Professional Documents
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Introduction to Ind AS
1. Ind AS are the IFRS converged standards issued by the Central Government of India
through-
a) MCA
b) ICAI
c) SEBI
d) NFRA
2. Ind AS are accompanied by mandatory _______ that is integral part of Ind AS to assist
entities in applying their requirements.
a) Standards
b) Amendments
c) Guidance
d) Notes
Conceptual Framework
a) Relevant
b) Faithful
c) Fair
d) Useful
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a) Liability
b) Contingent Liability
c) Provision
d) Asset
6. The asset held primarily for the purpose of trading is known as ______.
a) Contingent Asset
b) Current Asset
c) Deferred Asset
d) Fixed Asset
a) Assets
b) Provisions
c) Liabilities
d) Contingent Liabilities
Ind AS 1
a) Purpose
b) Clarity
c) Fairness
d) Objective
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9. Ind AS 1 state that applying a requirement is ___________ when the entity cannot
apply it after making every reasonable effort to do so.
a) Impossible
b) Impracticable
c) Improper
d) Immoral
a) Liquidation
b) Going Concern
c) Interim
d) Monthly
11. An entity whose financial statements comply with Ind AS shall make an __________
and unreserved statement of such compliance in the notes.
a) Explicit
b) Original
c) Unqualified
d) Certified
12. The exercise of prudence means that assets and income are not overstated, and
liabilities and __________ are not understated.
a) Contingent Assets
b) Assets
c) Expenses
d) Taxes
Ind AS 34
13. Objective of Ind AS 34 is to prescribe the principles for recognition and measurement in
complete or _______________ financial statements for an interim period.
a) Special Purpose
b) Interim
c) Condensed
d) Annual
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Ind AS 7
14. ___________ are short-term, highly liquid investments that are readily convertible to
known amounts of cash.
a) Cash
b) Marketable Securities
c) Cash Equivalents
d) Fixed Deposits
15. Negative cash flow from _________ denotes that company is unable to generate cash
from its main business activity.
a) Investing
b) Financing
c) Operations
d) Cash and Cash Equivalents
16. Cash flows arising from _________ paid or received in the case of a financial institution
should be classified as cash flows from operating activities.
a) Taxes
b) Dividend
c) Interest
d) Rent
17. Cash flows arising from taxes on income shall be ________ disclosed under cash flows
from operating activities unless they can be specifically identified with financing and
investing activities.
a) Combined and
b) Separately
c) Not
d) None of the above
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Ind AS 8
18. Prior period errors include the effects of mathematical mistakes, mistakes in applying
accounting policies, oversights, or misinterpretations of facts, and ____________.
a) Rectifications
b) Adjustments
c) Changes
d) Frauds
a) Prospectively
b) Retrospectively
c) Ignored
d) After Audit
Ind AS 10
20. An entity shall not ___________ the amounts recognised in its financial statements to
reflect non-adjusting events occurred after the reporting period.
a) See
b) Ignore
c) Track
d) Adjust
21. Even if the ___________ is declared after the reporting period but before the financial
statements are approved for issue, it is disclosed in the notes to financial statements.
a) Interest
b) Taxes
c) Dividend
d) Financials
Ind AS 113
22. In the absence of observable inputs, _________ techniques such as income approach
or market approach may be used.
a) Audit
b) Valuation
c) Recording
d) Management
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23. Ind AS 113 provides guidance on how to determine fair _______ for financial reporting
purposes.
a) Price
b) Value
c) Transaction Cost
d) Transportation Cost
24. Fair value is the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to _________ a
liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement
date.
a) Hold
b) Mortgage
c) Transfer
d) Sell
25. Ind AS 113 establishes a fair value _________ that categorizes inputs into three levels
based on their reliability and observability.
a) Hierarchy
b) Tree
c) Chain
d) Unit
26. _____ two are observable inputs other than quoted prices in active markets.
a) Hierarchy
b) Floor
c) Level
d) Grade
a) Brokerage
b) Underwriting
c) Transport
d) None of the above
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Ind AS 115
a) Provision
b) Retention Money
c) Contract Asset
d) Contract Liability
29. The entity shall not recognise _________ when it transfers products to customers but
shall recognise those amounts received (or receivable) as a refund liability.
a) Revenue
b) Expense
c) Refund Liability
d) Contract Asset
a) Contract
b) Non-Performance
c) Performance
d) Current
31. Entities have to consider variable ___________, such as discounts, rebates, and
performance bonuses, when determining the transaction price.
a) Payments
b) Consideration
c) Revenue
d) Expenses
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Answers
1. a) 17. b)
2. c) 18. d)
3. b) 19. b)
4. c) 20. d)
5. d) 21. c)
6. b) 22. b)
7. c) 23. b)
8. d) 24. c)
9. b) 25. a)
10. b) 26. c)
11. a) 27. c)
12. c) 28. d)
13. c) 29. a)
14. c) 30. c)
15. c) 31. b)
16. c)
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