Act, evidence means

48. What is true with regard to plea bargaining?

53. Sec.84 of I.P.C provides for -

54. Abetment under Sec. 107 I.P.C. can be constituted

57. Sec. 34 of I.P.C.

58. Culpable homicide is not murder, if it is committed under

61. What is the punishment for the offence of Theft?

63. Whether Doctrine of legal disability applies to Pre-emption Suits?

65. Whether an ex-parte decree can be challenged by way of appeal?

68. Every Warrant of Arrest issued by a Court remains in force for

69. According to Order VI C.P.C. 'pleading shall mean

73. Confession of one accused is admissible against Co-accused

75. Whether an objection as to jurisdiction relating to subject matters (Competency) can be

78. Of the following which cannot be attached in execution of a Decree

86. of the following which are compulsorily attestable documents?

89. Who cannot be arrested in execution of Money Decree?

90. A declaratory decree passed under Sec. 34 of S.R.Act, 1963 operates

1. Where a certified copy of a decree of any of the superior Courts of any

2. Where a judgment-debtor has been committed to the civil prison, he

3. A suit to obtain an urgent or immediate relief against the Government

5. An application for bringing on records the legal representatives of a

7. When an ex parte decree is passed the defendant:

8. A decree may be executed by:

9. By which judgment, the Hon'ble Apex Court upheld the constitutional

10. The power of a Court to correct clerical or arithmetical mistakes in

11. The Commissioner as appointed under the provisions of Order XVIII of

14. A Magistrate while passing an order for disposal of property must

16. Inquiry, Trial or other Proceedings conducted in wrong place

18. Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure contains a special

21. Dishonest intention must precede the act of committing:

22. Abatement of an offence is:

26. "Restitution stops where repayment begins”, is a principle which can

28. A contract can be discharged:

29. Novation of Contract means

30. Who amongst the following is not an agent:

31. Bank Guarantee is an independent contract between:

32. Ratification of an act:

33. Section 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act introduces:

35. In a suit for dissolution of marriage:

36. When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by

37. Failure of one branch of the family to question the validity of an

38. A family arrangement binds:

40. If two or more heirs succeed together to the property of an intestate,

42. Easement is a right

45. A perpetual injunction means: