NEET JEE Chemistry Practice Question Bank Part 1 (5000+ Questions)

NEET / IIT-JEE
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Practice Bank
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Part - 1
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Compiler
Sudhir Nama
About The Compiler
Sudhir Nama is an Accomplished Author With A Background Of Chemistry. Holding A

Master's Degree in Chemistry, With A specialization in Organic Chemistry From IISER
And Mechanism In Organic Chemistry From IITB. He Has A Deep Understanding Of The
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Subject. He Is An Experienced Chemistry Teacher With Over 10 Years Of Dedicated

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Teaching Experience. His Teaching Methods Focus On Creating A Supportive And

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Interactive Learning Environment, Where Students Are Encouraged To Ask Questions And
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Explore Their Curiosity.

With His Expertise And Enthusiasm, Sudhir Has Successfully Helped Numerous Students
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Excel In Their Chemistry Studies. Apart From This, He Is Also A Passionate Storyteller.
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Publication
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Textbook :
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Organic Reaction And Mechanism (Organic Chemistry For 12th Board,

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NEET, JEE)
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Book Availability : On Amazon, Flipkart, Google Book (Read For Free)

Index
1. GOC
2. Classification & Nomenclature, Stereochemistry

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3. Chemical Bonding
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4. Halo-Alkanes And Halo-Arenes

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5. Oxygen Containing Compounds

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(Alcohol, Phenol, Ether, Carboxylic Acid, Aldehyde & Ketone)

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6. Nitrogen Containing Compounds

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Note : The Examples And Questions In This Practice Bank Are Taken From Various Books, Institutions,
Internet And Platforms
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1. Chapter
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General Organic Chemistry

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 Hunsdieker reaction proceeds via free radical
mechanism.
 Propene reacts with chlorine at 673 K to form allyl
chloride and the intermediate is allyl free radical.
 Wohler synthesised the first organic compound urea

in the laboratory.
 The number of optical isomers of a compound
depends on its structure and number of asymmetric
carbon atoms present in its molecule.
Bonding and hybridisation in organic
 Stereoisomers that are not mirror images of each other compounds
are called diastereomers.
 Order of priority for both asymmetric carbon atoms 1. In methane molecule, the hydrogen atoms around
using sequence rules is carbon are arranged as [DPMT 1980; MNR 1981; MP PET
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1997, 99]
–OH > – COOH > –CH(OH)COOH > –H
(a) Square planar (b) Tetrahedral
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 The nitration and sulphonation of alkanes involve

(c) Triangular (d) Octahedral
free radicals.
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2. In carbon tetrachloride, four valence of carbon are

 Carbenes undergo insertion reactions. directed to four corners of
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[CPMT 1973, 77]

 Alkanes usually undergo free radical substitution (a) Rectangle (b) Square
when hydrogen is replaced by a halogen. It is catalysed by (c) Tetrahedron (d) None of these
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benzoyl peroxide (C6H5COO)2. 3. In alkene (ethene) number of hybrid carbon

C
 The polymerisation of alkenes is free radical addition atoms are

(a) 1 (b) 2
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reaction.
(c) 3 (d) 0
 Allyl free radical (CH2 = CH – CH2) is more stable than
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4. Each carbon atom in benzene is in the state of

n-propyl free radical (CH3CH2CH2).
hybridization
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 The stability of free radicals is explained on the basis [CPMT 1973, 83, 89; MP PMT 1993;
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of hyperconjugation or conjugation. KCET (Med.) 1999; DCE 2001]

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 Propene is more reactive than ethene towards (a) (b)

electrophilic addition reaction due to the formation of (c) (d)
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more stable 2° carbocation. 5. Which of the following hybridisation has highest

 The reactivity of alkyl halides in SN1 is 3°> percentage of s-character [BHU 1986]
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2°>1°>methyl while SN2 is methyl > 1°> 2°> 3°. (a) (b)
 Polar solvents favour SN while non polar solvents
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(c) (d) None of these
favour SN2 reactions. 6. The hybridisation present in is [EAMCET 1993]
 Dipole moment of CHCl3 is less than that of CH2Cl2. (a) (b)
This is because in CH2Cl2 all bond moments reinforce each (c) (d)
other while in CHCl3 the bond moment of one of the Cl
7. What hybrid orbitals will form the following
opposes the net moment of the other two.
compound [AFMC
 Low concentration of nucleophiles favour SN1 while 1991]
high concentration favour SN2. (a) and (b) and
 In SN1 the attack of the nucleophile may be from (c) and (d) Only
either side and so recimization takes place. However, in
8. The compound in which carbon uses only its
SN2 the attack of the nucleophile takes place from back
hybrid orbitals for bond formation is [IIT-JEE 1989]
side. So it leads to inversion of configuration.
(a) (b) 16. In the reaction
(c) (d)
9. A straight chain hydrocarbon has the molecular
formula . The hybridisation for the carbon The hybridisation states of carbon atoms 1, 2, 3, 4 are
atoms from one end of the chain to the other are [MP PET 1994]
respectively and (a) 1 and 2 3 and 4
. The structural formula of the hydrocarbon would be
(b) 1 and 2 3 and 4
[CBSE PMT 1992]
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a)
(b) (d) 1, 2 3, 4
17. In which of the compounds given below is there more
than one kind of hybridisation for
(c)
carbon
(d)
(i)
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10. Which of the following has a bond formed by overlap (ii)

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of hybrid orbitals [MNR 1993; UPSEAT 2001, 02] (iii)

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(a) (iv) [CBSE PMT 1995]

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(b) (a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii)

18. Examine the following common chemical structures to
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(d)
which simple functional groups are often attached
11. The bond between carbon atom (1) and carbon atom
C
(2) in compound involves the

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(i) (ii)
hybridised carbon as [IIT-JEE 1987; DCE 2000]
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(a) and (b) and

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(c) and (d) and (iii) (iv)

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12. Number of bonds in

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(v)
[Kurukshetra CEE 1991; KCET 2000]
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(a) 2 (b) 3 Which of these systems have essentially planar

geometry
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(c) 4 (d) 5
[CBSE PMT 1995]
13. Number of electrons present in naphthalene is
(a) (i) and (v) (b) (ii) and (iii)
[AFMC 1991]
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv)
(a) 4 (b) 6
19. The structure of di-chloromethane is [MP PMT 1995]
(c) 10 (d) 14
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Trigonal
14. Number of electrons in cyclobutadienyl anion
(c) Linear (d) Hexagonal
is [IIT-JEE 1991]
20. The numbers of sigma ( ) bonds in 1-butene is
(a) 2 (b) 4
[MP PMT 1995]
(c) 6 (d) 8
(a) 8 (b) 10
15. Homolytic fission of C - C bond in ethane gives an
(c) 11 (d) 12
intermediate in which carbon is [IIT-JEE 1992]
21. Which of the following statements is false for
(a) hybridised (b) hybridised isopentane
(c) hybridised (d) hybridised [MP PET 1996]
(a) It has three groups 31. Maximum bond energy of bonds is found in the
compound [RPMT 1999]
(b) It has one group
(a) Ethane (b) Ethene
(c) It has one CH group
(c) Ethyne (d) Equal in all the three
(d) It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen
32. Ethylene possess [RPET 1999]
22. The number of bonds in o-xylene is [MP PET 1996]
(a) Two sigma and two pi bonds
(a) 6 (b) 9 (b) Two pi bonds
(c) 12 (d) 18 (c) Five sigma and one pi bond
23. In benzene the total number of bonds is [MP PMT (d) Four sigma and one pi bond
1997]
33. The hybridization involved in the six carbon atoms of
(a) 3 (b) 6 benzene is [BHU 1999]
(c) 9 (d) 12 (a) (b)
24. The number of hybridized carbon atoms in (c) All (d) All
cyclohexene are [MP PMT 1997]
34. 1, 3-butadiene has [JIPMER 2000]
(a) 2 (b) 3
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(a) sp and hybridised C-atoms

(c) 4 (d) 6
(b) sp, and hybridized C-atoms
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25. The number of bonds in 3-hexyne-1-ene is

(c) Only hybridised C-atoms
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[MP PMT 1999]

(a) 1 (b) 2 (d) Only sp hybridised C-atoms
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(c) 3 (d) 4 35. Which of the following bond has the lowest
bond dissociation energy [CBSE PMT 2000]
26. Example of hybridization is [CPMT 1997]
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(a) Primary bond

(a) (b)
C
(b) Secondary bond

(c) (d)
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(c) Tertiary bond

27. Select the molecule which has only one
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(d) All of these

[Pb. PMT 1998]
36. Number of and bonds present in 1- butene-3-yne
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(a) (b) respectively are [RPMT 1999; MP PET 2000; DCE 2000]
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(c) (d) (a) (b)

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(c) (d)
28. Carbon atoms in the compound are 37. Which is an acidic hydrocarbon [AMU 2000]
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[Roorkee 1999] (a) (b)

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(a) sp hybridized (c) (d)

(b) hybridized
(c) sp and hybridized 38. A carbon-carbon triple bond in ethyne
(d) sp, and hybridized consists of
[AMU 2000]
29. Acetylene molecules contain [DCE 1999]
(a) All bonds
(a) 5 bond
(b) Two bonds and one -bond
(b) 4 bond and bond
(c) One bond and two bonds
(c) 3 and 2
(d) All bonds
(d) 3 and 3
39. Toluene has [MP PMT 2000; Kerala CET 2005]
30. Number of unhybridised orbitals in vinyl acetylene are
[RPMT 1999] (a) 6 and 3 bond (b) 9 and 3 bond
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 9 and 6 bond (d) 15 and 3 bond
(c) 4 (d) 6
40. In compound X, all the bond angles are exactly (c) -hybridised orbitals (d) Unhybridised
X is [DPMT 2000] orbitals
(a) Chloroform (b) Carbon tetrachloride 51. In graphite C-atom is in ....state [CPMT 2002]
(c) Chloromethane (d) Iodoform (a) (b)

41. Which of the following hybridization is known as (c) (d) None of these
trigonal hybridization [MH CET 2000] 52. How many -bonds are present in naphthalene
(a) (b) sp molecule
[RPMT 2002]
(c) (d)
(a) 3 (b) 4
42. The types of hybridization present in 1, 2- butadiene
(c) 5 (d) 6
are
53. Hybridisation state of C in diamond is [RPMT 2002]
[MH CET 2000]
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
54. The number of and bonds present in pent-4-ene,
43. The C–H bond distance is longest in [BHU 2001]
1-yne is [AIIMS 2002; CPMT 2002]
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(a) (b) (a) 10, 3 (b) 3, 10

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(c) (d) (c) 4, 9 (d) 9, 4

55. Which one of the following is more acidic [DPMT 2002]
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44. Conjugated double bond is present in

(a) Butane (b) 1-butene
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[RPMT 1999; JIPMER 2001]

(c) 1-butyne (d) 2-butyne
(a) 1, 2-butadiene (b) 1, 3-butadiene
56. Graphite is soft while diamond is hard because [BHU
(c) 1, 3-pentadiene (d) -butylene
2003]
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45. In which of the following species is the underlined (a) Graphite is in powder form
C
carbon having hybridisation [AIEEE 2002] (b) Diamond has hybridization but graphite has
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(a) (b) hybridization

(c) Graphite is in planar form while diamond is in
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(c) (d)
tetrahedral form
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46. The bond angle in is [MP PET 2002]

(d) Graphite is covalent and diamond is ionic
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(a) (b) 57. Hybridization of 1 and 2 carbon atoms in

(c) (d)
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[BHU 2003]
47. The hybridisation of carbons of single bond of
(a) (b)
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is [RPMT 2002]
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
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58. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in [UPSEAT 2003]

(c) (d)
(a) (b)
48. The shape of ethylene molecule is [AFMC 2002]
(c) (d)
(a) Square planar (b) Furan
59. How many methyl group are present in 2, 5-dimethyl-
(c) Trigonal planar (d) Tetrahedral
4-ethylheptane [EAMCET 2003]
49. Acetylene molecule has carbon in [Kerala (Engg.) 2002]
(a) 2 (b) 3
(a) - hybridisation (b) - hybridisation (c) 4 (d) 5
(c) - hybridisation (d) - hybridisation 60. Which one of the following does not have
50. In the formation of methane molecule, carbon makes hybridised carbon [AIEEE 2004]
use of (a) Acetonitrile (b) Acetic acid
[DPMT 2001; MP PMT 2002] (c) Acetone (d) Acetamide
(a) -hybridised orbitals (b) -hybridised 61. Allyl cyanide contain - and -bonds [MP PET 2004]
orbitals (a) 9, 3 (b) 9, 9
(c) 3, 4 (d) 5, 7 6. Resonance structure of molecule does not have
62. Strongest acid is [MP PMT 2004] [IIT-JEE 1984]
(a) (b) (a) Identical arrangement of atoms

(b) Nearly the same energy content
(c) (d)
(c) The same number of paired electrons
63. bond is found in [BHU 1982; MP PMT 1994] (d) Identical bonding
(a) Ethene (b) Butene 7. All bonds in benzene are equal due to
(c) Ethyne (d) Glycerine [Roorkee 1990; KCET 1998]
CH3 (a) Tautomerism (b) Inductive effect
(c) Resonance (d) Isomerism
64. Number of  bonds in [CPMT 1994] 8. Aromatic properties of benzene are proved by
[MP PMT 1994]
(a) 6 (b) 15 (a) Aromatic sextet theory (b) Resonance theory

(c) 10 (d) 12 (c) Molecular orbital theory (d) All of these
65. Number of bonds in benzene [DPMT 2005] 9. Which of the following will show aromatic behaviour
(a) and (b) and [KCET 1996]
Te
(c) and (d) and

66. Which is most acidic of the following (a) (b)
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[J & K 2005]
(a) Methane (b) Acetylene
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(c) 1-butene (d) Neo-pentane O

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67. The enolic form of acetone contains [Pb. PMT 2002]

(c) (d)
(a) 8 bonds, -bonds and 1 lone pairs
(b) -bonds, -bond and 2 lone pairs
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10. Which one of the following orders is correct regarding

(c) -bonds, -bonds and 1 lone pairs
the inductive effect of the substituents [CBSE PMT 1998]
C
(d) 10 -bonds, 1 -bonds and 1 lone pairs

(a) (b)
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Dipole moment, resonance and reaction (c) (d)

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intermediates 11. Benzene is unreactive because [KCET 1998]

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(a) It has double bonds

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1. Which has zero dipole moment [NCERT 1990; BHU 2001] (b) It has carbon-carbon single bond
(a) cis-2-butene (b) trans-2-butene (c) Carbon are hybridised
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(c) 1-butene (d) 2-methyl-1-propene

(d) electrons are delocalised
2. Dipole moment is shown by [DCE 1999]
12. Carboxylic acids are easily ionised. The main reason of
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(a) 1, 4-dichloro benzene this statement [UPSEAT 1999]

(b) Cis-1, 2-dichloro ethane
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(a) Absence of -hydrogen

(c) Trans-1, 2-dichloro, 2-pentene
(b) Resonance stabilisation of carboxylate ion
(d) Trans-1, 2-dichloro ether
(c) Reactivity of -hydrogen
3. Which compound shows dipole moment [RPMT 2002]
(d) Hydrogen bond
(a) 1,4-di-chloro benzene
13. bond length in benzene lies between single
(b) 1, 2-di-chloro benzene
and double bond. The reason is [RPET 1999]
(c) Trans-1, 2-di-chloro ethene
(a) Resonance (b) Isomerism
(d) Trans-2-butene
(c) Metamerism (d) Inductive effect
4. Which of the following is a polar compound
14. Credit for the ring structure of benzene goes to
[MH CET 2003]
[RPET 1999]
(a) (b)
(a) Wholer (b) Faraday
(c) HCl (d) (c) Kekule (d) Baeyer
5. The dipole moment is the highest for [AIIMS 2004] 15. Polarisation of electrons in acroline may be written as
(a) Trans-2-butene (b) 1, 3-Dimethylbenzene [DCE 2000]
(c) Acetophenone (d) Ethanol
(a) (a) (b)
(b)
(c) (d)
(c)
23. Which of the following will be most easily attacked by
(d)
an electrophile [MP PET 2004]
16. In the mixture of conc. and the Cl OH
nitrating species is [MP PMT 2000]
(a) (b) (a) (b)
(c) (d) CH3

17. Which of the following are not aromatic [DCE 2001] (c) (d)
(a) Benzene
(b) Cyclo-octatetrarenyl dianion 24. Reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction of (I)
(c) Tropyllium cation HCHO, (II) , (III) is
(d) Cyclopentadienyl cation
Te
[Orissa JEE 2004]

18. Arrangement of (a) II > III > I (b) III > II > I
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(c) I > II > III (d) I > II < III

gr
when attached to benzyl or an unsaturated group in 25. Which of the following resonating structures of 1-
increasing order of inductive effect is methoxy-1, 3-butadiene is least stable [IIT Screening
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[AIEEE 2002] 2005]

(a) (a)
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(b) (b)
C
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(c)
(c)
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(d)
is
(d)
26. Which amongst the following is the most stable
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carbocation
19. Which of the following is observed in ethylene [CBSE PMT 2005]
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molecule
[MH CET 2002]
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(a) Electromeric effect (b) Inductive effect (a) (b)

(c) Homolytic fission (d) None of these
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20. Cyclopentadienyl anion is [Orissa JEE 2003]

(a) Aromatic (b) Non-aromatic (c) (d)
(c) Non-planar (d) Aliphatic 27. Which is the decreasing order of stability
21. Orbital interaction between the sigma bonds of a [IIT-JEE (Screening) 1993]
substitutent group and a neighbouring pi orbital is
(i)
known as
[Kerala PMT 2004]
(ii)
(a) Hyperconjugation
(b) Inductive effect (iii)
(c) Steric effect
(a) (b)
(d) Dipole-dipole interactions
(c) (d)
(e) Electric quadruple interactions
28. The order of decreasing stability of the carbanions
22. Which of the following is the most stable compound
[BHU 2004] (1) (2)
(3) (4) is (c) Secondary (d) Tertiary
[KCET 1996] 35. Which of the following contains three pairs of
(a) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (b) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 electrons
[BHU 1985]
(c) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3 (d) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3
29. Choose the chain terminating step (a) Carbocation (b) Carbanion
(c) Free radical (d) None of these
(1)
36. Which of the following carbanion is most stable
(2) [NCERT 1983]
(3) (a) Methyl (b) Primary
(c) Secondary (d) Tertiary
(4)
37. Among the given cations, the most stable carbonium
(5) [RPET 2000] ion is
(a) 1 (b) 3 [IIT-JEE 1981]
(c) 4 (d) 5 (a) sec-butyl (b) ter-butyl
30. The compound, which gives the most stable (c) n-butyl (d) None of these
carbonium on dehydrogenation [UPSEAT 2001] 38. In the compound given below
Te
 
H3N NH3
(a)
(Y) (Z)
le
gr
COOH
(b) (X)
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The correct order of the acidity of the positions (X), (Y)

and (Z) is [IIT-JEE Screening 2004]
(a) (Z) > (X) > (Y) (b) (X) > (Y) > (Z)
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(c)
(c) (X) > (Z) > (Y) (d) (Y) > (X) > (Z)
C
39. C-C bond length in benzene is

(d)
he
[MP PMT 1987; MP PMT 2001; AIIMS 2001]
31. Which of the following requires radical intermediate (a) 1.39

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[Orissa JEE 2004] (b) 1.54

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(c) 1.34
(a)
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(d) Different in different bonds

40. Heterolysis of carbon-chlorine bond produces
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(b) [MNR 1986; MP PET/PMT 1998]

(a) Two free radicals
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(c)
(b) Two carbonium ions
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(c) Two carbanions

(d) (d) One cation and one anion
41. In the bond that undergoes
32. Which of the following species is paramagnetic in heterolytic cleavage most readily is [IIT-JEE 1988]
nature
(a) C – C (b) C – O
[NCERT 1984]
(c) C – H (d) O – H
(a) Free radical (b) Carbonium ion
42. Which of the following intermediate have the
(c) Carbanion (d) All the above
complete octet around the carbon atom [Orissa JEE
33. In which of the following species the central C-atom is 2003]
negatively charged [NCERT 1985]
(a) Carbonium ion (b) Carbanion ion
(a) Carbanion (b) Carbonium ion
(c) Free radical (d) Carbene
(c) Carbocation (d) Free radical
43. A solution of D (+) - 2-chloro-2-phenylethane in
34. Which of the following free radicals is most stable
toluene racemises slowly in the presence of small
[NCERT 1982]
amount of due to the formation of [IIT-JEE
(a) Primary (b) Methyl
1999]
(a) Carbanion (b) Carbene [MH CET 2001]
(c) Free radical (d) Carbocation (a) Tetrahedral (b) Planar
44. The reagent in Friedel Craft's reaction is [DPMT 2005] (c) Triangular bipyramidal (d) None of these
(a) Pyridine (b) 5.
(c) (d)
45. Which gives monosubstituted product [DPMT 2005]
(a) -dinitrobenzene (b) -dinitrobenzene
(c) -dinitrobenzene (d) Nitrobenzene
46. An aromatic compounds among other things should above reaction is [RPMT 2003]
have a -electron cloud containing electrons where (a) (b)
can't be
(c) (d) Both (a) and (b)
[J & K 2005]
6. In electrophilic substitution reaction nitrobenzene is
(a) 1/2 (b) 3
[Kerala (Med.) 2003]
(c) 2 (d) 1
(a) Meta-directing
47. Which of the following is an electrophile [J & K 2005]
(b) Ortho-directing
Te
(a) (b)
(c) Para-directing
(c) (d)
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(d) Not reactive and does not undergo any

48. The presence of the chlorine atom on benzene ring substitution
gr
makes the second substituent enter at a position [J & K (e) Non-selective

am
2005] 7. The most common type of reaction in aromatic

(a) ortho (b) meta compounds is [Orissa JEE 2003]
(c) para (d) ortholpara (a) Elimination reaction
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49. Which is the most stable carbocation [J & K 2005] (b) Addition reaction
C
(a) iso-propyl (b) Triphenylmethyl cation (c) Electrophilic substitution reaction

he
(c) Ethyl cation (d) -propyl cation (d) Rearrangement reaction

8. The function of in Friedel-Craft’s reaction is
m
Organic reactions and their mechanism [KCET 2003]

is
(a) To absorb HCl (b) To absorb water

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1. To which of the following four types does this reaction (c) To produce nucleophile (d) To produce
belong [Manipal MEE 1995] electrophile
_S
(a) Unimolecular electrophilic substitution 9. Which of the following can’t be used in Friedal Craft’s
(b) Bimolecular electrophilic substitution reactions [AFMC 2004]
pa
(c) Unimolecular nucleophilic substitution (a) (b)

rk
(d) Bimolecular nucleophilic substitution

(c) (d) NaCl
2. An alkyl halide may be converted into an alcohol by
10. The nitration of a compound is due to the [Pb. PMT
[Pb. PMT 2000]
2004]
(a) Elimination (b) Addition
(a) (b)
(c) Substitution (d) Dehydrohalogenation
(c) NO (d)
3.
11. Dehydrohalogenation of an alkyl halide is a/an
[MH CET 2004]
The above reaction proceeds through [AMU 2000] (a) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(a) Nucleophilic substitution (b) Elimination reaction
(b) Electrophilic substitution (c) Both nucleophilic substitution and elimination
reaction
(c) Free radical substitution
(d) Rearrangement
(d) More than one of the above processes
12. Addition of HCl to vinyl chloride gives 1, 1-
4. Geometry of reaction intermediate in reaction is
dichloroethane because of [MP PET 2004]
(a) Mesomeric effect of Cl
(b) Inductive effect of Cl is
(c) Restricted rotation around double bond [IIT-JEE Screening 2004]
(d) None of these
O O
13. Formation of ethylene from acetylene is an example of HN HN
(a) Elimination reaction (b) Substitution reaction H3C CH3 H3C CH3
(c) Addition reaction (d) Condensation reaction (a) (b)
14. Conversion of to is an example of
which of the following reaction [Pb. CET 2001] Br Br
(a) Electrophilic substitution O O
(b) Free radical addition HN HN
(c) Nucleophilic substitution H3C CH3 H3C CH3
(d) Free radical substituion (c) (d)
15. Following reaction, Br Br
is an 23. Which one of the following is least reactive in a
Te
example of nucleophilic substitution reaction [CBSE PMT 2004]

[DCE 2002] (a) (b)
le
(a) Elimination reaction (b) Free radical

(c) (d)
gr
substitution
(c) Nucleophilic substitution (d) Electrophilic 24. Among the following the strongest nucleophile is
am
substitution [AIIMS 2005]
16. Which is an electrophile [DCE 2002] (a) (b)

@
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(c) (d) 25. The reaction [AIEEE 2005]
C
17. The electrophile in the nitration of benzene is

he
[Orissa JEE 2004]

, is fastest when
m
(a) (b)
is
(c) (d) is
try
18. The following compound will undergo electrophilic (a) (b)

substitution more readily than benzene [UPSEAT 2004]
(c) (d)
_S
(a) Nitrobenzene (b) Benzoic acid

26. Elimination of bromine from 2-bromobutane results in
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Phenol
the formation of [AIEEE 2004, 05]
pa
19. Which represents nucleophilic aromatic substitution (a) Equimolar mixture of 1 and 2-butene
reaction (b) Predominantly 2-butene
rk
[Orissa JEE 2004]

(c) Predominantly 1-butene
(a) Reaction of benzene with in sunlight (d) Predominantly 2-butyne
(b) Benzyl bromide hydrolysis 27. Examine the following statements pertaining to an
(c) Reaction of NaOH with dinitrofluorobenzene reaction
(d) Sulphonation of benzene (1) The rate of reaction is independent of the
20. Which is an electrophile [DCE 2000] concentration of the nucleophile
(a) (b) (2) The nucleophile attacks the atom on the side
of the molecule opposite to the group being
(c) (d)
displaced
21. Strongest nucleophile is [BHU 2003] (3) The reaction proceeds with simultaneous bond
(a) (b) formation and bond rupture/cleavage
Amongst the following which of the above were true
(c) (d)
[NCERT 1982]
22. The major product obtained when is treated (a) 1, 2 (b) 1, 3
O (c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 2, 3
with
HN
H3C CH3
28. What is the decreasing order of reactivity amongst the (a) (b)
following compounds towards aromatic electrophilic
(c) (d)
substitution [IIT-JEE 1995]
I. Chlorobenzene II. Benzene 4. Isomers have essentially identical
III. Anilinium chloride IV. Toluene [CBSE PMT 1988; MP PMT 1983, 86]
(a) (b) (a) Structural formula (b) Chemical properties
(c) (d) (c) Molecular formula (d) Physical properties
29. Which of the following applies in the reaction, 5. Which one of the following shows optical activity
[NCERT 1984, 90]
(i) (major product)

(ii) (minor product) (a) (b)
[Orissa JEE 2005]
(a) Markovnikov's rule (b) Saytzeff's rule
(c) Kharasch effect (d) Hofmann's rule
(c) (d)
30. Bromination of alkanes involves [J & K 2005]
(a) Carbanions (b) Carbocations
Te
(c) Carbenes (d) Free radicals 6. In ethane and cyclohexane which one of the following
31. Which of the following cannot undergo nucleophilic pairs of conformations are more stable
le
substitution under ordinary conditions [J & K 2005] (a) Eclipsed and chair conformations
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) tert-butylchloride
gr
(b) Staggered and chair conformations

(c) Isopropyl chloride (d) None of these
(c) Staggered and boat conformations
am
32. Which of the following alkyl groups has the maximum

(d) Eclipsed and boat conformations
+ I effect [KCET 2002]
7. Which of the following may exist in enantiomorphs
(a) (b)
@
[CBSE PMT 1988]

(c) (d)
C
(a)
he
Structural and stereo isomerism

(b)
m
1. Only two isomers of monochloro product is possible

of
is
(c)
[IIT-JEE 1986]
try
(a) n-butane (b) 2,4-dimethyl pentane

_S
(c) Benzene (d) 1-methyl propane

(d)
2. Which is the example of branch isomerization
pa
[NCERT 1976] 8. Which of the following compounds may not exist as

enantiomers [CPMT 1987]
rk
(a)
(a) – C and
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b) and
9. Number of isomers of molecular formula
are
[CPMT 1987]
(c) and (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 0
10. Lactic acid shows which type of isomerism
[CPMT 1987; MP PMT 1987; BHU 2003]
(d) and
(a) Geometrical isomerism (b) Tautomerism
3. The isomer of diethyl ether is [CPMT 1975] (c) Optical isomerism (d) Metamerism
11. Which one of the following is an optically active
compound (c)
[CBSE PMT 1988; DPMT 1983]
(a) n-propanol (b) 2-chlorobutane
(d)
(c) n-butanol (d) 4-hydroxyheptane
21. Which of the following pairs is an example of position
12. Compounds with same molecular formula but
isomerism
different structural formulae are called [BHU 1979;
AFMC 1989] (a) and
(a) Isomers (b) Isotopes
(c) Isobars (d) Isoelectronic
13. Which one of the following compounds shows optical
isomerism [MP PET 1990] (b) and
(a)
(b)
(c) and
(c)
(d)
Te
14. Which one of the following objects is ‘achiral’ (d) and

(a) Letter P (b) Letter F
le
(c) Ball (d) A pair of hand

gr
15. Total number of isomers of a disubstituted benzene

am
compound is 22. Geometrical isomerism is shown by

(a) 1 (b) 2 [IIT-JEE 1983; CPMT 1990, 94; CBSE PMT 1992;
(c) 3 (d) 4 MP PET 1997; AMU (Engg.) 1999]
@
16. Separating of d and l enantiomorphs from a racemic (a) 2-butene (b) 2-butyne
mixture is called [CBSE PMT 1988; DPMT 1983;
C
(c) 2-butanol (d) Butanal

KCET 2002]
he
(a) Resolution (b) Dehydration 23. An organic compound exhibits optical isomerism
when
(c) Rotation (d) Dehydrohalogenation
m
[CPMT 1971, 78, 81; MP PET 1999]

17. Number of optical isomers of lactic acid are
is
(a) Four groups linked to carbon atom are different

(a) 1 (b) 2
(b) Three groups linked to carbon atom are different
try
(c) 3 (d) 4
(c) Two groups linked to carbon atom are different
18. Which one of the following contains asymmetric
_S
carbon atom [IIT-JEE 1989; Roorkee 2000] (d) All the groups linked to carbon atom are same
24. Which one of the following exhibits geometrical
pa
isomerism
(a) (b) [NCERT 1979; DPMT 1984; CBSE PMT 1990]
rk
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
19. n-butane and isobutane are examples of
(a) Chain isomers (b) Geometrical isomers 25. Maximum number of isomers of alkene are
(c) Position isomers (d) Tautomers [IIT-JEE 1982; MP PMT 1985; MADT Bihar 1995;
Kerala (Engg.) 2002]
20. Which of the following has chiral structure
(a) 2 (b) 3
(a) (c) 4 (d) 6
26. Rotation of plane polarised light is measured by
[CPMT 1985; DCE 2001]
(b)
(a) Manometer (b) Polarimeter
(c) Viscometer (d) Refractometer 37. Which of the following compounds exhibits optical
27. An alkane forms isomers if the number of least carbon isomerism [BHU 1983; AFMC 1990; CPMT 1993;
atom is [CPMT 1976; BHU 1985, 89] MP PMT 1999, 2000]
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) (b)

(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) (d)
28. Which is not found in alkenes [AIIMS 1982; RPMT 1999]
38. The maximum number of stereoisomers possible for
(a) Chain isomerism (b) Geometrical isomerism
2-hydroxy-2-methyl butanoic acid is [Roorkee 1992]
(c) Metamerism (d) Position isomerism
(a) 1 (b) 2
29. How many isomers of will be primary (c) 3 (d) 4
alcohols 39. Which one of the following pairs represents the
[CBSE PMT 1992] stereoisomerism [AIIMS 1992]
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) Geometrical isomerism, position isomerism
(c) 4 (d) 5 (b) Geometrical isomerism, conformational
30. The compound can show isomerism
[IIT-JEE 1981; MP PET 2000] (c) Optical isomerism, geometrical isomerism
Te
(a) Metamerism (b) Functional isomerism (d) Optical isomerism, metamerism

(c) Positional isomerism (d) All types 40. Diethyl ether is not associated with which one of these
le
31. The number of possible alcoholic isomers for isomers [AFMC 1993]
gr
are (a) Butanoic acid (b) Methyl propionate

am
[DPMT 1984; MNR 1986] (c) Steroisomerism (d) None of these

(a) 4 (b) 2 41. Diethyl ether and methyl n-propyl ether are
[MP PET 1994; AFMC 1999; MP PMT 2002]
(c) 3 (d) 5
@
(a) Position isomers (b) Functional isomers

32. How many isomers are possible for
(c) Metamers (d) Chain isomers
C
[MNR 1992; UPSEAT 2001, 02]

42. n-propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol are examples of
he
(a) 3 (b) 4
[MP PMT 1994]
(c) 5 (d) 6
m
(a) Position isomerism (b) Chain isomerism

33. Which of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism (c) Tautomerism (d) Geometrical isomerism
is
[CBSE PMT 1989]

43. It is possible to distinguish between optical isomers by
try
(a) HC CH (b) ClCH = CHCl [Manipal MEE 1995; AFMC 1995]

_S
(c) (d) (a) Infrared spectroscopy

34. The number of geometrical isomers in case of a (b) Mass spectrometry
pa
compound with the structure (c) Melting point determination

is (d) Polarimetry
rk
[NCERT 1980] 44. The isomerism exhibited by alkyl cyanide and alkyl
isocyanide is [AFMC 1995, 97]
(a) 4 (b) 3
(a) Functional (b) Positional
(c) 2 (d) 5
(c) Tautomerism (d) Metamerism
35. The property by virtue of which a compound can turn
the plane polarised light is known as [BHU 1979] 45. The following compound can exhibits
(a) Photolysis (b) Phosphorescence

(c) Optical activity (d) Polarization [IIT-JEE 1995; DCE
36. Meso-tartaric acid is optically inactive due to the

presence of 2000]
[AIIMS 1982; MP PMT 1987] (a) Tautomerism
(a) Molecular symmetry (b) Optical isomerism
(b) Molecular asymmetry (c) Geometrical isomerism
(c) External compensation (d) Geometrical and optical isomerisms
(d) Two asymmetric C-atoms
46. Name the compound, that is not isomer with diethyl (e) None of these
ether 55. Which of the following contains asymmetric centre
[IIT-JEE 1981; CPMT 1989; MADT Bihar 1995] [CPMT 1996]
(a) n-propylmethyl ether (a) 2-butene (b) 2, 2-dimethylpropane
(b) Butane-1-ol (c) 2-hexyne (d) Lactic acid
(c) 2-methylpropane-2-ol 56. Which of the following cannot be given to exemplify
(d) Butanone chiral structure [JIPMER 1997]
47. Which statement is true for cyclohexane [MP PET 1996] (a) A shoe (b) A screw
(a) It has two possible isomers (c) A screw driver (d) All of these
(b) It has three conformations 57. Which of the following is expected to be optically
(c) Boat conformation is most stable active
(d) Chair and boat conformations differ in energy by [JIPMER 1997]
44 kJ/mol (a) (b)
48. Two compounds have the structural formulae
and .
(c) (d)
The above is an example of
Te
58. Which compound does not show geometrical

(a) Metamerism (b) Functional isomerism
isomerism
le
(c) Positional isomerism (d) Chain isomerism

[RPMT 1997]
gr
49. Which of the following pairs are not isomeric

(a) 2-butene (b) 2-pentene
compounds
am
(c) 2,3-dibromo-2-butene (d) 2-methyl propene

(a) Ethyl ethanoate and methyl propanoate
59. The isomers which can be converted into another
(b) Butanone and butanal
forms by rotation of the molecules around single
@
(c) Ethoxy propane and propoxy ethane bond are

(d) Methoxy methane and ethanol [AIIMS 1997]
C
50. Functional isomerism is exhibited by the following pair (a) Geometrical isomers (b) Conformers
he
of compounds (c) Enantiomers (d) Diastereomers

(a) Acetone, propionaldehyde 60. The number of enantiomers of the compound
m
(b) Diethyl ether, methyl propyl ether is [AIIMS 1997]

is
(c) Butane, isobutane

(a) 0 (b) 1
try
(d) 1-butene, 2-butene

(c) 3 (d) 4
51. The total number of possible isomeric trimethyl
_S
61. and exhibit which type of

benzene is
[MP PET 1997] isomerism [CPMT 1997]
pa
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) Position (b) Functional

(c) Dextro isomerism (d) Metamerism
rk
(c) 4 (d) 6
62. Which of the following compounds is not chiral
52. Optically active isomers but not mirror images are
[CBSE PMT 1998; DPMT 2002]
called
[MP PET 1999] (a) (b)
(a) Enantiomers (b) Mesomers (c) (d)
(c) Tautomers (d) Diastereoisomers 63. cis and trans 2-butene are [BHU 1998; DPMT 2002]
53. has how many isomeric forms that contain (a) Conformational isomers (b) Optical isomers
a benzene ring [CPMT 1997, 99; JIPMER 2002; DCE 2003] (c) Position isomers (d) Geometrical isomers
(a) 4 (b) 5 64. Which one of the following is the chiral molecule
(c) 6 (d) 7 [BHU 1998; 2005]
54. The total number of isomers formed by is (a) (b)
[Bihar MEE 1996] (c) (d)

(a) 2 (b) 3 65. Cyanide and isocyanide are isomers of type [AFMC
(c) 4 (d) 5 1997]
(a) Positional (b) Functional
(c) Tautomer (d) Structural (c) 2-phenyl-1-butene (d) 1, 1-Diphenyl-1-
66. Glucose and fructose are [AMU (Engg.) 1999] propene
(a) Optical isomers (b) Functional isomers 78. On bromination, propionic acid yields two isomeric 2-
(c) Position isomers (d) Chain isomers bromopropionic acids. This pair is an important
67. Which of the following compounds which is an example of [BHU 2000]
optically active compound [UPSEAT 1999] (a) Chain isomers (b) Optical isomers
(a) 1-butanol (b) 2-butanol (c) Cis-trans isomers (d) Position isomers
(c) 3-butanol (d) 4-heptanol 79. Geometrical isomerism is not possible in [CPMT 2000]
68. d-tartaric acid and l-tartaric acid are [MH CET 1999] (a) Propene (b) 3-hexane
(a) Enantiomers (b) Tautomers (c) Butenedioic acid (d) Cyclic compound
(c) Diastereoisomers (d) Structural isomers 80. Only two isomeric monochloro derivatives are
69. Minimum resistance in bond rotation will be observed possible for
in the compound [RPMT 1999] [Pb. PMT 2000]
(a) Hexachloroethane (b) Ethylene (a) 2-methyl propane (b) n-pentane
(c) Acetylene (d) Ethane (c) Benzene (d) 2, 4-dimethyl pentane
70. Which pair show cis-trans isomerism [RPET 1999]
81. Lactic acid in which a methyl group, a hydroxyl group,
Te
(a) Maleic-fumaric acid (b) Lactic-tartaric acid a carboxylic acid group and a hydrogen atom are
(c) Malonic-succinic acid (d) Crotonic-acrylic acid attached to a central carbon atom, shown optical
le
71. 1, 2-Dichloroethene shows [RPET 1999] isomerism due to the molecular geometry at the [Pb.
gr
(a) Geometrical isomerism (b) Optical isomerism PMT 2000]

am
(c) Ring-chain isomerism (d) Resonance (a) Central carbon atom

72. Which compound is optically active [DCE 1999] (b) Carbon atom of the methyl group
(a) 4-chloro, 1 hydroxy butane (c) Carbon atom of the carboxylic acid group
@
(b) -butyl alcohol (d) Oxygen of the hydroxyl groups

C
(c) Secondary butyl amine 82. The number of possible alkynes with molecular
he
(d) n-butyl alcohol formula is [MP PMT 2000]

73. Choose the pair of chain isomer [RPMT 2000] (a) 2 (b) 3
m
(a) and (c) 4 (d) 5

is
(b) 1-propanol and 2-propanol 83. Which of the following will not lose asymmetry on
try
(c) Neo-pentane and isopentane reduction with [Roorkee 2000]

(d) Diethyl ether and methyl-n-propyl ether
_S
74. Optical isomerism arises due to the presence of

(a)
[RPMT 2000]
pa
(a) An asymmetric carbon atom

(b) Centre of symmetry
rk
(c) Axis of symmetry (b)

(d) Plane of symmetry
75. Least hindered rotation about carbon-carbon bond is
observed in [RPMT 2000]
(a) Ethane (b) Ethylene (c)
(c) Ethyne (d) Hexachloroethane
76. Which pair represents chain isomer [RPMT 2000]
(a) and (d)

(b) n-propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol
(c) 2-methyl-1 propanol and 2-Methyl-2 propanol 84. Reason for geometrical isomerism by 2-butene is
(d) 2-methyl butane and neopentane [CBSE PMT 2000]
77. Which of the following compounds will exhibit (a) Chiral carbon
geometrical isomerism [IIT-JEE Screening 2000] (b) Free rotation about single bond
(a) 1-phenyl-2-butene (b) 3-phenyl-1-butene (c) Free rotation about double bond
(d) Restricted rotation about double bond 94. The number of possible isomers of the compound
85. Stereoisomers which are not the mirror images of one with molecular formula is [BHU 2001]
another are called [RPMT 2000] (a) 3 (b) 5
(a) Enantiomers (b) Mesomers (c) 7 (d) 9
(c) Tautomers (d) Diasteroisomers 95. The number of isomers for the compound with
86. The isomerism shown by n-butyl alcohol and isobutyl molecular formula is [IIT-JEE (Screening)
alcohol is [RPMT 2000]
2001]
(a) Metamerism (b) Chain (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) Position (d) Stereo (c) 5 (d) 6
87. Which is optically active [MH CET 2001]
96. Hydrogenation of the adjoining compound in the
(a) presence of poisoned palladium catalyst gives
[IIT-JEE (Screening) 2001]
(b)
Me
(c) Meso form of tartaric acid
(d) Glyceraldehyde
H
88. Which of the following will show geometrical
Te
isomerism
(a) An optically active compound
[CPMT 2001; BHU 2005]
le
(b) An optically inactive compound

(a) (b)
gr
(c) A racemic mixture

am
(d) A diastereomeric mixture

(c) (d)
97. The number of possible structural isomers for a
compound with the molecular formula is [DCE
@
89. What is the maximum number of open chain 2001]

C
structures possible for [MP PET 2001] (a) 8 (b) 9

he
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 10 (d) 12

(c) 4 (d) 1 98. Which of the following molecule contains asymmetric
m
90. Glucose has optical isomers [DCE 2001] carbon atom [JIPMER 2002]
is
(a) 8 (b) 12 (a) (b)

try
(c) 16 (d) Cannot be predicted (c) (d)

91. An organic compound
_S
99. A similarity between optical and geometrical

isomerism is that [AIEEE 2002]
pa
To make it chiral compound the attack should be on (a) Each forms equal number of isomers for a given
which carbon atom [DCE 2001] compound
rk
(a) 1 (b) 3
(b) If in a compound one is present then so is the
(c) 4 (d) 7
other
92. Which of the following statements is not true about
(c) Both are included in stereoisomerism
enantiomers [DCE 2001]
(a) They have same physical properties (d) They have no similarity
(b) They have different biological properties 100. If the light waves pass through a nicol prism then all
(c) They have same chemical properties towards the oscillations occur only in one plane, such beam of
chiral compounds light is called as [Kerala (Med.) 2002]
(d) None of these (a) Non-polarised light (b) Plane polarised light
93. Meso-tartaric acid is [BHU 2001] (c) Polarised light (d) Optical light
(a) Optically inactive 101. Racemic mixture is formed by mixing two [AIEEE 2002]
(b) Optically active because of molecular symmetry (a) Isomeric compounds (b) Chiral compounds
(c) Optically inactive due to external compensation
(c) Meso compounds (d) Optical isomers
(d) Optically active because of asymmetric carbon
atom
102. Which of the following does not show geometrical (c) (d) None of these
isomerism [AIEEE 2002]
112. Which of the following is an chiral compound
(a) 1, 2 dichloro-1-pentene [AIIMS 2002]
(b) 1, 3-dichloro-2-pentene (a) Hexane (b) Methane
(c) 1, 1-dichloro-1-pentene (c) n-butane (d) 2,3,4-trimethyl hexane
(d) 1, 4-dichloro-2-pentene 113. What is the possible number of optical isomers for a
compound containing 2-dissimilar asymmetric carbon
atom
103. and
[CPMT 1999; UPSEAT 1999, 2000, 02]
(a) 2 (b) 4
exhibit which isomerism [MP PET 2002]
(c) 6 (d) 8
(a) Position isomerism (b) Geometrical isomerism
114. Which of the following compounds is optically active
(c) Optical isomerism (d) Functional isomerism [Pb. PMT 2001; AMU 2002; Kerala (Med.) 2003]
104. Which compound is chiral [RPMT 2002]
(a) (b)
(a) butane
Te
(b) 1-chloro-2-methyl butane (c) (d)

(c) 2-methyl butane 115. Optically active compound is [UPSEAT 2002]
le
(d) 2-methyl propane (a) 3-chloropentane (b) 2-chlorobutane

gr
105. Methyl acetate and propionic acid are [RPMT 2002] (c) 2-chloropropane (d) None of these
am
(a) Functional isomer (b) Structural isomer 116. If a carbon atom is attached to
(c) Stereoisomer (d) Geometrical isomer and number of chiral C – atoms in
106. Which compound shows cis-trans isomerism [CPMT
@
compound is
2002]
[RPMT 2003]
(a) 1-butene (b) 2-propene
C
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 2-butene (d) Benzene
he
107. Isomers of propionic acid are [MP PMT 2002] (c) 3 (d) 4
m
117. Isomerism due to rotation round single bond of

(a) and
carbon-carbon is [UPSEAT 2003]
is
(b) and
(a) Conformation (b) Enantiomerism
try
(c) and (c) Diasterio isomerism (d) Position isomerism

_S
(d) and 118. Which of the following pairs of compounds are

108. The functional isomer of ethyl alcohol is [MP PMT 2002] enantiomers
pa
(a) (b) [CBSE PMT 2003]

rk
(c) (d)
109. Disymmetric object is one which is [Kerala (Engg.) 2002] (a) and
(a) Superimposable on its mirror image
(b) Non-superimposible on its mirror image
(c) Optically inactive
(d) Achiral
(b) and
110. Geometrical isomers differ in [CBSE PMT 2002]
(a) Position of atoms
(b) Length of carbon
(c) Spatial arrangement of atoms
(d) Position of functional group (c) and
111. Which of the following hydride is capable of showing
conformations [JIPMER 2002]
(a) (b)
(a) Diethyl ketone and methyl propyl ketone are
position isomers
(d) and (b) 2-chloro pentane and 1-chloro pentane are
position isomers
(c) n-butane and 2-methyl propane are chain isomers
119. (d) Acetone and propinaldehyde are functional
isomers
126. Dimethyl ether and ethyl alcohol are
[MH CET 2004; Pb. CET 2002]
(a) Metamers (b) Homologues
How many structures of F is possible (c) Functional isomers (d) Position isomers
[IIT-JEE (Screening) 2003] 127. The correct statement about the compounds A and B
is
(a) 2 (b) 5
[DCE 2002; UPSEAT 2004; IIT-JEE 1997; DPMT 2005]
(c) 6 (d) 3
120. An enantiomerically pure acid is treated with racemic
mixture of an alcohol having one chiral carbon. The
Te
ester formed will be [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2003]

le
(a) Optically active mixture (b) Pure enantiomer (A) (B)

gr
(c) Meso compound (d) Racemic mixture (a) A and B are identical
(b) A and B are diastereomers
am
121. Which one of the following will not show geometrical

(c) A and B are enantiomers
isomerism [MP PMT 2003]
(d) None of these
128. Ethyl acetoacetate shows, which type of isomerism
@
(a) (b) [Pb. CET 2003]

C
(a) Chain (b) Optical

(c) Metamerism (d) Tautomerism
he
129. Which of the following will have a mesoisomer also

(c) (d) [AIEEE 2004]
m
(a) 2, 3-Dichloropentane
is
(b) 2, 3-Dichlorobutane
122. Isomerism shown by
try
(c) 2-Chlorobutane
(d) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
_S
130. For which of the following parameters the structural

isomers and would be
pa
is expected to have the same values ? (Assume ideal

behaviour) [AIEEE 2004]
rk
[RPMT 2003]
(a) Boiling points
(a) Position isomerism (b) Chain isomerism
(b) Vapour pressure at the same temperature
(c) Metamerism (d) Optical isomerism (c) Heat of vaporization
123. A compound whose molecules are superimposable on (d) Gaseous densities at the same temperature and
their mirror images even through they contain an pressure
asymmetric carbon atom is called [Kerala (Med.) 2003]
131. The geometrical isomerism is shown by [AIIMS 2004]
(a) A meso compound (b) An erythro isomer
CH2 CH2
(c) A threo isomer (d) a glycol
(a) (b)
124. Of the following, the compound possessing optical
isomerism [Kerala (Med.) 2003]
(a) (b) CH Cl CH Cl
(c) (d) (c) (d)
125. Which of the following statement is wrong [EAMCET

2003] 132. Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans
isomerism [Kerala PMT 2004]
(a) 2-butene (b) 2-butyne (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 2-butanol (d) Butanone (c) 1 (d) 2
(e) Butanol 141. Which one of the following pairs represents
133. Which of the following compounds exhibit stereoisomerism
stereoisomerism [CBSE PMT 2005]
[MP PMT 2004] (a) Chain isomerism and rotational isomerism
(a) 2-methyl-butane I (b) 3-methyl-butanoic acid (b) Structural isomerism and geometric isomerism
(c) 3-methyl-butyne I (d) 2-methyl butanoic acid (c) Linkage isomerism and geometric isomerism
134. The chirality of the compound [CBSE PMT 2005] (d) Optical isomerism and geometric isomerism
142. When isomers have the same structural formula but
differ in relative arrangement of atoms or groups are
called
[CPMT 2000; KCET (Med.) 2000]
(a) R (b) S (a) Mesomers (b) Stereoisomers
(c) Z (d) E (c) Optical isomers (d) Geometrical
135. Which of the following is most likely to show optical mesomers
Te
isomerism [UPSEAT 2004] 143. and

show
le
(a) (b) (a) Chain isomerism (b) Position isomerism

gr
(c) Functional isomerism (d) Metamerism

144. The number of possible isomers of butene are
am
[Kerala (Engg.) 2002]

(a) 3 (b) 2
@
(c) 4 (d) 5
(e) 6
C
145. Which of the following show geometrical isomerism

he
(c) (d)
[BCECE 2005]
(a) (b)
m
136. Nitroethane can exhibit one of the following kind of

(c) (d)
is
isomerism [DCE 2004]

146. Among the following the most stable compound is
try
(a) Metamerism (b) Optical activity

[AIIMS 2005]
(c) Tautomerism (d) Position isomerism
(a)
_S
137. shows [BVP 2004]

(b)
(a) Geometrical isomerism (b) Optical isomerism
pa
(c)
(c) Both (d) None
(d)
rk
138. Which will have enantiomer [BVP 2004]

147. Chirality of carbon compound is because of its
(a) (b)
(a) Tetrahedral nature of carbon
(b) Monovalent nature of carbon
(c) Divalent nature of carbon
(c) (d) None
(d) Trivalent nature of carbon
139. The total number of acylic isomers including the 148. Which kind of isomerism is possible for 1-chloro-2-
stereoisomers with the molecular formula nitroethene [J & K 2005]
[Pb. CET 2004] (a) Functional group isomerism
(a) 11 (b) 12 (b) Position isomerism
(c) 9 (d) 10 (c) isomerism
140. The number of possible enantiomeric pairs that can (d) Optical isomerism
be produced during mono-chlorination of 2- 149. Which will give chiral molecule [DPMT 2005]
methylbutane is
(a)
[Pb. CET 2004]
(d) Staggered conformation
(b)
2. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane,
(c)
CH2
, is
How many structural isomers are possible when one
(d)
of the hydrogens is replaced by a chlorine atom [CBSE
PMT 2004]
150. Which of the following will be chiral (a) 8 (b) 7
[J & K 2005] (c) 6 (d) 4
(a) (b) 3. reaction is faster in [Orissa JEE 2004]
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
151. Which of the following fischer projection formula is
same as -Glyceraldehyde [Kerala CET 2005]
(c) (d)
(a)
Te
le
4. How many enantiomer pairs are obtained by

gr
(b) monochlorination of 2, 3-dimethylbutane [Kerala PMT

2004]
am
(a) Nil (b) Four
(c) (c) Two (d) Three

@
(e) One
5. Among the following compounds which can be
C
dehydrated very easily is [AIEEE 2004]

he
(d)
m
(a)
is
(e)
try
(b)
_S
pa
(c)
rk
(d)
1. In the given conformation is rotated about 6. Which of the following statements is not characteristic
of free radical chain reaction [JIPMER 1997]
bond anticlockwise by an angle of 120° then
(a) It gives major product derived from most stable
the conformation obtained is [AIIMS 2004]
C 4 free radical
CH3
(b) It is usually sensitive to change in solvent polarity
H H
C3 (c) It proceeds in three main steps like initiation,
C2 propagation and termination
H H
(d) It may be initiated by U.V. light
CH3
C1 7. Most stable carbanion is [BHU 2003]
(a) (b)
(a) Fully eclipsed conformation
(b) Partially eclipsed conformation
(c) Gauche conformation
(a) Optical rotation and is derived from D-glucose
(b) pH in organic solvent
(c) (d) (c) Optical rotation and is derived from D(+)
glyceraldehyde
(d) Optical rotation only when substituted by
8. Among the following the dissociation constant is deuterium
highest for 16. Among the following compounds (I-III) the correct
[AIIMS 2004] order of reaction with electrophilic reagent is [CBSE
(a) (b) PMTOCH
1997]
3 NO2
(c) (d)
9. Which one of the following compounds is most acidic
I I II
[CBSE PMT 2005] I I
OH
(a) (b) (a) II > III > I (b) III II > III (d) I = II > III
le
OH OH
17. Carbocation which is most stable [BHU 2003]
gr
(c) (d)
CH3 (a) (b)
am
10. Which one is electrophilic addition [AMU (Engg.) 1999] (c) (d)
@
(a)
18. Tautomerism is exhibited by
(b)
C
[CBSE PMT 1997; KCET 2002]

he
(c)
(a) (b)
(d)
m
(c) (d)
11. A compound has 3 chiral carbon atoms. The number
is
of possible optical isomers it can have [DCE 2004] 19. Which of the following will have geometrical isomers
try
(a) 3 (b) 2 [MP PET 1996; MP PMT 1997; AFMC 1997]

_S
(c) 8 (d) 4 (a) 2-methylpropene (b) 2-butene

12. How many chiral isomers can be drawn from 2-bromo,
pa
(c) 1-butene (d) Propene

3-chloro butane [DCE 2003]
20. Examine the following three pairs of possible isomers
rk
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5 Cl CH3
13. Number of isomers of is Cl
COOH
[CBSE PMT 1996; AFMC 1997; RPMT 2002; MP PMT 1997] CH3
(ia) (iia) HOOC
(a) 2 (b) 3 (iiia)
(c) 4 (d) Isomerism not exist

COOH
14. The number of possible isomers for compound
Cl H3C CH3
is [MP PMT 1999]
Cl COOH
(a) 2 (b) 3 (ib) (iib (iiib)
)
(c) 4 (d) 5
Now state whether the pairs represent identical
15. The optically active tartaric acid is named as D-(+)-
compounds or different isomers
tartaric acid because it has a positive [IIT-JEE 1999]
(a) All three pairs represent different compounds
(b) (ia) and (ib) are identical; (iia) and (iib) are identical; (a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
and (iiia) and (iiib) are identical (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
25. Which of the following is the most stable cation
(c) (ia) and (ib) are isomers; (iia) and (iib) are identical;
[CBSE PMT 1988; MNR 1988; AIIMS 1985]
and (iiia) and (iiib) are isomers
(d) (ia) and (ib) are identical; (iia) and (iib) are identical,
(a) (b)
and (iiia) and (iiib) are isomers
21. Tautomerism is exhibited by [IIT-JEE 1998]
(c) (d)
(a) CH = CH – OH
26. In a reaction of the major product (> 60%)
is m-isomer, so the group Y is [AIIMS 1997; UPSEAT 2003]
(b) O O
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) O
27. Dehydrohalogenation in presence of is correctly
Te
O
represented by [Orissa JEE 2004]
Br Br
le
(d) O
(a) (b)
gr
O H H
OH– OH–
am
22. The following reaction is described as [CBSE PMT 1997] 

Br OH  Br
OH
(c) (d)
@
H H
C
(a) (b) 28. Number of structural isomers of are

he
[CPMT 1983, 84, 89, 91; MADT Bihar 1984;

(c) (d)
MNR 1984; MP PET 1997; Pb. PMT 1999; MH CET 2003]
m
23. Which one of the following represents eclipsed form (a) 3 (b) 6
of ethane
is
H (c) 7 (d) 10
try
H H H H H H 29. Among the following the aromatic compound is

[AIIMS 2004]
_S
(a) (b) (a) (b)

H H
H H H + +
pa
H (c) (d)
rk
H H
(c) (d) None of these 30. Which of the following compounds are not arranged
H H in order of decreasing reactivity towards electrophilic
H substitution [DCE 2003]
(a) Fluoro benzene > chloro benzene > bromo
24. Which are the staggered forms of ethane
H H benzene
HH
H C (b) Phenol > n-propyl benzene > benzoic acid
(c) Chloro toluene > para-nitro toluene > 2-chloro-4-
H H C H
H H nitro toluene
1 H H 2 (d) Benzoic acid > phenol > n-propyl benzene
H 31. Most stable carbonium ion is [Pb. CET 2004]
H
H (a) (b)
H C H H
H
H H (c) (d)
C
3 4
H H H
32. Which one of the following species is most stable (a) (b)
[IIT-JEE 1995]
(c) (d)
(a)
41. Keto-enol tautomerism is found in
(b) [IIT-JEE 1988; MADT Bihar 1995]
(c) (a)
(d)
(b)
33. Which of the following gives most stable carbocation
by dehydration [RPMT 2002]
(a) (c)
(b)
(c) (d)
(d)
42. Which of the following compounds will show
Te
34. Which of the following orders regarding relative

geometrical isomerism [IIT-JEE 1998]
stability of free radicals is correct [UPSEAT 2004]
le
(a) 3° < 2° < 1° (b) 3° > 2° > 1° (a) 2-butene (b) Propene
(c) 1° < 2° > 3° (d) 3° > 2° < 1° (c) 1-phenylpropene (d) 2-methyl-2-butene
gr
35. The +I effect of alkyl groups is in the order [DCE 2002]

43. Which behaves both as a nucleophile and electrophile
am
(a) 2° > 3° > 1° (b) 1° > 2° > 3°

(c) 3° > 2° > 1° (d) None of these [IIT-JEE Screening 1991; Pb. CET 1985]
36. Which one has asymmetric C-atom [Roorkee 1995] (a) (b)
@
(a) (c) (d)

C
44. The number of optical isomers of an organic

he
(b) compound having n asymmetric carbon atoms will be

[MP PET 1994]
m
(a) (b)
is
(c)
try
(c) (d)
45. Total number of isomers of are

_S
(d)
[IIT-JEE 1987; DPMT 1983; CPMT 1991;
pa
MNR 1990; MP PET 1995; UPSEAT 2001]

37. Which of the following compounds will show
metamerism (a) 4 (b) 5
rk
[KCET 1996] (c) 6 (d) 7

(a) (b)
46. With a change in hybridisation of the carbon bearing
(c) (d) the charge, the stability of a carbanion increase in the
38. How many carbon atoms in the molecule order
are asymmetric [DCE 2003]
[MP PET 2001]
(a) (b)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None of these (c) (d)
39. Which of the following act as nucleophiles [Roorkee
47. The C - C bond length of the following molecules is in
1999]
the order [IIT-JEE 1991]
(a) (b)
(a)
(c) (d)
40. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity (b)
[IIT-JEE Screening 2000]
(c)
(d) Reason : In the chair form, there will not be
hydrogen bonding between the two
48. In the reaction
hydroxyl groups.
a chiral [AIIMS 2003]
centre is produced. This product would be 5. Assertion : Hydroxyketones are not directly used in
[CBSE PMT 1995] Grignard reaction.
(a) Laevorotatory (b) Meso compound Reason : Grignard reagents react with hydroxyl
group.
(c) Dextrorotatory (d) Racemic mixture
[AIIMS 2003]
49. Cyclic hydrocarbon molecule ‘A’ has all the carbon and 6. Assertion : Benzyl bromide when kept in acetone
hydrogen in a single plane. All the carbon-carbon water it produces benzyl alcohol.
bonds are of same length less than 1.54Å, but more Reason : The reaction follows SN2 mechanism.
than 1.34Å. The bond angle will be [BVP 2003] [AIIMS 2003]
(a) (b) 7. Assertion : Carbon possesses property of
catenation.
(c) (d)
Reason : Carbon atoms form double as well as
50. How many structural isomers are possible for a
Te
triple bonds during catenation.

compound with molecular formula [CBSE 8. Assertion : Olefins have the general formula
le
PMT 2001] .
gr
(a) 2 (b) 5 Reason : There is one double bond between two

(c) 7 (d) 9 carbon atoms in their molecules.
am
9. Assertion : Saturated hydrocarbons are chemically

less reactive.
@
Reason : All isomeric paraffins have same parent

name.
C
10. Assertion : A mixture of glucose and m-

he
dinitrobenzene can be separated by

shaking it with ether.
m
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct

option out of the options given below: Reason : Glucose is soluble in water.
is
11. Assertion : Tertiary carbonium ions are generally

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
try
the correct explanation of the assertion. formed more easily than primary
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not carbonium ions.
_S
the correct explanation of the assertion. Reason : Hyperconjugative as well as inductive

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. effect due to additional alkyl groups
pa
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false. stabilize tertiary carbonium ions.
(e) If assertion is false but reason is true. 12. Assertion : Heterolytic fission involves the breaking
rk
of a covalent bond in such a way that

1. Assertion : Aniline is better nucleophile than anilium both the electrons of the shared pair are
ion. carried away by one of the atoms.
Reason : Anilium ion have +ve charge. [AIIMS 1996] Reason : Heterolytic fission occurs readily in polar
2. Assertion : Neopentane forms one mono covalent bonds.
substituted compound. 13. Assertion : The order of reactivity of carbonium ions
Reason : Neopentane is isomer of pentane. is .
[AIIMS 2001]
Reason : Carbon atom in carbonium ions is in
3. Assertion : Trans-2-butene on reaction with
state of hybridisation.
gives meso-2, 3-dibromobutane.
14. Assertion : Free radicals are short lived and highly
Reason : The reaction involves syn-addition of
reactive.
bromine. [AIIMS 2003]
Reason : Free radicals are highly unstable.
4. Assertion : Cis-1, 3-dihydroxy cyclohexane exists in
15. Assertion : Each carbon in ethylene molecule is
boat conformation.
hybridised.
Reason : The bond angle in ethylene
molecule is 120°.
16. Assertion : Cyclohexanone exhibits keto-enol
tautomerism.
Reason : In cyclohexanone, one form contains the
keto group (C = O) while other contains
enolic group .
17. Assertion : Staggered form is less stable than the
eclipsed form.
Reason : The conformation in which the bond
pairs of two central atoms are very far
from one another is called staggered
form.
18. Assertion : Trans isomers are more stable than cis
isomer.
Reason : The cis isomer is the one in which two
Te
similar groups are on the same side of

double bond.
le
19. Assertion : Propadiene is optically active.

gr
Reason : Propadiene has a plane of symmetry.

am
20. Assertion : Lactic acid is optically active.

Reason : A symmetry in the inner structure of the
organic compound causes optical
@
activity.
21. Assertion : Same number of electron pairs are
C
present in resonance structures.

he
Reason : Resonance structures differ in the

m
location of electrons around the

constituent atoms.
is
22. Assertion : Carbon-oxygen bonds are of equal

try
length in carbonate ion.

Reason : Bond length decreases with the
_S
multiplicity of bond between two atoms.

pa
rk
1. The most stable conformation of n-butane is (a) (b)
[CBSE PMT 1997]
(c) (d)
(a) Skew boat (b) Eclipsed
11. How many primary amines are possible for the
(c) Gauche (d) Staggered
formula [MNR 1995]
2. Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic
(a) 1 (b) 2
substitution by mechanism [CBSE PMT 2005]
(c) 3 (d) 4
(a) Benzyl chloride (b) Ethyl chloride
12. On monochlorination of 2-methyl butane, the total
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Isopropyl chloride number of chiral compounds is [IIT-JEE Screening 2004]
Te
3. Which type of isomerism is shown by propanal and (a) 2 (b) 4

propanone [CPMT 2004]
(c) 6 (d) 8
le
(a) Functional group (b) Metamerism 13. An isomer of ethanol is

gr
(c) Tautomerism (d) Chain isomerism [DPMT 1982, 88; CPMT 1973, 75, 78, 84; IIT-JEE 1986;
4. Which of the following exhibits optical isomerism BHU 1984, 85; EAMCET 1993; MP PET 1995;
am
[BHU 1980; NCERT 1983; AIIMS 1992; RPET 1999; BHU 2000; AFMC 2002]
MNR 1993; MP PMT 1990, 94] (a) Methanol (b) Dimethyl ether
@
(a) Butanol-1 (b) Butanol-2 (c) Diethyl ether (d) Ethylene glycol
(c) Butene-1 (d) Butene-2 14. Due to the presence of an unpaired electron, free
C
5. In carbonium ion the carbon bearing the positive radicals are

he
charge in the [Pb. PMT 1999; MH CET 2002] [AIEEE 2005]
(a) -hybridized state (b) -hybridized state (a) Chemically reactive (b) Chemically inactive
m
(c) Anions (d) Cations

(c) -hybridized state (d) -hybridized state
is
15. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to

6. Which of the following is not an electrophile
try
substitution by mechanism because of [AIEEE

[CBSE PMT 2001]
2005]
_S
(a) (b) (a) Insolubility (b) Instability

(c) (d) (c) Inductive effect (d) Steric hindrance
pa
7. Heterolytic bond dissociation energy of alkyl halides 16. The decreasing order of nucleophilicity among the
follows the sequence [AMU 2000] nucleophiles
rk
(a)
(i) (ii)
(b)
(c)
(d) (iii) (iv)
8. The shape of carbonium is [AMU (Engg.) 1999]
(a) Planar (b) Pyramidal
is [AIEEE 2005]
(c) Linear (d) None of these
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
9. Which of the following compounds shows
(c) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) (d) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
tautomerism
[MP PET 2001] 17. Which of the following is optically active [BHU 2005]
(a) (b) (a) Butane (b) 4-methylheptane

(c) 3-methylheptane (d) 2-methylheptane
(c) (d)
18. Correct configuration of the following is
10. In which bond angle is the highest [CBSE PMT 1991]
[AIEEE 2005]
(a) Distereo (b) Optical
[AIIMS 2005] (c) Geometric (d) Structural
20. Who synthesised the first organic compound urea in
the laboratory [RPMT 2000]
(a) 1S, 2S (b) 1S, 2R (a) Kolbe (b) Wohler
(c) 1R, 2S (d) 1R, 2R (c) Fraizer (d) Berzilius
19. Which types of isomerism is shown by 2, 3-
dichlorobutane
(SET -23)
sp
CH3
Te
1. (d) H H Anti or completely staggard 11. (d)

le
H H
gr
CH3
am
Staggard form is most stable because of minimum

repulsion between bulky methyl groups.
2. (a) Due to more stable carbocation.
@
3. (a) When two compounds have similar molecular

C
formula but differ in the functional group then the

isomerism is called functional group isomerism i.e.
***
he
and .
m
is
try
4. (b) 12. (b) The possible monochlorinated products of 2-

_S
methyl butane are

Cl
Because it has chiral carbon atom. *
pa
Cl
5. (a) The central carbon atom in carbonium ion is (+) and (–) forms
rk
hybridised and it has three hybrid orbitals for

single bonding to three substituents.
6. (b) is not an electrophile. Cl *
7. (b) Cl
(+) and (–) forms
8. (a) Carbonium ion is planar species
9. (c) Ketones show tautomerism. They form keto and
Therefore, a total of four chiral compounds are
enol form obtained.
13. (b) Dimethyl ether is an isomer of ethanol.
Tautomerism
14. (a) Free radicals are very reactive due to the presence
of free e–.
10. (c) Type Bond angle
15. (d) Due to steric hinderance
16. (c) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
and
17. (c) has a chiral carbon
atom and hence is optically active.

18. (a) CH3
H OH
CH3 OH
Following the procedure outlined under 'Golden

Rule' the absolute configuration is 1s, 2s.
Te
19. (b) , ,
le
gr
am
@
C
he
20. (b) Wohler synthesised the first organic compound

urea in the laboratory.
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
THE GUIDANCE STUDY PACKAGE_AIEEE
1. The maximum number of isomers for an alkene with the molecular formula
C4H8 is
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
2. The number of structural and configurational isomers of a bromo compound,

C5H9Br, formed by the addition of HBr to 2-pentyne respectively are
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 4and 2 (d) 2 and 1
3. Which of the following is an optically active compound?

(a) 1-Butanol (b) 1-Propanol
(c) 2-Chlorobutane (d) 4-Hydroxyheptane
4. Which of the following will have least hindered rotation about carbon-carbon
bond?
Te
(a) Ethane (b) Ethylene (c) Acetylene (d) Hexachloroethane

le
5. An organic molecule necessarily shows optical activity if it

gr
(a) contains asymmetric carbon atoms

(b) is non-polar
am
(c) is non-superimposable on its mirror image

(d) is superimposable on its mirror image.
@
6. The stability of the compounds

C
he
m
is
try
(a) (iv) > (iii)>(i) >(ii) (b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(c) (ii) > (iii)> (i) > (iv) (d) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
_S
7. How many structural isomers are there of C4H10O that are ethers?
pa
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4

rk
8. In the following structures, which two forms are staggered conformation of

ethane ?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

9. The most stable conformation of ethylene glycol is
(a) Anti (b) Gauche (c) Partially eclipsed (d) Fully eclipsed
South Delhi Centre : 58/1 Kalu Sarai, Opp. Sarvpriya Vihar, New Delhi - 110016, Ph. 46043741, 41828089
East Delhi Centre : 46, Partap Nagar, Mayur Vihar, Phase - 1, New Delhi - 110091. Ph. 64726426 [16]
10. Which of the following has zero dipole moment ?

(a) cis -2-Butene (b)trans -2-Butene
(c) 1-Butene (d) 2-Methyl-1-propene
11. The two compounds shown in the figure below are
(a) Diastereomers (b) Enantiomers

(c) Epimers (d) Regiomers
12. The correct statement about the compounds A,B,C

Te
le
gr
am
@
(a) A and B are identical (b) A and B are diastereomers

(c) A and C are enantiomers (d) A and B are enantiomers
C
he
13. The isomers which can be converted into another form by rotation of the
molecule around single bond are
m
(a) Geometrical isomers (b) Conformers

is
(c) Enantiomers (d) Diastereomers

try
_S
14. The compound given below are

pa
rk
(a) Enantiomers (b) Identical

(c) Regiomers (d) Diastereomers
15. Which of the following compound is not chiral

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
16. The optically active tartaric acid is named as D-(+) – tartaric acid because it
has a positive
(a) Optical rotation and is derived from D-glucose
(b) pH in organic solvent
(c) Optical rotation and is derived from D-(+)- glyceraldehyde

(d) Optical rotation only when substituted by deuterium.
17. The following two compounds are
are
(a) Enantiomers (b) Diastereomers

(c) Identical (d) Epimers.
18. But-2-ene exhibits cis-trans- isomerism due to

(a) rotation around C3-C4 sigma bond
Te
(b) restricted rotation aroundC=C bond

le
(c) rotation around C1-C2 bond

(d)rotation around C2-C3 double bond.
gr
am
19. Consider the following organic compound,

@
To make it a chiral compound, the attack should be on carbon

C
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 7

he
20. The number of ether metamers represented by the formula C 4H10O is

m
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

is
try
_S
21. Which of the following has the lowest dipole moment ?

pa
(a) (b) CH3—C  C — CH3

rk
(c) CH3CH2C  CH (d) CH2 = CH—CCH
22. Which is a pair of geometrical isomers?
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
23. Which of the following does not show geometrical isomerism?

(a) 1, 2-dichloro-1-pentene (b) 1, 3-dichloro-2-pentene

(c) 1, 1-dichloro-1-pentene (d) 1, 4-dichloro-2-pentene
24. The absolute configuration of the following compound is
(a) 2 S, 3 R (b) 2 S, 3 S (c) 2 R, 3 S (d) 2 R, 3 R
25. Among the following four structures I to IV

Te
le
gr
am
It is true that
(a) Only II and IV are chiral compounds
@
(b) All four are chiral compounds

(c) Only I and II are chiral compounds
C
(d) Only III is a chiral compound

he
m
26. The total number of acyclic and cyclic isomers including stereoisomers possible
for the molecular formula, C5H10 is
is
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 12

try
_S
27. Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism ?

pa
(a) (b) 1,2-Dimethylcyclopropane

rk
(c) 1, 2-Dichloroethene (d) All the three
28. Enantiomers have

(a) identical m.p/b.p but different refractive indices
(b) identical m.p/b.p and refractive indices but rotate plane polarized light in
opposite directions but to the same extent
(c) different refractive indices and rotate plane polarized light in the same
direction but to different extents
(d) different m.p/b.p. but rotate plane of polarized light in different directions
but to the same extents
29. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The presence of chiral carbon is an essential condition for enantiomerism
(b) Functional isomerism is a kind of stereoisomerism

(c) Diastereomers are always optically active
(d) Compounds containing one chiral carbon atom are always optically active
30. Which of the following molecules will not show optical activity?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
31. Consider the following structures and pick up the right statement
Te
le
gr
am
(a) I and II have R- configuration (b) I and III have R-configuration

(c) Only III has S-configuration (d) Both (a) and (c) are correct.
@
C
he
32. The IUPAC name of is

m
is
(a) (Z)-4,6-Dimethyloct-4-en-3-one
try
(b) (E)-4,6-Dimethyloct-4-en-3-one
_S
(c) (Z)-3,5-Dimethyloct-4-en-6-one
(d) (E)-3,5-Dimethyloct-4-en-6-one
pa
33. The R-isomer among the following are:

rk
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
34. Select the isomer form the following
35. Erythro isomer among the following is

Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk

Answer Key
Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans.
1. C 11. B 21. B 31. A
2. B 12. D 22. C 32. A
3. C 13. B 23. C 33. A
4. A 14. B 24. B 34. C
5. C 15. A 25. C 35. D
6. A 16. C 26. D
7. B 17. A 27. D
8. C 18. B 28. B
9. B 19. B 29. D
10. B 20. B 30. C
Te
Solution : -
le
1. Four alkenes:
gr
(i) , (ii) (cis-2-Butene)

am
(iii) (trans-2-Butene)
@
C
(iv) (2-Methylpropene).
he
m
2. Addition of HBr to 2-pentyne gives two structural isomers (I) and (II)
is
try
_S
Each one of these will exist as a pair of geometrical isomers.

Thus, there are two structural and four configurational isomers
pa
3. 2-chlorobutane contains a chiral carbon and hence is optically active

rk
4. Because of the bigger size of Cl than H, the rotation about carbon-carbon single bond
in hexa chloroethane is more hindered than, in ethane or the other hand because of
the presence of double bond in ethylene, and triple bond in acetylene, the rotation
about carbon-carbon bond is highly hindered, Thus ethane has the least hindered
rotation.
5. Non-superimposable on its mirror image.
6. Cyclohexane (iv) is non-planar and has chair conformation. In this conformation, the
bond angle are the normal tetrahedral angles (109º-28’) and thus has no
angle strain and hence is the most stable. The rest of the molecules are nearly planar
and hence their stability depends upon the angle strain in accordance with Baeyer’s
strain theory. Since cyclopropane has higher angle strain (24º– 44’) than cyclopentane
(0º – 44’), therefore, cyclopentane (iii) is more stable than cyclopropane (ii). Further,
because of the presence of a double bond in a three-membered ring, cyclopropene (ii)

is the least stable. Thus, the order of stability is (iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii).
7. Three, These are : CH3OCH2CH2CH3,

CH3-O-CH(CH3)2 and CH3CH2OCH2CH3.
8. 1 and 2 represent staggered conformation.
9. Try Your Self
10. trans-2-Butene has zero dipole moment.
11. The two compounds are non-superimposable mirror images of each other and hence
are enantiomers.
12. Rotation of B through 180º within the plane of the paper gives D which is an
enantiomer of (A) .
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
Thus, A and B are enantiomers.

m
13. Conformers.
is
14. The two compounds are identical since they have a plane of symmetry.
try
_S
15. Only DCH2CH2CH2Cl does not contain a chiral carbon and hence it is not chiral
pa
16. The configuration of the penultimate carbon of any optically active compound is
always correlated with D (+)-glyceraldehyde.
rk
Therefore, option (c) is correct.
17. The two compounds are non-superimposable mirror images of each other and hence
are enantiomers.
18. Restricted rotation around C=C bond .
19. Putting a substituent at position 3 will make the molecule chiral
20. Three: CH3OCH2CH2CH3,CH3CH2OCH2CH3CH3OCH (CH3)2

21. CH3–C  C–CH3 being linear as well as symmetrical, has lowest dipole moment.
22. II and IV and cis-trans-isomers

23. 1,1-Dichloro-1-pentene
does not show geometrical isomerism since it has tow
identical atoms i.e. Cl on C1.
24. Following the procedure outlined under ‘Golden Rule’ the absolute configuration is 2S,
3S.
Te
le
gr
am
25. I and II contain C-atoms and hence are chiral compounds
26. Try Your Self.

@
27. Disubstituted cyclic compounds and disubstituted alkenes show geometrical

C
isomerism. Therefore, option (d) correct.

he
28. Enantiomers have same m.p./b.p and refractive indices but rotate plane polarized
m
light in opposite directions but to the same extent.

is
try
29. Compounds possessing one chiral carbon atom are always optically active.
_S
pa
30.
rk
(c) has a centre of symmetry and hence is optically inactive .
31.
32. The configuration about the double bond is Z and hence the correct name is (Z)-4, 6-
dimethyloct-4-en-3-one.
Te
le
33. Apply Golden rule to the four compounds.

gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
34. Apply Golden rule to all the four compounds.

try
_S
pa
rk
35. In compound (d), the two identical atoms (H,H) or groups (OH,OH) lie on the same side
of the Fischer projection formula and hence it represents the erythro isomer.
GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY EX- 2

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
1. Which of the following contains three pairs of electrons in the valence shell ?
(a) Carbocations (b) Carbanions
(c) Free radicals (d) None.
2. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of

(a) Electrophilic addition (b) Nucleophilic addition
(c) Nucleophilic substitution (d) Electrophilic substitution
3. The compound in which C uses only its sp 3- hybrid orbitals for bond formation
is
(a) HCOOH (b) (H2N)2CO (c) (CH3)3COH (d) CH3CHO
4. The shortest C-C bond distance is found in

(a) Diamond (b) Ethane (c) Benzene (d) Acetylene
Te
5. Homolytic fission of C-C bond in ethane gives an intermediate in which carbon

le
is
gr
(a) sp3-hybridised (b) sp2-hybridised

(c) sp-hybridised (d) sp2d- hybridised
am
6. Which is the correct symbol relating the two Kekule structures of benzene?
@
(a) (b) (c) (d)

C
7. When the hybridization state of carbon atom changes from sp 3 to sp2 and
he
finally to sp, the angle between the hybridized orbitals

m
(a) decreases gradually (b) decreases considerably

is
(c) is not affected (d) increases progressirely

try
8. The kind of delocalization involving sigma bond orbitals is called

_S
(a) Inductive effect (b) Hyperconjugation effect

(c) Electromeric effect (d) Mesomeric effect
pa
9. Examine the following chemical structures to which simple functional groups

rk
are often attached.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) CH3CH2CH2CH2 –
(v)
Which of these systems have essentially planar geometry?

(a)(i) and (v) (b)(ii) and (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv)
10. Which of the following will show aromatic behaviour ?
11. Which of the following species would be expected to exhibit aromatic

character? Select the correct answer from the following:
Te
(a) I and IV (b) II and IV (c) I and III (d) II and III
le
gr
12. Which of the following is correct regarding the –I-effect of the substitutents?
am
(a) –NR2 < -OR < - F (b) – NR2> -OR < -F

(c) – NR2< -OR > -F (d) –NR2>-OR > -F
@
13. In compound, CH2=CH-CH2-CH2-C H, the C2—C3 bond is of the type

C
(a) sp-sp2 (b) sp3-sp3 (c) sp-sp3 (d) sp2-sp3

he
14. The structural formula of a compound is .

The types of hybridization at the four carbons from left to right are
m
(a) (b)
is
(b) (d)
try
_S
15. The chemical system that is non aromatic is ?

pa
(a) (b) (c) (d)

rk
16. Which of the following alkenes will react fastest with H 2 under catalytic
hydrogenation conditions?
17. Polarization of electrons in acrolein may be written as
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
18. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity?

(a) F- (b) OH- (c) (d)
19. The most stable carbanion among the following is

Te
le
gr
20. Nucleophilicity order is correctly represented by

am
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
@
C
21. The arrangement of (CH3)3C –, (CH2)2CH–, CH3CH2 – when attached to benzene

he
or an unsaturated group in increasing order of inductive effect is

(a) (b)
m
is
(c) (d)
try
22. The reaction, is

_S
(a) elimination reaction (b) substitution reaction

pa
(c) free radical reaction (d) addition reaction

rk
23. Consider the following structures

I. CH2= II. CH3-
III. CH2=CH- IV.
The correct sequence of these carbocations in the decreasing order of their

stability is
(a) IV, III, II, I (b) I, II, III, IV(c) IV, II, III, I (d) I, III, II, IV
24. The aromaticity of the following heterocycles is in the order
(a) thiophene > pyrrole > furan> pyridine
(b) furan > pyrrole > thiophene >pyridine
(c) pyridine > thiophene > pyrrole > furan
(d) pyridiene > furan > pyrrole > thiophene
25. Which of the following does not represent the correct order of –I-effect of the
substituent ?
(a) I-< Cl -< Br- < F- (b) RS - < R2N- < RO-
(c) (d)
26. Which of the following anions would be more stable than their corresponding
protonated species?
I. II.
Te
le
gr
III. IV.
am
Select the correct answer from the following :

(a) I and IV (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) II amd IV
@
27. The most stable carbocation is

C
he
m
is
try
_S
28. Which is the decreasing order of stability of the ions?

pa
I. II. III.
(a) I > II > III (b) II > III > I (c) III > I > II (d) II > I > III.
rk
29. In which of the following pairs of carbocations, the first carbocation is more
stable than the second?
(i) and
(ii) and
(iii) and
(iv) and
(a) (i) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) (ii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
30. A solution of (+)-2-chloro-2phenylethane in toluene racemises slowly in the

presence of a small amount of SbCl5, due to the formation of
(a) Carbanion (b) Carbene
(c) Free radical (d) Carbocation
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk

Answer Key
Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans.
1. A 11. D 21. A
2. B 12. A 22. B
3. C 13. D 23. A
4. A 14. C 24. C
5. B 15. C 25. A
6. D 16. A 26. A
7. D 17. D 27. B
8. B 18. C 28. D
9. A 19. D 29. B
10. B 20. C 30. D
Te
Solution : -
le
1. Carbocations have three pairs (6) electrons in the valence shell.

gr
2. Aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic addition reactions.

am
@
3.
C
he
m
All bonds are -bonds and hence C uses only its sp 3-hybrid orbitals. In all other
is
compounds there is one C=O double bond, therefore, this carbon is sp2-hybridized
try
4. Shortest C-C distance (1.20Ǻ) is in acetylene.

_S
5. Homolylic fission of C—C bond gives free radicals in which carbon is sp2-
pa
hybridized.
rk
6. Resonance structures are separated by a double headed arrow ( )
7. Angle increases progressively sp3(109º-28’), sp2(120º), sp(180º)
8. Hyperconjugation.
9. Only sp2- hybridized C-atoms of phenyl ring and CH 2=CH group has essentially planar
geometry. All the rest of the groups have sp 3- hybridized C- atoms and hence have
non- planar geometry.
10.
(a) (b)
Non –aromatic
(unconjugated Aromatic(conjugated 6-electrons
(c) (d)
Alicyclic Antiaromatic (conjugated 4 electrons)
11. II and III have delocalized six and hence are aromatic.
12. Greater the electronegativity, higher is the I-effect, i.e, – NR2 < – OR < – F.
13.
C2 –C3 bond has sp2-sp3 hybridization.
Te
le
14.
gr
am
15. Only is not aromatic ; rest all are aromatic .

@
16. During catalytic hydrogenation, the hydrogens are transferred from the catalyst to the
same side of the double bond, Evidently, smaller the number of R substituents, lesser
C
is the steric hindrance and hence faster is the rate of hydrogenation. Thus, option (a)
he
with two R groups on the same side of the molecule is correct.

m
17. Due to – R-effect of the – CHO group, oxygen carries -charge while the terminal
is
carbon carries Charge, i.e.,

try
_S
18. As electronegativity of the atom decreases (F>O > N > C), its tendency to donate a pair
pa
of electrons, i.e., nucleophilicity increases. Thus, has the highest nucleophilicity.

rk
19. is the most stable carbanion since electron-with-drawing – NO 2

group stabilizes the carbanion by dispersal of the –ve charge.
20. As the electronegativity of the atom decreases, its nucleophilicity increases. Thus,
option (c) is correct.
21. Hyperconjugation effect increases in the order :
22. Substitution reaction
23.
24. Aromatic character increases as the resonance energy increases, Now resonance
energies decrease in the order : pyridine (125.5 kJ mol -1) > thiophene (117 kJ mol-1) >
pyrrole (88 kJ mol-1) > furan (71 kJ mol-1). Thus, option (c) is correct.
25. Option (a) is incorrect since the – I-effect of halogens follows the order : I <Br <Cl <F.
26. Both structures( I and IV ) are stabilized by resonance.
27. Carbocation (a) is antiaromatic and hence is least stable. Carbocation (b), (c) and (d)
are all secondary but (b) and (c) are aromatic. Further since (c) is more strained than
(b), therefore, (b) is the most stable carbocation.
28. Carbocation (II) is most stable due to resonance,

Te
II
le
Carbocation (III) is least stable due to electron withdrawing effect of the adjacent
carbonyl group while carbocation (I) is less stable than (II) because it is only stabilized
gr
by the + I-effect of the two CH3 groups. Thus,the overall order of stability is : II > I > III.
am
29. (i) First carbocation is stabilized by resonance but the second
is not. Therefore, first carbocation is more stable than the

@
second.
C
he
m
is
In both the cases, +ve charge is dispersed due to resonance but in the second
try
carbocation +ve charge is located on a more electronegative O- atom. Therefore, first

carbocation is more stable than second.
_S
(iii) Second carbocation is stabilized by resonance but first

pa
is not.Therefore, carbocation second is more stable than the first.

rk
(iv) First carbocation has five atoms and hence has

five hyperconjugation structures are possible while the second carbocation
has only four -hydrogen atoms and hence has four
hyperconjugative structures. Therefore, first carbocation is little more stable than the
second, Thus the correct answer is option (b).
30. In presence of SbCl5, 2-chloro-2-phenylethane forms a carbocation as shown below:
Since the carbocation is planar species, therefore, it can be attacked by either

from the top or the bottom face with equal ease. As a result, a 50:50 mixture of two
enantiomers of 2-chloro-2-phenylethane are formed, i.e. (+ ) 2-chloro-2-phenylethane
undergoes recemization due to the formation of carbocation intermediate.
EXERCISE # 1
(MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
(3) CH3COOH (4) HCOOH
Q.1 The inductive effect -
(1) implies the atom's ability to cause bond Q.7 Which of the following groups has the highest
polarization + I effect -
(2) increases with increase of distance (1) CH3 – (2) CH3CH2 –
(3) implies the transfer of lone pair of electrons (3) (CH3)2 CH – (4) (CH3)3 C –
from more electronegative atom to the
Q.8 Maximum –I effect is exerted by the group
lesser electronegative atom in a molecule
(1) C6H5 – (2) – OCH3
(4) implies the transfer of lone pair of electrons
(3) Cl (4) NO2
from lesser electronegative atom to the
more electronegative atom in a molecule Q.9 Zero inductive effect is exerted by -
(1) C6H5 – (2) H
Q.2 In which of the following compound is
(3) CH3 – (4) Cl
Te
hydroxylic proton the most acidic -

Q.10 Pair of groups exerting (–I) effect is
le
(1) (2) (1) –NO2 and –CH3

gr
(2) –NO2 and –Cl

(3) –Cl and –CH3
am
(3) (4) (4) –CH3 and –C2H5

Q.11 Mesomeric effect is the resonance of -
@
(1)  electrons only

C
(2)  electrons only

Q.3 Which among the given acid has lowest pKa
he
value - (3)  and  both

(4) (+) ve and (–) charge.
m
(1) Chloroacetic acid (2) Bromoacetic acid

is
(3) Nitroacetic acid (4) Cyanoacetic acid Q.12 Mesomeric effect takes part in -
try
Q.4 Arrange basic strength of the given compounds in (1) Saturated system
decreasing order - (2) Unsaturated system containing conjugated
_S
double bond.
(a) CH3–CH2–NH2
(3) Unsaturated system containing non conjugated
pa
(b) CH2=CH–NH2 double bond.

(4) A triple bond in a carbon chain
rk
(c) CHC–NH2
Q.13 Arrange their Acidic strength
(1) a > b > c (2) a > c > b
(3) c > b > a (4) b > c > a
Q.5 Consider following acid

ClCH2COOH, CH3COOH, CH3CH2COOH
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
I II III (3) III < II > I (4) II < III < I
Correct order of their pH value will be -
Q.14 Arrange the following in Increasing of their
(1) III < II II > I (2) III < II I
Mo
107
Q.15 Consider following benzyl alcohol
(1) II > I > III (2) I > III > II
(3) I > II > III (4) III > II > I

I II
Q.19 Most stable carbocation is -
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
III IV Q.20 Which of the following is most stable -

Correct order of their Kb value is -
(1) (2) CH3–
Te
(1) III > IV > II > I (2) III > I > IV > II
(3) I < II < III < IV (4) IV > II > I > III (3) CH3– –CH3 (4) CH2=CH–
le
Q.16 Which of the following pairs of structures do not

gr
represent resonating structures - Q.21 Which of the following is most stable

am
carbocations -
(1) (1) (2) CH3–
@
(2)
C
(3) (4)
he
(3)
m
Q.22 Which of the following is least stable

is
carbocations -
try
(4)
(1) CH2= (2) CH3–
_S
(3) (4) Ph
Q.17 Which of the following pairs represent resonating
pa
structures - Q.23 Which of the following is most stable -

rk
(1) (2) CH3–

(1) ClCH2CH=CHCH3 and
(2) (3) F– (4) Cl –
(3) CH3–CN and CH3–N C

(4) All the above
Q.24 is more stable than because
Q.18 The order of stability of the following resonating
structures is -
(I) (II)
(1) 180º location of NO2 and in I
R
108
(2) –NO2 opperate both –I and –M in I.
(3) –I in II is weaker than I
(1) (2)
(4) Due to steric hinderance
Q.25 Which of the following is most stable -

(1) (2) CH2=
(3) CH (4) CH3–C (3) (4)
Q.26 Consider the following carbocations -

Q.31 Arrange stability of the given carbocations in
(a) decreasing order –
(b)
Te
(c)
le
(d) CH3–
gr
I II III IV
The relative stabilities of these carbocations are (1) I > II > III > IV
am
such that- (2) III > II > I > IV

(1) d I > II > III
(3) d III > I > IV

Q.27 Least stable carbanion is -
C
Q.32 In the anion HCOO–, the two carbon-oxygen

(1) HC (2) bonds are found to be equal length. What is the
he
reason for it –
(3) CH2= (4) CH3–
m
(1) the C=O bond is weaker than the C–O bond

Q.28 Arrange the following nucleophiles in the order (2) the anion HCOO– has two resonating
is
of their nucleophilic strength - structures

try
(1) HO– > CH3COO– > CH3O– > C6H5O–

(3) the electronic orbitals of carbon atom are
(2) CH3COO– < C6H5O– < CH3O– < HO–
_S
hybridized
(3) C6H5O– < CH3COO– < CH3O– < HO–
(4) the anion of obtained by removal of proton
(4) CH3COO– < C6H5O– < HO– < CH3O–
pa
Q.29 Which of the following carbocation is most stable- from the acid molecule
rk
(1) (2) Q.33
I II III
(3) (4) Arrange following phenol in increasing order of

Pka value -
(1) I < II < III (2) III < I < II

Q.30 Which one of the carboanions is most stable- (3) III < II II > III > I (2) III > IV > II > I Q.40 Which of the following substituents will decrease
(3) I > II > III > IV (4) II > III > I > IV the acidity of phenol -
(1) –NO2 (2) –CN (3) –CH3 (4) –CHO
Q.35 Hyperconjugation occur due to overlaping of-
(1)  M.O. with 's'
Q.41 Hyperconjugation is possible in which of the
(2) 'p' orbital with  following species -
(3)  M.O. with  M.O.
(1) (2) C6H5–CH3
(4) None
(3) CH2=CH2 (4)

Q.36 The stability of given free radicals in decreasing
order is -
Te
(a) CH3– (b) CH3– –CH3

Q.42 Which of the following carbonium ions will show
le
(c) CH3– (d) highest number of hyperconjugation forms -

gr
am
(1) c > d > a > b (1) (2)

(2) a > b > c > d
(3) c > b > d > a
@
(4) c > b > a > d (3) (4)

C
Q.37 Correct order of stability is -

he
(1) CH2=CH2 > CH3–CH=CH2 > (CH3)2C=CH2

Q.43 Which of the following substituted carboxylic
m
(2) CH2=CH2 < CH3–CH=CH2 < (CH3)2C=CH2 acids has the highest Ka value -
is
try
(3) CH2=CH2 < (CH3)2C=CH2 < CH3–CH=CH2

(1)
(4) CH3–CH=CH2 < CH2=CH2 < (CH3)2C=CH2
_S
(2)
pa
Q.38 Rank the following radicals in order of

Decreasing stability -
rk
(3)
(4)
I II III IV Q.44 Which is more acidic than phenol -

(1) III > II > I > IV (2) III > II III > II > IV (4) III < II < I < IV
(1) (2)
Q.39 Arrange the Stability of following -
(3) (4) All the above
↳ 110
Q.45 Choose the most stable Carbocation Q.51 Consider the following ions -
(1) CH3–CH=CH–
(2) CH2=CH– –CH3 Increasing order of nucleophilicity in polar

solvent will be -
(3) CH2= –CH2–CH3
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) II < I < IV < III
(4) CH2=CH–CH2– (3) IV < III < II < I (4) III < IV < II < I
Q.46 Which of the following is wrong about resonance -
(1) Resonating structures having same energy Q.52 Most stable carbonium ion in the following will
have same contribution
be -
(2) All resonating structures have same number of
unpaired electron.
(1) (2)
(3) All resonating structures have same number of
bond pair electrons.
(4) All resonating structures have same amount of (3) (4)
Te
net charge.
Q.47 Which of the following effect does not stabilises Q.53 Which of the following is not correct statement -
le
carbanion - (1) is a stronger base

gr
(1) – I effect (2) is more basic than

am
(3) NH2OH is less basic than NH3

(2) – M effect
(3) Hyper conjugation (4) is less basic than
@
(4) All the above Q.54 Which one of the following is strongest
acid -
C
Q.48 Which of the following statement is correct about (1) 2-chloropentanoic acid
he
arrow headed 'C' of (2) 3-chloropentanoic acid

(3) 5-chloropentanoic acid
m
(1) Negative charge is delocalised due to sp 2 (4) 4-chloropentanoic acid

is
hybridisation
(2) sp2 hybridised but (–)ve charge is localised.
try
Q.55 Which has localized ve charge -

(3) sp3 hybridised and (–)ve charge is not
_S
delocalised.
(4) sp3 hybridised and (–)ve charge is delocalised. (a) (b)
pa
Q.49 Charge on carbon free radical is -

rk
(1) Zero (3) Positive

(3) Negative (4) All of these
(c) (d)
Q.50 Which of the following is not the resonance
contributor for phenoxide ion -
(1) a, d (2) a, c
(3) c, d (4) b, d
(1) (2)
Q.56 Most powerful leaving group in following–
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
E
111
Q.61 What is the correct increasing order of bond
lengths of the bonds indicated as I, II, III and IV
in following compounds -
Q.57
Increasing order of stability is– (1) I < II < III < IV (2) II < III < IV < I
(1) I < III < II < IV (3) IV < II < III < I (4) IV < I < II < III
(2) IV < III < II < I
(3) III < IV < II < I Q.62 Most stable carbocation is -
(4) II < IV < III < I
(1) (2)
Q.58 Consider the following three halides -
(A) CH3–CH2–Cl (3) (4)
(B) CH2=CH–Cl
(C) C6H5–Cl Q.63 In which compound delocalisation is not possible -
Te
Arrange C–Cl bond length of these compound in (1) 2-Butene (2) 1, 3-Butadiene
decreasing order - (3) 1, 3, 5-Hexatriene (4) Benzene
le
(1) A > B > C (2) A > C > B

gr
(2) C > B > A (4) B > C > A

Q.59 Arrange the following in increasing basic
am
strength- Q.64 Consider the following compound :

@
(a) CH3NH2 (b) carbon-carbon bond length between C2 and C3

C
will be -
he
(1) 1.54 Å
(c) Cl–CH2–NH2 (d) –CH2–NH2
(2) 1.3 Å
m
(e) NH3 (3) Less than 1.54 and greater than 1.33 Å
is
Correct answer is - (4) 1.21 Å

try
(1) (a) < (b) < (c) < (e) < (d)
(2) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) < (e)
_S
Q.65 In pyridine ; Number of conjugated

(3) (b) < (c) < (d) < (e) < (a)
pa
(4) (c) < (b) < (e) < (d) < (a)
electrons are -
Q.60 Which one of the carbanions is most stable?
rk
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) zero (4) 5
Q.66 Which is the decreasing order of acidity in,

(1) (2)
HCOOH (I), CH3COOH(II), CH3CH2COOH(III)
and C6H5COOH(IV) -
(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) IV > I > II > III
(3) (4) (4) I > IV > II > III
Q.67 Consider the follownig carbocations -

(a) (b)
o
112
(c) (d) (1) It is a temporary effect
(2) It is the property of  bond
Stability of these carbocations in decreasing order
(3) It takes place in presence of reagent, i.e.,
is -
electrophile or nucleophile
(1) d > c > a > b (2) d > c > b > a
(4) All are correct
(3) c > d > b > a (4) c > d > a > b
Q.73 The number of electrons present in the valence
Q.68 Consider the following compounds - shell of carbon of ion bearing +ve
charge :
(1) 8 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) 4
Q.74 Which of the following is most stable alkene ?
(1)
Arrange these compounds in decreasing order of (2)

their basicity :
Te
(1) a > b > c > d (3)

(2) b > c > a > d
le
(3) d > a > c > b

(4)
gr
(4) d > a > b > c

am
Q.69 Which free radical is the most stable - Q.75 Homolytic fission of a hydrocarbon will
(1) (2) liberate -
@
(3) (4) (1) Carbonium ions (2) carbanions

C
(3) free radicals (4) carbenes

he
Q.70 Which carbocation is the most stable -

Q.76 Heterolytic fission of carbon-chlorine bond
m
produces -
is
(1) two free radicals

(1) (2)
try
(2) two carbonium ions

(3) two carbonions
_S
(4) one cation and one anion

pa
Q.77 In CH3CH2OH, the bond that undergoes

heterolytic cleavage most readily is -
rk
(3) (4)
(1) C—C (2) C—O
(3) C—H (4) O—H
Q.78 Which of the following is heterocyclic aromatic

Q.71 Electromeric effect - species ?
(1) comes into play at the demand of attacking
reagent (1) (2)
(2) involves displacement of electrons in a sigma
bond
(3) comes into play in the molecule when at least
one atom has unshared pair of electrons (3) (4)
(4) involves the distortion of the electron cloud
Q.72 Which statement is correct for electromeric effect - Q.79 The hybridisation of saturated carbanion is -
↳
113
(1) sp3 (2) sp2
(3) sp (4) All of these
Q.80 Carbanion of CH3 has geometry -

(1) Planar (2) Pyramidal
(3) Squar bipyramidal (4) All of the above
Q.81 Hybridisation of R – is -
(1) sp3 (2) sp2

(3) sp (4) All of these
Q.82 The enolic form of acetone contains -

(1) 9 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 2 lone pairs
(2) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs
(3) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 1 lone pair
Te
(4) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pair

le
Q.83 Carbene is an -
gr
(1) Electrophile (2) Nucleophile

(3) Very strong base (4) All of these
am
Q.84 Unshared pair of electron is contained by -

Q.88 Which of the following reaction intermediates are
(1) Carbocation (2) Singlet carbene
@
electrophilic in character -
(3) Triplet carbene (4) All of these
(a) Carbocation (b) Carbanion
C
(c) Free radicals (d) Carbenes

Q.85 Which of the following statements are correct for
he
(1) Only b (2) a and c

nucleophile -
(3) a, c and d (4) a, b, c and d
m
(1) All negatively charged species are

is
nucleophile
Q.89 Which among the following compounds behave
(2) Nucleophiles are Lewis bases
try
both as an electrophile as well as a nucleophile-

(3) Alkenes, alkynes, benzene and pyrrole are
_S
nucleophiles (a) CH2= CH2 (b)

(4) All are correct
pa
(c) (d)
Q.86 Which among the following species is an
rk
(1) Only a (2) a and b

ambident nucleophile ? (3) c and d (4) b, c and d
(1) (2) CH2–CH2
Q.90 Which of the following can behave as a
(3) (4)
nucleophile -
(1) HOH (2) R–OH
Q.87 In each of the following pairs of species which (3) R–NH2 (4) All of these
species is an electrophile -
(1) & (2) &
(3) CH4 & CCl4 (4) H2 &
↳114
EXERCISE # 2
(BRAIN TWISTERS)
Q.1 Which is most acidic compound - Q.6 Which is most stable carbocation -
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
Q.2 Which is maximum acidic compound -

Te
(1) (2) Q.7 Which is correct stability order -

le
(1)
gr
am
(3) (4)
(2)
@
Q.3 Which is most stable carbocation -

(3)
C
he
(1) (2)
(4)
m
is
(3) (4)
Q.8 Which is most basic compound –
try
Q.4 Which is most stable carbanion -

_S
(1) (2)
pa
(1) (2)
rk
(3) (4)CH2=CH– –CH=CH2 (3) (4)
Q.5 Which is most stable species -

Q.9 Which is aromatic compound -
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
&
115
(2)
(3) (4)
(3)
Q.10 Which of the following diene is most stable - (4)
(1) (2) Q.14 Which of the following electrophilic substitution

reaction represent incorrect product -
(3) (4) (1)

Te
(2)
le
Q.11 Rank the hydrogen atoms according to their

gr
acidic strength
am
(3)
@
C
(4)
he
(1)  >  >  (2)  >  > 

(3)  >  >  (4)  >  > 
m
Q.15 Arrange the Carbocations in decreasing order of

is
stability –
try
Q.12 Consider the hydrogen atoms attached to three

different carbon atoms (labeled 1, 2 & 3). Rank
_S
the attached hydrogen atoms in order from most

pa
acidic to least acidic –

rk
(1) I > II > III (2) I > III > II

(3) II > III > I (4) III > II > I
(1) 1 > 2 > 3 (2) 2 > 1 > 3

(3) 2 > 3 > 1 (4) 3 > 2 > 1 Q.16 Which nitrogen is protonated readily in the
guanidine ?
Q.13 the most stable carbocation among the following

is -
(1)
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) None of these
.
116
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Q.17 CH2=CH–CH=CH2
1 2 3 4
The bond between C2 – C3 is shorter than single
bond because -
(1) +I effect Q.21 Which is most stable carbocation –
(2) –I effect
(3) M effect (1) (2)
(4) Hyper conjugative effect
Q.18 Examine the following two structures for the

Te
anilinium ion and choose the correct statement

from the ones given below.
le
(3) (4)
gr
am
I II
@
(1) II is not an acceptable canonical structure

because carbonium ions are less stable than
Q.22 , pKa value of the compound decreases
C
ammonium ion.
he

because it is non-aromatic.
if X is:
m

because the nitrogen has 10 valence electrons
is
(1) –NO2 (2) – NH2 (3) – OH (4) – OCH3

(4) II is an acceptable canonical structure
try
Q.19 Formic acid is considered as a resonance hybrid Q.23 The correct order of increasing dissociation
_S
of the four structure - constant of the following compound is-

pa
rk
I II
III IV
Which of the following order is correct for the
stability of the four contributing structures?
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > II > IV > III
(3) I < III < II < IV (4) I > IV > III > II
Q.20 Most stable carbocation is:
(1) II < IV PhSO3H > PhCH2OH > PhOH

(2) PhSO3H > PhOH > PhCO2H > PhCH2OH
(3) PhCO2H >PhOH > PhCH2OH > PhSO3H (1) I (2) II
(4) PhSO3H > PhCO2H > PhOH > PhCH2OH (3) III (4) All are equally basic
Q.25 Arrange the following in correct order of acidic

strength-
(I) CH3–NO2 (II) NO2–CH2–NO2
Q.29
(III) CH3–CH2–NO2 (IV)
Te
(A) (B) (C)

(1) IV > II > I > III (2) IV > II > III > I Choose the incorrect statement -
le
(3) III > I > II > IV (4) III > I > IV > II (1) A is more basic than B
gr
(2) B is more basic than A

(3) B is more basic than C
am
(4) All are aromatic bases
Q.26 Q.30 Which of the following is false statement -

@
(1) Protonation decreases electrophilic nature of

carbonyl group
C
(2) CF3SO3– is better leaving group than

he
Compare carbon-carbon bond rotation across CH3SO3–

I, II, III.
m
(3) Benzyl carbonium ion is stabilised by

(1) I > II > II (2) I > III > II
is
resonance
try
(3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I

(4) is stable gem-diol
_S
Q.31 Aromatic chracter is possible only when -

(1) six electrons are delocalized
pa
Q.27
(2) the molecule is cyclic and planar having
rk
delocalized (4n + 2) electrons where n =

1,2,3...
The correct order of decreasing basic strengths (3) alternate sigma () & pie () bond are present
of x, y and z is: (4) None is true
(1) x > y > z (2) x > z > y

(3) y > x > z (4) y > z > x
Q.32
Q.28 Which nitrogen in LSD (Lysergic acid and
diethylamide) is more basic -
Column A Column B
Bond Dissociation Energy (kJ/mol)
(a)  (i) 20
o 118
(b)  (ii) 100 (2) NO3 > CN > RCOO > RO > HO
(3) HO > CN > RCOO > NO3 > RO
(c)  (iii) 30
(4) NO3 > CN > RCOO RO HO
(d)  (iv) 50
Q.38 In electrophilic
(1) a  (ii), b  (iv), c  (iii), d  (i)
(2) a  (i), b  (ii), c  (iii), d  (iv) substitution occurs at -

(1) o/p of 1st ring (2) meta at 1st ring
(3) a  (iv), b  (iii), c  (ii), d  (i) (3) o/p at 2nd ring (4) meta of 2nd ring.
(4) a  (ii), b  (iii), c  (iv), d  (i)
Q.33 The strongest base is–
(1) (2)
Q.39 Which of the following is not a pair of tautomers
-
Te
(3) (4) CH3–NH–CH3

le
(1) and
gr
Q.34 Arrange (all dibasic) Increasing order of their K a

am
value -
oxalic acid, succinic acid,
I II
@
malonic acid, adipic acid (2) and

C
III IV
(1) III < II I > IV
he
(3) I > III > II > IV (4) II > I > III < IV
m
Q.35 Electrophile attacks the following (3) and

is
try
_S
(4) and
pa
I II III IV
rk
In which cases will be meta-position :

(1) II and IV (2) I, II and III
(3) II and III only (4) I only
Q.36 Increasing order of the stability is - Q.40 Different hydrogens in
CH3CH=CH2 CH3CH2CH=CH2,
(I) (II) a b b c d e f
CH3CH=CH–CH2–CH2–CH(CH3)2 are represented
(CH3)3CCH=CH2
by alphabets. Arrange them in decreasing order of
(III) (IV) reactivity towards radical substitution -
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > III > II > IV (1) c > a > e > d > f > b
(3) I > IV > III > II (4) IV > III > II > I (2) f > b > a > c > d > e
Q.37 Decreasing order of Basic strength is - (3) b > c > a > f > d > e
(1) RO > HO > CN > RCOO > NO3 (4) a > b > c > d > e > f
↳ 119
Q.41 Consider the following compounds (1) and
CH3CH2NH2 CH3 NH2 (2) CH3–CH=CH–CH3 and CH2=CH–CH2–CH3

(3) and H– =NH
I II III
Correct order of their basic strength is -
(1) I < II < III (2) II > I > III (4)
(3) III > II II > III (2) II < III I (4) II > I > III
le
Q.43 Which of the following acid-base reaction is not The correct order of decreasing basicity of the
above compound is -
gr
feasible -
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > I > IV > III
am
(1) (3) III > IV > II > I (4) II > I > III > IV
@
Q.47 Give the correct order of increasing acidity of the

following compounds -
C
(2) (I) (II)

he
m
(III) (IV)
is
(1) II >

(4)
>
Q.44 Which is an aromatic compound –
(1) (2) (2) > >
>
(3) (4)
Q.45 Which of the following pairs of structures is not a (3) > >
pair of resonating structures –
Nog
120
the order of decreasing stability is -
>
(1) II > I > III > IV (2) III > IV > I > II
(3) IV > I > II > III (4) IV > III > II > I
(4) > >

Q.52 Major
> Product is -
Q.49 Which of the following shows the correct order of (1)

stability -
(1) < < (2)
(2) < <

Te
(3)
(3) < <
le
gr
(4) < < (4)

am
Q.50 Which of the following shows the correct order of

decreasing stability -
Q.53 Which is most acidic compound -
@
(1) > >

C
(1) (2)
he
> (3) (4)

m
is
(2) >
try
Q.54 product will be -

_S
> >
pa
(3) > > (1) (2)

rk
>
(3) (4)
(4) > >
Q.55 In the reaction
>
Q.51 Among the following alkenes the major product formed is –

1-butene trans-2-butene
(1) (2)
(I) (III)
cis-2-butene Isobutene
(3) (4)
(II) (IV)
Ma
121
Q. 56 Which is correct among the following -
(3) (4)
(A) is more stable than
(B) is more reactive than

Q.60 p-Chlorotoluene on nitration gives
towards acid catalysed
dehydration (1) (2)
(C) 1-Butene is more stable than 2-butene
(D) is more stable than (3) (4)

Te
le
(1) A, C (2) B, C, D Q.61 Select the most stable carboncation among the
gr
following -
(3) A,B, C (4) A, B, D
am
(1)
(2)
@
C
Q.57 Which of the following is most stable resonating

he
structure of anthracene ? (3)

m
(1) (2)
(4)
is
try
(3) (4)
_S
Q.58 Which of the following statements are correct –

(1) I– is a better leaving group than Cl– Q.62 Which of the following pairs does not represent
pa
(2) In aprotic solvent the nucleophilicity order is

F–>Cl– > Br–>I– . resonance structures ?
rk
(3) CH3COO– is less stable than CH3SO–3

(1) and
(4) All of the above
Q.59 reacts with one mole of HBr to

(2) and
mainly gives –
(3) and
(1) (2)
(4) and
Q.63 Give the correct order of increasing acidity of the

hydrogen bonded to nitrogen in the following
compounds -
no
122
(3) is less stable than
(4) is less reactive than

(1) III < II < IV < I (2) IV < I < II < III
(3) II < I < III < IV (4) I < IV < II < III towards ESR.
Q.67 Arrange the following in decreasing order of rate
Q.64 Which is aromatic species - of nitration -
Te
le
(1) (2)
(a) (b)
gr
(3) (4) All the above

am
(c) (d)
Q.65 Arrange the following compounds in

@
decreasing order of reactivity for EAR –

C
(1) b > a = c > d (2) d > a = c > b

he
(3) b > a > c > d (4) a > c > d > b

(I) Ph–CH=CH 2 (II)
m
Q.68 Which is invalid rearrangement of carbocation -

(III) Ph 2 C=CH–CH 3 (IV) CH 2 =CH–NO 2
is
(1)
try
(1) IV > I > II >III (2) III > II > I > IV

_S
(3) II > III > I > IV (4) II > III > IV > I
pa
Q.66 Which is incorrect statement -

rk
(1) is more basic than (2)
(2) is more acidic than

(3)
(4)
Q.69 The major product formed when 3-methyl-1-

pentene reacts with HCl is -
Be
123
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4) All the above
(3)
Q.73 Which compound has most active hydrogen atom ?
(4)
(1) (2)
Q.70
Te
Major product of this reaction is -

le
gr
(1) (2) (3) (4)

am
(3) (4)
@
Q.74 The hybridization states of the nitrogen atoms in

C
Q.71 Which shows correct (major)organic product :

pyridine, piperidine and pyrrole are respectively
he
(1)
m
is
(2)
try
are respectively
_S
(1) sp2, sp3 and sp2 (2) sp2, sp3 and sp3
pa
(3)
(3) sp3, sp3 and sp3 (4) sp2, sp2 and sp2
rk
(4) All the above
Q.72 In which of the following keto-enol systems the

Q.75
enol state is more stable than the keto state :
(1)
The basic strength of the ions I, II and III

decrease in the order
(2)
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III (4) I > III > II
t
124
Q.76 Which of the following represent the decreasing
order of Ka values ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Q.80 Which one of the following is maximum acidic –

(A) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
(B) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(C) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(D) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii) (1) (2)
Te
Q.77 Which is invalid rearrangement of carbocation -

le
gr
(1 )
(3) (4)
am
(2)
@
C
he
(3)
m
Q.81 The most stable carbocation is -

is
try
(4)
(1)
_S
pa
'
(2)
Q.78 The most stable carbocation is -
rk
(3)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(4)
Q.79 Major product is –
.125
EXERCISE # 3A
(AIPMT & AIIMS QUESTIONS)
Q.11 Among the following the dissociation constant is
Q.1 Polarization in acrolein as –[AIPMT-2000] highest for – [AIIMS-2004]
(1) C6H5OH (2) C6H5CH2OH
(1) = –CHO (2) = –CHO
(3) CH3CCH (4) CH3NH3+Cl–
(3) =CH– (4) =CH– Q.12 Among the following the aromatic compound
Q.2 Correct order of stability is – [AIPMT-2000] is – [AIIMS-2004]
(1) 1-butene > trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene
(2) trans-2-butene > 1-butene > cis-2-butene (1) (2)
(3) trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene > 1-butene
(4) cis-2-butene > trans-2-butene > 1-butene
(3) (4)
Q.3 and are –
Te
[AIPMT-2002] Q.13 Which amongst the following is the most stable

(1) Resonating structures(2) Tautomers carbocation – [AIPMT-2005]
(3) Geometrical isomers (4) Optical isomers
le
(1) (2)
Q.4 The correct order of reactivity towards the
gr
electrophilic substitution of the compounds aniline

am
(I), benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is– (3) (4)

[AIPMT-2003]
(1) III > II > I (2) II > III > I
@
(3) I < II > III (4) I > II > III

Q.5 Which of the following order of acidic strength is Q.14 Which one of the following compounds is most
C
correct – [AIPMT-2003] acidic – [AIPMT -2005]

he
(1) RCOOH > ROH > HOH > HCCH

(2) RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HCCH (1) (2)
(3) RCOOH > HOH > HCCH > ROH
m
(4) RCOOH > HCCH > HOH > ROH (3) (4) ClCH2CH2OH
is
Q.6 Among the following the weakest base is –

try
[AIIMS-2003]
(1) C6H5CH2NH2 (2) C6H5CH2NHCH3
(3) O2NCH2NH2 (4) CH3NHCHO Q.15 Pyridine is less basic than triethylamine
_S
because – [AIIMS-2005]
Q.7 The o-/p- directing group among the following is (1) Pyridine has aromatic character
pa
[AIIMS-2003] (2) Nitrogen in pyridine is sp2 hybridized

(1) COOH (2) CN (3) COCH3 (4) NHCOCH3 (3) Pyridine is a cyclic system
rk
Q.8 Among the following strongest acid is – (4) In pyridine, lone pair of nitrogen is
[AIIMS-2003] delocalized
(1) CH3COOH (2) C6H5COOH
(3) m-CH3OC6H4COOH(4) p-CH3OC6H4COOH Q.16 Which of the following is more basic than aniline –
Q.9 Which of the following is least reactive in a [AIPMT-2006]
nucleophilic substitution reaction –[AIPMT-2004] (1) Diphenyl amine (2) Triphenyl amine
(1) CH2=CHCl (2) CH3CH2Cl (3) p-nitro aniline (4) Benzyl amine
(3) CH2=CHCH2Cl (4) (CH3)2C–Cl
Q.17 Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most
Q.10 The strongest base among the following is – favoured in – [AIPMT-2006]
[AIIMS-2004]
(1) (2)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) (4)
Ne
127
Q.18 Which of the following presents the correct order
of the acidic strength in the given compounds –
[AIPMT-2007]
(1) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH>BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH (1) (2)
(2) BrCH2COOH> ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH >
CH3COOH
(3) FCH2COOH >ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH >
CH3COOH (3) (4)
(4) CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
Q.26 Which one of the following is most reactive
Q.19 For the following : [AIPMT-2007] towards electrophilic reagent ? [AIPMT-2015]
(a) I– (b) Cl– (c) Br–
the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be –
(1) Cl– < Br– < I– (2) I– < Cl– < Br– (1) (2)
– – –
(3) Br < Cl < I (4) I– < Br– Cl–
Q.20 The order of decreasing reactivity towards (3) (4)

electrophilic reagent for the following :
[AIPMT-2007] Q.27 Consider the following compounds :
(A) Benzene (B) Toluene
Te
(C) Chloro benzene (D) Phenol

(1) B > D > A > C (2) D > C > B > A
le
(3) D > B > A > C (4) A > B > C > D

gr
Q.21 Which one of the following is most reactive Correct order of their reactivity in electrophilic
am
towards electrophilic attack – [AIPMT-2008] substitution reactions would be ?

(a) I > II > III > IV (b) IV > III > II > I
(c) III > II > I > IV (d) III > IV > I > III
@
(1) (2)
Q.28 In the free-radical halogenation of alkanes, chain
C
propagating step is -
(a) Cl2 2Cl
he
(3) (4 )
Q.22 The stability of carbanions in the following – (b) CH4 + Cl CH3Cl + H
(c) CH4 + Cl  CH3 + HCl
m
(a) (b) (d) CH3 + Cl  CH3Cl

is
Q.29 Correct increasing order of acidity of the

try
(c) (d)
is in the order of – [AIPMT-2008] following phenols is -
(1) (d) > (b) > (c) > (a) (2) (a) > (c) > (b) > (d)
_S
(3) (a) > (b) > (c) > (d) (4) (b) > (c) > (d) > (a) (a) C2H5OH < < <
pa
Q.23 Given are cyclohexanol (I), acetic acid (II)

2,4,6-trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV). In these
rk
the order of decreasing acidic character will be

[AIPMT-2011]
(1) III > II > IV > I (2) II > III > I > IV (b) < < < C2H5OH
(3) II > III > IV > I (4) III > IV > II > I
Q.24 Which one of the following compounds has the

most acidic nature [AIPMT-2012]
(1) (2) (c) C2H5OH < < <
(3) (4)
Q.25 Which one is most reactive towards electrophilic

reagent? [AIPMT-2013]
B
128
r
129
rk
pa
_S
try
is
m
he
C
@
am
< C2H5OH
gr
le
Te
<
<
(d)
EXERCISE # 3B
(OTHER EXAM QUESTIONS)
[RPMT-2005]
(1) Methyl chloride (2) Allyl chloride
Q.1 The number of electrons in benzene are –
[RPMT-2000] (3) Ethyl chloride (4) Vinyl chloride
(1) 8e– (2) 3e–
(3) 6e– (4) 2e–
Q.7 Which of the following has maximum pKa –
Q.2 Which of the following structure is wrong –
[RPMT-2006]
(1) (1) CH2FCOOH (2) CH2ClCOOH
[RPMT-2001] (3) CH3COOH (4) HCOOH
(2) Q.8 In the following benzyl/alkyl system
R – CH = CH2 or
Te
(3) (R is alkyl group)

increasing order of inductive effect is –
le
3
[AIEEE-2002]
gr
(4) CH –O=N=O (1) (CH3)3C – > (CH3)2CH– > CH3CH2–

am
(2) (CH3CH2– > (CH3)2CH – > (CH3)3C–

(3) (CH3)2CH– > CH3CH2– > (CH3)3C–
Q.3 In benzene C–C bond length between all carbons
@
(4) (CH3)3C– > CH3CH2– > (CH3)2CH–

are equal because of – [RPMT-2001]
C
2
he
Q.9 When –CH3, & groups are

(1) Tautomerism (2) sp hybridization
m
introduced on benzene ring then correct order of

is
(3) Isomerism (4) Resonance

their electronic effect is - [AIEEE-2002]
try
Q.4 Aryl halide less reactive than alkyl halide towards

_S
(1) CH3– > >

nucleophilic substitution because –
pa
(1) Less stable carbonium ion [RPMT-2002]

(2) > > CH3–
rk
(2) Due to large C–Cl bond energy

(3) Inductive effect
(4) Resonance stabilisation and sp2 hybridisation (3) > CH3– >
of carbons attached to halide
Q.5 Correct order of acidic strength is –

[RPMT-2003] (4) > CH3– >
(1) HCOOH > CH3COOH > C2H5COOH
(2) C2H5COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH Q.10 The correct order of increasing basic strength of
(3) HCOOH > C2H5COOH > CH3COOH the bases NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH is –
(4) CH3COOH > HCOOH > C2H5COOH [AIEEE-2003]
Q.6 The least reactive chlorine is present in –
T
130
(1) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
(2) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < NH3 (d) is -
(3) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH
(4) (CH3)2NH < NH3 < CH3NH2 (1) (d) > (c) > (b) > (a)
Q.11 Rate of the reaction [AIEEE-2005] (2) (a) > (b) > (c) > (d)
(3) (c) > (b) > (a) > (d)
R– + Nu  R– +Z (4) (b) > (c) > (a) > (d)
is fastest when Z is - Q.15 Amongst the following the most basic compound
(1) Cl (2) NH2 is– [AIEEE-2005]
(3) OC2H5 (4) OCOCH3 (1) aniline (2) benzylamine
(3) p–nitroaniline (4) acetanilide
Te
Q.12 Consider the acidic nature of the carboxylic acids -

Q.16 The increasing order of stability of the following
[AIEEE-2004]
le
free radicals is – [AIEEE-2006]

(a) PhCOOH
gr
(1) (C6H5)3 <(C6H5)2 <(CH3)3

(b) o – NO2C6H4COOH
am
< (CH3)2
(c) p – NO2C6H4COOH
(2) (C6H5)2 < (C6H5)3 < (CH3)3
@
(d) m – NO2C6H4COOH
< (CH3)2
C
Which of the following order is correct ?

he
(1) a > b > c > d (2) b > d > c > a (3) (CH3)2 < (CH3)3 < (C6H5)3
m
(3) b > d > a > c (4) b > c > d > a < (C6H5)2
is
Q.13 Which of the following is the strongest base - (4) (CH3)2 < (CH3)3 < (C6H5)2
try
< (C6H5)3
(1) [AIEEE-2004]
_S
Q.17 CH3Br + Nu–  CH3 – Nu + Br–

pa
(2)
The decreasing order of the rate of the above
rk
reaction with nucleophiles (Nu–) A to D is

(3)
[Nu– = (A) PhO–, (B) AcO–, (C) HO–, (D) CH3O–]
[AIEEE-2006]
(4)
(1) D > C > B > A (2) A > B > C > D
Q.14 The decreasing order of nucleophilicity among
(3) B > D > C > A (4) D > C > A > B
the nucleophiles [AIEEE-2005]
Q.18 The correct order of increasing acid strength of
(a) (b) CH3O– (c) CN– the compounds- [AIEEE-2006]
(a) CH3CO2H (b) MeOCH2CO2H
(c) CF3CO2H (d) is
B
131
(1) d < a < c < b (2) d < a < b < c (2) p-NO2 – C6H4NH2
(3) a < d < c < b (4) b < d < a < c
(3) m-NO2 – C6H4NH2
Q.19 Which one of the following is the strongest base (4) C6H5CH2NH2
in aqueous solution ? [AIEEE-2007]
(1) Trimethylamine (2) Aniline Q.24 Which of the following has the highest
(3) Dimethylamine (4) Methylamine nucleophilicity ? [IIT - 2000]
(1) (2)
Q.20 Presence of a nitro group in a benzene ring- (3) (4)

[AIEEE-2007]
(1) activates the ring towards electrophilic Q.25 Which of the following has the most acidic
substitution hydrogen ? [IIT - 2000]
Te
(2) renders the ring basic (1) 3-Hexanone (2) 2,4-Hexanedione

(3) deactivates the ring towards nucleophilic (3) 2,5-Hexanedione (4) 2,3-Hexanedione
le
substitution
gr
Q.26 The correct order of basicities of the following

(4) deactivates the ring towards electrophilic
am
compounds is - [IIT - 2001]

substitution
(A) (B) CH3CH2NH2
@
Q.21 Arrange the carbanions, (CH3)3 , , (CH3)2

C
, C6H5 , in order of their decreasing stability- (C) (CH3)2NH (D)

he
(1) B > A > C > D (2) A > C > B > D

m
[AIEEE-2007]
(3) C > A > B > D (4) A > B > C > D
is
(1) (CH3)2 > > C6H5 > (CH3)3 Q.27 Identify the correct order of reactivity in
try
electrophilic substitution reaction of the following

(2) > C6H5 > (CH3)2 > (CH3)3 compounds- [IIT-2002]
_S
(3) (CH3)3 > (CH3)2 > C6H5 >

pa
(4) C6H5 > > (CH3)3 > (CH3)2

rk
1 2 3 4
Q.22 An aromatic molecule will - [IIT - 1999] (1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (2) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
(3) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4 (4) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4
(1) have 4n  electrons
(2) have (4n + 2)  electrons
Q.28 Which of the following acids has the smallest
(3) be planar
dissociation constant - [IIT - 2002]
(4) be cyclic
(1) CH3CHFCOOH
Q.23 Amongst the following, the most basic compound
(2) FCH2CH2COOH
is - [IIT - 2000]
(1) C6H5NH2 (3) BrCH2CH2COOH
e
132
(4) CH3CHBrCOOH
Q.29 Identify the correct order of boiling points of the (3) (4)
following compounds - [IIT - 2002]
CH3CH2CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2CHO,
(I) (II)
CH3CH2CH2COOH
Q.33 Order of rate of reaction of following compound
(III)
with phenyl magnesium bromide is - [IIT - 2004]
(1) I > II > III (2) III > I > II
(3) I > III > II (4) III > II > I
Ph – – Ph Me – – H Me – – Me
Q.30 Which of the following hydrocarbons has the (I) (II) (III)
lowest dipole moment - [IIT - 2002] (1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I
Te
(3) III > I > II (4) II > I > III

(1) (2) CH3CCCH3
le
(3) CH3CH2CCH (4) H2C=CH–CCH

gr
Q.34 [IIT - 2004]

am
Q.31 Left to right sp2, sp2, sp, sp hybridization is

present in - [IIT - 2003] Correct order of acidic strength is :
@
(1) H2C=CH–CN (2) H2C=C=CH–CH3 (1) x > y > z (2) z > y > x
(3) y > z > x (4) x > z > y
C
(3) HCC–CCH (4) HCC–CH=CH2

Q.35 Which of the following is least stable
he
[IIT - 2005]
m
(1)
is
(2)
try
Q.32 [IIT - 2003]

(3)
_S
(4)
Q.36 Among the following, the least stable resonance
pa
structure is : [IIT - 2007]

when X is made to react with 2 eq. of NaNH 2 the
rk
product formed will be- (1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
B
133
Q.37 The correct acidity order of the following is-
[IIT - 2009]
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I)

(2) (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II)
(3) (III) > (II) > (I) > (IV) Q.43 The compounds P, Q and S [IIT-2010]
(4) (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I)
Q.38 In the following carbocation, H/CH 3 that is most
likely to migrate to the positively charged carbon
is - [IIT - 2009]
were separately subjected to nitration using

Te
HNO3/H2SO4 mixture. The major product formed

in each case respectively, is
le
(1) CH3 at C-4 (2) H at C-4

gr
(3) CH3 at C-2 (4) H at C-2

am
Q.39 The correct stability order of the following

@
resonance structures is - [IIT - 2009] (1)

C
he
(1) (I) > (II) > (IV) > (III)

m
(2) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)

is
(3) (II) > (I) > (III) > (IV)

try
(4) (III) > (I) > (IV) > (II)

_S
Q.40 The correct order of increasing basicity of the

pa
given conjugate bases is -

[AIEEE-2010]
rk
(2)
 
(1) RCOO < HCC < NH2 < R
(2) RCOO < HCC < R < NH2
(3) R < HCC < RCOO < NH2
(4) RCOO < NH2 < HCC < R
Q.41 Out of the following the alkene that exhibits

optical isomerism is [AIEEE-2010]
(1) 2-methyl-2-pentene (2) 3-methyl-2-pentene
(3) 4-methyl-pentene (4) 3-methyl-1-pentene
Q.42 The total number of basic groups in the following

form of lysine is – [IIT-2010]
·134
Q.46 The correct order of acid strength of the
following compounds is : [AIEEE-2011]
A. Phenol
B. p-Cresol
C. m-Nitrophenol
(3)
D. p-Nitrophenol
(1) D > C > A >B
(2) B > D > A >C
(3) A > B > D >C
(4) C > B > A >D
(4)
Te
Q.44 The strongest acid amongst the following

le
compounds is [AIEEE-2011]
gr
(1) CH3 COOH

am
(2) HCOOH
(3) CH3CH2CH(Cl)CO2H Q.47 The non aromatic compound among the
following is - [AIEEE-2011]
@
(4) ClCH2 CH2CH2COOH

C
(1) (2)
he
m
(3) (4)
Q.45 Consider thiol anion (RS ) and alkoxy anion
is
(RO ). Which of the following statement is

try
correct ? [AIEEE-2011]
(1) RS is less basic but more nucleophilic
_S
than RO
pa
(2) RS is more basic and more nucleophilic

than RO
rk
(3) RS is more basic but less nucleophilic than

RO
(4) RS is less basic and less nucleophilic than
RO
mag
135
EXERCISE # 4
(ASSERTION – REASON TYPE QUESTIONS)
These questions consist of two statements Q.5 Assertion : Cyclopentadienyl anion is much
each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While more stable than allyl anion.
(AIIMS-2005)
answering these Questions you are required
Reason : Cyclopentadienyl anion aromatic in
to choose any one of the following four
nature
responses. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are true &
the Reason is a correct explanation of the Q.6 Assertion : In the compound,
Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true the most electronegative
but Reason is not a correct explanation carbon is II.
Te
of the Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but the Reason is Reason : Carbon atom II has more s-character.
false.
le
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

(D) If Assertion & Reason both are false.
gr
Q.7 Assertion : Bridgehead carbocation is stable

am
while bridgehead carbanion is unstable.

Q.1 Assertion : Carbanions like ammonia have
pyramidal shape. Reason : Carbocation cannot be planar in
bridgehead position while carbanion does not
@
Reason : The carbon atom carrying negative

require planar configuration.
charge has an octet of electrons.
C
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
he
Q.2 Assertion : Tropylium cation is aromatic in Q.8 Assertion : CH3OCH3 and C2H5OH have
m
comparable molecular masses but boiling point

is
 of C2H5OH is higher than dimethyl ether.

nature
try
Reason : C2H5OH forms intermolecular

Reason : The only property that determines its
H-bonding while CH3OCH3 forms
_S
aromatic behaviour is its planar structure.

intramolecular H-bonding.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
pa
Q.3 Assertion : The potential energy barrier for

rk
Q.9 Assertion : Allyl carbocation is more stable

rotation about C=C bond in 2-butene is much
than propyl carbocation.
higher than that in ethylene.
Reason : Allyl carbocation has two sp 2
Reason : Hyperconjugation effect decreases the
hybridised carbons.
double bond character.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (D) 4
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.10 Assertion : o-Hydroxybenzoic acid has
Q.4 Assertion : Me3 is more stable than Me 2 intramolecular hydrogen bonding. [IIT - 2007]
Reason : p-Hydroxybenzoic acid has a lower
and Me2 is more stable than the Me . boiling point that o-hydroxybenzoic acid.
Reason : Greater the number of (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
hyperconjugative structures, more is the
stability of carbocation.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
na
136
Q.11 Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than Q.17 Assertion : Formaldehyde is a planar molecule.
benzene towards electrophilic substitution Reason : Carbon atom in formaldehyde is sp2-
reaction. [IIT-2000]
hybridized.
Reason : In the case of phenol, the
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
intermediate cabocation is more resonance
stabilised. Q.18 Assertion : The pKa value of acetic acid is
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D lower than that of phenol. (AIIMS-2004)
Reason : Phenoxide ion is more resonance
Q.12 Assertion : Tertiary carbocations are generally stabilized than acetate ion.
formed more easily than primary carbocations. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Reason : Hyperconjugation as well as inductive
Q.19 Assertion : Pyrrole is a weaker base than its
effect due to additional alkyl group stabilize
hydrogenated product pyrrolidine.
tertiary carbocations.
Reason : Lone pair of electrons on nitrogen are
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Te
delocalized in pyrole.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.13 Assertion : Allyl free radical is more stable
le
gr
than simple alkyl free radical.

Q.20 Assertion : The carbocation is
Reason : The allyl free radical stabilized by
am
resonance. less stable than .

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
@
Reason : In case of , the strongly

C
Q.14 Assertion : Nucleophiles attack the regions of

electron withdrawing – CF3 group intensifies
he
high electron density.

Reason : Nucleophiles act as lewis bases. the lone pairs of +ve charge but in case of ,
m
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

is
the lone pairs of electron on each of the three F-

try
atoms overlap with the empty p-orbital of the

Q.15 Assertion : Heterolytic fission involves the
carbocation carbon atom, thereby dispersing the
_S
breaking of a covalent bond in such a way that

+ve charge.
both the electrons of the shared pair are carried
pa
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

away by one of the atoms.
rk
Reason : Heterolytic fission occurs readily in Q.21 Assertion : Methylene has sextet of electrons
polar covalent bonds. around carbon.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Reason : Methylene behaves as nucleophile.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.16 Assertion : tert-Butoxide is a stronger base than
OH or C2H5 ion but is a much poor Q.22 Assertion : Acidity of the C–H bond decreases
nucleophile. in the order
Reason : A negatively charged ions is always HC CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH3
more powerful nucleophile than its conjugate Reason : Acidity of the C–H bond increases as
the electronegativity of the carbon to which it is
acid.
attached increases.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
ne
137
Q.23 Assertion : Benzyl chloride is more reactive
Q.26 Assertion : Aniline is more reactive than
than p-chloro toluene towards aqueous NaOH.
acetanilide (PhNHCOMe) for electrophilic
Reason : The C–Cl bond in benzyl chloride is
substitution.
more polar than C–Cl bond in p-chloro toluene.
Reason : Intermediate anion of aniline is more
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
stable.
Q.24 Assertion : CH3CH2OCH2Cl reacts faster when (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
treated with water than
CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH2Cl. Q. 27 Assertion : CHF3 is less acidic than CHCl3.
Reason : Carbonium ion formed by the Reaction : CCl3 is more stable than CF 3 due
ionisation of CH3CH2OCH2Cl is stabilized by to d-orbital resonance.
resonance. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.25 Assertion : p-Chloro aniline and anilinium

hydrochloride can be distinguished by AgNO3.
Reason : p-Chloro aniline is less basic than
aniline.
Te
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
passe
138
Q.23 Assertion : Benzyl chloride is more reactive
Q.26 Assertion : Aniline is more reactive than
than p-chloro toluene towards aqueous NaOH.
acetanilide (PhNHCOMe) for electrophilic
Reason : The C–Cl bond in benzyl chloride is
substitution.
more polar than C–Cl bond in p-chloro toluene.
Reason : Intermediate anion of aniline is more
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
stable.
Q.24 Assertion : CH3CH2OCH2Cl reacts faster when (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
treated with water than
CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH2Cl. Q. 27 Assertion : CHF3 is less acidic than CHCl3.
Reason : Carbonium ion formed by the Reaction : CCl3 is more stable than CF 3 due
ionisation of CH3CH2OCH2Cl is stabilized by to d-orbital resonance.
resonance. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
-
Q.25 Assertion : p-Chloro aniline and anilinium
hydrochloride can be distinguished by AgNO3.
Reason : p-Chloro aniline is less basic than
aniline.
2. Chapter
Te
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

le
gr
Classification & Nomenclature,

am
Sterochemistry
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
138
STUDY PACKAGE FOR IIT - JEE
Level – 1
1. CLASSIFICATION AND NOMENCLATURE
OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
Multiple Choice Question
1. The IUPAC name of the compound is

(a) 1, 2, 3-Tricyanopropane (b) 3-Cyanopentane-1,5-dinitrile
(c) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile (d) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbylamine
2. IUPAC name of the following compound

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(a) 1-(2-Butyl)cyclohexane (b) 1-(3-Butyl)cyclohexane

(c) 2-Cyclohexylbutane (d) 3-Cyclohexylbutane.
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3. The compound which has one isopropyl group is

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(a) 2, 2, 3, 3- Tetramethylpentane
(b) 2, 2-Dimethylpentane
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(c) 2, 2, 3-Trimethylpentane
(d) 2-Methylpentane.
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4. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is

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(a) 5, 6-Diethyl-8—methyldec-6-ene (b) 6-Butyl-5-ethyl-3-methyloct-4-ene

(c) 5,6-Diethyl-3-methyldec-4-ene (d) 2,4,5-Triethylnon-3-ene
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5. An organic compound X (molecular formula C 6H7O2N) has six carbon

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atoms in a ring system, two double bonds and a nitro group as

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substituent, X is
(a) Homocyclic but not aromatic (b) Aromatic but not homocyclic
(c) Homocyclic and aromatic (d) Heterocyclic and aromatic
6. 2-Methyl-2-butene will be represented as

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(a) 4-Hydroxy-1-methylpentanal
THE GUIDANCE 58/1, Kalu Sarai, Sarvpriya Vihar, New Delhi-110016, Ph: 41828089, 46043741 (147)
(b) 4-Hydroxy-2-methylpent -2-en-1–al
(c) 2-Hydroxy-4-methylpent-3-en-5-al
(d) 2-Hydroxy-3-methylpent-2-en-5-al
8. The IUPAC name of

(a) 4-Methyl-2-pentyne (b) 4,4’-Demethyl-2-butyne
(c) Isopropylmethylacetylene (d) 2-Methyl-4-pentyne.
9. The kind of valency that exists in CaH2 and C2H2 is?

(a) Electrovalency in CaH2 and covalency in C2H2
(b) Electrovalency in both
(c) Covalency in CaH2 and electrovalency in C2H2
(d) Covalency in both.
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10. Which of the following IUPAC names is correct ?

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(a) 2-Methyl-3-ethylpentane (b) 3-Ethyl-2-methylpentane

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(c) 2-Ethyl-3-methylpentane (d) 3-Methyl-2-ethylpentane.

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(a) 5-Vinyloct-3-en-1-al (b) 4-Butyl-2,5-hexadien-1-al

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(c) 5-Vinyloct-5-en-8-al (d) 3-Butyl-1,4-hexadien-8-al.

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12. The structural formula of cyclohexyl alcohol is

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(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these

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13. IUPAC name of (CH3)2CH – CH2-CH2Br is

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(a) 1-Bromopentane (b) 2-Methyl-4-bromobutane

(c) 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane (d) 2-Methyl-3-bromopropane.
14. The IUPAC name of the compound is
(a) 1,1-Dimethylbutane-1,3-diol (b) 1,3,3-Trimethylpropane –1,3-diol

(c) 2-Methylpentane-2,4-diol (d) 1,3,3-Trimethyl-1,3-propanediol.
15. The IUPAC name of (CH3)3 C—CH=CH2 is

(a) 2,2-Dimethylbut-3-ene (b) 2,2-Dimethylpent-4-ene
(c) 3,3-Dimethylbut-1-ene (d) Hex-1-ene.
16. IUPAC name for the compound is

(a) trans-2-Chloro-3-iodopentene-2
(b) cis-2-Chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
(c) trans-3-Iodo-4-chloro-3-Pentene
(d) cis-3-Iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene.
17. The IUPAC name for the formula, is
(a) 2-Methyl-2-butenoic acid (b) 3-Methyl-3-butenoic acid

(c) 3-Methyl-2-butenoic acid (d) 2-Methyl-3-butenoic acid.
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(a) 6-Chloro-4-ethyl-5-methylhept-5-en-1-yne
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(b) 6-Chloro-4-ethyl-5-methylhept-1-yn-5-ene
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(c) 2-Chloro-4-ethyl-3-methylhept-2-en-6-yne
(d) 2-Chloro-4-ethyl-3-methylhept-6-yn-2-ene
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19. The IUPAC name of the compound having the molecular formula
C
Cl3C-CH2CHO is
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(a) 3,3,3-Trichloropropanal (b) 1,1,1-Trichloropropanal

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(c) 2,2,2-Trichloropropanal (d) Chloral.

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(a) 5-Oxo-4-hydroxy-2-pentanone (b) 4-Hydroxy-5-al-2-pentanone

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(c) 2-Hydroxy-4-oxopentanal (d) 1-Al-4-oxo-2-pentanol.

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(a) 3,4,4-Trimethylheptane (b) 3,4,4-Trimethyloctane

(c) 2-Butyl-2-methyl-3-ethylbutane (d) 2-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylheptane.
22. The IUPAC name of CH3CH=CHCOOC2H5 is

(a) Ethyl but-1-enoate (b) Ethyl but 2-enoate
(c) Ethyl prop-2-enoate (d) None of these.
(a) Cyclohexanone (b) Cyclohexylmethanone

(c) Oxycyclohexene (d) Cyclohexylidenemethanone
24. IUPAC name of CH2=CHCN is

(a) Ethenenitrile (b) Vinyl cyanide
(c) Cyanoethene (d) 2-Propenenitrile
25. Vinylcarbinol is
(a) HO—CH2—CH = CH2 (b) CH3CH(OH) = CH2
(c) CH3—CH = CH—OH (d) CH3—C(CH2OH) = CH2
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26. The correct IUPAC name of is

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(a) Formylmethanal (b) 1,2-Ethanedione

(c) 2-Oxoethanal (d) 1,2-Ethanedial.
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27. The IUPAC name of the following CH3C(CH3)2CH2CH = CH2 is

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(a) 2,2-Dimethyl-4-pentene (b) 4,4,-Dimethyl-1-pentene

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(c) 1,1,1-Trimethyl-3-butene (d) 4,4,4-Trimethyl-1-butene

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28. Which of the following compound has wrong IUPAC name?

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(a) CH3 - CH2 - CH2 – COO - CH2CH3

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ethylbutanoate
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(b)
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(c)
(d)
2-methyl-3-pentanone
29. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is

(a) 2-methyl-3-butanone (b) 4-methylisopropopyl ketone
(c) 3-methyl-2-butanone (d) Isopropyl methyl ketone.
30. Name of the compound given below is
(a) 4-ethyl-3-methyloctane (b) 3-methyl-4-ethyloctane

(c) 2, 3-diehylheptane (d) 5-ethyl-6-methyloctane
2. PURIFICATION AND CHARACTERIZATION

1. If two compounds have the same empirical formula but different

molecular formulae, they must have
(a) different percentage composition (b) different molecular weights
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(b) same viscosity (d) same vapour density.

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2. Soda-lime test is used to detect the following element in an organic

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compound?
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(a) C (b) H (c) N (d) S

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3. Lassaigne’s test is used in qualitative analysis to detect

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(a) Nitrogen (b) Sulphur (c) Chlorine (d) All of these.

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4. If on adding FeCl3 solution to acidified Lassaigne’s solution, a blood red

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colouration is produced, it indicates the presence of

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(a) S (b) N (c) N and S (d) S and Cl.

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5. Kjeldahl’s method is used in the estimation of

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(a) Nitrogen (b) Halogens (c) Sulphur (d) Oxygen.

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6. In sodium fusion test of organic compounds, the nitrogen of the organic

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compound is converted into

(a) Sodamide (b) Sodium cyanide
(c) Sodium nitrite (d) Sodium nitrate
7. Two elements X (atomic weight = 75) and Y (atomic weight = 16) combine
to give a compound having 75.8% X. The formula of the compound is
(a) XY (b) X2Y (c) X2Y2 (d) X2Y3.
8. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen fails in

(a) NH2CONHNH2.HCl (b) NH2NH2.HCl.
(b) NH2CONH2 (d) C6H5NHNH2.HCl.
9. The most suitable method for separation of a 1:1 mixture of ortho and
para-nitrophenols is
(a) Sublimation (b) Chromatography
(c) Crystallization (d) Steam distillation
10. The compound that does not give a blue colour in Lassaigne’s test is
(a) Aniline (b) Glycine (c) Hydrazine (d) Urea
11. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with dil HNO 3 before testing for halogens
because
(a) Silver halides are soluble in HNO3
(b) Na2S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO3
(c) Ag2S is Soluble in HNO3
(d) AgCN is soluble is HNO3
12. Dumas method involves the determination of nitrogen content in the

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organic compound in form of

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(a) NH3 (b) N2 (c) NaCN (d) (NH4)2SO4

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13. If a compound on analysis was found to contain C = 18.5%, H=1.55%, Cl=

55.04% and O=24.81%, then its empirical formula is
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(a) CHClO (b) CH2ClO (c) C2H2OCl(d) ClCH2O

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14. A compound with empirical formula CH 2O has a vapour density of 30. Its
C
molecular formula is
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(a) C2H2O2 (b) C2H4O2 (c) C3H6O3 (d) C6H12O6

15. Molecular mass of a volatile substance may be obtained by
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(a) Kjeldahl’s method (b) Duma’s method

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(c) Victor- Meyer’s method (d) Liebig’s method

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16. The Belistein test for organic compounds is used to detect

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(a) Nitrogen (b) Sulphur (c) Carbon (d) Halogens

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17. Which of the following compounds does not show Lassaigne’s test for
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nitrogen ?
(a) Urea (b) Hydrazine
(c) Phenylhydrazine (d) Azobenzene
18. Percentage of Se (at.wt = 78.4) in peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is 0.5% by

weight, then minimum molecular weight of peroxidase anhydrase enzyme
is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
19. In a compound of C, H and N atoms are present in 9:1:3.5 by weight.

If molecular weight of the compound is 108, then molecular formula of the
compound is
(a) C2H6N2 (b) C3H4N (c) C6H8N2 (d) C9H12N3
20. 0.833 mole of a carbohydrate with empirical formula CH 2O has 10 gram of

hydrogen. What is its molecular formula?
(a) C5H10O5 (b) C6H12O6 (c) C3H4O3 (d) C6H12O5
21. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Using Lassaigne’s test nitrogen and sulphur present in an organic
compound can be tested
(b) Using Beilstein’s test, the presence of halogen in a compound can be
tested.
(c) In Lassaigne’s filtrate, the nitrogen present in the organic compound is
converted into NaCN.
(d) Lassaigne’s test fails to identify nitrogen in diazo compound.
(e) In the estimation of carbon, an organic compound is heated with CaO
in a combustion tube.
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22. Sublimation cannot be used for purification of

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(a) Urea (b) Camphor (c) Benzoic acid (d) Naphthalene

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23. Beilstein’s test is answered by

(a) Halogens (b) Pyridine (c) Thiourea (d) All the above.
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24. 0.532 g of the chloroplatinate of an organic base (mol.wt.244)gave 0.195 g

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of Pt on ignition. Then the number of nitrogen atoms per molecule of the

base is
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(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

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25. Complete combustion of a sample of a hydrocarbon gives 0.66 g of CO 2

and 0.36 g of H2O. The empirical formula of the compound is
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(A) CH2 (b) C3H4 (c) C3H8 (d) C6Hg

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26. Two organic compounds A and B, both containing only C and H yield, On
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analysis, the same percentage composition by weight :

and A decolourises Br2 – water but
B does not. Identity A and B
(a) A= C2H2, B = C6H6 (b) A = C6H6, B=C2H2
(c) A = C2H4, B = C2H6 (d) A = C2H2, B = C3H8
27. Complete combustion of 0.858 of compound X gives 2.63 g of CO 2 and
1.28 g of H2O.The lowest molecular weight, X can have is
(a) 43 (b) 86 (c) 129 (d) 172
3. ISOMERISM AND STEREOCHEMISTRY OF ORGANIC
COMPOUNDS
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1. The maximum number of isomers for an alkene with the molecular
formula C4H8 is
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
2. How many chain isomers could be obtained from the alkane C 6H14 ?
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) Seven
3. The number of structural and configurational isomers of a bromo

compound, C5H9Br, formed by the addition of HBr to 2-pentyne
respectively are
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 4and 2 (d) 2 and 1
4. Which of the following is an optically active compound?

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(a) 1-Butanol (b) 1-Propanol

(c) 2-Chlorobutane (d) 4-Hydroxyheptane
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5. Which one of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism?

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(a) CH3-CHCl-COOH (b)

(c) (d)
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6. Which of the following will have least hindered rotation about carbon-
C
carbon bond?
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(a) Ethane (b) Ethylene (c) Acetylene (d) Hexachloroethane

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7. How many chiral carbon atoms are present in 2,3,4-trichloropentane ?

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(a) Three (b) Two (c) One (d) Four

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8. Isomers of a substance must have the same

(a) Structural formula (b) Physical properties
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(c) Chemical properties (d) Molecular formula

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9. An organic molecule necessarily shows optical activity if it

(a) contains asymmetric carbon atoms
(b) is non-polar
(c) is non-superimposable on its mirror image
(d) is superimposable on its mirror image.
10. The stability of the compounds
(a) (iv) > (iii)>(i) >(ii) (b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(c) (ii) > (iii)> (i) > (iv) (d) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
11. An organic compound C4H8O, is found to be optically active.

Which of the following could it be ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
12. One recently discovered allotrope of carbon (e.g.C 60) is commonly known
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as
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(a) Flourine (b) Fullerene (c) Flourene (d) Freon.

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13. Which one of the following is the stablest structure of cyclohexatriene ?

(a) Chair form (b) Boat form (c) Half chair form (d) Planar form
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14. How many structural isomers are there of C 4H10O that are ethers?
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(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4

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15. Which organic structure among the following is not an isomer of the
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compound ?
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(a) CH3CH2OCH =CHCH2CH3 (b) CH3CH=CHCH2CH2 CHO

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(c) (CH3)2CH-CO-CH2CH3 (d) CH3CH2COCH2CH2CH3.

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16. In the following structures, which two forms are staggered conformation of
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ethane ?
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(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
17. meso –Tartaric acid is optically inactive due to the presence of

(a) Molecular symmetry (b) Molecular asymmetry
(c) External compensation (d) Two asymmetric carbon atoms.
18. The process of separation of racemic modification into-d-and
l-enantiomers is called
(a) Resolution (b) Dehydration
(c) Revolution (d) Dehydrohalogenation
19. The most stable conformation of ethylene glycol is

(a) Anti (b) Gauche (c) Partially eclipsed (d) Fully eclipsed
20. In the reaction, a chiral centre is

produced. This product would be
(a) Laevorotatory (b) Meso-compound
(c) Dextrorotatory (d) Racemic mixture
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21. Which of the following has zero dipole moment ?

(a) cis -2-Butene (b)trans -2-Butene
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(c) 1-Butene (d) 2-Methyl-1-propene

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22. How many stereoisomers are there for tartaric acid ?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
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23. The total number of isomers for C4H8 is

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(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

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24. The two compounds shown in the figure below are

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(a) Diastereomers (b) Enantiomers

(c) Epimers (d) Regiomers
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25. The number of possible enantiomeric pairs that can be produced during
monochlorination of 2-methylbutane is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
26. The correct statement about the compounds A,B,C
(a) A and B are identical (b) A and B are diastereomers

(c) A and C are enantiomers (d) A and B are enantiomers
27. How many optically active stereoisomers are possible for butane-2,
3-diol ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
28. The isomers which can be converted into another form by rotation of the
molecule around single bond are
(a) Geometrical isomers (b) Conformers
(c) Enantiomers (d) Diastereomers
29. The most stable conformation of n-butane is

(a) skew-boat (b) Eclipsed (c) Gauche (d) Staggered-antill
30. The compound given below are

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(a) Enantiomers (b) Identical

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(c) Regiomers (d) Diastereomers

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4. SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES OF ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

AND REACTION MECHANISM
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1. Which of the following contains three pairs of electrons in the valence

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shell ?
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(a) Carbocations (b) Carbanions (c) Free radicals (d) None.

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2. The bonds between carbon atom (1) and carbon atom (2) in compound
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involves the hybrid as

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(a) sp2 and sp2 (b) sp3 and sp (c) sp and sp2 (d) sp and sp
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3. The Cl—C—Cl angle in 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloroethene and

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tetrachloromethane respectively will be about

(a) 120º and 109.5 (b) 90º and 109.5º
(c) 109.5º and 90º (d) 109.5º and 120º
4. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of
(a) Electrophilic addition (b) Nucleophilic addition
(c) Nucleophilic substitution (d) Electrophilic substitution
5. Which of the following possesses a sp-carbon in its structure?

(a) CH2=CCl-CH=CH2 (b) CCl2=CCl2
(c) CH2=C=CH2 (d) CH2=CH-CH=CH2.
6. The compound in which C uses only its sp 3- hybrid orbitals for bond
formation is
(a) HCOOH (b) (H2N)2CO (c) (CH3)3COH (d) CH3CHO
7. The enolic form of acetone contains
(a) Nine and two lone pairs
(b) Eight and two lone pairs
(c) Nine pair
(d) Nine  – bonds, two  – bonds and one lone pair.
8. The shortest C-C bond distance is found in

(a) Diamond (b) Ethane (c) Benzene (d) Acetylene
9. The C-C bond length of the following molecules is in the order:

(a) C2H6> CH4> C6H6> C2H2 (b) C2H2<C2H4<C6H6<C2H6
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(c) (d) C2H4>C2H6>C2H2>C6H6.

10. The hybridization of carbon atoms in C-C single bond of
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(a) sp -sp
3 3
(b) sp2-sp3 (c) sp-sp2 (d) sp3-sp.
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11. Number of -electrons in cyclobutadienyl anion (C4H4)2- is

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(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

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12. A straight chain hydrocarbon has the molecular formula C 8H10. The
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hybridization of the carbon atoms from one end of the chain to the other
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are respectively sp3, sp2, sp2, sp3, sp2, sp2, sp and sp.
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The structural formula of the hydrocarbon would be :

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(a) (b)CH3CH2-CH= CHCH=CHC CH

(c) (d)
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13. Homolytic fission of C-C bond in ethane gives an intermediate in which

carbon is
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(a) sp3-hybridised (b) sp2-hybridised

(c) sp-hybridised (d) sp2d- hybridised
14. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation (carbonium ion ) ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15. Which one of the following has the smallest heat of hydrogenation per
mole?
(a) 1-Butene (b) trans-2-Butene
(c) cis-2-Butene (d) 1, 3-Butadiene.
16. Which is the correct symbol relating the two Kekule structures of
benzene?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
17. When the hybridization state of carbon atom changes from sp 3 to sp2 and
finally to sp, the angle between the hybridized orbitals
(a) decreases gradually (b) decreases considerably
(c) is not affected (d) increases progressively
18. The maximum number of carbon atoms arranged linearly in the molecule,
CH3-C C-CH=CH2 is
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
19. The kind of delocalization involving sigma bond orbitals is called

(a) Inductive effect (b) Hyperconjugation effect
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(c) Electromeric effect (d) Mesomeric effect

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20. Which of the following statements is false about resonance contribution

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structures ?
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(a) Contributing structures contribute to the resonance hybrid in

proportion of their relative energies
(b) Equivalent contributing structures make the resonance very important
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(c) Contributing structures represent molecules having no real existence

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(d) Contributing structures are less stable than the resonance hybrid
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21. In which of the compounds given below is there more than one kind of
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hybridization (sp, sp2, sp3) for carbon?

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(i) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (ii) CH3CH=CHCH3

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(iii)CH2=CH-CH=CH2 (iv) H-C C-H

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(a) (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii).
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22. Examine the following chemical structures to which simple functional

groups are often attached.
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(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) CH3CH2CH2CH2 –
(v)
Which of these systems have essentially planar geometry?

(a)(i) and (v) (b)(ii) and (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv)
23. Which of the following will show aromatic behaviour ?
24. The bond length between sp3-hybridized carbon and other carbon atom is
minimum in
(a) Propane (b) Propyne (c) Propene (d) Butane
25. The order of decreasing stability of the carbanions

(CH3)3C-(I); (CH3)2CH-(II);
(a) I > II > III > IV (b) IV > III > II > I
(c) IV > I > II > III (d) I > II > IV > III
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26. The reaction, is

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(a) Nucleophilic addition (b) Electrophilic substitution

(c) Electrophilic addition (d) Free radical addition
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27. Electrophile in the case of chlorination of benzene in presence of FeCl 3 is

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(a) Cl+ (b) (c) Cl (d) FeCl3

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28. The cylindrical shape of alkynes is due to

(a) three sigma C—C bonds (b) three C—C bonds
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(c) two bonds

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(d) one sigma C—C and two  C—C bonds

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29. Which of the following species would be expected to exhibit aromatic

character? Select the correct answer from the following:
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(a) I and IV (b) II and IV (c) I and III (d) II and III
30. Which of the following is correct regarding the –I-effect of the

substitutents?
(a) –NR2 < -OR < - F (b) – NR2> -OR < -F
(c) – NR2< -OR > -F (d) –NR2>-OR > -F
Answer Keys
1. CLASSIFICATION AND NOMENCLATURE
Answer Key
1. c 11. b 21. b
2. a 12. a 22. b
3. d 13. c 23. d
4. c 14. c 24. d
5. b 15. c 25. a
6. b 16. a 26. d
7. b 17. c 27. b
8. a 18. a 28. c
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9. a 19. a 29. c
10. b 20. c 30. a
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Answers Key

1. B 11. B 21. E
2. C 12. B 22. A
3. D 13. A 23. D
4. C 14. B 24. D
5. A 15. C 25. C
6. B 16. D 26. A
7. D 17. B 27. A
8. B 18. A
9. D 19. C ⑳
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10. C 20. A
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le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
3. ISOMERISM AND STEREOCHEMISTRY OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

pa
Answer Key
rk

1. c 11. d 21. b
2. b 12. b 22. b
3. b 13. d 23. b
4. c 14. b 24. b
5. c 15. b 25. a
6. a 16. c 26. d
7. a 17 a 27. b
8. d 18. a 28. b
9. c 19. b 29. d
10. a 20. d 30. b

Answers Key

1. B 11. B 21. E
2. C 12. B 22. A
3. D 13. A 23. D
4. C 14. B 24. D
5. A 15. C 25. C
6. B 16. D 26. A
7. D 17. B 27. A
8. B 18. A
-
9. D 19. C
Te
10. C 20. A
le
3. Chapter
gr
am
Chemical Bonding
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
3. ISOMERISM AND STEREOCHEMISTRY OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

pa
Answer Key
rk

1. c 11. d 21. b
2. b 12. b 22. b
3. b 13. d 23. b
4. c 14. b 24. b
5. c 15. b 25. a
6. a 16. c 26. d
7. a 17 a 27. b
8. d 18. a 28. b
9. c 19. b 29. d
10. a 20. d 30. b

even in vapour state. Such bonds account for the fact
that gaseous hydrogen fluoride is largely
polymerised into the molecular species
and .
 Hydrogen bonding is strongest when the bonded

 A chemical bond is expected to be formed when the structure is stabilised by resonance.
energy of the aggregate formed is about 40 kJ mole–1
lower than the separate particles.  Critical temperature of water is higher than that of
because molecule has dipole moment.
 Formation of a chemical bond is always an exothermic
process.
 Lattice energies of bi-bivalent solids > bi-univalent

solids > uni-univalent solids. For example, lattice
energy of
Te
Electrovalent bonding
1. Which forms a crystal of

le
.
[CPMT 1972; NCERT 1976; DPMT 1996]
gr
 When co-ordination number increases, the coulombic

(a) molecules (b) and ions
am
forces of attraction increases and hence stability

(c) and atoms (d) None of the above
increases.
2. When sodium and chlorine reacts then [NCERT 1973]
@
 Ionic solids have negative vapour pressure. (a) Energy is released and ionic bond is formed
(b) Energy is released and a covalent bond is formed
C
 As a general rule, atomic crystals are formed by the

(c) Energy is absorbed and ionic bond is formed
he
lighter elements of the middle columns of the

(d) Energy is absorbed and covalent bond is formed
periodic table.
3. Which one is least ionic in the following compounds
m
 is more covalent than because [CPMT 1976; BHU 1998]

is
(a) (b)
polarising power of is more than that of .
try
(c) (d)
Similarly is more covalent than .
4. The electronic configuration of four elements L, P, Q
_S
 Boron forms the maximum number of electron and R are given in brackets
pa
deficient compounds than any other elements in the

periodic table.
rk
 Roughly each lone pair decreases the bond angle by The formulae of ionic compounds that can be formed
2.5°. between these elements are [NCERT 1983]
(a) and (b)
 Greater the number of the lone pairs at the two
and
bonding atoms, greater is the repulsion between
(c) and (d)
them and weaker is the bond.
and
 The actual number of s- and p-electrons present in
5. Electrovalent compound's [MP PMT 1984]
the outermost shell of the element is called
(a) Melting points are low
maximum covalency of that atom.
(b) Boiling points are low
 The hydrogen bonds are tetrahedral in their (c) Conduct current in fused state
directions and not planar. (d) Insoluble in polar solvent
6. A electrovalent compound is made up of
 The hydrogen bond is stronger in HF and persists [CPMT 1978, 81; MNR 1979]
(a) Electrically charged molecules compounds formed from their combination will be [IIT
(b) Neutral molecules 1980]
(c) Neutral atoms (a) (b)
(d) Electrically charged atoms or group of atoms (c) (d)
7. Electrovalent bond formation depends on
16. In the formation of from and [CPMT
(a) Ionization energy (b) Electron affinity 1985]
(c) Lattice energy (d) All the three above (a) Sodium and chlorine both give electrons
8. In the following which substance will have highest
(b) Sodium and chlorine both accept electrons
boiling point [NCERT 1973; MP PMT 1990]
(c) Sodium loses electron and chlorine accepts
(a) (b)
electron
(c) (d)
(d) Sodium accepts electron and chlorine loses
9. An atom of sodium loses one electron and chlorine electron
atom accepts one electron. This result the formation 17. Which of the following is an electrovalent linkage
of sodium chloride molecule. This type of molecule will [CPMT 1974; DPMT 1984, 91; AFMC 1988]
be
(a) (b)
Te
[MP PMT 1987]

(c) (d)
(a) Coordinate (b) Covalent
le
(c) Electrovalent (d) Matallic bond 18. Electrovalent compounds do not have [CPMT 1991]
gr
10. Formula of a metallic oxide is The formula of its (a) High M.P. and Low B.P.(b) High dielectric
constant
am
phosphate will be [CPMT 1986, 93]

(c) High M.P. and High B.P. (d) High polarity
(a) (b)
19. Many ionic crystals dissolve in water because
@
(c) (d) [NCERT 1982]

(a) Water is an amphiprotic solvent
C
11. From the following which group of elements easily

(b) Water is a high boiling liquid
he
forms cation
(a) (b) (c) The process is accompanied by a positive heat of
m
solution
(c) (d)
(d) Water decreases the interionic attraction in the
is
12. Which type of compounds show high melting and

crystal
try
boiling points [CPMT 1996]

lattice due to solvation
(a) Electrovalent compounds
_S
20. The electronic structure of four elements A, B, C, D are

(b) Covalent compounds
(A) (B)
pa
(c) Coordinate compounds

(d) All the three types of compounds have equal (C) (D)
rk
melting and boiling points The tendency to form electrovalent bond is largest in
13. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon [MNR 1987, 95]
[AIEEE 2005] (a) A (b) B
(a) Charge on the ion only (c) C (d) D
(b) Size of the ion only 21. Chloride of metal is . The formula of its
(c) Packing of ions only phosphate will be [CPMT 1979]
(d) Charge on the ion and size of the ion
(a) (b)
14. In the given bonds which one is most ionic
[EAMCET 1980] (c) (d)
(a) (b) 22. The phosphate of a metal has the formula .
(c) (d) The formula of its nitrate will be
15. Element is strongly electropositive and is strongly [CPMT 1971; MP PMT 1996]
electronegative. Both element are univalent, the (a) (b)
(c) (d) [DPMT 1982; CPMT 1972; MP PMT 1995]
(a) (b)
23. In the transition of atoms to ions there is a
decrease in the [CPMT 1972] (c) (d)
(a) Number of valency electrons 31. Ionic bonds are usually formed by combination of
(b) Atomic weight elements with [CBSE PMT 1993; MP PMT 1994]
(c) Atomic number (a) High ionisation potential and low electron affinity
(d) Equivalent weight (b) Low ionisation potential and high electron affinity
24. Phosphate of a metal M has the formula (c) High ionisation potential and high electron affinity
(d) Low ionisation potential and low electron affinity
The formula for its sulphate would be
32. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the
[CPMT 1973; MP PMT 1996]
presence of [IIT 1981]
(a) (b)
(a) Free electrons
(c) (d) (b) Free ions
25. The molecular formula of chloride of a metal M is (c) Free molecules

Te
The formula of its carbonate would be [CPMT

(d) Atoms of sodium and chlorine
33. The phosphate of a metal has the formula
le
1987]
The formula of its chloride would be
gr
(a) (b)
[NCERT 1974; CPMT 1977]
am
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
26. Sodium chloride easily dissolves in water. This is
(c) (d)
@
because
[NCERT 1972; BHU 1973] 34. A number of ionic compounds e.g.
C
(a) It is a covalent compound are insoluble in water. This is because [NCERT

he
(b) Salt reacts with water 1984]

(a) Ionic compounds do not dissolve in water
m
(c) It is a white substance

(d) Its ions are easily solvated (b) Water has a high dielectric constant
is
(c) Water is not a good ionizing solvent

27. When is dissolved in water the sodium ion
try
(d) These molecules have exceptionally high

becomes
alternative forces in the lattice
_S
[NCERT 1974; CPMT 1989; MP PMT 1999]

35. What is the nature of chemical bonding between
(a) Oxidized (b) Reduced
pa
and
(c) Hydrolysed (d) Hydrated
[MP PMT 1987; CPMT 1976]
rk
28. Solid is a bad conductor of electricity since

(a) Covalent (b) Ionic
[AFMC 1980]
(c) Coordinate (d) Metallic
(a) In solid there are no ions 36. Which one of the following compound is ionic
(b) Solid is covalent [MNR 1985]
(c) In solid there is no motion of ions (a) (b)

(d) In solid there are no electrons (c) Diamond (d)
29. Favourable conditions for electrovalency are
37. Which of the following compound has electrovalent
(a) Low charge on ions, large cation, small anion linkage
(b) High charge on ions, small cation, large anion [CPMT 1983, 84, 93]
(c) High charge on ions, large cation, small anion
(a) (b)
(d) Low charge on ions, small cation, large anion
(c) (d)
30. The sulphate of a metal has the formula
38. An ionic compound is generally a [MADT Bihar 1981]
The formula for its phosphate will be
(a) Good electrolyte (b) Weak electrolyte (c) Addition reaction (d) Elimination reaction
(c) Non-electrolyte (d) Neutral 48. Electrovalent compounds are [CPMT 1996]
39. What metals combine with non-metals, the metal (a) Good conductor of electricity
atom tends to [AMU 1982] (b) Polar in nature
(a) Lose electrons (c) Low M.P. and low B.P.
(b) Gain electrons (d) Easily available
(c) Remain electrically neutral 49. Ionic compounds do not have [RPMT 1997]
(d) None of these (a) Hard and brittle nature
40. Chemical formula for calcium pyrophosphate is (b) High melting and boiling point
The formula for ferric pyrophosphate will be [NCERT (c) Directional properties
1977]
(d) Soluble in polar solvents
(a) (b)
50. Highest melting point would be of
(c) (d) [RPMT 1999]
41. Among the bonds formed by a chlorine atom with (a) (b)
Te
atoms of hydrogen, chlorine, sodium and carbon, the (c) (d)

strongest bond is formed between [EAMCET 1988; MP
le
51. What is the effect of more electronegative atom on

PMT 1993]
gr
the strength of ionic bond [AMU 1999]

(a) (b)
(a) Decreases (b) Increases
am
(c) (d)
(c) Decreases slowly (d) Remains the same
42. Which of the following is least soluble [CPMT 1989]
52. An element X with the electronic configuration
@
(a) (b) would be expected to form the

C
(c) (d) chloride with the formula [JIPMER 2000]

he
43. Which of the following halides has maximum melting (a) (b)
point
m
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
53. Two element have electronegativity of 1.2 and 3.0.
is
(c) (d) Bond formed between them would be [CPMT 1982; DCE
try
44. The high melting point and insolubility in organic 2000]

_S
solvents of sulphanilic acid are due to its ...... (a) Ionic (b) Polar covalent
structure. [IIT 1994] (c) Co-ordinate (d) Metallic
pa
(a) Simple ionic (b) Bipolar ionic 54. Which of the following is least ionic [MP PET 2002]
(c) Cubic (d) Hexagonal
rk
(a) (b)
45. Out of the following, which compound will have
(c) (d)
electrovalent bonding
(a) Ammonia (b) Water 55. Which type of bonding exists in and
(c) Calcium chloride (d) Chloromethane respectively [RPET 2000]
46. The force which holds atoms together in an (a) Ionic, ionic (b) Ionic, covalent
electrovalent bond is (c) Covalent, ionic (d) Coordinate, ionic
(a) Vander Waal's force 56. An atom with atomic number 20 is most likely to
(b) Dipole attraction force combine chemically with the atom whose atomic
(c) Electrostatic force of attraction number is
(d) All the above [BHU 2000]
47. The main reaction during electrovalent bond (a) 11 (b) 14

formation is (c) 16 (d) 10
(a) Redox reaction (b) Substitution reaction 57. Bond formed in crystal by anion and cation is
[CBSE PMT 2000] (c) (d)
(a) Ionic (b) Metallic
68. Which of the following conduct electricity in the fused
(c) Covalent (d) Dipole state
58. Atoms or group of atoms which are electrically [Roorkee 2000]
charged are known [UPSEAT 2001]
(a) (b)
(a) Anions (b) Cations
(c) (d)
(c) Ions (d) Atoms
59. Which one is the strongest bond [Pb. PMT 2001]
Covalent bonding
(a) (b)
1. The valency of sulphur in sulphuric acid is [NCERT
(c) (d)
1974]
60. The interionic attraction depends on interaction of
(a) 2 (b) 4
[Kerala CET (Med.) 2002]
(c) 6 (d) 8
(a) Solute-Solute (b) Solvent-Solvent
2. The number of electrons involved in the bond
(c) The charges (d) Molecular properties
formation of molecule
Te
61. Which of the following compounds is ionic

[IIT 1980; CPMT 1983, 84, 85; CBSE PMT 1992]
[UPSEAT 2002]
le
(a) 2 (b) 4
(a) (b)
gr
(c) 6 (d) 10
(c) Diamond (d)
am
3. The electronic configuration of four elements are

62. Which of the following pairs of species has same given in brackets
electronic configuration [UPSEAT 2002]
@
(a) and (b) and

C
(c) and (d) and The element that would most readily form a diatomic
he
63. The energy that opposes dissolution of a solvent is molecule is

m
[CPMT 2002] [NCERT 1983]

(a) Hydration energy (b) Lattice energy (a) Q (b) M
is
(c) Internal energy (d) Bond energy (c) R (d) L

try
64. Which of the following has highest melting point 4. In covalency [CPMT 1974, 76, 78, 81; AFMC 1982]
_S
[RPET 2003] (a) Electrons are transferred

(b) Electrons are equally shared
(a) (b)
pa
(c) The electron of one atom are shared between two

(c) (d) atoms
rk
65. Which of the following statements is not true for ionic (d) None of the above
compounds [RPET 2003] 5. Which compound is highest covalent
(a) High melting point (a) (b)
(b) Least lattice energy (c) (d) LiI
(c) Least solubility in organic compounds 6. The nature of bonding in graphite is
[DPMT 1986; CPMT 1986]
(d) Soluble in water
66. Electrolytes are compound containing [MADT Bihar
(c) Metallic (d) Coordinate
1981]
7. Which of the following substances has giant covalent
(a) Electrovalent bond (b) Covalent bond
structure [DPMT 1985, 86; NCERT 1975]
(c) Coordinate bond (d) Hydrogen bond
(a) Iodine crystal (b) Solid
67. Which of the following hydrides are ionic [Roorkee
1999] (c) Silica (d) White phosphorus
8. With which of the given pairs CO2 resembles [BHU 2005]
(a) (b)
(a) HgCl2, C2H2 (b) HgCl2, SnCl4
(c) C2H2, NO2 (d) N2O and NO2 (c) Water (d) Brass
9. The electron pair which forms a bond between two 19. Indicate the nature of bonding in diamond
similar non-metallic atoms will be [IIT 1986] [EAMCET 1980; BHU 1996; KCET 2000]
(a) Dissimilar shared between the two
(b) By complete transfer from one atom to other
(c) Coordinate (d) Hydrogen
(c) In a similar spin condition
(d) Equally shared in between the two 20. Octet rule is not valid for the molecule
10. For the formation of covalent bond, the difference in [IIT 1979; MP PMT 1995]
the value of electronegativities should be [EAMCET (a) (b)
1982]
(a) Equal to or less than 1.7 (b) More than 1.7 (c) (d)
(c) 1.7 or more (d) None of these 21. Which of the following compounds are covalent
11. Which type of bond is formed between similar atoms [IIT 1980; MLNR 1982]
(a) Ionic (b) Covalent
(a) (b)
(c) Coordinate (d) Metallic
12. Covalent compounds are generally ...... in water (c) (d)
Te
[CPMT 1987]
22. Indicate the nature of bonding in and
(a) Soluble (b) Insoluble
le
(c) Dissociated (d) Hydrolysed [NCERT 1973]

gr
13. Which one is the electron deficient compound [AIIMS (a) Covalent in and electrovalent in
am
1982]
(b) Electrovalent in both and
(a) (b)
(c) Covalent in both and
@
(c) (d)
14. Which among the following elements has the (d) Electrovalent in and covalent in
C
tendency to form covalent compounds

23. If the atomic number of element is 7, the best
he
(a) (b) electron dot symbol for the element is [NCERT 1973;
(c) (d)
m
CPMT 2003]
15. Silicon has 4 electrons in the outermost orbit. In (a) (b)
is
forming the bonds [EAMCET 1981]

try
(a) It gains electrons (b) It loses electrons (c) (d)

_S
(c) It shares electrons (d) None of these

16. Which of the following occurs when two hydrogen 24. Which is the most covalent [AFMC 1982]
pa
atoms bond with each others (a) (b)

(a) Potential energy is lowered (c) (d)
rk
(b) Kinetic energy is lowered 25. The covalent compound has the ionic character
(c) Electronic motion ceases as
(d) Energy is absorbed [EAMCET 1980]
17. A bond with maximum covalent character between (a) The electronegativity of hydrogen is greater than
non-metallic elements is formed [NCERT 1982] that of chlorine
(a) Between identical atoms (b) The electronegativity of hydrogen is equal to that
(b) Between chemically similar atoms of chlorine
(c) Between atoms of widely different (c) The electronegativity of chlorine is greater than
electronegativities that of hydrogen
(d) Between atoms of the same size (d) Hydrogen and chlorine are gases
18. Amongst the following covalent bonding is found in 26. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character
[CPMT 1973]
is represented by [CBSE PMT 2005]
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Magnesium chloride (a) (b)

(c) (d) (c) High melting points and low boiling points
27. Bond energy of covalent bond in water is (d) High melting points and high boiling points
[EAMCET 1982] 36. The interatomic distances in and molecules

(a) Greater than bond energy of bond are 74 and 198 pm respectively. The bond length of
is
(b) Equal to bond energy of bond
[MP PET 1993]
(c) Less than bond energy of bond
(a) 272 pm (b) 136 pm
(d) None of these
(c) 124 pm (d) 248 pm
28. Solid is [DPMT 1983] 37. On analysis, a certain compound was found to contain
(a) Molecular solid (b) Ionic solid iodine and oxygen in the ratio of of iodine
(c) Pseudo solid (d) Does not exist and of oxygen. The atomic mass of iodine is
127 and that of oxygen is 16. Which of the following is
29. A covalent bond is likely to be formed between two
the formula of the compound
elements which [MP PMT 1987]
[CPMT 1981]
(a) Have similar electronegativities
Te
(a) (b)
(b) Have low ionization energies
(c) (d)
le
(c) Have low melting points

38. Ionic and covalent bonds are present in
gr
(d) Form ions with a small charge

[CBSE PMT 1990; MNR 1990; KCET 2000; UPSEAT 2001]
am
30. The bond between two identical non-metal atoms has

a pair of electrons [CPMT 1986] (a) (b)
(a) Unequally shared between the two (c) (d)

@
(b) Transferred fully from one atom to another 39. Highest covalent character is found in [EAMCET 1992]
C
(c) With identical spins (a) (b)

he
(d) Equally shared between them (c) (d)

m
31. The valency of phosphorus in is [DPMT 1984] 40. Among the following which property is commonly
is
(a) 2 (b) 5 exhibited by a covalent compound [MP PET 1994]

try
(c) 4 (d) 1 (a) High solubility in water
32. Which of the following substances has covalent (b) High electrical conductance
_S
bonding (c) Low boiling point

(d) High melting point
pa
[AMU 1985]
(a) Germanium (b) Sodium chloride 41. Atoms in the water molecule are linked by [MP PAT
rk
1996]
(c) Solid neon (d) Copper
(a) Electrovalent bond
33. The covalency of nitrogen in is [CPMT 1987]
(b) Covalent bond
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) Coordinate covalent bond
(c) 4 (d) 5 (d) Odd electron bond
34. Hydrogen chloride molecule contains a [CPMT 1984] 42. Which is the correct electron dot structure of
(a) Covalent bond (b) Double bond molecule
(c) Coordinate bond (d) Electrovalent bond [MP PET 1996]
35. As compared to covalent compounds, electrovalent (a) (b)

compounds generally have
[CPMT 1990, 94; MP PMT 1997]
(c) (d)
(a) Low melting points and low boiling points
(b) Low melting points and high boiling points
43. A covalent bond between two atoms is formed by 50. The valency of and , then the compound
which of the following [MP PMT 1996] is
(a) Electron nuclear attraction [Bihar MEE 1997]
(b) Electron sharing (a) (b)

(c) Electron transfer (c) (d)
(d) Electrostatic attraction (e) None of these
44. The electronic configuration of a metal is 51. The number of electrons shared by each outermost
The formula of its oxides will shell of is [AFMC 1998]
be (a) 2 (b) 3
[MP PET/PMT 1998] (c) 4 (d) 5
(a) (b) 52. Which of the following substances when dissolved in
water will give a solution that does not conduct
(c) (d) electricity
45. Which of the following statements regarding covalent [JIPMER 1999]
bond is not true [MP PET/PMT 1998] (a) Hydrogen chloride (b) Potassium hydroxide
Te
(a) The electrons are shared between atoms (c) Sodium acetate (d) Urea
(b) The bond is non-directional 53. Which of the following atoms has minimum covalent
le
(c) The strength of the bond depends upon the radius

gr
extent of overlapping [DPMT 2000]

(d) The bond formed may or may not be polar
am
(a) B (b) C
46. If the electronic configuration of and (c) N (d) Si
that of the formula of the compound is 54. Boron form covalent compound due to [Pb. PMT 2000]
@
[Bihar MEE 1996]

(a) Small size (b) Higher ionization
(a) (b)
C
energy
he
(c) (d) (c) Lower ionization energy (d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) 55. Two elements X and Y have following electron

m
configurations
47. The table shown below gives the bond dissociation
is
energies for single covalent bonds of carbon X

try
(C) atoms with element and Which and Y

element has the smallest atoms [CBSE PMT 1994]
_S
The compound formed by combination of X and Y is

[DPMT 2001]
Bond
pa
(a) (b)
240
rk
(c) (d)
328
56. Covalent compounds have low melting point because
276
[KCET 2002]
485
(a) Covalent bond is less exothermic
(a) A (b) B
(b) Covalent molecules have definite shape
(c) C (d) D
(c) Covalent bond is weaker than ionic bond
48. If a molecule has a triple bond, then will have
(d) Covalent molecules are held by weak Vander
the electronic configuration [CET Pune 1998]
Waal’s force of attraction
(a) (b)
57. p and n-type of semiconductors are formed due to
(c) (d) [UPSEAT 2002]
49. Which of the following compounds does not follow the (a) Covalent bonds (b) Metallic bonds
octet rule for electron distribution [CET Pune 1998]
(c) Ionic bonds (d) Co-ordinate bond
(a) (b)
58. Which of the following is Lewis acid [RPET 2003]
(c) (d)
(a) (b) (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
(c) (d)
69. Number of electrons in the valence orbit of nitrogen in
59. Among the species : an ammonia molecule are [MH CET 2004]
(a) 8 (b) 5
HCHO which has the weakest carbon-
(c) 6 (d) 7
oxygen bond 70. Hydrogen atoms are held together to form hydrogen
[Kerala PMT 2004] molecules by [AMU 1982]
(a) (b) (a) Hydrogen bond (b) Ionic bond

(c) Covalent bond (d) Dative bond
(c) CO (d) 71. Strongest bond is [AFMC 1987]
(e) HCHO (a) (b)

(c) (d)
60. Valency of sulphur in is [DPMT 1984]
72. The major binding force of diamond, silicon and
(a) Two (b) Three quartz is
(c) Four (d) Six [Kerala CET (Med.) 2002]
Te
61. The acid having bond is (a) Electrostatic force (b) Electrical attraction
[IIT JEE Screening 2004] (c) Co-valent bond force (d) Non-covalent bond
le
force
(a) (b)
gr
73. Multiple covalent bonds exist in a molecule of [NCERT

(c) (d)
am
1973]
62. The following salt shows maximum covalent character (a) (b)
[UPSEAT 2004] (c) (d)
@
(a) (b) 74. Which of the following does not obey the octet rule
C
(c) (d) [EAMCET 1993]

he
(a) (b)
63. Which type of bond is present in molecule
m
[MHCET 2003; Pb CET 2001] (c) (d)

is
(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond 75. Which of the following statements is correct for
try
(c) Co-ordinate (d) All of three covalent bond [BHU 1997]

64. is more acidic than , due to [BVP 2004] (a) Electrons are shared between two atoms
_S
(a) is more electronegative than (b) It may be polar or non-polar

(b) bond is stronger than bond (c) Direction is non-polar
pa
(c) bond is weaker than bond (d) Valency electrons are attracted
rk
(d) None of these 76. Among and , which are

65. Which of the following has covalent bond
covalent hydride [Orissa JEE 2005]
[AFMC 1988; DCE 2004]
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d) (c) NaH and (d) and
66. The following element forms a molecule with eight its Co-ordinate or Dative bonding
own weight atoms [MHCET 2004]
(a) (b) 1. Which species has the maximum number of lone pair
(c) (d) of electrons on the central atom? [IIT 2005]
(a) [ClO3] (b) XeF4
67. In , the two oxygen atoms have
(c) SF4 (d) [I3]
(a) Electrovalent bond (b) Covalent bond
(c) Coordinate bond (d) No bond 2. A simple example of a coordinate covalent bond is
exhibited by
68. Carbon has a valency of 2 in and 4 in and
[NCERT 1984]
. Its valency in acetylene is [NCERT 1971]
(a) (b) (c) 2 (d) 4
12. Which of the following compounds has coordinate
(c) (d)
(dative) bond [RPET 2003]
3. The bond that exists between and is called
(a) (b)
[AFMC 1982; MP PMT 1985; MNR 1994;
KCET 2000; MP PET 2001; UPSEAT 2001] (c) (d)
(a) Electrovalent (b) Covalent 13. The structure of orthophosphoric acid is [KCET 2003]
(c) Coordinate (d) Hydrogen
4. Which of the following does not have a coordinate
bond
[MADT Bihar 1984]
(a) (b) (a) (b)
(c) (d)
5. Coordinate covalent compounds are formed by
[CPMT 1990, 94]
Te
(c) (d)
(a) Transfer of electrons (b) Sharing of electrons
le
(c) Donation of electrons (d) None of these process

6. In the coordinate valency
gr
[CPMT 1989]
(a) Electrons are equally shared by the atoms
am
14. What is the nature of the bond between B and O in

(b) Electrons of one atom are shared with two atoms
[Orissa JEE 2003]
(c) Hydrogen bond is formed
(a) Covalent (b) Co-ordinate covalent
@
(d) None of the above

(c) Ionic bond (d) Banana shaped bond
7. Which of the following contains a coordinate covalent
C
bond 15. Sulphuric acid provides a example of

he
[MNR 1990; IIT 1986] [Kerala CET (Med.) 2002]

(a) Co-ordinate bonds
m
(a) (b)
(b) Non-covalent compound
is
(c) (d)
(c) Covalent and co-ordinate bond
try
8. A coordinate bond is formed when an atom in a

(d) Non-covalent ion
molecule has
_S
[CBSE PMT 1992] Dipole moment

(a) Electric charge on it
pa
1. Which molecules has zero dipole moment

(b) All its valency electrons shared
[AIIMS 1980, 82, 91; Roorkee 2000; MH CET 2001]
rk
(c) A single unshared electron

(a) (b)
(d) One or more unshared electron pair
9. Which has a coordinate bond [RPMT 1997] (c) (d)
2. In the following which one have zero dipole moment
(a) (b)
[DPMT 1985]
(c) (d) (a) (b)
10. The compound containing co-ordinate bond is
(c) (d) All of these
[AFMC 1999; Pb. CET 2002]
3. Which molecule has the largest dipole moment
(a) (b)
[CPMT 1991]
(c) (d) All of these (a) (b)
11. The number of dative bonds in sulphuric acid (c) (d)
molecules is
4. The unequal sharing of bonded pair of electrons
[MP PET 2002]
between two atoms in a molecule causes [EAMCET 1986]
(a) 0 (b) 1
(a) Dipole (c) Ionic size (d) None of the above
(b) Radical formation 14. Pick out the molecule which has zero dipole moment
(c) Covalent bond [CPMT 1989; EAMCET 1993; MP PMT 1999]
(d) Decomposition of molecule (a) (b)

5. Which of the following will show least dipole character (c) (d)
[NCERT 1975; Kurukshetra CEE 1998]
15. Zero dipole moment is present in [DPMT 1986; IIT 1987]
(a) Water (b) Ethanol
(a) (b)
(c) Ethane (d) Ether
(c) cis 1, 2-dichloroethene (d) trans 1, 2-
6. Which of the following molecules will show dipole dichloroethene
moment
16. Which of the following is the most polar [AFMC 1988]
[NCERT 1972, 74; DPMT 1985]
(a) (b)
(a) Methane (b) Carbon tetrachloride
(c) Chloroform (d) Carbon dioxide (c) (d)
7. Which of the following compounds possesses the 17. Which one has minimum (nearly zero) dipole moment
dipole moment [NCERT 1978; EAMCET 1983; MP PMT 1995] [IIT Screening 1994; CBSE PMT 1996]
Te
(a) Water (b) Boron trifluoride (a) Butene-1 (b) cis butene-2
le
(c) trans butene-2 (d) 2-methyl-1-propene

(c) Benzene (d) Carbon tetrachloride
18. Which one of the following is having zero dipole
gr
8. Which bond angle would result in the maximum

moment
dipole moment for the triatomic molecule
am
[AIIMS
[RPMT 1997; EAMCET 1988; MNR 1991]
1980]
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
@
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
19. Which of the following molecules does not possess a
C
9. Which of the following would have a permanent

permanent dipole moment [CBSE PMT 1994]
he
dipole moment [CBSE PMT 2005]

(a) (b)
(a) (b)
m
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
is
20. Which of the following has zero dipole moment

10. Carbon tetrachloride has no net dipole moment
try
[CPMT 1997; AFMC 1998; CBSE PMT 2001]

because of
(a) (b)
_S
[IIT 1982, 83; MP PMT 1985, 91;

EAMCET 1988; AMU 1999] (c) (d)
pa
(a) Its planar structure 21. Fluorine is more electronegative than either boron or
(b) Its regular tetrahedral structure phosphorus. What conclusion can be drawn from the
rk
(c) Similar sizes of carbon and chlorine atoms fact that has no dipole moment but does
(d) Similar electron affinities of carbon and chlorine [Pb. PMT 1998]
11. The molecule which has the largest dipole moment (a) is not spherically symmetrical but is
amongst the following [MNR 1983]
(b) molecule must be linear
(a) (b)
(c) The atomic radius of is larger than the atomic
(c) (d) radius of
12. Positive dipole moment is present in (d) The molecule must be planar triangular
[MNR 1986; MP PET 2000]
22. Which molecule does not show zero dipole moment
(a) (b) [RPET 1997, 99]
(c) (d) (a) (b)
13. The polarity of a covalent bond between two atoms (c) (d)
depends upon [AMU 1982]
(a) Atomic size (b) Electronegativity
23. The dipole moment of HBr is cm and 33. Identify the non-polar molecule in the set of
interatomic spacing is 1Å. The % ionic character of HBr compounds given : [UPSEAT
is 2004]
[MP PMT 2000] (a) (b)
(a) 7 (b) 10
(c) (d)
(c) 15 (d) 27
34. Dipole moment is shown by [IIT 1986]
24. Non-polar solvent is [RPET 2000]
(a) Dimethyl sulphoxide (b) Carbon tetrachloride (a) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene
(c) Ammonia (d) Ethyl alcohol (b) 1, 2-dichloroethene
25. Which shows the least dipole moment (c) 1, 2-dichloroethene
[UPSEAT 2001; DPMT 1982]
(d) 1, 2-dichloro-2-pentene
(a) (b)
35. If HCl molecule is completely polarized, so expected
(c) (d) value of dipole moment is 6.12D (deby), but
26. Which molecule has zero dipole moment [UPSEAT 2001] experimental value of dipole moment is 1.03D.
Calculate the percentage ionic character [Kerala CET
(a) (b) AgI
Te
2005]
(c) (d) HBr
(a) 17 (b) 83
le
27. The dipole moment is zero for the molecule (c) 50 (d) Zero
gr
[IIT 1989; MP PMT 2002]

(e) 90
am
(a) Ammonia (b) Boron trifluoride

(c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Water Polarisation and Fajan's rule
28. is less reactive than due to [UPSEAT 2003]
@
(a) Presence of more electrons in orbitals 1. and both molecules are covalent, but
C
(b) Absence of dipole moment is non-polar and is polar. Its reason is

he
(c) Difference in spin quantum no [CPMT 1989; NCERT 1980]

(d) None of these
m
(a) In uncombined state boron is metal and nitrogen

29. In a polar molecule, the ionic charge is is gas
is
e.s.u. If the inter ionic distance is one Å unit, then the (b) bond has no dipole moment whereas
try
dipole moment is [MH CET 2003] bond has dipole moment

_S
(a) 41.8 debye (b) 4.18 debye (c) The size of boron atom is smaller than nitrogen
(c) 4.8 debye (d) 0.48 debye
(d) is planar whereas is pyramidal
pa
30. Which of the following is a polar compound

2. Which one is polar molecule among the following
rk
[Pb. CET 2000]

(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
3. If the electron pair forming a bond between two
31. Which of the following has no dipole moment
atoms A and B is not in the centre, then the bond is
[DCE 2002]
[AIIMS 1984]
(a) (b)
(a) Single bond (b) Polar bond
(c) (d) (c) Non-polar bond (d) bond
32. Which of the following is non-polar [DCE 2002] 4. Which of the following liquids is not deflected by a
(a) (b) non-uniform electrostatic field
[NCERT 1978]
(c) (d)
(a) Water (b) Chloroform
(c) Nitrobenzene (d) Hexane
5. Which of the following is non-polar [EAMCET 1983] 13. Which of the following have both polar and non-polar
(a) (b) bonds [AIIMS 1997]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
6. Polarization is the distortion of the shape of an anion
by an adjacently placed cation. Which of the following 14. Which of the following has a high polarising power
statements is correct [NCERT 1982] [CET Pune 1998]
(a) Maximum polarization is brought about by a (a) (b)

cation of high charge (c) (d)
(b) Minimum polarization is brought about by a 15. Maximum covalent character is associated with the
cation of compound [RPMT 1999]
low radius (a) (b)
(c) A large cation is likely to bring about a large (c) (d)
degree of polarization
16. Polarisibility of halide ions increases in the order
(d) A small anion is likely to undergo a large degree [DCE 1999]
of polarization
Te
(a) (b)
7. The bonds between atoms and atoms in
(c) (d)
le
are likely to be [MP PMT 1987]

17. According to Fajan’s rule, covalent bond is favoured by
gr
(a) Ionic with no covalent character [AIIMS 1999]

am
(b) Covalent with some ionic character (a) Large cation and small anion
(c) Covalent with no ionic character (b) Large cation and large anion
(d) Ionic with some metallic character (c) Small cation and large anion
@
8. Two electrons of one atom A and two electrons of (d) Small cation and small anion
C
another atom B are utilized to form a compound AB. 18. Which of the following statements is correct [AMU 1999]
This is an example of
he
[MNR 1981]
(a) is polar and non-reactive
(a) Polar covalent bond (b) Non-polar covalent
m
bond (b) is non-polar and very reactive

is
(c) Polar bond (d) Dative bond (c) is a strong fluorinating agent
try
9. In which of the following molecule is the covalent (d) is prepared by fluorinating with
bond most polar [AMU 1985; MP PET 2001]
19. Choose the correct statement [RPMT 2000]
_S
(a) (b) (a) Amino polarisation is more pronounced by highly

(c) (d) charged cation
pa
10. Amongst and molecules the one (b) Small cation has minimum capacity to polarise an
rk
anion.
with non-planar geometry is [MP PMT 1999]
(c) Small anion has maximum polarizability
(a) (b)
(d) None of these
(c) (d) None of these 20. The molecule is [DPMT 2001]
11. Which of the following possesses highest melting (a) Purely electrovalent
point (b) Purely covalent
[CPMT 1999] (c) Polar with negative end on iodine
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) o-dichlorobenzene (d) Polar with negative end on chlorine
(c) m-dichlorobenzene (d) p-dichlorobenzene 21. Which of the following is a polar compound [AIIMS
2001]
12. The polar molecule among the following is
(a) HF (b) HCl
[Orissa JEE 1997]
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
22. Which of the following has zero dipole moment
(c) (d) [MP PMT 2002]
(a) ClF (b) (c) Axial overlapping of orbitals
(c) (d) (d) Axial overlapping of orbitals

4. The number and type of bonds between two carbon
23. Which of the following compounds has least dipole
atoms in calcium carbide are [AIEEE 2005]
moment
[RPET 2003] (a) One sigma, one pi (b) One sigma, two pi
(c) Two sigma, one pi (d) Two singma, two pi
(a) (b)
5. In a double bond connecting two atoms, there is a
(c) (d) sharing of
24. Pauling’s electronegativity values for elements are [CPMT 1977, 80, 81; NCERT 1975;
useful in predicting [UPSEAT 2004] Bihar MEE 1980; MP PET 1999]
(a) Polarity of bonds in molecules (a) 2 electrons (b) 1 electron
(b) Position of elements in electrochemical series (c) 4 electrons (d) All electrons
(c) Co-ordination number 6. Strongest bond is [DPMT 1990]
(d) Dipole moment of various molecules (a) (b)
25. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, and the (c) (d) All are equally strong
Te
compounds with the greatest and the least ionic 7. bond is formed [JIPMER 2002]
character, respectively, are
le
[UPSEAT 2002] (a) By overlapping of atomic orbitals on the axis of

gr
(a) LiCl and RbCl (b) RbCl and nuclei

(b) By mutual sharing of pi electron
am
(c) RbCl and (d) and

(c) By sidewise overlapping of half filled p-orbitals
26. Bond polarity of diatomic molecule is because of
[UPSEAT 2002] (d) By overlapping of s-orbitals with p-orbitals
@
(a) Difference in electron affinities of the two atoms 8. The double bond between the two carbon atoms in
ethylene consists of
C
(b) Difference in electronegativities of the two atoms [NCERT 1981; EAMCET 1979]
(a) Two sigma bonds at right angles to each other
he
(c) Difference in ionisation potential

(b) One sigma bond and one pi bond
(d) All of these
m
(c) Two pi bonds at right angles to each other

is
Overlaping-  and - bonds (d) Two pi bonds at an angle of to each other

try
9. In the series ethane, ethylene and acetylene, the

1. Triple bond in ethyne is formed from
bond energy is [NCERT 1977]
[MP PMT 1990; NCERT 1979; EAMCET 1978; AMU 1985;
_S
CPMT 1988; MADT Bihar 1982; MH CET 2000] (a) The same in all the three compounds
(b) Greatest in ethane
pa
(a) Three sigma bonds

(b) Three pi bonds (c) Greatest in ethylene
rk
(d) Greatest in acetylene

(c) One sigma and two pi bonds
10. In a sigma bond
(d) Two sigma and one pi bond
(a) Sidewise as well as end to end overlap of orbitals
2. The bond in the formation of fluorine molecule will be
take place
[MP PMT 1987]
(b) Sidewise overlap of orbitals takes place
(a) Due to overlapping
(c) End to end overlap of orbitals takes place
(b) Due to overlapping (d) None of the above
(c) Due to overlapping 11. The number of sigma and pi bonds in 1-butene-3-yne
(d) Due to hybridization are
[IIT 1989]
3. Which type of overlapping results the formation of a
bond (a) 5 sigma and 5 pi (b) 7 sigma and 3 pi
[DPMT 1981] (c) 8 sigma and 2 pi (d) 6 sigma and 4 pi

12. The most acidic compound among the following is
(a) Axial overlapping of orbitals
[MP PET 1993]
(b) Lateral overlapping of orbitals
(a) (b) MP PET/PMT 1998]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
13. Which of the following is not correct [CBSE PMT 1990] (c) (d)
(a) A sigma bond is weaker than bond 3. The central atom in a molecule is in hybrid state.
(b) A sigma bond is stronger than bond The shape of molecule will be [MP PMT 1987; CBSE PMT
1989]
(c) A double bond is stronger than a single bond
(d) A double bond is shorter than a single bond (a) Pyramidal (b) Tetrahedral
14. Strongest bond formed, when atomic orbitals (c) Octahedral (d) Trigonal planar
(a) Maximum overlap (b) Minimum overlap 4. Which molecule is linear

(c) Overlapping not done (d) None of them [MP PMT 1984; IIT 1982, 88; EAMCET 1993;
CBSE PMT 1992; MP PET 1995; RPMT 1997]
15. The orbital overlapping is present in the
following molecule [MP PET 1994] (a) (b)
(a) Hydrogen (b) Hydrogen bromide (c) (d)
(c) Hydrogen chloride (d) Chlorine 5. Which of the following molecules has trigonal planer
Te
16. In molecule, the atoms are bonded by geometry [CBSE PMT 2005]
[MP PET 1996; UPSEAT 2001] (a) (b)
le
(a) One , Two  (b) One , One 

(c) (d)
gr
(c) Two , One  (d) Three  bonds

6. A hybridized orbital contains
am
17. In which of following there exists a bonding

[DPMT 1984; BHU 1985; CPMT 1976]
[AFMC 2001]
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite
@
(a) character (b) character

(c) Dimethyl amine (d) Trisilylamine
C
18. Number of bonds in [DCE 2001] (c) character (d) character

he
(a) Two  and two 

7. Structure of ammonia is
m
(b) Two  and one 

[MP PMT 1987, 89, 91; CPMT 1975, 82;
(c) Two , two  and one lone pair
is
RPMT 1999; JIPMER 2002]

(d) None of these
try
(a) Trigonal (b) Tetrahedral

19. Which of the following has bonding [CBSE
(c) Pyramidal (d) Trigonal pyramidal
_S
2002]
8. The bond angle in ethylene is [CPMT 1987]
(a) (b)
pa
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
rk
20. Number of sigma bonds in is [AIEEE 2002]

9. Compound formed by hybridization will have
(a) 6 (b) 7
structure
(c) 17 (d) 16 [BHU 1982; RPMT 1999]
Hybridisation (a) Planar (b) Pyramidal
(c) Angular (d) Trigonal bipyramidal
1. Which molecule is not linear [CPMT 1994]
10. Which of the following formula does not correctly
(a) (b)
represent the bonding capacity of the atom involved
(c) (d) [CBSE PMT 1990]
2. The bond angle in water molecule is nearly or
Directed bonds in water forms an angle of (a) (b)
[NCERT 1980; EAMCET 1981; MNR 1983, 85;
AIIMS 1982; CPMT 1989; MP PET 1994, 96;
[BHU 1987; AFMC 1992; CET Pune 1998;
(c) (d) Roorkee Qualifying 1998; DCE 2002]
(a) Linear (b) Pyramidal
11. Which of the following statement is not correct (c) Tetrahedral (d) Square planar
[AIIMS 1983] 20. For which of the following hybridisation the bond
(a) Hybridization is the mixing of atomic orbitals prior angle is maximum [CBSE PMT 1991]
to their combining into molecular orbitals (a) (b)
(b) hybrid orbitals are formed from two atomic (c) (d)
orbitals and one atomic orbital 21. The bond distance is the longest in [MNR 1990]
(c) hybrid orbitals are directed towards the
(a) (b)
corners of a regular octahedron
(c) (d)
(d) hybrid orbitals are all at to one another
22. The nature of hybridization in for
12. The mode of hybridisation of carbon in
carbon is
is [CPMT 1991]
Te
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
le

23. Shape of methane molecule is [MNR 1983]
gr
13. In which of the following the central atom does not

(a) Tetrahedral (b) Pyramidal
use hybrid orbitals in its bonding
am
[MNR 1992]
(c) Octahedral (d) Square planer
(a) (b) 24. Which one amongst the following possesses an
@
hybridized carbon in its structure [CBSE PMT 1989]

(c) (d)
(a)
C
14. involves hybridisation [DPMT 1990]

he
(b)
(a) (b)
(c)
m

(d)
is
15. Which of the following hybridisation results in non-

25. Which of the following is the correct electronic
try
planar orbitals [CBSE PMT 1991]

formula of chlorine molecule
(a) (b)
_S
[CPMT 1971]
(c) (d)
pa
(a) (b)
16. Octahedral molecular shape exists in ..........
rk
hybridisation
[DPMT 1990] (c) (d)
(a) (b)
26. In hybridization is
(a) (b)
17. The electronic structure of molecule is a hybrid
of (c) (d)
(a) (b) 27. In has hybridization [AIIMS 1987]
(c) (d) (a) (b)
18. Percentage of s-character in hybrid orbital is (c) (d) All the above
(a) 25 (b) 50 28. Which has the shortest bond length

(c) 66 (d) 75 [NCERT 1982; CPMT 1989]
19. Shape of molecule is (a) (b)

(c) (d) (c) (d)
29. The hybridization of in the linear complex 37. When two pairs of electrons are shared, bond is
[MNR 1979]
is [CPMT 1985; BHU 1981]
(a) Single covalent bond (b) Double covalent bond
(a) (b) (c) Dative bond (d) Triple bond
(c) (d) 38. The nature of hybridization in the molecule is
30. Experiment shows that has a dipole moment [EAMCET 1982]
while has not. Point out the structures which (a) (b)
best illustrate these facts [DPMT 1984; NCERT 1983; (c) (d)
CPMT 1984] 39. Which one of the following compounds has bond
(a) (b) angle as nearly [MP PMT 1985]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
C ;H–H–O
Te
(c) (d) 40. In ethene, the bond angle(s) is/are

O O
[CPMT 1976; AMU 1984; MP PMT 1985]
le
31. Which species do not have hybridization (a) (b)

gr
[DPMT 1985]
(c) (d) Different
am
(a) Ammonia (b) Methane

41. Structure formula of is [CPMT 1993]
(c) Water (d) Carbon dioxide
32. As compared to pure atomic orbitals, hybrid orbitals
@
have (a)
C
(a) Low energy (b) Same energy

he
(c) High energy (d) None of these (b) (straight line)

33. The compound 1, 2-butadiene has
m
[IIT 1983; MP PMT 1996] (c)

is
(a) Only hybridized carbon atoms

try
(b) Only hybridized carbon atoms Where and

_S
(c) Both and hybridized carbon atoms all the four atoms are in the same plane
(d) and hybridized carbon atoms

pa
(d)
34. The number of unpaired electrons in molecule is
rk
[MNR 1983; Kerala PET 2002]

Where and
(a) 0 (b) 1
the angle between plane and
(c) 2 (d) 3
plane is
35. In the following molecule, the two carbon atoms
42. Number of shared electrons in between carbon-
marked by asterisk (*) possess the following type of
carbon atoms in ethylene molecule is
hybridized orbitals [NCERT
[MADT Bihar 1983]
1984]
(a) 2 (b) 4
(a) orbital (b) orbital
(c) 6 (d) 3
(c) orbital (d) orbital
43. The structural formula of a compound is
36. The bond angle in carbon tetrachloride is
The type of hybridization at
approximately
the four carbons from left to right are
[MNR 1981; MP PMT 1987]
[CBSE PMT 1989]
(a) (b)
(a) (b) 53. The hybridization of carbon atoms in single
(c) (d) bond of is

[IIT 1991; MP PET 1995]
44. Acetate ion contains [AMU 1983]
(a) (b)
(a) One single bond and one double
bond (c) (d)
(b) Two single bonds 54. The compound in which uses hybrids for bond
(c) Two double bonds formation is [IIT 1989]
(a) (b)
45. The two carbon atoms in acetylene are
[AMU 1984; MADT Bihar 1982] (c) (d)
(a) hybridized (b) hybridized
55. In diborane, the bond angle is . The
(c) hybridized (d) Unhybridized
hybridization of boron is likely to be
46. Among the following compounds which is planar in
[BHU 1981; CBSE PMT 1999]
shape
Te
(a) (b)
[AMU 1992]
(c) (d)
le
(a) Methane (b) Acetylene

56. The number of shared pairs of electrons in propane is
gr
(c) Benzene (d) Isobutene

47. In methane the bond angle is [AMU 1983] [BHU 1981]
am
(a) 2 (b) 4
(a) (b)
(c) 6 (d) 10
(c) (d)
@
57. s-character in hybridised orbitals are

48. The angle between orbitals in ethylene is
C
[BHU 1987, 95; AMU 1985] (a) (b)

he
(a) (b)
m
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
is
49. The species in which the central atom uses hybrid 58. The two types of bonds present in are covalent
try
orbitals in its bonding is [IIT 1988] and

(a) (b) [IIT 1994]
_S
(a) Three centre bond (b) Hydrogen bond

(c) (d)
pa
(c) Two centre bond (d) None of the above

50. Carbon atoms in diamond are bonded to each other in
59. In the compound which type of orbitals
rk
a configuration [CPMT 1981]

have been used by the circled carbon in bond
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Planar
formation
(c) Linear (d) Octahedral
[MP PET 1994]
51. Which of the following molecules can central atom
(a) (b)
said to adopt hybridization [CBSE PMT 1989; MP PET
(c) (d) p
1994]
60. The correct order of the bond length in
(a) (b)
and is [CBSE PMT 1995]
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
52. In has following
(c) (d)
hybridization
61. The structure of molecule is
[AIIMS 1988; UPSEAT 2001]
[AFMC 1995; JIPMER 2001]
(a) (b)
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Trigonal bipyramidal
(c) (d)
(c) Square planar (d) Pentagonal (c) Doubles (d) Remains unchanged
bipyramidal 71. hybridization leads to which shape of the
62. Which of the following hybridisation has maximum s- molecule
characters [MP PET 1995]
[MP PET/PMT 1998]
(a) (b) (a) Tetrahedron (b) Octahedron
(c) (d) None of these (c) Linear (d) Plane triangle
63. The molecule is a result of the hybridisation of 72. Which of the following will be octahedral [MP PET 1999]
[MP PET 1995; DCE 2000; MP PMT 2002]
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
73. The hybrid orbitals used by central atoms in
64. Hybridisation involves [MP PMT 1996]
and molecules are respectively
(a) Addition of an electron pair
[MP PMT 1999]
(b) Mixing up of atomic orbitals
(c) Removal of an electron pair (a) and (b) and
Te
(d) Separation of orbitals (c) and (d) and

65. The geometry of sulphur trioxide molecule is
le
74. The structure of is [CBSE PMT 1999; AFMC 2003]

(a) Tetrahedral (b) Trigonal planar
gr
(a) Planar (b) Non-planar

(c) Pyramidal (d) Square planar
am
(c) Spherical (d) Linear

66. The shapes of and molecules are
75. Which of the following is isoelectronic as well as has
all
same structure as that of [CPMT 1999]
@
(a) Triangular (b) Pyramidal

(c) shaped (d) All above are incorrect (a) (b)
C
67. In benzene molecule all bond lengths are (c) (d)

he
equal because
76. has the hybridisation [DPMT 1996]
m
(a) All carbon atoms are equivalent

(a) (b)
is
(b) All carbon atoms are hybridised

(c) (d)
try
(c) All bonds in benzene, have same order

(d) All bonds are single covalent bond 77. Compound having planar symmetry is [DPMT 1996]
_S
68. Which one is false in the following statements (a) (b)

pa
[MP PET 1997] (c) (d)

(a) Each carbon in ethylene is in hybridisation 78. Which of the following compounds is not linear
rk
(b) Each carbon in acetylene is in hybridisation [CPMT 1996]
(c) Each carbon in benzene is in hybridisation (a) (b)
(d) Each carbon in ethane is in hybridisation (c) (d)

69. Out of the following hybrid orbitals, the one which 79. Which one of the following statements is true for
forms the bond at angle , is ammonium ion
[MP PMT 1997] [EAMCET 1997]
(a) (b) (a) All bonds are ionic

(b) All bonds are coordinate covalent
(c) (d)
(c) atoms are situated at the corners of a square
70. As the character increases, the bond angle in
hybrid orbitals formed by and atomic orbitals [MP (d) atoms are situated at the corners of a
PMT 1997] tetrahedron
(a) Decreases (b) Increases 80. The bond angle in hybridisation is [RPMT 1997]
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) (d) 90. Which of the following molecule does not show
tetrahedral shape [RPET 1999]
81. The correct order towards bond angle is [RPMT 1997]
(a) (b)
(a)
(c) (d)
(b)
91. Pyramidal shape would be of [RPET 1999]
(c)
(a) (b)
(d) Bond angle does not depend on hybridisation
82. The geometry and the type of hybrid orbital present (c) (d)
about the central atom in is [IIT 1998; BHU 2001] 92. What is the correct mode of hybridization of the
central atom in the following compounds :
(a) Linear, (b) Trigonal planar,
(c) Tetrahedral, (d) Pyramidal,

[AMU 1999]
83. In graphite, electrons are [CBSE PMT 1997]
Te
(a) (b)
(a) Localised on every third atom
(b) Present in antibonding orbital (c) (d)
le
(c) Localised on each atom 93. The hybridization in is [DCE 2000]

gr
(d) Spread out between the structure (a) (b)

am
84. The ammonium ion is [CET Pune 1998] (c) (d)

(a) Tetrahedral (b) Trigonal pyramidal 94. Which of the following molecule is linear [MP PMT 2000]
@
(c) Square planar (d) Square pyramidal

(a) (b)
C
85. In hybridisation, shape is [Bihar MEE 1997]

(c) (d)
he
(a) Angular (b) Tetrahedral

(c) Bipyramidal (d) Linear 95. The geometry of the molecule with hybridised
m
central atom is [NCERT 1981; AFMC 1982; RPMT 2000]

(e) None of these
is
(a) Square planar (b) Trigonal bipyramidal

86. When the hybridisation state of carbon atom changes
try
(c) Octahedral (d) Square pyramidal

from to to the angle between the
_S
hybridised orbitals 96. The bond angle in is [RPMT 2000]
[AIIMS 1998] (a) Much less than

pa
(a) Decreases gradually (b) Increases gradually (b) Equal to that of

rk
(c) Decreases considerably (d) All of these

(c) Much greater than
87. The structure and hybridisation of is
(d) Slightly greater than
[CBSE PMT 1996]
97. Which of the following has tetrahedral structure
(a) Bent, (b) Trigonal,
[CPMT 2000]
(c) Octahedral, (d) Tetrahedral, (a) (b)
88. The type of hybridisation of boron in diborane is
[BHU 1999]
98. The single, double and triple bond lengths of carbon
(a) sp - hybridisation (b) - hybridisation
in carbon dioxide are respectively [AIIMS 2000]
(c) - hybridisation (d) - hybridisation
(a) 1.15, 1.22 and 1.10 Å (b) 1.22, 1.15 and 1.10 Å
89. Which compound does not possess linear geometry
(c) 1.10, 1.15 and 1.22 Å (d) 1.15, 1.10 and 1.22 Å
[RPET 1999]
99. Shape of molecule is [CPMT 2000; Pb. CET 2002]
(a) (b)
(a) Linear (b) Planar (b) Has octahedral symmetry
(c) Tetrahedral (d) Square pyramidal (c) Has tetrahedral symmetry
(d) Depends on the atom
100. In the complex hybridization is
110. Which has hybridization of central atom
present. Geometry of the complex is [Pb. PMT 2000]
[UPSEAT 2002]
(a) Square (b) Square pyramidal
(a) (b)
(c) Square bipyramidal (d) Tetrahedral
101. The bond angle is minimum in (c) (d)
[Pb. PMT 2001; MP PET 2003; UPSEAT 2004] 111. In which of the following species is the interatomic
(a) (b) bond angle is [AIEEE 2002]
(c) (d) (a) (b)

102. The correct order of hybridization of the central atom
(c) (d)
in the following species and
112. A square planar complex is formed by hybridisation of
is which atomic orbitals [AIEEE 2002]
Te
[IIT Screening 2001; BHU 2005]

(a) (b)
(a) and (b)
le
(c) (d)
gr
(c) (d) 113. In benzene, all the six bonds have the same
length because of [MP PET 2002]
am
(a) Tautomerism (b) hybridisation

103. Which of the following pairs has same structure [BHU
2001] (c) Isomerism (d) Inductive effect
@
(a) and (b) and 114. The bond energies of and are 430 kJ
C
and 242 kJ respectively, for HCl is

(c) and (d) and
he
91 kJ mol . The bond energy of HCl will be

-1
[MP PET
104. The smallest bond angle is found in [AIIMS 2001]
2003]
m
(a) (b) (a) 427 kJ (b) 766 kJ

is
(c) (d) (c) 285 kJ (d) 245 kJ

try
105. Which of the following is not linear [DCE 2001] 115. Which of the following has hybridization
(a) (b) [MP PET 2003]
_S
(c) (d) None of these (a) (b)

pa
106. Which of the following is not tetrahedral [MP PMT 2001] (c) (d)
rk
(a) (b)
116. Which one of the following is a planar molecule
(c) (d) [EAMCET 2003]
107. As the s-character of hybridisation orbital increases, (a) (b)

the bond angle [BHU 2002; RPMT 2002]
(c) (d)
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
117. Which one of the following is a correct set with respect
(c) Becomes zero (d) Does not change
to molecule, hybridisation and shape [EAMCET 2003]
108. The shape of molecule is
(a) , , linear
[AFMC 2002; MHCET 2003]
(a) Octahedral (b) Pentagonal (b) , , triangular planar
bipyramidal (c) , , triangular planar
(c) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) Tetrahedral
(d) , , tetrahedral
109. A completely filled d orbital [UPSEAT 2002]
118. Which of the following compounds doesn’t have
(a) Spherically symmetrical
linear structure [RPET 1997, 2003]
(a) (b) (c) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) Octahedral
128. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d orbitals
(c) (d)
involved in hybridization is
119. Which of the following bonds require the largest
[CBSE PMT 2004]
amount of bond energy to dissociate the atom
concerned (a) (b)
[UPSEAT 2003] (c) (d)

(a) bond in (b) bond in 129. The correct order of bond angles (smallest first) in
(c) bond in (d) bond in and is [AIEEE 2004]
(e) bond in ethane (a)
120. The percentage s-character of the hybrid orbitals in (b)

methane, ethene and ethyne are respectively [KCET (c)
2003]
(d)
(a) 25, 33, 50 (b) 25, 50, 75
(c) 50, 75, 100 (d) 10, 20, 40 130. Which one of the following has the regular tetrahedral
Te
structure [AIEEE 2004]

121. Arrange the hydra-acids of halogens in increasing
le
order of acidity [Orissa JEE 2003] (a) (b)

gr
(a) (b) (c) (d)

am
(Atomic no. : )
(c) (d)
131. The states of hybridazation of boron and oxygen
@
atoms in boric acid are respectively [AIEEE

122. Which one has hybridisation [MP PMT 2004] 2004]
C
(a) (b) (a) and (b) and

he
(c) (d) (c) and (d) and

m
123. Among the following compounds the one that is polar

132. The hybridisation in molecule is [Pb. PMT 2004]
is
and has central atom with hybridization is

(a) (b)
try
[MP PMT 2004; IIT 1997]

(c) (d)
(a) (b)
_S
(c) (d) 133. Among the compounds, and

pa
124. The molecule which is pyramid shape is , identify the ones in which the central atom
[MP PMT 2004; EAMCET 1985; IIT 1989] has the same type of hybridisation
rk
[Kerala PMT 2004]

(a) (b)
(a) and (b) and
(c) (d)
125. Which of the following has a linear structure [MP PMT (c) and (d) and
2004]
(e) and
(a) (b)
134. The molecule of has 180° bond angle. It can be
(c) (d)
explanid on the basis of [AFMC 2004]
126. In a regular octahedral molecule, , the number
(a) hybridisation (b) hybridisation
bonds at 180° is [CBSE PMT 2004]
(a) Six (b) Four (c) hybridisation (d) hybridisation
(c) Three (d) Two
135. hybridisation is found in
127. hybrid orbitals are [MP PET 2004]
[Pb. CET 2003; Orissa JEE 2005]
(a) Linear bipyramidal (b) Pentagonal
(a) (b) (b) Trigonal hybridization
(c) Tetrahedral hybridization
(c) (d)
(d) No hybridization
136. Which set hydridisation is correct for the following 144. Which of the following is non-linear molecule [DCE
compounds [Pb. CET 2003] 2003]
(a) (b)
,
(c) (d)
(a) , ,
145. The trigonal bipyramidal geometry results from the
(b) , , hybridisation [UPSEAT 2004]
(c) , , (a) or (b) or
(d) , , (c) or (d) or

146. The valency of carbon is four. On what principle it can
137. The state of hybridisation of in is
be explained in a better way
[Pb. CET 2000; BHU 2004]
(a) Resonance (b) Hybridization
Te
(a) (b) (c) Electron transfer (d) None of the above
(c) 147. Hybridization is due to the overlapping of

le
(d)
[MADT Bihar 1983]
gr
138. The hybrid state of sulphur in molecule is [DCE

(a) Orbitals of different energy levels
2004]
am
(b) Orbitals of different energy content

(a) (b) (c) Orbitals of same energy content
@
(c) (d)
139. Which of the following molecules has pyramidal 148. If a molecule has zero dipole moment, the
C
shape sigma bonding orbital used by M are

he
[DCE 2004; J&K CET 2005] [IIT 1981; MP PMT 1994; Kerala PMT 2004]
m
(a) (b) (a) hybrid (b) hybrid

is
(c) hybrid (d) hybrid

(c) (d)
try
149. The linear structure is assumed by [IIT 1991]

140. The hybrdization of is [Pb. CET 2001]
(a) (b)
_S
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
pa
(c) (d)
150. Hybridisation of central atom in is [Orissa JEE
141. In which compound, the hydrogen bonding is the 2005]
rk
strongest in its liquid phase [Pb. CET 2001] (a) (b)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) (d) 151. The pair having similar geometry is [J&K CET 2005]
142. Geometry of ammonia molecule and the hybridization (a) (b)

of nitrogen involved in it are [MH CET 2004]
(c) (d)
(a) -hybridization and tetrahedral geometry
152. The d-orbital involved in hybridisation is
(b) -hybridization and distorted tetrahedral [J&K CET 2005]
geometry (a) (b)
(c) -hybridization and triangular geometry
(c) (d)
(d) None of these `
143. in undergoes [MH CET 2004]

Resonance
(a) Diagonal hybridization

1. Which one in the following is not the resonance 9. The number of possible resonance structures for
structure of is
(a) (b) [MP PMT 2000]
(c) (d) (a) 2 (b) 3

(c) 6 (d) 9
2. Which of the following molecule contains one pair of
non-bonding electrons 10. Resonance hybrid of nitrate ion is [RPET 2000]
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
3. Resonance is due to [NCERT 1981; Kurukshetra CEE 1998]
(a) Delocalization of sigma electrons
(b) Delocalization of pi electrons
(c) Migration of H atoms
(c) (d)
(d) Migration of protons
Te
4. Resonating structures have different [AMU 1983]

le
(a) Atomic arrangements (b) Electronic

arrangements
gr
(c) Functional groups (d) Alkyl groups

am
11. anion has which of the following

5. In the cyanide ion, the formal negative charge is on
characteristics
[AMU 1984]
[Roorkee 1999]
@
(a) C (a) Bonds of unequal length

C
(b) N (b) hybridization of C atom

he
(c) Both C and N (c) Resonance stabilization

(d) Resonate between C and N (d) Same bond angles
m
6. Which does not show resonance [CPMT 1990]

is
VSEPR Theory
(a) Benzene (b) Aniline
try
(c) Ethyl amine (d) Toluene 1. The structure of ion is

_S
7. The enolic form of acetone contains

[NCERT 1983; MP PMT 1983]
[IIT 1990; Bihar MEE 1997]
pa

(a) 9 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 2 lone pairs (c) Distorted rectangle (d) Octahedral
rk
(b) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs 2. The bond angle in would be expected to be close
(c) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 1 lone pair to
(d) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pair (a) (b)
8. Point out incorrect statement about resonance (c) (d)
[MP PET 1997] 3. In which molecule are all atoms coplanar [MP PMT 1994]
(a) Resonance structures should have equal energy (a) (b)
(b) In resonance structures, the constituent atoms
(c) (d)
should be in the same position
4. Which has the least bond angle [NCERT 1973;
(c) In resonance structures, there should not be the
DPMT 1990; CBSE PMT 1990; UPSEAT 2003]
same number of electron pairs
(a) (b)
(d) Resonance structures should differ only in the
location of electrons around the constituent (c) (d)
atoms
5. In compound , all the bond angles are exactly (c) Pyramidal (d) Square planar
is [CBSE PMT 1991] 15. Of the following sets which one does NOT contain
(a) Chloromethane (b) Iodoform isoelectronic species [AIEEE 2005]
(c) Carbon tetrachloride (d) Chloroform (a) (b)

6. The shape of ion is
(c) (d)
[CPMT 1982; DPMT 1983, 84, 96; Bihar MEE 1997]
16. A molecule which contains unpaired electrons is
[NCERT 1982]
(c) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) Hexagonal
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Molecular nitrogen
7. Which of the following molecules has one lone pair of
electrons on the central atom (c) Molecular oxygen (d) Hydrogen peroxide
[EAMCET 1980; AMU 1982; MNR 1989] 17. is [MADT Bihar 1983]
(a) (b) (a) A linear triatomic molecule
(c) (d) (b) A bent (angular) triatomic molecule
8. Of the following compounds, the one having a linear (c) Both of these
Te
structure is [NCERT 1981; CPMT 1991; DPMT 1982; (d) None of these
MP PMT 1985; AIIMS 1996]
18. Bond angle between two hybrid orbitals is s-
le
(a) (b)
orbital character of hybrid orbital is [MP PMT 1986]
gr
(c) (d)
(a) Between (b) Between
am
9. is (c) Between (d) Between

(a) Octahedral (b) Distorted octahedral
19. The bond angle between in ice is closest to
(c) Planar (d) Tetrahedral
@
[CPMT 1989; UPSEAT 2002]

10. Which has maximum bond angle
C
(a) (b)
[CPMT 1993]
he
(c) (d)
(a)
20. Which of the following molecules does not have a
m
(b)
linear arrangement of atoms
is
(c) [CBSE PMT 1989]

try
(d) All have maximum bond angle (a) (b)

11. Of the following species the one having a square
_S
(c) (d)
planar structure is [NCERT 1981; MP PMT 1994]
21. is a planar molecule while is pyramidal,
pa
(a) (b) because [CBSE PMT 1995]

rk
(c) (d) (a) has no lone pair of electrons but has a
12. In which of the following is the angle between the two lone pair of electrons
covalent bonds greatest (b) bond is more polar than bond
[NCERT 1975; AMU 1982; MNR 1987; (c) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
IIT 1981; CPMT 1988; MP PMT 1994] (d) bond is more covalent than bond
(a) (b) 22. The isoelectronic pair is [AIIMS 2005]
(c) (d) (a) (b)
13. As the s-character of hybridized orbital decreases, the (c) (d)

bond angle [DPMT 1986] 23. According to VSEPR theory, the most probable shape
(a) Decreases (b) Increases of the molecule having 4 electron pairs in the outer
(c) Does not change (d) Becomes zero shell of the central atom is [MP PET 1996, 2001]
14. molecule is [BHU 1982]

(a) Linear (b) Tetrahedral
(c) Hexahedral (d) Octahedral
(a) Linear (b) Triangular planar
24. The molecular shapes of and are 32. Central atom of the following compound has one lone pair
[AIEEE 2005] of electrons and three bond pairs of electrons [JIPMER
2002]
(a) The same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons
on the central atom, respectively (a) (b)
(b) The same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons on (c) (d)
the central atoms, respectively
33. Among and unpaired
(c) Different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on
the central atom, respectively electron is present in [MP PET 2003]
(d) Different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on (a) and (b) and
the central atom, respectively
(c) only (d) only
25. Which of the following species is planar [JIPMER 1997]
34. True order of bond angle is [RPET 2003]
(a) (b)
(a)
(b)
26. The shape of species is [RPET 1999]
(c)
Te
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Square planar

(d)
(c) Trigonal planar (d) Linear
le
27. Which of the following is the correct reducing order of 35. Which of the following has not a lone pair over the
gr
bond-angle [BHU 2000] central atom [Orissa JEE 2003]

am
(a) (a) (b)
(b) (c) (d)

@
(c) 36. In molecule,the lone pairs occupy equatorial

(d) positions to minimize [CBSE PMT 2004]
C
28. Which compound has bond angle nearly to (a) Lone pair- lone pair repuilsion and lone pair-bond
he
[Pb. PMT 2001] pair repulsion

(a) (b)
m
(b) Lone pair- lone pair repulsion only

(c) (d) (c) Lone pair- bond pair repulsion only
is
29. A lone pair of electrons in an atom implies [KCET 2002] (d) Bond pair- bond pair repulsion only
try
(a) A pair of valence electrons not involved in bonding

37. is dipolar, whereas is not. It is because
_S
(b) A pair of electrons involved in bonding

[CBSE PMT 1989; 2004]
(c) A pair of electrons
(a) is linear and is angular
pa
(d) A pair of valence electrons

(b) is angular and is linear
30. The bond angle of water is due to [CPMT 2002]
rk
(a) Repulsion between lone pair and bond pair (c) The electornegativity of F is greater than that of O
(b) hybridization of O (d) involves hydrogen bonding whereas

is a discrete molecule
(c) Bonding of
38. Maximum bond angle is present in [BVP 2004]
(d) Higher electronegativity of O
31. The correct sequence of decrease in the bond angle of (a) (b)
the following hybrides is [MP PET 2002] (c) (d) Same for all
(a)
39. The shape of a molecule of , in which central
(b) atoms contains lone pair of electron, is [MHCET 2003]
(c) (a) Tetrahedral (b) Planar trigonal
(c) Square planar (d) Pyramidal
(d)
40. The largest bond angle is in [DCE 2002; MNR 1984]
(a) (b)
(c) (d) (c) (d)
41. The bond angle in ammonia molecule is [EAMCET 1980] 5. The bond order is maximum in
(a) (b) [AIIMS 1983, 85; CBSE PMT 1994; MP PET 2002]
(c) (d) (a) (b)

42. Which of the following gives correct arrangement of
(c) (d)
compounds involved based on their bond strength
[BHU 2005] 6. Which of the following compounds of boron does not
(a) HF > HCl > HBr > HI exist in the free form
(b) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (a) (b)
(c) HF > HBr > HCl > HI
(c) (d)
(d) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
7. Molecular orbital theory was developed mainly by
43. Which one has a pyramidal structure [CBSE PMT 1990]
[BHU 1987; Pb. CET 2003]
(a) (b)
(a) Pauling (b) Pauling and Slater
(c) (d) (c) Mulliken (d) Thomson
Te
44. Among the following the pair in which the two species 8. The bond order of a molecule is given by [NCERT 1984]
are not isostructural is [CBSE PMT 2004] (a) The difference between the number of electrons
le
(a) and (b) and in bonding and antibonding orbitals

gr
(b) Total number of electrons in bonding and

(c) and (d) and
am
antibonding orbitals
45. The maximum number of 90° angles between bond
(c) Twice the difference between the number of
pair-bond pair of electrons is observed in [AIEEE 2004]
electrons in bonding and antibonding electrons
@
(a) hybridization (b) hybridization (d) Half the difference between the number of
C
(c) hybridization (d) hybridization electrons in bonding and antibonding electrons

he
9. Oxygen molecule is paramagnetic because

Molecular orbital theory [NCERT 1984; IIT 1984]
m
(a) Bonding electrons are more than antibonding

is
1. Bond order is a concept in the molecular orbital electrons

try
theory. It depends on the number of electrons in the (b) Contains unpaired electrons
bonding and antibonding orbitals. Which of the (c) Bonding electrons are less than antibonding
_S
following statements is true about it ? The bond order electrons

[AIIMS 1980] (d) Bonding electrons are equal to antibonding
pa
(a) Can have a negative quantity electrons

(b) Has always an integral value 10. Which one is paramagnetic from the following
rk
(c) Can assume any positive or integral or fractional [IIT 1989; CBSE PMT 1995]
value including zero (a) (b)
(d) Is a non zero quantity
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d)
2. The bond order of molecule is [MP PET 1996]
11. The bond order in ion is [Pb. CET 2004]
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 2.5 (d) 3
(c) 2.5 (d) 3
3. When two atomic orbitals combine they form
12. Out of the following which has smallest bond length
(a) One molecular orbital (b) Two molecular orbital
[RPMT 1997]
(c) Three molecular orbital (d) Four molecular
(a) (b)
orbital
4. Which of the following species is the least stable (c) (d)
(a) (b) 13. Which of the following molecule is paramagnetic

[CPMT 1980; RPET 1999;MP PMT 1999; RPMT 2000]
(a) Chlorine (b) Nitrogen [CPMT 1974, 84; RPMT 1999]
(c) Oxygen (d) Hydrogen (a) (b)
14. Which molecule has the highest bond order (c) (d)
(a) (b) 24. The bond order of individual carbon-carbon bonds in
(c) (d) benzene is [IIT 1980]
(a) One (b) Two
15. The molecular electronic configuration of ion is
(c) Between 1 and 2 (d) One and two
(a) (b) alternately
(c) (d) 25. exists but does not because
16. The paramagnetic nature of oxygen molecule is best [EAMCET 1977; MP PET/PMT 1988]
explained on the basis of [BHU 1996] (a) Nitrogen has no vacant d-orbitals
(a) Valence bond theory (b) Resonance (b) is unstable
(c) Molecular orbital theory (d) Hybridization (c) Nitrogen atom is much smaller
17. In which case the bond length is minimum between (d) Nitrogen is highly inert
carbon and nitrogen 26. Paramagnetism is exhibited by molecules
Te
(a) (b) [NCERT 1979; MP PET 2002]

(a) Not attracted into a magnetic field
le
(c) (d)
(b) Containing only paired electrons
gr
18. Which one of the following species is diamagnetic in

(c) Carrying a positive charge
nature
am
(d) Containing unpaired electrons

[AIEEE 2005]
27. Which one of the following is paramagnetic [DPMT
(a) (b) H2 1985]
@
(c) (d) (a) (b)

C
19. Which one of the following oxides is expected exhibit

(c) (d)
he
paramagnetic behaviour [CBSE PMT 2005]

28. The energy of a orbital except hydrogen atom is
(a) (b)
m
[AMU 1983]
(c) (d)
is
(a) Less than that of orbital

20. The bond order in molecule is
try
[CBSE 1995; Pb. PMT 1999; MP PET 1997] (b) More than that of orbital
_S
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) Equal to that of orbital

(c) 3 (d) 4 (d) Double that of orbital
pa
21. Which one is paramagnetic and has the bond order

29. In the electronic structure of acetic acid, there are
1/2
rk
[NCERT 1983] [AMU 1983]
(a) (b) (a) 16 shared and 8 unshared electrons

(b) 8 shared and 16 unshared electrons
(c) (d)
(c) 12 shared and 12 unshared electrons
22. When two atoms of chlorine combine to form one
molecule of chlorine gas, the energy of the molecule (d) 18 shared and 6 unshared electrons
[AMU 1982] 30. Which of the following does not exist on the basis of
(a) Greater than that of separate atoms molecular orbital theory [AFMC 1990; MP PMT 1996]
(b) Equal to that of separate atoms
(a) (b)
(c) Lower than that of separate atoms
(d) None of the above statement is correct (c) (d)
23. An atom of an element A has three electrons in its 31. In the number of oxygen atoms attached to
outermost shell and that of B has six electrons in the
each phosphorus atom is [IIT 1995]
outermost shell. The formula of the compound
between these two will be (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 2.5 37. The bond order in is [MP PET 1999; BHU 2001]
32. Of the following statements which one is correct
(a) 2 (b) 2.5
(a) Oxygen and nitric oxide molecules are both
(c) 1.5 (d) 3
paramagnetic because both contain unpaired
38. Which of the following is paramagnetic [MP PET 1999]
electrons
(b) Oxygen and nitric oxide molecules are both (a) (b)
diamagnetic because both contain no unpaired (c) (d)
electrons
39. If is the number of bonding orbitals of an atom
(c) Oxygen is paramagnetic because it contains
unpaired electrons, while nitric oxide is and is the number of antibonding orbitals, then
diamagnetic because it contains no unpaired the molecule/atom will be stable if [DPMT 1996]
electrons (a) (b)
(d) Oxygen is diamagnetic because it contains no
(c) (d)
unpaired electrons, while nitric oxide is
paramagnetic because it contains an unpaired 40. Which of the following molecular orbitals has two
Te
electron nodal planes [KCET 1996]
33. According to the molecular orbital theory, the bond (a) (b)
le
order in molecule is
gr
(c) (d)
(a) 0 (b) 1
am
41. The number of nodal planes orbital has [KCET

(c) 2 (d) 3 1996]
34. The molecular orbital configuration of a diatomic (a) Zero (b) One
@
molecule is
(c) Two (d) Three
C
42. Atomic number of an element is 26. The element

he
shows
[CPMT 1996]
m
Its bond order is

(a) Ferromagnetism (b) Diamagnetism
is
(a) 3 (b) 2.5

(c) Paramagnetism (d) None of these
try
(c) 2 (d) 1
43. What is correct sequence of bond order [BHU 1997]
_S
35. The difference in energy between the molecular

orbital formed and the combining atomic orbitals is (a) (b)
pa
called
(c) (d)
(a) Bond energy (b) Activation energy
rk
44. Which bond is strongest [RPMT 1997]

(c) Stabilization energy (d) Destabilization energy
(a) (b)
36. According to molecular orbital theory, the
(c) (d)
paramagnetism of molecule is due to presence of
45. Which of the following is not paramagnetic [AIIMS 1997]
[MP PMT 1997]
(a) Unpaired electrons in the bonding molecular (a) (b)

orbital
(c) (d)
(b) Unpaired electrons in the antibonding
46. Which one of the following molecules is paramagnetic
molecular orbital
[Pb. PMT 1998]
(c) Unpaired electron in the bonding molecular
(a) (b)
orbital
(d) Unpaired electrons in the antibonding (c) (d)
molecular orbital
47. and are converted into monoanions and (c) (d)
respectively, which of the following statements is 56. Which of the following molecule has highest bond
energy
wrong
[AIIMS 2002]
[CBSE PMT 1997]
(a) (b)
(a) In the bond weakens
(c) (d)
(b) In the bond order increases 57. Which of the following species would be expected
(c) In bond length increases paramagnetic [UPSEAT 2002]
(a) Copper crystals (b)
(d) becomes diamagnetic
(c) (d)
48. With increasing bond order, stability of a bond
[CET Pune 1998] 58. Which of the following is correct for triple bond
(a) Remains unaltered (b) Decreases [CPMT 2002]
(a) 3s (b) 1p, 2s
(c) Increases (d) None of these
(c) 2p, 1s (d) 3p
49. Which is not paramagnetic [DCE 1999, 2000]
Te
59. In which of the following pairs molecules have bond

(a) (b)
order three and are isoelectronics [MP PET 2003]
le
(c) (d) (a) , CO (b)

gr
50. The number of antibonding electron pairs in (c) , (d) CO,

am
molecular ion on the basis of molecular orbital theory 60. Which of the following is paramagnetic [MP PET 2003]
is
(a) (b)
@
[Pb. PMT 2000]

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) CO (d)
C
(c) 2 (d) 5 61. How many bonding electron pairs are there in white
he
51. The bond order of molecule ion is phosphorous [MP PET 2003]
(a) 6 (b) 12
m
[Pb. PMT 2000; Pb CET 2001]

(c) 4 (d) 8
(a) 1 (b) 2
is
62. The atomicity of phosphorus is X and the bond

try
(c) (d) angle in the molecule is Y. What are X and Y [EAMCET

2003]
_S
52. Which one does not exhibit paramagnetism [DPMT

2000]
(a) X = 4, Y = (b) X = 4, Y =
pa
(a) (b) (c) X = 3, Y = (d) X = 2, Y =

63. From elementary molecular orbital theory we can give
rk
(c) (d)
the electronic configuration of the singly positive
53. In which of the following pairs the two molecules have
nitrogen molecular ion as
identical bond order [MP PMT 2000]
[UPSEAT 2003]
(a) (b) ,
(a)
(c) , (d) ,
54. The bond order is not three for [MP PMT 2001] (b)
(a) (b)
(c)
(c) (d)
(d)
55. In molecule, the angle between the two O – H
planes is
64. The paramagnetic property of the oxygen molecule
[CBSE PMT 2002]
due to the presence of unpaired electorns present in
(a) (b)
[Kerala PMT 2004]
(a) and (b) Bond length in is greater than in
(c) Bond length in is greater than in
(b) and
(d) Bond length is unpredictable
(c) and
73. Which of the following is diamagnetic [BVP 2004]
(d) and (a) Oxygen molecule (b) Boron molecule
(e) and (c) (d) None
65. In ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom 74. Bond energies in and are such as
and bond order respectively are [DPMT 2004] [Pb. CET 2004]
(a) (b) (a) (b)

(c) (d) (c) (d)
66. The bond order in ion between is 75. Which of the following is paramagnetic [UPSEAT 2004]
[Pb. PMT 2004] (a) (b)
(a) Zero (b) 0.88
(c) (d)
(c) 1.33 (d) 2
Te
76. The paramagnetic molecule at ground state among

67. The bond order of is the same as in [CPMT 2004]
the following is [UPSEAT 2004]
le
(a) (b) (a) (b)

gr
(c) (d) (c) (d)

am
68. Bond order of is [DPMT 2004] 77. Which has the highest bond energy [DCE 2002]
(a) 2 (b) 1.5 (a) (b)

@
(c) 3 (d) 3.5 (c) (d)

C
69. The total number of electron that takes part in 78. In and molecular species, the total
he
forming bonds in is [MP PET 2004] number of antibonding electrons respectively are [DCE
(a) 2 (b) 4 2003]
m
(c) 6 (d) 10 (a) 7, 6, 8 (b) 1, 0, 2

is
(c) 6, 6, 6 (d) 8, 6, 8
70. The bond length the species and are in
try
79. Which of the following is not paramagnetic [DCE 2002]

the order of [MP PET 2004]
(a) (b)
_S
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
pa
(c) (d)
80. Which of the following species have maximum
71. According to molecular orbital theory which of the number of unpaired electrons
rk
following statement about the magnetic character and [AIIMS 1983]

bond order is correct regarding [IIT JEE Screening (a) (b)
2004]
(c) (d)
(a) Paramagnetic and bond order<
81. The correct order in which the O – O bond length
(b) Paramagnetic and bond order> increases in the following is [BHU 2000; CBSE PMT 2005]
(c) Dimagnetic and bond order< (a) (b)
(d) Dimagnetic and bond order> (c) (d)
72. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in is 3. 82. Correct order of bond length is [Orissa JEE 2005]
Which of the following statements is true for these (a) (b)

two species (c) (d) None of these
[AIEEE 2004]
83. Which of the following is paramagnetic [DPMT 2005]
(a) Bond length in is equal to that in
(a) (b)
(c) (d) MP PMT 1993; AIIMS 1996; KCET 2001; CPMT 2003]
(a) Its high specific heat

84. Among the following molecules which one have
smallest bond angle [Orissa JEE 2005] (b) Its high dielectric constant
(a) (b) (c) Low ionization of water molecules
(c) (d) (d) Hydrogen bonding in the molecules of water
(e) 9. Which concept best explains that o-nitrophenol is

more volatile than p-nitrophenol
Hydrogen bonding [AIIMS 1980, 82; Kurukshetra CEE 1998; MP PET 2002]
1. In the following which bond will be responsible for (a) Resonance (b) Hyperconjugation
maximun value of hydrogen bond (c) Hydrogen bonding (d) Steric hindrence
(a) (b) 10. Which contains strongest bond
(c) (d) [IIT 1986; MP PET 1997, 2003; UPSEAT 2001, 03]
2. In which of the following hydrogen bond is present (a) (b)
(a) (b) Ice
(c) (d)
Te
(c) Sulphur (d) Hydrocarbon

11. Which of the following compound can form hydrogen
3. In the following which has highest boiling point
le
bonds
[MP PMT 1989; RPMT 1997]
gr

(a) (b)
am
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
4. Which contains hydrogen bond (c) (d)
@
[MP PMT 1989] 12. Of the following hydrides which has the lowest boiling
(a) (b) point
C
[CBSE PMT 1987]

he
(c) (d)
5. Contrary to other hydrogen halides, hydrogen fluoride (a) (b)
m
is a liquid because [MP PMT 1990; AMU 1983; EAMCET

(c) (d)
is
1980]
13. The pairs of bases in are held together by
try
(a) Size of atom is small

[NCERT 1978; DPMT 1985; CBSE PMT 1992]
(b) is a weak acid
_S
(a) Hydrogen bonds (b) Ionic bonds

(c) molecule are hydrogen bonded
(c) Phosphate groups (d) Deoxyribose groups
pa
(d) Fluorine is highly reactive

14. Water has high heat of vaporisation due to [AFMC 1982]
6. In the following which species does not contain
rk
hybridization [DPMT 1985]

(a) Covalent bonding (b) bonding
(c) Ionic bonding (d) None of the above

(a) (b)
15. In which of the following compounds does hydrogen
(c) (d) bonding occur [CBSE PMT 1989]
7. As a result of hybridization, we get [IIT 1984]
(a) (b)
(a) Two mutual perpendicular orbitals
(c) (d)
(b) Two orbitals at
16. Which among the following compounds does not
(c) Four orbitals in tetrahedral directions
show hydrogen bonding [MP PMT 1989]
(d) Three orbitals in the same plane
(a) Chloroform (b) Ethyl alcohol
8. The reason for exceptionally high boiling point of
(c) Acetic acid (d) Ethyl ether
water is
17. Acetic acid exists as dimer in benzene due to [CPMT
[DPMT 1986; NCERT 1976; AMU 1984; EAMCET 1979;
1982]
(a) Condensation reaction (a) Water (b) Ammonia
(b) Hydrogen bonding (c) Hydrogen fluoride (d) Acetic acid
(c) Presence of carboxyl group 26. The high boiling point of ethanol
(d) Presence of hydrogen atom at carbon compared to dimethyl ether , though
18. Which one among the following does not have the both having the same molecular formulae ,
hydrogen bond [IIT 1983; MP PMT 1994; is due to [MP PMT 1993]
UPSEAT 2001] (a) Hydrogen bonding
(a) Phenol (b) Liquid (b) Ionic bonding
(c) Water (d) Liquid (c) Coordinate covalent bonding
19. The bond that determines the secondary structure of (d) Resonance
a protein is [NCERT 1984; MP PET 1996] 27. Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water due to
(a) Coordinate bond (b) Covalent bond [CPMT 1989]
(a) Covalent character
(c) Hydrogen bond (d) Ionic bond
(b) Hydrogen bonding character
Te
20. is a gas but is a low boiling liquid. This is

(c) Oxygen bonding character
because
(d) None of these
le

gr
(a) bond is strong 28. B.P. of and

explained by
am
(b) bond is weak

(a) Vander Waal's forces (b) Covalent bond
(c) Molecules aggregate because of hydrogen
bonding (c) Hydrogen bond (d) Ionic bond
@
29. Strength of hydrogen bond is intermediate between

(d) is a weak acid
C
[DPMT 1991]
21. The relatively high boiling point of is due to
he
(a) Vander Waal and covalent

[NCERT 1984]
(b) Ionic and covalent
m
(a) Hydrogen bonding

(c) Ionic and metallic
is
(b) Covalent bonding (d) Metallic and covalent

try
(c) Unshared electron pair on 30. In which of the following compounds intramolecular
(d) Being a halogen acid hydrogen bond is present [MP PET 1994]
_S
22. Water is liquid due to [MADT Bihar 1983] (a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Water
(c) Salicylaldehyde (d) Hydrogen sulphide
pa
(a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Covalent bond

(c) Ionic bond (d) Vander Waals forces 31. Hydrogen bonding is formed in compounds
rk
containing hydrogen and [MP PET 1995]

23. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds in
(a) Highly electronegative atoms
which an molecule can participate is
(b) Highly electropositive atoms
[MP PMT 1986; MNR 1991; IIT 1992;MP PET 1999]
(c) Metal atoms with d-orbitals occupied
(a) 1 (b) 2
(d) Metalloids
(c) 3 (d) 4
32. Which of the following compounds in liquid state does
24. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in not have hydrogen bonding [MP PMT 1996]
[IIT 1987; MP PMT 1991; MP PET 1993, 2001;
(a) (b)
MNR 1995; CPMT 1999; KCET (Med.) 2002]
(c) (d)
(a) Ethanol (b) Diethyl ether
33. Compounds showing hydrogen bonding among
(c) Ethyl chloride (d) Triethyl amine
and are
25. The hydrogen bond is strongest in
[BHU 1987; CBSE PMT 1990, 92] (a) Only and
(b) Only and (b) undergoes umbrella inversion
(c) Only and (c) forms hydrogen bond

(d) All the four (d) contains ionic bonds whereas
34. The high density of water compared to ice is due to contains covalent bonds
[CBSE PMT 1997; BHU 1999; AFMC 2001] 41. Which one has the highest boiling point [MP PET 2002]
(a) Hydrogen bonding interactions
(a) Acetone (b) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Dipole-dipole interactions
(c) Diethyl ether (d) Chloroform
(c) Dipole-induced dipole interactions
42. Which of the following compounds has the highest
(d) Induced dipole-induced dipole interactions boiling point [JIPMER 2002]
35. Ethanol and dimethyl ether form a pair of functional (a) HCl (b) HBr
isomers. The boiling point of ethanol is higher than
(c) (d)
that of dimethyl ether due to the presence of [AIIMS
1998] 43. Which of the following has minimum melting point
(a) Hydrogen bonding in ethanol [UPSEAT 2003]
Te
(b) Hydrogen bonding in dimethyl ether (a) CsF (b) HCl
(c) group in ethanol (c) HF (d) LiF

le
44. Hydrogen bond energy is equal to

gr
(d) group in dimethyl ether

[UPSEAT 2003]
36. Which of the following hydrogen bonds are strongest
am
(a) 3 – 7 cals (b) 30 – 70 cals

in vapour phase [AMU 1999]
(c) 3 – 10 kcals (d) 30 – 70 kcals
(a) (b)
@
45. is a liquid while is gas due to [BHU 2003]

(c) (d)
C
37. Which of the following shows hydrogen bonding (a) Covalent bonding
he
[CPMT 2000] (b) Molecular attraction

(a) (b) P (c) H – bonding
m
(c) As (d) Sb (d) H – bonding and molecular attraction

is
38. The boiling point of a compound is raised by [DPMT 46. H – bonding is maximum in
try
[BHU 2003]
2001]
(a) (b)
_S
(a) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding

(b) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding (c) (d)
pa
(c) Covalent bonding 47. Select the compound from the following which
(d) Ionic covalent dissolves in water [IIT 1980]
rk
39. The boiling point of water is exceptionally high (a) (b)

because
(c) (d)
[KCET 2001]
(a) Water molecule is linear 48. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they
(b) Water molecule is not linear unit to form one cube. Which of the following force is
responsible for holding them together [NCERT 1978]
(c) There is covalent bond between H and O
(a) Vander Waal's forces
(d) Water molecules associate due to hydrogen
bonding (b) Hydrogen bond formation
40. has a much higher boiling point than (c) Covalent attraction
because (d) Dipole–dipole attraction
[UPSEAT 2002; MNR 1994] 49. Which is the weakest among the following types of
(a) has a larger molecular weight bond
[NCERT 1979; MADT Bihar 1984]
(a) Ionic bond (b) Metallic bond [CPMT 1994]
(c) Covalent bond (d) Hydrogen bond (a) (b) Diamond
50. H-bond is not present in [BCECE 2005] (c) (d)

10. In the formation of a molecule by an atom [AFMC 1995]
(a) Water (b) Glycerol
(a) Attractive forces operate
(c) Hydrogen fluoride (d) Hydrogen Sulphide
(b) Repulsive forces operate
Types of bonding and Forces in solid (c) Both attractive and repulsive forces operate
(d) None of these
1. In a crystal cations and anions are held together by 11. Which has weakest bond [RPMT 1997]
[EAMCET 1982] (a) Diamond (b) Neon (Solid)
(a) Electrons (b) Electrostatic forces (c) (d) Ice
(c) Nuclear forces (d) Covalent bonds 12. Which of the following exhibits the weakest
intermolecular forces [AIIMS 1999; BHU 2000]
2. In the following metals which one has lowest probable
(a) (b)
interatomic forces [MP PMT 1990]
Te
(c) (d)
(a) Copper (b) Silver
le
13. Glycerol has strong intermolecular bonding therefore

(c) Zinc (d) Mercury
it is
gr
3. In solid argon, the atoms are held together by

[RPET 2000]
am
[NCERT 1981; MP PET 1995]

(a) Sweet (b) Reactive
(a) Ionic bonds (b) Hydrogen bonds (c) Explosive (d) Viscous
@
(c) Vander Waals forces (d) Hydrophobic forces 14. Among the following the weakest one is
4. Which one is the highest melting halide [Pb. PMT 2004; CPMT 2002]
C
[AIIMS 1980]
(a) Metallic bond (b) Ionic bond
he
(a) (b)
(c) Van der Waal's force (d) Covalent bond
(c) (d)
m
15. Lattice energy of alkali metal chlorides follows the

5. The enhanced force of cohesion in metals is due to
is
order
[NCERT 1972]
try
[DPMT 2004]
(a) The covalent linkages between atoms
(a)
_S
(b) The electrovalent linkages between atoms

(b)
(c) The lack of exchange of valency electrons
pa
(c)
(d) The exchange energy of mobile electrons
(d)
6. Which one of the following substances consists of
rk
small discrete molecules [CPMT 1987] 16. In the following which molecule or ion possesses
electrovalent, covalent and co-ordinate bond at the
(a) (b) Graphite
same time
(c) Copper (d) Dry ice
[CPMT 1987]
7. Which of the following does not apply to metallic bond
[CBSE PMT 1989]
(a) (b)
(a) Overlapping valency orbitals (c) (d)

(b) Mobile valency electrons 17. Both ionic and covalent bond is present in the
(c) Delocalized electrons following
(d) Highly directed bonds [MNR 1986; MP PMT 2004]
8. In melting lattice, structure of solid [CPMT 1982]
(a) (b)
(a) Remains unchanged (b) Changes
(c) (d)
(c) Becomes compact (d) None of the above
9. Which of the following has the highest melting point 18. The formation of a chemical bond is accompanied by
[MP PET 1995] 1. The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are
(a) Decrease in energy 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic
character of A – B bond is
(b) Increase in energy
[MP PET 2003]
(c) Neither increase nor decrease in energy
(a) 50 % (b) 43 %
(d) None of these
(c) 55.3 % (d) 72.24%
19. Chemical bond implies [KCET 2002]
(a) Attraction 2. is the symbol of ….. ion [EAMCET 2003]
(b) Repulsion (a) Oxide (b) Superoxide

(c) Neither attraction nor repulsion (c) Peroxide (d) Monoxide
(d) Both (a) and (b) 3. The number of electrons that are paired in oxygen
20. Which of the following statements is true [AIEEE 2002] molecule is
(a) HF is less polar than HBr [IIT 1995]
(b) Absolutely pure water does not contain any ions (a) 7 (b) 8
Te
(c) Chemical bond formation take place when forces (c) 14 (d) 16
of attraction overcome the forces of repulsion 4. When goes to the bond distance .....
le
(d) In covalency transference of electron takes place

and when goes to the bond
gr
21. Which of the following statements is true about

distance .......
am
[CPMT 1988]
[IIT 1996]
(a) It has coordinate and covalent bonds (a) Decrease, increase (b) Increase, decrease
@
(b) It has only coordinate bonds (c) Increase, increase (d) None of these
C
(c) It has only electrovalent bonds 5. Which of the following contains a coordinate covalent
he
(d) It has electrovalent, covalent and coordinate bond

bonds [UPSEAT 2001]
m
22. Blue vitriol has

(a) (b)
is
(a) Ionic bond (b) Coordinate bond

try
(c) HCl (d)

(c) Hydrogen bond (d) All the above
_S
23. The number of ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds in 6. Which combination is best explained by the co-
are respectively [MP PMT 1999] ordinate covalent bond [JIPMER 2001; CBSE PMT 1990]
pa
(a) 1, 3 and 1 (b) 1, 3 and 2 (a) (b) Cl + Cl

rk
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 1 and 3

(c) (d)
24. Covalent molecules are usually held in a crystal
structure by 7. Arrange the following compounds in order of
[MP PET 1995] increasing dipole moment.
(a) Dipole-dipole attraction (I) Toluene (II) dichlorobenzene
(b) Electrostatic attraction (III) dichlorobenzene (IV) dichlorobenzene
(c) Hydrogen bonds [IIT 1996]
(d) Vander Waal's attraction (a) (b)
(c) (d)
8. The correct order of dipole moment is [Roorkee 1999]
(a)
(b)
(c) (c) All bonds are equivalent
(d) (d) All bonds are non-equivalent
9. Which of the following has the highest dipole moment 16. Bond length of ethane (I), ethene (II), acetylene (III)
[AIIMS 2002] and benzene (IV) follows the order [CPMT 1999]
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
17. Hybridisation state of chlorine in is [RPET 1999]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
18. Molecular shapes of and are
[IIT Screening 2000]
(c) (d)
(a) The same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons
respectively
Te
10. Which of the following arrangement of molecules is (b) The same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs of electrons
correct on the basis of their dipole moments [AIIMS
respectively
le
2002] (c) Different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons

gr
respectively
(a) (b)
(d) Different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons
am
(c) (d)
respectively
11. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom
19. Structure of and hybridization of iodine in this
@
in is [IIT 1992]
structure are [UPSEAT 2001]
(a) (b) (a) , Linear
C

he
(b) , T-shaped
12. Among the following species, identify the isostructural
(c) , Irregular tetrahedral
m
pairs, [IIT 1996]

(d) , Octahedral
is
(a) and 20. In which of the following the central atom does not
try
(b) and use sp3 hybrid orbitals in its bonding [UPSEAT 2001, 02]
_S
(c) and (a) (b)
(d) and (c) (d)

pa
13. In the compound 21. The magnetic moment of is found to

rk
the be 1.7 B.M. How many unpaired electron (s) is/are

bond is of the type [IIT 1999] present per molecule [Orissa JEE 2003]
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) (b)
(c) 3 (d) 4
(c) (d) 22. and are converted into monocations and
14. The correct order of increasing bond length of respectively. Which is wrong [CBSE PMT 1997]
is [IIT 1999] (a) In the bond weakens
(a) (b) (b) In the bond order increases

(c) In paramagnetism decreases
(c) (d)
(d) becomes diamagnetic
15. In the dichromate dianion [IIT 1999]
23. The common features among the species , CO
(a) bonds are equivalent
and are [IIT Screening 2001]
(b) bonds are equivalent
(a) Bond order three and isoelectronic Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct
(b) Bond order three and weak field ligands option out of the options given below :
(c) Bond order two and -acceptors (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
(d) Isoelectronic and weak field ligands the correct explanation of the assertion.
24. The number of bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
is [IIT Screening 2001] the correct explanation of the assertion.
(a) Three (b) Two (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(c) One (d) Zero (d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
25. Strongest intermolecular hydrogen bond is present in (e) If assertion is false but reason is true.
the following molecules pairs
1. Assertion : Water is a good solvent for ionic
[IIT 1981; DCE 2000]
compounds but poor one for covalent
(a) and
compounds.
(b) and Reason : Hydration energy of ions releases

sufficient energy to overcome lattice
energy and break hydrogen bonds in
Te
(c) and water, while covalent bonded

compounds interact so weakly that
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(d) and
even Vander Wall's forces between
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26. A compound contains atoms The molecules of covalent compounds

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oxidation number of is is + 5 and is cannot be broken. [AIIMS 1996]
. Therefore, a possible formula of the compound 2. Assertion : The atoms in a covalent molecule are
is [CPMT 1988] said to share electrons, yet some
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covalent molecules are polar.

(a) (b)
C
Reason : In a polar covalent molecule, the

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(c) (d)
shared electrons spend more time on
the average near one of the atoms.
m
27. Bonds present in is

[AIIMS 1996]
[IIT 1983; DCE 2001]
is
3. Assertion : Diborane is electron deficient

(a) Electrovalent and covalent
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Reason : There are no enough valence electrons

(b) Electrovalent and coordinate
to form the expected number of
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(c) Electrovalent, covalent and coordinate covalent bonds [AIIMS 2001]

(d) Covalent and coordinate
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4. Assertion : A resonance hybrid is always more

28. The ionization of hydrogen atom would give rise to stable than any of its canonical
rk
[UPSEAT 2001] structures
(a) Hybrid ion (b) Hydronium ion Reason : This stability is due to delocalization of
electrons [AIIMS 1999]
(c) Proton (d) Hydroxyl ion
5. Assertion : All angle in greater
29. Which can be described as a molecule with residual
bonding capacity [JIPMER 2000]
than 90° but less than 180°
Reason : The lone pair-bond pair repulsion is
(a) (b)
weaker than bond pair-bond pair
(c) (d) repulsion
[AIIMS 2004]
6. Assertion : The electronic structure of is

17. Assertion : Order of lattice energy for same halides
Reason : structure is not allowed are as .
Reason : Size of alkaline – earth metal increases
because octet around cannot be
from to .
expanded.
18. Assertion : Born-Haber cycle is based on Hess’s law.
[IIT 1998]
Reason : Lattice enthalpy can be calculated by
7. Assertion : Bond order can assume any value
Born- Haber cycle.
number including zero
19. Assertion : Bond energy has order like
Reason : Higher the bond order, shorter is bond
length and greater is bond energy .
[AIIMS 1999] Reason : Bond energy increases with increase in

8. Assertion : Ortho nitrophenol molecules are bond order.
associated due to the presence of 20. Assertion : Electron affinity refers to an isolated
intermolecular hydrogen bonding while atom’s attraction for an additional
paranitrophenol involves intramolecular, electron while electronegativity is the
hydrogen bonding ability of an element to attract
Te
Reason : Ortho nitrophenol is more volatile than electrons towards itself in a shared
the para nitrophenol [AIIMS 1999] pair of electrons.
le
9. Assertion : Nitrogen molecule diamagnetic. Reason : Electron affinity is a relative number

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and electronegativity is experimentally

Reason : molecule have unpaired electrons.
measurable.
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10. Assertion : Ice is less dense than liquid water.

21. Assertion : Geometry of molecule can be
Reason : There are vacant spaces between
termed as distorted tetrahedron, a
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hydrogen bonded water molecules in

folded square or see saw.
ice.
C
Reason : Four fluorine atoms surround or form

11. Assertion : Water is liquid but is a gas.
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bond with sulphur molecule.

Reason : Oxygen is paramagnetic.
22. Assertion : has greater dipole moment than
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12. Assertion : Iodine is more soluble in water then in

.
is
carbon tetrachloride.
Reason : Fluorine is more electronegative than
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Reason : Iodine is a polar compound.

sulphur.
13. Assertion : and -nitrophenols can be
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23. Assertion : The bond between two identical

separated by steam distillation.
nonmetal atoms has a pair of electrons
Reason : -nitrophenol have intramolecular
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with identical spin.

hydrogen bonding while -
Reason : Electrons are transferred fully from
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nitrophenol exists as associated

one atom to another.
molecules.
24. Assertion : B2 molecule is diamagnetic.
14. Assertion : The fluorine has lower reactivity.
Reason : The highest occupied molecular orbital
Reason : bond has low bond dissociation
is of  type. [AIIMS 2005]
energy.
25. Assertion : The nearly tetrahedral arrangement of
15. Assertion : is strong while is a weak bond.
the orbitals about the oxygen atom
Reason : Atoms rotate freely about bond. allows each water molecule to form
16. Assertion : The crystal structure gets stabilized hydrogen bonds with as many as four
even though the sum of electron gain neighbouring water molecules.
enthalpy and ionization enthalpy is Reason : In ice each molecule forms four
positive. hydrogen bonds as each molecule is
Reason : Energy is absorbed during the fixed in the space.
formation of crystal lattice.
26. Assertion : The bond order of helium is always
zero.
Reason : The number of electrons in bonding 1 d 2 b 3 c 4 d 5 c
molecular orbital and antibonding 6 b 7 a 8 d 9 a 10 d
molecular orbital is equal.
11 c 12 a 13 a 14 b 15 c
Dipole moment
1 b 2 d 3 d 4 a 5 c
6 c 7 a 8 a 9 c 10 b
11 b 12 d 13 b 14 c 15 d
Electrovalent bonding 16 c 17 c 18 a 19 c 20 b
1 b 2 a 3 a 4 c 5 c 21 d 22 b 23 b 24 b 25 a
6 d 7 d 8 b 9 c 10 d 26 b 27 b 28 b 29 c 30 a
11 b 12 a 13 d 14 a 15 a 31 a 32 c 33 a 34 bd 35 a
16 c 17 b 18 a 19 d 20 c
Polarisation and Fajan’s rule
Te
21 b 22 d 23 a 24 a 25 b
26 d 27 d 28 c 29 a 30 d
1 d 2 c 3 b 4 d 5 c
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31 b 32 b 33 b 34 d 35 b
6 a 7 b 8 a 9 c 10 b
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36 a 37 b 38 a 39 a 40 c
11 d 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 d
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41 c 42 b 43 d 44 b 45 c
16 d 17 c 18 b 19 a 20 d
46 c 47 a 48 b 49 c 50 b
21 a 22 c 23 d 24 a 25 b
51 b 52 b 53 a 54 a 55 a
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26 b
56 c 57 a 58 c 59 a 60 c
C
61 a 62 b 63 d 64 d 65 b
Overlaping -  and - bonds
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66 a 67 abc 68 bd
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1 c 2 c 3 b 4 b 5 c
Covalent bonding 6 c 7 c 8 b 9 d 10 c
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11 b 12 c 13 a 14 a 15 d
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1 c 2 c 3 B 4 b 5 d
6 a 7 c 8 a 9 d 10 a 16 a 17 d 18 c 19 d 20 d
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11 b 12 b 13 c 14 b 15 c
Hybridisation
16 a 17 a 18 c 19 a 20 b
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21 a 22 a 23 c 24 c 25 c
1 d 2 d 3 d 4 c 5 d
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26 c 27 a 28 a 29 a 30 d
6 a 7 c 8 b 9 d 10 d
31 b 32 a 33 d 34 a 35 d
11 d 12 a 13 a 14 b 15 a
36 b 37 d 38 c 39 d 40 c
16 b 17 c 18 a 19 d 20 b
41 b 42 b 43 b 44 b 45 b
21 c 22 c 23 a 24 c 25 a
46 d 47 d 48 b 49 a 50 a
26 a 27 b 28 c 29 b 30 a
51 b 52 d 53 c 54 d 55 d
31 d 32 a 33 d 34 c 35 c
56 d 57 a 58 a 59 d 60 a
36 b 37 b 38 c 39 b 40 b
61 c 62 a 63 b 64 b 65 b
41 d 42 b 43 c 44 a 45 c
66 b 67 b 68 d 69 b 70 c
46 c 47 d 48 b 49 c 50 a
71 c 72 c 73 cd 74 ad 75 ab
51 b 52 a 53 c 54 c 55 c
76 a
56 d 57 b 58 a 59 b 60 c
61 b 62 c 63 b 64 b 65 b
Co-ordinate or Dative bonding
66 a 67 c 68 b 69 c 70 a
31 c 32 a 33 c 34 a 35 c
71 a 72 a 73 b 74 b 75 d 36 d 37 b 38 a 39 a 40 c
76 d 77 c 78 a 79 d 80 b 41 c 42 a 43 b 44 a 45 a
81 c 82 b 83 d 84 a 85 d 46 c 47 b 48 c 49 c 50 a
86 b 87 d 88 c 89 a 90 c 51 c 52 b 53 a 54 a 55 a
91 c 92 c 93 a 94 b 95 c 56 c 57 c 58 c 59 a 60 a
96 a 97 b 98 b 99 b 100 b 61 a 62 b 63 a 64 c 65 a
101 a 102 b 103 d 104 a 105 b 66 c 67 a 68 a 69 c 70 a
106 a 107 a 108 b 109 b 110 a 71 b 72 b 73 d 74 c 75 a
111 a 112 b 113 b 114 d 115 d 76 b 77 b 78 a 79 c 80 a
116 c 117 c 118 b 119 c 120 a 81 c 82 a 83 c 84 d
121 a 122 c 123 a 124 a 125 b
126 c 127 d 128 c 129 c 130 a Hydrogen bonding
131 b 132 b 133 e 134 c 135 d
Te
1 d 2 b 3 b 4 a 5 c
136 b 137 b 138 d 139 a 140 a
6 d 7 b 8 d 9 c 10 c
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141 a 142 b 143 a 144 a 145 a

11 d 12 b 13 a 14 b 15 d
146 b 147 c 148 d 149 bcd 150 a
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16 d 17 b 18 d 19 c 20 c
151 ac 152 a
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21 a 22 a 23 d 24 a 25 c
26 a 27 b 28 c 29 a 30 c
Resonance
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31 a 32 b 33 d 34 a 35 a
1 d 2 b 3 b 4 b 5 b 36 a 37 a 38 b 39 d 40 c
C
6 c 7 a 8 c 9 b 10 c 41 a 42 c 43 b 44 c 45 c
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11 abcd 46 b 47 d 48 b 49 d 50 d
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VSEPR Theory Types of bonding and Forces in solid

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1 b 2 d 3 c 4 c 5 d
1 a 2 a 3 b 4 c 5 c
6 d 7 d 8 b 9 b 10 c
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6 b 7 b 8 c 9 b 10 a
11 d 12 a 13 d 14 c 15 a
11 c 12 a 13 a 14 a 15 c
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16 b 17 d 18 a 19 d 20 c
16 c 17 b 18 d 19 d 20 a
21 d 22 d 23 a 24 d
21 a 22 d 23 b 24 d 25 a
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26 c 27 b 28 b 29 a 30 a
Critical Thinking Question
31 a 32 c 33 c 34 a 35 c
36 b 37 b 38 d 39 d 40 b
1 d 2 c 3 c 4 b 5 a
41 c 42 a 43 b 44 c 45 d
6 a 7 b 8 a 9 a 10 d
11 a 12 c 13 d 14 d 15 b
Molecular orbital theory
16 c 17 b 18 d 19 c 20 a
21 a 22 d 23 a 24 d 25 c
1 a 2 c 3 b 4 b 5 c
26 c 27 c 28 c 29 a
6 d 7 c 8 b 9 c 10 b
11 c 12 b 13 c 14 a 15 c
Assertion & Reason
16 c 17 d 18 b 19 c 20 c
21 d 22 c 23 b 24 c 25 a 1 a 2 a 3 a 4 a 5 c
26 d 27 b 28 b 29 a 30 c 6 b 7 b 8 e 9 c 10 a
11 b 12 d 13 a 14 e 15 c
16 c 17 c 18 b 19 a 20 c
21 b 22 e 23 d 24 d 25 a
26 a
Te
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C
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Level - 1
BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE
Multiple Choice Question
Te
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C
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try
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THE GUIDANCE 58/1 Kalu Sarai, Opp. Sarvpriya Vihar, New Delhi–16, Ph. 41828089, 46043741[165]
1. If molecule MX3 has zero dipole moment ,the sigma bonding orbitals used by M
(atomic number < 21) are
(a) pure p (b) sp hybrid (c) sp2 hybrid (d) sp3 hybrid.
2. The types of bonds present in CuSO4.5H2O are only

(a) electrovalent and covalent
(b) electrovalent and co-ordinate
(c) electrovalent, covalent and co-ordinate covalent
(d)covalent and coordinate co-valent
3. In [Cu (NH3)4] SO4, Cu has the following hybridisation

(a) dsp2 (b) sp3 (c) sp2 (d) sp3d2.
4. H2O has a net dipole moment while BeF2 has zero dipole moment because
Te
(a) H2O molecules is linear while BeF2 is bent

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(b) BeF2 molecule is linear while H2O is bent

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(c) Fluorine has more electronegativity than oxgen

(d) Beryllium has more electro negativity than oxygen
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5. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is

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(a) CH2Cl2 (b) BF3 (c) NF3 (d) ClO2

6. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent bond character follows the order
C
(a) (b)
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(c) (d)
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7. The percentage of s–character in the hybrid orbitals sp, sp 2 and sp3 follows the
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pattern.
(a) sp3 > sp2 > sp (b) sp > sp2 > sp3
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(c) sp = sp2 > sp3 (d) sp = sp2 = sp3

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8. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2, the compounds with the greatest and the
least ionic character respectively are
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(a) LiCl and RbCl (b) RbCl and BeCl2

(c) RbCl and MgCl2 (d) MgCl2 and BeCl2
9. Which of the following has a bond formed by the overlap of sp–sp 3 hybrid orbitals
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
10. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?

(a) ClF (b) PCl3 (c) SiF4 (d) CFCl3
11. The dielectric constant of H2O is 80. The electrostatic force of attraction
between Na+ and Cl- will be
(a) reduced to 1/40 in water than in air

(b) reduced to 1/80 in water than in air
(c) will be increased to 80 in water than in air
(d) will remain unchanged
12. The distance between the two adjacent carbon atoms is largest in
(a) Benzene (b) Ethene (c) Butane (d) Ethyne
13. Which concept best explains the fact that o-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-
nitrophenol ?
(a) resonance (b) hyperconjugation
(c) hydrogen bonding (d) steric hindrance
14. KF combines with HF to form KHF2. The compound contains the species
Te
(a) K+ , F- and H+ (b) K+,F- and HF (c) K+ and [HF2]- (d)[KHF]+ and F2
le
gr
15. N2 and O2 are converted into monocations, and respectively. Which of

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the following is wrong ?

(a) In , N-N bond weakens (b) In , the O-O bond order increase
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(c) In , paramagnetism decreases (d) becomes diamagnetic.

16. The high density of water compared to ice is due to
C
(a) H-bonding interaction (b) dipole-dipole interactions

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(c)dipole-induced dipole interactions

(d) induced dipole–induced dipole interactions
m
is
17. An element (X) forms compounds of the formula XCl 3,X2O5 and Ca3X2 but does
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not form XCl5 . Which of the following is the element X ?

(a) B (b) Al (c) N (d) P
_S
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18. The hybridization of S atom in SO2 is

(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) sp3d.
rk
19. The metallic lustre exhibited by sodium is explained by

(a) diffusion of sodium ions (b) excitation of free protons
(c) oscillation of loose electrons (d)existence of body centred cubic lattice.
20. The hydrogen bond is strongest in

(a) F –H…O (b) F-H….F (c) O-H…S (d) O-H…N
21. The correct order of increasing C-O bond length of CO, , CO2 is
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
22. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in and are

(a)sp ,sp and sp respectively
2 3 2
(b) sp,sp and sp respectively
2 3
(c) sp ,sp and sp respectively

2 3
(d) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
23. The number of antibonding electron pairs in molecular ion on the basis of
molecular orbital theory is (at. no. O =8)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5.
24. Among the following, electron deficient compound is

(a) CCl4 (b) PCl5 (c) SF2 (d) BCl3
25. Among H2O, H2S , H2Se and H2Te, the one with the highest boiling point is
(a) H2O because of hydrogen bonding
Te
(b) H2Te because of higher molecular weight

(c) H2S because of hydrogen bonding
le
(d) H2Se because of lower molecular weight.

gr
am
26. The common features among the species ,CO and NO+ are
(a) bond order three and isoelectronic
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(b) bond order three and weak field ligands

(c) Bond order two and -acceptors
C
(d) Isoelectronic and weak field ligands.

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27. Which of the following molecular species has unpaired electron (s) ?
m
(a) N2 (b) F2 (c) (d) .

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try
28. The nodal plane in the -bond of ethene is located in

_S
(a) the molecular plane (b) a plane parallel to the molecular plane
(c) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the carbon –
pa
carbon sigma bond at right angle

(d) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains the carbon-
rk
carbon -bond.
29. Paramagnetism of oxygen is explained on the basis of its electronic

configuration of
(a) (b) (c) (d)
30. If Z-axis is taken as the molecular axis, then  orbitals are formed by
(a) 2px and 2pz (b) 2px and 2px (c) 2s and 2py (d) 2s and 2pz
31. The cyanide ion, CN- and N2 are isoelectronic. But in contrast to CN - , N2 is
chemically inert, because of
(a) low bond energy (b)absence of bond polarity
(c) unsymmetrical electron distribution
(d) presence of more number of electrons in bonding orbitals.
32. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1.2 D. If the bond distance is 1 Å,
what percentage of electronic charge exists on each atom?
(a) 12% of e (b) 19% of e (c) 25% of e (d) 29% of e
33. AICl3 is covalent while AIF3 is ionic. This fact can be justified on the basis of
(a) Valence bond theory (b) Crystal structure
(c) Lattice energy (d) Fajan Rule
34. Consider the given figure showing that possible levels of the energy of ion
depending on internuclear distance versus potential energy of the system .
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It may be easily assumed that the ground state of the molecular hydrogen ion,
corresponds to the lowest level which means that
C
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(a) Curve 1 represents the most stable state of the system for ion
(b) Curve 2 represent the most stable state of the system for ion
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(c) Curve 1 indicates that the molecular hydrogen ion is formed

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(d) Curve 2 represents the energy level of the antibonding region.

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35. Match List I (species) with List II (Hybrid orbitals used by the central atom in their
formation) and select the correct answer:
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List I A. B. C. D.
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List II 1. sp3 2. dsp2 3. sp3 dz2 4. dx2-y2sp3

A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
Level – 2
More than one option is correct.
1. Most ionic compounds have

(a) high melting points and low boiling points
(b) high melting points and nondirectional bonds
(c) high solubilities in polar solvents and low solubilities in nonpolar solvents
(d) three - dimensional network structures, and are good conductors of
electricity in the molten state
2. Which of the following substances are expected to be covalent?

(a) Becl2 (b) Sncl4 (c) ZnS (d) Zncl2
Te
3. Which of the following have a three - dimensional network structure ?

(a) SiO2 (b) (BN)x (c) P4 (white)(d)CCl4
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4. To which of the following species is the octet rule not applicable?

(a) BrF (b) SF (c) IF (d) CO
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5. Which of the following do not exist?

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(a) SH (b) HFO (c) FeI (d) HClO

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6. The species which contain an odd number of valence electrons and are
paramagnetic are
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(a) NO (b) NO (c) ClO (d) N O

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7. Among the following, the elements which show inert-pair effect are
(a) Bi (b) Sn (c) Pb (d) C
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8. Which of the following, have an (18 + 2)-electron configuration?

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(a) Pb (b) Cd (c) Bi (d) SO

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9. Which of the following species contain covalent coordinate bonds?

(a) AlCl (b) CO (c) [Fe(CN) ] (d) N
10. Which of the following oxyacids of Sulphur contain S-S bonds?

(a) H S O (b) H S O (c) H S O (d) H SO
11. Which of the following factors are responsible for van der Waals forces?
(a) Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole interaction
(b) Dipole-induced dipole interaction and ion-induced dipole interaction
(c) Dipole-dipole interaction and ion-induced dipole interaction
(d) Small size of molecule
12. Which of the following are true?

(a)Van der Waals forces are responsible for the formation of molecular crystals.
(b) Branching lowers the boiling points of isomeric organic compounds due to
van der Waals forces of attraction
(c) In graphite, van der Waals forces act between the carbon layers.
(d) In diamond, van der Waals forces act between the carbon layers.
13. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) The crystal lattice of ice is mostly formed by covalent as well as hydrogen
bonds.
(b) The density of water increases when heated from 0ºC to 4ºC due to the
change in the structure of the cluster of water molecules.
(c) Above 4ºC the thermal agitation of water molecules increases. Therefore,
intermolecular distance increases and water starts expanding.
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(d) The density of water increases from 0ºC to a maximum at 4ºC because the
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entropy of the system increases.

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14. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding increases the enthalpy of vaporization of a

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liquid due to the

(a) decrease in the attraction between molecules
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(b) increase in the attraction between molecules

(c) decrease in the molar mass of unassociated liquid molecules
C
(d) increase in the effective molar mass of hydrogen-bonded molecules

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15. Which of the following molecules have intermolecular hydrogen bonds?

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(a) KH PO (b) H BO (c) C H CO H (d) CH OH

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try
16. Intramolecular hydrogen bonds occur in

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(a) 2-chlorophenol (b) salicylic acid

(c) the enol form of acetylacetone (d) paranitrophenol
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17. Which of the following are diamagnetic?

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(a) C (b) O (c) Li (d) N
18. Which of the following are paramagnetic?

(a) B (b) O (c) N (d)He
19. Which of the following species have a bond order of 3?
(a) CO (b) CN (c) NO (d) O
20. Among the following, the species with one unpaired electron are
(a) O (b) NO (c) O (d) B
21. Which of the following pairs have identical values of bond order?
(a) N and O (b) F and Ne (c) O and B (d) C and N
22. Which of the following is correct?

(a) During N formation, one electron each is removed from the bonding
molecular orbitals.
(b) During O formation, one electron each is removed from the antibonding
molecular orbitals.
(c) During formation, one electron each is added to the bonding molecular
orbitals.
(d) During formation, one electron each is added to the bonding molecular
orbitals.
23. Which of the following species are linear?

(a) ICl (b) I (c)N (d) ClO
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24. The structure of XeF is

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(a) pentagonal bipyramidal (b) distorted octahedral

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(c) capped octahedral (d) square pyramidal

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25. Which of the following have dipole moment?

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(a) Nitrobenzene (b) p-chloronitrobenzene

(c) m-dichlorobenzene (d) o-dichlorobenzene
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Level – 3
Previous Year Question IIT
Fill In The Blanks
1. The angle between two covalent bonds is maximum in ………………

(CH4, H2O, CO2)
2. Pair of molecules which forms strongest intermolecular hydrogen bonds

is ………………
(SiH4 and SiF4, CH3C─CH3 and CHCl3, HC─OH and CH3─C─OH)
║ ║ ║
O O O
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3. There are ……………………..  bonds in a nitrogen molecule.

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4. ……………. hybrid orbitals of nitrogen atom are involved in the formation

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of ammonium ion.
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5. The shape of [CH3]+ is ………………………..

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6. The valence atomic orbitals on C in silver acetylide is …………………

C
hybridized.
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7. The kind of delocalization involving sigma bond orbitals is called …………

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8. The two types of bonds present in B2H6 are covalent and ……………
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9. When N2 goes to N , the N─N bond distance ………………, and when O 2

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goes to O the O─O bond distance ………………

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10. Among N2O, SO2, I and I , the linear species are…………and ……………
TRUE /FALSE
11. Linear overlap of two atomic p-orbitals leads to a sigma bond.
12. All molecules with polar bonds have dipole moment.
13. SnCl2 is a non-linear molecule.
14. In benzene, carbon uses all the three p-orbitals for hybridization.
15. sp3 hybrid orbitals have equal s and p character.

16. The presence of polar bonds in a polyatomic molecule suggests that the
molecule has non-zero dipole-moment.
17. H2O molecule is linear.
18. The dipole moment of CH3F is greater than that of CH3CL.
Only one option is correct:
19. Carbon tetrachloride has no net dipole moment because of:

(a) its planar structure
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(b) its regular tetrahedral structure

(c) similar sizes of carbon and chlorine atoms
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(d) similar electron affinities of carbon and chlorine

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20. Which one among the following does not have the hydrogen bond?
(a) Phenol (b) Liquid NH3 (c) Water (d) HCl
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21. On hybridization of one s and one p-orbital we get:

C
(a) two mutually perpendicular orbitals

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(b) two orbitals at 1800

(c) four orbitals directed tetrahedrally
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(d) three orbitals in a plane

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22. The bond between two identical non-metal atoms has a pair of electrons:
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(a) unequally shared between the two

(b) transferred fully from one atom to another
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(c) with identical spins

(d) equally shared between them
rk
23. The hybridization of Sulphur in Sulphur dioxide is:

(a) sp (b) sp3 (c) sp2 (d) dsp2
24. Of the following compounds, which will have a zero dipole moment?
(a) 1, 1 dichloroethylene (b) cis-1, 2 dichloroethylene
(c) trans 1, 2 dichloroethylene (d) None of these
25. The species in which the central atom uses sp2-hybrid orbitals in its
bonding is:
(a) PH3 (b) NH3 (c) CH (d) SbH3
26. The molecule that has linear structure is:

(a) CO2 (b) NO2 (c) SO2 (d) SiO2
27. The Cl—C—Cl angle in 1, 1, 2, 2, tetrachloroethene and
tetrachloromethane respectively will be about:
(a)1200 and 109.50 (b) 900 and 109.50
(c) 109.5 and 90
0 0
(d) 109.50 1200
28. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is:

(a) CH2Cl2 (b) BF3 (c) NF3 (d) ClO2
29. Which of the following is paramagnetic?

(a) O (b) CN- (c) CO (d) NO+
Te
30. The molecule which has pyramidal shape is:

le
(a) PCl3 (b) SO3 (c) CO (d) NO

gr
am
31. The oxidation number of phosphorus in Ba(H2PO2)2 is:

(a) +3 (b) +2 (c) +1 (d) -1
@
C
32. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom in ClO is:
he
(a) sp3 (b) sp2 (c) sp (d) none of these

m
33. For the redox reaction:

is
MnO + C2O + H+ Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O

try
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are :
_S
MnO C2O H+
pa
(a) 2 5 16 (b) 16 5 2
rk
(c) 5 16 2 (d) 2 16 5
34. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds a water molecule can
form is:
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 1
35. which one of the following molecules is planar?

(a) NF3 (b) NCl3 (c) PH3 (d) BF3
36. Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs.

NF3, NO , BF3, H3O+, N3H
(a) [NF3, NO ] and [BF3, H3O+] (b) [NF3, N3H] and [NO , BF3]
(c) [NF3, H3O+] and [NO , BF3] (d) [NF3, H3O+] and [N3H, BF3]
37. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC 2 are:
(a) one sigma () and one pi () bonds
(b) one sigma () and two pi() bonds
(c) one sigma () and one half pi() bonds
(c) one sigma () bond
38. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment
toluene (I), m-dichlorobenzene (II), o-dichlorobenze (III), p-
dichlorobenzene (IV):
Te
(a) I < IV < II < III (b) IV < I < II < III
(b) IV < I < III < II (c) IV < II < I < III.
le
39. The cyanide ion, CN- and N2 are isoelectronic, but in constrast to CN -, N2
gr
is chemically inert, because of:

am
(a) low bond energy (b) absence of bond polarity

(c) unsymmetrical electron distribution
@
(d) presence of more number of electrons in bonding orbitals

C
40. Which one of the following compounds has sp2-hybridization?

he
(a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) N2O (d) CO

m
is
41. Among the following compounds the one that is polar and has the central
try
atom with sp2 hybridisation is:

(a) H2CO3 (b) SiF4 (c) BF3 (d) HClO2
_S
pa
42. Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds?

(a) NH4Cl (b) HCN (c) H2O2 (d) CH4
rk
43. The correct order of increasing C—O bond length of CO, CO , CO2 is:
(a) CO < CO2 < CO (b) CO2 < CO < CO
(c) CO < CO < CO2 (d) CO < CO2 < CO
44. The oxidation number of S in S8, S2F2, H2S respectively, are:

(a) 0, +1 and -2 (b) +2, +1 and -2
(c) 0, +1 and +2 (d) -2, +1 and -2
45. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are:
(a) angular and non zero (b) angular and zero
(c) linear and non-zero (d) linear and zero
46. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO , NO and NH

are:
(a) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively (b) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively
(c) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively (d) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
47. Molecular shape of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are:
(a) the same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
(b) the same, with 1, 1, 1, lone pair of electrons respectively
(c) different, with 0, 1, and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively
(d) different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively
48. The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following
species NH3, [PtCl4]2-, PCl5 and BCl3 is:
Te
(a) dsp2, dsp3, sp2 and sp3 (b) sp3, dsp2, sp3d and sp2
(c) dsp2, sp2, sp3, dsp3 (d) dsp2, sp3, sp2, dsp3
le
gr
More than one options are correct:

am
49. Dipole moment is shown by:

(a) 1, 4 dichlorobenzene (b) cis 1, 2 dichloroethene
@
(d) trans 1, 2-dichloroethene (d) trans 1, 2-dichloro 2-pentene

C
50. CO2 is isostructural with:

he
(a) HgCl2 (b) C2H2 (c) SnCl2 (d) NO2

m
51. The linear structure assumed by:

is
try
(a) SnCl2 (b) CS2 (c) NO (d) NCO- (e) SO2

_S
52. Which of the following have identical bond order?

pa
(a) CN- (b) O (c) NO+ (d) CN+

rk
53. The molecules that will have dipole moment are:

(a) 2, 2-dimethyl propane (b) trans-2-pentene
(c) cis-3-hexene (d) 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethyl butane
54. Pick out the isoelectronic structure from the following:

(I) CH (II) H3O+ (III) NH3 (IV) CH
(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) I and III (d) II, III and IV
55. The critical temperature of water is higher than that of O 2 because the
H2O molecule has:
(a) fewer electrons than O2 (b) two covalent bonds
(c) V - shape (d) dipole moment
56. The geometry and the type of hybrid orbital present about the central
atom in BF3 is:
(a) linear, sp (b) trigonal planar, sp2
(c) tetrahedral, sp3 (d) pyramidal, sp3
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Level -1
Answer key & Solution
Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans.
1. C 11. B 21. D 31. B
2. C 12. C 22. B 32. C
3. A 13. C 23. C 33. D
4. B 14. C 24. D 34. B
5. B 15. D 25. A 35. D
6. C 16. A 26. A
7. B 17. C 27. C
8. B 18. B 28. A
9. A 19. D 29. B
Te
10. C 20. B 30. B

le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
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_S
Solution
pa
1. Since; e molecule (MX3) has zero dipole moment therefore, it must have
triangular planar geometry and accordingly the hybridization of central metal
rk
atom (M) must be sp2.
2.
The bond between Cu2+ and ion is ionic ; between S and O in ions
and between H and O atoms in H 2O are covalent : those between Cu and H2O
2+
molecules are coordinate.
3. Electronic configuration of Cu2+ is
4. BeF2 is linear and hence has zero dipole moment while H 2O being a bent
molecule, has a finite or non-zero dipole moment.
5. BF3 is triangular planar and hence has zero dipole moment.
6. As we move from Li Be B C, the electonegativity (EN) increases and

hence the EN difference between the element and Cl decreases and accordingly
the covalent character increases.
Thus option (c) i.e. is correct
7. Percentage of s–character decreases as sp (50%) > sp2 (33.3%) > sp3 (25.0%).
8. Electronegativity difference (EN) is highest in RbCl (3 – 0.8 = 2.2) and least in

Te
BeCl2 (3-1.5 =1.5) and hence option (b) is correct.

le
9.
gr
am
10. SiF4 is a symmetrical tetrahedral molecule and hence its dipole moment is zero.
@
11. Electrostatic forces of attraction are reduced to 1/80th in water.

C
12. The C-C bond distance decreases as the multiplicity of the bond increases.
he
Thus, bond distance decreases in the order :butane (1.54Å) > benzene (1.39 Å)
> ethene ( 1.34 Å) >ethyne ( 1.20 Å).
m
is
13. o-Nitrophenol undergoes intramolecular H –bonding and hence exists as a

try
monomer but p- nitrophenol undergoes intermolecular H – bonding and hence

exists as an associated molecule. Therefore o-nitrophennol is more volatile
_S
than p- nitrophenol.
pa
14. F- forms H- Bond with HF, therefore, the species [ H…F-H] - or exists and
rk
hence option (c) is correct.
15. B.O. in N2 = (10 – 4)/2=3

B.O. in = (9 – 4)/ 2 =2.5
B.O. in O2 = (10 – 6)/2 =2.0
B.O. in
contains one unpaired electron and hence is paramagnetic. Therefore
option (d) is wrong . All other statements are correct.
16. H –bonding interactions.
17. Since the element X froms XCl 3, X2O5 and Ca3X2, therefore, it must be N or P.
Since it does form MCl5 therefore, it must be N since it has no d- orbitals to
expand its covalency from 3 to 5. Therefore, X must be N.
18. Total no. of valence electrons in SO2 = 6 + 2  6 = 18

Now And
Thus, sum of
and hence type of hybridization is sp2.
19. Metallic luster is due to oscillation of loose electrons.
20. Because of highest electronegativity of F, F-H…F hydrogen bond is the

strongest.
Te
le
21. From VB theory, B.O. in CO, i.e. : that of O = C = O is 2 while that of

gr
ion is 1.33. Since the bond length increases as the bond order decreases,
am
i, e. CO < CO2 < . Thus option (d) is correct.

@
22. In , total no. of valence electrons = 5 + 2  6 – 1 = 16

C
Now
he
Thus, type of hybridization is sp.

In total no. of valence electrons = 5 + 3  6 + 1 = 24
m
Now, 24  8 = 3 (Q1) + 0 (R1) = 3

is
Thus, type of hybridization = sp2.

try
In ions, total no. of valence electrons = 5 + 1  4 – 1 = 8

_S
Now 8  2 = 4 (Q1) + 0 (R1) = 4

Thus, type of hybridization is sp3.
pa
Combining all the results, option (b) is correct.

rk
23. No. of antibonding electron pairs in
24. Only BCl3 is electron deficient.
25. H2O has highest boiling point due to hydrogen bonding.
26. All the species are isoelectronic since each one of them has 14 electrons
distributed in the MO’s as under:
and
Thus B.O = .
27. has one unpaired electron in orbital.
28. The molecular plane does not have any -electron density.
29. (b) on the basis of electronic configuration.
30.
Te
le
31. Both and N2 molecules have the same MO diagrams but differ only in bond
gr
polarity. Thus N2 is inert due to absence of bond polarity while ion is

am
reactive due to presence of bond polarity.

@
32. Fractional charge () on each atom

C
he
m
is
Percentage of electronic change

try
_S
33. Smaller the size of the anion (F -) lesser is its polarization and hence more is the
ionic character. Thus AICl3 is covalent while AIF6 is ionic – Fajan rule.
pa
rk
34. Curve 2 represents the most stable state because in this curve energy
decreases as the atoms come close together and there is minimum in the curve
where energy is minimum and hence stability h maximum.
35. In Mn is in +2 oxidation state.
In is in +2 oxidation state
In is in +3 oxidation state
In is the central atom. In the ground state, we have

Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
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_S
pa
rk
Level -2
Answers key & Solution
Q. No Ans Q. No Ans Q. No Ans
1. A, B, C, D 10. B, C 19. A, B, C
2. A, B 11. A, B, C 20. A, B, C
3. A, B 12. A, B, C 21. A, C
4. A, B, C 13. A, B, C, D 22. A, B, D
5. A, B, C 14. B, D 23. A, B, C
6. A, B, C 15. A, B, C, D 24. B, C
7. A, B, C 16. A, B, C 25. A, B, C, D
Te
8. A, C 17. A, B, C
le
9. B, C 18. A, B
gr
am
2. Apply Fajan’s rules and also consider the effects of polarization.

@
4. BrF (14 electrons), SF (12 electrons), IF (14 electrons)

C
6. NO (5 + 6 = 11 valence electrons)
he
m
NO (5 + 12 = 17 valence electrons)
is
try
ClO (7 + 12 = 19 valence electrons)

_S
All molecules have odd-electrons and are paramagnetic.

pa
9.
rk
10.
16.
2-Chlorophenol Salicylic acid
enol form of acetyl acetone

Te
(All molecules have intramolecular hydrogen bonds.)

le
17. From the molecular orbital theory, we know that these species have a bond order
gr
equal to zero. The number of unpaired electrons they possess is also zero. Hence
am
they are diamagnetic.
18. From the molecular orbital theory, we know that B 2 and O2 have two unpaired
@
electrons each. Hence they are paramagnetic.

C
he
23. The species in options (a), (b) and (c) are sp-hybridized and are, therefore, linear .
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Level – 3
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. CO2; sp hybridisation of C-atom with hybrid orbitals being farthest.
2. HCOOH and CH3COOH;
3. 2; As there is a triple bond between the two nitrogen atoms, so there are
1 and 2-bonds.
4. sp3;
5. Planar;
Te
6. sp
le
Ag—C≡C—H
gr
sp-hybridized
am
7. Hyperconjugation: Hence, it involve between -electrons of alpha C—H

bond and -electrons of conjugated system. So it is also called as -
conjugation.
@
C
8. Three centred two electron bonds or banana bond; The formation of three
he
centred two electron bond is due to one empty sp3 orbital of one of the
B atom, 1s orbital of the bridge hydrogen atom and one of the sp3 (filled)
m
orbital of the other B-atom. This forms a decolourized orbital covering the
is
three nuclei giving the shape of a banana. Thus also known as banana
try
bonds.
_S
9. Increases, decreases; The molecular configurations of N 2 and O2 are as

pa
follows
rk
For : same except
 Bond order in And bond order in
Thus conversion of N2 to decreases bond order (from 3 to 2.5) and

hence increases the N—N bond distance.
Bond order in and bond order in
Thus conversion of O2 to O increases bond order (from 2 to 2.5) hence

decreases O—O bond distance.
10. N2O, I ; Linear species are N2O and I .
TRUE /FALSE
11. Head on (or linear) overlap of two atomic orbitals leads to a sigma bond.
12. The vector addition of all the bond moments may or may not be zero.
13. SnCl2 has both bond pair (2) as well as lone pair (1) of electrons. It is sp 2
hybridised and trigonal planar in shape.
14. Only two orbitals since C in benzene is in sp2 hybridised state.

Te
15. sp2 hybrid orbitals do not have equal s(33.3%) and p(66.66%) character.
le
gr
16. Reason is as in Q.2.

am
17. H2O molecule is V-shaped.

@
18. C-F has largest bond polarity.

C
he
Only one option is correct:

m
is
19. Carbon tetrachloride has no dipole moment because of its regular

try
tetrahedral structure, which is symmetrical.

_S
20. Hydrogen bond may form by oxygen, nitrogen and fluorine only.
pa
21. Bond angle between two sp-hybrid orbitals is 180 0

rk
22. Two identical non-metal atoms form non-polar covalent bond.
23.
 sp2-hybridisation
24.
Te
25. In CH , carbon atom is in sp2-hybridized state.

le
gr
26. Due to sp-hybridization

am
27. In 1, 1, 2, 2 tetrachloroethene, each carbon is sp2 hybridized thus having

@
bond angle 1200 and in tetrachloromethane carbon is sp3-hybridized,

hence bond angle is 109.50
C
he
28. BF3 is a symmetric molecule having zero dipole moment.

m
is
29. CN-, CO and NO+ are isoelectronic with 14 electrons each and there is no
try
unpaired electrons in the MO. configuration of these species. So these

are diamagnetic. O is paramagnetic due to the presence of one unpaired
_S
electron.
pa
(CN-, CO, NO+) 14 = 1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2 2p

rk
2p = 2p (No unpaired electron diamagnetic)

O = 1s2, *1s2, 2s2 *2s2, 2p
2p = 2p , *2p = *2p (one unpaired electron, paramagnetic)
30. PCl5 has sp3 d-hybridization, hence geometry is trigonal bipyramidal.
31. Ba (H2PO2)2
Let the oxidation number of P is x
 (+2) + (+1 4) + (x  2) + (-2  4) = 0
or 2 + 4 + 2x – 8 = 0 or 2x – 2 = 0
or 2x = + 2  x= = +1
32.
33. 2MnO + 5C2O + 16H+ 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O

34.
Te
le
gr
Hence, four H-bonds may be formed by one water molecule

am
35. Due to sp2-hybridization

@
36. Given species have following structures:

C
he
m
is
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_S
pa
Sp2 hybridized
rk
Trigonal symmetric structure
These three sp2-hybrid orbitals are attached to each other trigonally with
an angle of 1200 and they are overlapped with three p-orbitals of three F-
atoms on their axes. Hence the geometry of BF 3 molecule is trigonal
planar.
H3O+ :
Thus isostructural pairs are [NF3, H3O+] and [NO , BF3]
37.
  - bond = 1
 - bonds = 2
38. The increasing order of dipole-moment p-dichlorobenzene < toluene < m-

dichlorobenzene < o-dichlorbenzene
39. Due to absence of polarity of bond.

Te
40. In SO2 molecule, S is sp2-hybridized

In ground state S16 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p4, 3d0
le
In. excited state

gr
am
@
C
he
Sp2- hybridized unhybridized

m
orbitals which
is
form -bonds
try
41. H2CO3 is polar and C is sp2-hybridized

_S
pa
42. H2O2 has following structure:

rk
Hence, it contains polar and non polar bonds.
43. Bond length
Bond order:
Bond order in CO = 3 (with the help of molecular orbital theory)
Bond order in CO2
Bond order in
So order of bond length of C—O
44. Oxidation No of S in S8 = 0
Te
Oxidation No. of S in S2F2 = +1

Oxidation No. of S in H2S = -2
le
gr
45.
am
@
C
he
46.
m
is
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_S
pa
47.
rk
sp3d hybrid sp3hybrid sp3d2 hybrid

(Trigonal bipyramidal shape) (Tetrahedral shape) (Square planar shape of octahedral)
(Contains one lone pair) (No lone pair) (Contains two lone pair)
48. In NH3, N is sp3-hybridized

In [PtCl4]2- N is dsp2-hybridized
In PCl5, P is sp3 d-hybridized
In BCl3, B is sp2-hybridized
More than one options are correct:
49.
Te
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gr
am
@
C
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m
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_S
pa
rk
50. CO2, HgCl2 and C2H2 are linear molecules having sp-hybridization.
51. [O=N=O]+, [N≡C—O]-, S=C=S

In CS2, carbon is sp-hybridized, so it is linear. NCO - and NO are
isoelectronic to CS2, thus they are also, linear.
52. In CN- and NO+ bond order is three.
53. (a) and (d) are symmetric alkanes, hence these are non polar, while (b)
and (c) are symmetric alkenes hence they possess dipole moment.
54. Isoelectronic structure are H3O+, NH3 and CH . All the molecules have
ten electrons.
55. Critical temperature of water is higher than O 2 because H2O molecule
has dipole moment. Which is due to its V-shape.
56. In BF3, B is sp2-hybridized

Te
le
gr
am
These three sp2-hybrid orbitals are attached to each other trigonally with
an angle of 1200 and they are overlapped with three p-orbitals of three F-
atoms on their axes. Hence the geometry of BF 3 molecule is trigonal
@
planar.
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Different Type Chemical Bonding Questions
1 Match the Following:
Correctly match the following proper6es in the same order (greater vs greater or less vs less) given
in Column-I and Column-II for BeO and MgO (taken in order)
Column I Column II
(a) LaCce energy (p) Hydra6on energy
(b) Basic character (q) Mel6ng points
(c) Ionic character (r) Refractory nature
(d) Thermal stability (s) Amphoteric nature

Te
(t) Solubility
le
Key: (A p,q, r,s)

gr
am
(B t)
(C t)
@
(D p,q, r, s)
C
he
m
Hint: Conceptual
is
try
_S
2. Match the following:

pa
Column I Column II
rk
(A) CO (p) Bond order is 1
(B) NO+ (q) Bond order is 2
(C) (r) Bond order is 3
(D) (s) -acceptor ligand
(t) Diamagnetic
KEY: (A – r, s, t), (B – r, s, t), (C – p, t), (D – q, t)
3.
Column – I Column II
(A) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 (p) Dipole moment
(B) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (q) Reducing property
(C) SnH4 > GeH4 > SiH4 > CH4 (r) Enthalpy of vaporization
(D) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S (s) Boiling point
Key: (A) ® (P), (S);

(B) ® (Q),
(C) ® (Q), (R), (S),
(D) ® (S), (R)
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
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m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
4. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
A) P) One nodal plane
atomic orbital
B) Py atomic orbital Q) Two nodal planes
C) R)  (g) [gerade]
molecular orbital
D) S)  (u) [Ungerade]
molecular orbital
Te
KEY: AQ,R
le
gr
BP,R
am
C R
@
DQ,R
HINT:
C
he

m
Column-I Column-II
is
A) XeF4 P) sp3d2, Square planar

try
B) SF4 Q) sp3, tetrahedral

_S
C) IF4+ R) sp3d, see-saw

pa
D) SO42− S) Has lone pair(s) on the central atom

rk
KEY: AP,S
BR,S
CR,S
D Q
HINT:
20. Column - I Column - II
A) Linear shape p) XeF2
B) sp hybridisation q) ICl2–
C) sp3d hybridisation r) CO2
D) Isoelectronic species s) NCO–
t) CH CH
KEY:A-P,Q,R,S,T;B-R,S,T;C-P,Q;D-R,S
HINT:Ans : A – pqrst ; B – rst ; C – pq ; D – rs

Te
le
gr
All have linear shape, sp hybridisation is for CO 2, NCO– and HCCH. sp3d
am
hybridization is observed for XeF2 and

Isoelectronic species are CO2 and , each having 22 electrons
@
C

he

A) I p) linear
m

B) NH
is
4 q) T-shape
try
C) ClF3 r) sea-saw
_S
D) SF4 s) Tetrahedral
t) hybridisation
pa
KEY: Ap,t; B s; C q,t; Dr,t

rk
HINT: Conceptual.

A) Fractional bond order p) O2

B) Pararuagxetic q) O2

C) Bond order - 3 r) NO
D) Bond order 2-5 s) CN
t) CO
KEY: Ap,t; B s; C q,t; Dr,t
HINT:
Passage – 1:
In the molecular orbital theory, the valence are considered to be associated with the
nucleii, in the molecule; these atomic orbital from different atom must be combined to
produce molecular orbitals;
These molecular orbitals then filled with the available according to the same rule for
atomic orbitals and the total energy of the in the molecular orbitals is compared with
initial total energy of in atomic orbitals.
1. When two molecular orbitals of same symmetry have similar energy then they interact
Te
A) To lower the energy of lower and higher orbitals

le
gr
B) To lower the energy of lower orbital and to raise the energy of higher orbital
am
C) To raise the energy of lower and higher orbitals

@
D) To raise the energy of lower orbital and to lower the energy of higher orbital
C
KEY:B
he
Hint: Conceptual
m
is
try
_S
2. Which of the following statement are true ?

pa
i) In N2 , the doubly degenerate orbitals are completely filled .

rk
ii) In O2 , the energy of orbital is lower than the doubly degenerate. orbitals .
iii) Different molecular species with the same configuration have the same energy.
iv) A orbital has two nodal planes
A) i, ii and iv B) i and ii only C) i, ii, iii and iv D) ii, iii, iv
KEY:A
Hint: The orbital in is than in and more than in from MOT.
3. Correct bond order for
A) B) C) D)
KEY:C
Te
HINT:
le
;
gr
am
Passage - 2
@
The degree of polarity of a covalent bond is measured by the dipole moment (bond)
C
he
of the bond is difined as  bond = e x d the dipole moment of a molecule is the

m
vector additon of all the bond dipole moments present in it. In triatomic molecule.
is
2molecule = 12 + 22 + 1 2 cos

try
_S
% Ionic character = μobs/μtheo x100

pa
4. Which bond angle would result in the maximum dipole moment for the triatomic
rk
molecule xy2 is
(A) = 90º (B) = 120º (C) = 150º (D) = 180º
KEY: A
HINT:
5. The correct order of dipole moment is

(A) CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O (B) NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O
(C) NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O (D) H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4
KEY: A
HINT: Conceptual
6. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment
Toluene (I), m–dichloro benzene (II), O–dicholoro benzene (III), p–dichloro benzene
(IV)
(A) I < IV < II < III (B) IV < I < II < III (C) IV < I < III < II (D) IV < II < I < III
Te
KEY: C
le
gr
HINT: Conceptual
am
Passage - 3
@
According to molecular orbital theory all atomic orbitals combine to form molecular
orbial by LCAO (Linear Combination of Atomic Oribitals) method. When two atomic orbitals
C
have additive (constructive) overlapping the form bonding molecular orbitals (BMO) which have
he
lower energy than atomic orbitals where as when atomic orbitals overlap subtractively, higher
m
energy antibonding molecular orbitals (ABMO) are formed. Each M.O occupies two electrons
is
with opposite spin. Distribution of electrons in M.O follows aufbau principal a well as hund’s
try
rule. M.O. theory can successfully explain magnetic behaviour of molecules.

_S
pa
7. Which of the following in not paramagnetic?

rk
(a) (b) (c) (d)

KEY: C
8. Bond strength increases when

(a) Bond order increases (b) Bond length increases
(c) Antibonding electrons increases (d) Bond angle increase.
KEY: A
9. will have
(a) Bond order equal to that of and diamagnetic
(b) Bond order equal to that of and paramagnetic
(c) Bond order equal to that of and diamagnetic
(d) Bond order higher than that of
KEY: A
Passage - 4
The rule governing the transition from ionic to covalent bonding is called Fajan’s rule.
By this rule the degree of covalency of molecules are known. When an anion and cation
approach each other then the electron cloud of anion is not only attracted by the nucleus,
Te
but also by the charge on cation. At the same time the cation also tends to repel, the
positively charged nucleus of anions. The combined effect of these two forces is that
le
electron cloud of anion is elongated towards the cation. This ability of cation to polarize
gr
anion is known polarization power of cation. The higher is the polarization power of
am
cation higher is the covalent character of the molecule. Effective nuclear charge of
pseudo noble gas configuration is higher than that of noble gas configuration.
@
C
he
10. Which of the following anion is the softest anion

m
(A) (B)
is
try
(C) (D)
_S
Key: A
pa
rk
11. Which of the following is the increasing order of covalent character of the compound
(A) AgCl < CuCl < KCl < NaCl
(B) KCl < NaCl < CuCl < AgCl
(C) KCl < NaCl < AgCl < CuCl
(D) NaCl < KCl < AgCl < CuCl
Key: C
Hint: Cu+ and Ag+ has pseudo inert gas configuration

And
12. Which of the following has highest melting point ?
(A) LiF (B) LiCl
(C) LiBr (D) LiI

Te
Key: A
le
Hint: LiF is most ionic, because F - is small in size therefore it has least polarisability and has
gr
high melting point.

am
Passage - 5
Polar covalent molecules exhibit deipole moment. Dipole moment is equal to the product of
@
charge separation, and the bond length for the bond. Unit of dipole moment is debye. One
C
debye is equal to esu cm.

he
m
Dipole moments is a vector quantity. It has both magnitude and direction. Hence, dipole
moment of a molecule depends upon the relative orientation of the bond dipoles, but not on the
is
try
polarity of bonds alone. A symmetrical structure shows zero dipole moment. Thus, dipole
moment helps to predict the geometry of a molecules. Dipole moment values can be used to
_S
distinguish between cis – and trans – isomers; ortho - , meta – and para – forms of a substance,
etc.
pa
rk
13. A diatomic molecules has a dipole moment of 1.2 D. If the bond length is cm,
what fraction of charge does exist each atom ?
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2
(C) 0.25 (D) 0.3
Key: C
14. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of dipole moments, toluene (I),
o-dichlorobenzene (II), m – dichlorobenzene (III) and p – dichlorobenzene (IV)
(A) IV < I < II < III (B) I < IV < II < III
(C) IV < I < III < II (D) IV < II < I < III
Key: C
15. of the type of molecule is zero. The geometry of it can be :

(A) tetrahedral (B) square planar
(C) A or B (D) none of these
Key: C
Passage – 6:
The first real compound of noble gases was made in 1962 by
Bartlett, soon after this there was a rapid extension of the chemistry of the noble gases and
Te
in particular of xenon.
le
Xenon reacts directly with fluorine when heated at 4000C in a sealed nickel tube. The
gr
products depend on the ratio of Xe and F2. A 1:20 mixture of Xe and F2 on heating gives
am
XeF6, which is a white solid. It undergoes slow hydrolysis in small quantity of water
forming a xenon oxyfluoride (A) with Xe, O and F weight ratio 2.62 : 0.32 : 1.52. It
@
undergoes complete hydrolysis in excess of water forming an oxide (B) in the same
oxidation state. When the oxide (B) reacts with (A) it forms another compound (C) with
C
formula XeO2F2. XeF6 can act as a fluoride donar and forms a complex (D) with AsF5. The
he
complex in the crystalline form is found to contain monovalent ions in which ‘Xe’ is
m
present in the cationic part.(Xe=131)

is
try
_S
16. In the partial hydrolysis of XeF6 the hybridization of Xe changes from

pa
A) sp3d2 - sp3d B) sp3d3 - sp3 C) sp3d3 - sp3d D) sp3d3 - sp3d2

rk
KEY: D
17. The shape of the molecule (B) is,
A) Tetrahedral B) Pyramidal C) Octahedral D) Angular
KEY: B
18. The correct order of bond angles in the compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ is,
A) A > B B) A < B C) A ≠ B = 900 D) A = B =

0
90
KEY: B
67, 68 & 69HINT: The atoms ratio in (A) is 1:1:4
A=XeO
Hybridisation of Xe in is .
Due to Lp-bp repulsions it becomes slightly non-planar sq. pyramidal
Hybridisation of Xe is
Te
le
gr
am
@
passage - 7
C
he
According to MOT, two atomic orbitals overlap resulting in the formation of molecular orbitals.
m
Number of atomic orbitals overlapping together is equal to the molecular orbital formed. The
is
two atomic orbital thus formed by LCAO (linear combination of atomic orbital) in the same
try
phase or in the different phase are known as bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals
respectively. The energy of bonding molecular orbital is lower than that of the pure atomic
_S
orbital by an amount . This known as the stabilization energy. The energy of antibonding
molecular orbital is increased by  (destabilisation energy).
pa
rk
19. The bond order of N2– is equal to that of:
(A) O2 (B) O22–
(C) O2+ (D) None of these
KEY: C
20. Which among the following pairs contain both paramagnetic species.
(A) O22– and N2– (B) O2– and N2
(C) O2 and N2 (D) O2 and N2–

KEY: D
21. Which of the following statements is true according to M.O.T.:
(A) Higher the bond order less the bond length
(B) Higher the bond order greater the bond length
(C) Higher the bond order lesser the bond energy
(D) Higher the bond order less the number of bonds.
KEY: A
Te
Passage - 8
le
gr
According to molecular orbital theory in a molecule electrons are added in molecular orbitals in
am
order of their increasing energy. The number of electrons in the molecular orbitals is equal to the
sum of all the electrons on the bonding atoms. Like an atomic orbital each molecular orbital can
accommodate upto two electrons with opposite spins (in accordance with the Pauli exclusion
@
principle). When electrons are added to molecular orbitals of the same energy, the most stable
C
arrangement is predicted by Hund’s Rule; i.e., electrons enter these molecular orbitals singly
he
with parallel spins.

m
Constructive and destructive interaction between the wave functions of two hydrogen 1s orbitals
is
lead to the formation of a bonding (ss) and an antibonding molecular orbitals ( ). In the
try
bonding molecular orbital, there is concentration of electron cloud between the nuclei of atoms
which acts as a negatively charged glue to hold the positively charged nuclei together. In the
_S
antibonding molecular orbital there is a node between the nuclei that signifies zero electron
density. However, the energies of molecular orbitals actually increase as follow.
pa
rk
This order is valid upto z £ + 7 ´ 2. The energy of is lower in energy than the
orbitals for O2 and F2. To evaluate the stabilities of species we determine their bond order,
defined as
Bond order = (No. of electron in B.M.Os – No. of electrons in ABMOs)

A bond order zero means the bond has no stability and the molecule cannot exist. The bond order
indicates the strength of a bond. Presence of unpaired electron in molecular orbitals make the
species paramagnetic, and the removal of electron from boding M.O is more difficult than that of
anti bonding M.O.
22. Which is not true for MOT?
(A) Some atomic orbitals keep their existence in a molecule while some convert into
MOs.
(B) Molecular orbitals also follow Panling’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule besides
anf-bau principle
(C) In the ABMO, the nuclei are repelled by each others positive charges rather than held
together.
(D) In a stable molecule, the number of electrons in B.M.Os is always greater than that in
ABMOs.
KEY: A
Te
23. Among the following which is not paramagnetic?

le
gr
(A) (B)
am
(C) O2 (D)
@
KEY: B
C
24. Which is false according to MOT?

he
m
(A) and have same stability

is
try
(B) H2 is stabler than

_S
(C) may exist while He2 cannot

pa
(D) same bond order of two species do not mean they have same bond energy
rk
KEY: A
Passage - 9
The shape of a molecule is determined by electron-pair repulsions in the valence shell. A lone
pair occupies larger space than a bond pair because it is not shared by two nuclei. Thus the lone
pair-lone pair repulsion is greater than the lone pair-bond pair repulsion, which in turn is greater
than the bond pair-bond pair repulsion. The presence of lone pairs causes distortion of bond
angles and hence a deviation from an ideal shape. The extent of distortion depends upon the
orientation of the lone pairs around the central atom. In a trigonal bipyramid, the lone pairs
occupy equatorial positions than the apical ones.
In ABn type molecules, as the electronegativity of A increases, the bond pairs come closer and
the repulsion between them increases. On the other hand, as electronegativity of B increases, the
bond pairs get farther and repulsion decreases.
25. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) F-N-F angle in NF3 is greater than H-N-H angle in NH3
(B) F-N-F angle in NF3 is smaller than H-N-H angle in NH3
(C) H-O-H angle in H2O is greater than H-N-H angle in NH3
Te
(D) F-O-F angle in F2O is greater than H-O-H angle in H2O

le
gr
KEY: B
am
HINT:
26. The shape of which of the following molecules will not be distorted?
@
(A) BrF3 (B) ClF3

C
he
(C) XeF4 (D) XeF6

m
KEY: C
is
HINT:
try
27. Which of the following species will have the lone pair effects cancelled?
_S
(A) (B) ClF3

pa
(C) PCl3 (D) BrF5

rk
KEY: A
HINT:
Passage - 10
Atomic orbitals add together to give a superposition called a molecular orbital or MO. Molecular
orbitals are bonding when the orbital phase considerations are favourable. The bonding MO
wave function, Ψ (psi), can be squared, |Ψ|2, to represent electron density. A bonding MO shows
a build up of electron density between the two positively charged nuclei.
 The two positive nuclei are both attracted to the region of electron density and are
shielded from each other.
 This, in essence, is the covalent bond.
If the atomic orbitals are "out of phase", the AO/AO interaction will exhibit a phase node – a
region in space with zero electron density – between the positive nuclei. There will be nothing to
attract the nuclei together and the MO is (said to be) antibonding.
Molecular orbitals like the atomic orbitals are filled in accordance with the Aufbau Principle
obeying the Pauli’s Principle and the Hund’s rule.
Order of energy of various molecular orbitals is as follows:
For O2 and higher molecules
s1s, s*1s, s2s, s*2s, s2px, [2py = 2pz], [*2py = *2pz], s*2px
Te
For N2 and lower molecules

le
s1s, s*1s, s2s, s*2s, [2py = 2pz], s2px, [*2py = *2pz], s*2px
gr
am
Bond order is given by half the difference in the number of electrons of the bonding (s and )
and anti-bonding (s* and *) molecular orbitals. For a bond to have been formed, the bond order
@
should be greater than zero. The greater the bond order, the shorter is the bond distance and the
greater is the bond dissociation energy. But if the bond order is the same in two cases, the bond
C
distance will be greater and the bond dissociation energy smaller in the case which has more
he
populated anti-bonding orbitals. The presence of unpaired electron(s) in a molecular orbital will
make the system paramagnetic.
m
is
28. Which of the following species is not expected to exist?

try
(A) (B)
_S
(C) Be2 (D)

KEY: C
pa
HINT:
rk
29. Which among the following will have a triple bond order?
(A) CO (B) CN–
(C) NO+ (D) All of these
KEY: D
HINT:
30. Which of the following orders is correct in respect of bond dissociation energy?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) All of these
KEY: B
HINT:
Passage - 11
According to VSEPR theory, the shape of molecules depends on the number of valence
electrons in the central atom. The repulsion between
31. Correct order of bond angle is

a) b)
c) d)
KEY: C
Te
HINT:
le
gr
am
32. The shape of type of molecule with 3 lone pairs on ‘A’ is

@
a) Angular b) linear c) pentagonal bipyramidal d) trigonal

C
bipyramidal
he
KEY: B
m
is
HINT:
try
_S
33. Pair of molecules with similar shapes are

pa
a) b) c) d) all the above

rk
KEY: D
HINT:
Passage - 12
When two oppositely charged ions of unequal size approach cach other closely, the
smaller sized cation attract the outermost electrons of the other ion and repel the nuclear
charge. The ability of a cation to polarise the nearby anion is called its polarizing power
34. Pair of ions with more polarization is
a) b) c) d)
KEY: D
HINT: More change and lesser size of
35. Correct order of M.P is
a) BeCl 2 < MgCl 2 <CaCl 2 < SrCl 2 b)

Te
le
c) d) all the above

gr
KEY: D
am
HINT:
@
36. Among the following more covalent character is for

C
he
a) b) c) d)
m
KEY: D
is
HINT:
try
_S
pa
rk
1. According to MO theory which of the list ranks the oxygen species in terms of increasing Bond
order
A) B) C) D)
KEY: D
HINT:
Te
le
2. In the compounds of the type where the angles for

gr
diIerent elements are in the order

am
A) B) C) D)
@
C
KEY:B
he
m
HINT: Conceptual
is
3. Valence shell electron pair repulsion theory can not explain the structure of following compounds
try
_S
(A) CH4 and NH3 (B) PI3 and PBr3

(C) H2O and Li2O (D) Li2O only
pa
rk
KEY: D
HINT: VSEPR theory can not explain the shapes of molecules which have very polar bonds (the structure
of Li2O is linear)
4. Shape and hybridization in [IBr Cl]– ion is
(A) angular sp2 (B) square planar, dsp2
(C) linear, sp3d (D) triangular bipyramidal, sp3d.
KEY: C
HINT: [IBrCl]– is sp3d hybridized with linear shape.

5. In diamond carbon – carbon bond length is 1.54Å. In Graphite C—C
(Carbon — Carbon) bond length is
(A) 1.54 Å (B) 1.58 Å
(C) 1.15 Å (D) 1.42 Å.
KEY: D
HINT: In graphite each carbon is left with one spare electron in its p orbital. This electron then
overlaps with each other to form a p bond. Hence C—C distance in graphite is shorter (1.42 Å)
than that of diamond (1.54 Å).
Te
6. What type of hybridization is /are present in boron element in borax (Na2B4O7. 10H2O).
le
gr
(A) sp2 only (B) sp2, sp3

am
(C) sp3 only (D) dsp2, sp3.
KEY: B
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
HINT:
7. Which statement is true for the following complex?
1. , 2. , 3.
(A) 1, 2, 3 complexes are paramagnetic with sp3, sp3, sp3d2 hybridization
(B) 1, 2, 3 complexes are paramagnetic with sp3, dsp2, sp3d2 hybridization

(C) 1, 2 complexes are paramagnetic, 3 complex is diamagnetic with sp 3, sp3, sp3d2, in 1,
2, 3 complex respectively.
(D) 1, 3 are paramagnetic, 2 complex is diamagnetic with sp 3, sp3, sp3d2 hybridization in

1, 2, 3 complex respectively.
KEY: B
HINT: 1. paramagnetic (5 unpaired e– ), sp3
2. paramagnetic (1 unpaired e–), dsp2

Te
3. paramagnetic (4 unpaired e–), sp3d2.

le
gr
8 Which of the following molecules has non-zero dipolemoment?

am
A) ClF3O2 B) XeO3F2 C) (CH3)3P(CCl3)2 D) (SiH3)3N

@
KEY: A
C
HINT: Conceptual
he
m
9 In which of the following does the overlap of two orbitals give a non bonding
interacVon ?
is
try
_S
A) B)
pa
rk
C) D)
KEY: D
HINT: Conceptual
10. The correct increasing order of extent of p-bonding in above molecules are
(A) I < II < III (B) III < II CsCl > CsBr > CsI (B) LiF > >LiCl > LiBr > LiI
(C) RbClO4 > KClO4 > NaClO4 > LiClO4 (D) LiF > NaF > KF > RbF
Te
KEY: A
le
HINT: If the difference in size of cation and anion is large then hydration energy will be dominant.
gr
12. The Shape of SF2Cl2 molecule is

am
(A) trigonal bipyramidal (B) Square planar

@
(C) Sea-saw (D) tetrahedral

C
he
m
KEY: C
is
13. In solid, each NH3 molecule has 6 other NH 3 molecules as nearest neighbours. H of sublimation
try
of NH3 at the melting point is 30.8 kJ/mole and the estimated H of sublimation in the absence of
hydrogen bonding is 14.4 kJ per mole. The strength of hydrogen bond in solid NH 3 is
_S
(A) 5.5 kJ/mole (B) 16.4 kJ/mole

pa
(C) 2.7 kJ/mole (D) 8.7 kJ/mole

rk
Key: C
Hint: There are six hydrogen bond with one molecule of solid NH 3.
The energy of Hbond = 30.8 – 14.4 = 16.4 kJ
\ The strength of Hbond =
14. Which of the following will have maximum dipole moment?
(A) (B) N2
(C) (D)
Te
Key: C
le
gr
am
Hint:
@
C
Since in , nitrogen is less electronegative than oxygen, hence bond length in is greater
he
than , hence greater dipole moment.

m
15. Which of the following statements is correct?

is
try
(A) All C—O bonds in are equal but not in

_S
(B) All C—O bonds in HCO2H are equal but not in

pa
rk
(C) C—O bond length in is longer than C—O bond length in
(D) C—O bond length in and C—O bond length in are equal.
Key: A
Hint:
C—O bond length in and are not equal since bond order in is equal to 1.33
and in is equal to 1.5.
16. and are converted to mono caVons and respecVvely .The wrong statement with
respect to given changes in the following is
a) The N-N bond weakens b) The O-O bond order increases
c) The magneVc moment decreases d) becomes diamagneVc
KEY: D
Te
HINT: M.O .conXguraVon of

le
gr
am
@
C
Bond order
he
m
is
try
_S
Bond order
pa
rk
Bond order of and that of
17. Consider the following changes for Berrylium
Be(s)  Be(g) ; H1

Be(s)  ; H2
Be(g)  Be+(g) + e– ; H3
Be+(g)  Be2+(g) + e– ; H4
Be(g)  Be2+(g) + 2e– ; H5
The second ionizaVon enthalpy could be calculated from the H values as
(A) H1 + H3 + H4 (B) H2 – H1 + H3
(C) H1 + H5 (D) H5 – H3

Te
le
KEY: D
gr
HINT: Be(g)  Be+ + e– H3

am
Be(g)  Be2+ + 2e– H5

@
H5 – H3 is for

C
he
Be+  Be+2 + e–
m
18. In which of the following sets central atom of each molecule is sp 3d hybridized?
is
try
(A) IO4−, ICl4−, IF4+ (B) IF5, PCl5, Fe(CO)5

_S
(C) I3−, ClF3, SF4 (D) SO42−, PO43−, XeO4

pa
KEY: C
rk
HINT: The central atoms in all I3−, ClF3 & SF4 have five pairs (lp + bp) of electrons and hence are
sp3d hybridized.
19. Which of the following has maximum la`ce energy?
a) b) c) d)
KEY: C
HINT: MgO, ion is smallest in size and double the charge in comparison to and ions
20. For which of the two compounds . One has a resultant dipole moment of
and the other . Which dipole moment do you predict?
A) 1.81D for and 0.47D for
B) 0.47D for and 1.81D for
C) For both and dipole moment is 0.47D
D) For both and dipole moment is 1.81D
KEY: B
Te
le
gr
am
HINT:
@
21. The correct order of increasing C O bond strength of CO, , is:

C
he
a) b)
m
is
c) d)
try
KEY: A
_S
22. The solubiliVes of sulphates of alkaline earth metals decrease down the group mainly due to
pa
decrease in
rk
(A) La`ce energy of metal sulphate (B) Entropy of soluVon of metal sulphates
(C) Interionic aeracVon (D) HydraVon energy of caVons
KEY: D
HINT: r– = radius of anion
r+ = radius of caVon
La`ce energy as r– >> r+
SO42– ion being common so la`ce energy remains almost the same.
HydraVon energy
23. XeF6 is:
(A) Octahedral (B) Pentagonal pyramidal
(C) Planar (D) tetrahedral
KEY: B
24. Dipole moment is exhibited by:
(A) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene (B) 1, 2-dichlorobenzene

Te
(C) Trans-1, 2-dichloroethene (D) Trans-1, 2-dichloro-2-butene

le
KEY: B
gr
am
25. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural? NO3–, CO32–, SO3
(A) NO3–, CO32– (B) SO3, NO3–
@
(C) ClO3–, CO32– (D) CO32–, SO3

C
he
KEY: A
m
HINT:
is
try
26. According to molecular orbital theory which of the following statement about the
_S
magnetic character and bond order is correct regarding O2+

pa
(A) Paramagnetic and Bond order  O2

rk
(B) Paramagnetic and Bond order > O2

(C) Diamagnetic and Bond order  O2
(D) Diamagnetic and Bond order > O2
KEY: B
HINT:
27. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC2 are:
(A) one sigma () and one pi (p) bonds
(B) one sigma () and two pi (p) bonds
(C) one sigma () and one and a half pi (p) bonds
(D) one sigma () bond
KEY: B
HINT:
28. Among KO2, AlO2–, BaO2 and NO2+, unpaired electron is present in
(A) NO2+ and BaO2 (B) KO2 and AlO2–
(C) KO2 only (D) BaO2 only
KEY: C
HINT:
29. Molecular shapes of SF6, CF4 and XeF6 are

(A) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively
(B) the same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively
(C) different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively
Te
(D) different, with 0, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively

le
KEY: D
HINT:
gr
30. Which of the following has maximum hydraVon energy

am
a) x+ b) x++ c) x+++ d) x++++

@
KEY: D
C
he
HINT:
Small ions are more hydrated. Greater the posiVve charge smaller the size
m
is
try
31. The hybridisaVon of central atom in PCl5 is

_S
a) sp3 b)sp3d c) sp3d2 d) sp2

pa
KEY: B
rk
HINT:
47. Incorrect bond order is
N > N −2 < N 2
a) b) 2− 2
− −
c) d) CN > NO > O 3
KEY: A
HINT:
32. The number of covalent bonds formed by the overlapping of pure arbitals in one
calcium carbide is / are
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
KEY: C
HINT:
05. Which of the following is diamagnetic in nature

He2 H2 H 2 H 2
A) B) C) D)
Te
KEY:B
le
gr
6. Hydrated aluminium chloride is ionic compound and soluble in water giving

am
3
Al 3 and Cl   Al  H 2O  6  and Cl 
a) ions b) ions
 
 AlCl2  H 2O  4  and  AlCl4  H 2O  2 
@
c) ions d) none of these

C
KEY:C
he
HINT:
m
7. Alumina is insoluble in water because

is
a) it is a covalent compound
try
b) it has high lattice energy and low heat of hydration

_S
c) it has low lattice energy and high heat of hydration

pa
d) Al 3 and O 2 ions are not excessively hydrated

rk
KEY:B
HINT:
8. Borax in its crystal possess
a) 3 tetrahedral unit
b) 2 tetrahedral and 2 planar triangular units
c) 3 tetrahedral and 2 planar triangular units
d) all tetrahedral units
KEY:B
HINT:
9. In which C-H bond length is more
a) C 2H6 b) C2H4 c) C2H2 d) can not be determined
KEY: C
HINT: C2H2 carbon is sp-hybridized.
10. Among the following which is polar
Cl Cl
a) CO2 b) SO2 c) BeCl2 d)
KEY: B
Te
HINT: SO2 is a bent molecule has net dipole moment.

le
gr
11. Which of the following is not diamagneVc?

am
a) C2 b) O22– c) Li2 d) N2+

@
KEY: D
C

HINT: N2 there is one unpaired electron present in bonding molecular orbital.
he
m
12. Maximum number of H-bonds that can be formed by a water molecule is –

is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
try
KEY: C
_S
HINT: Each water molecule surrounded by 4 other water molecules which are bonded by Hydrogen
pa
bonds.
rk
NO2 , NO3 and NH 4

1. The hybridization of nitrogen in are :
a) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively b) sp, sp2, and sp3 respectively
c) sp2, sp, and sp3 respectively d) sp2,sp3 and sp respectively
KEY:B
HINT:
2. Which species has the maximum number of lone pairs of electrons on the central
atom ?
XeOF4 b) IF4 c) XeF2 d) BrF3
a)
KEY: C
HINT: (C) According to VSEPR theory
Number of electron pairs = 5
Number of bond pairs = 2
Number of lone pairs =3
Hence structure is linear
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
1. Nature of the bond formed between two elements 9. Sodium chloride is an ionic compound whereas
depends on the hydrogen chloride is a gas because [KCET 2002]
(a) Oxidation potential (b) Electronegativity (a) Sodium is reactive
(c) Ionization potential (d) Electron affinity (b) Covalent bond is weaker than ionic bond
2. Two elements and have following electronic (c) Hydrogen chloride is a gas
configurations (d) Covalent bond is stronger than ionic bond
and . The expected 10. Which one of the following molecules has a coordinate
bond [CPMT 1988, 94]
compound formed by combination of and is [BHU
Te
1990] (a) (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d)

le
(c) (d) 11. Co-ordinate bond is absent in [RPMT 2002]

gr
3. Electricity do not pass through ionic compounds (a) (b)

am
(a) In solution (b) In solid state (c) (d)

(c) In melted state (d) None of these
12. The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is 1.73 D. The
@
4. From the following which compound on heating

dipole moment of -dichlorobenzene is expected to
readily sublimes
C
be
he
(a) (b) [CPMT 1991]
(c) (d) (a) 3.46 D (b) 0.00 D

m
5. Which one in the following contains ionic as well as (c) 1.73 D (d) 1.00 D
is
covalent bond [IIT 1979; CPMT 1983; DPMT 1983] 13. Polarization of electrons in acrolein may be written as
try
[IIT 1988]
(a) (b)
_S
(c) (d) (a) (b)

6. The solution of sugar in water contains
pa
[NCERT 1972; MP PET 2000]

(a) Free atoms
rk
(c) (d)
(b) Free molecules
(c) Free ions
(d) Free atoms and free molecules
7. In which of the following reactions, there is no change 14. The order of dipole moments of the following
in the valency [NCERT 1974; CPMT 1971, 78] molecules is
[Roorkee 2000]
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
8. The octet rule is not followed in [BHU 1981] (d)
(a) (b) 15. The electronegativity of and are 2.5,

2.1, 3.5, 3.0 and 2.5 respectively. Which of the
(c) (d)
following bond is most polar (d) and respectively
[EAMCET 1986]
24. The molecule having one unpaired electron is
(a) (b) [IIT 1985; MP PMT 1989]
(c) (d) (a) (b)
16. Which of the following bond has the most polar (c) (d)
character
25. The geometry of according to valence shell
[DPMT 1982; CBSE PMT 1992; CPMT 1999]
(a) (b) electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory will be
[KCET 1996; MP PET 1997]
(c) (d)
(a) Planar triangle (b) Pyramidal
17. The geometry of and its dipole moment are [IIT
(c) Tetrahedral (d) Square planar
1999]
26. Which of the following halogens has the highest bond
(a) Angular and non-zero (b) Angular and zero
energy [CPMT 1988]
(c) Linear and non-zero (d) Linear and zero
18. How many and bonds are there in the molecule (a) (b)
of tetracyanoethylene (c) (d)

Te
27. What bond order does have [Pb. PMT 2001]

le
(a) 3 (b) 2
gr
[NCERT 1980; MP PMT 1986, 95;Orissa JEE 1997]

(c) 1 (d) 1/2
(a) Nine and nine (b) Five and nine
am
28. In the process, the electron lost is from

(c) Nine and seven (d) Five and eight
[Orissa JEE 2002]
19. The shape of ion is [EAMCET 1993; CPMT 2001]
@
(a) Bonding -orbital (b) Antibonding -orbital

(a) Linear (b) Angular
C
(c) orbital (d) orbital

(c) Trigonal planar (d) Triangular pyramidal
he
20. The hybridization in sulphur dioxide is[IIT 1986; DPMT 29. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds formed by
1990] a water molecule in ice is
m
[MP PET 1993; AFMC 2002;UPSEAT 1999, 2001, 02]

(a) (b)
is
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) (d)
try
(c) 2 (d) 1
21. The number and type of bonds between two carbon
30. Hydrogen bonding is not present in
_S
atoms in are [IIT 1996]

[AIIMS 1998; MP PET/PMT 1998]
(a) One sigma and one pi bonds
pa
(a) Glycerine
(b) One sigma and two pi bonds (b) Water
rk
(c) One sigma and one and a half pi bonds (c) Hydrogen sulphide
(d) One sigma bond (d) Hydrogen fluoride
22. Which of the following resonating structures of 31. The bonds in are
is the most contributing [Roorkee Qualifying 1998] [EAMCET 1991]
(a) (b) (a) All ionic

(c) (d) (b) All covalent
23. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in (c) Ionic and covalent
, , and are (d) Ionic, covalent and coordinate covalent
[IIT Screening 2000] 32. In which of the following ionic, covalent and
coordinate bonds are present
(a) and respectively
[UPSEAT 2002]
(b) and respectively (a) Water
(c) and respectively (b) Ammonia
(c) Sodium cyanide (d) Potassium bromide
Te
le
gr
am
(SET -3)
@
1. (b) If the two elements have similar

electronegativities,the bond between them will be 11. (b) has covalent bonds only.
C
covalent, while a large difference in

he
electronegativities leads to an ionic bond. 12. (b) Due to symmetry dipole moment of p-dichloro
2. (a) From electronic configuration valencies of X and Y benzene is zero.
m
are + 2 and –1 respectively so formula of 13. (d)

is
compound is . 14. (d) has zero dipole moment because of

try
3. (b) Ionic compounds can’t pass electricity in solid symmetric tetrahedral structure. has
state because they don’t have mobile ion in solid slightly higher dipole moment which is equal to
_S
state.
1.86D. Now has less electronegativity
4. (d) sublimes readily on heating.
then . But has greater dipole
pa
5. (c) Structure of KCN is . moment than .

rk
6. (b) Sugar is an organic compound which is covalently 15. (a) More the difference in electronegativity of atoms.
bonded so in water it remains as free molecules. Bond between them will be more polar.
7. (c) In the reaction 16. (d) bond has the most polar character due to
difference of their electronegativity.
valency is not
17. (a) has angular geometry and have some value
changing. of dipole moment.
8. (d) does not have octet, it has only six electrons 
 

   
so it is electron deficient compound. 18. (a) 

9. (b) NaCl is a ionic compound because it consists of 

 

more elelctronegativity difference compare to HCl. 
 
9 and 9 bonds.
10. (a) has a coordinate bond besides covalent
19. (d) has hybridization and its shape is
triangular pyramidal due to lone pair on oxygen.
and ionic bonds 20. (c) molecule has hybridisation.
21. (b) In two carbons are joined with 1  and 2
bonds.
22. (a) In molecule structure is most
contributed.
23. (b) The shape of and are linear
trigonal planar and tetrahedral respectively. Thus
the hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in
these species are and respectively.
24. (a) NO has one unpaired electron with Nitrogen.
25. (b)
Te
26. (b) Bond energy of is highest among all halogen

le
molecule. Bond energies of

gr
are 37, 58, 46 and 36 Kcal respectively.

27. (c) have bond order one
am
B.O. .
@
28. (b) Electron lost from antibonding  orbital.

29. (a) In ice each water molecule forms four hydrogen
C
bond through which each water molecule is

he
tetrahedrally attached with other water molecule.

H
m
O
is
H H H
try
O O
H H H H
_S
O O
pa
H H H H
O O
rk
H H H H
O O
H H
30. (c) Hydrogen bonding is present in molecules which

have F, O, or N atoms.
31. (d) Structure of is
32. (c) Sodium cyanide contain ionic, covalent and

coordinate bond.
***
21. (b) In two carbons are joined with 1  and 2
bonds.
22. (a) In molecule structure is most
contributed.
23. (b) The shape of and are linear
trigonal planar and tetrahedral respectively. Thus
the hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in
these species are and respectively.
24. (a) NO has one unpaired electron with Nitrogen.
-
25. (b)
Te
26. (b) Bond energy of is highest among all halogen

le
molecule. Bond energies of
4. Chapter
gr
are 37, 58, 46 and 36 Kcal respectively.

27. (c) have bond order one
am
Halo-Alkanes And Halo-Arenes

B.O. .
@
28. (b) Electron lost from antibonding  orbital.

29. (a) In ice each water molecule forms four hydrogen
C
bond through which each water molecule is

he
tetrahedrally attached with other water molecule.

H
m
O
is
H H H
try
O O
H H H H
_S
O O
pa
H H H H
O O
rk
H H H H
O O
H H
30. (c) Hydrogen bonding is present in molecules which

have F, O, or N atoms.
31. (d) Structure of is
32. (c) Sodium cyanide contain ionic, covalent and

coordinate bond.
***
11. Which of the following is a primary halide [DCE 2004]
(a) Isopropyl iodide (b) Secondary butyl iodide
(c) Tertiary butyl bromide (d) Neo hexyl chloride
12. Full name of DDT is [KCET 1993]
(a) 1, 1, 1-trichloro-2, 2-bis(p-chlorophenyl) ethane
(b) 1, 1-dichloro-2, 2-diphenyl trimethylethane
Introduction of Halogen containing compounds (c) 1, 1-dichloro-2, 2-diphenyl trichloroethane
(d) None of these
1. How many structural isomers are possible for a 13. The compound which contains all the four
compound with molecular formula [MH CET
and carbon atoms is [J & K 2005]
2001]
(a) 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
(a) 2 (b) 5
(b) 3-chloro-2, 3-dimethylpentane
(c) 7 (d) 9
(c) 2, 3, 4-trimethylpentane
2. In of Br is [DPMT 1996]
(d) 3, 3-dimethylpentane
(a) 80 (b) 75
Te
(c) 70 (d) 7 Preparation of Halogen containing compounds

3. Gem- dibromide is [RPMT 2000]
le
(a) (b) 1. The following reaction is known as

gr
am
(c) (d) [AIIMS 2002]

4. Ethylidene dibromide is (a) Kharasch effect
@
(a) (b) (b) Darzen’s procedure

(c) Williamson’s synthesis
C
(d) Hunsdiecker synthesis reaction

he
(c) (d)
2. What is the main product of the reaction between 2-
5. Benzylidene chloride is methyl propene with HBr [RPMT 2002]
m
(a) (b) (a) 1-bromo butane

is
(c) (d) (b) 1-bromo-2 methyl propane

try
(c) 2-bromo butane

6. Which of the following halide is
(d) 2-bromo-2 methyl propane
_S
(a) Isopropyl chloride (b) Isobutyl chloride

3. Halogenation of alkanes is [KCET 2002]
(c) n-propyl chloride (d) n-butyl chloride
(a) A reductive process (b) An oxidative process
pa
7. Haloforms are trihalogen derivatives of [CPMT 1985]

(c) An isothermal process (d) An indothermal
(a) Ethane (b) Methane
rk
process
(c) Propane (d) Benzene
8. Benzene hexachloride is
4.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6-hexachlorocyclohexane
(b) 1, 1, 1, 6, 6, 6-hexachlorocyclohexane
(c) 1, 6-phenyl-1, 6-chlorohexane
(d) 1, 1-phenyl-6, 6-chlorohexane
In the above process product A is [Kerala (Engg.) 2002]
9. Number of present in B.H.C. (Benzene
hexachloride) are [RPMT 1999] (a) Fluorobenzene (b) Benzene
(a) 6 (b) Zero (c) 1, 4-difluorobenzene (d) 1, 3-difluorobenzene
(c) 3 (d) 12 5. Silver acetate . The main product of this
10. The general formula for alkyl halides is reaction is [Kurukshetra CET 2002]
(a) (b) (a) (b)
(c) (d) (c) (d) None of these

Cl
(a) (b)
6. Diazonium salts the
reaction is known as [Kerala (Med.) 2002]

(c) (d)
(a) Chlorination (b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(c) Perkin reaction (d) Substitution reaction
13. Chlorobenzene is prepared commercially by
7. When ethyl alcohol reacts with thionyl
[JIPMER 2000; CPMT 1976; Pb. CET 2002]
chloride, in the presence of pyridine, the product
(a) Raschig process (b) Wurtz Fitting reaction
obtained is
(c) Friedel-Craft’s reaction (d) Grignard reaction
[AIIMS; CBSE PMT 2001]
14. In methyl alcohol solution, bromine reacts with
(a)
ethylene to yield in addition to
(b) 1, 2-dibromoethane because [Pb. PMT 1998]
(c) (a) The ion formed initially may react with or
(d)
8. Preparation of alkyl halides in laboratory is least (b) The methyl alcohol solvates the bromine
Te
preferred by [DPMT 2000] (c) The reaction follows Markownikoff's rule

(a) Treatment of alcohols (d) This is a free-radical mechanism
le
(b) Addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes 15. is an example of

gr
(c) Halide exchange which of the following types of reactions

am
(d) Direct halogenation of alkanes [AFMC 1997; CPMT 1999]

9. Which of the following organic compounds will give (a) Substitution (b) Elimination
a mixture of 1-chlorobutane and 2-chlorobutane on (c) Addition (d) Rearrangement
@
chlorination [CPMT 2001] 16. Which of the following would be produced when
acetylene reacts with HCl [MH CET 1999]
C
(a)
he
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
m
(b) 17.
is
In the above reaction, the reactivity of different

try
(c) alcohols is
[CPMT 1997]
(d)
_S
(a) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary

10. The chlorobenzene is generally obtained from a (b) Tertiary < Secondary < Primary
pa
corresponding diazonium salt by reacting it with

(c) Tertiary < Secondary > Primary
[MP PMT 2000] (d) Secondary < Primary < Tertiary
rk
(a) (b) 18. Product. In above reaction

(c) (d) product is [CPMT 1997]
(a) (b)
11. Decreasing order of reactivity of in the reaction
(c) (d)
19. Benzene reacts with chlorine to form benzene
[RPET 2000; AIIMS 1983; MP PET 1996]
hexachloride in presence of [MP PET 1999]
(a) (b)
(a) Nickel (b)
(c) Bright sunlight (d) Zinc
(c) (d)
20. The final product obtained by distilling ethyl alcohol
with the excess of chlorine and is [MP PET
12. The product of the following reaction : 1996]
(a) (b)
[RPET 2000]
(c) (d)
21. When ethyl alcohol and KI reacted in presence of (a) (b)
yellow crystals of...... are formed [AFMC
(c) (d)
1989]
32. Ethanol is converted into ethyl chloride by reacting
(a) (b)
with
(c) (d) [MP PET 1991; MP PMT 1990; BHU 1997]
22. In preparation of from ethanol and bleaching (a) (b)

powder, the latter provides [BHU 1986] (c) HCl (d) NaCl
(a) (b) 33. prepared by aniline with [IIT-JEE 1984]
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (a) HCl
23. Which one of the following processes does not occur (b)
during formation of from and
(c) in presence of anhydrous
bleaching powder
[DPMT 1984] (d) and then heated with
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation 34. The starting substance for the preparation of
(c) Reduction (d) Chlorination is
24. Which of the following is obtained when chloral is
Te
[CPMT 1975]
boiled with NaOH [CBSE PMT 1991; RPMT 1999]
(a) (b)
le
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
gr

35. A Grignard's reagent may be made by reacting
25. Chloroform can be obtained from [MNR 1986]
am
magnesium with [CPMT 1973, 83, 84]

(a) Methanol (b) Methanal
(a) Methyl amine (b) Diethyl ether
(c) Propanol-1 (d) Propanol-2
(c) Ethyl iodide (d) Ethyl alcohol
26. Chlorine reacts with ethanol to give
@
[MP PMT 1989; CPMT 1997; KCET 1998; JIPMER 1999] 36. Which of the following is responsible for iodoform
reaction
C
(a) Ethyl chloride (b) Chloroform

(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Chloral [CPMT 1980; RPMT 1997]
he
27. On heating diethyl ether with conc. HI, 2 moles of (a) Formalin (b) Methanol
m
which of the following is formed (c) Acetic acid (d) Ethanol

[IIT-JEE 1983; MP PET 1990; EAMCET 1990; 37. When a solution of sodium chloride containing ethyl
is
AFMC 1993; JIPMER 2001] alcohol is electrolysed, it forms

try
(a) Ethanol (b) Iodoform

(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Chloral
(c) Ethyl iodide (d) Methyl iodide
(c) Chloroform (d) Acetaldehyde
_S
28. Lucas reagent is [MP PMT 1996; MP PET 1992, 95;

CPMT 1986, 89; AIIMS 1980; Kurukshetra CEE 2002] 38. Which reagent cannot be used to prepare an alkyl
pa
halide from an alcohol [CPMT 1989, 94]

(a) Concentrated
(a) (b) NaCl
(b) Dilute
rk
(c) Concentrated (c) (d)
(d) Concentrated 39. Ethyl benzoate reacts with to give [KCET 2003]
29. Which compound does not form iodoform with alkali (a)
and iodine [IIT-JEE 1985]
(b)
(a) Acetone (b) Ethanol
(c)
(c) Diethyl ketone (d) Isopropyl alcohol
30. Which compound gives yellow ppt. with iodine and (d)
alkali 40. On treatment with chlorine in presence of sunlight,
[IIT-JEE 1984] toluene giv.es the product
(a) 2-hydroxy propane (b) Acetophenone [Orissa JEE 2003; MH CET 1999, 2002]
(c) Methyl acetone (d) Acetamide (a) o-chloro toluene (b) 2, 5-dichloro toluene
31. Acetone reacts with in presence of to form (c) p-chloro toluene (d) Benzyl chloride
[MP PMT 1992]
41. When chlorine is passed through warm benzene in (c) (d) Ethane
presence of the sunlight, the product obtained is [KCET
52. Which compound needs chloral in its synthesis
2003]
[Pb. PET 2003]
(a) Benzotrichloride (b) Chlorobenzene
(a) D. D. T. (b) Gammexane
(c) Gammexane (d) DDT
(c) Chloroform (d) Michler’s Ketone
42. Which of the following acids adds to propene in the 53. To get DDT, chlorobenzene has to react with which of
presence of peroxide to give anti-Markownikoff’s the following compounds in the presence of
product concentrated sulphuric acid [KCET (Engg/Med.) 2001]
[MP PET 2003]
(a) Trichloroethane (b) Dichloroacetone
(a) (b) (c) Dichloroacetaldehyde (d) Trichloroacetaldehyde
(c) (d) 54. What will be the product in the following reaction
43. Propene on treatment with HBr gives [CPMT 1986] CH2
(a) Isopropyl bromide (b) Propyl bromide NBS
[BHU 2005]
(c) 1, 2-dibromoethane (d) None of the above
Br
44. The catalyst used in Raschig's process is CH3 CH3
(a) (b) Copper chloride (a) (b)
Te
(c) Sunlight (d) Br

45. The compound formed on heating chlorobenzene CH2Br CH3
le
with chloral in the presence of concentrated sulphuric

gr
(c) (d)
acid, is
am
[AIEEE 2004] Br
(a) Freon (b) DDT
(c) Gammexene (d) Hexachloroethane Properties of Halogen containing compounds
@
46. Acetone is mixed with bleaching powder to give

CCl3
[AFMC 2004]
C
(a) Chloroform (b) Acetaldehyde 1. A. Compounds A is

he
(c) Ethanol (d) Phosgene [Orissa JEE 2005]

47. Which of the following compounds gives
m
trichloromethane on distilling with bleaching powder CCl3 CCl3

is
Br
[KCET 2004; EAMCET 1986]
(a) (b)
try
(a) Methanal (b) Phenol

Br
(c) Ethanol (d) Methanol
_S
48. The product formed on reaction of ethyl alcohol with CCl3

CCl3
bleaching powder is [Orissa JEE 2004; DPMT 1978; AIIMS
pa
1991]
(c) (d)
(a) (b) Br Br
rk
Br
(c) (d)
49. Ethylene reacts with bromine to form [Pb. CET 2000] 2. Ethyl bromide can be converted into ethyl alcohol by
(a) Chloroethane (b) Ethylene dibromide [KCET 1989]
(c) Cyclohexane (d) 1-bromo propane (a) Heating with dilute hydrochloric acid and zinc
50. Best method of preparing alkyl chloride is [MH CET (b) Boiling with an alcoholic solution of KOH
2004]
(c) The action of moist silver oxide
(a)
(d) Refluxing methanol
(b) 3. Reaction of ethyl chloride with sodium leads to
(c) [NCERT 1984]
(d) (a) Ethane (b) Propane
51. DDT is prepared by reacting chlorobenzene with (c) n-butane (d) n-pentane
[BHU 1998, 2005]
4. Treatment of ammonia with excess of ethyl chloride
(a) (b) will yield [AIIMS 1992]
(a) Diethyl amine 12. The reactivity of halogen atom is minimum in [KCET
1985]
(b) Ethane
(a) Propyl chloride (b) Propyl iodide
(c) Tetraethyl ammonium chloride
(c) Isopropyl chloride (d) Isopropyl bromide
(d) Methyl amine
13. Chlorobenzene is
5.
(a) Less reactive than benzyl chloride
In the above reaction, X stands for
(b) More reactive than ethyl bromide
[CPMT 1985]
(c) Nearly as reactive as methyl chloride
(a) An oxidant (b) A reductant
(d) More reactive than isopropyl chloride
(c) Light and air (d) None of these
14. The reactivities of methyl chloride, propyl chloride and
6. Phosgene is the common name for chlorobenzene are in the order [KCET 1988]
[DPMT 1983; CPMT 1993; MP PMT 1994; (a) Methyl chloride > propyl chloride > chlorobenzene
Kurukshetra CEE 1998; RPMT 2000, 02]
(b) Propyl chloride > methyl chloride > chlorobenzene
(a) and (b) Phosphoryl chloride (c) Methyl chloride > chlorobenzene > propyl chloride
(c) Carbonyl chloride (d) Carbon tetrachloride (d) Chlorobenzene > propyl chloride > methyl chloride
Te
7. When chloroform is treated with amine and KOH, we 15. Which of the following compound will make
get precipitate most readily with [CPMT 1992]
le
[CPMT 1979]
(a) (b)
gr
(a) Rose odour smell

(c) (d)
am
(b) Sour almond like smell

(c) Offensive odour 16. Carbylamine is liberated when..... is heated with
chloroform and alcoholic potash [KCET 1992]
(d) Sour oil of winter green like smell
@
(a) An aldehyde (b) A primary amine

8. A mixture of two organic chlorine compounds was
(c) A secondary amine (d) A phenol
C
treated with sodium metal in ether solution.

Isobutane was obtained as a product. The two 17. Salicylic acid can be prepared using Reimer-Tiemann's
he
chlorine compounds are [KCET 1988] reaction by treating phenol with [KCET 1989]
(a) Methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous
m
(a) Methyl chloride and propyl chloride

aluminium chloride
(b) Methyl chloride and ethyl chloride
is
(b) Carbon dioxide under pressure in sodium

(c) Isopropyl chloride and methyl chloride
try
hydroxide solution
(d) Isopropyl chloride and ethyl chloride (c) Carbon tetrachloride and concentrated sodium
_S
9. Alkyl halides can be converted into Grignard reagents hydroxide

by (d) Sodium nitrite and a few drops of concentrated
pa
[KCET 1989] sulphuric acid

(a) Boiling them with Mg ribbon in alcoholic solution 18. Grignard reagent is prepared by the reaction between
rk
[CBSE PMT 1994; DPMT 1996; Pb. PMT 1999;

(b) Warming them with magnesium powder in dry
MH CET 1999]
ether
(a) Zinc and alkyl halide
(c) Refluxing them with solution (b) Magnesium and alkyl halide
(d) Warming them with (c) Magnesium and alkane
(d) Magnesium and aromatic hydrocarbon
10. Which is not present in Grignard reagent
19. Reaction of t-butyl bromide with sodium methoxide
[CBSE PMT 1991]
produces [CBSE PMT 1994]
(a) Methyl group (b) Magnesium (a) Isobutane (b) Isobutylene
(c) Halogen (d) group (c) Sodium t-butoxide (d) t-butyl methyl ether
11. The reactivity of ethyl chloride is [KCET 1986] 20. War gas is formed from [BHU 1995]
(a) More or less equal to that of benzyl chloride (a) (b)
(b) More than that of benzyl chloride (c) Zinc phosphate (d) Chloropicrin
(c) More or less equal to that of chlorobenzene 21. What happens when is treated with
(d) Less than that of chlorobenzene [EAMCET 1987; CBSE PMT 1988; MP PET 2000]
(a) will be evolved [MP PMT 1989]
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Benzaldehyde
(b) A white ppt. of will be formed
(c) Benzene (d) None
(c) will dissolve in
31. Which of the following statements about chloroform is
(d) Nothing will happen false
22. If we use pyrene in the Riemer-Tiemann [Manipal MEE 1995]
reaction in place of chloroform, the product formed is (a) It is a colourless, sweet-smelling liquid
[CBSE PMT 1989; MP PMT 1990; MH CET 1999] (b) It is almost insoluble in water
(a) Salicylaldehyde (b) Phenolphthalein (c) It is highly inflammable
(c) Salicylic acid (d) Cyclohexanol (d) It can be used as an inhalational anaesthetic
23. agent
Compounds X and Y are [BHU 1979] 32. cannot give precipitate with due to
(a) (b) [CPMT 1979]
(a) Formation of complex with
(c) (d) None of these (b) Evolution of gas
Te
24. The bad smelling substance formed by the action of (c) Chloride ion is not formed
alcoholic caustic potash on chloroform and aniline is (d) does not give silver ion
le
[MP PMT 1971, 92, 2001; CPMT 1971, 86; AFMC 2002;
RPMT 1999] 33. On heating with aq. NaOH, the product is
gr
(a) Phenyl isocyanide (b) Nitrobenzene [CPMT 1971, 78; BHU 1997; EAMCET 1998;
am
(c) Phenyl cyanide (d) Phenyl isocyanate JIPMER (Med.) 2002]

25. Ethylidene chloride on treatment with aqueous KOH (a) (b)
gives
(c) Sodium oxalate (d)
@
[MP PMT 1986]

(a) Ethylene glycol (b) Acetaldehyde 34. Ethyl bromide reacts with lead-sodium alloy to form
C
[MP PMT/PET 1988; MP PET 1997]

(c) Formaldehyde (d) None
he
26. Reaction (a) Tetraethyl lead (b) Tetraethyl bromide

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
m
35. Iodoform heated with Ag powder to form [DPMT 1985]

is called
is
[MP PMT 1992] (a) Acetylene (b) Ethylene

try
(a) Hoffmann's reaction (c) Methane (d) Ethane

(b) Dow's reaction 36. Ethyl bromide reacts with silver nitrite to form
_S
(c) Wurtz's reaction [DPMT 1985; IIT-JEE 1991]
(d) Riemer-Tiemann's reaction (a) Nitroethane

pa
(b) Nitroethane and ethyl nitrite

27. In presence of benzene and n-propyl bromide
(c) Ethyl nitrite
rk
react in Friedal-Craft's reaction to form [MP PMT 1991]

(d) Ethane
(a) n-propyl benzene
37. Which of the following reactions leads to the
(b) 1, 2-dinormal propyl benzene
formation of chloritone [RPMT 2003]
(c) 1, 4-dinormal propyl benzene
(a) (b) Acetone
(d) Isopropyl benzene
28. The dehydrobromination of 2-bromobutane gives (c) (d)
The product is 38.
(a) Hofmann product Product in above reaction is [RPMT 2003]
(b) Saytzeff product (a) (b)
(c) Hoffmann-Saytzeff product
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
(d) Markownikoff product
39. Salicylic acid
29. Ethylene difluoride on hydrolysis gives
(a) Glycol (b) Fluoroethanol ‘A’ in above reaction is [RPMT 2003]
(c) Difluoroethanol (d) Freon OH NO 2

30. Benzyl chloride when oxidised by gives
(a) (b) (a) (b)
(c) (d)
CHO
48. Which of the following statements is incorrect [CPMT
(c) (d) 1977]
(a) reacts with alco. KOH to form
40. Identify and in the following sequence

(b) when treated with metallic sodium gives
[Orissa JEE 2005] ethane
(a) (c) when treated with sodium ethoxide

forms diethyl ether
(b)
(d) with AgCN forms ethyl isocyanide
(c) 49. When chloroform is exposed to air and sunlight, it
(d) gives
[NCERT 1984; CPMT 1978, 87; CBSE PMT 1990;
41. 1-chlorobutane reacts with alcoholic KOH to form
EAMCET 1993; MNR 1994; MP PET 1997, 2000;
Te
[IIT-JEE 1991; AFMC 1998]

BHU 2001; AFMC 2002]
(a) 1-butene (b) 2-butane
(a) Carbon tetrachloride (b) Carbonyl chloride
le
(c) 1-butanol (d) 2-butanol

(c) Mustard gas (d) Lewsite
gr
42. Which of the following reactions gives

50. An organic halide is shaken with aqueous
am
[Roorkee Qualifying 1998]

followed by the addition of dil. and silver
(a) nitrate solution gave white ppt. The substance can be
[JIPMER 1997]
@
(b)
(a) (b)
C
(c) (c) (d) None of these

he
51. A compound A has a molecular formula

(d)
m
It reduces Fehling solution and on oxidation gives a

43. When ethyl amine is heated with chloroform and monocarboxylic acid (B). A is obtained by action of
is
alcoholic KOH, a compound with offensive smell is chlorine on ethyl alcohol. A is

try
obtained. This compound is [CPMT 1983, 84; RPMT 2002] [CBSE PMT 1994; MP PET 1997; KCET 2005]
(a) A secondary amine (b) An isocyanide (a) Chloral (b)
_S
(c) A cyanide (d) An acid

(c) (d) Chloroacetic acid
44. Chlorobenzene on fusing with solid NaOH gives
pa
52. Following equation illustrates

[DPMT 1981; CPMT 1990]
rk
(a) Benzene (b) Benzoic acid

(c) Phenol (d) Benzene chloride
45. DDT can be prepared by reacting chlorobenzene (in [Bihar CEE 1995]
the presence of conc. ) with (a) Dow's process (b) Kolbe's process
(c) Carbylamine test (d) Haloform reaction
(a) in ultraviolet light (b) Chloroform
53. One of the following that cannot undergo dehydro-
(c) Trichloroacetone (d) Chloral hydrate halogenation is [J & K 2005]
46. When phenol reacts with and KOH, the (a) Iso-propyl bromide (b) Ethanol
product obtained would be [RPMT 1997] (c) Ethyl bromide (d) None of these
(a) Salicylaldehyde (b) p-hydroxy 54. A compound X on reaction with chloroform and NaOH
benzaldehyde gives a compound with a very unpleasant odour. X is
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Chloretone [MP PMT 1999]
47. Ethyl chloride on heating with silver cyanide forms a (a) (b)
compound X. The functional isomer of X is
(c) (d)
[EAMCET 1997; KCET 2005]
OH
O C 2H 5
 C 2 H 5 I       Product
Anhydrous( C H OH )
2 5
(c) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) phenol
55. (d) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) no reaction
64. 2-bromopentane is heated with potassium ethoxide in
ethanol. The major product obtained is [CBSE PMT 1998]
In the above reaction product is (a) Pentene-1 (b) cis pentene-2
(a) (b) (c) trans pentene-2 (d) 2-ethoxypentane
65. What is the product formed in the following reaction
(c) (d)
[KCET 1998]
56. 'X' and 'Y' are
[MP PET 1995] (a) p-hydroxybenzoic acid (b) o-hydroxybenzoic acid
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Salicylaldehyde
(a) and
66. When chloroform is treated with excess oxygen it
(b) and forms
[MH CET 1999]
(c) and (a)

(b)
Te
(d) and (c)

(d) No product will be formed
le
57. Iodoform is formed on warming and NaOH with

[MP PET 1995; DCE 1999; RPET 1999; RPMT 2002] 67. Which isomer of cyclohexane hexachloride is a very
gr
(a) (b) strong insecticide [MP PET 2003]

am
(a) (b)
(c) HCOOH (d)
(c) (d)
58. Which of the following reacts with phenol to give
68. Haloalkane in the presence of alcoholic KOH
@
salicylaldehyde after hydrolysis [MP PMT 1995]

(a) Dichloromethane (b) Trichloromethane undergoes
C
(c) Methyl chloride (d) None of these [KCET (Engg/Med.) 2002]

he
59. Dehydrohalogenation in monohaloalkanes produces (a) Elimination (b) Polymerisation

(a) A single bond (b) A double bond (c) Dimerisation (d) Substitution
m
(c) A triple bond (d) Fragmentation 69. The set of compounds in which the reactivity of
is
60. When chloroform is treated with conc. it gives halogen atom in the ascending order is [KCET (Engg.)
2002]
try
[CPMT 1986; MP PMT 1989; AFMC 1998, 99;

(a) Vinyl chloride, chlorethane, chlorobenzene
EAMCET 1991; BHU 1999]
_S
(b) Vinyl chloride, chlorobenzene, chloroethane

(a) (b)
(c) Chloroethane, chlorobenzene, vinyl chloride
pa
(d) Chlorobenzene, vinyl chloride chloroethane

61. A sample of chloroform being used as anaesthetic is
70. Alkyl halides react with Mg in dry ether to form
rk
tested by [AIIMS 1980; CPMT 1983]

[DPMT 2000; MP PET 2001]
(a) Fehling solution
(a) Magnesium halide (b) Grignard’s reagent
(b) Ammoniacal
(c) Alkene (d) Alkyne
(c) solution 71. In the following sequence of reactions
(d) solution after boiling with alcoholic
solution
62. Dehydrohalogenation of an alkyl halide is [MP PMT The product (C) is [JIPMER 2001]
1996] (a) Propan – 2 - ol (b) Propan – l – ol
(a) An addition reaction (b) A substitution reaction
(c) Propyne (d) Propene
(c) An elimination reaction (d) An oxidation
reaction 72. Alkyl halide on heating with alc. in a sealed tube
63. Reaction of aqueous sodium hydroxide on (i) ethyl results… [Orissa JEE 2002]
bromide and (ii) chlorobenzene gives (a) 1° amine (b) 2° amine
(a) (i) Ethene and (ii) o-chlorophenol (c) 3° amine (d) All of these
(b) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) o-chlorophenol
73. When is treated with the (a) Acetic acid (b) Propionic acid
product formed is [CBSE PMT 2002] (c) Butyric acid (d) Formic acid
83. In alkaline hydrolysis of a tertiary alkyl halide by
(a) (b)
aqueous alkali if concentration of alkali is doubled,
(c) (d) then the reaction
[MH CET 2002]
(a) Will be doubled (b) Will be halved
74. By heating a mixture of with silver powder, (c) Will remain constant (d) Can’t say
the compound formed is [Kurukshetra CET 2002]
84. does not give precipitate with
(a) Acetylene (b) Silver acetate
because
(c) Methanol (d) None of these [MP PET 1999; CPMT 2002]
75. Chloropicrin is [Kurukshetra CET 2002] (a) does not ionise in water
(a) Trichloro acetaldehyde (b) Nitrochloroform
(b) does not reacts with
(c) 2,4,6-trinitro phenol (d) None of these
(c) is chemically inert
76. Which of the following are correct statements about
(d) None of these
[Roorkee 1999]
85. The reaction between chlorobenzene and chloral in
(a) It reacts with metallic Na to give ethane
Te
the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid produces

(b) It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous [Pb. PMT 2001]
le
ethanolic solution of (a) Gammexane

gr
(c) It gives on boiling with alcoholic (b) p,p-dichloro diphenyl trichloro ethane
potash (c) Chloropicrin
am
(d) It forms ethylacetate on heating with silver (d) Benzene hexachloride

acetate 86. False statement is [RPET 1999]
@
77. Aryl halide is less reactive than alkyl halide towards (a) Chloroform is heavier than water
nucleophilic substitution because [RPMT 2002] (b) is non-inflammable
C
(a) Less stable carbonium ion (c) Vinyl chloride is more reactive than allyl chloride
he
(b) Due to large bond energy (d) is a good nucleophile as compared to

(c) Inductive effect
m
87. Chloroform is slowly oxidise by air in presence of light

(d) Resonance stabilization and - hybridisation of to form [MH CET 1999; UPSEAT 2001, 02; RPMT 2003]
is
C attached to halide (a) Formyl chloride (b) Phosgene

try
78. Methyl chloride reacts with silver acetate to yield (c) Trichloroacetic acid (d) Formic acid
[BVP 2003] 88. Alcoholic potash is used to bring about
_S
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Acetyl chloride [KCET (Engg.) 2001]

(c) Methyl acetate (d) Acetic acid (a) Dehydrogenation (b) Dehydration
pa
79. Chloroform for anesthetic purposes is tested for its (c) Dehydrohalogenation (d) Dehalogenation
purity with the reagent [DPMT 2001] 89. Vinyl chloride reacts with to form [JIPMER 2000]
rk
(a) Silver nitrate (b) Lead nitrate (a) 1, 1- dichloro ethane

(c) Ammoniacal (d) Lead nitrate (b) 1, 2- dichloro ethane
80. 2, 6 - Dimethylheptane on monochlorination (c) Tetrachloro ethylene
produces……. derivatives [DPMT 2001] (d) Mixture of 1, 2 and 1, 1 – dichloro ethane
(a) 5 (b) 6 90.
(c) 3 (d) 4
The above reaction is classified as
81. The less reactivity of chlorine atom in [BHU 1982; CBSE PMT 1991; RPET 2000]
is due to [DCE 2001] (a) Nucleophilic substitution
(a) Inductive effect (b) Resonance (b) Electrophilic substitution
stabilization
(c) Reduction
(c) Electromeric effect (d) Electronegativity
(d) Oxidation
82.
91. Reduction of acetyl chloride with in presence of Pd
In this reaction, product X is
gives [MP PMT 2001]
[MH CET 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d) 103. For a given alkyl group the densities of the halides
follow the order [MP PMT 1997]
92. When methyl bromide is heated with it gives
[MP PMT 2001]
(a) (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d)

104. Which halide will be least reactive in respect to
(c) (d)
hydrolysis
93. Phenol reacts with and NaOH (at ) to [MP PET 2003]
give (a) Vinyl chloride (b) Allyl chloride
[MP PMT 1997; CBSE PMT 2002] (c) Ethyl chloride (d) t-Butyl chloride
(a) o-chlorophenol (b) Salicylaldehyde 105. In nucleophilic aliphatic substitution, the nucleophiles
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Chlorobenzene are generally
94. Iodoform on heating with gives [MP PMT 2000] (a) Acids (b) Bases
(a) (b) (c) Salts (d) Neutral molecules
(c) (d) 106. Which one of the following compounds does not react
95. Which reaction is correct in the conversion of with bromine [DPMT 1983]
chloroform to acetylene [Pb. PMT 2000] (a) Ethylamine (b) Propene

Te
(a) (b) (c) Phenol (d) Chloroform

le
107. Allyl chloride on dehydro chlorination gives

(c) (d)
gr
96. Which of the following gases are poisonous

(a) Propadiene (b) Propylene
am
[Pb. PMT 2000]

(c) Acetylchloride (d) Acetone
(a) (b)
108. Toluene reacts with excess of in presence of
(c) None of these (d)
@
sunlight to give a product which on hydrolysis

97. Which of the following alkyl halide is used as a followed by reaction with NaOH gives [Orissa JEE 2004]
C
methylating agent [KCET (Med.) 2000; MP PET 1999]

COOH COONa
he
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
m
(c) COONa (d) None of these

98. , on treatment with alcoholic , yields
is
[AFMC 2000] Na
try
109. An alkyl bromide produces a single alkene when it

(a) (b)
reacts with sodium ethoxide and ethanol. This alkene
_S
(c) (d) undergoes hydrogenation and produces 2-methyl

99. When ethyl iodide is heated with silver nitrate, the butane. What is the identity of the alkyl bromide
pa
product obtained is [CPMT 2000] [Kerala PMT 2004]

(a) 1-bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane
rk
(a) (b)
(b) 1-bromobutane
(c) (d)
(c) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
100. and HF lead to the formation of a compound
(d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
of fluorine of molecular weight 70. The compound is
(e) 2-bromopentane
[RPET 2000]
110. On treating a mixture of two alkyl halides with sodium
(a) Fluoroform (b) Fluorine monoxide
metal in dry ether, 2-methyl propane was obtained.
(c) Fluorine dioxide (d) Fluromethanol
The alkyl halides are [KCET 2004]
101. Chloroform with zinc dust in water gives [UPSEAT 2000]
(a) 2-chloropropane and chloromethane
(a) (b) Chloropicrin
(b) 2-chloropropane and chloroethane
(c) (d) (c) Chloromethane and chloroethane
102. Which of the following is used as a catalyst for (d) Chloromethane and 1-chloropropane
preparing Grignard reagent [KCET 1998]
111. In which case formation of butane nitrile is possible
(a) Iron powder (b) Iodine powder [Orissa JEE 2004]
(c) Activated charcoal (d) Manganese dioxide
(a) (b) 122. Reaction of alkyl halides with aromatic compounds in
presence of anhydrous is known as [UPSEAT
(c) (d)
2004]
112. The reaction of an aeromatic halogen compound with (a) Friedal-Craft reaction
an alkyl halides in presence of sodium and ether is (b) Hofmann degradation
called
(c) Kolbe’s synthesis
[MP PMT 2004]
(d) Beckmann rearrangement
(a) Wurtz reaction
123. Two percent of ethanol is added during the oxidation
(b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
of chloroform to stop the formation of carbonyl
(c) Wurtz-fittig reaction
chloride. In this reaction ethanol acts as [Pb. CET 2001]
(d) Kolbe reaction (a) Auto catalyst (b) Negative catalyst
113. The compound added to prevent chloroform to form
(c) Positive catalyst (d) None of these
phosgene gas is [MP PET 2004]
124. When benzene is heated with chlorine in the presence
(a) (b) of sunlight, it forms [Pb. CET 2000]
(c) (d) (a) B.H.C. (b) Cyclopropane
114. Among the following, the one which reacts most (c) p-dichlorobenzene (d) None of these
Te
readily with ethanol is [AIIMS 2004] 125. Ethylene di bromide on heating with metallic sodium
(a) p-nitrobenzyl bromide in ether solution yields [Pb. CET 2004]
le
(b) p-chlorobenzyl bromide (a) Ethene (b) Ethyne

(c) p-methoxybenzyl bromide (c) 2-butene (d) 1-butene
gr
(d) p-methylbenzyl bromide

126. The reaction, , is called
am
115. Chloropicrin is obtained by the reaction of

[Pb. CET 2003]
[CBSE PMT 2004]
(a) Chlorine on picric acid (a) Perkin reaction (b) Levit reaction
@
(b) Nitric acid on chloroform (c) Wurtz reaction (d) Aldol condensation
(c) Steam on carbon tetrachloride 127. At normal temperature iodoform is [MP PET 2004]
C
(d) Nitric acid on chlorobenzene (a) Thick viscous liquid (b) Gas
he
116. In Wurtz reaction alkyl halide react with [MH CET 2004] (c) Volatile liquid (d) Solid
(a) Sodium in ether (b) Sodium in dry ether 128. Which of the following statements about benzyl
m
(c) Sodium only (d) Alkyl halide in ether chloride is incorrect [KCET 2004]
is
117. Chloroform, when kept open, is oxidised to [CPMT (a) It is less reactive than alkyl halides
try
2004]
(b) It can be oxidised to benzaldehyde by boiling with
(a) (b) copper nitrate solution
_S
(c) (d) None of these (c) It is a lachrymatory liquid and answers Beilstein’s
118. Chloroform reacts with concentrated to give test
pa
[Pb. CET 2000] (d) It gives a white precipitate with alcoholic silver
(a) Water gas (b) Tear gas nitrate
rk
(c) Laughing gas (d) Producer gas 129. Ethylene dichloride and ethylidine chloride are
119. When ethyl chloride and alcoholic KOH are heated, the isomeric compounds. The false statement about
compound obtained is [MH CET 2003] these isomers is that they [DCE 2003]
(a) React with alcoholic potash and give the same
(a) (b)
product
(c) (d)
(b) Are position isomers
120. Chloroform, on warming with Ag powder, gives (c) Contain the same percentage of chlorine
[MH CET 2003]
(d) Are both hydrolysed to the same product
(a) (b) 130. An alkyl bromide (X) reacts with Na to form 4, 5-
(c) (d) diethyloctane. Compound X is [Roorkee 1999]
121. When alkyl halide is heated with dry , it (a)

produces (b)
[CPMT 1997; BHU 2004]
(c)
(a) Ester (b) Ether
(c) Ketone (d) Alcohol (d)
131. In the following reaction X is (d) Rearrangement
139. The major product formed in the following reaction is
[MP PET 1994] [AIIMS 2005]

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
132. Which metal is used in Wurtz synthesis
[CPMT 1986; DPMT 1979; MP PET 2002] (a) (b)
(a) Ba (b) Al
(c) Na (d) Fe
133. Which of the following is boiled with ethyl chloride to (c)
form ethyl alcohol [MNR 1982]
(a) Alcoholic KOH (b) Aqueous KOH
(c) (d)
(d)
134. Why is chloroform put into dark coloured bottles
Te
[MP PET 2002]

(a) To prevent evaporation 140. The major product obtained on treatment of
le
(b) To prevent from moisture with is

gr
(c) To prevent it from oxidation to form phosgene [AIIMS 2005]

(d) To prevent its reaction with glass
am
(a)
135. DDT is
(b)
(a) A solid (b) A liquid
@
(c) A gas (d) A solution (c)
136. Bottles containing and lost (d)

C
their original labels. They were labelled A and B for 141. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with
he
testing. A and B were separately taken in test tubes tbutanol, the product would be [IIT 2005]
and boiled with solution. The end solution in (a) Benzene (b) Phenol
m
each tube was made acidic with dilute and (c) tbutyl benzene (d) tbutyl phenyl ether
is
142. Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents to give

then some solution was added. Substance B
try
[AIEEE 2005]
give a yellow precipitate. Which one of the following
(a) Alkenes (b) Alkyl copper halides
statements is true for this experiment
_S
(c) Alkanes (d) Alkenyl halides

[AIEEE 2003]
143. Which of the following is liquid at room temperature
(a) A was
pa
[AFMC 2005]
(b) A was
(a) (b)
rk
(c) B was
(c) (d)
(d) Addition of was unnecessary
144. Which of the following haloalkanes is most reactive
137. Which of the following statements is incorrect
[KCET 2005]
regarding benzyl chloride [KCET 2003]
(a) 1-chloropropane (b) 1-bromopropane
(a) It gives white precipitate with alcoholic
(c) 2-chloropropane (d) 2-bromopropane
(b) It is an aromatic compound with substitution in
145. Grignard reagent adds to [KCET 2005]
the side chain
(c) It undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction (a) (b)
(d) It is less reactive than vinyl chloride (c) (d) All of the above
138. Alkyl halide can be converted into alkene by 146. Analyse the following reaction and identify the nature
[BCECE 2005] of and [Kerala CET 2005]
(a) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(b) Elimination reaction
(c) Both nucleophilic substitution and elimination
reaction Br
(a) Both A and B are 3. The compound is
(a) Chloretone (b) Chloroquin

(c) Chloropicrin (d) Chloropropyl chloride
(b) Both A and B are Br 4. Depletion of ozone layer is caused by [RPMT 2002]
Br
(a) Freon (b) Alkane
(c) Gringard reagent (d) All of these
(c) A is & B is Br 5. Which of the following is Teflon [RPMT 2002]
Br (a) (b)
(d) A is 6. Statement “Ozone in atmosphere is decreased by
Br & B is
chloro-fluoro-carbon ” [RPET 1999]
(a) Is true
(b) Is false
(e) A is Br & B is Br
(c) Only in presence of
Te
(d) Only in absence of

Uses of Halogen Containing Compounds 7. [where x + y = 4]. These compounds are not
le
used because [RPET 2000]

gr
1. Which of these can be used as moth repellant (a) These are fluoro carbons
(b) These are difficult to synthesise
am
[CPMT 1987]
(c) They deplete ozone layer
(a) Benzene hexachloride (b) Benzal chloride
(d) None of the these
(c) Hexachloroethane (d) Tetrachloroethane 8. The molecular formula of DDT has [MP PMT 1997]
@
2. Which one of the following is the correct formula of (a) 5 chlorine atoms (b) 4 chlorine atoms
C
dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane [AIIMS 1982] (c) 3 chlorine atoms (d) 2 chlorine atoms
H Cl 9. What is the reagent used for testing fluoride ion in
he
| |
(a) Cl water
C ––– C ––– Cl
[EAMCET 2003]
m
|
(a) Alizarin - S (b) Quinalizarin
Cl
is
(c) Phenolphthalein (d) Benzene

try
10. Chloropicrin is used as [UPSEAT 2000]

Cl
(a) Solvent (b) Anaesthetic
_S
H Cl (c) Perfume (d) Tear gas

| | 11. Which is used in the manufacture of plastic
(b) C ––– C ––– Cl
pa
(a) (b)
|
(c) (d)
rk
Cl
12. Freon (dichlorodifluoro methane) is used
[CPMT 1986; DPMT 1983; CBSE PMT 2001]
H Cl (a) As local anaesthetic
| |
Cl (b) For dissolving impurities in metallurgical process
(c) C ––– C ––– Cl
(c) In refrigerator
|
(d) In printing industry
Cl
13. Which of the following is known as freon which is used
as a refrigerant [DPMT 1982; CPMT 1979, 81, 89; AFMC
Cl Cl 1995;
| | Manipal MEE 1995; MP PET 1995, 2004]
(d) Cl
C ––– C ––– Cl (a) (b)
|
Cl (c) (d)
14. Benzene hexachloride (BHC) is used as
Cl [MP PMT 1994; KCET 1999]
(a) Dye (b) Antimalerial drug
(c) Antibiotic (d) Insecticide [KCET 2005]
15. Which plastic is obtained from as follows (a) They are harmful to the eyes of people that use it
(b) They damage the refrigerators and air
conditioners
(c) They eat away the ozone in the atmosphere
(a) Bakelite (b) Teflon
(d) They destroy the oxygen layer
(c) Polythene (d) Perspex
Cl
16. . The above structural

Cl
formula refers to [MP PET 1997]

(a) BHC (b) DNA 1. Among the following, the molecule with the highest
dipole moment is [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2003]
(c) DDT (d) RNA
17. The commercial uses of DDT and benzene (a) (b)
Te
hexachloride are (c) (d)

(a) DDT is a herbicide, benzene hexachloride is a 2. When CHCl3 is boiled with NaOH, It gives
le
fungicide
[Orissa JEE 2003]
(b) Both are insecticides
gr
(a) Formic acid (b) Trihydroxy methane

(c) Both are herbicides (c) Acetylene (d) Sodium formate
am
(d) DDT is a fungicide and benzene hexachloride is a

3. The hybridization state of carbon atoms in the product
herbicide
formed by the reaction of ethyl chloride with aqueous
18. Which of the following is used in fire extinguishers
@
potassium hydroxide is [EAMCET 1997]

[AFMC 1993]
(a) sp (b)
C
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
he
(c) (d) 4. Which of the following compounds does not undergo

19. Iodoform can be used as [NCERT 1981] nucleophilic substitution reactions
m
[KCET 1998]
(a) Anaesthetic (b) Antiseptic (a) Vinyl chloride (b) Ethyl bromide
is
(c) Analgesic (d) Antifebrin (c) Benzyl chloride (d) Isopropyl chloride
try
20. Which of the following is an anaesthetic [AFMC 1989] 5. Replacement of Cl of chlorobenzene to give phenol
(a) (b) requires drastic conditions but chlorine of 2, 4-
_S
dinitrochlorobenzene is readily replaced because [CBSE

(c) (d) PMT 1997]
pa
21. An important insecticide is obtained by the action of (a) make ring electron rich at ortho and para
chloral on chlorobenzene. It is [KCET 1989]
rk
(b) withdraws from meta position

(a) BHC (b) Gammexene
(c) denotes at meta position
(c) DDT (d) Lindane
22. In fire extinguisher, pyrene is [DPMT 1985] (d) withdraws from ortho/para positions
(a) (b) 6. Among the following one with the highest percentage
of chlorine is [MNR 1989; BHU 1998; MH CET 1999]
(c) (d)
(a) Chloral (b) Pyrene
23. B.H.C. is used as [Pb. CET 2002] (c) PVC (d) Gammexene
(a) Insecticide (b) Pesticide 7. In which alkyl halide, mechanism is favoured
(c) Herbicide (d) Weedicide maximum [RPMT 1997]
24. The use of the product obtained as a result of reaction
(a) (b)
between acetone and chloroform is [RPMT 1999]
(a) Hypnotic (b) Antiseptic (c) (d)
(c) Germicidal (d) Anaesthetic 8. Which conformation of is most powerful
25. Use of chlorofluoro carbons is not encouraged insecticide
because (a) aaeeee (b) aaaeee
(c) aaaaee (d) aaaaaa 16. In which one of the following conversions phosphorus
9. The odd decomposition of carbon chlorine bond form pentachloride is used as a reagent [EAMCET 1997]
[UPSEAT 1999] (a)
(a) Two free ions (b) Two-carbanium ion
(b)
(c) Two carbanion (d) A cation and an anion
10. A new carbon-carbon bond formation is possible in (c)
[IIT-JEE 1998] (d)
(a) Cannizzaro reaction (b) Friedel-Craft's
17. When but –3-en -2- ol reacts with aq. HBr, the product
alkylation
formed is [DCE 2001]
(c) Clemmensen reduction (d) Reimer-Tiemann
(a) 3 - bromobut - 1- ene
reaction
(b) 1 - bromobut - 2- ene
11. An isomer of on boiling with aqueous KOH
(c) A mixture of both a and b
gives acetone. Hence, the isomer is [UPSEAT 2000]
(d) 2 - bromobut - 2 - ene
(a) 2, 2-dichloropropane (b) 1, 2-dichloropropane
18. Which of these do not form Grignard reagent
(c) 1, 1-dichloropropane (d) 1, 3-dichloropropane
(a) (b)
12. Which of the following is the example of reaction
Te
[CPMT 1999] (c) (d)

(a) 19. An organic compound on reaction with
le
Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon, which on

gr
(b) monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative. A is

[Kerala PMT 2004]
am
(a) t-butyl chloride (b) s-butyl chloride

(c)
(c) Isobutyl chloride (d) n-butyl chloride
(d)
@
(e) None of these

20. Among the following the most reactive towards
C
alcoholic KOH is [AIIMS 2004]

he
(a) (b)
m
13. Wurtz reaction of methyl iodide yields an organic

is
(c) (d)
compound X. Which one of the following reactions
try
21. Which one of the following possess highest m.pt.

also yields X
[EAMCET 2003] [Pb. CET 2004]
_S
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) o-dichlorobenzene

(a)
(c) m-dichlorobenzene (d) p-dichlorobenzene
pa
(b)
22. Which chlorine atom is more electronegative in the
(c) following [UPSEAT 2004]
rk
(d) (a) (b)
14. Ethyl orthoformate is formed by heating with sodium

ethoxide [EAMCET 2003]
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
23. What would be the product formed when 1-Bromo-3-
15. 1 , 2 di-bromo cyclohexane on dehydro halogenation
gives chloro cyclobutane reacts with two equivalents of
[UPSEAT 2003] metallic sodium in ether [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2005]
Cl
(a) (b) (a) (b)
Br
(c) (d)
9. Assertion : Electron withdrawing groups in aryl
halides decrease the reactivity towards
nucleophilic substitution.
Reason : 2, 4-Dinitrochlorobenzene is less reactive
than chlorobenzene.
10. Assertion : Aryl halides undergo electrophilic
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct substitutions more readily than benzene.
option out of the options given below: Reason : Aryl halide gives a mixture of o- and p-
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is products.
the correct explanation of the assertion. 11. Assertion : Addition of to cis-but-2-ene is
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not stereoselective.
the correct explanation of the assertion.
Reason : reactions are stereospecific as well
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
as stereoselective.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(e) If assertion is false but reason is true. 12. Assertion : Optically active 2-iodobutane on
treatment with NaI in acetone undergoes
recemization.
1. Assertion : is stored in transparent bottles.
Te
Reason : Repeated Walden inversions on the

Reason : is oxidised in dark. [AIIMS 1996] reactant and its product eventually gives
a racemic mixture.
le
2. Assertion : Addition of bromine to trans-2-butene

yields meso-2, 3-dibromobutane 13. Assertion : Nucleophilic substitution reaction on an
gr
Reason : Bromine addition to an alkene is an optically active alkyl halide gives a

am
electrophilic addition. mixture of enantiomers.

[IIT-JEE (Screening) 2001] Reason : The reaction occurs by mechanism.
3. Assertion : Alkyl halides are soluble in organic
@
solvents.
Reason : p-dichlorobenzene possesses low
C
melting point.
he
4. Assertion : is not a fire extinguisher.

m
Reason : is insoluble in water.

is
5. Assertion : Aqueous hydrohalogen acids are used to Introduction of Halogen containing compounds
prepare alkyl halides from alkenes.
try
Reason : Hydrogen iodide readily reacts with 1 a 2 b 3 b 4 c 5 b

_S
alkenes to form alkyl halides. 6 a 7 b 8 a 9 b 10 a

6. Assertion : Alkyl halides form alkenes when heated 11 d 12 a 13 b
pa
above 300°C.
Reason : react slowly with strong Preparation of Halogen containing compounds
rk
base when compared to .

1 b 2 d 3 b 4 a 5 a
7. Assertion : Halogen acids react with alcohols to
6 b 7 d 8 d 9 b 10 a
form haloalkanes.
11 a 12 b 13 a 14 a 15 a
Reason : Order of reactivity of halogen acids
16 b 17 a 18 b 19 c 20 c
HCl > HBr > HI
21 a 22 c 23 c 24 b 25 d
CH3 Cl 26 d 27 c 28 a 29 c 30 b
Cl
8. Assertion : is less reactive than 31 c 32 b 33 d 34 a 35 c
towards 36 d 37 c 38 b 39 b 40 d
41 c 42 c 43 a 44 b 45 b
reactions.
46 a 47 c 48 a 49 b 50 a
Reason : Tertiary alkyl halides react
51 b 52 a 53 d 54 a
predominantly by mechanism.
Properties of Halogen containing compounds
1 a 2 c 3 c 4 c 5 c
6 c 7 c 8 c 9 b 10 d
11 b 12 c 13 a 14 a 15 d
16 b 17 c 18 b 19 b 20 d
21 d 22 c 23 b 24 a 25 b
26 c 27 d 28 b 29 a 30 b
31 c 32 c 33 b 34 a 35 a
36 a 37 a 38 a 39 a 40 a
41 a 42 c 43 b 44 c 45 d
46 c 47 b 48 ab 49 b 50 b
51 a 52 a 53 b 54 b 55 a
56 d 57 a 58 b 59 b 60 b
61 c,d 62 c 63 c 64 c 65 b
66 c 67 c 68 a 69 d 70 b
71 a 72 d 73 d 74 a 75 b
Te
76 b,d 77 d 78 c 79 a 80 d
le
81 b 82 b 83 c 84 a 85 b
86 cd 87 b 88 c 89 a 90 a
gr
91 d 92 b 93 b 94 c 95 d
am
96 d 97 a 98 b 99 c 100 a
101 a 102 b 103 d 104 a 105 b
@
106 d 107 a 108 b 109 c 110 a

111 a 112 c 113 a 114 c 115 b
C
116 a 117 b 118 b 119 a 120 d

he
121 b 122 a 123 b 124 a 125 c

126 c 127 d 128 a 129 d 130 d
m
131 b 132 c 133 b 134 c 135 a

is
136 a 137 d 138 b 139 d 140 b

try
141 a 142 c 143 a 144 d 145 d

_S
146 c
pa
Uses of Halogen containing compounds

1 c 2 a 3 a 4 a 5 a
rk
6 a 7 c 8 a 9 a 10 d
11 a 12 c 13 a 14 d 15 b
16 c 17 b 18 d 19 b 20 b
21 c 22 b 23 a 24 a 25 c
EXERCISE # 1
(MCQ OF HALOALKANE)
Q.1 Select the alkane which forms four isomeric Q.9 In SN1 reaction, the first step involves the
dihalo derivatives - formation of : -
(1) Isobutane (2) Propane
(1) Free radical (2) Carbanion
(3) Neopentane (4) Ethane
(3) Carbocation (4) Final product
Q.2 Which of the following hydrocarbon with formula
C8H18 gives one monochloro derivatives – Q.10 The rate law for the reaction, RCl + NaOHaq.) 
(1) n-Octane ROH + NaCl is given by, rate = K 1 [RCl]. The
(2) 3-Methyl heptane rate of the reaction will be : -
(3) 2, 2, 4 - Trimethyl butane (1) Doubled on doubling the concentration of
(4) 2, 2, 3, 3 - Tetramethyl butane sodium hydroxide
Q.3 Which of the following statement is correct - (2) Halved on reducing the concentration of alkyl
halide to half
(1) Decreasing order of density of alkyl halides is
(3) Decreased on increasing the temperature of
Te
RI > RBr > RCI > RF

the reaction
(2) The stability order of alkyl halides is
(4) Unaffected by increasing the temperature of
le
RF > RCl > RBr >RI

the reaction
(3) Among isomeric alkyl halides the decrease in
gr
boiling point 1º > 2º > 3º Q.11 Which of the following statements is invalid-
am
(4) All are correct (1) The more stable the carbocation the faster it is
formed
Q.4 Which statement is not correct -
(2) Propyl cation changes to more stable
@
(1) Polyhalides are lighter than water

isopropyl carbocation by 1,2 shift of a
(2) Halo alkanes have higher boiling points as
C
hydrogen
compared to those of corresponding alkanes
(3) Isopropyl chloride reacts with sodium
he
(3) Halides are soluble in organic solvents ethoxide to form 1-ethoxypropane

(4) None
m
(4) All the above

Q.5 An alkyl halide is insoluble in water because-
is
(1) Alkyl halide is non polar & H2O is polar Q.12 Which of the following reaction is the most
try
common among alkyl halides -

(2) Both are polar (1) Nucleophilic addition
_S
(3) Alkyl halide does not form hydrogen bond (2) Nucleophilic substitution
with water
(3) Electrophilic addition
pa
(4) Alkyl halide has halogen atom in it

(4) Electrophilic substitution
rk
Q.6 The correct order of polarity of alkyl halides is : -

(1) RI > RBr < RCl > RF
Q.13 When an alkyl halide reacts with an alkoxide, the
(2) RF > RCl > RBr > RI
product is -
(3) RCl > RF > RBr > RI
(4) None of these (1) Ether (2) Ester
(3) Hydrocarbon (4) Alcohol
Q.7 Which chloride is the most reactive towards
aqueous NaOH in -
(1) Methyl chloride (2) Isopropyl chloride Q.14 2-Bromobutane on heating with alcoholic alkali
(3) Vinyl chloride (4) Benzyl chloride
forms -
Q.8 2
The SN reactivity order for halides :-
(1)  - Butylene only
(1) R - F > R - Cl > R - Br > R - I
(2)  - Butylene only
(2) R - I > R - Br > R - Cl > R - F
(3) 20% of -Butylene+ 80% of -Butylene
(3) R - Br > R - l > R - Cl > R - F
(4) 80% -Butylene + 20% -Butylene
No
(4) R - Cl > R - Br > R - F > R - I
10
(4) 1,3-Dibromo propene
Q.15 (A) (B) (C) CH3CHO, Q.24 In reaction
Identify A, B & C - C2H5OH + HX C2H5X + H2O
(1) Ethylalcohol, Ethyl chloride & Ethane the order of reactivity of HX is -
(2) Ethane, Ethylchloride & CH3–CH2–OH (1) HBr > HI > HCl (2) HI > HCl > HBr
(3) Propane, Propylchloride & CH3–CH2–CH2–OH (3) HCl > HBr > HI (4) HI > HBr > HCl
(4) All the above Q.25 Which of the following leads to the formation of
an alkyl halide -
Q.16 An alkyl halide reacted with a metal cyanide to
give an alkanenitrile. The metal cyanide is - (1) C2H5OH
(1) AgCN (2) KCN
(3) Cu2(CN)2 (4) Ba(CN)2 (2) C2H5OH
Q.17 Ethylthioalcohol can be obtained when C 2H5Br (3) C2H5OH

reacts with - (4) All the above
(1) KSH (2) NaOH
Te
Q.26 Which halide/halides not prepared by Darzen

(3) K2S (4) Na2S reaction -
le
Q.18 Which one of the following reaction is known as (1) R–Cl (2) R–Br
strecker's reaction - (3) R–I (4) (2) & (3) both
gr
(1) R - X + NaI  R - I + NaX Q.27 Which reaction is termed as Darzen’s Reaction -

am
(2) R - X + Na2SO3  R - SO3Na + NaX (1) ROH + HCl (2) ROH + PCl5
(3) RCOOAg + Br2  R - Br + AgBr + CO2 (3) ROH + SOCl2 (4) ROH + PCl3
@
(4) None of the above

Q.28 In the Hunsdiecker reaction -
C
Q.19 The given reaction is called as - (1) Number of carbon atoms decrease
he
C2H5ONa + BrC2H5  C2H5–O–C2H5 + NaBr (2) Number of carbon atoms increase

(1) Frankland reaction (3) Number of carbon atoms remain same
m
(2) Wurtz reaction (4) None of the above

is
(3) Williamson’s synthesis Q.29 Silver benzoate reacts with bromine in acetone to
try
(4) Cannizzaro reaction form -

Q.20 Reaction of ethyl chloride with sodium leads to -
_S
(1) Ethane (2) Propane (1) (2)

pa
(3) n-Butane (4) n-pentane

Q.21 An alkyl halide reacts with metallic sodium in dry
rk
ether, the reaction is known as -

(1) Frankland’s reaction (3) (4)
(2) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(3) Wurtz’s reaction
(4) Kolbe’s reaction Q.30 In Finkelstein Reaction, which reactants are
used -
Q.22 When ethyl bromide is treated with moist Ag2O
(1) NaI + C2H5OH
the product is –
(1) Ethyl ether (2) Ethanol (2) NaCl + acetone
(3) Ethoxy ethane (4) All of the above (3) NaBr + CH3COCH3
Q.23 When propylene reacts with HBr in presence of (4) NaI + CH3COCH3
peroxide, the product formed is -
(1) n-Propyl alcohol Q.31 C2H5Cl + AgF C2H5F + AgCl
(2) Propylene peroxide The above reaction is called -
(3) n-Propyl bromide (1) Hunsdiecker (2) Swart
Mus
11
(3) Strecker (4) Wurtz (4) The only aldehyde giving iodoform reaction
is acetaldehyde.
Q.32 The general molecular formula of dihaloalkanes
is - Q.41 The oxidation of CHCl3 by air & light is
(1) CnH2n+1X (2) CnH2n+2X2 prevented by adding -
(1) CH3COOH (2) C2H5OH
(3) CnH2nX2 (4) CnH2n–2X2
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3COOCH3
Q.33 A vicinal dihalide is not formed in the reaction-
Q.42 Tear gas is -
(1) HOCH2–CH2OH
(1) C(NO2)Cl3 (2) COCl2
(2) CH3–CH = CH2
(3) CH3Cl (4) CH3COCl
(3) CHCH
Q.43 Hoffmann's isocyanide reaction involves the
(4) CH3–CH=CHBr intermediate formation of -
(1) :CCl2 (2) CH3
Q.34 A gem dichloride is formed in the reaction
except - (3) (4) CCl3
(1) CH3CHO and PCl5
Te
Q.44 Chloroform when treated with aniline and

(2) CH3COCH3 and PCl5 alcoholic KOH forms -
le
(3) CH2=CH2 and Cl2 (1) Phenyl cyanide (2) Phenyl isocyanide
gr
(4) CH2=CHCl and HCl (3) Phenyl cyanate (4) Phenyl isocyanate
am
Q.45 Iodoform test is not given by : -

Q.35 2,2–dichloropropane on hydrolysis yields -
(1) CH3COCH2COOC2H5
(1) Acetone (2) 2,2-Propane diol
(3) Isopropyl alcohol (4) Acetaldehyde (2) CH3COCH3
@
(3) CH3CH2COCH3
Q.36 Propylidene chloride when heated with zinc
C
gives - (4) CH3CH2CHOHCH3

he
(1) Ethene (2) Propene

Q.46 2-methyl butanoic acid is formed by the reaction
(3) 1-Butene (4) 3-Hexene
m
CHCl3 , NaOH and –

Q.37 Ethylene amine is the substitution product of -
is
(1) Propene (2) Ethene

(1) Ethylene chloride (2) Gem dihalide (3) Methane (4) 2-Butene
try
(3) Both of these (4) None of these

Q.47 Main product of which of the following reactions
_S
Q.38 CHCl3 is kept in brown bottles well stoppered and shows zero dipole moment -
also with 1% alcohol so that it may not form - (1) CH3OH, PCl5
pa
(1) CH2Cl2 (2) COCl2

(2) C2H5OH, OH¯, Cl2
(3) CCl4 (4) None of these
rk
(3) CHCl3, Cl2, hv

Q.39 Chloroform can be obtained from - (4) CHI3, Zn, HCl
(1) Methanol (2) Methanal
(3) 1-Propanol (4) 2-Propanol Q.48 What happens when CCl4 is treated with AgNO3 -
(1) A white ppt. of AgCl will be formed
Q.40 Which of the following statement is wrong - (2) Nothing will happen
(1) All carbonyl compounds of the general structure (3) NO2 will be evolved
give a positive iodoform test (4) CCl4 will dissolved in AgNO3
Q.49 CCl4 + 4KOH — end product of the reaction is-

(2) All secondary alcohols give iodoform (1) K2CO3 (2) CO2
reaction (3) C(OH)4 (4) HCOOK
(3) Alkanols of the structure CH3CH(OH)–R
(where R=H, alkyl or aryl) give iodoform Q.50 Catalyst used in the formation of
reaction dicholorodifluoromethane is generated from -
M
12
(1) AlCl3 + HF (2) SbCl5 + HF (4) All the above
(3) SbCl4 + HF (4) BF3 + HF Q.59 The reaction of ethyl bromide with a lead-sodium
alloy gives -
Q.51 CH3CHI2 ? (1) Tetraethyl bromide (2) Tetraethyl lead
Here the end product would be - (3) Sodium ethoxide (4) None of these
(1) 2-Cyano propionic acid Q.60 A strong solution of alcoholic alkali will
(2) Ethane-1,1-dicarboxylic acid preferentially promote alkyl halide into an alkene
(3) 2-Methyl ethanoic acid by -
(4) Propionic acid (1) Addition (2) Elimination
(3) Polymerisation (4) Substitution
Q.52 Industrial preparation of chloroform employs
acetone and - Q.61 Treatment of ammonia with excess ethyl chloride
(1) Phosgene will give -
(2) Calcium hypochlorite (1) Diethylamine
(3) Chlorine gas (2) Ethane
(4) Sodium chloride (3) Methylamine
(4) Tetraethyl ammonium chloride
Te
Q.53 The elimination of HX from an alkyl halide forms

an alkene. The order of the elimination reaction Q.62 The mixture of two organic chlorine compounds
le
is - on treatment with sodium metal in ether solution

gives isobutane as one of the products. The
gr
(1) 3º halide > 2º halides > 1º halides

reactants are -
(2) 1º halide > 2º halides >3º halides
am
(3) 1º halide = 2º halides > 3º halides (1) Methyl chloride and propyl chloride
(4) 2º halide > 1º halides > 3º halides (2) Methyl chloride and ethyl chloride
(3) Isopropyl chloride and ethyl chloride
@
Q.54 A CHBr3 (4) Isopropyl chloride and methyl chloride

C
Here A is nothing but - Q.63 In the reaction

he
(1) Isopropyl alcohol (2) Methanol

CH3CH2CHBrCH3 + (CH3)3COK – the main
(3) Ethanoic acid (4) n- Butyl alcohol
product is-
m
Q.55 Of the following, which is an SN1 reaction -

is
(1) (2)
(1) (CH3)3CBr + H2O –––––
try
(2) CH3CH2CH2Cl + I– ––––– (3) CH3CH2CH=CH2 (4) CH3CH=CHCH3

_S
(3) (CH3)3CBr + CN– ––––– Q.64 The iodoform test is used to show one particular
structural unit in -
pa
(4) CH3CHBrCH3 + KOH(alc.) –––––

(1) Aliphatic alcohols (2) Aromatic acids
Q.56 In the reaction,
rk
(3) Aliphatic acid (4) Hydrocarbons

C2H5OH + HX C2H5X
Q.65 Treatment of ethylidene chloride with aq. KOH
the order of reactivity of HX is - gives -
(1) HBr > HI > HCl (2) HI > HBr > HCl (1) Ethylene (2) Acetaldehyde
(3) HI > HCI > HBr (4) HCl > HBr > Hl (3) Formaldehyde (4) None of these
Q.57 CH3Br (A) CH3CH2NH2 Q.66 A + PCl5 –––––– POCl3 + Alkyl halide.
Compound A would be -
IUPAC name of (A) is -
(1) Alkanone (2) Alkane
(1) Methyl cyanide (2) Mehyl isonitrile
(3) Alkanol (4) Alkanal
(3) Acetonitrile (4) Ethane nitrile
Q.58 Impure chloroform can tested by - Q.67 Chloroform is used as a laboratory reagent for
testing the presence of -
(1) Concentrated sulphuric acid
(1) Nitro compound
(2) Blue litmus
(2) Primary amines
(3) Silver nitrate solution
Mar
13
(3) Secondary amines (2) Ethylidene chloride
(4) Tertiary amines (3) 1, 2-Di chloro ethane
Q.68 The reaction of chloroform with acetone gives- (4) Methylene chloride
(1) Mesitylene (2) Ethylidene chloride Q.76 Arrange the following in decreasing order of
(3) Chloretone (4) Chloral C-halogen bond length -
Q.69 CCl4 is used as a fire extinguisher because- (1) CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F
(1) Of its covalent bond (2) CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I > CH3Cl
(2) Of its low b.p. (3) CH3CI > CH3Br > CH3I > CH3F
(3) Of its high m.p. (4) CH3I > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3F
(4) It gives incombustible vapours
Q.77 Freon - 112 is -
Q.70 (CH3)3CBr + OH– ––––– (CH3)3COH + Br– (1) C2Cl4F2 (2) CCl2F2
Which of the following statements is true for the (3) CCl3F (4) C2Br4F2
above reaction –
(1) If we double [RBr] the rate become four
Q.78 CH3CCl3 A B C
times
(2) If we reduce [OH]– to half, there is no
Te
A and C in the above sequence are respectively -

change in the rate. (1) Acetic acid, ethyl bromide
le
(3) If we double [RBr] the rate does not change. (2) Acetic acid, ethyl chloride
(4) If we double [OH]– the rate double
gr
(3) Acetic acid, methyl bromide

(4) Acetic acid, methyl chloride
am
Q.71 Unimolecular nucleophilic substitution [SN1]

involves ....... steps, while bimolecular Q.79 The ease of dehydrohalogenation with alcoholic
nucleophilic substitution involves..... steps - KOH will be -
@
(1) Two, one (2) One, two chloroethane (I),

(3) Two, two (4) One, three 2-chloropropane(II),
C
2-chloro-2-methylpropane(III)
he
Q.72 The reactivities of CH 3Cl, CH3CH2CH2Cl and (1) III > II > I (2) I > II > III
chlorobenzene are in the order - (3) II > I > III (4) I > III > II
m
(1) CH3Cl > CH3CH2CH2Cl > C6H5Cl

is
(2) CH3CH2CH2Cl > CH3Cl > C6H5Cl Q.80 R–X

try
(3) C6H5Cl > CH3CH2CH2Cl > CH3Cl The reagent Z in the above reaction is -
_S
(4) CH3Cl > C6H5Cl > CH3CH2CH2Cl (1) NaNO2

(2) KNO2
pa
Q.73 For CH3Br + OH– –––– CH3OH + Br– (3) NaNO2. + dil. HCl
the rate of reaction is given by the expression- (4) AgNO2
rk
(1) rate = k [CH3Br]

–
Q.81 In the reaction
(2) rate = k [OH ] RCOOAg + Br2 RBr + CO2 + AgBr
–
(3) rate = k [CH3Br] [OH ] the intermediate formed is -
(4) rate = k [CH3Br]0
–
[OH ]0 (1) R–COOBr (2) RCOO•
(3) R• (4) all of these
Q.74 In the reaction CH3CHCl2 X. X is -
Q.82 Consider the following reaction sequence.
(1) CH3CH2OH (2) (CH3)2CO
CH3CCH A B
(3) (4) CH3CHO
The product (A) and (B) are, respectively -
(1) CH3COCH3 and CH3CCl2CH3
Q.75 Which of the following on alkaline hydrolysis
gives ethanal - (2) CH3CH2CHO and CH3CH2CHCl2
(3) CH3CHOHCH3 and CH3CHClCH3
ha
(1) Chloroform
14
(4) CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH2CH2Cl
Q.88 Consider the following sequence of reactions.
Q.83 Neopentyl bromide is allowed to react with
C2H5Cl X Y
sodium ethoxide in ethanol. The major
substitution product formed in the reaction The products (X) and (Y) are, respectively -
is - (1) C2H5CN and C2H5CH2NH2
(2) C2H5CN and C2H5CONH2
(1) (3) C2H5NC and C2H5NHCH3
(4) C2H5CN and C2H5COOH
Q.89 The order of decreasing S N1 reactivities of the

(2) halides is -
CH3CH2CH2Cl CH2 = CHCHClCH3
I II
(3) CH3CH2CHClCH3
III
Te
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III

le
(4) (3) II > III > I (4) III > II > I

gr
Q.90 In the preparation of ethyl chloride by the

Q.84 Which of the following reactions will not give an reaction
am
isocyanide - CH3CH2OH+HCl CH3CH2Cl + H2O

(1) CH3CH2Br + AgCN 
the major reason for using anhydrous ZnCl 2 as a
@
(2) CH3CH2NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH

catalyst is that
C
(3) CH3CH2CONH2 + P2O5 (1) It absorbs water formed in the reaction and
he
(4) All of the above drives the equilibrium to the right

(2) It coordinates with the product CH 3CH2Cl
m
Q.85 Which of the following processes does not occur and drives the reaction to the right
(3) It assists in forming the nucleophile
is
during the formation of CHCl3 from C2H5OH and

Cl– from HCl
try
bleaching powder -
(4) It coordinates with oxygen of ethyl alcohol
(1) Oxidation (2) Chlorination and increases the leaving group ability of the
_S
(3) Hydrolysis (4) Reduction –OH group

Q.86 Which of the following reactions is not expected Q.91 Which of the following reactions is likely to give
pa
to give a satisfactory yield of alkyl iodide - the greatest yield of n-propyl bromide ?
rk
(1) CH3CH = CH2 + HBr

(1) CH3CH2OH + KI + H3PO4 
(2) CH3CH2CH3 + Br2
(2) CH3CH2OH + PI3
(3) CH3CH2Br + NaI (3)
(4) CH3CH2COOAg + I2 (4) CH3CH2CH2Cl + NaBr

Q.87 2-Bromopentane is heated with potassium
CH3C  CH (A) (B)
ethoxide in ethanol. The major product is -
(1) trans-2-pentene The products (A) and (B) are, respectively,
(1) CH3CH2CHCl2 and CH3CH2CHO
(2) 2-ethoxypentane
(2) CH3CCl2CH3 and CH3COCH3
(3) 1-pentene
(3) CH3CCl2CH3 and CH3CCH
(4) cis-2-pentene
Mus15
(4) CH3CHClCH2Cl and CH3CHOHCH2OH Q.97 Which of the following reactions is expected to
take place by SN2 mechanism ?
Q.93 In the following reaction
?
(1)
Product will be
(1) CCH (2) =CH2
(3) (4) CC–CH3 (2) (CH3)3C–Br+ KOH
Q.94 Isobutylmagnesium bromide in dry ether on (3) CH3CH2CHBrCH3+CH3CO2Na
reaction with absolute alcohol gives (4) (CH3)2CHBr + AgCN
(1) (CH3)2 CHCH2OH and CH3CH2MgBr
(2) (CH3)2 CHCH2CH2CH3 and Mg(OH) Br Q.98 Finkelstein reaction is -
(3) (CH3)2CHCH3 and CH3CH2 OMgBr (1) 2CH3CH2Cl+ Ag2O (dry) 
(4) (CH3)3 CH, CH2 = CH2 and Mg(OH)Br CH3CH2OCH2CH3+ 2AgCl
Q.95 Which of the following will give a yellow (2) CH3CH2Br + NaI
precipitate of iodoform on heating with I 2 and CH3CH2I+ NaBr
Te
NaOH ?
(3) CH3CH2Br + Ag2O (moist) 
le
CH3CH2OH + AgBr
(1)
gr
(4) CH3CH2Cl + NaOCH3 

am
CH3 CH2OCH3 + NaCl

(2)
Q.99 An alkyl bromide (A) forms Grignard’s reagent
@
which on treatment with water yields n-Hexane.

(3)
C
(A) with sodium /ether forms 4, 5-diethyl octane.

(A) is –
he
(1) CH3 (CH2)5 Br

(4)
m
(2) CH3 (CH2)3 CH(Br) CH3

is
Q.96 In which of the following cases will the product (3) CH3 – (CH2)2 – CH(Br) CH2 CH3
try
of the reaction respond positively to the iodoform

test ? (4) CH3 (CH2)2 CH(Br) CH = CH2
_S
(1) (CH3)2C=CH2 Q.100 Pick out the incorrect reaction -

(1) CH3CH=CH2 + HCl  CH3CHClCH3
pa
(2) CH3–CH=CH2 (2) CH3CH=CH2 + HBr  CH3CH2CH2Br

rk
(3)CH3CH=CH2 + HBr CH3CH2CH2Br

(3) CH3–CCH (4) CH3CH=CH2 + HI CH3CHICH3
(4) CH3–CC–CH3
Meg16
EXERCISE # 2
(BRAIN TWISTERS OF HALOALKANE)
[A] [B]
Q.1
(1) &
Reaction I and II are -

(2) &
(1) both SN1 (2) both SN2
(3) I SN1, II SN2 (4) I SN2, II SN1
Te
(3) &
Q.2 Which will give white ppt. with AgNO3 ?
le
gr
(1) (2)
(4) None of these
am
Q.6 (C4H8O2)+ CH3MgBr C4H10O

(3) (4) Both (1) & (3)
Ester (2 moles) (alcohol)
@
(A) (B)
Alcohol (B) reacts slowly with sodium metal.
C
Q.3 The compound which gives negative iodoform Hence (A) and (B) are -
test is -
he
(1) ,
m
(1)
is
(2) ,
try
(2)
_S
(3) ,
(3)
pa
(4) ,
rk
(4)
Q.7 What is product of the following reaction ?
Q.4 Major product for the reaction is - ?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) None of these
(3) (4)
Q.5 What are (A) & (B) in the following reaction ?

M
17
Q.12 The product of the following reaction is -
Q.8 ?, Major product is –
+ H2O ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (1) (2)
Q.9 Which of the following reaction does not take

place ? (3) (4) None of above
Te
(1)
le
gr
(2) + aq. KOH  Q.13 X. What is X -

am
(3) + alc. KOH 
(1) (2)
@
(4) + NaOH
C
he
(3) (4)
Q.10 Benzyne intermediate is not observed in -
m
is
Q.14 Grignard reagent can be prepared by –

try
(1) (2)
(1) CH3–CH2–Cl + Mg
_S
(2)
pa
(3) (4)
rk
(3)
Q.11 (4) All of these
(A) In the above reactions, compound (A) can not Q.15 Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis
be - most easily –
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
Q.16 For the reaction CH3CH(X)CH2CH3

Mas 18
(3) E2 (4) SN2
Q.21 A compound containing two-OH groups attached

with one carbon atoms is unstable but which one
(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3 predominates of the following is stable –
(2) CH2=CH–CH2–CH3 predominates

(3) Both are formed in equal amounts (1) (2)
(4) The product ratio is dependent on the halogen X
Q.17 The correct reactivity order of alcohols towards (3) (4) All of above
H–X will be
Q.22 1-phenyl-2-cholropropane on treating with alc.
(I) CH2=CH–OH (II) CH2=CH–CH2OH
KOH given mainly -
(III) CH3–CH2–OH (IV) (1) 1-phenylpropene
(2) 2-phenylpropene
(1) II > I > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I (3) 1-pheylpropane-2-ol
Te
(3) II > IV > I > III (4) II > IV > III > I (4) 1-phenylpropan-1-ol
le
Q.18 Identify (Z) in the following reaction series, Q.23 Ether

gr
CH3CH2CH2Br (X) (Y) (Z)

am
Product ether is -
(1) (2)
@
(1) (2)
C
he
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None is correct

(3) (4)
m
Q.24 An organic compound on treatment with

alcoholic KOH gives a hydrocarbon of a
is
molecular fromula C4H8. Oxidation of the

try
hydrocarbon gives propionic acid and CO 2. The

_S
Q.19 A compound (A) formula of C 3H6Cl2 on reaction organic compound should be -

with alkali can give (B) of formula C 3H6O or (C) (1) C2H5 - CH2 - CH2Cl
pa
of formula C3H4. (B) on oxidation gave a

compound of the formula C 3H6O2. (C) with dilute
rk
(2)
H2SO4 containing Hg2+ ion gave (D) of formula
C3H6O, which with bromine and alkali gave the
sodium salt of C2H4O2. Then (A) is – (3)
(1) CH3CH2CHCl2 (2) CH3CCl2CH3
(3) CH2ClCH2CH2Cl (4) CH3CHClCH2Cl
(4)
Q.20 Following reaction is –
Q.25 (A) (B) (C)
Product A, B & C are -

(1) Iodoform, Acetylene & Acetaldehyde
(2) Triiodomethane, Ethyne & Acetone
(1) E1 (2) SN1
(3) Iodoform, Ethene & Ethylene glycol
u19
(4) Ethene, iodoform & Ethylhydrogen sulphate
(B) (C)
(A) (C)
The compound (A) is -
The major end product formed is
(1) CH3CH2CHCl2 (2) CH3CCl2CH3
(3) CH3CHClCH2Cl (4) ClCH2CH2CH2Cl
(1) (2)
Q.27 A compound (X), C4H8Cl2, on hydrolysis with
aqueous KOH gives a product (Y) which on
heating with I2 and dilute NaOH gives a yellow
(3) (4)
precipitate of iodoform. The compound (X) is -
(1) CH3CH2CH2CHCl2 (2) CH3CH2CHClCH2Cl
Te
(3) CH3CH2CCl2CH3 (4) ClCH2CH2CH2CH2Cl Q.31 In the reaction

le
gr
Q.28 An aromatic primary amine (A) is heated with

am
another compound (B) in the presence of alcoholic

the major product formed is
KOH to give a bad-smelling compound having the
@
formula C6H5NC. The compound (B) can be (1) (2)

C
prepared by heating another compound (C) with

he
chlorine and slaked lime. The compound (C) is -

(3) (4)
(1) C6H5NH2 (2) C2H5OH
m
(3) CHCl3 (4) CH3OCH3

is
Q.32 (R)-2-Bromobutane is allowed to react with

try
aqueous KOH. Identify the product formed in the

Q.29 Consider the following reaction
reaction.
_S
pa
(1) (2)
rk
The product formed is - (3) Equimolar amounts of (1) and (2)

(4) Slight excess of (2)
Q.33 The order of decreasing nucleophilicities of the

(1) (2)
following species is
(1)
(2)
(3) (4) (3)

(4)
Bo
20
Q.34 Consider the following alcohols.
Q.37 A,
product A is -
(1)
(2)
The order of decreasing reactivities of these
alcohols towards nucleophilic substitution with
HBr is - (3)
(1) III > I > IV > II (2) III > I > II > IV
(3) I > III > IV > II (4) I > III > II > IV
(4)
Te
Q.35 Consider the following reaction of (1R, 3S)-cis-1-

le
Bromo-3-methylcyclohexane
gr
Q.38 Identify the product–

am
product
@
C
The product formed in the reaction is - (1) (2)

he
(1) (1R, 3S)-cis-3-methylcyclohexanol

m
(2) (1S, 3R)-cis-3-methylcyclohexanol

(3) (4)
is
(3) (1S, 3S)-trans-3-methycyclohexanol

try
(4) (1R, 3R)-trans-3-methylcyclohexanol

_S
Q.36 + A B C. End product Q.39 A B+C. products

pa
rk
B and C are –
C is -
(1) + CH3–COOH
(1) (2)
(2) + CHI3
(3) (4)
(3) +
②
21
(4) + CHI3
EXERCISE # 3A
Q.1 Increasing order of electrophilic substitution for (3) R–I>R–Cl>R–Br>R–F
following compounds - [AIPMT] (4) R–F>R–I>R–Br>R–Cl
(I) (II)
Q.6 P, In the above reaction
product 'P' is [AIPMT]

Te
(III) (IV)
(1) (2)
le
gr
am
(1) IV < I < II < III (2) III < II < I < IV
(3) I < IV < III < II (4) II < III < I < IV (3) (4)
@
Q.2 In FCR, Toluene can be prepared by

Q.7 When CH3CH2CHCl2 is treated with NaNH2, the
C
[AIPMT] product formed is : [AIPM]

he
(1) C6H6+CH3Cl (2) C6H5Cl+CH4 (1) CH3–CH==CH2 (2) CH3–CCH

m
(3) C6H6+CH2Cl2 (4) C6H6+CH3COCl (3) CH3CH2CH (4)

is
try
Q.3 obtained by chlorination of

Q.8 The correct order of reactivity towards the
electrophilic substitution of the compounds
_S
n-butane, will be - [AIPMT] aniline (I), benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is
(1) Meso form (2) Racemic mixture [AIPMT]
pa
(1) III > II > I (2) II > III > I

(3) d-form (4) -form
rk
(3) I < II > III (4) I > II > III

Q.4 An organic compound A(C4H9Cl) on reaction Q.9 The treatment of benzene with isobutene in the
with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which presence of sulphuric acid gives [AIIMS]
(1) Isobutyl benzene (2) t-butyl benzene
on monochlorination gives only one chloro
(3) n-Butyl benzene (4) No reaction
derivative than, A is [AIPMT]
Q.10 Which of the following compounds possesses the
(1) t-butyl choride (2) Sec. butyl chloride C–H bond with the lowest bond dissociation
(3) Iso butyl chloride (4) n-butyl chloride energy [AIIMS]
(1) Toluene. (2) Benzene
Q.5 Reactivity order of halides for dehydrohalogenation (3) n-Pentane (4) 2, 2-Dimetyl propane
is - [AIPMT] Q.11 Among the following the most reactive towards
alcoholic KOH is [AIIMS]
(1) R–F>R–Cl>R–Br>R–I
(1) CH2=CHBr (2) CH3COCH2CH2Br
(2) R–I>R–Br>R–Cl>R–F (3) CH3CH2Br (4) CH3CH2CH2Br
MER
22
Q.12 Among the following, the one which reacts most (3) 2RX + 2Na  R – R + 2NaX
readily with ethanol is [AIIMS]
(1) p-nitro benzyl bromide (4) RX + H2  RH + HX
(2) p-chloro benzyl bromide Q.19 Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with
(3) p-methoxy benzyl bromide
chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and
(4) p-methyl benzyl bromide
produces - [AIPMT]
Q.13 Which of the following is least reactive in a
nucleophilic substitution reaction [AIPMT]
(1) CH2=CHCl (2) CH3CH2Cl (1)
(3) CH2=CHCH2Cl (4) (CH3)3C–Cl
Q.14 The major product obtained on treatment of
CH3CH2CH(F)CH3 with CH3O–/CH3OH is –
[AIIMS] (2)
(1) CH3CH2CH(OCH3)CH3
(2) CH3CH=CHCH3
(3) CH3CH2CH=CH2
Te
(4) CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH3
Q.15 Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic
le
substitution exclusively by SN1 mechanism (3)

gr
[AIPMT]
am
(1) Ethyl choride (2) Isopropyl chloride

(3) Benzyl chloride (4) Chloro benzene
Q.16 In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type
@
R–Br + R–Cl + , which one of the (4)

C
following has the highest relative rate ?

[AIPMT-2008]
he
m
Q.20 In the following reaction

(1) (2)
is
6 5 2
C H CH Br X,
try
(3) CH3–CH2Br (4) CH3–CH2–CH2Br

_S
the product 'X' is - [AIPMT MAINS-2010]

Q.17 Which one of the following is most reactive
6 5 2
towards electrophilic attack ? [AIPMT-2008]
pa
(1) C H CH OH
(2) C6H5CH3
rk
(1) (2) (3) C6H5CH2CH2CH2C6H5

(4) C6H5CH2OCH2C6H5
Q.21 Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction
among the following ? [AIPMT-2011]
(3) (4)
(1) CH3CHO + HCN  CH3CH(OH)CN
Q.18 Which of the following reactions is an example of (2) CH3–CH = CH2 + H2O
nucleophilic substitution reaction ?
(3) RCHO + RMgX 
[AIPMT-2009]
(1) RX + Mg  RMgX (4) CH3 – CH2 – – CH2Br + NH3 

(2) RX + KOH  ROH + KX
P 23
[AIPMT MAINS-2016]
CH3 – CH2 – – CH2NH2
(i) (CH3)2CH–CH2Br
(CH3)2CH–CH2OC2H5 + HBr
(ii) (CH3)2CH–CH2Br
(CH3)2CH–CH2OC2H5 + Br–
Q.22 Which of the following compounds undergoes
The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are
nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily ?
respectively :
[AIPMT MAINS-2013]
(1) and (2) and
(1) (2)
(3) and (4) and
(3) (4)
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Q.23 Consider the reactions :
B
24
EXERCISE # 3B
Q.1 Etheral solution of methyl iodide and ethyl iodide Q.8 Elimination of HBr from 2–bromobutane results
in presence of metallic sodium gives - in the formation of – [AIEEE-2005]
[RPMT-2003] (1) predominantly 2–butene
(1) Methane (2) Propane (2) equimolar mixture of 1 and 2–butene
(3) Methanol (4) Propene (3) predominantly 2–butyne
Q.2 Which gives maximum yield of C2H5Cl (4) predominantly 1–butene
[RPMT-2004] Q.9 Among the following the one that gives positive
(1) C2H6 + Cl2 C2H5Cl + HCl iodoform upon reaction with I2 and NaOH is –
(excess) [AIEEE-2006]
(2) C2H6 + Cl2 C2H5Cl + HCl (1) C6H5CH2CH2OH
(excess) (2)
Te
(3) C2H6 + Cl2 C2H5Cl + HCl

(3) PhCHOHCH3
(4) C2H6 + Cl2 C2H5Cl + HCl
le
(4) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3
Q.3 The least reactive chlorine is present in -
gr
[RPMT-2005] Q.10 Which of the following is the correct order of

am
(1) Methyl chloride (2) Allyl chloride decreasing SN2 reactivity ? [AIEEE-2007]
(3) Ethyl chloride (4) Vinyl chloride (1) RCH2X > R3CX > R2CHX
(2) RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX
@
Q.4 The reaction is a

(CH3)3 CBr + H2O  (CH3)3 COH + HBr (3) R3CX > R2CHX > RCH2X
C
[AIEEE-2002] (4) R2CHX > R3CX > RCH2X

he
(1) Substitution reaction (X = a halogen)

(2) Debromination reaction
m
Q.11 The organic chloro compound, which shows

(3) Rearrangement reaction complete stereochemical inversion during a S N2
is
(4) Elimination reaction reaction , is - [AIEEE-2008]

try
Q.5 The correct order of the thermal stability of (1) (CH3)3CCl (2) (CH3)2CHCl
hydrogen halides (H – X) is - [AIEEE-2005] (3) CH3Cl (4) (C2H5)2CHCl
_S
(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI Q.12 The order of reactivity of the following alkyl
(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
pa
halides for a SN2 reaction is – [IIT-2000]

(3) HI > HCl < HF > HBr (1) RF > RCl > R–Br > R–I
rk
(4)HCl < HBr > HBr < HI (2) R–F > R–Br > R–Cl > R–I
(3) R–Cl > R–Br > RF > RI
Q.6 Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to (4) R–I > R–Br > R–Cl > R–F
substitution by SN2 mechanism because of -
Q.13 Identify the set of reagents/reaction conditions 'X'
[AIEEE-2005] and 'Y' in the following set of transformations
(1) instability (2) insolubility
(3) steric hindrance (4) inductive effect CH3CH2–CH2Br Product
Q.7 Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents [IIT-2002]

to give - [AIEEE-2005] (1) X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 20ºC ;
(1) alkyl copper halides Y = HBr /acetic acid, 20ºC
(2) alkenes (2) X = concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 80ºC
Y = HBr/acetic acid, 20ºC
(3) alkenyl halides
(3) X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 20ºC ;
(4) alkanes Y = Br2/CHCl3, 0ºC
(4) X = concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 80ºC
Y = Br2/CHCl3, 0ºC
m 25
Q.14 CH3MgBr (excess) + Ethyl ester  which can be Q.17 The major product of the following reaction is -
formed as product. [IIT-2003] [IIT-2008]
(1) (2)
?
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
Q.15
[IIT-2005]
Te
on hydrolysis in presence of acetone ?

(3) (4)
le
gr
(A)
am
Q.18 Consider the following bromides [AIEEE-2010]

@
C
(B)
he
The correct order of reactivity is

(1) A > B > C (2) B > C > A
m
(3) B > A > C (4) C > B > A

is
Q.19 The total number of alkenes possible by

try
dehydrobromination of 3-bromo-3
(C) cyclopentylhexane using alcoholic KOH is.
_S
[IIT-2011]
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
pa
(1) A & B (2) only B Q.20 By heating which mixture, propane nitrile will be
rk
obtained ? [RPMT-2011]
(3) C only (4) A & C (1) Ethyl alcohol + KCN
(2) Propyl alcohol + KCN
(3) Ethyl chloride + KCN
Q.16 The reagent in for the following conversion is/are (4) Propyl chloride + KCN
Q.21 Major product of the reaction [RPMT-2011]
(CH3)3C – Cl + C2H5ONa 
[IIT – 2007]
would be -
(1) alcoholic KOH (1) (CH3)2C–OC2H5 (2) (CH3)3C–C2H5
(2) Alcholic KOH followed by NaNH2 (3) (CH3)2C = CH2 (4) CH3–CH=CH–C2H5
(3) aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2 Q.22 C2H5Cl 'A' 'B' 'C'
(4) Zn/CH3OH A, B and C respectively are - [RPMT-2011]
(1) C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N
(2) C2H5NH2, C2H5NH–Cl, C2H5–NCl2
(3) C2H5NH2, CH2=CH2, Cl–CH2–CH2–C2H5
(4) C2H5NH2, (C2H5)3N, (C2H5)2NH
A26
=>
EXERCISE # 4
(ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS)
These questions consist of two statements each, Q.6 Assertion : Benzyl bromide when kept in acetone
printed as Assertion and Reason. While water it produces benzyl alcohol.
answering these Questions you are required to Reason : The reaction follows SN2 mechanism.
choose any one of the following four responses. [AIIMS-2003]
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion Q.7 Assertion : Isobutanal does not give iodoform test.
(B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason : It does not have -hydrogen.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the [AIIMS-2004]
Assertion
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
Te
(D) If both Assertion & Reason are False Q.8 Assertion : Styrene on reaction with HBr gives 1-
bromo-1-phenyl-ethane.
le
Q.1 Assertion : Aryl halides are more reactive than Reason : Benzyl radical is more stable than alkyl
gr
alkyl halide towards NSR. redical. [AIIMS-2004]

am
Reason : Intermediate carbocation is more stable (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

obtained from Aryl halide.
@
Q.9 Assertion : 2-Bromobutane on reaction with

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
sodium ethoxide in ethanol gives 1-butene as a
C
Q.2 Assertion : CHCl3 is filled in dark coloured major product.

he
bottles upto top level of the bottle. Reason : 1-Butene is more stable than 2-butene.
m
Reason : CHCl3 gives phosgene when contacts (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
with air.
is
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Q.10 Assertion : Rate of hydrolysis of methyl cholride
try
to methanol is higher in DMF than in water.

_S
Q.3 Assertion : CHI3 gives yellow ppt. with AgNO3 Reason : Hydrolysis of methyl cholride follows
while CHCl3 goes not gives any ppt. second order kinetics. [AIIMS-2005]
pa
Reason : CHCl3 is colourless liquid while CHI3 is (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
yellowish solid.
rk
Q.11 Assertion : Rates of nitration of benzene and

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D hexadeuterobenzene are different.
Reason : C–H bond is stronger than C–D bond.
Q.4 Assertion : Alkyl halides are not soluble in water. [AIIMS-2005]
Reason : Alkyl halides does not form H-bonds (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
with water molecule although alkyl halide is polar
Q.12 Assertion : Neopentyl alcohol on treatment with
in nature. conc. HCl gives neopentyl chloride.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Reason : Less stable 1° and 2° carbocations
usually rearrange to more stable 2° or 3°
Q.5 Assertion : CHCl3 is more acidic than CHF3. carbocations.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Reason : Electronegativity of Flaurine is more
than chlorine.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
m27
Q.13 Assertion : Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic Q.17 Assertion : In SN1 reaction inversion and
substitution with ease. retention both are take place .
Reason : Carbon-halogen bond in aryl halides has
Reason : In SN1 reaction intermediate is
partial double bond character.
carbocation
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.14 Assertion : Optically active 2-iodobutane on Q.18 Assertion : SN2 reaction takes place in single step.
treatment with Na in acetone undergoes Reason : SN2 reaction involves the reactivity order
racemization. of alkyl halides as 1° > 2° > 3° halides.
Reason : Repeated Walden inversions on the (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
reactant and its product eventually gives a
racemic mixture.
Q.19 Assertion : Ethyl chloride is more reactive than
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
vinyl chloride towards nucleophile substitution
reactions.
Q.15 Assertion : SN2 reaction of an optically active
Reason : In vinyl chloride, the chlorine is bonded
Te
alkyl halide with an aqueous solution of KOH

always gives an alcohol with opposite sign of to sp2-hybridized carbon of an alkene.
le
rotation. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

gr
Reason : SN2 reactions always proceed with

inversion of configuration.
am
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Q.20 Assertion: The presence of nitro group facilitates
nucleophilic substitution reactions is aryl halides.
Q.16 Assertion : The dipole moment of CH3F is Reason: The intermediate carbanion is stabilized
@
greater than that of CH3Cl

due to presence of nitro group. [AIIMS-2006]
Reason : C–F bond is less polar than
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
C
C–Cl bond.
he
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
ma
28
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE # 1
EXERCISE # 2
Te
le
gr
am
EXERCISE # 3A
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
@
Ans. 1 1 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 1 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 1 1
C
Q.No. 21 22 23
he
Ans. 4 2 4
m
EXERCISE # 3B
is
try
_S
pa
EXERCISE # 4
rk
EXERCISE-5
Ma
225
ALKYL,ARYL HALIDES
Integer answers type questions:
1. When isopentane is subjected to monochlorination, what will be the number of
monochlorinated products contain chiral carbon ?
2. How many of the following statements are true ?
i All halogens are soluble in CCl4
ii. Lower halogens displace upper halogens from the respective halates of the later
iii. Upper halogens displace lower haloges from the respective halides of the later
iv. All halogens form oxyacids
v. All halogens are coloured
vi. Among oxides of halogens, monoxides are the strongest oxidants
vii. All halogens form intra-halogen compounds
Te
viii. Inter halogen compounds are generally more reactive than halogens
le
ix. All halogens can be stored in glass container except F 2 and HF

gr
am
3. A hydrocarbon (X) contains 91.2% carbon and 8.8% hydrogen. The

compound on chlorination using and gives three isomeric
@
monochloro substituted products.

C
he
m
4. monobromo compound X (major)

is
try
The number of possible stereoisomers, X can have …….

_S
5. How many isomers on monochlorination can be obtained from

pa
6. How many isomers are possible for the name bromomethylcyclopentane?

rk
(ignoring chirality)
7 How many organic compounds are formed in the reaction ?
8. How many moles of AgNO3 will react with the given compound?
-
Page No 1
9.
Find the total number of isomeric

products (P)
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
=
Page No 2
ALKYL,ARYL HALIDES – KEY SHEET
Integer Answers
1 4 2 7 3 3 4 2 5 4 6 6
7 4 8 3 9 8
ALKYL,ARYL HALIDES – SOLUTIONS

Integer solutions
1.
Te
le
gr
am
 4 products contain chiral carbon.

2. Statement ii, iii, v, vi, vii, viii and ix are correct. F 2 destroys CCl4 and does
@
C
not form any oxyacid.

he
3.
m
x is
is
try
_S
pa
rk
e
Page No 3
4. (One chiral carbon)
5. Fact
6.
7.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
8. 3
9. 8
-
Page No 4
ALKYL, ARYL HALIDES
Matching answer type questions:
1. Match column-I and column-II with respect to rate determining step
Column I Column II
(a) (p)
(b) (q)
(c) (r)
Te
le
gr
am
@
(d) (s)
C
he
m
is
try

_S
Column I Column II
(a) on treatment with (p) E1 reaction
pa
alc.KOH gives
rk
as a major product
(b) reacts faster (q) E2 reaction
than
(c) on treatment (r) E1cb reaction
with gives
as the major
product
(d) & (s) First order reaction
react with same rate
3. List – I List – II
>
Page No 1
a) p)
b) q)
c) r)
d) s)
CH 3
Te
OH CH 3 Cl
C  HCl C
le
C 6H 5 H C 6H 5
gr
H
 
 
am
4.
@
Column I Column II
(a) is weaker nucleophile (p) Bulky group present
C
on nucleophilic
he
than SH
centre decreases
m
nucleophilicity
is
(b) (q) Nucleophilicity

CH 3 is stronger nucleophile
try
decreases on going
from left to right in
than NH 2
_S
the period of
periodic table.
pa
(c) (r) A species with a

is stronger nucleophile
rk
negative
charge is a stronger
than
nucleophile than a
similar
species without a
negative
charge
(d) (s) Nucleophilicity
decreases on going
down in the
group of the periodic
is weaker nucleophile than table
Page No 2
-
5. Column-1 contains some organic reactions and column-2 contains the nature
of the intermediate through which the reaction goes. Match column–1 with
column–2.
Column – I Column – II
(A) (p) Carbanion
(B) (q) Carbocation

Te
le
gr
(C) (r) Radical anion

am
@
C
he
m
is
(D) (s) Radical

try
_S
pa
rk

Mechanism
followed
Reactions
(major pathway
only)
Potassium tertiary butoxide ion with 2-
a) p) SN2
halo propane
Potassium tertiary butoxide ion with
b) q) SN1
methyl iodide
Potassium hydroxide with ortho chloro
c) r) E2
nitro benzene
Page No 3
--
d) Solvolysis of tertiary butyl chloride s) SNAr
7. Match the following conversions in Column-I with types of reactions involved in

the conversion in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
a) p) EAS
b) q) ArSN
Radical
c) r) substitutio
n
Te
d) s) Aliphatic SN
le
gr

am
Column (I) Column (II)

@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
(D) Br – CH2 – CH2 - CH2 – Br

pa
rk
9. Match the reaction mechanism in column I with their reaction conditions

listed in column II. Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate
bubbles of the 4  4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II
(A) SN1 (p) 30 alkylhalide > 20 alkyl halides
> 10 alkyl halides
(B) SN2 (q) 10 alkyl halides > 20 alkyl
halides > 30 alkyl halides
(C) E1 (r) high concentration of strong
base
(D) E2 (s) polar protic solvent
10. Match the entries on the left with most appropriate choice (s) given on the right.
Column I (reaction ) Column II (product)
·
Page No 4
(A) Dehalogenation of meso-2, 3- (p) SN2
dibromobutane
(B) Dehalogenation of (S, S) – 2, 3- (q) Cis-2-butene
dibromobutane
(C) Hydrolysis of 2-bromo-3- (r) SN1
methylbutane
(D) CH3CH = CHCH2Cl + CN (s) Trans-2-butene

(t) Anti-elimination
11. Match the column I with Column II
Column I Column II
(A) (p)
Te
le
(B) (q)
gr
am
@
(C) (r)
C
he
m
(D) (s)
is
try
_S
(t)
pa
rk

A) P) Addition - Elimination
CH 3ONa
O 2N Cl O 2N O CH 3
0
CH 3OH, 65
B) Q) Elimination - Addition
-
Page No 5
N aN H 2
H 3C Cl P roduct
liq. N H 3
C) R)
N aN H 2
Cl P roduct
liq . N H 3
D) Te S) Benzyne
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
-
Page No 6
ALKYL, ARYL HALIDES – KEY SHEET
Matching Answers
1 A – PS 2 A–Q 3 A –S 4 A–R 5 A – PRS 6 A-R
B–R B–Q B- Q B–Q B–S B-P
C–Q C – RS C–R C–S C–P C-S
D-R D – PS D–P D-P D-Q D-Q
7 A-PS 8 A-P 9 A-PS 10 A-ST 11 A-R 12 A-PR
B-P B-R B-QR B-QT B-P B-PR
C-PR C-Q C-PS C-R C-S C-QS
D-PQ D-R D-PR D-P D-R D-QS
ALKYL, ARYL HALIDES – SOLUTIONS

Te
Matching solutions
1. Conceptual
le
2. Conceptual
gr
am
3. A)
4. Conceptual
@
CH3 CH3 CH3

H
C
H H H
Na in liq. NH3 H H
he
NH3
H
m
H H H H NH2
H
is
H
H
try
H H
Radical anion
_S
5. Radical
pa
CH3 CH3
H H
rk
H H
Na in liq. NH3 NH3 H
H H
NH2 H
H H
H
H H
Carbanion
Soln
-a
Page No 7
O O
Br2 hv 2 Br NBr + HBr NH + Br2
O O
6. Conceptual
7. Conceptual
8. Conceptual
9. Conceptual
10. Conceptual
11. (A– R), (B – P), (C – S), (D – R)
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
12. Aromatic Nucleophilic substitution reaction

rk
-
--
Page No 8
1. Preparation of alkyl halides in laboratory is least
preferred by (a) (b)
(a) Halide exchange
(b) Direct halogenation of alkanes
(c) (d)
(c) Treatment of alcohols
(d) Addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes 8. The total number of stereoisomeric forms of
2. An alkyl halide may be converted into an alcohol by known is
[EAMCET 1980; CBSE PMT 1997; BHU 1999; (a) 6 (b) 7

Te
AIIMS 2001] (c) 8 (d) None of these

(a) Addition (b) Substitution 9. The correct order of C – X bond polarity is [RPMT 2000]
le
(c) Dehydrohalogenation (d) Elimination (a)

gr
3. The bond in chlorobenzene as compared with (b)

am
bond in methyl chloride is [MP PMT 1995]

(c)
(a) Longer and weaker
(d)
@
(b) Shorter and weaker

10. The order of reactivities of the following alkyl halides
C
(c) Shorter and stronger

for a reaction is [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2000]
he
(d) Longer and stronger

(a)
4. A salt solution is treated with chloroform drops. Then
m
(b)
it is shaked with chlorine water. Chloroform layer
is
(c)
becomes violet. Solution contains [CPMT 1982]
try
(d)
(a) (b)
11. Which of the following reactions doesn’t give benzene
_S
(c) (d) [RPMT 2003]
5. The following reaction belongs to

pa
(a)
[AIEEE 2002]
rk
(b)
(a) Elimination reaction (b) Substitution reaction
(c) Free radical reaction (d) Displacement reaction (c)
6. The order of reactivities of methyl halides in the (d) All of these

formation of Grignard reagent is [KCET 2003] 12. Benzene hexachloride is prepared from benzene and
chlorine in sunlight by
(a)
(a) Substitution reaction (b) Elimination reaction
(b) (c) Addition reaction (d) Rearrangement
(c) 13. Carbon-halogen bond is strongest among the
following
(d)
[MP PMT 1995]
7. Identify Z in the following series (a) (b)
(c) (d)
[AIIMS 1983; AFMC 1998; MP PET 1997] 14. Which of these do not undergo Wurtz reaction
(a) (b) (c) 1-butyne (d) 2-butene
(c) (d) 16. and reacts to produce [Pb. PMT 2004]
15. When ethyl bromide reacts with sodium acetylide the (a) (b)
main product is [Pb. CET 2002] (c) (d)
(a) 1-butane (b) 1-butene
(SET -25)
1. (b) Direct halogenation of alkenes is not preferred

because in it a mixture of monohalogen, dihalogen,
trihalogen and tetrahalogen substituted product is
obtained which is difficult to separate.
Te
e.g.
le
gr
2. (b) Addition
Not shown by alkyl halide
reaction
am
(saturated compound)
Dehydrohalogenatio R  CH  CH 2  HX 8. (c) has 8 stereoisomer.
R  CH 2  CH 2 X n Alkene
Alc.KOH
Alkyhalide 9. (c) The bond polarity order are as under
@
Elimination R  CH  CH 2  HX
Alkene
Alc.KOH
C
aq.KOH 10. (d) The order of reactivity of alkyl holides for

R  CH 2  CH 2  OH  HX
he
Substitutio Alcohol
reaction is
n
m
3. (c) In chlorobenzene C – Cl bond acquires partial

is
double bond character because of resonance.

11. (a)
try
4. (d) (Dissolves in
to give violet colour)
_S
Cl
Chlorine displaces iodine from salt. The iodine get Cl Cl
pa
dissolve in or to produce violet 12. (c)

Cl Cl
colour.
rk
Cl
5. (b) BHC
Here substitute by group.

13. (c)
6. (a) Reactivity towards grignard reagent are as under
14. (a)
7. (b) 15. (c)
Thus in this reaction 1-butyne is main product.
16. (c) and reacts as below
***
>
=>
Thus, is produced.
O
Te
5. Chapter
le
gr
Oxygen Containing Compounds

am
@
(Alcohol, Phenol, Ether, Carboxylic Acid,

C
he
m
Aldehyde & Ketone)

is
try
_S
pa
rk
(c) (d)
10. Which is primary alcohol [CPMT 1980]

(a) Butane-2-ol (b) Butane-1-ol
General introduction of alcohol, Phenol & Ethers (c) Propane-2-ol (d) Isopropyl alcohol
11. Carbinol is [RPMT 2000]
1. Butane-2-ol is [CPMT 1977, 89] (a) (b)
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
(c) (d)
(c) Tertiary alcohol (d) Aldehyde
2. Picric acid is [CPMT 1971, 80, 81; DPMT 1983;
MP PMT 1990; BHU 1996] 12. General formula of primary alcohol is [CPMT 1975]
(a) Trinitroaniline (b) Trinitrotoluene
(a) CHOH (b)
(c) A volatile liquid (d) 2, 4, 6 trinitrophenol
3. 3- pentanol is a [RPET 2002]
Te
(c) (d)
le
(c) Tertiary alcohol (d) None of these

4. Glycerol is a 13. Which of following is phenolic [J & K 2005]
gr
[DPMT 1984, 2000; MP PET 2001; J & K 2005] (a) Phthalic acid (b) Phosphoric acid
am
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Monohydric alcohol (c) Picric acid (d) Phenylacetic acid
(c) Secondary alcohol (d) Trihydric alcohol 14. 1, 2, 3-trihydroxybenzene is also known as
@
5. Cresols are
(a) Pyrogallol (b) Phloroglucinol
(a) Hydroxy toluenes (b) Dihydric phenols
C
(c) Resorcinol (d) Quinol

(c) Trihydric phenols (d) Trihydric alcohols
he
6. Carbon percentage is maximum in [BHU 1998] 15. Butanal is an example of [MP PET 1991]
(a) Pyrene (b) Gammexane (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
m
(c) Ethylene glycol (d) PVC (c) Aliphatic aldehyde (d) Aliphatic ketone
is
7. Ortho-dihydroxy benzene is 16. Cyclohexanol is a

try
(a) Carvacrol (b) Resorcinol

(c) Catechol (d) Orcinol
_S
(c) Tertiary alcohol (d) Phenol

8. Glycerine has
[MP PMT/PET 1988; MP PMT 1989, 91; AIIMS 1997] 17. The characteristic grouping of secondary alcohols is
pa
(a) One primary and two secondary groups [DPMT 1984]

rk
(b) One secondary and two primary groups (a) (b)

(c) Three primary groups
(d) Three secondary groups (c) (d)
9. Which of the following is tertiary alcohol [DPMT 2000]
18. Which of the following are isomers

[AFMC 2005; BCECE 2005]
(a) (b)
(a) Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
(b) Ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
(c) Acetone and acetaldehyde
(d) Propionic acid and propanone
19. The compound is
(a) Ethane glycol (b) Ethylene glycol
(c) Ethylidene alcohol (d) Dimethyl alcohol
20. Methylated spirit is (a) Isopropyl propyl ether (b) Dipropyl ether
(a) Methanol (b) Methanol + ethanol (c) Di-isopropyl ether (d) Isopropyl propyl
(c) Methanoic acid (d) Methanamide ketone
21. The structural formula of cyclohexanol is [Bihar CEE 32. Acetals are [BVP 2003]
1995] (a) Ketones (b) Diethers
(c) Aldehyde (d) Hydroxy aldehydes
CH2 CH2
33. In ethers, the C – O – C bond angle is
H2C CHOH H2C CHOH
(a) (b) (a) (b)
H2C CH2 H2C CH2
(c) (d)
CH2 CH2
34. According to Lewis concept of acids and bases, ether
is
CH2OH
[CPMT 1994]
(c) (d)
(a) Acidic (b) Basic
(c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric
22. Molecular formula of amyl alcohol is
35. The compound which is not isomeric with diethyl
Te
(a) (b) ether is

(c) (d) [IIT 1981; CPMT 1989; Bihar MEE 1995; MP PET 2001]
le
(a) n-propylmethyl ether (b) Butan-1-ol

23. Carbolic acid is [MP PET/PMT 1998; RPET 1999;
gr
(c) 2-methylpropan-2-ol (d) Butanone

KCET (Engg./Med.) 1999; BHU 2000; MP PET 2003]
36. Structure of diethyl ether is confirmed by [DPMT 1985]
am
(a) Phenol (b) Phenyl benzoate

(a) Kolbe's synthesis (b) Frankland's synthesis
(c) Phenyl acetate (d) Salol
(c) Wurtz's synthesis (d) Williamson's synthesis
24. Absolute alcohol is [RPMT 1997]
@
37. Fermentation is an [CPMT 1977; RPMT 1999]

(a) 100% pure ethanol
(a) Endothermic reaction (b) Exothermic reaction
C
(b) 95% alcohol + 5%

(c) Reversible reaction (d) None of these
he
(c) Ethanol + water + phenol

38. Nitroglycerine is
(d) 95% ethanol + 5% methanol
m
(a) An ester (b) An alcohol

25. Which of the following is dihydric alcohol [DCE 2004]
(c) A nitro compound (d) An acid
is
(a) Glycerol (b) Ethylene glycol

39. Which of the following are known as mercaptans
try
(c) Catechol (d) Resorcinol

[Pb. PMT 2002]
26. Wood spirit is known as [AFMC 2004]
_S
(a) Thio-alcohols (b) Thio-ethers

(a) Methanol (b) Ethanol (c) Thio-acids (d) Thio-aldehydes
(c) Acetone (d) Benzene
pa
27. Oxygen atom in ether is [MP PMT/PET 1988] Preparation of alcohol, Phenol and Ethers
rk
(a) Very active (b) Replaceable

(c) Comparatively inert (d) Active
1. Ethanol is prepared industrially by [MP PMT 1989]
28. Which of the following is a simple ether [AFMC 1997]
(a) Hydration of ethylene (b) Fermentation of
(a) (b) sugars
(c) (d) (c) Both the above (d) None of these
2. Ethyl alcohol is industrially prepared from ethylene by
29. An example of a compound with the functional group
[CPMT 1985]
is [CPMT 1983]
(a) Permanganate oxidation
(a) Acetic acid (b) Methyl alcohol (b) Catalytic reduction
(c) Diethyl ether (d) Acetone
(c) Absorbing in followed by hydrolysis
30. Which of the following do not contain an acyl group
(d) Fermentation
(a) Acid chloride (b) Amide
3. Propene, can be converted to 1-
(c) Ester (d) Ether
propanol by oxidation. Which set of reagents among the
31. Name of is following is ideal to effect the conversion [CBSE PMT 1991]
[MP PMT 1992]
(a) Alkaline [MP PMT/PET 1988]
(a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Ethyl alcohol
(b) and alkaline
(c) Methyl alcohol (d) Propyl alcohol
(c) dust 14. Benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzaldehyde by
[CPMT 1983; MNR 1993]
(d)
(a) Fittig's reaction (b) Cannizaro's reaction
4. Which one of the following will produce a primary
(c) Kolbe's reaction (d) Wurtz's reaction
alcohol by reacting with [MP PET 1991]
15. Benzene diazonium chloride on boiling with dilute
(a) Acetone (b) Methyl cyanide sulphuric acid gives [MP PMT 1983]
(c) Ethylene oxide (d) Ethyl acetate (a) Toluene (b) Benzoic acid
5. The fermentation of starch to give alcohol occurs (c) Benzene (d) Phenol
mainly with the help of [CPMT 1971; MH CET 1999; RPMT 16. The reaction given below is known as
2000]
(a) (b) Air [CPMT 1990; KCET 1990; MH CET 2003; Pb. CET 2002]
(c) (d) Enzymes (a) Kolbe's synthesis (b) Wurtz's synthesis
6. Coconut oil upon alkaline hydrolysis gives (c) Williamson's synthesis (d) Grignard's synthesis
[MP PET 1991; AFMC 2000; KCET 2001; BCECE 2005] 17. Salicylaldehyde can be prepared from [CPMT 1983]
Te
(a) Glycol (b) Alcohol (a) Phenol and chloroform

(c) Glycerol (d) Ethylene oxide (b) Phenol, chloroform and sodium hydroxide
le
7. Which enzyme converts glucose and fructose both into (c) Phenol, carbon tetrachloride and NaOH
gr
ethanol (d) None of these

18. If formaldehyde and potassium hydroxide are heated,
am
[MP PMT 1989, 90, 96; CPMT 1983, 84, 86, 94;
KCET 1989; MNR 1978; MP PET 1994, 99] then we get [CPMT 1989, 90; KCET 2000]
(a) Diastase (b) Invertase (a) Acetylene (b) Methane
(c) Methyl alcohol (d) Ethyl formate
@
(c) Zymase (d) Maltase

8. Chlorination of toluene in the presence of light and 19. An organic compound dissolved in dry benzene
C
heat followed by treatment with aqueous NaOH gives evolved hydrogen on treatment with sodium. It is
he
[NCERT 1981; SCRA 1990]

[IIT-JEE 1990]
(a) A ketone (b) An aldehyde
(a) o-cresol (b) p-cresol
m
(c) A tertiary amine (d) An alcohol

(c) 2, 4-dihydroxy toluene (d) Benzyl alcohol
is
9. In the commercial manufacture of ethyl alcohol from

starchy substances by fermentation method, which
try
20. . The
enzymes stepwise complete the fermentation reaction
_S
[BIT 1992]
(a) Diastase, maltase and zymase reactant A is [MH CET 2002, 03; AFMC 2004; MP PMT/PET
pa
(b) Maltase, zymase and invertase 1988;

(c) Diastase, zymase and lactase EAMCET 1989; CPMT 1988; MP PET 2000]
rk
(d) Diastase, invertase and zymase (a) (b)

10. Primary alcohols can be obtained from the reaction of
(c) (d)
the RMgX with [Pb. PMT 2001]
21. The reaction, water gas
(a) (b)
atmosphere in presence of the catalyst is
(c) (d)
used for the manufacture of [MP PMT 1989]
11. On heating aqueous solution of benzene diazonium
(a) HCHO (b) HCOOH
chloride, which is formed [CPMT 1988; BHU 1980]
(a) Benzene (b) Chlorobenzene (c) (d)
(c) Phenol (d) Aniline 22.
12. converts acetic acid into
Product in above reaction is
[CPMT 1977; MP PMT 1990, 92]
[RPMT 2003]
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Methane
(a) (b)
(c) Ethyl alcohol (d) Methyl alcohol
13. Formaldehyde gives an additive product with methyl (c) (d) None of these
magnesium iodide which on aqueous hydrolysis gives
23. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating phthalic 33. Which one is not synthesized by Grignard reagent
anhydride with conc. and [BHU 1996] [MP PET 1991]
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Benzene (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
(c) Phenol (d) Benzoic acid (c) A ketone (d) An ester
24. Maltose on hydrolysis gives [BHU 1996; CPMT 2001] 34. Reaction of aqueous sodium hydroxide on (i) ethyl
(a) Mannose + glucose (b) Galactose + glucose bromide and (ii) chlorobenzene gives
(c) Glucose (d) Mannose + fructose (a) (i) Ethene and (ii) o-chlorophenol
25. Absolute alcohol can be obtained from rectified spirit (b) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) o-chlorophenol
[KCET 1985] (c) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) phenol
(a) By removing the water in it using concentrated (d) (i) Ethyl alcohol an d(ii) no reaction
sulphuric acid 35. RMgBr on reaction with an excess of oxygen followed
(b) By removing the water using phosphorus by hydrolysis gives [Roorkee Qualifying 1998]
pentoxide (a) RH (b) ROOR
(c) By distilling with the appropriate amount of (c) ROOH (d) ROH
benzene 36. The reaction between an ester and excess of Grignard
(d) By distilling over plenty of quick lime reagent shall finally result in a [UPSEAT 2000]
26. Grignard reagent reacts with compounds containing (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
Te
which of the following groups [MNR 1987] (c) Tertiary alcohol (d) Ketone
(a) (b) 37. The compound that will react most readily with NaOH
le
(c) (d) All of these to form methanol is [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2001]

gr
27. Oil Glycerol + Soap (a) (b)

am
Above reaction is called [UPSEAT 2001] (c) (d)

(a) Saponification (b) Esterification 38. When 2-ethylanthraquinol dissolved in a mixture of
(c) Hydrogenation (d) None of these benzene and cyclohexanol is oxidised, the product is
@
28. Acetone on treatment with and on [JIPMER 1999]

C
further hydrolysis gives [UPSEAT 2000] (a) Ethanol (b) Hydrogen peroxide
(a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Primary alcohol (c) Anthracene (d) None of these
he
(c) Acetic acid (d) 2-methyl 2-propanol 39. Which gas is eliminated in fermentation [RPMT 1997]
m
29. In the following reaction 'A' is (a) (b)

is
(c) (d)
try
40. Action of nitrous acid with ethylamine produces [BHU

2000]
_S
[MP PET 1994; CBSE PMT 1998] (a) Ethane (b) Ammonia
(a) (b) (c) Ethyl alcohol (d) Nitroethane
pa
41. The product of reduction of benzaldehyde is

(c) (d)
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Benzyl alcohol
30. Sodium benzene sulphonate reacts with NaOH and
rk
(c) Benzene (d) Catechol

then on acidic hydrolysis, it gives [Roorkee 1995; KCET
42. Commercially methanol is prepared by
1998]
[IIT 1984; MP PMT 1990; KCET 1992]
(a) Phenol (b) Benzoic acid
(a) Reduction of CO in presence of
(c) Benzene (d) Disodium
benzaldehyde (b) Methane reacts with water vapours at in
31. Phenol is obtained by heating aqueous solution of presence of Ni catalyst
[MP PMT 1995] (c) Reduction of HCHO by
(a) Aniline
(d) Reduction of HCHO by aqueous NaOH
(b) Benzene diazonium chloride
43. Action of water in the presence of sulphuric acid with
(c) Benzoic acid
the following alkenes
(d) None of these
32. reacts with HCHO to form last product (i) and
[MP PMT 1991]
(a) (b) (ii) gives
(c) (d)
(a) Dimethyl ether (b) Diethyl ether
(a) and (ii) (c) Methyl alcohol (d) Ethyl alcohol
51. The reagent used for the preparation of higher ether
from halogenated ethers is [Tamil Nadu CET 2001]
(a) conc. (b) Sodium alkoxide
(c) Dry silver oxide (d) Grignard reagent
(b) (i) and 52. Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of
followed by treatment with a saturated solution of
(ii) gives
[AIEEE 2004]
(c) (i) and (ii) (a) 2-methyl-2-propanol (b) Acetamide
(c) Acetone (d) Acetyl iodide
53. What is obtained when chlorine is passed in boiling
toluene and product is hydrolysed [DCE 2004]
(a) o-Cresol (b) p-Cresol
(d) (i) and (c) 2, 4-Dihydroxytoluene (d) Benzyl alcohol
Te
54. Which of the following is formed when benzaldehyde

(ii) reacts with sodium hydroxide [Pb. CET 2002]
le
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Benzoic acid

44. From Williamson’s synthesis preparation of which of
gr
(c) Glucose (d) Acetic acid

following is possible
am
(a) Only symmetrical ethers (b) Only symmetrical 55. When ethanal reacts with and
ethers /dry HCl the product formed are [DCE 2003]
(c) Both types (d) None of these
@
(a) Ethyl alcohol and 2-propanol

45. In the reaction A is
(b) Ethane and hemi-acetal
C
[MP PET 1994]

(a) An aldehyde (b) An aryl chloride (c) 2-propanol and acetal
he
(c) An ether (d) A ketone (d) Propane and methyl acetate

m
46. Williamson's synthesis is used to prepare 56. Which of the following is industrially prepared by
[DPMT 1976, 81, 82, 83, 84; CPMT 1976, 82]
is
passing ethylene into hypochlorous acid [BHU 2004]

(a) Acetone (b) Diethyl ether
try
(a) Ethylene glycol (b) Ethylene oxide

(c) P.V.C. (d) Bakelite
47. When an alkyl halide is allowed to react with a sodium (c) Ethylene dinitrate (d) Ethane
_S
alkoxide the product most likely is 57. In which case methyl-t-butyl ether is formed
[MP PMT 1996; EAMCET 1998]
pa
[Orissa JEE 2004]

(a) An aldehyde (b) A ketone
(c) An ether (d) A carboxylic acid (a)
rk
48. In Williamson's synthesis, ethoxyethane is prepared (b)

by
[MP PMT 1995; BHU 2005] (c)
(a) Passing ethanol over heated alumina (d)
(b) Sodium ethoxide with ethyl bromide
58. Which of the following combinations can be used to
(c) Ethyl alcohol with sulphuric acid
synthesize ethanol [KCET 2004]
(d) Ethyl iodide and dry silver oxide
49. Formation of diethyl ether from ethanol is based on a (a) and
[BVP 2003]
(b) and
(a) Dehydration reaction
(b) Dehydrogenation reaction (c) and
(c) Hydrogenation reaction
(d) and
(d) Heterolytic fission reaction
50. The compound formed when ethyl bromide is heated
with dry silver oxide is [MP PET/PMT 1988]
59. (c) Aldehyde (d) Tertiary alcohol
. In 3. The boiling point of alcohol are …. than corresponding
the above sequence X can be [DCE 2004] thiols [Pb. PMT 2000]
(a) (b) (a) More (b) Same

(c) Either of these (d) Less
4. Methyl alcohol can be distinguished from ethyl alcohol
60. Alkenes convert into alcohols by [MP PET 1991] using
(a) Hydrolysis by dil. [KCET 1984; BHU 2000]
(a) Fehling solution
(b) Hydration of alkene by alkaline
(b) Schiff's reagent
(c) Hydrolysis by water vapours and conc. (c) Sodium hydroxide and iodine
(d) Hydration of alkene by aqueous KOH (d) Phthalein fusion test
61. Acetic acid and are obtained on large scale 5. A compound X with molecular formula can
by destructive distillation of be oxidised to a compound Y with the molecular
(a) Wood (b) Coal formula X is most likely to be [MP PMT 1991]
Te
(c) Turpentine (d) Crude oil (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
(c) Aldehyde (d) Ketone
le
62. Which is formed when benzalamine react with nitrous

6. An alcohol on oxidation is found to give
gr
acid
[KCET (Med.) 2001] and The structure of the alcohol
am
(a) (b) is [BIT 1990]
(c) (d) (a)

@
63. Acid catalyzed hydration of alkenes except ethene (b)

C
leads to the formation of [AIEEE 2005] (c)

he
(a) Primary alcohol (d)

(b) Secondary or tertiary alcohol
m
7. An organic liquid A containing and O has a

(c) Mixture of primary and secondary alcohols
is
pleasant odour with a boiling point of On

(d) Mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
try
boiling A with conc. a colourless gas is

64. Methylphenyl ether can be obtained by reacting
produced which decolourises bromine water and
_S
[J & K 2005]
alkaline One mole of this gas also takes one
(a) Phenolate ions and methyl iodide
pa
mole of The organic liquid A is

(b) Methoxide ions and bromobenzene
[KCET 1993]
(c) Methanol and phenol
rk
(a) (b)
(d) Bromo benzene and methyl bromide
(c) (d)
Properties of alcohol, Phenol and Ethers 8. An aromatic amine (A) was treated with alcoholic
potash and another compound (Y) when foul smelling
gas was formed with formula Y was
1. Which compound is formed when reacts
formed by reacting a compound (Z) with in the
with [CPMT 1977, 89]
presence of slaked lime. The compound (Z) is [CBSE PMT
(a) Acetone (b) Alcohol 1990]
(c) Methane (d) Ethane (a) (b)
2. A compound X of formula yields a compound (c) (d)
, on oxidation. To which of the following 9. Rectified spirit obtained by fermentation contains
classes of compounds could X being [Pb. PMT 2000] 4.5% of water. So in order to remove it, rectified spirit
(a) Secondary alcohol (b) Alkene

is mixed with suitable quantity of benzene and heated. 19. Glycerol was distilled with oxalic acid crystals and the
Benzene helps because [KCET 1987] products were led into Fehling solution and warmed.
(a) It is dehydrating agent and so removes water Cuprous oxide was precipitated. It is due to [KCET 1987]
(b) It forms the lower layer which retains all the water (a) CO (b) HCHO
so that alcohol can be distilled off (c) (d) HCOOH
(c) It forms an azeotropic mixture having high boiling 20. Kolbe-Schmidt reaction is used for [CBSE PMT 1991]
point and thus allows the alcohol to distill over (a) Salicylic acid (b) Salicylaldehyde
(d) It forms low boiling azeotropic mixtures which (c) Phenol (d) Hydrocarbon
distill over, leaving behind pure alcohol which can 21. Which of the following explains the viscous nature of
then be distilled glycerol [JIPMER 1997]
10. (a) Covalent bonds (b) Hydrogen bonds
is an example of [BHU 1984] (c) Vander Wall's forces (d) Ionic forces
(a) Dow's reaction 22. On heating glycerol with conc. a compound
(b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction is obtained which has a bad odour. The compound is
(c) Schotten-Baumann reaction [CPMT 1974; CBSE PMT 1994]
(d) Kolbe's reaction (a) Glycerol sulphate (b) Acrolein
11. Ortho-nitrophenol is steam volatile whereas para- (c) Formic acid (d) Allyl alcohol
Te
nitrophenol is not. This is due to [CBSE PMT 1989] 23. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation forms
[CPMT 1971, 81, 94; RPMT 2002]
(a) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding present in
le
(a) Acetone (b) Ether

ortho-nitrophenol
(c) Ethylene (d) Acetaldehyde
gr
(b) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding

24. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in
(c) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding present in para-
am
weakly basic medium gives [IIT-JEE 1998]

nitrophenol
(a) Diphenyl ether (b) p-hydroxyazobenzene
(d) None of these
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Benzene
@
12. Reaction of phenol with dil. gives 25. The alcohol that produces turbidity immediately with
[KCET 1993; RPMT 1997]
conc. HCl at room temperature
C
(a) p and m-nitrophenols (b) o- and p-nitrophenols

[EAMCET 1997; MP PMT 1989, 99; IIT JEE 1981, 86;
he
(c) Picric acid (d) o- and m-nitrophenols CBSE PMT 1989; CPMT 1989;
13. Phenol is less acidic than MP PET 1997; JIPMER 1999]
m
[IIT-JEE 1986; UPSEAT 2003; Orissa JEE 2004] (a) 1-hydroxybutane

is
(a) Acetic acid (b) p-nitrophenol (b) 2-hydroxybutane

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (c) 2-hydroxy-2-methylpropane
try
14. The strongest acid among the following aromatic (d) 1-hydroxy-2-methylpropane
compounds is 26. The reagent which easily reacts with ethanol and
_S
[NCERT 1978]
(a) ortho-nitrophenol (b) para-chlorophenol propanol is
(c) para-nitrophenol (d) meta-nitrophenol [MP PET 1989]
pa
15. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some (a) Fehling solution (b) Grignard reagent
(c) Schiff's reagent (d) Tollen's reagent
rk
[CBSE PMT 1994]

(a) Pesticides (b) Proteins 27. Propene is the product obtained by dehydrogenation
(c) Dyes (d) Vitamins of
[KCET (Engg.) 2001]
16. Glycerol reacts with to form [CBSE PMT 1991]
(a) 2-propanol (b) 1-propanol
(a) Aldehyde (b) Allyl iodide
(c) Propanal (d) n-propyl alcohol
(c) Allyl alcohol (d) Acetylene
28. Which of the following statements is correct [BHU
17. When glycerine is added to a litre of water which of 1997]
the following behaviour is observed [NCERT 1977; BHU (a) Phenol is less acidic than ethyl alcohol
1979]
(b) Phenol is more acidic than ethyl alcohol
(a) Water evaporates more easily
(c) Phenol is more acidic than carboxylic acid
(b) The temperature of water is increased
(d) Phenol is more acidic than carbonic acid
(c) The freezing point of water is lowered
29. Boiling point of alcohol is comparatively higher than
(d) The viscosity of water is lowered
that corresponding alkane due to [MH CET 2002]
18. Final product formed on reduction of glycerol by
(a) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
hydroiodic acid is [CPMT 1987]
(b) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding
(a) Propane (b) Propanoic acid
(c) Volatile nature
(c) Propene (d) Propyne
(d) None of these (b) Formation of carbocation
30. When Phenol is heated with phthalic anhydride in (c) Elimination of water
concentrated sulphuric acid and the hot reaction
(d) Formation of an ester
mixture is poured into a dilute solution of sodium
hydroxide, the product formed is [MP PET 1997, 2003;
39. Phenol is less acidic than [MNR 1995]
RPMT 1999; (a) Ethanol (b) Methanol
KCET (Med.) 2000; CPMT 1981; CBSE PMT 1988] (c) o-nitrophenol (d) p-methylphenol
(a) Alizarin (b) Methyl orange
40. The compound which gives the most stable
(c) Fluorescein (d) Phenolphthalein
carbonium on dehydration is [MNR 1995]
31. X,
Product X is [RPET 2000] (a)
(a)
(b)
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d)
(b)
32. Reaction : product
Te
The product is [RPET 2000]

le
(a) (b) (c)

gr
(c) (d)
am
33. Ethylene glycol, on oxidation with per-iodic acid, gives (d)

[NCERT 1983; CPMT 1983]
(a) Oxalic acid (b) Glycol 41. At higher temperature, iodoform reaction is given by
@
(c) Formaldehyde (d) Glycollic acid [AIIMS 2003]

C
34. An unknown compound ‘D’, first oxidised to aldehyde (a) (b)

he
and then acitic acid by a dilute solution of (c) (d)

m
and . The unknown compound ‘D’ is [BHU 2000] 42. Cresol has [CPMT 2003]
is
(a) (b) (a) Alcoholic – (b) Phenolic –

try
(c) – (d) –
(c) (d)
43. In
_S
35. The reaction of ethylene glycol with gives

[MP PMT 2000] 'X' is
pa
(a) (b) (a) NaCl (b)

rk
(c) (d) (c) (d)
36. The compound ‘A’ when treated with ceric ammonium 44. Sodium phenoxide reacts with at and 4-7
nitrate solution gives yellow ppt. The compound ‘A’ is atm pressure to give [MP PET 1996]
[MP PET 2002] (a) Sodium salicylate (b) Salicylaldehyde
(a) Alcohol (b) Aldehyde (c) Catechol (d) Benzoic acid
(c) Acid (d) Alkane 45. The reaction of with does not
37. Which of the following product is formed, when ether give
is exposed to air [AIIMS 2000; RPMT 2002] [MP PET 1996]
(a) Oxide (b) Alkanes (a) Ethylene (b) Diethyl ether
(c) Alkenes (d) Peroxide of diethyl (c) Acetylene (d) Ethyl hydrogen
ether sulphate
38. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating 46. The order of stability of carbonium ions is [MP PET 1996]
with conc. the initiation step is [AIEEE 2003]

(a) Methyl > ethyl > iso-propyl > tert-butyl
(b) Tert-butyl > iso-propyl > ethyl > methyl
(a) Protonation of alcohol molecule
(c) Iso-propyl > tert-butyl > ethyl > methyl (d) Phenol, p-methylphenol, p-nitrophenol, m-
(d) Tert-butyl > ethyl > iso-propyl > methyl nitrophenol
47. Which statement is not correct about alcohol [AFMC 53. Which of the following is not characteristic of alcohols
1997] [AFMC 1992]
(a) Alcohol is lighter than water (a) Lower alcohols are stronger and have bitter taste
(b) Alcohol evaporates quickly (b) Higher alcohols are stronger and have bitter taste
(c) Alcohol of less no. of carbon atoms is less soluble (c) The boiling points of alcohols increase with
in water than alcohol of high no. of carbon atoms increasing
(d) All of these molecular mass
48. An organic compound A reacts with sodium metal and (d) The lower alcohols are soluble in water
forms B. On heating with conc. A gives 54. In reaction of alcohols with alkali metal, acid etc.
which of the following alcohol will react fastest [BHU
diethyl ether. A and B are [AFMC 1998]
1984]
(a) and
(a) Secondary (b) Tertiary
(b) and (c) Primary (d) All equal
(c) and 55. Order of reactivity of alcohols towards sodium metal is
Te
[Pb. CET 1985]

(d) and
(a) Pri > Sec > Ter (b) Pri > Sec < Ter
le
49. In the Liebermann's nitroso reaction, sequential (c) Pri < Sec > Ter (d) Pri < Sec < Ter
changes in the colour of phenol occurs as
gr
56. 23 g of Na will react with methyl alcohol to give

[AFMC 1998; BHU 1999] [NCERT 1972]
am
(a) Brown or red green red deep blue

(a) One mole of oxygen (b) One mole of
(b) Red deep blue green
(c) Red green white (c) (d) None of these
@
(d) White red green

57. Which reagent is useful in converting 1-butanol to 1-
C
50. Which one of the following reactions does not yield an bromobutane [EAMCET 1989]
he
alkyl halide [EAMCET 1998]

(a) (b)
(a) Diethyl ether
m
(c) (d)
(b) Diethyl ether
is
58. The group of methyl alcohol cannot be

(c) Diethyl ether and
try
replaced by chlorine by the action of [KCET 1989]

(d) Diethyl ether (a) Chlorine
_S
51. Compound A reacts with to give B which on (b) Hydrogen chloride

treatment with KCN followed by hydrolysis gave (c) Phosphorus trichloride
pa
propionic acid. What is A and B respectively [EAMCET (d) Phosphorus pentachloride

1998] 59. Which of the following gives ketone on oxidation
rk
(a) and [EAMCET 1987; BIT 1992]

(a) (b)
(b) and
(c) (d)
(c) and
60. Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well.
(d) and The white precipitate formed during the process is
52. The increasing order of acidity among phenol, p- [KCET (Med.) 2001; BIT 1992; AIIMS 1996; KCET 2001]
methylphenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol is (a) m-bromophenol
[CBSE PMT 1995; RPMT 2002] (b) 2, 4-dibromophenol
(a) m-nitrophenol, p-nitrophenol, phenol, p- (c) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
(d) A mixture of o- and p-bromophenols
methylphenol
(b) p-methylphenol, m-nitrophenol, phenol, p- 61. Which compound has the highest boiling point
[MP PET 2003]
nitrophenol
(c) p-methylphenol, phenol, m-nitrophenol, p- (a) Acetone (b) Diethyl ether
nitrophenol (c) Methanol (d) Ethanol
62. When vapour of ethanol are passed over platinised (c) Insoluble in all solvents
asbestos in excess of air, the compound formed is (d) Soluble in water on heating
[CPMT 1983] 69. Which of the following compounds is oxidised to
(a) (b) prepare methyl ethyl ketone [DCE 2001]
(a) 2 - propanol (b) 1 - butanol
(c) (d)
(c) 2 - butanol (d) Tert-butyl alcohol
63. Dehydration of ethanol gives [CPMT 1985; BHU 1989]
70. Which of the following is acidic
(a) Acetic acid (b) Ethane [CBSE PMT 2001; MH CET 2001]
(c) Ethylene (d) Acetylene
(a) (b)
64. Which of the following compound will give positive
(c) (d)
iodoform test [MP PMT 1986, 99; SCRA 1991; CPMT 1994]
71. With excess bromine, phenol reacts of form [BHU 2001]
OH OH
(a) (b) Br
(a) (b)
Te
Br
OH
Br Br
le
(c) (d)
(c) (d) Mixture of (a) and (b)
gr
Br
am
65. Absolute ethanol cannot be obtained by simple

fraction of a solution of ethanol and water because 72. Which is obtained on treating phenol, with dilute
@
[KCET 1984; MP PMT 1987]

(a) Their B.P.'s are very nearer OH OH [BVP 2003]
C
(b) Ethanol remains dissolved in water NO 2

he
(c) They form a constant boiling mixture

NO 2
m
(d) Ethanol molecules are solvated (a) (b)

66. The alcohol which easily reacts with conc. HCl is
is
[MP PMT 1985]

try
OH
(a)
O2 N NO 2
_S
(b) (c) (d) None of these
(c)
pa
NO 2
(d)
73. Primary alcohols on dehydration give [NCERT 1986]
rk
67. In the following series of chemical reactions, identify Z (a) Alkenes (b) Alkanes
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
74. Primary and secondary alcohols on action of reduced
[Manipal MEE 1995] copper give [CPMT 1982; MP PMT 1985;
EAMCET 1987, 93; MP PET 1995]
(a) (b) (a) Aldehydes and ketones respectively
(b) Ketones and aldehydes respectively
(c) Only aldehydes
(c) (d) (d) Only ketones
75. Methyl alcohol on oxidation with acidified
68. Alcohols of low molecular weight are gives
[CPMT 1976, 89; Pb. PMT 2000] [MNR 1987]
(a) Soluble in water
(a) (b)
(b) Soluble in all solvents
(c) (d) (d) It does not show acidic property
86. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with [MP PMT 2000]
76. Ethyl alcohol on oxidation with gives
[MNR 1987; Bihar CEE 1995; UPSEAT 2000] (a) (b)
(a) Acetic acid (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) (d)
(c) Formaldehyde (d) Formic acid
87. Which of the following reagents convert the propene
77. Lucas test is used for
to 1-propanol [CBSE PMT 2000]
[CBSE PMT 1990; AIIMS 2002; AFMC 2005]
(a) Alcohols (b) Amines (a)
(c) Diethyl ether (d) Glacial acetic acid (b) Aqueous
78. When phenol reacts with ammonia in presence of (c)
at 300°C, it gives [AFMC 2001]
(d)
(a) Primary amine (b) Secondary amine
(c) Tertiary amine (d) Both (b) and (c) 88. Compound ‘A’ reacts with to give ‘B’ which on
79. Azo-dyes are prepared from [CPMT 2001] treatment with followed by hydrolysis gave
(a) Aniline (b) Benzaldehye propanoic acid as the product. What is ‘A’ [CBSE PMT
Te
2002]
(c) Benzoic acid (d) Phenol
(a) Ethane (b) Propane
le
80. A compound that easily undergoes bromination is

[KCET (Engg.) 2002] (c) Ethyl chloride (d) Ethyl alcohol
gr
(a) Phenol (b) Toluene 89. Which reagent can convert acetic acid into ethanol
am
[BVP 2003]
(c) Benzene (d) Benzoic acid
81. Which of the following has lowest boiling point (a) alcohol (b) ether
@
[MH CET 1999] (c) (d)

(a) p-nitrophenol (b) m-nitrophenol
90. Which of the following would undergo dehydration
C
(c) o-nitrophenol (d) phenol most readily [UPSEAT 2000]

he
82. In esterification, the reactivity of alcohols is [DPMT

(a) 1-phenyl-1butanol (b) 2-phenyl-2-butanol
2000]
m
(c) 1-phenyl-2-butanol (d) 2-phenyl-1-butanol

(a) 1° > 2° > 3° (b) 3° > 2° > 1°
is
91. Phenol and benzoic acid is distinguished by [BHU 2003]

(c) Same in all cases (d) None of these
try
(a) (b)
83. The role of conc. in the esterification process
_S
is (c) (d)
[RPMT 1999] 92. Electrophilic substitution reaction in phenol take place
pa
(a) Catalyst at
(b) Dehydrating agent
rk
[RPMT 2002]
(c) Hydrolysing agent (a) p- position (b) m- position
(d) Dehydrating agent and catalyst (c) o- position (d) o- and p- position
84. Methanol and ethanol are distinguished by the
93. Liebermann's test is answered by [KCET 1998]
[MP PET 1999]
(a) Aniline (b) Methylamine
(a) Action of HCl (b) Iodoform test
(c) Ethyl benzoate (d) Phenol
(c) Solubility in water (d) Sodium
94. In the sequence of the following reactions [MP PMT
85. For phenol, which of the following statements is
2002]
correct
[MP PMT 1995]
(a) It is insoluble in water X is
(b) It has lower melting point compared to aromatic
(a) (b)
hydrocarbons of comparable molecular weight
(c) It has higher boiling point than toluene (c) (d)
95. The boiling point of glycerol is more than propanol [MP PET 1991; CPMT 1981; MP PMT 1990;
because of [CPMT 1997, 2002] IIT 1982; RPMT 2000]
(a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Hybridisation (a) m-bromophenol (b) o-and p-bromophenol
(c) Resonance (d) All the above (c) p-bromophenol (d) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
96. Which of the following produces violet colour with 105. Oxidation of ethanol by chromic acid forms [MP PET
1992]
solution
(a) Ethanol (b) Methanol
(a) Enols (b) Ethanol (c) 2-propanone (d) Ethanoic acid
(c) Ethanal (d) Alkyl halides 106. Which of the following not gives effervescence with
97. When heated with under pressure alone or in [MP PET 1992]
presence of zinc chloride phenols are converted into (a) Phenol (b) Benzoic acid
[RPMT 1997] (c) 2, 4-dinitrophenol (d) 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol
(a) Aminophenols (b) Aniline 107. Conc. reacts with at to
(c) Nitrobenzene (d) Phenyl hydroxylamine form
98. Because of resonance the oxygen atom of [MP PMT 1991; MP PET 1991; IIT-JEE 1981;
Te
group of phenol EAMCET 1979; KCET 2001]

(a) Acquires positive charge (b) Acquires negative (a) (b)
le
charge
(c) (d)
gr
(c) Remains uneffected (d) Liberates

108. Which compound has hydrogen bonding
am
99. When glycerol is heated with it gives [MP PMT 1992; MP PET 1991]
[CPMT 1974, 85; MP PMT 1988, 90, 91, 92, 94; (a) Toluene (b) Phenol
@
MP PET 1988, 92] (c) Chlorobenzene (d) Nitrobenzene

(a) (b) 109. Which statement is true [MP PMT 1991]
C
(a) is more acidic than

he
(c) (d) (b) is less acidic than

m
100. An organic compound X on treatment with acidified (c) react with

is
gives a compound Y which reacts with

(d) gives oxime with and
try
and sodium carbonate to form tri-odomethane. The

compound X is [KCET 1996] 110. Read the following statements carefully :
_S
(A) A secondary alcohol on oxidation gives a ketone

(a) (b)
(B) Ethanol reacts with conc. at to
pa
(c) (d)
yield ethylene
rk
101. The reaction of conc. and phenol forms

(C) Methanol reacts with iodine and sodium
[MP PMT/PET 1988; BHU 1988; MP PMT 1999; Pb. PMT 2000] hydroxide to give a yellow precipitate of iodoform
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Salicylic acid
(D) Hydrogen gas is liberated when sodium is added
(c) o-and p-nitrophenol (d) Picric acid to alcohol. Select the correct statements from the
102. Phenol is [MP PMT 1990; UPSEAT 1999] above set:
(a) A weaker base than (a) A, B (b) C, D
(b) Stronger than carbonic acid (c) A, B, D (d) A, C, D
(c) Weaker than carbonic acid 111. The following reaction :
(d) A neutral compound OH OH
103. Phenol at is
(a) A white crystalline solid (b) A transparent liquid CHO
(c) A gas (d) Yellow solution is known as [MP PET 1997]
104. At low temperature phenol reacts with in to (a) Perkin reaction

form
(b) Gattermann reaction (a) (b)
(c) Kolbe reaction (c) (d)
(d) Gattermann-Koch reaction 118. The final product of the oxidation of ethyl alcohol is
112. Carbylamine test is done by heating alcoholic KOH [KCET (Med.) 1999 ]
with (a) Ethane (b) Acetone
[IIT-JEE 1984; BIT 1992; CBSE PMT 1992]
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Acetic acid
(a) Chloroform and silver powder
119. The compound obtained by heating salicylic acid with
(b) Trihalogen methane and primary amine
phenol in the presence of phosphorus oxychloride is
(c) Alkyl halide and primary amine [KCET (Med.) 1999]
(d) Alkyl cyanide and primary amine
(a) Salol (b) Aspirin
113. Isopropyl alcohol heated at with copper (c) Oil of wintergreen (d) o-chlorobenzoyl
catalyst to form [AFMC 1990; MP PMT 1986, 89, 92; JIPMER chloride
2000]
120. When phenol is allowed to react with in (i)
(a) Acetone (b) Dimethyl ether
solution and (ii) in aqueous solution, the resulting
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Ethane
Te
compounds are
(a) (i) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol and
114. Dehydrogenation of gives
le
(ii) o-and p-bromophenol

gr
[MP PMT 2002] (b) (i) m-bromophenol and

am
(a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehyde (ii) 2, 3, 4-tribromophenol

(c) Acetic acid (d) Acetylene (c) (i) o-and p-bromophenol and
115. In the sequence of the following reactions (ii) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
@
(d) (i) o- and m-bromophenol and

C
(ii) 2, 3, 4-tribromophenol
X and Y are respectively [MP PMT 2002]
he
121. Which of the following is not true in case of reaction

(a) and
with heated copper at [CPMT 1999]
m
(b) and (a) Phenol Benzyl alcohol

is
(c) and (b) Primary alcohol Aldehyde

try
(d) and (c) Secondary alcohol Ketone

_S
116. Alcohols (i) (ii) (d) Tertiary alcohol Olefin

122. Which of the following is the most suitable method for
and (iii)
pa
removing the traces of water from ethanol [CPMT 1999]

were treated with
(a) Heating with Na metal
rk
Lucas reagent (Conc. What results do (b) Passing dry HCl through it
you expect at room temperature (c) Distilling it
(a) (ii) and (iii) react immediately and (i) in about 5 (d) Reacting with Mg
minutes
123. With oxalic acid, glycerol at gives [BHU 1996]
(b) (iii) reacts immediately, (ii) reacts in about 5
minutes and (i) not at all (a) Allyl alcohol (b) Glyceryl mono-oxalate
(c) (i) reacts immediately, (ii) reacts in about 5 (c) Formic acid (d) Glyceraldehyde
minutes and (iii) not at all 124. Absolute alcohol cannot be prepared by fractional
(d) (i) reacts in about 5 minutes, (ii) reacts in about 15 distillation of rectified spirit since
minutes and (iii) not at all (a) It forms azeotropic mixture
117. Ethylene may be obtained by dehydration of which of (b) It is used as power alcohol
the following with concentrated at 160 – (c) It is used in wines
170°C (d) None of the above
[DPMT 2000; MP PET 2001] 125. The reagent used for the dehydration of an alcohol is
[MP PET/PMT 1998] (c) Lower members are insoluble in water and
(a) Phosphorus pentachloride organic solvents but solubility regularly increases
(b) Calcium chloride with molecular weight
(c) Aluminium oxide (d) Lower members have pleasant smell and burning
(d) Sodium chloride taste, while higher members are odourless and
126. Which one of the following compounds gives a tasteless
positive iodoform test [MP PMT 1997] 134. At room temperature the alcohol that do not reacts
(a) Pentanal (b) 1-phenyl ethanol with Lucas reagent is
(c) 2-phenyl ethanol (d) 3-pentanol (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
127. What amount of bromine will be required to convert 2 (c) Tertiary alcohol (d) All these three
g of phenol into 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol [MP PET/PMT 135. By means of calcium chloride which of following can
1998] be dried
(a) 4.00 (b) 6.00 (a) Methanol (b) Ethanol
(c) 10.22 (d) 20.44 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
128. Ethyl alcohol exhibits acidic character on reacting with 136. Lucas test is used to distinguish between [MP PET 1994]
Te
[MP PMT 1995] (a) and alcohols (b) and

(a) Acetic acid
le
amines
(b) Sodium metal
gr
(c) Aldehydes and ketones (d) Alkenes and alkynes

(c) Hydrogen iodide 137. Among the following, the compound that undergoes
am
(d) Acidic potassium dichromate nitration readily is [NCERT 1984]

129. The mixture of ethanol and water cannot be separated (a) Benzoic acid (b) Toluene
@
by distillation because [KCET 1984] (c) Phenol (d) Nitrobenzene

(a) They form a constant boiling mixture
C
138.
(b) Alcohol molecules are solvated
he
(c) Their boiling points are very near In the above reaction A, B and C are the following
m
(d) Alcohol remains dissolved in water compounds [MP PMT/PET 1988]

is
130. The reaction between an alcohol and an acid with the (a) and aniline
try
elimination of water molecule is called [MH CET 1999]

(b) dinitrobenzene and metanitroaniline
(a) Esterification (b) Saponification
(c) Toluene, metanitrobenzene and metatoluedine
_S
(c) Etherification (d) Elimination

(d) and hydrazobenzene
131. The compound with the highest boiling point is
pa
[MNR 1985] 139. and

rk
(a) (b) exhibit which type of isomerism

[MP PMT 1989]
(c) (d)
(a) Metamerism (b) Position
132. The boiling point of ethyl alcohol should be less than (c) Chain (d) Functional
that of
140. Phenol reacts with in presence of aqueous alkali
[Pb. CET 1985]
and forms a product which on hydrolysis gives [MP PMT
(a) Propane (b) Formic acid 1990]
(c) Dimethyl ether (d) None of these (a) Salicylaldehyde (b) Salicylic acid
133. Which of the following is not characteristic of alcohols (c) Benzaldehyde (d) Benzoic acid
[AIIMS 1980]
141. In fermentation by zymase, alcohol and are
(a) They are lighter than water
obtained from the following sugar [MP PMT/PET 1988]
(b) Their boiling points rise fairly uniformly with
(a) Glucose (b) Invert sugar
increasing molecular weight
(c) Fructose (d) All of these
142. The order of melting point of ortho, para, meta- 150. Conc. heated with excess of at
nitrophenol is [Orissa JEE 2003] to form [MP PMT 1990; RPMT 2000; AFMC 2002]
(a) o > m > p (b) p > m > o (a)
(c) m > p > o (d) p > o > m
(b)
143. The alcohol which does not give a stable compound
(c)
on dehydration is [MP PET 1997]
(d)
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Methyl alcohol
151. Rate of substitution reaction in phenol is [MP PMT 1989]
(c) n-propyl alcohol (d) n-butyl alcohol
(a) Slower than the rate of benzene
144. When ethyl alcohol is mixed with (b) Faster than the rate of benzene
ammonia and passed over heated alumina, the (c) Equal to the rate of benzene
compound formed is (d) None of these
[DPMT 1981; CBSE PMT 1989] 152. Phenol reacts with dilute at normal
(a) (b) temperature to form [MP PMT 1989]
(c) (d) HO HO HO
O2 N NO2 NO2
Te
145. A mixture of methanol vapours and air is passed over

(a) (b) +
heated copper. The products are [KCET 1988]
le
(a) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen NO2 NO2

gr
(b) Formaldehyde and water vapour

am
(c) Formic acid and water vapour OH HO

(d) Carbon monoxide and water vapour NO2
146. In the esterification reaction of alcohols [Bihar CEE 1995] (c) (d)
@
NO2
(a) is replaced by group
C
153. One mole of phenol reacts with bromine to form

(b) is replaced by chlorine
he
tribromophenol. How much bromine is used

(c) is replaced by sodium metal [MP PMT 1989]
m
(a) 1. 5 mol (b) 3 mol

(d) is replaced by
(c) 4.5 mol (d) 6 mol
is
147. A compound A on oxidation gave acetaldehyde, then 154. In presence of NaOH, phenol react with to
try
again on oxidation gave acid. After first oxidation it

form o-hydroxy benzaldehyde. This reaction is called
_S
was reacted with ammoniacal then silver [BIT 1992; MP PMT 1990, 2002;
mirror was produced. A is likely to be [DPMT 1996] AIIMS 1992; MP PET 1994; JIPMER 1999]
pa
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Tertiary alcohol (a) Riemer-Tiemann's reaction

(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Acetone (b) Sandmeyer's reaction
rk
(c) Hoffmann's degradation reaction

148. Phenol Salicyldehyde
(d) Gattermann's aldehyde synthesis
The above reaction is known as [Pb. PMT 2002] 155. Which of the following vapours passed over heated
(a) Riemer Tiemann reaction copper to form acetone [BIT 1992]
(b) Bucherer reaction (a)
(c) Gattermann synthesis
(d) Perkin reaction (b)
149. Alcohol which gives red colour with Victor Meyer test
is
[RPMT 2003]
(c)
(a) (b)
(c) (d) None of these (d)

156. Methyl alcohol (methanol), ethyl alcohol (ethanol) and 165. Phenol on distillation with zinc dust gives
acetone (propanone) were treated with iodine and [MP PET 1991; CPMT 1997; MP PMT 1999, 2001;
sodium hydroxide solutions. Which substances will give Pb. PMT 2000]
iodoform test (a) (b)
(a) Only ethyl alcohol (c) (d)
(b) Only methyl alcohol and ethyl alcohol
166. Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water due to
(c) Only ethyl alcohol and acetone
[MP PET/PMT 1988; CPMT 1989; CBSE PMT 1991]
(d) Only acetone (a) Covalent character
157. TNT has the structure [UPSEAT 2000]
(b) Hydrogen bonding character
CH3 OH (c) Oxygen bonding character
O2 N O2 N (d) None of these
(a) (b) 167. By distilling glycol with fuming sulphuric acid, which of
NO2 NO2
following is obtained
NO2 NO2
(a) Glycerol (b) Pinacol
CH3 OH
(c) Dioxan (d) Ethylene oxide
NO2 O2 N NO2
Te
(c) (d) 168. The compound which gives the most stable
O2 N NO2 carbonium ion on dehydration is [DCE 2000]
le
NO2
(a)
gr
158. The vapour pressure of aqueous solution of methanal

am
is
[UPSEAT 2000]
(a) Equal to water (b) Equal to methanal (b)
@
(c) More than water (d) Less than water

C
159. Glycerol reacts with conc. and conc. (c)

he
to form [CPMT 1983; MP PMT/PET 1988]

(a) Glycerol mononitrate (b) Glycerol dinitrate (d)
m
(c) Glycerol trinitrate (d) Acrolein

is
160. Glycerol heated with oxalic acid at to form 169. In which bond dissociates
try
[CPMT 1986, 90, 91, 97; JIPMER 1997] heterolytically

(a) Formic acid (b) Oxalic acid [IIT-JEE 1988; CPMT 1996]
_S
(c) Allyl alcohol (d) Glycerol trioxalate (a) C – C (b) C – O

161. Dimethyl ether and ethyl alcohol are (c) C – H (d) O – H
pa
[CPMT 1986; Manipal MEE 1995]

170. Which compound is soluble in water
(a) Branched isomer (b) Position isomer
[IIT-JEE 1980; CPMT 1993; RPET 1999]
rk
(c) Functional isomer (d) Tautomer

(a) (b)
162. The process of manufacture of absolute alcohol from
rectified spirit is [CPMT 1986, 87; Kurukshetra CEE 2002] (c) (d)
(a) Fractional distillation (b) Steam distillation 171. Which of the following is most soluble in water
(c) Azeotropic distillation (d) Vacuum distillation [MP PMT 1995]
163. When ethyl alcohol reacts with acetic acid, the (a) Normal butyl alcohol (b) Isobutyl alcohol
products formed are [CPMT 1989] (c) Tertiary butyl alcohol (d) Secondary butyl
(a) Sodium ethoxide + hydrogen alcohol
(b) Ethyl acetate + water 172. Which of the following gives negative iodoform test
(c) Ethyl acetate + soap
(a) (b)
(d) Ethyl alcohol + water
164. Picric acid is (at )
(c) (d)
(a) A white solid (b) A colourless liquid
(c) A gas (d) A bright yellow solid
173. If ethanol dissolves in water, then which of the (a) (b)
following would be done [MP PET 1989]
(c) (d)
(a) Absorption of heat and contraction in volume
184. Alcohols combine with acetylene in the presence of
(b) Emission of heat and contraction in volume
mercury compounds as catalyst to form
(c) Absorption of heat and increase in volume
(a) Acetals (b) Xanthates
(d) Emission of heat and increase in volume
(c) Vinyl ethers (d) None of the above
174. A migration of hydrogen with a pair of electrons is
185. The compound which will give negative iodoform test
called
is
(a) Alkyl shift (b) Hydride shift
[CPMT 1993, 99]
(c) Hydrogen ion formation (d) Dehydrogenation
(a) (b)
175. When rectified spirit and benzene are distilled
together, the first fraction obtained is (c) Isopropyl alcohol (d) Benzyl alcohol
(a) A ternary azeotrope (b) Absolute alcohol 186. Which of the following is most acidic [CPMT 1999]
(c) A binary azeotrope (d) Denatured spirit (a) Phenol (b) Benzyl alcohol
176. Alcohols react with Grignard reagent to form [DPMT (c) m-chlorophenol (d) Cyclohexanol
Te
1986] 187. Number of metamers represented by molecular

(a) Alkanes (b) Alkenes formula is [Tamil Nadu CET 2001]
le
(c) Alkynes (d) All of these (a) 4 (b) 3

gr
177. Action of diazomethane on phenol liberates (c) 2 (d) 1

am
(a) (b) 188. When ether is exposed in air for sometime an

explosive substance produced is [RPMT 2002]
(c) (d)
@
(a) Peroxide (b) TNT

178. The ring deuteration of phenol
(c) Oxide (d) Superoxide
C
(a) Lowers the acidity

189. Ether which is liquid at room temperature is [BVP 2002]
he
(b) Increases the acidity

(a) (b)
(c) Imparts no effect
m
(d) Causes amphoteric nature (c) (d) None of these

is
179. In esterification of an acid, the other reagent is 190. In the following reaction
try
[CPMT 1988] X is
(a) Aldehyde (b) Alcohol [MP PMT 2002]
_S
(c) Amine (d) Water (a) Ethane (b) Ethylene

180. Maximum solubility of alcohol in water is due to (c) Butane (d) Propane
pa
[MP PMT/ PET 1988; MP PMT 1989] 191. Diethyl ether absorbs oxygen to form [DPMT 1984]
rk
(a) Covalent bond (b) Ionic bond (a) Red coloured sweet smelling compound
(c) H-bond with (d) None of the above (b) Acetic acid
(c) Ether suboxide
181. Alcohols can be distinguished from alkenes by
(d) Ether peroxide
(a) Dissolving in cold concentrated
192. Diethyl ether can be decomposed by heating with
(b) Decolourizing with bromine in [CPMT 1980, 81, 89]
(c) Oxidizing with neutral permanganate solution (a) HI (b) NaOH
(d) None of the above (c) Water (d)
182. At Ethylene glycol is a 193. On boiling with concentrated hydrobromic acid,
(a) Solid compound (b) Liquid phenyl ethyl ether will yield [AIIMS 1992]
(c) Gas (d) Brown solid (a) Phenol and ethyl bromide
183. When primary alcohol is oxidised with chlorine, it (b) Phenol and ethane
produces (c) Bromobenzene and ethanol
[AFMC 1999] (d) Bromobenzene and ethane
194. Ether is formed when ethyl alcohol is heated with 202. Etherates are
conc. The conditions are [KCET 1984] (a) Ethers
(b) Solution in ether
(a) Excess of and
(c) Complexes of ethers with Lewis acid
(b) Excess of and
(d) Complexes of ethers with Lewis base
(c) Excess of and 203. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the
(d) Excess of conc. and same molecular formula. This is due to [AIEEE 2003]
(a) Dipolar character of ethers
195. The ether O CH2
(b) Alcohols having resonance structures
(c) Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
when treated with HI produces [IIT-JEE 1999]
(d) Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
204. When ether is reacted with it undergoes
(a) (b)
explosion due to [CPMT 1996]
(c) (d) (a) Peroxide (b) Acid
I OH (c) Ketone (d) TNT
Te
196. Addition of alcohols to aldehydes in presence of

205. The compound which does not react with sodium is
anhydrous acids yield [CET Pune 1998]
[CBSE PMT 1994]
le
(a) Carboxylic acids (b) Ethers

(a) (b)
gr
(c) Cyclic ethers (d) Acetals

(c) (d)
am
197. In which of the following reaction, phenol or sodium

phenoxide is not formed [CPMT 1996]
(a) 206. Methyl-terbutyl ether on heating with HI of one molar
@
concentration gives [MP PET 1997]

(b)
C
(a) (b)
(c)
he
(d)
(c) (d) None of the above
m
198. Dimethyl ether when heated with excess HI gives

is
207. A substance yields on oxidation a

[CPMT 1996]
try
(a) and compound which gives an oxime and a

positive iodoform test. The original substance on
(b) and
_S
treatment with conc. gives . The

(c) and
structure of the compound is [SCRA 2000]
pa
(d) and HCHO

(a)
rk
199. The ether that undergoes electrophilic substitution

(b)
reactions is [JIPMER 2001]
(a) (b) (c)
(c) (d) (d)

200. Acetyl chloride does not react with [MNR 1995] 208. Ethylene glycol reacts with excess of to give
(a) Diethyl ether (b) Aniline [Kerala PMT 2004]
(c) Phenol (d) Ethanol (a) 1, 1-dichloroethane
201. The products formed in the following reaction (b) 1, 2-dicholoroethane
are [IIT 1995] (c) 1, 1, 1-trichloroethane
(a) and (d) 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloroethane
(e) 2, 2-dichloroethane
(b) and
209. Which of the following will not react with NaOH
(c) and HOI OH [CPMT 2004]
(d) and O2 N NO 2
NO 2
(a) (b) 214. Which of the following reagents will produce
salicyldehyde on reaction with phenol [DPMT 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
215. At 530 K, glycerol reacts with oxalic acid to produce
210. The boiling point of methanol is greater than that of
[Pb. CET 2002]
methyl thiol because [Kerala PMT 2004]
(a) Allyl alcohol (b) Formic acid
(a) There is intramolecular hydrogen bonding in
(c) Glyceraldehyde (d) Glycerol monooxalate
methanol and intermolecular hydrogen bonding
in methyl thiol 216. With anhydrous zinc chloride, ethylene glycol gives
(b) There is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in [MP PMT 2004]
methanol and no hydrogen bonding in methyl (a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetylene

thiol (c) Acetaldehyde (d) Acetone
(c) There is no hydrogen bonding in methanol and 217. Which of the following compound give yellow
intermolecular hydrogen bonding in methyl thiol precipitate with and NaOH [Pb. CET 2003]
Te
(d) There is intramolecular hydrogen bonding in

(a) (b)
methanol and no hydrogen bonding in methyl
le
thiol (c) (d)

gr
(e) There is no hydrogen bonding in methanol and 218. Amongst the following, HBr reacts fastest with
intramolecular hydrogen bonding in methyl thiol [IIT-JEE 1986; JIPMER 2000; DCE 2003]
am
(a) Propane-1-ol (b) Propane-2-ol

(c) 2-methyl propane-1-ol (d) 2-methyl propane-2-ol
211. In the reaction product (A)
@
219. Which of the following react with benzoic acid to form

ethyl benzoate [Pb. CET 2001]
C
will be [Pb . CET 2001] (a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Cinnamic acid
he
(a) Glycerol monoformate (c) Sodium ethoxide (d) Ethyl chloride

m
(b) Allyl alcohol 220. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with t-
(c) Formaldehyde butanol, the product would be
is
(d) Acetic acid (a) Benzene (b) Phenol

try
212. Which of the following will not form a yellow (c) t-butyl benzene (d) t-butyl ether
_S
precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution of 221. Which of the following is used as catalyst for
iodine preparing Grignard reagent [Pb. CET 2002]
pa
[CBSE PMT 2004] (a) Iron powder (b) Dry ether

(a)
rk
(c) Activated charcoal (d)

(b) 222. Ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. . The
(c) product formed is [DCE 2004]
(d)
(a) (b)
213. In Friedal-Crafts acylation, besides , the other
reactants are [DPMT 2004] (c) (d)
OH OH
223. Dehydration of 2-butanol yield [Pb. CET 2004]
(a) (b) (a) 1-butene (b) 2-butene
(c) 2-butyne (d) Both (a) and (b)
OH
224. Fats, on alkaline hydrolysis, gives [MH CET 2003]
(a) Oils (b) Soaps
(c) (d)
(c) Detergents (d) Glycol + acid
225. When vapours of an alcohol are passed over hot
233. A and B respectively are
reduced copper, alcohol is converted into alkene
quickly, the alcohol is [CPMT 1985] [RPMT/PET 2000]
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (a) Alkene, alkanal (b) Alkyne, alkanal
(c) Tertiary (d) None of these (c) Alkanal, alkene (d) Alkene, alkyne
226. The adduct of the compound 'A' obtained by the 234. Which one of the following reactions would produce
secondary alcohol [MP PET 1994]
reaction with excess of isopropyl magnesium iodide,
upon hydrolysis gives a tertiary alcohol. The
compound 'A' is (a)
[MP PET 1985]
(a) An ester (b) A secondary alcohol
(c) A primary alcohol (d) An aldehyde (b)
227. If there be a compound of the formula
which one of the following
(c)
compounds would be obtained from it without
Te
reaction with any reagent [CPMT 1983]

(d)
le
(a) (b)
gr
(c) (d) HCHO

235. On reaction with hot conc. which one of the
am
228. Which of the following can work as a dehydrating

following compounds loses a molecule of water
agent for alcohols [BHU 1980] [CPMT 1989]
(a) (b) (a) (b)
@
(c) (d) All of these (c) (d)

C
229. What is formed when glycerol reacts with HI [DCE 2002] 236. The best method to prepare cyclohexene from
he
cyclohexanol is by using [IIT 2005]

(a) Conc. HCl + ZnCl2 (b) Conc. H3PO4
m
(a) (b) (c) HBr (d) Conc. HCl

is
237. Which of the following compound is most acidic

try
[BCECE 2005]
(a) (b)
_S
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
pa
238. can be differentiated from by

[MP PMT 1994]
rk
230. The dehydration of 2-methyl butanol with conc. (a) Reaction with HCl (b) Reaction with
gives [UPSEAT 2004] (c) By iodoform test (d) By solubility in water
(a) 2-methyl butene as major product 239. A compound does not react with 2.4 di-nitrophenyl
hydrazine and Na , compound is [UPSEAT 2003]
(b) Pentene
(a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) 2-methyl but-2-ene as major product
(c) (d)
(d) 2-methyl pent-2-ene
240. Which of the following reaction is correctly
231. Which alcohol reacts with fatty acids to form fats represented
[MP PMT/PET 1988; MP PET 1991] [Orissa JEE 2005]
(a) Ethanol (b) Glycerol CH3 OCH3 CH3 OH
(c) Methanol (d) Isopropanol (a)
232. Which will dehydrate easily [Roorkee 1995]
CH3 OCH3 CH3 Br
(a) 3-methyl-2-butanol (b) Ethyl alcohol (b)
(c) 2-methyl propane-2-ol (d) 2-methyl butanol-2
CH3 OCH3 Br OCH3
(a) (b)
(c)
(c) (d)
CH3 4. Aspirin is also known as [CPMT 1989, 94; MP PET 1995]

OCH3 H OCH3
(a) Methyl salicylic acid (b) Acetyl salicylic acid
(d)
(c) Acetyl salicylate (d) Methyl salicylate
5. Substances used in bringing down the temperature in
241. Tertiary butyl alcohol gives tertiary butyl chloride on
high fevers are called [DPMT 1983]
treatment with [Orissa JEE 2005]
(a) Pyretics (b) Antipyretics
(a) Conc. /anhydrous
(c) Antibiotics (d) Antiseptics
(b) 6. When glycol is heated with dicarboxylic acid, the
(c) products are
(d) (a) Polyesters (b) Polyethers
(c) Polyethylene (d) No reaction at all
242. 7. Cresol is [BHU 1996]
(a) A mixture of three cresols with little phenol
[DPMT 2005]
(b) Used as dye for wood
Te
(a) (c) A soapy solution of cresols

(d) Having an aldehyde group
le
(b) 8. Phenol is used in the manufacture of [AIIMS 1996]

gr
(a) Bakelite (b) Polystyrene

am
(c) (c) Nylon (d) PVC

9. In cold countries ethylene glycol is added to water in
(d)
the radiators to [CPMT 1971; NCERT 1971; MP PMT 1993]
@
(a) Bring down the specific heat of water

243. In which of the following reactions carbon carbon (b) Lower the viscosity
C
bond formation takes place [DPMT 2005] (c) Reduce the viscosity
he
(a) Cannizzaro (b) Reimer-Tiemann (d) Make water a better lubricant

(c) HVZ reaction (d) Schmidt reaction 10. Power alcohol is
m
[KCET 1990]
244. Reaction of phenol with chloroform/sodium hydroxide (a) An alcohol of 95% purity
is
to give -hydroxy benzaldehyde involves the (b) A mixture of petrol hydrocarbons and ethanol
try
formation of (c) Rectified spirit

[J & K 2005] (d) A mixture of methanol and ethanol
_S
(a) Dichloro carbene (b) Trichloro carbene 11. 4-chloro-3, 5-dimethyl phenol is called [KCET 2003]
(c) Chlorine atoms (d) Chlorine molecules (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Paracetamol
pa
245. Which is not correct [J & K 2005] (c) Barbital (d) Dettol
(a) Phenol is more acidic than acetic acid 12. Alcoholic fermentation is brought about by the action
rk
(b) Ethanol is less acidic than phenol of

(c) Ethanol has lower boiling point than ethane [CPMT 1977, 79, 88; DPMT 1983]
(d) Ethyne is a non-linear molecule (a) (b)

(c) Invertase (d) Yeast
Uses of alcohol, Phenol and Ethers 13. Rectified spirit is a mixture of
[DPMT 1982; MP PMT 1976, 77, 96;
1. Glycerol is used in the manufacture of [SCRA 1991] CPMT 1976, 77, 90; KCET 1990]
(a) Dynamite (b) Varnish (a) 95% ethyl alcohol + 5% water
(c) Paints (d) Soft drinks (b) 94% ethyl alcohol + 4.53% water
2. Glycerol as a triester present in [MP PMT 1990] (c) 94.4% ethyl alcohol + 5.43 % water
(a) Petroleum (b) Kerosene (d) 95.57% ethyl alcohol + 4.43% water
(c) Vegetable oil and fat (d) Naphtha 14. Methyl alcohol is toxic. The reason assigned is [RPET
3. In presence of air, fermentation of ethyl alcohol by 2000]
azotobactor bacteria forms [MP PMT 1989] (a) It stops respiratory track
(b) It reacts with nitrogen and forms in the lungs
(c) It increases content in the blood (c) Groundnut oil (d) Kerosene
(d) It is a reduction product of formaldehyde 26. Ether can be used [CPMT 1982]
15. Glycerol is used [Kurukshetra CET 2002]

(a) As a general anaesthetic (b) As a refrigerant
(c) In perfumery (d) All of these
(a) As a sweetening agent
27. The Bouveault-Blanc reduction involves [MP PET 1991]
(b) In the manufacture of good quality soap
(c) In the manufacture of nitro glycerine (a) (b)
(d) In all of these (c) (d)
16. Glycerol is not used in which of following cases 28. Which is used as an antifreeze [AFMC 1992]
(a) Explosive making (b) Shaving soap making (a) Glycol (b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) As an antifreeze for water (d) As an antiseptic (c) Water (d) Methanol
agent
17. Liquor poisoning is due to [CPMT 1971]
(a) Presence of bad compound in liquor
(b) Presence of methyl alcohol
(c) Presence of ethyl alcohol
(d) Presence of carbonic acid
Te
18. In order to make alcohol undrinkable pyridine and 1. Which will undergo a Friedel-Craft's alkylation reaction
methanol are added to it. The resulting alcohol is [Pb. PMT 1998]
le
called CH3 CH2CH3 COOH OH

gr
(a) Power alcohol (b) Proof spirit

am
(c) Denatured spirit (d) Poison alcohol

19. Denatured spirit is mainly used as a NO 2
[MNR 1995; MP PET 2002] 1 2 3 4
@
(a) Good fuel

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
C
(b) Drug
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
he
(c) Solvent in preparing varnishes

2. The product ‘A’ in the following reaction is
(d) Material in the preparation of oil
m
20. Main constituent of dynamite is [MP PET 1992; BHU

[MP PMT 2003]
is
1979]
(a) Nitrobenzene (b) Nitroglycerine
try
(c) Picric acid (d) TNT (a) (b)

21. Wine (alcoholic beverages) contains
_S
[CPMT 1972, 77; BHU 1996; AFMC 2001] (c) (d)

(a) (b) Glycerol
pa
3. Glycerol boils at with slight decomposition.

(c) (d) 2-propanol
Impure glycerine can be purified by [CPMT 1983, 94]
rk
22. Tonics in general contain [MNR 1995]

(a) Steam distillation (b) Simple distillation
(a) Ether (b) Methanol (c) Vacuum distillation (d) Extraction with a
(c) Ethanol (d) Rectified spirit solvent
23. Widespread deaths due to liquor poisoning occurs
4. Phenol
due to
[DPMT 2001] Name of the above reaction is [KCET 2003]
(a) Presence of carbonic acid in liquor (a) Liebermann’s reaction

(b) Presence of ethyl alcohol in liquor (b) Phthalein fusion test
(c) Presence of methyl alcohol in liquor (c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(d) Schottenf-Baumann reaction
(d) Presence of lead compounds in liquor
24. Diethyl ether finds use in medicine as [KCET 1989] 5. The correct order of boiling point for primary
(a) A pain killer (b) A hypnotic secondary and tertiary alcohols is
(c) An antiseptic (d) An anaesthetic [CPMT 1999; RPMT 2002]
25. Washing soap can be prepared by saponification with (a) (b)
alkali of the oil [CPMT 1986]
(c) (d)
(a) Rose oil (b) Paraffin oil
6. What will be the products of reaction if 16. When a mixture of ethanol and methanol is heated in
methoxybenzene reacts with HI the presence of concentrated the resulting
(a) Methyl alcohol (methanol) + iodobenzene organic product or products is/are [Manipal MEE 1995]
(b) Methyl iodide (iodomethane) + benzene
(a)
(c) Methyle iodide + phenol
(d) Methyl iodide + iodobenzene (b) and
7. Ethylene reacts with Baeyer's reagent to give [CPMT (c) and
1988]
(d) and
(a) Ethane (b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Ethylene glycol (d) None of these
8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding 17. In the following groups
case of dehydration in alcohols
[CPMT 1980, 85; MP PMT 2001; BHU 2002]
(a) Primary > Secondary (b) Secondary > Tertiary
(c) Tertiary > Primary (d) None of these
9. Oxiran is
(a) Ethylene oxide (b) Diethyl ether The order of leaving group ability is [IIT 1997]
Te
(c) Ethyl glycolate (d) Glycolic ester (a) I > II > III > IV
10. Propan-1-ol can be prepared from propene by alcohol (b) IV > III > I > II
le
[AIIMS 2003] (c) III > II > I > IV

gr
(a) (d) II > III > IV > I

(b) followed by 18. Epoxides are
am
(a) Cyclic ethers

(c) followed by
(b) Not ethers
(d)
@
(c) Aryl-alkyl ethers

11. Distinction between primary, secondary and tertiary (d) Ethers with another functional group
C
alcohol is done by [MP PMT/PET 1988; RPMT 2000]

(a) Oxidation method
he
(b) Lucas test 19. The reaction of

m
(c) Victor Meyer method with HBr gives [IIT-JEE 1998]

(d) All of these
is
12. Oxidation of which of the following by air in presence

try
of vanadium pentoxide gives phenol (a)

(a) Toluene (b) Benzene
_S
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Phenyl acetic acid (b)

13. The most suitable method of the separation of a 1 : 1
pa
mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols is (c)

[CBSE PMT 1994, 99; CPMT 1997]
rk
(a) Distillation (b) Sublimation

(c) Crystallization (d) Chromatography (d)
14. Which of the following does not form phenol or 20. Which of the following compounds on boiling with
phenoxide (alk.) and subsequent acidification will not give
[AFMC 2000]
benzoic acid [KCET 2001]
(a) (b) (a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Acetophenone
(c) (d) (c) Anisole (d) Toluene
15. Which of the following will be obtained by keeping 21. The best reagent to convert pent-3-en-2-ol into pent-3-
ether in contact with air for a long time [RPMT 2003] in-2-one is [AIEEE 2005]
(a) (a) Acidic permanganate

(b) Acidic dichromate
(b)
(c) Chromic anhydride in glacial acetic acid
(c) (d) Pyridinium chloro-chromate
(d) 22. When alcohol reacts with concentrated
intermediate compound formed is [AFMC 2005]
(a) Carbonium ion (b) Alkoxy ion 10. Assertion : The major products formed by heating
(c) Alkyl hydrogen sulphate (d) None of these with HI are
and .
Reason : Benzyl cation is more stable than methyl
cation. [AIIMS 2004]
11. Assertion : The pka of acetic acid is lower than that
of phenol.
Reason : Phenoxide ion is more resonance
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct stabilized.
option out of the options given below: [AIIMS 2004]
12. Assertion : Alcoholic fermentation involves
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
conversion of sugar into ethyl alcohol by
yeast.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
Reason : Fermentation involves the slow
decomposition of complex organic
13. Assertion : The water solubility of the alcohols follow
the order t-butyl > s-butyl alcohol > n-butyl
(e) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Te
alcohol.
1. Assertion : A triester of glycerol and palmitic acid on Reason : Alcohols form H-bonding with water to
le
boiling with aqueous NaOH gives a solid show soluble nature.

gr
cake having soapy touch 14. Assertion : Absolute ethanol can be obtained by
Reason : Free glycerol is liberated which is a simple fractional distillation of a mixture
am
greasy solid [AIIMS 1996] of alcohol and water.

2. Assertion : Phenol is a weak acid than etnanol Reason : The absolute alcohol boils at 78.3°C.
Reason : Groups with + M effect and – I effect 15. Assertion : Acid catalysed dehydration of t-butanol is
@
decrease acidity at p-position [AIIMS 2002] slower than n-butanol.

3. Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene Reason : Dehydration involves formation of the
C
towards electrophilic substitution protonated alcohol, .

he
reaction
16. Assertion : Tertiary alcohols give turbidity
Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate
m
immediately with Lucas reagent.

carbocation is more resonance stabilized
Reason : A mixture of conc.HI + anhydrous
is

4. Assertion : Phenol undergo Kolbe reaction, ethanol is called Lucas reagent.
try
does not. 17. Assertion : 4-nitrophenol is more acidic than 2, 4, 6-

Reason : Phenoxide ion is more basic than trinitrophenol.
_S
ethoxide ion. [AIIMS 1994] Reason : Phenol is a weaker acid than carbonic
5. Assertion : Lucas reagent is a mixture of anhydrous acid.
pa
and concentrate HCl 18. Assertion : Phenols cannot be converted into esters
by direct reaction with carboxylic acids.
rk
Reason : Primary alcohol produce ppt. with Lucas

Reason : Electron withdrawing groups increase
reagents. [AIIMS 1995]
the acidity of phenols.
6. Assertion : Resorcinol turns solution purple.
19. Assertion : tert-butyl alcohol undergoes acid
Reason : Resorcinol have phenolic group. [AIIMS catalysed dehydration readily than
2000] propanol.
7. Assertion : Glycerol is purified by distillation under Reason : 3° alcohols do not give Victor-Meyer’s
reduced pressure. test.
Reason : Glycerol is a trihydric alcohol. 20. Assertion : The ease of dehydration of alcohols
8. Assertion : Alcohol and phenol can be distinguished follows the order. Primary > Secondary >
by sodium hydroxide. Tertiary.
Reason : Phenol is acidic while alcohol is neutral. Reason : Dehydration proceeds through the
9. Assertion : Alcohols are dehydrated to formation of oxonium ions.
hydrocarbons in the presence of acidic 21. Assertion : Phenol reacts with acyl halides in
zeolites. presence of pyridine to form phenyl
Reason : Zeolites are porous catalysts. acetate.
Reason : Benzoylation of phenol is carried out in Reason : Hydrolysis of methyl chloride follows
the presence of . second order kinetics. [AIIMS 2005]
22. Assertion : Alcohols are easily protonated than 33. Assertion : t-Butyl methyl ether is not prepared by
phenols. the reaction of t-butyl bromide with
Reason : Alcohols undergo intermolecular sodium methoxide.
hydrogen bonding due to the presence Reason : Sodium methoxide is a strong
of highly electronegative oxygen. nucleophile.
23. Assertion : Phenol is less acidic than p-nitrophenol. [AIIMS 2005]
Reason : Phenolate ion is more stable then p-
nitrophenolate ion.
24. Assertion : Treatment of phenol with nitrous acid
yields p-benzoquinone monoxime.
Reason : p-nitrosophenol and p-benzoquinone
monoxime are tautomers.
25. Assertion : Reimer-Tiemann reaction of phenol with
in NaOH at 340 K gives salicylic acis
General introduction of alcohol, Phenol & Ethers
as the major product.
Te
Reason : The reaction occurs through

intermediate formation of 1 b 2 d 3 c 4 d 5 a
le
dichlorocarbene. 6 c 7 c 8 b 9 c 10 b
gr
26. Assertion : Primary and secondary alcohols can be 11 b 12 c 13 c 14 a 15 c

distinguished by Victor-Meyer’s test.
am
16 b 17 b 18 b 19 b 20 b
Reason : Primary alcohols form nitrolic acid which
dissolve in NaOH to form blood red 21 a 22 c 23 a 24 a 25 b
colouration but secindary alcohols form 26 a 27 c 28 a 29 c 30 d
@
pseusonitrotes which give blue colouration 31 a 32 b 33 c 34 b 35 d

with NaOH.
C
36 d 37 b 38 a 39 a
27. Assertion : cleaves 1, 2-glycols but not 1, 3-
he
or higher glycols.
Preparation of alcohol, Phenol and Ethers
m
Reason : Only 1, 2- glycols form cyclic esters which

subsequently undergo cleavage to form
is
1 c 2 c 3 b 4 c 5 d
carbonyl compounds.
try
6 c 7 c 8 d 9 a 10 b
28. Assertion : Dehydration of glycerol with
gives acrolein. 11 c 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 d
_S
Reason : Acrolein is an , -unsaturated aldehyde. 16 c 17 b 18 c 19 d 20 b

29. Assertion : Both symmetrical and unsymmetrical
pa
21 c 22 b 23 c 24 c 25 c
ethers can be prepared by Williamson’s
26 d 27 a 28 d 29 b 30 a
synthesis.
rk
Reason : Williamson’s synthesis is an example of 31 b 32 b 33 d 34 c 35 d

nucleophilic substitution reaction. 36 c 37 a 38 a 39 b 40 c
30. Assertion : Etherates are coordination complexes of 41 b 42 a 43 a 44 c 45 c
ethers with Lewis acids.
46 b 47 c 48 b 49 a 50 b
Reason : Ethers are easily cleaved by mineral acids
such as HCl and at 373 K. 51 d 52 a 53 d 54 a 55 c
56 a 57 b 58 c 59 b 60 bc
31. Assertion : and
react to form 61 a 62 d 63 b 64 a
.
Properties of alcohol, Phenol and Ethers
Reason : Good yields of ethers are obtained when
tert-alkyl halides are treated with
1 c 2 a 3 a 4 c 5 a
alkoxides.
32. Assertion : A rate of hydrolysis of methyl chloride to 6 d 7 d 8 b 9 d 10 c
methanol is higher in DMF than in water. 11 a 12 b 13 c 14 c 15 c
16 b 17 c 18 c 19 d 20 a
216 c 217 d 218 d 219 a 220 a
21 b 22 b 23 a 24 b 25 c 221 b 222 a 223 d 224 b 225 c
26 b 27 a 28 b 29 a 30 d 226 a 227 c 228 d 229 b 230 a
31 b 32 b 33 c 34 c 35 b 231 b 232 d 233 c 234 b 235 d
36 a 37 d 38 a 39 c 40 b 236 b 237 d 238 c 239 d 240 a
41 d 42 b 43 d 44 a 45 c 241 a 242 a 243 b 244 a 245 a
46 b 47 c 48 a 49 a 50 a
Uses of alcohol, Phenol and Ethers
51 d 52 c 53 b 54 c 55 a
1 a 2 c 3 d 4 b 5 b
56 c 57 d 58 a 59 d 60 c
6 a 7 a 8 a 9 a 10 b
61 d 62 a 63 c 64 b 65 c
11 d 12 d 13 d 14 b 15 d
66 b 67 d 68 b 69 c 70 b
71 c 72 c 73 a 74 a 75 c 16 d 17 b 18 c 19 c 20 b
76 a 77 a 78 a 79 d 80 a 21 c 22 c 23 c 24 d 25 c
Te
81 c 82 a 83 d 84 b 85 c 26 d 27 a 28 a
le
86 a 87 b 88 d 89 b 90 c
Critical Thinking Questions
gr
91 b 92 d 93 d 94 b 95 a
am
96 a 97 b 98 a 99 c 100 d 1 c 2 c 3 c 4 a 5 a
101 d 102 c 103 a 104 b 105 d 6 c 7 c 8 c 9 a 10 c

@
106 a 107 d 108 b 109 a 110 c 11 d 12 b 13 a 14 b 15 a
111 b 112 b 113 a 114 a 115 a 16 d 17 b 18 a 19 b 20 c

C
21 c 22 a
he
116 b 117 a 118 d 119 a 120 c
121 a 122 d 123 a 124 a 125 c

Assertion & Reason
m
126 b 127 c 128 b 129 a 130 a

is
1 c 2 d 3 a 4 c 5 c
131 b 132 b 133 c 134 a 135 d
try
6 a 7 b 8 a 9 b 10 a
136 a 137 b 138 d 139 a 140 b
_S
141 a 142 b 143 b 144 a 145 b 11 c 12 a 13 b 14 e 15 e
146 a 147 a 148 a 149 a 150 b 16 c 17 e 18 b 19 b 20 e

pa
151 b 152 b 153 b 154 a 155 b 21 c 22 b 23 c 24 b 25 c

rk
156 c 157 d 158 c 159 c 160 a 26 a 27 a 28 b 29 b 30 c
161 c 162 c 163 b 164 d 165 a 31 d 32 c 33 b
166 b 167 c 168 b 169 d 170 b
171 c 172 b 173 b 174 b 175 a
176 a 177 c 178 a 179 b 180 c
181 b 182 b 183 c 184 a 185 d
186 c 187 b 188 a 189 c 190 a
191 d 192 a 193 a 194 b 195 ad
196 d 197 b 198 b 199 b 200 a
201 b 202 c 203 d 204 a 205 b
206 a 207 b 208 b 209 b 210 b
211 a 212 a 213 b 214 a 215 a

ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS, ETHERS
1.
Match the Following:
Column I Column II
(a) (p) Racemisation
(b) (q) Only retention
(c) (r) Only inversion
(d) (s) Rearrangement

Te
le
gr
2.
am
Match the Following:

Column I Column II
@
(a) (p) More than 4 moles of HI

will be consumed.
C
he
m
is
try
(b) (q) Product will react with

_S
Na.
pa
rk
(c) (r) Product formed

contains halide.
(d) (s) is one of the

products.
(t) Diphenyl ketone is one

of the products.
3. Match the Following:
-
Page No 1
Column I Column II
(a) (p)
(b) (q)
(c) (r)
Te
(d) (s)
le
gr
am

Column I Column II
@
(a) Pinacol – pinacolone (p) six membered cyclic TS

rearrangement
C
he
(b) Claisen – rearrangement (q) carbene

m
is
(c) Fries rearrangement (r) carbocation

try
_S
(d) Reimer – Tiemann reaction (s) acylium ion

pa
rk
(t) electrophilic aromatic

substitution
5. Column- I Column – II
Reaction No.of moles of CH3MgCl
Reacted
(A) (p) 4
Page No 2
=
(B) (q) 3
Te
le
gr
am
(C) (r) 2
@
C
(D) (s) 5
he
m
is
(t) 1
try
6. Column - I Column – II
_S
A) Phenol + Neutral FeCl3 p) No reaction

B) Phenol+Br2(aq) q) Violet colour
pa
C) Phenol+NaHCO3 r) White PPt

D) Picricacid + NaHCO3 s) CO2 gas is evolved
rk
t) electrophilic aromatic
substitution
7. For the following transformations select the suitable reagent (s)
(A) (p)
Page No 3
-
(B) (q)
(C) (r)
(D) (s)
(t) Baeyer’s reagent

8.
Te
COLUMN-1 COLUMN-2
a) P) Racemic mixture
le
gr
am
b) Q) Major product consist of even

@
number of Hydrogen
C
he
c) R) Will not undergo dehydration

m
is
try
d) S) Major product consist of odd

number of -hydrogen
_S
pa
rk
9. Match the following :

Column I Column II
Page No 4
-
More than 4-moles of HI will
(A) (p) be consumed.
Product which can react with

(B) (q) Na
Te
le
gr
am
Product formed contains 2o

(C) (r)
@
halide
C
he
m
is
(D) (s)
try
_S
is one of the products

pa
rk
10. Match the Coloumn -I with Coloumn -II

(A) (p) LiAlH4
(B) (q) H2, Ni,
Page No 5
-
(C) (r) NaBH4
(D) (s) Zn - Hg / HCl
11. Study the following oxidation reactions and match the oxidizing agents A, B, C
and D, given in column-I and their names in column-II.
O OH O
CHO A B
OH OH
Te
le
C
gr
am
O
@
COOH
C
he
m
is
CHO
try
D COOH
_S
pa
rk
(A) (p) Collins reagent
(B) (q) PCC
(C) (r) Mno2
(D) (s) Chromic acid
(t) Alkaline KMnO4
Column - I Column – II
A) Pinacol – pinacolone rearrangement p) six membered cyclic TS
B) Claisen – rearrangement q) carbene
C) Fries rearrangement r) carbocation
Page No 6
--
D) Reimer – Tiemann reaction s) acylium ion
t) electrophilic aromatic substitution
13. Column- I Column – II
Reaction No.of moles of CH3MgCl
Reacted
(A) (p) 4
Te
le
gr
(B) (q) 3
am
@
C
he
m
(C) (r) 2
is
try
_S
(D) (s) 5
pa
rk
(t) 1
14. Column - I Column – II
A) Phenol + Neutral FeCl3 p) No reaction
B) Phenol+Br2(aq) q) Violet colour
C) Phenol+NaHCO3 r) White PPt
D) Picricacid + NaHCO3 s) CO2 gas is evolved
t) electrophilic aromatic substitution
15. For the following transformations select the suitable reagent (s)
Page No 7
-
(A) (p)
(B) (q)
(C) (r)
(D) (s)
Te
le
gr
(t) Baeyer’s reagent

am
16. Column – I (Class of compound) Column – II (Detection test)

a) p) Ammonical silver nitrate
@
b) q) Halo form reaction

c) r) Neutral
C
he
d) s) in
17. Match the column of I and (II)
m
is

try
(p) Ag(NH3)2+
_S
pa
rk
(q) MnO2
(r) HCHO, KOH
(s) SeO2
18. Match the compounds in column-I with their identification reagent(s)/product(s) that they can form
Column– I Column– II
a) 4-(hydroxyl methyl)Phenol p) Bakelite formation
Page No 8
-
b) Acetyl acetone q) Ceric ammonium
nitrate
c) 1-phenylethanol r) Haloform test
d) phenol s) FeCl3
19. Column – I Column – II

CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2
OH OH
A) P) KHSO4
B) Q)
C) R)
D)
Te
CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH 2  CH  CH  0
le
OH OH OH
S)
gr
am

@
A) P)
C
he
B) Q)
m
is
try
C) R)
_S
pa
D) S)
rk

A) P) in acetone
B) Q)
C) R)
D) S) P C C
22 Match the Following:
Column I Column II
(a) (p)
z
Page No 9
(b) (q)
(c) (r)
(d) (s)

Te
Column I Column II
(a) (p) More than 4 moles of HI
le
will be consumed.
gr
am
@
C
(b) (q) Product will react with

he
Na.
m
is
try
(c) (r) Product formed contains

_S
halide.
pa
rk
(d) (s) is one of the

products.
(t) Diphenyl ketone is one of

the products.
AEP – KEY SHEET
=
Page No 10
Matching Answers
1 A–Q 2 A - PQS 3 A –S 4 A–R 5 A–Q 6 A–Q
B–R B–PQRS B –R B–P B–R B – RT
C – PS C – PQR C–Q C – ST C–P C–P
D-R D - PQR D–P D – QT D-Q D–S
7 A – QT 8 A – PQ 9 A-QRS 10 A–Q 11 A – Q 12 A-R
B–P B – PQ B-PQRS B–P B – PR B-P
C – RS C–Q C-QR C–S C – ST C-ST
D-R D -R D-PQR D–R D-S D-QT
13 A-Q 14 A-Q 15 A-QT 16 A-S 17 A-R 18 A-PQS
B-R B-RT B-P B-PS B-S B-RS
C-P C-P C-RS C-Q C-Q C-QR
D-Q D-S D-R D-R D-P D-PS
19 A-Q 20 A-QS 21 A-PRS 22 A-S 23 A-PQS
B-R B-R B-PQRS B-R B-PQRS
Te
C-S C-RS C-PQRS C-Q C-PQR

D-P D-P D-PQRS D-P D-PQR
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
AEP – SOLUTIONS
Matching solutions
1. Conceptual
2. Conceptual
Page No 11
-
3. Ether formation & Nucleophyllic substitution
4. Conceptual
5. Conceptual
6. Conceptual
7. Conceptual
8. Conceptual
9. Conceptual
10. Conceptual
11. Pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC), made by mixing equimolar amounts of
CrO3, HCl and pyridine is used for oxidation of primary alcohols to aldehydes.
It is soluble in CH2Cl2 and other organic solvents. In non-aqueous solvents
the aldehyde is stable to further oxidation.
MnO2: MnO2 is a milder oxidizing agent. MnO2 selectively oxidize the OH
group of allylic and benzylic 1 o or 2o alcohols to aldehydes or ketones,
Te
respectively.
Collin’s reagent, a variation of PCC made up of 1 mol of CrO3 to two mol of
le
pyridine in CH2Cl2 is also used as MnO2.

gr
Alkaline KMnO4: Oxidation of secondary alcohols to ketones and primary

am
alcohols to acids.
Chromic acid (H2CrO4): Oxidation of secondary alcohols to ketones and
@
primary alcohols to acids.

C
12. Conceptual
he
13. Conceptual
14. Conceptual
m
15. Conceptual
is
16. Conceptual
try
17. Conceptual
_S
18. Conceptual
19. Conceptual
pa
20. Oxidation reaction & haloform reactions

21. Conceptual
rk
22. Conceptual
23. Conceptual
Page No 12
-
1. How many of the following epoxide cleavages are involved SN 2 type of ring
opening
Te
le
gr
2. How many of the following reactions involved SN2 attacks?

am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
3. (A)
(B)
-
Page No 1
How many of the following statements is/are correct about the above reaction?
I) The compounds (B) and (C), respectively, are :
II) The compounds (E) and (F), respectively, are :
III) The compound (B) and (C), respectively, are :

Te
le
IV) The compound (E) and (F), respectively, are :

gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
4.
try
The number of hydroxyl groups present in the product x is/are

_S
5. During the preparation of a yellow precipitate from one mole of ethyl alcohol
pa
in basic medium number moles of Iodine required is

6. (positive haloform test)
rk
The number of possible isomers for X excluding stereo isomers and

including X.
7. During the fermentation of molasses the number of moles of ethyl alcohol
formed from one mole of sucrose is
8. During the conversion of Glycerol into Allyliodide number of moles of HI
molecules consumed is.
9. During the conversion of 1-butene into -1-butanol using a specific reaction
how many membered transition state is formed.
10. Number of moles of HIO4 molecule used to oxidize one mole of glucose +
number of moles of formed during the reaction is equal to
-
Page No 2
11. What are the number of optical isomers possible for the compound
12. During the reaction of Benzene diazonium chloride with para-cresol the
substitution occurs at _______ position.
13. A polyhydric alcohol of mol.wt 92, on benzoylation gives a benzoyl derivative
of mol.wt 404. The number of hydroxyl groups in the alcohol are …..
14. How many of the following alcohols undergo rearrangement on acid ctalysed
elimination to give alkenes.
Te
le
gr
1) 2)
am
@
C
he
3) 4)
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
5) 6)
7)
Page No 3
-
8)
Te
15. no. of products possible in given reaction

16.
le
gr
am
@
What is the Degree of unsaturationof compound in above reaction?

C
17. During the preparation of a yellow precipitate from one mole of ethyl alcohol
he
in basic medium number moles of Iodine required is

18. (positive haloform test)
m
The number of possible isomers for X excluding stereo isomers and

is
including X.
try
19. During the fermentation of molasses the number of moles of ethyl alcohol
_S
formed from one mole of sucrose is

20. During the conversion of Glycerol into Allyliodide number of moles of HI
pa
molecules consumed is.

21. During the conversion of 1-butene into -1-butanol using a specific reaction
rk
how many membered transition state is formed.

22. Number of moles of HIO4 molecule used to oxidize one mole of glucose +
number of moles of formed during the reaction is equal to
23. What are the number of optical isomers possible for the compound
24. During the reaction of Benzene diazonium chloride with para-cresol the
substitution occurs at _______ position.
25. How many among compounds are not oxidized by HIO 4,
Page No 4
-
26. How many moles of HCOOH is formed, due to the oxidation with
HIO4 of,
27. Identify the number of positions, in compound where acetylation

reaction occur with acetic anhydride,
Te
le
gr
am
@
28.
C
he
How many mole alkane will be

m
formed ?
is
29. The number of reagents among the following which effect the given
try
conversion is
_S
pa
rk
(i)PCC (ii) PDC (iii) K2Cr2O7/Con.H2SO4

(iv) Br2/NaOH (v) Alkaline KMnO4 (vi) Cu, 573 K
(vii) AgNO3/NH3 (viii) NaBH4 (ix) LiAlH4
30. The number of unshared pair of electrons in the electrophile involved in
conversion of phenol to salicyladehyde using CHCl 3/KOH is
31. A Compound ‘A’ with formula on acylation with acetic anhydride gives another
compound ‘B’ with molecular mass 190. The number of hydroxyl group in the compound A are
32. 1, 2, 3 propanetriol on heating with followed by heating with
gave a compound X number of electrons in that compound is.
-
Page No 5
33.
The value of (m + n) is
34.
Find the value of n for the organic compound A.

35.
The number of hydroxyl groups present in the product x is/are

Te
le
gr
AEP – KEY SHEET

am
Integer Answers
@
1 7 2 5 3 2 4 2 5 4 6 8
7 4 8 3 9 4 10 6 11 8 12 2
C
13 3 14 6 15 5 16 4 17 4 18 8
he
19 4 20 3 21 4 22 6 23 8 24 2
m
25 2 26 2 27 3 28 3 29 3 30 7
is
31 2 32 6 33 4 34 2 35 2
try
_S
pa
rk
AEP – SOLUTIONS
>
Page No 6
Integer solutions
1. All the cleavages of propene oxide are the S N2 type, irrespective of the
medium. Even in acidic medium cleavage is S N2 type. This is due to the fact
that transition state of ring opening in acidic medium cleavage is not
possessing sufficient carbocationic character. If there were sufficient
carbocationic character in the T.S of ring opening in acidic medium, then the
mechanistic path would have been mixed i.e. S N2 + SN1 [SN1 product
would have been possible]. In fact ring opening phenomena of propene oxide in
acidic medium is in reversal of what we have expected. So in the given list all
reactions are showing SN2 mode of ring opening, which means least sterically
hindered carbon must be selected.
2.
Te
A)
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
B)
_S
pa
rk
C)
Page No
- - 7
rk
pa
_S
try
---
is
m
Page No 8
he
C
@
am
gr
le
Te
D)
E)
F)
3.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
4. X is catechol
5. Conceptual
Page No 9
--
6. Conceptual
7. Conceptual
8. Conceptual
9. Conceptual
10. Conceptual
11. Conceptual
12. Conceptual
13. Conceptual
14. Conceptual
Te
15. Conceptual
le
16.
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
17. Conceptual
18. X is propenol
pa
19. Conceptual
rk
20. Conceptual
21. During HBO 4 members TS is formed
22. Conceptual
23. It has 3 chiral centers without any symmetry 23=8
24. Conceptual
25. HIO4 will not act on and
26. Conceptual
27. Conceptual
28. Because the compound have 3 acidic H. hence 3 CH 4 will be formed.
29. 3
--
Page No 10
(i) PCC (ii) PDC (vi) Cu, 573 K
30. 7
The electrophile is :CCl2 which has 1 lp on carbon and 3 lp on each Cl.
31.
No of group
32.
Hence no of
33. 4
Te
Pair of diastereomers is formed (m), therefore, two fractions are obtained.

le
34. 2
gr
35. X is catechol
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
--
Page No 11
One or more than one answer type questions:
1. The possible product(s) in the above reaction is/are:
A) B) C) D)
2.
Which of the following are possible product(s) (in the significant amounts)?
Te
A) B)
le
gr
am
C) D)
@
3. Identify compound (X) in the following oxidation reaction :

C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
4. Which of the following reactions are correctly interpreted?
Page No 1
=
5.
Te
le
gr
am
@
6. In which of the following reactions, a phenolic compound is formed as

C
product ?
he
m
is
try
a) b)
_S
pa
rk
c) d)
7.
Which of the following statement is correct regarding above reaction
a)The reaction mechanism involves initial formation of alkyl chlorosulfite
-
Page No 2
b) can bring SNi displacement of very good leaving
group
c) overall 100% retention takes place during the reaction
d) overall 50% retention and 50% Inversion takes place during the reaction.
8. Te
Products are
le
gr
am
a) b)
@
C
c) d)
he
m
is
try
_S
9. Which of the following ether cannot be prepared by using Williamson’s

pa
synthesis
rk
a) b)
c) d)
Page No 3
-
10.
Which of the following is correct regarding product ‘B’
a) ‘B’ is colourless in acidic medium
b) ‘B’ is pink colour in basic medium
c) ‘B’ has Benzenoid form in Basic medium
d) ‘B’ exists in Ionic form in Basic medium

Te
11. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare phenolic compound

a) Dakin’s reaction b) Hydrolysis of phenolic ethers in acidic medium
le
c) Reduction of aromatic aldehydes

gr
d) Reaction of phenyl acetate with AlCl3 at 1650c

am
12. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct

a) Dehydration of alcohols will take place rapidly with POCl 3 than with
@
H2SO4
b) Hydroboration oxidation of 3,3-dimethyl -1 Butene produces 3,3-
C
dimethyl-2-Butanol
he
c)
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Among I and II I is more acidic than II

d) Anti conformer of glycol is more stable than its gauche conformer
13. Which of the following statements are correct
a) Phenol on treating with produces quinol
b)Phenol on treating with produces para hydroxy acetophenone

c) Acylation of salicylic acid in basic medium occurs on phenolic oxygen
d)
-
Page No 4
-
gives effervescence with NaHCO3
14.
Te
Which of the statements given is / are not correct

le
a) ‘C’ is primary alcohol

gr
b) ‘B’ form turbidity with lucas reagent after 5-10 minutes and gives yellow ppt
with aqueous bleaching powder
am
c) ‘A’ is tertiary alchohol and gives Red ppt during victor mayer reaction
@
d) Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are 20 alcohols respond to haloform reaction

C
he
m
15.
is
CH 3 CH3 CH 3 H
try
C C C C
H H H CH3
_S
per acid per acid
A C
pa
+ +
H /H2O H /H2O
rk
B D
Which of the following statements is/are true:
a) B is a single compound and optically inactive
b) D is a single compound and optically inactive
c) B is an equimolar mixture of two enantiomeric compounds
d) D is an equimolar mixture of two enantiomeric compounds
16. FeCl3 gives positive test with
(A) (B) acetylacetone

(C) acetoacetic ester (D) acrolein
Page No 5
-
17. Compound (X) decolorizes Baeyer’s reagent. It undergoes hydrolysis in
dil to give (Y) and (Z) where both Y and Z give positive iodoform test
while only ‘Y’ responds to Tollens test but (Z) doesn’t. Choose the correct
statements of the following :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
18.
Te
le
gr
am
Which of the following statement is correct regarding above reaction

@
a)The reaction mechanism involves initial formation of alkyl chlorosulfite

C
he
b)
m
can bring SNi displacement of very good leaving group

is
try
c) overall 100% retention takes place during the reaction

_S
d) overall 50% retention and 50% Inversion takes place during the reaction.
pa
19.
rk
Products are
>
-
Page No 6
a)
b)
c)
d)
Te
20. Which of the following ether cannot be prepared by using Williamson’s

le
synthesis
gr
am
a) b)
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
c) d)
pa
21.
rk
a) ‘B’ is colourless in acidic medium
b) ‘B’ is pink colour in basic medium
c) ‘B’ has Benzenoid form in Basic medium
d) ‘B’ exists in Ionic form in Basic medium
Page No
- - 7
22. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare phenolic compound
b) Dakin’s reaction b) Hydrolysis of phenolic ethers in acidic
medium
e) Reduction of aromatic aldehydes
f) Reaction of phenyl acetate with AlCl3 at 1650c
23. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
a) Dehydration of alcohols will take place rapidly with POCl 3 than with H2SO4
b) Hydroboration oxidation of 3,3-dimethyl -1 Butene produces 3,3-dimethyl-
2-Butanol
c)
Te
le
gr
Among I and II I is more acidic than II

am
d) Anti conformer of glycol is more stable than its gauche conformer

a) Phenol on treating with produces quinol
@
C
b)Phenol on treating with produces para hydroxyl

he
acetophenone
m
c) Acylation of salicylic acid in basic medium occurs on phenolic oxygen

is
d)
try
_S
pa
rk
gives effervescence with NaHCO3

25.
Which of the statements given is / are not correct

a) ‘C’ is primary alcohol
b) ‘B’ form turbidity with lucas reagent after 5-10 minutes and gives yellow
ppt with aqueous bleaching powder
-
Page No 8
c) ‘A’ is tertiary alchohol and gives Red ppt during victor mayer reaction
d) Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are 20 alcohols respond to haloform reaction

26.
CH 3 CH3 CH3 H 
C C C C
H H H CH3
per acid per acid
A C
+ +
H /H2O H /H2O
B D
Which of the following statements is/are true:

a) B is a single compound and optically inactive
b) D is a single compound and optically inactive
Te
c) B is an equimolar mixture of two enantiomeric compounds

d) D is an equimolar mixture of two enantiomeric compounds
le
27. The reagent (s) used to convert phenol in to Anisole is/are.

gr
a) b) c) d)
am
28. Predict which two reactions give the same alcohol among the following
reactions:
@
C
he
a) b)
m
is
try
_S
c) d)
pa
29. Consider the following compounds

rk
Choose the correct statement(s) from the following

A) I, II and III are functional isomers B) I and II are position isomers
C) III and IV are chain isomers D) III and IV are metamers
30.
-
Page No-
9
major products are
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
31. Which of the following ether cannot be prepared in appropriate amount by

using Williamson’s synthesis
Te
le
gr
(A) (B)
am
(C) (D)
@
C
he
32.
m
is
try
_S

(A) ‘B’ is colourless in acidic medium (B) ‘B’ is pink colour in basic medium
pa
(C) ‘B’ has Benzenoid form in Basic medium (D) ‘B’ exists in Ionic form in
rk
Basic medium
(A) Phenol on treating with produces quinol
(B) Phenol on treating with produces para hydroxy

acetophenone
(C) Acylation of salicylic acid in basic medium occurs on phenolic oxygen
(D) gives effervescence with NaHCO
34. Alcohol A (C10H18O) is converted to mixture of alkene B and C on heating

with conc. H3PO4. Catalytic hydrogenation of B and C yields the same
-
Page No 10
product. Assume that dehydration of alcohol A proceeds without
rearrangement. Alkene B on ozonolysis forms cyclopentanone. Identify the
correct option.
(A) (B)
A is B is
(C) (D)
C is C is
35. A (C5H12O) ether, on reaction with PCl5 form alkyl chloride B and C. B and
C both on reaction with aqueous KOH form alcohol D and E. Both D and
E give iodoform test. Identify correct answers.
(A) A is (B) C is
Te
(C) C is CH3CH2CH2Cl (D) E is

le
gr
36.
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Page No 11
-
37.
Te
le
gr
am
38. Compare the properties of two isomeric products x and y formed in the
@
OH
1. CCl4 + KOH/ x + y
C
2. H
he
Following reaction.
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
HO *
CH2NH2
NaNO2 + HCl
(0-5° C)
39. The product P (major) of the following reaction is
*CH = O
O O
O
* *
*
(a) (b) (c) (d)
40. Which of the following compounds undergoes Reimer-Tiemann reaction ?
-
Page No 12
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41. In which of the following reactions, a phenolic compound is formed as

product ?
Te
a) b)
le
gr
am
c) d)
42.
@
C
The conversion can be performed suitably by

he
A)
m
B)
is
C)
try
D)
_S
43.
pa
rk
Which of the following are possible product(s) (in the significant amounts)?
A) B)
C) D)
44.
The possible product(s) in the above reaction is/are:
Page No 13
-
A) B) C) D)
45. Luca’s test is used to make distinction between 1, 2 and 3 alcohols
A) ROH behaves as a Lewis base

B) Greater the value of pKa (alcohol), greater the reactivity with conc. HCl and
thus faster the formation of white turbidity.
C) Alcohol which readily reacts with Na metal, will give turbidity readily
D) Alcohol which gives red colour in Victor Meyer test, will give turbidity at
slower rate than those giving blue or white colour in Victor Meyer test.
Te
46. Which of the following represent the correct sequence of completing the
le
reactions with suitable products?

gr
A)
am
B)
@
C
C)
he
m
D)
is
try
47.
_S
pa
rk
-
Page No 14
Te
le
gr
am
48. Which of the following statements are correct ?

A) dioxanes are used as solvents in reactions involving Gignard
@
reagent
B) Consider
C
he
m
a) b) c)
is
All (ie, a,b,c) give a + ve Tollens test

try
C) Cyanoacetic acid is stronger than fluoroacetic acid

One mole of ethyl orthoformate gives three moles of ethyl alcohol on
_S
D)
hydrolysis
pa
49. Identify compound (X) in the following oxidation reaction :

rk
-
Page No 15
AEP – KEY SHEET
One or more than one Answers
1 ABCD 2 BCD 3 ABC 4 BCD 5 BCD 6 ABCD
7 A 8 AD 9 ABC 10 ABD 11 ABD 12 AC
13 ACD 14 ABCD 15 BC 16 ABC 17 ABC 18 A
19 AD 20 ABC 21 ABD 22 ABD 23 AC 24 ACD
25 ABCD 26 BC 27 ABC 28 AB 29 AD 30 AD
31 ABC 32 ABD 33 ACD 34 ABD 35 ABD 36 AC
37 BCD 38 D 39 B 40 AB 41 ABCD 42 AB
43 BCD 44 ABCD 45 ABD 46 ABCD 47 AB 48 CD
49 ABC
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
AEP – SOLUTIONS
-
Page No 16
One or more than one solutions
1.
Te
2. Nucleophilic substitution.
le
3. ABC
gr
4.
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
5.
-
Page No 17
Te
6. a) Claisen rearrangement b) nitrophenol is formed

c) Dakin’s reaction d) amino phenol is formed
le
7. SN reaction
2
gr
8. due more stable carbo cation

am
9. Conceptual
10. product is phenopthalein
11. reduction of aromatic aldehydes produces aromatic alcohols
@
12. in compound II steric repulsions exists

C
13. In gauche conformer hydrogen bond is present

he
Squaric acid is a strong dibasic acid

m
14. hydration leads to rearrangement

HBO gives anti markonikov’s product
is
15. Conceptual
try
16.
_S
pa
rk
17.
18. SN2 reaction

19. due more stable carbo cation
20. Conceptual
22. reduction of aromatic aldehydes produces aromatic alcohols
23. in compound II steric repulsions exists
24. In gauche conformer hydrogen bond is present
Squaric acid is a strong dibasic acid
Page No-
- 18
25. hydration leads to rearrangement
HBO gives anti markonikov’s product
26. Conceptual
27. a)
b)
28. Conceptual
29. For being functional isomers, functional group should not match.
(Phenol and aliphatic alcohol are considered as different functional groups)
30. due to more stable carbocation
31. (ABC )
Te

le
33.
gr
am
@
C
he
34. Conceptual
m
35. Conceptual
36.
is
try
_S
37. BCD
pa
38. SOL; x, y may be ortho and para salicylic acids

rk
(i) ortho salicylic acid is more acidic more volatile due intra molecular
hydrogen bonding
(ii) para salicylic acid has more solubility and have high melting point due
inter molecular hydrogen bonding
39. SOL: as in pinacal pincolone rearrangement group is diazotised and is
lilerated and alkyl shift takes place and ketone is formed
40. (A)
-
Page No 19
(B)
41. a) Claisen rearrangement b) nitrophenol is formed

c) Dakin’s reaction d) amino phenol is formed
42. Conceptual
43. Nucleophilic substitution.
44.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
45. Conceptual
he
46.
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
47.
Page No 20
=
Te
48. Conceptual
le
49. ABC
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Page No 21
-
Comprehensions type questions:
Passage - 1
Te
1. The compound
le
gr
am
a) b)
@
C
he
m
is
try
c) d) both a) and c)
_S
2. The compound D is
pa
rk
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Page No 1
-
3. The compound E is
a) (b)
(c) (d)
Passage - 2
Ethers are widely used as solvents due to its relatively unreactive nature. In
the acidic medium reactivity is significant. The most common reaction of
ether is cleavage of the C-O bond by strong acids. This may occur by SN-1 or
E-1 mechanisms for alkyl groups or by an SN-2 mechanism for alkyl
groups.
Te
4.
le
gr
am
@
C
Predominant products when middle ether cleavage is considered

he
m
is
try
a)
_S
pa
rk
b)
c)
d)
-
Page No 2
5. The following compound on treating with conc. HI produces alcohol and alkyl
halide . Which compounds form alcohol that gives positive halo form
reaction
Te
a) I, II, III, IV b) II, III, IV only

le
c) II, and IV only d) III and IV only

gr
6.
am
@
C
Product A is :
he
m
is
a) b)
try
_S
pa
c) d)
rk
Paragraph : 3
An organic compound exhibits following characteristics.
a) It reacts with metallic sodium to give a colourless odorless gas
b) It is oxidised by to benzoic acid.
c) It can be resolved.
d) It does not give precipitate with iodine in presence of NaOH.
e) It change the colour of from orange to blue, and gives a chiral
compound.
Page No
- - 3
On the basis of the above reaction & the following 5 structures,
answer the following questions:
7. Which of the following given characteristics discard the possibility of

compound V
1) ( b ) 2) ( c ) 3) ( d ) 4) ( e )
A) ( 1 ) & (2) B) ( 2 ) & (4) C) ( 1),(2) & ( 3 ) D) all the four
8. The above characteristics establish the structure of A as
A) I B) II C) both A & D D) IV
Te
9. The total number of isomeric alcohols to IV would be

A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 9
le
gr
Paragraph : 4
Compound A (C8H10O) on reaction with MnO2 gives B(C8H8O). Treatment of (B)
am
with 2-equivalent of Br2 yields (C) C8H6OBr2 which on basic hydrolysis gives
(D) (C8H8O3).
@
C
(E) liberates CO2 on treatment with NaHCO3 and is resolvable.

he
10. Compound (A) is

m
is
try
_S
A) B)
pa
rk
C) D)
11.
Incorrect statement is
(A) H is formed through carbene intermediate
(B) G on treatment with NaOH/CaO gives benzene
(C) Formation of ‘F’ involves nucleophilic substitution on ‘C’
(D) (C) is a carboxylic acid
Page No 4
-
12. Compound E is
A) B)
C) D)
Paragraph : 5
A drug dofetinilide (1) is used for the treatment of cardiac arrhythmia, which
Te
is fatal heart disease prominent among the developed countries. The

le
synthesis of dofetinilide may require simple starting compounds like 1-

gr
bromo-2-phenylethane(2), bromobenzene(3) and phenol(4).

In the nitration of (2) and (3) with the nitrating mixture (HNO 3 + H2SO4), the
am
major product was found to be para isomer.

Phenol is nitrated using NaNO3 and H2SO4 in water. In this reaction
@
significant amount of another compound (5) is formed along with P- nitro

C
phenol (6)
he
Compound (6) is converted into intermediate 8 through the following sequence

m
is
try
_S
1 is synthesised by reacting 8 with another compound as follows

pa
rk
1 is
=
Page No 5
13. Identify the correct statements regarding compound 5
I) 5 is more acidic than 6 II) 5 is less acidic than 6
III) 5 has lesser boiling point than 6 IV) 5 has higher boiling
point than 6
(A) I, IV (B) II, III
(C) I, III (D) IV, II
14. What are the possible options for X?

I) NaOH II) Na2CO3 III) AlCl3 IV) SOCl2
V) Ca(OH)2
(A) I, II, V (B) I, V
(C) III, IV (D) I, IV, V
15. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the compound 1

(A) it reacts with aqueous acids
Te
(B) it reacts with aqueous bases

(C) it contains two types of nitrogen which are equally basic
le
(D) it contains two types of nitrogen whose basic character cannot be

gr
compared
am
Passage –6
@
C
he
16. A is:
m
is
try
CH3O
_S
HO
O O
pa
rk
A) B)
C) D)
17. C is:
O
O
(a) (b) (c) (d)
H3CO H3CO O
H3CO H3CO
O
Page No 6
x
18. D is:
OCH3
OCH3
O OCH3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Passage – 7
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
19. The compound

he
m
is
try
a) b)
_S
pa
rk
c) d) both a) and c)
20. The compound D is

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Page No 7
-
21. The compound E is
a) (b)
(c) (d)
Passage - 8
Ethers are widely used as solvents due to its relatively unreactive nature. In
the acidic medium reactivity is significant. The most common reaction of
ether is cleavage of the C-O bond by strong acids. This may occur by SN-1 or
E-1 mechanisms for alkyl groups or by an SN-2 mechanism for alkyl
groups.
Te
22.
le
gr
am
Predominant products when middle ether cleavage is considered

@
a)
C
he
m
b)
is
try
_S
pa
c)
rk
d)
Page No 8
=
23. The following compound on treating with conc. HI produces alcohol and alkyl
halide . Which compounds form alcohol that gives positive halo form
reaction
a) I, II, III, IV b) II, III, IV only

Te
c) II, and IV only d) III and IV only

le
gr
24.
am
@
Product A is :
C
he
m
a) b)
is
try
_S
pa
c) d)
rk
Passage - 9
25. Conversion of (X) to (Y) is
-
Page No 9
a) Nucleophilic substitution b) Nucleophilic addition
c) Electrophilic addition d) Electrophilic substitution
26. The product z is
a) b) c) d)
27. Which of the following gives +ve Lucas test ?
a) b) c) d)
Passage- 10
A volatile organic compound (X) on reaction with HI gives two products (Y)
Te
and (Z). Z gives red colour in Victor Meyer test but when (Z) is heated with
conc.H2SO4 followed by hydrolysis gives (P), which immediately reacts with
le
anhydrous (Y) on treatment with followed by

gr
gives Q. (Q) can give haloform test. (Q) when heated with NaOH gives (R) . (R)
am
also gives haloform test and can decolourise water.

28. Compound (X) is
@
a) b) c d)
)
C
he
29. Compound (Y) is.

m
a) b) c d)
is
)
try
30. Compound (R) is

_S
a) b) c d)
pa
)
rk
Passage- 11
Read the following reaction
-
Page No 10
Note : From ‘P’ to ‘Q’
31. One of the compounds in the mixture ‘T’ is
OH OH OH
OH
A) OH
B) C) H O D)
32. Total no. of isomers in mixture ‘Q’ on the basis of above mentioned assumption
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8
Te
33. On treating mixture ‘S’ with strong base, product obtained is

le
gr
OH
OH OH
OH
am
@
A) B) C) D) Br
C
he
m
Passage- 12
is
try
_S
pa
In the above reaction sequence (A) and (C) are isomers. Molecular formula of B
is , which can also be obtained from the product of the reaction with
rk
and and followed by acidification and heating.

34. Identify structure of A
CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH  CH 3
OH
A) B)
CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH 3
OH
C) D)
35. Identify the structure of B
=>
Page No 11
CH3
CH 3  C  C  CH 2
CH3
A) B)
CH 2  CH  CH  CH 3
CH3
C) D)
36. Identify the structure of C
CH3
CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH  CH 3 CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 3
OH OH
A) B)
Te
le
CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH 3
gr
OH
am
C) D)
Paragraph – 13
@
Alcohols are protonated to give carbocation intermediate and if possible

C
rearrange to relatively stable carbocations. These rearrangements include

he
Hydride, methanide 1,2 & 1,4- shifts and ring expansions.

m
is
try
OH H+
_S
37.
A) 2-Methyl cyclobutanone B) 3-Methyl cyclobutanone
pa
C) Methyl cyclopropane D) Methyl cyclobutane

rk
38.
O
=
O =
O O O O
A) B) C) D)
39. The major product of the reaction is
-
Page No 12
HO
H+
A) B) C) D)
Paragraph – 14
Epoxides are three membered cyclic ethers and differ from other cyclic and
acyclic ethers in that they are reactive to various reagents. The reason for this
reactivity is the strained three membered ring. Reactions with nucleophiles
can result in ring opening and relief of strain.
Te
Nucleophiles will attack either of the electrophilic carbons present in an

le
epoxide by an SN2 reaction .

gr
40.
am
@
A & B are
C
he
(A) (B)
m
is
try
_S
(C) (D)
pa
Both are Both are

rk
41. Which of the following reagent can be used to convert ketone into ester in single
step mechanism?
(A) HCOOOH (B) NaOBr (C) NaCN / H+ (D) i)Mg/ether ii)H3O+
42. The product B in the following sequence of reaction is
(B
(A)
)
(D
(C)
)
Page No 13
-
Paragraph – 15
Although chlorobenzene is inert to nucleophilic substitutions, it gives
quantitative yield of phenol when heated with aq. NaOH at high temperature
and under high pressure. Phenol, so formed, is a weaker acid than the
carboxylic acid, hence it dissolves only in strong base like NaOH, but not weak
like . It reacts with acid chlorides and acid anhydrides in the absence of
to form esters. As far as nucleophilic substitution in phenol is concerned,
the is an activating group, hence its presence enhances the electrophilic
substitution in the ortho and para position.
Condensation with formaldehyde is one of the important properties of phenol.
The condensation may take place in presence of acids or alkali and leads to the
formation of Bakelite, an important industrial polymer.
43 Conversion of chlorobenzene into phenol involves:
Te
A) Modified SN1 mechanism B) Modified SN2 mechanism

le
C) Both (a) and (b) D) Elimination addition

gr
44 The o acylation of phenols with acid anhydrides can be catalysed by

am
A) Sulphuric B) NaOH C) Both D) None

acid
@
45 Condensation of phenol with formaldehyde is an electrophilic substitution, in

C
which
he
A) as such is the electrophile in both acidic as well

m
as basic medium.
is
B) is the real electrophile in acidic medium while in

try
basic medium
_S
is the real electrophile.

pa
C) and are the electrophiles in acidic and

rk
basic medium respectively.

D) and are the electrophiles is acidic and
basic medium
respectively.
Paragraph – 16
Pinacol is a 1,2, diol which on treating with acid produces pinacalone(ketone).
It is an intramolecular rearrangement. The reaction starts with the protonation of
hydroxyl group followed by elimination of water and formation of carbocation. The
carbocation is then stabilized by Whitmore1,2 shift.
-
Page No 14
Te
le
gr
46.
am
@
C
he
m
47. Which of the following a compounds, on pinacol-pinacalone rearrangement

is
produces a compound which gives a precrpitate with KOI ?

try
_S
pa
rk
48.
Which of the following is not correct about the compound X and Y ?

a) (X) is can be reduced to 1-phenylethane on treating with
b) (X) on treating with followed by treating with PCl5 produces
two amides.
c) (Y)- may be obtained by the crossed reductive coupling between acetone
and benzophenone.
d) (X) gives yellow precipitate with NaOI.
Paragraph – 17
-
Page No 15
The mechanism of arene oxide rearrangement is as follows:
In all the reactions of arene oxide rearrangement , first

Carbocation is stabilized and then major products are decided.
49.
A) B) C) D)
Te
le
50.
gr
am
@
A) B) C) D) All
C
he
m
51.
is
try
_S
pa
A) B) C) D) All
rk
-
Page No 16
AEP – KEY SHEET
Comprehensions Answers
1 D 2 A 3 B 4 B 5 A 6 C
7 D 8 D 9 C 10 A 11 C 12 D
13 B 14 A 15 A 16 17 18
19 D 20 A 21 B 22 B 23 A 24 C
25 B 26 C 27 C 28 D 29 A 30 B
31 C 32 C 33 B 34 B 35 C 36 B
37 A 38 B 39 A 40 A 41 A 42 B
43 D 44 C 45 C 46 B 47 A 48 C
49 B 50 C 51 A
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
AEP – SOLUTIONS
Page No 17
>
-
Comprehensions solutions
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. H2SO4 causes dehydration
7. D
8. D
9. C
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
--
Page No 18
10, 11, 12
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
13. Conceptual
14. Conceptual
15. Conceptual
16. Conceptual
17. Conceptual
18. Conceptual
19. Conceptual
=
Page No 19
20. Conceptual
21. Conceptual
22. Conceptual
23. Conceptual
24. Conceptual
25,26,27
Te
28,29,30 Passage
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
31, 32 & 33
_S
pa
rk
=
Page No 20
corresponding mixture of alcohols
34, 35 & 36
Te
le
gr
am
37. Protonation of C = C followed by ring expansion and finally deprotonation

@
occurs.
C
38. Protonation of C = C followed by ring expansion and finally deprotonation

he
occurs.
39. Protonation of –OH followed by removal of water and 1,2-shift and
m
deprotonation to give aromatic ring

is
try
_S
pa
rk
40.
-
Page No 21
41. Conceptual
42. Conceptual
43.
Te
44. Acid converts acid anhydride to the more powerful electrophile,

le
group. On the other hand base converts phenol to the more

gr
powerful phenoxide ion.

am
45.
In presence of Acids, is protonated to form in which carbon is
@
made electron deficient than that in . In presence of , phenol is

C
converted into phenoxide. Which being a strong nucleophile is easily

he
attacked by weaker nucleophile the unprotonated .

m
46.
is
try
_S
pa
rk
47.
48.
-
Page No 22
49.
Similarly other reactions can be explained.

50.
51.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
=>
Page No 23
Statement answers type questions:
(A) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is True; STATEMENT–2 is a Correct
explanation for STATEMENT–1
(B) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is True; STATEMENT–2 is NOT a
Correct explanation for STATEMENT–1
(C) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is False
(D) STATEMENT–1 is False, STATEMENT–2 is True
1. Statement - I: of phenol is highly activating group for reactions but
phenol is very poor substrate for Friedel – Crafts reaction.
Statement - II: Phenol is nucleophile and is electrophile. Acid – base
reaction between these two leads to the formation of complex

C 6 H 5  O  AlCl 3
Te
H
le
2. Statement - I: Secondary alcohol having group undergoes haloform

gr
reaction.
am
Statement - II: Alcohol converts into carbonyl compound in the presence of

@
3. STATEMENT 1 : Di-tertiary butyl ether cannot be prepared by Williamson’s

C
ether synthesis.
he
Statement II : Tertiary Butyl bromide on treatment with sodium tertiary

m
butoxide as it preferentially undergoes elimination to form isobutylene and

is
tertiary butyl alcohol

try
4. Statement I : The acidity of alcohols follows the order 1 0 > 20 > 30

Statement II: The +I effect of alkyl groups (3 0 > 20 >10) favours the dissociation
_S
of – O – H bond.
pa
5. Statement – 1: p-chloronitrobenzene on reaction with sodium2,6-di-ter-

butyl phenoxide gives
rk
Statement – 2: Steric hinderance prevents the formation of ether.

6. STATEMENT 1: Diethyl ether when exposed to air &sunlight, it forms
peroxides.
STATEMENT 2: The peroxides are detected by treating the ether with Fe +2
followed by KCNS, which gives blood red coloration.
7. Statement –1:
Page No 1
-
40% 20%
40%
Statement – 2: It follows carbocation rearrangement and saytzeff elimination
8. Statement – 1:
Statement – 2:
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
9. Statement 1 : Ethers are prepared from alcohols in acid medium through

try
or mechanisms depending upon nature of alcohol

_S
 +
Statement 2 : ROH  H  R  OH 2
pa
rk
+ slow +
R -O : R -O H 2 R  O  R  H 2O  ROR  H 3O 
H
H
+ slow
Or R  OH  H      
R OH 2  
  R  H 2O
 H 2O
R   O  R R  O   R  R OR  H 3O 
fast
H H
10.Statement 1 : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic

Substitution reaction
-
Page No 2
Statement 2 : OH group of phenol is electron donating group due to resonance
effect.
11. Statement 1 : more acidic than
Statement 2 : Enolate ion is stabilised by resonance
12. Statement 1 : Phenol is soluble in solution
Statement 2 : Acidic substances which are more acidic than are soluble
in Solution
13. Statement 1: In this reaction the product given is correct.
Te
Statement 2: In reactions involving epoxidation followed by hydrolysis, the

le
overall
addition is anti type .
gr
am
@
C
he
AEP – KEY SHEET

m
Statement Answers
is
try
1 A 2 A 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 B
7 D 8 A 9 A 10 A 11 A 12 D
_S
13 A
pa
rk
-
Page No 3
AEP– SOLUTIONS
Statement solutions
1.

C 6 H 5  O  AlCl 3
Group is  Igroup hence deactivating group

2.
OH  O
| X || X 2 / OH
R  CH  CH 3 R  C  CH 3 RCOO CHX 3
3. Conceptual
Te
4. Conceptual
le
5. Conceptual
gr
6. Conceptual
am
7. Conceptual
8. Conceptual
9. Ethers are prepared by substitution reaction of Alcohol.
@
10. -OH group is strong activating group.

C
11. Conjugate base of vinyl alcohol is resonance stablised.

he
12. The pka value of Phenol is 9.89 where as the pka value of is 6.36
m
13. Statement 1: In this reaction the product given is correct.

is
try
_S
pa
Statement 2: In reactions involving epoxidation followed by hydrolysis, the

rk
overall
addition is anti type .
-
Page No 4
1. (c) group (d) – NO group
6. Cumene process is the most important commercial
method for the manufacture of phenol. Cumene is
[KCET 2004]
Here, D is [BVP 2004] (a) 1-methyl ethyl benzene (b) Ethyl benzene
(c) Vinyl benzene (d) Propyl benzene
(a) 7. The compound X in the reaction [Roorkee 1999]
ONa OH
Te
+ CO2X
(b)
COOH
le
is
gr
(c) COONa ONa

am
(a) (b)
COONa
(d)
@
ONa OCOONa
(c) (d)
2. Phenol is more acidic than [Pb. CET 2003]
C
COOH
he
OH OH 8. Reaction
OCH3
m
(a) (b)
is
NO2
try
_S
(c) (d) Both (a) and (c)
3. In the reaction,
pa
product
rk
(A) is [Pb. CET 2000]

(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Cinnamic acid
(c) -nephthol (d) Phenol
is called [MP PET 2003]
4. The correct order of ease of dehydration of following
is (a) Lederer Manasse reaction
[CPMT 2004] (b) Claisen condensation
(c) Benzoin condensation
OH OH OH
(d) Etard reaction
I II III
9. When phenol is reacted with and
(a) I > II > III (b) III > II > I followed by acidification, salicyldehyde is obtained.
(c) I > III > II (d) III > I > II Which of the following species are involved in the
above mentioned reaction as inter mediate [DCE 2000]
5. reacts with a compound containing [Pb. CET
2002] O O
(a) group (b) – OH group

H CHCl 2
(a) CCl 3 (b)
(d) Ethanol > n-propanol > n-butyl alcohol
O 14. Which one of the following will most readily be
H dehydrated in acidic condition [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2000]
CHCl OH OH
(c) | (d) All of these O
OH
(a) (b)
10. The order of solubility of alkanols in water is
(a) Propanol < Butanol > Pentanol O OH
(b) Propanol > Butanol > Pentanol
(c) Propanol > Butanol < Pentanol (c) (d)
(d) Propanol = Butanol = Pentanol OH OH
11. In the following compounds 15. Which of the following compounds will be most easily
OH OH OH OH attacked by an electrophile [CBSE PMT 1998, 99]
Cl
(a) (b)
NO 2
Te
CH3 NO2 OH CH3

(I) (II (III) (IV) (c) (d)
le
)
gr
The order of acidity is [IIT-JEE 1996] 16. Fittig's reaction produces

am
(a) (b) (a) Alkane (b) Alcohol

(c) (d) (c) Diphenyl (d) Diethyl ether
12. Butanal with dilute NaOH gives [UPSEAT 2000]
17. p-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to
@
give the compound A which adds hydrogen cyanide to

C
(a) form, the compound B. The latter on acidic hydrolysis

he
gives chiral carboxylic acid. The structure of the

carboxylic acid is
m
(b) [AIEEE 2005]

CH3 CH3
is
(c) CH(OH)COOH
try
(a) (b)
CH(OH)COOH
_S
OH OH
(d)
pa
CH3 CH3
CH2COOH
rk
13. The correct order of the solubility of the different (c) (d)
alcohols in water is [Pune CET 1998] CH2COOH
OH OH
(a) n-propyl alcohol > ethyl alcohol > n-butyl alcohol
(b) Ethyl alcohol > n-butyl alcohol > n-propyl alcohol
(c) n-butyl alcohol > n-propyl alcohol > ethyl alcohol
Te
le
(SET -26)
gr
am
1. (c) The reaction sequence is as follows

@
5. (b) is used in organic chemistry to replace the –

OH group by –Cl and carbonylic oxygen by
C
.
he
CH3 CH3 O – OH
m
|
CH C – (CH3)2 CH
is
O2  CH3
6. (a) 
 H 2O / H
   + CO
try
catalyst
CH3
Cumene or Pheno Acetone
_S
1, methyl l
ethyl
2. (d) Methoxy group due to +I effect increase electron
pa
benzene
density on OH – group, thus making it less acidic. ONa ONa OH
Thus o-methoxy phenol and acetylene are less
rk
acidic than phenol, p-nitrophenol is more acidic COOH COOH

7. (b) +
than phenol
3. (b) Perkin reaction is the condensation reaction in
It is Kolbe’s reaction.
which an aromatic aldehyde is heated with an
aromatic aldehyde is heated with an anhydride of 8. (a) It is Lederer Manasse reaction.
an aliphatic acid in presence of sodium salt of
same acid to form ,  unsaturated acid.
***
OH O OH
4. (b) The correct order of stability of carbocation is as CHCl2 CHO
follows +CHCl3+NaOH –HCl –H2O
9. (b)
OH OH OH
Intermediat Salicyldehyd
II II I e e
I
10. (b) Propanol > Butanol> Pentanol
The solubility of alcohols in water decreases as the
molecular mass increases. As the size of alkyl
group increases, hydrophobic character increases,
Hence solubility decreases.
11. (d) IV > III > I > II.
group is electron withdrawing group
while group is electron releasing group.
12. (d)
Te
13. (d) Ethanol > n-propanol > n-butyl alcohol

Solubility of alcohols in water decreases as the
le
size of alkyl group increases because tendency to

form hydrogen bonding decreases.
gr
14. (a) Aldols (-hydroxy aldehydes or -hydroxy ketones)

am
readily undergo dehydration to form , -

unsaturated aldehydes or ketones.
+
O OH O OH2 O
@
H +
–H , –H2O
+
C
-Hydroxy H H
ketone
he
15. (c) Phenol is most easily attacked by an electrophile

because presence of –OH group increases electron
m
density at o- and p- positions.

is
16. (c)
try
CH3 CH3 CH3

_S
OH
17. (b)
CHCl 3
 
 OH

CHCl2 CHO
pa
 
OH O O
A
rk
CH3 CH3
CH(OH)CN CH(OH)COOH
OH OH
#
Aldehyde & Ketone
9. is
(a) Acetaldehyde cyanohydrin

(b) Acetone cyanohydrin
Introduction (c) Cyanoethanol
(d) Ethanol nitrile
1. Reaction of acetaldehyde with HCN followed by 10. Ethanedial has which functional group(s)
hydrolysis gives a compound which shows [MP PET (a) One ketonic (b) Two aldehydic
1997]
(c) One double bond (d) Two double bond
(a) Optical isomerism (b) Geometrical isomerism
(c) Metamerism (d) Tautomerism 11. In the group the carbonyl carbon is joined
2. In aldehydes and ketones, carbon of carbonyl group is
[MP PMT 1995; RPET 1999, 2000] to other atoms by
(a) hybridised (b) hybridised (a) Two sigma and one pi bonds
Te
(c) sp hybridised (d) Unhybridised (b) Three sigma and one pi bonds
3. The IUPAC name of the following structure is (c) One sigma and two pi bonds
le
(d) Two sigma and two pi bonds

gr
12. Which of the following types of isomerism is shown by

pentanone [MP PMT 1995]
am
[MP PMT 1995] (a) Chain isomerism (b) Position isomerism

(a) 1-hydroxy 4-methyl 3-pentanone (c) Functional isomerism (d) All of these
@
(b) 2-methyl 5-hydroxy 3-pentanone 13. IUPAC name of is [MP PMT/PET 1988]
(c) 4-methyl 3-oxo 1-pentanol
C
(a) Chloral (b) Trichloro acetaldehyde

(d) Hexanol-1, one-3
he
(c) 1, 1, 1-trichloroethanal (d) 2, 2, 2-trichloroethanal

4. Glyoxal is [BVP 2003]
14. Which of the following is a mixed ketone [AFMC 1997]
m
(a) Pentanone (b) Acetophenone

(a) (b)
is
(c) Benzophenone (d) Butanone

try
15. Chloral is [CPMT 1976, 84]
(c) (d) (a) (b)

_S
(c) (d)
5. Aldehydes are isomeric with
pa
16. Carbonyl compounds are usually

(a) Ketones (b) Ethers
(a) Ethers, aldehydes, ketones and carboxylic acids
(c) Alcohols (d) Fatty acids
rk
6. Which of the following compounds does not contain (b) Aldehydes, ketones and carboxylic acids
an group [CPMT 1982] (c) Aldehydes and ketones
(a) Phenol (b) Carboxylic acid (d) Carboxylic acids
(c) Aldehydes (d) Alcohols 17. Acetone and acetaldehyde are [KCET 1998]
7. IUPAC name of is [MP PET 1991] (a) Position isomers (b) Functional isomers
(a) Acetone (b) 2-propanone (c) Not isomers (d) Chain isomers
(c) Dimethyl ketone (d) Propanal 18. Which of the aldehyde is most reactive ? [DCE 2004]
8. What is the compound called if remaining two (a) (b)
valencies of a carbonyl group are satisfied by two alkyl
(c) (d) All the equally reactive
groups
[CPMT 1990]
Preparation
(a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone
(c) Acid (d) Acid chloride 1. The end product in the following sequence of reaction
is
(c) (d)
[Bihar CEE 2002]

(a) Acetic acid (b) Isopropyl alcohol
(c) Acetone (d) Ethanol 9.
The above reaction is called

2. In the following reaction, product P is
[JIPMER 1997]
(a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (b) Cannizzaro reaction
[CBSE PMT 1991, 2000, 02; Kerala CET 2001;
(c) Rosenmund reaction (d) Reformatsky reaction
IIT 1992; AIIMS 1997; AFMC 1998] 10. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl
(a) (b) chloride is called
[CBSE PMT 1996; AFMC 1998, 99; AIIMS 2000;
(c) (d) JIPMER 2001; AFMC 2001; DCE 2004]
3. Acetophenone is prepared from [CPMT 2003] (a) Cannizzaro reaction (b) Wurtz reaction
(a) Rosenmund reaction (c) Etard reaction (d) Reimer-Tiemann
(b) Sandmayer reaction reaction
Te
(c) Wurtz reaction 11. From which of the following tertiary butyl alcohol is
le
(d) Friedel craft reaction obtained by the action of methyl magnesium iodide
4. Compound which gives acetone on ozonolysis [MP CET 2000]
gr
[UPSEAT 2003] (a) (b)

am
(a) (b) (c) (d)

12. Catalyst used in Rosenmund reduction is [Bihar MEE
@
1997]
(c) (d)
(a) Pd / (b) Zn-Hg couple
C
5.
he
(c) (d)
product ‘A’ in the reaction is [RPMT 2003] 13. Butanone, R is [BHU 2003]
m
(a) (b)
is
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
try
(c) (d)
6. Which one of the following compounds is prepared in
14. Dry heating of calcium acetate gives
_S
the laboratory from benzene by a substitution

reaction [DPMT 1979, 81, 96; NCERT 1981; KCET 1993;
Bihar CEE 1995; MNR 1986; MP PMT 1997;
pa
[EAMCET 2003]
(a) Glyoxal (b) Cyclohexane MP PET 1993, 95; JIPMER 2002; AIIMS 1996;
rk
CPMT 1982, 86, 96, 2003; RPMT 2002]

(c) Acetophenone (d) Hexabromo
cyclohexane (a) Acetaldehyde (b) Ethane
(c) Acetic acid (d) Acetone
7. Ketones where alkyl group. 15. Identify the product C in the series
It can be obtained in one step by [CBSE PMT 1997]

[MP PET 1999]
(a) Hydrolysis of esters
(b) Oxidation of primary alcohol (a) (b)
(c) Oxidation of secondary alcohol (c) (d)

(d) Reaction of acid halide with alcohols 16. Acetophenone is prepared by the reaction of which of
8. Predict the product ‘B’ in the sequence of reaction the following in the presence of catalyst [AIIMS
1996]
[CBSE PMT 2001]
(a) Phenol and acetic acid
(a) (b) (b) Benzene and acetone
(c) Benzene and acetyl chloride
(d) Phenol and acetone 27. can be obtained by
17. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation gives [CBSE PMT 1992]
[RPMT 1997; BHU 1997]
(a) Heating acetaldehyde with methanol
(a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehyde (b) Oxidation of propyl alcohol
(c) Ether (d) Ethylene (c) Oxidation of isopropyl alcohol
18. On heating calcium acetate and calcium formate, the (d) Reduction of propionic acid
product formed is
28. Propyne on hydrolysis in presence of HCl and
[DPMT 1984; EAMCET 1985; MP PMT 1996, 92;
gives [DPMT 1980; CPMT 1983]
KCET 1990; CPMT 1979, 82, 84; BIT 1992; RPET 2000]
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Acetone
(a) (b)
(c) Formaldehyde (d) None of these
(c) (d) 29. Which of the following on reaction with gives
19. Which of the following compound gives a ketone with urinary antiseptic compound [MP PMT 1999]
Grignard reagent [CPMT 1988; MP PET 1997]
(a) HCHO (b)
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) (d)
(c) Methyl cyanide (d) Methyl iodide
30. The oxidation product of 2-propanol with hot conc.
Te
20. In the Rosenmund's reduction, taken with

is
catalyst Pd acts as
le
[JIPMER 1997]
(a) Promotor (b) Catalytic poison
gr
(a) Ethanoic acid (b) Propanone

(c) Cooperator (d) Absorber
(c) Propanal (d) None of these
am
21. The Clemmenson reduction of acetone yields

31. Hydrolysis of ozonide of 1-butene gives [Kerala PMT
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethanal 2003]
(c) Propane (d) Propanol (a) Ethylene only
@
22. Catalyst is used in [BHU 1995] (b) Acetaldehyde and Formaldehyde

C
(a) Stephen's reduction (c) Propionaldehyde and Formaldehyde

he
(b) Cannizzaro reaction (d) Acetaldehyde only

(c) Clemmensen's reduction (e) Acetaldehyde and Oxalic acid
m
(d) Rosenmund's reduction 32. Ketones are prepared by

is
23. Methyl ethyl ketone is prepared by the oxidation of (a) Clemmensen's reduction (b) Cannizzaro reaction
try
[IIT-JEE 1987; MP PMT 1992] (c) Rosenmund's reduction (d) Oppenaur's

oxidation
(a) 2-propanol (b) 1-butanol
_S
(c) 2-butanol (d) t-butyl alcohol 33. reacts with to form ozonide. On
24. Benzaldehyde can be prepared by oxidation of hydrolysis it forms [MP PET 1986, 90]
pa
toluene by (a) Ethylene oxide (b) HCHO

(c) Ethylene glycol (d) Ethyl alcohol
rk
[BHU 1986]
(a) Acidic (b) 34. Ethyne on reaction with water in the presence of
and gives [UPSEAT 1999; BVP 2003]
25.
(c) Acetic acid (d) Ethyl alcohol
Compound X is [DPMT 1979, 83]
35. A, the compound A is
(a) (b)
[Orissa JEE 2004]
(c) (d)
26. Which of the following gases when passed through
(a)
warm dilute solution of in presence of
gives acetaldehyde
(b)
[EAMCET 1986]
(c)
(a) (b)
(d) None of these
(c) (d)
36. When a mixture of methane and oxygen is passed
through heated molybdenum oxide, the main product
formed is [Kerala PMT 2003]
[KCET 2004]
(a) Methanoic acid (b) Ethanal (a)
(c) Methanol (d) Methanal (b)
37. Benzoin is [KCET 2004] (c)
(a) Compound containing an aldehyde and a ketonic
(d)
group
(b) , -unsaturated acid 2. When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH
(c) -hydroxy aldehyde solution, the product (s) obtained is (are)
(d) -hydroxy ketone OH OH [CBSE PMT 2003]
38. The oxidation of benzyl chloride with lead nitrate gives CH – CH
[MP PMT 2004] (a)
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Benzoic acid
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) p-chlorobenzaldehyde OH OH
39.
Te
COO  CH 2 OH
[DPMT 2004]
+
le
(b)
The above reaction is
gr
(a) Mendius reaction (b) Oxo process OH OH

am
(c) Sandorn's reaction (d) Stephen's reaction

40. Glycerol reacts with potassium bisulphate to produce COO 
CH 2 OH
[Pb. CET 2003] +
@
(a) Allyl iodide (b) Allyl sulphate (c)

(c) Acryl aldehyde (d) Glycerol trisulphate Cl Cl
C
41. The reagent used in Gatterman Koch aldehyde

he
OH OH
synthesis is
[CPMT 2004] CH – CH
m
(a) (b) alkaline

is
(d)
(c) acidic (d)
try
Cl Cl
CH3
_S
42. On reductive ozonolysis yields

[Orissa JEE 2005]
pa
(a) 6-oxoheptanal (b) 6-oxoheptanoic acid 3. A and B in the following reactions are
(c) 6-hydroxyheptanal (d) 3-hydroxypentanal
rk
43. An alkene of molecular formula on ozonolysis

gives 2,2 dimethyl propanal & 2-butanon, then the [CBSE PMT 2003]
alkene is
[Kerala CET 2005] (a)
(a) 2, 2, 4-trimethyl –3-hexene
(b) 2, 2, 6-trimethyl-3-hexene (b)
(c) 2, 3, 4-trimethyl-2-hexene
(d) 2, 2, 4-trimethyl-2-hexene (c)
(e) 2, 2dimethyl-2-heptene
(d)
Properties 4. Reduction of Aldehydes and Ketones to hydrocarbon
take place in the presence of [CPMT 2003]
1. Identify the reactant X and the product Y (a) Zn amalgam and HCl acid
(b)
Hydrolysis (c) Anhydrous
(d) Ni/Pt
(c) (d)
5. Reduction of to can be carried out with
[DCE 2000]
(a) Catalytic reduction (b)
(c) Wolf-Kischner reduction (d)
12. Which of the following products is formed when
6. For which of the following is incorrect benzaldehyde is treated with and the
[CPMT 1985] addition product so obtained is subjected to acid
(a) On oxidation it yields benzoic acid hydrolysis
(b) It is used in perfumery [Haryana CEET 2000]
(c) It is an aromatic aldehyde (a) Secondary alcohol (b) A primary alcohol
(d) On reduction yields phenol (c) Phenol (d) Tert-Butyl alcohol
7. Grignard reagent on reaction with acetone forms 13. Aldol condensation will not be observed in [GATE 2001]
[BHU 1995; RPMT 2002; Roorkee 1990] (a) Chloral (b) Phenyl acetaldehyde
(a) Tertiary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol (c) Hexanal (d) Ethanol
(c) Acetic acid (d) Acetaldehyde 14. Which of the following compounds containing
Te
8. Which of the following is incorrect [CBSE PMT 2001] carbonyl group will give coloured crystalline
(a) is used in the detection of phenols compound with NHNH 2
le
(b) Fehling solution is used in the detection of

gr
glucose O2 N NO 2
am
(c) Tollen’s reagent is used in detection of

unsaturation
@
(d) is used in the detection of carbonyl

(a) (b)
compounds
C
9. Consider the following statement Acetophenone can (c) (d)

he
be prepared by
(e)
(1) Oxidation of 1-phenylethanol
m
(2) Reaction of benzalthanol with methyl magnesium 15. Which of the following organic compounds exhibits
positive Fehling test as well as iodoform test
is
bromide
[MP PET 1994; KCET 2001]
try
(3) Friedel craft’s reaction of benzene with acetyl

chloride (a) Methanal (b) Ethanol
_S
(4) Distillation of calcium benzoate [SCRA 2001] (c) Propanone (d) Ethanal
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 16. Which of the following compound will undergo self
pa
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 aldol condensation in the presence of cold dilute alkali
10. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly [CBSE PMT 1994]
rk
matched (a) (b)

[SCRA 2001]
(c) (d)
(a)
17. Acetaldehyde when treated with dilute NaOH gives
(b)
[EAMCET 1998]
(c)
(a)
(d)
11. Which of the following gives aldol condensation (b)
reaction
[CPMT 2001] (c)
(a) (b)
(d)
18. and can be distinguished [AIIMS 1992; MP PMT 1990, 96; CET Pune 1998
DPMT 1981; CPMT 1976]
by testing with
[EAMCET 1998; CPMT 1994, 97; MP PET 1995; (a) (b)
MP PMT 1996; RPMT 1997, 99] (c) (d)
(a) Phenyl hydrazine (b) Hydroxylamine 27. Which of the following will not give iodoform test
(c) Fehling solution (d) Sodium bisulphite [Kurukshetra CEE 1991; Bihar CEE 1995;
19. Which of the following will undergo aldol CBSE PMT 1998; MP PMT 2004]
condensation (a) Ethanal (b) Ethanol
[IIT 1998] (c) 2-propanone (d) 3-pentanone
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Propanaldehyde 28. Which of the following will not give the iodoform test
[MNR 1994]
(c) Benzaldehyde (d)
(a) Acetophenone (b) Ethanal
Trideuteroacetaldehyde
(c) Benzophenone (d) Ethanol
20. Which of the following oxidation reactions can be
29. Haloform test is given by the following substance
carried out with chromic acid in aqueous acetone at
[EAMCET 1988]
(a) HCHO (b)
Te

(c) (d)
le
(a)
30. Dimethyl ketones are usually characterised through
gr
[MNR 1992]
(a) Tollen's reagent (b) Iodoform test
am
(b)
(c) Schiff's test (d) Benedict's reagent
31. The light yellow compound produced when acetone
@
reacts with iodine and alkali, is [MP PMT 1992; EAMCET

1993]
(c)
C
(a) (b)
he
(d)
21. Acetaldehyde cannot show [AIIMS 1997]
m
32. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated, then we get

(a) Iodoform test (b) Lucas test [MP PET 1999; KCET 2000]
is
(c) Benedict's test (d) Tollen's test (a) Acetylene (b) Methane
try
22. Benzaldehyde (c) Methyl alcohol (d) Ethyl formate

33. Which of the following reagent reacts differently with
_S
[CPMT 1997, 2001; CBSE PMT 1999; Pb. PMT 1999]

(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Benzoic alcohol and [MP PET
pa
1999]
(c) Hydrobenzamide (d) Cinnamic acid
(a) HCN (b)
23. The following reagent converts to
rk
(c) (d)
34. Acetaldehyde reacts with the final
(a) Aq. NaOH (b) Acidic
product is
(c) (d) [Pb. CET 1985]
24. Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate is obtained by (a) An aldehyde (b) A ketone
the action of sodium hydroxide on benzaldehyde. This (c) A primary alcohol (d) A secondary alcohol
reaction is known as [KCET 2005] 35. Treatment of propionaldehyde with dilute NaOH
(a) Perkin’s reaction (b) Cannizzaro’s reaction solution gives [MNR 1992]
(c) Sandmeyer’s reaction (d) Claisen condensation (a)
25. To distinguish between formaldehyde and (b)
acetaldehyde, we require [Orissa PMT 1987]
(a) Tollen's reagent (b) Fehling's solution (c)
(c) Schiff's reagent (d) Caustic soda solution (d)
26. Which of the following does not give iodoform test
36. Aldol condensation of acetaldehyde involves the (c) Benedict solution (d) All of these
formation of which of the following intermediate [Pb. 45. Silver mirror is a test for [DPMT 1983; CBSE PMT 1988]
CET 1986]
(a) Aldehydes (b) Thio alcohols
(a) Acetate ion (b) A carbanion
(c) Amines (d) Ethers
(c) A carbonium ion (d) A free radical
37. 46. is oxidised to
using
This polymer (B) is obtained when acetone is saturated [NCERT 1978]
with hydrogen chloride gas, B can be (a) Alkaline (b) Selenium dioxide
[CBSE PMT 1989]
(c) Ammoniacal (d) All of these
(a) Phorone (b) Formose
(c) Diacetone alcohol (d) Mesityl oxide 47. Which of the following does not turn Schiff's reagent
38. Aromatic aldehydes undergo disproportionation in to pink
presence of sodium or potassium hydroxide to give [DPMT 1981; CPMT 1989]
corresponding alcohol and acid. The reaction is known (a) Formaldehyde (b) Benzaldehyde
as [MNR 1987] (c) Acetone (d) Acetaldehyde
(a) Wurtz's reaction (b) Cannizzaro reaction
Te
48. Fehling's test is positive for [KCET 1993]

(c) Friedel-Craft's reaction (d) Claisen reaction
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Benzaldehyde
39. m-chlorobenzaldehyde on reaction with conc. KOH at
le
(c) Ether (d) Alcohol

room temperature gives [IIT-JEE 1991]
gr
49. Acetaldehyde and acetone differ in their reaction with

(a) Potassium m-chlorobenzoate and m-hydroxy
[KCET 1989]
am
benzaldehyde
(b) m-hydroxy benzaldehyde and m-chlorobenzyl (a) Sodium bisulphite
alcohol (b) Ammonia
@
(c) m-chlorobenzyl alcohol and m-hydroxy benzyl (c) Phosphorus pentachloride

alcohol (d) Phenyl hydrazine
C
(d) Potassium m-chlorobenzoate and m-chlorobenzyl 50. The final product formed when acetaldehyde is
he
alcohol reduced with sodium and alcohol is [BHU 1976]

40. Which of the following does not give yellow precipitate (a) Ethylene (b) Ethyl alcohol
m
with [MP PMT 1997] (c) Ethene (d) All of these

is
(a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehyde 51. The compound obtained by the reduction of
try
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Acetophenone propionaldehyde by amalgamated zinc and

41. The alkaline containing sodium potassium concentrated HCl is [MP PMT 1983]
_S
tartrate does not react with [MP PMT 1997] (a) Propanol (b) Propane
(a) (b) (c) Propene (d) All of these

pa
52. Formaldehyde when treated with KOH gives methanol

(c) (d)
and potassium formate. The reaction is known as
rk
42. Correct order of reactivity of [MP PET 1997]

and is (a) Perkin reaction (b) Claisen reaction
[MP PMT 1991] (c) Cannizzaro reaction (d) Knoevenagel reaction
(a) 53. Aldehydes and ketones give addition reaction with
[KCET 1992]
(b)
(a) Hydrazine (b) Phenyl hydrazine
(c)
(c) Semicarbazide (d) Hydrogen cyanide
(d) (e) All of these
43. One mole of an organic compound requires 0.5 mole 54. Acetaldehyde reacts with [CBSE PMT 1991]
of oxygen to produce an acid. The compound may be (a) Electrophiles only
[NCERT 1981] (b) Nucleophiles only
(a) Alcohol (b) Ether (c) Free radicals only
(c) Ketone (d) Aldehyde (d) Both electrophiles and nucleophiles
44. Aldehydes can be oxidised by [NCERT 1983] 55. The typical reactions of aldehyde is [Pb. CET 1986]
(a) Tollen's reagent (b) Fehling solution
(a) Electrophilic addition (b) Nucleophilic
substitution
(c) Nucleophilic addition (d) Nucleophilic
64. Cinnamic acid is formed when
elimination
condenses with in presence of [Orissa
56. Which will not give acetamide on reaction with
ammonia JEE 2003]
[CPMT 1985] (a) Conc. (b) Sodium acetate

(a) Acetic acid (b) Acetyl chloride (c) Sodium metal (d) Anhydrous
(c) Acetic anhydride (d) Methyl formate 65. A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on
57. The addition of to carbonyl compounds is an heating with aqueous solution gives
example of [Haryana CEET 2000] [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2001]
(a) Nucleophilic substitution (a) Benzyl alcohol and sodium formate
(b) Electrophilic addition (b) Sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
(c) Nucleophilic addition (c) Sodium benzoate and sodium formate
(d) Electrophilic substitution (d) Benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol
58. Which of the following reagents is used to distinguish 66. The reaction,
Te
acetone and acetophenone [RPMT 2002; KCET 1998]
(a) (b) Grignard reagent

le
(c) (d)
gr
is called [MP PMT

59. The product formed by the reaction of chlorine with
am
benzaldehyde in the absence of a catalyst is 2003]

[Tamil Nadu CET 2002] (a) Perkin’s reaction (b) Claisen Schmidt
reaction
@
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) Benzyl chloride

(c) Benzoyl Chloride (d) o-Chlorobenzaldehyde (c) Esterification (d) Trans-esterification
C
60. Which of the following compound is resistant to 67. Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to give
he
nucleophilic attack by hydroxyl ions urotropine. The formula of urotropine is

[CBSE PMT 1998; KCET (Med.) 2001; AFMC 2001] [MP PMT 1989, 96, 2003; AIIMS 1982; NCERT 1987;
m
MP PET 1990, 91, 2000; CPMT 1978, 82, 86, 97; KCET 2003]
(a) Methyl acetate (b) Acetonitrile
(a) (b)
is
(c) Dimethyl ether (d) Acetamide

61. Glucose molecule reacts with X number of molecules
try
(c) (d)
of phenylhydrazine to yield osazone. The value of X is
68. Aldol condensation will not take place in
_S
[CBSE PMT 1998]

[CBSE PMT 1996, 99; RPMT 1999; CPMT 1988, 04]
(a) One (b) Two
(a) HCHO (b)
pa
(c) Three (d) Four

62. In which of the following reactions aromatic aldehyde (c) (d)
rk
is treated with acid anhydride in presence of 69. Contents of three bottles were found to react
corresponding salt of the acid to give unsaturated (i) Neither with Fehling's solution nor with Tollen's
aromatic acid reagent
[BHU 1998, KCET (Med.) 2001]
(ii) Only with Tollen's reagent but not with Fehling's
(a) Friedel-Craft's reaction (b) Perkin reaction
solution
(c) Wurtz reaction (d) None of these
(iii) With both Tollen's reagent and Fehling's solution.
63. Product, product in the If they contained either ethanal (acetaldehyde) or
propanone (acetone) or benzal (benzaldehyde),
reaction is [RPMT 2003] which bottle contained which
(a) In (i) benzal, in (ii) ethanal and in (iii) propanone
(a) (b) (b) In (i) benzal, in (ii) propanone and in (iii) ethanal
(c) In (i) propanone, in (ii) benzal and in (iii) ethanal
(d) In (i) propanone, in (ii) ethanal and in (iii) benzal
70. Action of hydrazine on aldehydes and ketones gives
compound of the general structure
(a) is known as [BHU 1996]
(b) (a) Perkin's reaction (b) Claisen condensation

(c) Benzoin condensation (d) Cannizzaro's reaction
(c)
81. When two molecules of acetaldehyde condense in the
(d) presence of dilute alkali, it forms [Bihar MEE 1996]
71. The reaction in which sodium cyanide is used (a) Acetal (b) Sodium formate
[MP PET/PMT 1998] (c) Aldol (d) Mesitylene
(a) Perkin reaction (b) Reimer-Tiemann (e) None of these
reaction 82. Acetaldehyde on treatment with dil. NaOH followed by
(c) Benzoin condensation (d) Rosenmund reaction heating gives [CET Pune 1998]
72. Which one of the following reactions is a method for (a)
the conversion of a ketone into a hydrocarbon
[MP PET/PMT 1998; CBSE PMT 1989]
(b)
(a) Aldol condensation (b) Reimer-Tiemann (c)
reaction
(d)
(c) Cannizzaro reaction (d) Wolf-Kishner reduction
Te
73. Bakelite is a polymer of [DPMT 1996; MP PET 2002]

(a) phenol 83. Reaction is
le
(b) aldehyde (acetaldehyde)

gr
(c) Phenol
[Kurukshetra CEE 1998; IIT 1990]
am
(d) acetone (a) Electrophilic substitution

74. Clemmenson reduction involves to in (b) Electrophilic addition
presence of [DPMT 1996] (c) Nucleophilic addition
@
(a) Zn / Hg (b) Alcohol (d) Nucleophilic substitution

C
(c) Zn dust (d) Zn / alcohol 84. Benzaldehyde on reaction with acetophenone in the
he
75. Aldol condensation involving presence of sodium hydroxide solution gives [BVP
gives the product [DPMT 2003]
m
1996] (a)
is
(a) (b) (b)

try
(c) (d) None of these (c)

76. Enol content is highest in [Orissa JEE 2005] (d)
_S
(a) Acetone (b) Acetophenone

85. Aldehydes and ketones can be reduced to
(c) Acetic acid (d) Acetyl acetone
pa
hydrocarbon by using [Orissa JEE 2003]

77. Which one of the following reacts with HCN and
(a) (b)
rk
Tollen's reagent, but is not oxidised by Fehling's

solution (c) (d)
(a) Methanal (b) Ethanal
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Acetone 86. An important reaction of acetone is autocondensation
78. During reaction of benzaldehyde with alkali one of the in presence of concentrated sulphuric acid to give the
product is aromatic compound
[KCET 2003; MP PET 1986, 89; MP PMT 1992, 2000]
(a) Phenol (b) Benzyl alcohol
(a) Mesitylene (b) Mesityl oxide
(c) Benzene (d) Benzophenone
(c) Trioxan (d) Phorone
79. Cannizzaro reaction is given by [DPMT 1996]
87. Identify the organic compound which, on heating with
(a) HCHO (b) strong solution of , partly converted into an
(c) (d) acid salt and partly into alcohol [KCET 2003]
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Acetaldehyde
80. The reaction
(c) Acetone (d) Benzaldehyde
88. Which of the following does not give brick red
precipitate with Fehling solution [AIIMS 1996]
is
(c) Formalin (d) D-glucose
89. Acetaldehyde and acetone can be distinguished by called
[AIIMS 1996; DCE 1999; Pb. CET 2000] [MP PET 2003]
(a) Molisch test (b) Bromoform test (a) Wolff–Kishner reaction (b) Tischenko reaction
(c) Solubility in water (d) Tollen's test (c) Reformatsky reaction (d) Gattermann reaction
90. Which compound is soluble in [RPMT 1997] 100. Propanal on treatment with dilute sodium hydroxide
forms
(a) HCHO (b)
[Kerala CET 2000]
(c) (d) All
(a)
91.
(b)
What is A ? [RPMT 1997]
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol (c)
(c) Tertiary alcohol (d) Ketone (d)
92. Which gives lactic acid on hydrolysis after reacting 101. Identify the product in the sequence
with HCN [UPSEAT 2003; MP PMT 2003]
Te
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
le
(a) (b)
93. react with aqueous NaOH solution to form
gr
(c) (d)
[MP PMT 1992]
am
102. What is the name of reaction when benzaldehyde

(a) 3-hydroxy butanal (b) 2-hydroxy butanal
changes into benzyl alcohol [CPMT 1996; RPET 1999]
(c) 4-hydroxy butanal (d) 3-hydroxy butanol
(a) Friedel-Craft's reaction (b) Kolbe's reaction
94. Fehling solution react with HCHO to form precipitate of
@
(c) Wurtz reaction (d) Cannizzaro reaction

[MP PMT 1992]
103. The reagent that gives an orange coloured precipitate
C
(a) White colour (b) Yellow colour

with acetaldehyde
he
(c) Red colour (d) Blue colour

[EAMCET 1997; Pb. PMT 2004; AIIMS 1987]
95. Product in following reaction is
(a) (b)
m
Product
(c) Iodine (d) 2, 4-DNP
is
[RPMT 2003; BHU 1998, 2005; DCE 1999]

104. Which one is used in the manufacture of mirror
try
(a) (b)
[MP PET 1992]
(c) (d) (a) Red lead (litharge)
_S
96. , Reactant ‘A’ in the reaction is (b) Ammoniacal

pa
[RPMT 2003] (c) Ammoniacal Red lead

(a) (b) (d) Ammoniacal
rk
(c) (d) 105. When reacts with and NaOH,

which of the following is formed [CPMT 1996]
97. Only an aldehyde having..... can undergo the aldol (a) (b)
condensation [KCET 1998]
(a) At least one beta H atom (c) (d)
(b) At least one alpha H atom 106. Which gives difference between aldehyde and ketone
(c) An aromatic ring [CPMT 1994]
(d) No alpha H atom (a) Fehling's solution (b) Tollen's reagent

98. Clemenson’s reduction of ketones is carried out in (c) Schiff's reagent (d) Benedict's solution
[BHU 2000] (e) All of these
(a) with Pd catalyst (b) Glycol with 107. Aldehyde turns pink with [Bihar MEE 1997]
(a) Benedict solution (b) Schiff reagent
(c) in water (d) with
(c) Fehling solution (d) Tollen's reagent
99. Reaction
(e) Mollisch reagent
108. Which of the following would undergo aldol 117. When acetone is heated with hydroxylamine, the
condensation compound formed is [MP PMT 1993]
[MP PMT 1986; BHU 1995] (a) Cyanohydrin (b) Oxime
(c) Semicarbazone (d) Hydrazone
118. The product of the reaction between ammonia and
(a) (b)
formaldehyde is [MP PMT 1993]
(a) Urotropine (b) Formamide
(c) Paraformaldehyde (d) Methanol
(c) (d) HCHO
119. Which of the following products is obtained by the
109. The reaction of acetaldehyde with conc.
oxidation of propionaldehyde [CPMT 1989]
gives
(a) Acetic acid
[DPMT 1982; AIIMS 1996]
(b) Formic acid and acetic acid
(a) (b)
(c) Propanoic acid
(c) HCHO (d)
(d) n-propyl alcohol
110. When acetaldehyde is heated with Tollen's reagent,
120. When acetaldehyde reacts with the resulting
Te
following is obtained [CPMT 1989; MP PET/PMT 1988]

(a) Methyl alcohol (b) Silver acetate compound is [MP PMT 1992, 93]
le
(c) Silver mirror (d) Formaldehyde (a) Ethyl chloride (b) Ethylene chloride
gr
111. Boiling point of acetone is [CPMT 1975, 89] (c) Ethylidene chloride (d) Trichloro acetaldehyde
121. Benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde can be differentiated
am
(a) (b)
by
(c) (d) (a) HCN (b)
@
112. Urotropine is (c) Hydrazine (d) NaOH solution

(a) Hexamethylene tetramine
C
122. In the presence of a dilute base and

(b) Hexaethylene tetramine
he
react together to give a product. The

(c) Hexamethylene diamine product is
m
(d) None of these [MP PET 1994]

is
113. Magenta is [DPMT 1982; Kurukshetra CEE 1998]

(a) (b)
try
(a) Alkaline phenolphthalein

(c) (d)
(b) Methyl red
_S
(c) p-rosaniline hydrochloride

123. Grignard's reagent reacts with ethanal (acetaldehyde)
(d) Red litmus
pa
and propanone to give

114. An aldehyde on oxidation gives [CPMT 1973, 03;
(a) Higher aldehydes with ethanal and higher ketones
rk
DPMT 1983; Manipal MEE 1995] with propanone

(a) An alcohol (b) An acid (b) Primary alcohols with ethanal and secondary
(c) A ketone (d) An ether alcohols with propanone
115. The reaction of an aldehyde with hydroxylamine gives (c) Ethers with ethanal and alcohols with propanone
a product which is called [MP PET 1993; AFMC 2002] (d) Secondary alcohols with ethanal and tertiary
(a) Aminohydroxide (b) Hydrazone alcohols with propanone
(c) Semicarbazone (d) Oxime 124. Base catalysed aldol condensation occurs with
116. Cannizzaro reaction is not shown by [IIT-JEE 1991]
[BHU 1980; IIT 1983; KCET 1993; Bihar MEE 1995; (a) Benzaldehyde
RPMT 1997, 2000, 02] (b) 2, 2-dimethyl propionaldehyde
(a) HCHO (b) (c) Acetaldehyde

(d) Formaldehyde
125. Benzaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form
[CPMT 1989; AFMC 1998]
(a) Benzaldehyde ammonia 134. The reagent with which both aldehyde and acetone
(b) Urotropine react easily is [CPMT 1973, 74, 89; BIT 1992]
(c) Hydrobenzamide (a) Fehling's reagent (b) Grignard reagent

(d) Aniline (c) Schiff's reagent (d) Tollen's reagent
126. Glucose + Tollen's reagent Silver mirror shows 135. Phenylmethanol can be prepared by reducing the
[CPMT 1997]
benzaldehyde with [CBSE PMT 1997]
(a) Presence of acidic group (a) (b) Zn and HCl

(b) Presence of alkaline group (c) and Na (d) and
(c) Presence of ketonic group 136. Which of the following is used in the manufacture of
(d) Presence of aldehyde group thermosetting plastics
127. Fehling solution is [MP PMT 1989] (a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde
(a) Ammoniacal cuprous chloride solution (b) Acetone (d) Benzaldehyde
(b) Acidified copper sulphate solution 137. Which compound undergoes iodoform reaction
(c) Copper sulphate and sodium hydroxide + Rochelle [DPMT 1984; CPMT 1989]
salt
Te
(a) HCHO (b)

(d) None of these
(c) (d)
le
128. Reduction of an aldehyde produces

138. Which does not react with Fehling solution [MNR 1983,
gr
[MP PMT 1994; MP PET 2001]

93]
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Monocarboxylic acid
am
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Benzaldehyde

(c) Secondary alcohol (d) Tertiary alcohol
(c) Glucose (d) Formic acid
129. Which of the following on reaction with conc. NaOH
@
139. Which of the following compound will react with

gives an alcohol [MP PET 1996]
ethanolic KCN [IIT-JEE 1984]
(a) Methanal (b) Ethanal
C
(a) Ethane (b) Acetyl chloride

(c) Propanal (d) Butanal
he
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Benzaldehyde

130. Schiff's reagent is [MP PMT 1989]
140. Schiff's reagent gives pink colour with
m
(a) Magenta colour solution decolourised with

[EAMCET 1980; MP PMT 2000]
is
sulphurous acid
(a) Aldehydes (b) Ethers
try
(b) Ammoniacal cobalt chloride solution

(c) Ketones (d) Carboxylic acid
(c) Ammoniacal manganese sulphate solution
_S
141. Acetaldehyde reacts with (in excess) to give

(d) Magenta solution decolourised with chlorine
[MP PMT 1997]
131. Pyrolysis of acetone gives called
pa
(a) Chloral (b) Chloroform

(a) Methylene oxide
(c) Acetic acid (d) Trichloroacetic acid
rk
(b) Methyl carbon monoxide

142. The compound which reacts with Fehling solution is
(c) Ketene
[CPMT 1989]
(d) Methone
(a) (b) HCOOH
132. Which one of the following on oxidation will not give a
carboxylic acid with the same number of carbon (c) (d)
atoms 143. Which one of the following undergoes reaction with
[CBSE PMT 1992; MP PET 1996] 50% sodium hydroxide solution to give the
(a) (b) corresponding alcohol and acid
[AIEEE 2004]
(c) (d)
(a) Butanal (b) Benzaldehyde
133. Acetal is obtained by reacting in the presence of dry (c) Phenol (d) Benzoic acid
HCl and alcohol with [MP PET 1996]
144. Which one of the following is reduced with zinc and
(a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone hydrochloric acid to give the corresponding
(c) Ether (d) Carboxylic acid hydrocarbon
[AIEEE 2004] (b) Nitroprusside test
(a) Acetamide (b) Acetic acid (c) Fehling's solution test
(c) Ethyl acetate (d) Butan–2–one (d) DNP test
145. Three molecules of acetone in the presence of dry HCl 154.
form
The reaction given is [DCE 2003]
[MP PET 2004]
(a) Mesitylene (b) Phorone (a) Aldol condensation (b) Knovengel reaction
(c) Glyoxal (d) Mesityl oxide (c) Cannizzaro reaction (d) None of these
146. Aldehydes and ketones can be reduced to 155. The order of susceptibility of nucleophilic attack on
corresponding hydrocarbons by aldehydes follows the order
[Kerala PMT 2004] [DCE 2002]
(a) Refluxing with water (a) 1° > 3° > 2° (b) 1° > 2° > 3°
(b) Refluxing with strong acids (c) 3° > 2° > 1° (d) 2° > 3° > 1°
(c) Refluxing with soda amalgam and water 156. In Wolf-Kishner reduction, the carbonyl group of
(d) Refluxing with zinc amalgam and concentrated aldehydes and ketones is converted into
[Pb. CET 2000]
HCl
Te
(e) Passing the vapour under heated (a) group (b) group
(c) group (d) group
le
147. Acetone reacts with iodine to form iodoform in the

presence of
gr
157. Which of the following react with

[BHU 2004; CPMT 2004]
[Pb. CET 2003]
am
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d) (c) (d) All of these
@
148. Cyanohydrin of which of the following forms lactic 158. Fehling solution is [Pb. CET 2003]
acid
C
(a) + lime (b)

[MHCET 2003]
he
(a) (b)
m
(c) (d)
159. Wolf kishner reduction, reduces
is
149. Which of the following is used to detect aldehydes

[Pb. CET 2003]
try
[MHCET 2004]
(a) group (b) – group
(a) Million's test
_S
(b) Tollen's reagent (c) group (d) group

(c) Neutral ferric chloride solution 160. A compound has a vapour density of 29. On warming
pa
an aqueous solution of alkali, it gives a yellow

(d) Molisch's test
precipitate. The compound is
150. Which of the following aldehydes give red precipitate
rk
[DPMT 2004]
with Fehling solution ? [MHCET 2004]
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) Salicylaldehyde (a) (b)
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) None of these (c) (d)

151. is [MHCET 2004] 161. Which responds to +ve iodoform test ? [Orissa JEE 2004]
(a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehyde (a) Butanol (b) Butan-1-al
(c) Propionaldehyde (d) Formaldehyde (c) Butanol-2 (d) 3-pentanone
152. The aldehyde which react with NaOH to produce an 162. The correct order of reactivity of PhMgBr with
alcohol and sodium salt is [Pb. PMT 2004] [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2004]
(a) HCHO (b)
(c) (d)
153. Acetaldehyde and Acetone can be distinguished by

[DCE 2003] is
(a) Iododorm test
(I) (II) (III) (a) Tollen’s reagent (b) Fehling’s solution
(a) (I) > (II) > (III) (b) (III) > (II) > (I) (c) NaOH/I2/H +
(d) NaOH/NaI/H+
(c) (II) > (III) > (I) (d) (I) > (III) > (II) 173. Ketones react with Mg-Hg over water gives [AFMC 2005]
163. The pair of compounds in which both the compounds (a) Pinacolone (b) Pinacols
give positive test with Tollen's reagent is (c) Alcohols (d) None of these
174. Which of the following will form two isomers with
(a) Glucose and Sucrose semi carbazide [Orissa JEE 2005]
(b) Fructose and Sucrose (a) Benzaldehyde (b) Acetone
(c) Acetophenone and Hexanal
(c) Benzoquinone (d) Benzophenone
(d) Glucose and Fructose
175. A compound on hydrolysis gives
164. The most appropriate reagent to distinguish between
acetaldehyde and formaldehyde is [UPSEAT 2004] which reacts with , forms
iodoform but does not give fehling test. is [DPMT
(a) Fehling's solution
2005]
(b) Tollen's reagent
(c) Schiff's reagent
Te
(a)
(d) Iodine in presence of base
165. Silver mirror test can be used to distinguish between
le
[MP PET 2004]

gr
(a) Ketone and acid (b) Phenol and acid (b)

am
(c) Aldehyde and acid (d) Alcohol and phenol

166. Paraldehyde is
@
[CPMT 1985; MP PET 1992, 96; RPMT 2000]

(c)
(a) A trimer of formaldehyde
C
(b) A trimer of acetaldehyde

he
(c) A hexamer of formaldehyde

(d)
m
(d) A hexamer of acetaldehyde

167. Paraldehyde is used as a [CBSE PMT 1989]
is
176. ; Compound on
(a) Medicine (b) Poison
try
hydrolysis gives [Kerala CET 2005]

(c) Polymer (d) Dye
(a)
_S
168. Formalin is an aqueous solution of

[BHU 1979; DPMT 1983]
(b)
pa
(a) Formic acid (b) Formaldehyde (c)

rk
(c) Fluorescein (d) Furfuraldehyde (d)

169. Hexamethylene tetramine is used as [MP PMT 1979, 84]
(a) Analgesic (b) Antipyretic (e)
(c) Urinary antiseptic (d) All of these
177. Which one does not give cannizzaro's reaction
170. Methyl ketone group is identified by [BCECE 2005]
[Kerala CET 2005]
(a) Iodoform test (b) Fehling solution
(a) Benzaldehyde
(c) Tollen’s reagent (d) Shiff’s reagent
(b) 2-methyl propanal
171. Which of the following does not give Fehling solution
(c) p-methoxy benzaldehyde
test?
[BCECE 2005] (d) 2,2 dimethyl propanal
(a) Acetone (b) Propanal (e) Formaldehyde
(c) Ethanal (d) Butanal

172. How will you convert butan2one to propanoic acid?
[IIT 2005]
(c)
1. Which of the following will fail to react with potassium

dichromate and dilute sulphuric acid (d)
(a) Ethyl alcohol (ethanol) 7. Which is not true about acetophenone [Manipal 2002]
(b) Acetaldehyde (ethanal) (a) Reacts to form 2, 4-dinitorphenyl hydrazine
(c) Secondary propyl alcohol (2-propanol)
(b) Reacts with Tollen’s reagent to form silver mirror
(d) Acetone (propanone)
(c) Reacts with to form iodoform
2. Acetone and acetaldehyde are differentiated by
[CPMT 1987, 93] (d) On oxidation with alkaline followed by
(a) (b) hydrolysis gives benzoic acid
(c) (d) 8. The enol form of acetone, after treatment with

gives
3. Which of the following will react with water [IIT 1998]
(a) (b)
Te
(c) (d) (a) (b)

le
4. An organic compound ‘A’ has the molecular formula

it undergoes iodoform test. When
gr
(c) (d)
saturated with dil. is gives ‘B’ of molecular
am
formula . A and B respectively are [Tamil 9. The appropriate reagent for the transformation
Nadu CET 2002] O
CH 2CH 3
@
(a) Propanal and mesitylene CH 3

(b) Propanone and mesityl oxide
C
HO HO
(c) Propanone and 2,6–dimethyl –2, 5-heptadien–4–
he
one
(d) Propanone and mesitylene oxide
m
(a) (b)
5. Which alkene is formed from the following reaction
is
(c) (d)
try
[Manipal 2001] 10. Which of the following has the most acidic hydrogen
(a) 3- Methyl-3-heptene
_S

(b) 4-Methyl-3-heptene
(a) 3-hexanone (b) 2, 4-hexanedione
pa
(c) 5-Methyl-3-heptene
(c) 2, 5-hexanedione (d) 2, 3-hexanedione
(d) 1-Methyl-5- methane
rk
11. Which of the following will be most readily dehydrated

6. Compound ‘A’ (molecular formula is treated in acidic conditions [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2000]
with acidified potassium dichromate to form a product O OH OH
‘B’ (molecular formula ‘B’ forms a shining (a) (b)
silver mirror on warming with ammoniacal silver
O O
nitrate. ‘B’ when treated with an aqueous solution of
(c) (d)
and sodium acetate gives a
OH OH
product ‘C’. Identify the structure of ‘C’ [IIT-JEE
(Screening) 2002]
(a)
CHO OHC
12.
(i) NaOH / 100o C
   
(b) (ii) H  / H 2O
CHO
Major Product is [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2003]

COOH HOOC
COOH HOOC
(a)
(a)
HO HOOC (b)
(b)
COOH HO (c)
O
O
(c)
(d)
O
Te
O 17. Which of the following reactions give benzo phenone

le
CH2OH HOH 2C
(a)
gr
am
(d) (b)
CH2OH HOH
2C (c)
@
(d)
C
13. Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to

he
nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is [IIT 1997] 18. Aldehyde and ketones can decolourize by [CPMT 2003]
(a) MeCOCl (b) MeCHO (a) Bromine water (b) Quick lime
m
(c) MeCOOMe (d) MeCOOCOMe (c) dil. (d) None of these

is
14. Which of the following will give yellow precipitate with 19. Which of the following statements regarding chemical
try
[IIT 1997]
properties of acetophenone are wrong
(1) It is reduced to methyl phenyl carbinol by sodium
_S
(a) and ethanol

pa
(b) (2) It is oxidised to benzoic acid with acidified

rk
(c)
(3) It does not undergo iodoform electrophilic
(d) substitution like nitration at meta position
(4) It does not undergo iodoform reaction with iodine
15. The product of acid hydrolysis of P and Q can be
and alkali [Tamil Nadu CET 2001]
distinguished by [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2003]
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
OCOCH 3 H 3C (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
P  H 2C Q=
CH 3 OCOCH 3
20. The product(s) obtained via oxymercuration
of 1-butyne would be [IIT-JEE
(a) Lucas Reagent (b) 2,4-DNP 1999]
(a)
(c) Fehling’s Solution (d)
16. On vigorous oxidation by permanganate solution (b)
gives [AIEEE 2002] (c)
(d)
21. The most reactive compound towards formation of
cyanohydrin on treatment with KCN followed by
(c) (d)
acidification is [GATE 2001]
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) p-Nitrobenzaldehyde 29. Products of the following reaction
(c) Phenyl acetaldehyde (d) p-
[CBSE PMT
Hydroxybenzaldehyde
22. The key step in cannizzaro’s reaction is the 2005]
intermolecular shift of [Orissa JEE 2003] (a)

(a) Proton (b) Hydride ion (b)
(c) Hydronium ion (d) Hydrogen bond
(c)
23. Benzophenone does not react with [BHU 2003]
(d)
(a) (b)
30. A compound, containing only carbon, hydrogen and
(c) (d)
oxygen, has a molecular weight of 44. On complete
24. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of oxidation it is converted into a compound of
is [AIIMS 2004] molecular weight 60. The original compound is [KCET
Te
2005]
(a)
le
(a) An aldehyde (b) An acid

(b)
gr
(c) An alcohol (d) an ether

(c)
am
(d) PCC (Pyridine chloro chromate)

25. The conversion of acetophenone to acetanilide is best
@
accomplished by using : [UPSEAT 2004]

(a) Backmann rearrangement
C
(b) Curtius rearrangement

he
(c) Lossen rearrangement

(d) Hofmann rearrangement Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct
m
26. Which of the following will not give iodoform test ? option out of the options given below :
is
[UPSEAT 2004] (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
try
(a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Ethanol the correct explanation of the assertion.
_S
(c) Ethanal (d) Benzyl alcohol

pa
27. (d) If the assertion and reason both are false.

rk
1. Assertion : Acetic acid does not undergo haloform

The compound (X) is [IIT-JEE 2005] reaction.
(a) (b) Reason : Acetic acid has no alpha hydrogens.
(c) (d) [IIT 1998]
28. The major organic product formed from the following 2. Assertion : Benzonitrile is prepared by the reaction
of chlorobenzene with potassium
reaction [CBSE PMT 2005]
O cyanide.
... is Reason : Cyanide (CN–) is a strong nucleophile.
[IIT 1998]
3. Assertion : Lower aldehyde and ketones are soluble
H
NCH 3 in water but the solubility decreases as
molecular mass increases.
(a) (b)
OH NCH 3
H
O.NHCH 3 H
NCH 3
OH
Reason : Aldehydes and ketones can be 15. Assertion : reacts with to form
distinguished by Tollen's reagent. [AIIMS
urotropine.
1994]
Reason : Urotropine is used as medicine in case of
4. Assertion : Acetaldehyde on treatment with alkaline
gives aldol. urinary troubles.
Reason : Acetaldehyde molecules contains  16. Assertion : -Hydrogen atoms in aldehydes and
hydrogen atom. [AIIMS 1997] ketones are acidic.
5. Assertion : Acetylene on treatment with alkaline Reason : The anion left after the removal of -
produce acetaldehyde. hydrogen is stabilized by inductive effect.
17. Assertion : 2, 2–Dimethyl propanal undergoes
Reason : Alkaline is a reducing agent.
Cannizzaro reaction with concentrated
[AIIMS 2000]
NaOH.
6. Assertion : Acetophenone and benzophenone can
Reason : Cannizzaro is a disproportionation
be distinguished by iodoform test.
reaction.
Reason : Acetophenone and benzophenone both
are carbonyl compounds. [AIIMS 2002]
18. Assertion : Benzaldehyde undergoes aldol
condensation.
7. Assertion : Isobutanal does not give iodoform test
Te
Reason : Aldehydes that do not have –hydrogen

Reason : It does not have -hydrogen. [AIIMS 2004]
undergo aldol condensation.
8. Assertion : Benzaldehyde is more reactive than
le
ethanol towards nucleophilic attack.

gr
Reason : The overall effect of –I and +R effect of

am
phenyl group decreases the electron

density on the carbon atom of
group in benzaldehyde.
@
9. Assertion : Aldol condensation can be catalysed

both by acids and bases.
C
Reason : -Hydroxy aldehydes or ketones readily

he
Introduction
undergo acid catalysed dehydration.
10. Assertion : Ketones are less reactive than aldehydes.
m
1 a 2 b 3 a 4 c 5 a
Reason : Ketones do not give schiff's test.
is
6 c 7 b 8 b 9 a 10 b
11. Assertion : Oximes are less acidic than hydroxyl
try
11 b 12 d 13 d 14 b 15 a
amine.
16 c 17 c 18 c
_S
Reason : Oximes of aldehydes and ketones show

geometrical isomerism.
pa
12. Assertion : The bond energy of is less than

> < in alkenes.
rk
Reason : The carbon atom in carbonyl group is

hybridised.
13. Assertion : is more stable than
.
Reason : Resonance in carbonyl compound
provides C+ and O–.
14. Assertion : Formaldehyde cannot be prepared by
Rosenmund's reduction.
Reason : Acid chlorides can be reduced into
aldehydes with hydrogen in boiling
xylene using palladium or platinum as a
catalyst supported on barium sulphate.
This is known as Rosenmund's reduction.
1. Benzophenone can be converted into benzene using (d)
[Tamil Nadu CET 2001]
6. Which of the following compounds would undergo
(a) Fused alkali Cannizzaro's reaction
(b) Anhydrous [CPMT 1989; AFMC 1991; MNR 1995]
(c) Sodium amalgam in water (a) Propionaldehyde

(d) Acidified dichromate (b) Benzaldehyde
2. The reagent(s) which can be used to distinguish (c) Bromobenzene
Te
acetophenone from benzophenone is (are)

(d) Acetaldehyde
[CBSE PMT 1990]
le
7. reacts with [BHU 2003]

(a) 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
gr
(a) (b)
(b) Aqueous solution of
am
(c) Benedict reagent (c) (d)

(d) and
@
8. The product of following reaction

3. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling solution, it
[Kerala CET 2000]
C
gives a red precipitate of [MP PET 1989, 93;

CH3 OH
he
IIT 1982; MP PET/PMT 1998; RPMT 2002]

(a) (b)
(a) (b) OH CH 3
m
(c) (d)
is
H
try
4. The general order of reactivity of carbonyl (c) (d)

OH
compounds for nucleophilic addition reactions is [CBSE
_S
PMT 1995]
9. Which of the following aldehydes is most reactive
(a)
towards nucleophilic addition reactions
pa
[Roorkee 1992; RPMT 1997]

rk
(b) (a) HCHO (b)
(c) (d)
(c)
10. Which one of the following gives iodoform test
[AIIMS 1996]
(d)
(a) Formaldehyde
(b) Ethyl alcohol
5. Which of the following gives an alcohol and salt of
(c) Benzyl alcohol
carboxylic acid when reacted with conc. NaOH
(d) Benzaldehyde
[MP PMT 1999]
11. The active ion in Tollen's reagent is
(a)
(a) (b)
(b)
(c) (d)
(c)
12. Among the following compounds, which will react 16. Which of the following compounds will give positive
with acetone to give a product containing test with Tollen's reagent
[IIT 1998] [CBSE PMT 1994; Kurukshetra CEE 1998; AFMC 2002]
(a) (a) Acetamide
(b) (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) (c) Acetic acid
(d) Acetone
(d)
13. Which of the following does not give yellow

17. is an
precipitate with and NaOH [MP PET 1996]
example of
(a) (b)
(a) Friedel-Craft's alkylation
(c) (d) HCHO
(b) Friedel-Craft's acylation
14. In this reaction
Te
(c) Cannizzaro reaction

le
(d) Claisen condensation

gr
18. Which of the following fails to answer the iodoform

an asymmetric centre is generated. The acid obtained
am
test.
would be
[CBSE PMT 1989]
[CBSE PMT 2003]
@
(a) 20% D + 80% L-isomer (a) Pentanone–1
(b) Pentanone–2
C
(b) D-isomer
he
(c) L-isomer (c) Propanone–2

(d) 50% D + 50% L-isomer (d) Ethanol
m
15. Aldehydes are produced in atmosphere by [NCERT

19. The reagent used for the separation of acetaldehyde
is
1982]
from acetophenone is [AIIMS 2004]
try
(a) Oxidation of secondary alcohols

(a)
_S
(b) Reduction of alkenes

(b)
(c) Reaction of oxygen atoms with hydrocarbons
pa
(d) Reaction of oxygen atoms with ozone (c)

rk
(d)
Te
le
(SET -27)
gr
1. (a)
am
9. (a) Because alkyl group is absent and they have +ve

inductive effect and increases the electron density
on the carbonyl group.
@
10. (b) The compound having -hydrogen will give

iodoform test. Ethyl alcohol and secondary
C
2. (d) Acetophenone gives iodoform reaction while alcohols also give positive iodoform test because
he
benzophenone does give this. by the action of halogens in alkaline medium, they
3. (c) are oxidesed to acetaldehyde and methyl ketones
m
respectively.
is
try
4. (a) The size of the alkyle group. Causes hindrance to

attacking group. As the number and size of the
_S
alkyl groups incirease the hindrance to the attack

of nucleophile also increases.
pa
Thus the reactivity follows the order
***
rk
.
5. (b) Benzaldehyde does not have the -hydrogen so it
will undergoes cannizzaro’s reaction.
6. (b) Aldehydes – Those aldehyde in

which atom is absent can participate in
Cannizzaro’s reaction.
11. (d) During reaction gets reduced Ag metal and
7. (c)
forms silver mirror.
12. (ad) and will give the

compounds containing -group.
8. (c)
H 13. (d)
OH
14. (d)
15. (c) Aldehydes are compounds containing and

. So hydrocarbons react with atmospheric
oxygen to give aldehydes.
16. (b) Tollen’s reagent is ammonical silver nitrate
solution. Its reacting species is . It oxidises
aliphatic as well as aromatic aldehydes.
17. (b)
This reaction is Friedel–Craft’s acylation.

Te
18. (a) 1-pentanone is an impossible compound does not

le
have group.
gr
am
19. (a) gives the addition reaction with

Aldehyde and only aliphatic ketone.
@
Acetophenone is the aromatic ketone so it does

not give the addition product with
C
aldehyde from the addition product with

he
which on treatment with acid or base

m
give again aldehyde.

is
try
_S
pa
rk
[Manipal MEE 1995]
(a) (b)
General Introduction of Carboxylic Acids and

Their Derivatives (c) (d)
1. Identify the wrong statement from the following 10. Which compound is known as oil of winter green
[Tamil Nadu CET 2002]
[MP PET/PMT 1998; CPMT 2002]
(a) Salicylic acid’s a monobasic acid
(a) Phenyl benzoate (b) Phenyl salicylate
(b) Methyl salicylate is an ester
(c) Phenyl acetate (d) Methyl salicylate
(c) Salicylic acid gives violet colour with neutral ferric
11. Which of the following structure of carboxylic acid
chloride as well as brisk effervescence with sodium
accounts for the acidic nature
bicarbonate
Te
[JIPMER 1997]
(d) Methyl salicylate does not occur in natural oils
2. Which of the following is optically active [BHU 1997]
(a) (b)
le
(a) Ethylene glycol (b) Oxalic acid

gr
(c) Glycerol (d) Tartaric acid

3. Palmitic acid is [BHU 1997]
am
(a) (b) 12. Acetoacetic ester behaves as [CPMT 1988]

(c) (d) (a) An unsaturated hydroxy compound
@
(b) A keto compound

4. Which one among the following represents an amide
(c) Both of these ways
C
[MP PMT 1993]

(d) None of these
he
OH NH 2 13. The general formula represents

[CPMT 1974; DPMT 1982; MP PMT 1996]
m
(a) (b)
(a) An ester (b) A ketone
is
(c) An ether (d) An acid anhydride

COOH CONH 2 14. A tribasic acid is
try
(a) Oxalic acid (b) Tartaric acid

(c) (d)
_S
(c) Lactic acid (d) Citric acid

5. The name of the compound having the structure 15. Amphiphilic molecules are normally associated with
[Orissa JEE 1997]
pa
is [MP PET 1993] (a) Isoprene based polymers

(a) 3-chloropropanoic acid(b) 2-chloropropanoic acid (b) Soaps and detergents
rk
(c) 2-chloroethanoic acid (d) Chlorosuccinic acid (c) Nitrogen based fertilizers e.g. urea
(d) Pain relieving medicines such as aspirin
6. Fats and oils are mixture of [CPMT 1993]
16. Wax are long chain compounds belonging to the class
(a) Glycerides and saturated fatty acids [CPMT 1982, 93]
(b) Glycerides and unsaturated fatty acids (a) Acids (b) Alcohols
(c) Glycerides of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids (c) Esters (d) Ethers
(d) Only saturated and unsaturated fatty acids 17. Glycine may be classed as all of the following except
[JIPMER 1997]
7. Which one is not a glyceride [CPMT 1994]
(a) A base (b) An acid
(a) Fat (b) Oil
(c) A zwitter ion (d) Optically active acid
(c) Phospholipid (d) Soaps
18. Which of the following is not a fatty acid [CPMT 1988]
8. is (a) Stearic acid (b) Palmitic acid
(a) Primary amine (b) Secondary amine (c) Oleic acid (d) Phenyl acetic acid
(c) Secondary amide (d) Tertiary amide 19. Vinegar obtained from canesugar contains
9. Which of the following is the formula of tartaremetic [CPMT 1980; DPMT 1982; KCET 1992;
MP PMT 1994; AIIMS 1999] (c) Fatty acids (d) None of these
(a) Citric acid (b) Lactic acid 32. Which one is called ethanoic acid [CPMT 1997]
(c) Acetic acid (d) Palmitic acid (a) HCOOH (b)
20. The general formula for monocarboxylic acids is
(c) (d)
[CPMT 2003]
(a) (b)
33. Vinegar is [CPMT 1997]
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
21. Number of oxygen atoms in a acetamide molecule is
(c) (d)
(a) 1 (b) 2
34. Which of these do not contain group
(c) 3 (d) 4
[CPMT 1997]
22. Urea is [CPMT 1984]
(a) Aspirin (b) Benzoic acid
(a) Monoacidic base (b) Diacidic base (c) Picric acid (d) Salicylic acid
(c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric 35. Vinegar obtained from sugarcane has [AFMC 2005]
23. Fats and oils are [CPMT 1990]
(a) (b) HCOOH
(a) Acids (b) Alcohols
(c) Esters (d) Hydrocarbons (c) (d)
Te
24. The general formulas could be for open 36. Carbolic acid is [AFMC 2005]
le
chain (a) (b)

gr
[AIEEE 2003]
(c) (d)
(a) Diketones (b) Carboxylic acids
am
37. The most acidic of the following is [J & K 2005]

(c) Diols (d) Dialdehydes
(a) (b)
25. is called
@
(c) (d)
38. Which is most reactive of the following [J & K 2005]
C
(a) Acetyl chloride (b) Formyl chloride

(c) Chloretone (d) Oxochloromethane (a) Ethyl acetate (b) Acetic anhydride
he
26. Urea (c) Acetamide (d) Acetyl chloride

m
(a) Is an amide of carbonic acid

(b) It is diamide of carbonic acid Preparation of Carboxylic Acids and Their
is
(c) Gives carbonic acid on hydrolysis Derivatives

try
(d) Resembles carbonic acid

27. Which of the following acids is isomeric with phthalic 1. Hydrolysis of with 85%
_S
acid gives
(a) Succinic acid [KCET 1996]
pa
(b) Salicylic acid (a) (b)

(c) 1, 4-benzene dicarboxylic acid
rk
(c) (d)
(d) Methyl benzoic
28. The ester among the following is [Kerala PMT 2003]
2. When formic acid reacts with it forms [MNR 1982]
(a) Calcium lactate (b) Ammonium acetate (a) Formyl chloride (b) Acetyl chloride
(c) Sodium acetate (d) None of these (c) Methyl chloride (d) Propionyl chloride
29. Sodium or potassium salts of higher fatty acids are 3. Laboratory method for the preparation of acetyl
called chloride is
[RPMT 2003]
[MP PET 2003]
(a) Soaps (b) Terpenes (a)
(c) Sugars (d) Alkaloids (b)
30. Formamide is (c)
(a) (b) (d) All of these
(c) (d) 4. Tischenko reaction yields ester in the presence of
31. Oleic, stearic and palmitic acids are [CPMT 1997]
catalyst which is
(a) Nucleic acids (b) Amino acids (a) (b) N-bromosuccinamide
(c) (d) 15. In the above sequence of
5. Acetic acid is obtained when [NCERT 1975; CPMT
1977] reactions A and B are [CPMT 2000]
(a) Methyl alcohol is oxidised with potassium (a)

permanganate
(b) Calcium acetate is distilled in the presence of
(b)
calcium formate
(c) Acetaldehyde is oxidised with potassium (c)
dichromate and sulphuric acid
(d)
(d) Glycerol is heated with sulphuric acid
6. Acetic acid is manufactured by the fermentation of 16. Two moles of acetic acid are heated with The
[CPMT 1985] product formed is [MP PET/PMT 1988]
(a) Ethanol (b) Methanol
(a) 2 moles of ethyl alcohol
(c) Ethanal (d) Methanal
(b) Formic anhydride
7. [CPMT 1997; KCET 1999]
(c) Acetic anhydride
(a) HCOONa (b)
(d) 2 moles of methyl cyanide
Te
(c) HCOOH (d)

17. Formic acid is obtained when [NCERT 1974]
8. Carboxylic acids react with diazomethane to form
(a) Calcium acetate is heated with conc.
le
[MP PMT/PET 1988; MP PMT 1990]

(a) Amine (b) Alcohol (b) Calcium formate is heated with calcium acetate
gr
(c) Ester (d) Amide (c) Glycerol is heated with oxalic acid at
am
9. , B is (d) Acetaldehyde is oxidised with and
[CBSE PMT 1991; BHU 1995]

@
(a) An acid (b) An aldehyde 18. Acetyl chloride cannot be obtained by treating acetic
(c) A ketone (d) Ethanol
C
acid with
10. Reimer-Tiemann reaction involves a
he
[CPMT 1985]
[MP PET 1997]
(a) (b)
(a) Carbonium ion intermediate
m
(b) Carbene intermediate (c) (d)

is
(c) Carbanion intermediate 19. o-xylene when oxidised in presence of the

try
(d) Free radical intermediate product is

11. The product D of the reaction
_S
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Phenyl acetic acid

is (c) Phthalic acid (d) Acetic acid
pa
[MP PET 1997] 20. The reaction

(a) (b)
rk
(c) (d)
12. Which of the following on hydrolysis forms acetic acid
is known as [MP PMT 2002]
[BHU 1997]
(a) Wurtz reactions
(a) (b)
(b) Koch reaction
(c) (d) (c) Clemenson’s reduction
13. When benzyl alcohol is oxidised with the (d) Kolbe’s reaction
product obtained is [SCRA 1991] 21. By aerial oxidation, which one of the following gives
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) Benzoic acid phthalic acid [Tamil Nadu CET 2002]
(a) Naphthalene (b) Banzene
(c) and (d) None of these
(c) Mesitylene (d) Toluene
14. Which of the following gives benzoic acid on oxidation
MgBr
[CBSE PMT 1996]
(a) Chlorophenol (b) Chlorotoluene
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Benzyl chloride
(a) (b)
22. In the reaction, product P is
(c) (d)
[CBSE PMT 2002]
32. Hydrolysis of acetamide produces
CHO COOH [DPMT 1984; MP PMT 1994; MP PET 2001]
(a) Acetic acid (b) Acetaldehyde
(a) (b) (c) Methylamine (d) Formic acid
33. Ethyl acetate is obtained when methyl magnesium
OH iodide reacts with [Tamil Nadu CET 2002]
(c) (d) (a) Ethyl formate (b) Ethyl chloroformate

(c) Acetyl chloride (d) Carbon dioxide
34. Sodium acetate reacts with acetyl chloride to form
23. Glacial acetic is obtained by [KCET 2002]
[BIT 1992]
(a) Distilling vinegar
(b) Crystallizing separating and melting acetic acid (a) Acetic acid (b) Acetone
(c) Treating vinegar with dehydrating agent (c) Acetic anhydride (d) Sodium formate
(d) Chemically separating acetic acid 35. Ammonium acetate reacts with acetic acid at
24. In esterification, ion for making comes to form [MP PET 1991]
Te
from (a) Acetamide (b) Formamide

(c) Ammonium cyanate (d) Urea
le
[CPMT 1996]
(a) Acid (b) Alcohol 36. Tischancko reaction is used for preparation of
gr
(c) Ketone (d) Carbohydrate (a) Ether (b) Ester

am
25. Heating a mixture of ethyl alcohol and acetic acid in (c) Amide (d) Acid anhydride
presence of conc. produces a fruity smelling 37. The silver salt of a fatty acid on refluxing with an alkyl
compound. This reaction is called halide gives an [KCET 2004]
@
[AIIMS 1996] (a) Acid (b) Ester

(a) Neutralisation (b) Ester hydrolysis
C
(c) Ether (d) Amine

(c) Esterification (d) Williamson's synthesis
he
38. Which reaction is used for the preparation of

26. Product formed by heating a mixture of ammonium
Bromoacetic acid ? [MP PET 2004; MP PET/PMT 1998]
chloride and potassium cyanate is
m
(a) Kolbe’s Reaction

(a) (b)
(b) Reimer-Tiemann Reaction
is
(c) (d) (c) Hell volhard Zelinsky Reaction

try
27. Rearrangement of an oxime to an amide in the (d) Perkin’s Reation

presence of strong acid is called [Kerala CET 2000]
_S
39. Tertiary alcohols having atleast four carbon

(a) Curtius rearrangement (b)Fries rearrangement
atoms upon drastic oxidation yield carboxylic acid with
(c) Backman rearrangement (d) Sandmeyer reaction
pa
[MH CET 2004]

28. Which reagent will bring about the conversion of
(a) One carbon atom less
carboxylic acids into esters
rk
[CBSE PMT 2000]

(b) Two carbon atoms less
(a) (b) Dry
(c) Three carbon atom less
(c) (d) (d) All the above three options are correct
29. The acid formed when propyl magnesium bromide is 40. When succinic acid is heated, product formed is
treated with carbon dioxide is [Pb. CET 2000]
[CPMT 1982, 84, 86; Pb. PMT 1998]
(a) Succinic anhydride (b) Acetic acid
(a) (b)
(c) and methane (d) Propionic acid
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
41. In the reaction,
30. on reaction with ethyl magnesium bromide
gives the compound (C) is
[BHU 1983]
[Pb. CET 2001]
(a) Ethane (b) Propanoic acid
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Salicylaldehyde
(c) Acetic acid (d) None of these
31. Acetic anhydride is obtained from acetyl chloride by (c) Chlorobenzene (d) Salicylic acid
the reaction of [CPMT 1985, 93] 42. When an acyl chloride is heated with salt of a
carboxylic acid, the product is [DCE 2003]
(a) An ester (b) An anhydride (c) (d)
(c) An alkene (d) An aldehyde
43. The compound in the reaction, is
3. What will be the product, when carboxy phenol,

[Pb. CET 2003] obtained by Reimer Tiemann’s process, is deoxidised
(a) (b) with Zn powder
[MP PMT 2003]
(c) (d)
OH CHO
44. [Pb. CET 2003]
CHO
(a) (b) (a) (b)
(c) (d)
OH COOH
45. Primary aldehyde on oxidation gives [DPMT 20004]
(a) Esters (b) Carboxylic acid (c) (d)
(c) Ketones (d) Alcohols
Te
46. Toluene is oxidised to benzoic acid by 4. The vapour of a carboxylic acid HA when passed over
[BHU 2004; CPMT 1985]
at 573 K yields propanone. The acid HA is
le
(a) (b)
(a) Methanoic acid (b) Ethanoic acid
gr
(c) (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Propanoic acid (d) Butanoic acid
am
47. 5. Which acid is strongest or Which is most acidic

CH COONa [CPMT 1982, 89; BIT 1992; MP PET 1996;
CHO+(X)    
3
MeO CH=CHCOOH

H 3O MP PMT/PET 1988; MP PMT 1995, 97;RPMT 1997]
@
(a) (b)
The compound (X) is [IIT 2005]
C
(a) CH3COOH (b) BrCH2  COOH (c) (d)

he
(c) (CH3CO)2O (d) CHO  COOH 6. Ethyl acetate at room temperature is a

48. Salicylic acid is prepared from phenol by [AFMC 2005] (a) Solid (b) Liquid
m
(a) Reimer Tiemann reaction (c) Gas (d) Solution

is
(b) Kolbe’s reaction 7. Urea is a better fertilizer than ammonium sulphate

because
try
(c) Kolbe-electrolysis reaction

(d) None of these (a) It has greater percentage of nitrogen
_S
49. Acetic acid will be obtained on oxidation of [J & K 2005] (b) It is more soluble
(a) Ethanol (b) Propanal (c) It is weakly basic
pa
(c) Methanal (d) Glyoxal (d) It does not produce acidity in soil
8. The reaction of acetamide with water is an example of
rk
[Kurukshetra CEE 1998; RPMT 2000]

Properties of Carboxylic Acids and Their
Derivatives (a) Alcoholysis (b) Hydrolysis
(c) Ammonolysis (d) Saponification
9. The acid which reduces Fehling solution is [KCET 1998]
1. Which of the following acids has the smallest
(a) Methanoic acid (b) Ethanoic acid
dissociation constant [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2002]
(c) Butanoic acid (d) Propanoic acid
(a) (b)
(c) (d) 10.
2. What is obtained, when propene is treated with N- The above shown polymer is obtained when a carbon
bromo succinimide [MP PMT 2003] compound is allowed to stand. It is a white solid. The
polymer is [CBSE PMT 1989]
(a) (b) (a) Trioxane (b) Formose
(c) Paraformaldehyde (d) Metaldehyde
11. What will happen if is added to an ester
[CBSE PMT 2000] (c) Litmus paper
(a) Two units of alcohol are obtained (d) Phenolphthalein
(b) One unit of alcohol and one unit of acid is 22. The reaction of HCOOH with conc. gives
obtained [DPMT 1982, CPMT 1989; MP PET 1995; AIIMS 2000;
(c) Two units of acids are obtained Manipal 2001; Pb. CET 2002 ]
(d) None of these (a) (b) CO
12. When anisole is heated with HI, the product is
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Acetic acid
[CET Pune 1998]
23. Sulphonation of benzoic acid produces mainly [CPMT
(a) Phenyl iodide and methyl iodide
1982]
(b) Phenol and methanol
(a) o-sulphobenzoic acid
(c) Phenyl iodide and methanol (b) m-sulphobenzoic acid
(d) Methyl iodide and phenol (c) p-sulphobenzoic acid
13. When reacts with [BVP (d) o- and p-sulphobenzoic acid
2003] 24. Which one is strongest acid [MP PMT 1992]
(a) is formed (b) Hydrocarbon is formed (a) (b)
(c) Acetone is formed (d) Alcohol is formed
Te
(c) (d)
14. Which class of compounds shows H-bonding even 25. Which does not give silver mirror with ammoniacal
le
more than in alcohols

(a) Phenols (b) Carboxylic acids
gr
[MP PET 1992]

(c) Ethers (d) Aldehydes
am
(a) HCHO (b)

15. When propanamide reacts with and then
(c) (d) HCOOH
which of the following compound is formed [Manipal
@
2001] 26. , product ‘A’ in the reaction is

(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Propyl alcohol
C
[RPMT 2003]
(c) Propyl amine (d) Ethylamine
(a) (b)
he
16. Hydrolysis of an ester gives a carboxylic acid which on

Kolbe’s electrolysis yields ethane. The ester is (c) (d)
m
[EAMCET 1997; Manipal PMT 2001]

(a) Ethyl methonoate (b) Methyl ethanoate
is
(c) Propylamine (d) Ethylamine

try
27. Acetic acid is weak acid than sulphuric acid because

17. On prolonged heating of ammonium cyanate or urea, [CPMT 2003]
_S
we get [DPMT 1982; CPMT 1979; MP PMT 1996] (a) It decompose on increasing temperature
(a) (b) (b) It has less degree of ionisation
pa
(c) Biurette (d) Ammonium carbonate (c) It has – COOH group

18. In the Gabriel's phthalimide synthesis, phthalimide is (d) None of these
rk
treated first with 28. In and HCOOH, HCOOH will be

(a) (b) Ethanolic Na [CPMT 1975; DPMT 1982]
(c) Ethanol and (d) Ether and (a) Less acidic (b) Equally acidic
(c) More acidic (d) None
19. Which of the following is the strongest acid [NCERT
1984]
29. Acetic anhydride reacts with excess of ammonia to
form
(a) (b)
[MP PET 1992]
(c) (d)
(a)
20. Which of the following reduces Tollen's reagent
(b)
[MP PMT 1991]
(a) Acetic acid (b) Citric acid (c)
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Formic acid (d)
21. Oxalic acid may be distinguished from tartaric acid by 30. In the following sequence of reactions, what is D
(a) Sodium bicarbonate solution CH3
(b) Ammonical silver nitrate solution
(a) Phenol (b) n-hexanol
[UPSEAT 2002] (c) Acetic acid (d) Both (a) and (b)
39. Acetic acid dissolved in benzene shows a molecular
(a) Primary amine
mass of
(b) An amide [MP PET 1993]
(c) Phenyl isocyanate (a) 30 (b) 60
(d) A chain lengthened hydrocarbon (c) 120 (d) 240
31. Hydrolytic reaction of fats with caustic soda is known 40. The reaction
as
[MP PMT/PET 1988; AMU 1988;
KCET 2000; MP PET 2001]
(a) Esterification (b) Saponification
(c) Acetylation (d) Carboxylation
32. In the reaction is called [MP PMT 2003; KCET 1996]
(a) Etard reaction (b) Perkin’s reaction
(c) Claisen condensation (d) Claisen Schmidt
reaction
Te
the final product (C) is 41. Which is the strongest acid ? (pKa value is given in the
(a) (b) bracket)
le
[MP PMT 1997; BHU 2003]

(c) (d)
gr
(a) (b)
33. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of
am
followed by hydrolysis gives [IIT (Screening) 1992]

(a) n-propyl alcohol (b) Ethanal (c) (d)
(c) Propanal (d) Isopropyl alcohol
@
34. Of the following four reactions, formic and acetic acids 42. In the presence of iodine catalyst, chlorine reacts with
differ in which respect
C
[CPMT 1990, 93] acetic acid to form [MP PMT 1997]

(a) Replacement of hydrogen by sodium
he
(b) Formation of ester with alcohol (a) (b)

(c) Reduction of Fehling solution
m
(d) Blue litmus reaction

is
35. Formaldehyde and formic acid can be distinguished

try
using (c) (d)

[AFMC 1993]
_S
(a) Tollen's reagent (b) Fehling solution

(c) Ferric chloride (d) Sodium bicarbonate 43. The acid showing salt-like character in aqueous
pa
36. Ester and acetamide are distinguished by [BHU 1996] solution is

[MP PET/PMT 1998]
(a) Hydrolysis with strong acids or alkali
rk
(a) Acetic acid (b) Benzoic acid

(b) Derivatives of fatty acids
(c) Formic acid (d) amino acetic acid
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these 44. . Identify X
37. Acetic acid exists as a dimer in benzene solution. This is
[JIPMER 2000; CPMT 2003]
due to
(a) (b)
[MP PMT 1989; CPMT 1982]
(a) Condensation (c) (d)
(b) Presence of group 45. Formic acid [MP PET/PMT 1988]
(c) Presence of hydrogen (a) Is immiscible with water
(b) Reduces the ammonical silver nitrate
(d) Hydrogen bonding
(c) Is a weak acid nearly three and a half time weaker
38. Which of the following compounds will react with
than acetic acid
solution to give sodium salt and carbon
(d) Is prepared by heating potassium hydroxide
dioxide 46. Given below are some statements concerning formic
[CBSE PMT 1999; BHU 1983, 2002] acid, which of them is true [CPMT 1983]
(a) It is a weaker acid than acetic acid (a) Decreases
(b) It is a reducing agent (b) Increases
(c) When its calcium salt is heated, it forms a ketone (c) Either increases or decreases
(d) It is an oxidising agent (d) Suffers no change
47. Which decolourises the colour of acidic 55. Benzoic acid has higher molecular weight in benzene
[CPMT 1991] and less in water because
(a) (b) (a) Water has lower freezing point and higher boiling
point than benzene
(c) (d)
(b) It dissociates to a greater extent in benzene than in
48. A colourless water soluble organic liquid decomposes water
sodium carbonate and liberates carbon dioxide. It (c) It associates in water and dissociates in benzene
produces black precipitate with Tollen's reagent. The
(d) It dissociates in water and associates in benzene
liquid is [KCET 1989]
56. What is the main reason for the fact that carboxylic
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Acetic acid
acids can undergo ionization [MNR 1993; Pb. PMT 2004]
(c) Formaldehyde (d) Formic acid
(a) Absence of hydrogen
49. The end product B in the sequence of reactions
(b) Resonance stabilisation of the carboxylate ion
Te
is [CPMT 1985]
(c) High reactivity of hydrogen
(a) An alkane
le
(d) Hydrogen bonding

(b) A carboxylic acid
57. Which of the following compounds will evolve
gr
(c) Sodium salt of carboxylic acid hydrogen on treatment with metal [CPMT 1974]
am
(d) A ketone
(a) (b)
50. (c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
@
58. When urea is heated, it forms biurette, alkaline

Compound Y is [DPMT 1981; JIPMER 2000; AIEEE 2002]
solution of which forms ..... with solution
C
(a) (b)
[AFMC 1980]
he
(c) (d) (a) Violet colour (b) Red colour

m
51. In the precipitation of soap, which can be used instead (c) Green colour (d) Black colour
of NaCl [CPMT 1979] 59. Which of the following would be expected to be most
is
(a) Na (b) highly ionised in water [AIIMS 1982]

try
(c) (d) Sodium silicate (a) (b)

_S
52. Which of the following can possibly be used as

analgesic without causing addiction and moon (c) (d)
pa
modification
[CBSE PMT 1997]
rk
60. Alkaline hydrolysis of esters is known as

(a) Morphine
[CPMT 1986, 88, 93; MNR 1986; MP PET 1993]
(b) N-acetyl-para-aminophenol
(a) Saponification (b) Hydration
(c) Drazepom
(c) Esterification (d) Alkalisation
(d) Tetrahydrocatinol
61. Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis when
53. Which of the following esters cannot undergo Claisen
dissolved in water [CPMT 1989]
self condensation [CBSE PMT 1998]
(a) (b)
(a)
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d)
(b)
62. Name the end product in the following series of
(c) reactions
(d)
[DPMT 1984]
54. When acetic acid is dissolved in benzene its molecular
mass (a) (b)
[AFMC 1991] (c) Acetonitrile (d) Ammonium acetate
63. Reduction of carboxylic acids gives
(a) Alcohol with hydrogen in presence of palladium The product is [Orissa JEE 2005]
(b) Alcohol with (a) 1, 1-diphenylethanol
(c) Aldehyde with (b) 1, 1-diphenylmethanol
(d) Alcohol with (c) Methyl phenylethanol

(d) Methyl phenylketone
64. Which of the following substances when boiled with
caustic soda solution will evolve ammonia [BHU 1983] 71. Which of the following is most acidic [MP PMT 1995]
(a) Ethylamine (b) Aniline (a) Formic acid (b) Chloroacetic acid
(c) Acetamide (d) Acetoxime (c) Propionic acid (d) Acetic acid
72. Urea on slow heating gives
65.
(a) (b)
where Z is [CPMT 1996]
(c) HCNO (d)
(a)
73. The principal organic product formed in the following
Te
reaction is
(b)
le
(c)
gr
[Pb. PMT 1998]

(d)
(a)
am
66. HCOOH shows all tests of aldehyde because [CPMT

1996] (b)
(a) It has one aldehyde group
@
(c)
(b) It is member of aldehyde
(d)
C
(c) All acids show tests of aldehyde

74. Which one of the following compound gives aspirin on
he
(d) Does not show any test

reacting with acetic anhydride in presence of
67. Which one of the following orders of acid strength is
m
correct [EAMCET 2003]

CHO OH
is
[CBSE PMT 2003]

OH COOH
try
(a)
(a) (b)
(b)
_S
CHO OH
(c)
COOH
(d)
pa
(c) (d)
68. The order of decreasing rate of reaction with
rk
ammonia is NH2
[Pb. PMT 1998]
(a) Anhydrides, esters, ethers 75. An acyl halide is formed when reacts with an
(b) Anhydrides, ethers, esters [CBSE PMT 1994; AIIMS 1998; CBSE PMT 2002]
(c) Ethers, anhydrides, esters (a) Acid (b) Alcohol
(d) Esters, ethers, anhydrides (c) Amide (d) Ester

76. Which one of the following orders is wrong with
69. Oxidation of toluene with in the presence of
respect to the property indicated [CBSE PMT 1994]
gives a product 'A' which on treatment (a) Formic acid > acetic acid > propanoic acid (acid
with aqueous NaOH produces strength)
[CBSE PMT 1995] (b) Fluoroacetic acid > chloroacetic acid > bromoacetic
(a) (b) acid (acid strength)
(c) Benzoic acid > phenol > cyclohexanol (acid
(c) (d) 2, 4-diacetyl toluene strength)
70. excess
(d) Aniline > cyclohexylamine > benzamide (basic
strength)
(c)
77. A fruity smell is produced by the reaction of
with
[AFMC 2000] (d)
(a) (b)
(c) (d) None of these 85. Saponification of ethyl benzoate with caustic soda as
78. Which of the following orders of relative strengths of alkali gives [Kerala (Med.) 2001]
acids is correct [CPMT 2000] (a) Benzyl alcohol and ethanoic acid
(a) (b) Sodium benzoate and ethanol
(c) Benzoic acid and sodium ethoxide
(d) Phenol and ethanoic acid
(b)
(e) Sodium benzoxide and ethanoic acid
86. Lactic acid on oxidation by alkaline potassium
(c) permanganate gives [Tamil Nadu CET 2002]
(a) Tartaric acid (b) Pyruvic acid
(d) (c) Cinnamic acid (d) Propionic acid
Te
87.
le
79. When acetamide is treated with the product This mode of reduction of an acid to alcohol can be
affected only by
gr
formed is [Haryana CEET 2000] [CBSE PMT 1989]

(a) (b) (a)
am
(b) Na-alcohol
(c) (d) None of the above
(c) Aluminium isopropoxide and isopropyl alcohol
80. The fatty acid which shows reducing property is
(d)
@
[Kerala CET 2000]

(a) Acetic acid (b) Ethanoic Acid 88. Which one of the following compounds forms a red
C
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Formic acid coloured solution on treatment with neutral
he
81. The reagent that can be used to distinguish between solution

methanoic acid and ethanoic acid is [EAMCET 2003]
m
[Kerala CET 2001, 02] (a) (b)

(a) Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution
is
(c) (d)
(b) Neutral ferric Chloride solution
try
89. Urea can be tested by [UPSEAT 1999; BVP 2003]

(c) Sodium carbonate solution
(a) Benedict test (b) Mullicken test
_S
(d) Phenolphthalein
(c) Ninhydrin (d) Biuret test
82. Hydrolysis of an ester gives acid A and alcohol B. 90. What are the organic products formed in the following
pa
A reduces Fehling solution and oxidation of B gives A. reaction

The ester is [MP PMT 1999]
rk
(a) Methyl formate (b) Ethyl formate [IIT 1995]
(c) Methyl acetate (d) Ethyl acetate (a) and

83. Order of reactivity is [RPMT 2003]
(b) and
(a)
(c) and
(d) and
91. Reaction between an acid and alcohol will give
(b)
[Roorkee 1995]
(c) (a) Higher C containing acid (b) Secondary alcohol
(d) (c) Alkane (d) Ester
92. Benzoic acid gives benzene on being heated with X
84. Right order of acidic strength is [RPMT 2003]
and phenol gives benzene on being heated with Y.
(a) Therefore X and Y are respectively [CBSE PMT 1992]
(a) Sodalime and copper (b) Zn dust and NaOH
(b) (c) Zn dust and sodalime (d) Sodalime and zinc dust
93. The product obtained when acetic acid is treated with (c) (d)
phosphorus trichloride is [CPMT 1989, 93, 94; RPMT 1997;
103. Which one of the following has the maximum acid
AIIMS 1998; EAMCET 1998]
strength
(a) (b)
[NCERT 1983]
(c) (d) (a) o-nitrobenzoic acid (b) m-nitrobenzoic acid
94. Acetyl chloride is reduced with the product (c) p-nitrobenzoic acid (d) p-nitrophenol
formed is 104. When benzoic acid is treated with at 100°C, it
[SCRA 1990] gives
(a) Methyl alcohol (b) Ethyl alcohol [Orissa JEE 2003]
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Acetone (a) Benzoyl chloride (b) o-chlorobenzoic acid
95. In the preparation of an ester, the commonly used (c) p-chlorobenzoic acid (d) Benzyl chloride
dehydrating agent is [KCET 1992] 105. Oxalic acid on being heated upto with conc.
(a) Phosphorus pentaxide
forms
(b) Anhydrous calcium carbide
[AFMC 1989; MP PET 1994; MP PMT 1989]
(c) Anhydrous aluminium chloride
(d) Concentrated sulphuric acid (a) (b)
Te
96. In the esterification reaction of alcohols [KCET 1984] (c) (d)

(a) is replaced by 106. Benzoic acid is less acidic than salicylic acid because of
le
(b) is replaced by sodium metal [Bihar MEE 1997]

gr
(a) Hydrogen bond (b) Inductive effect

(c) is replaced by chlorine
(c) Resonance (d) All of these
am
(d) is replaced by group (e) None of these

97. Lower carboxylic acids are soluble in water due to 107. Lactic acid on heating with conc. gives
@
[MP PET 1999] [MP PET 1996]

(a) Low molecular weight (b) Hydrogen bonding (a) Acetic acid (b) Propionic acid
C
(c) Dissociation into ions (d) Easy hydrolysis (c) Acrylic acid (d) Formic acid
he
98. Acetamide reacts with (phosphorus 108. Acetamide is [MP PET 1990; RPMT 1999]
pentaoxide) to give (a) Acidic (b) Basic
m
[AFMC 1997] (c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric

is
(a) Methyl cyanide (b) Methyl cyanate 109. Silver benzoate reacts with bromine to form [KCET 1996]
try
(c) Ethyl cyanide (d) Ethyl isocyanate C

||
99. The reaction
C – OBr
_S
is called (a) (b)

[NSE 2001; MP PET 2003]
pa
(a) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction COOAg Br

(b) Birch reaction
rk
(c) (d)
(c) Rosenmund reaction
(d) Hunsdiecker reaction
Br
100. An aqueous solution of urea [CPMT 1983]
(a) Is neutral 110. Acetic anhydride reacts with diethyl ether in presence
(b) Is acidic of anhydrous to form [MP PMT 1992]
(c) Is basic (a) Ethyl acetate (b) Methyl propionate
(d) Can act as an acid and a base (c) Methyl acetate (d) Propionic acid
101. Nitration of benzoic acid gives [MP PMT 1997]
111. Treatment of benzoic acid with will give
(a) 3-nitrobenzoic acid (b) 2-nitrobenzoic acid
[KCET 1998; CET Pune 1998]
(c) 2, 3-dinitrobenzoic acid (d) 2, 4-dinitrobenzoic
(a) p-chlorobenzoic acid (b) o-chlorobenzoic acid
acid
(c) 2, 4-dichlorobenzoic acid (d) m-chlorobenzoic
102. The reagent used for converting ethanoic acid to
aicd
ethanol is
112. Hinsberg’s reagent is [MP PMT 2003]
[KCET 1996; EAMCET 1998]
(a) (b)
COCl COCl
(a) (b) 118. The reaction of an ester with an alcohol
in the presence of an acid gives [Kerala PMT
(c) (d) 2004]
(a) (b)
113. Which of the following is the correct order of
(c) (d)
increasing strengths of carboxylic acids
(e)
(a)
119. on treatment with and is
subjected to hydrolysis followed by Clemmensen’s
(b)
reduction, the product obtained is [Kerala PMT 2004]
(a) (b)
(c)
(c) (d)
(e)
(d) 120. The reagent which does not give acid chloride on
treating with a carboxylic acid is [KCET 2004]
114. The weakest acid among the following is (a) (b)

Te
[CPMT 1976, 82, 89; BHU 1982; CBSE PMT 1991;

(c) (d)
MP PMT 1989; Roorkee 1992; RPET 1999]
le
121. An organic compound is boiled with alcoholic potash.

(a) (b)
The product is cooled and acidified with A white
gr
(c) (d) solid separates out. The starting compound may be

am
115. Consider the acidity of the carboxylic acids [KCET 2004]

(a) (b) (a) Ethyl benzoate (b) Ethyl formate
(c) Ethyl acetate (d) Methyl acetate
@
(c) (d) 122. The group of an alcohol or the group

C
of a carboxylic acid can be replaced by using

[CBSE PMT 2004]
he
Which of the following order is correct? [AIEEE 2004]

(a) Chlorine
(a) (b)
m
(b) Hydrochloric acid

(c) (d)
(c) Phosphorus pentachloride
is
116. On mixing ethyl acetate with aqueous sodium

chloride, the composition of the resultant solution is (d) Hypochlorous acid
try
[AIEEE 2004] 123. Which of the following is most acidic [MP PET 2004]
(a) Picric acid (b) p-nitrophenol
_S
(a)
(c) m-nitrophenol (d) o-p dinitrophenol
(b)
124. Benedict’s solution is not reduced by [CPMT 2004]
pa
(c)
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde
(d)
rk
(c) Glucose (d) Acetic anhydride

117. o-Toluic acid on reaction with gives [AIIMS 125. is reacted with in presence
2004] of the product is [DPMT 2004; BHU 1998]
CH2Br CH3
CO2H CO2H (a) (b)
(a) (b)
Br
CH2Br CH3
CO2H CO2H (c) (d)
(c) (d)
None of these
Br
Br 126. Acetic acid reacts with to form [Pb. CET 2001]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
127. with excess of and
hydrolysis gives [MH CET 2004]
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d) 135.
128. Urea upon hydrolysis yields [Pb. CET 2001] The product would be [Pb. PMT 1998]
(a) Acetamide (b) Carbonic acid (a) A racemate
Te
(c) Ammonium hydroxide (d) (b) Optically active

(c) A meso compound
le
129. The product B is (d) A mixture of diastereomers

gr
[Pb. CET 2003] 136. What happens when 2-hydroxy benzoic acid is distilled
(a) Malonic acid (b) Glycolic acid with zinc dust, it gives [MP PET/PMT 1998]
am
(c) Lactic acid (d) Malic acid (a) Phenol (b) Benzoic acid
130. What is the % of acetic acid present in vinegar? (c) Benzaldehyde (d) A polymeric compound
@
[AFMC – 2004; MH CET 2003; CPMT 1974, 75] 137. on reaction with sodium ethoxide in
(a) (b) ethanol gives A, which on heating in the presence of
C
(c) (d) acid gives B compound B is [AIIMS 2005]

he
131. Fruity smell is given by [MH CET 2004] (a) (b)

(a) Esters (b) Alcohols O
m
(c) Chloroform (d) Acid anhydrides (c) CH2 O (d)

is
132. Lactic acid molecule has [MH CET 2004]

try
(a) One chiral carbon atom 138. can be converted into

(b) Two chiral carbon atoms by [AIIMS 2005]
_S
(c) No chiral carbon atom

(a) (b)
(d) As asymetric molecule
(c) (d)
pa
133. 4-methyl benzene sulphonic acid reacts with sodium

acetate to give [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2005] 139. Among the following acids which has the lowest
rk
value
CH3 COONa
[AIEEE 2005]
; SO3 (a) (b)

(a) ; CH3COOH (b)
(c) (d)
SO3Na CH3
SO2-O-COCH3 140. X is heated with soda lime and gives ethane. X is

[AFMC 2005]
(a) Ethanoic acid (b) Methanoic acid
(c) ; SO3 (d) ; NaOH
(c) Propanoic acid (d) Either (a) or (c)
141. Which of the following is an amphoteric acid [KCET
Br CH3
2005]
(a) Glycine (b) Salicylic acid
134. In a set reactions acid yielded a product D
(c) Benzoic acid (d) Citric acid
142. Colouration of will be discharged by
OH COOH [Orissa JEE 2005]
| [CBSE PMT
 2005] (a) Cinnamic acid (b) Benzoic acid
C  COOH CH 2  C  CH 3
|

CH 3
OH
OH CN
 |
CH 2  C  CH 3 C  C H3
 |
CN OH
(c) o-phthalic acid (d) Acetophenone 6. The reagent used for protection of amino group
143. Order of hydrolysis for the following during the nitration of aniline is [JIPMER 1997]
(I) (II) (a) (b)
(III) (IV) [DPMT
(c) Acetic acid (d) Acetic anhydride
2005]
(a) I>IV>II>III (b) I>II>III>IV
(c) I>III>II>IV (d) IV>III>II>I
144. If the enolate ion combines with carbonyl group of
ester, we get [DPMT 2005]
(a) Aldol (b) -unsaturated
ester
(c) -keto aldehyde (d) Acid
145. Which of the following compounds will react with 1. Ethyl ester . The product P will be
solution to give sodium salt and carbon
[IIT-JEE 2003]
dioxide [DPMT 2005]
(a) Acetic acid (b) -hexanol CH3 C 2H 5
(a) H 3C (b)
H 3C
Te
(c) Phenol (d) Both (a) and (c)

146. A carboxylic acid is converted into its anhydride using
OH OH
le
[J & K 2005]
(a) Thionyl chloride (b) Sulphur chloride H 3C
gr
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Phosphorus pentoxide C 2H 5 C 2H 5

am
Uses of Carboxylic Acids and Their Derivatives (c) (d)
OH OH
@
1. The following compound is used as

O H 7C 3
C
||
O C  CH 3
he
[KCET 1996]
2. Hydrogenation of over
OH catalyst in methanol gives
m
(a) An anti-inflamatory agent [Roorkee Qualifying 1998]

is
(b) Analgesic (a) (b)

try
(c) Hypnotic
_S
(d) Antiseptic (c) (d)

2. To which of the following groups does soap belongs
pa
[NCERT 1979; RPET 2000]

3. Which of the following has the most acidic proton
(a) Esters [Roorkee Qualifying 1998]
rk
(b) Amines (a) (b)

(c) Salts of organic higher fatty acids
(c) (d)
(d) Aldehydes
4. In the anion the two carbon-oxygen bonds
3. Aspirin is an acetylation product of [CBSE PMT 1998]
are found to be of equal length. What is the reason for
(a) o-hydroxybenzoic acid (b) o-dihydroxybenzene
it
(c) m-hydroxybenzoic acid (d) p-dihydroxybenzene
(a) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are hybridised
4. Which one is used as a food preservative
(b) The C = O bond is weaker than the C – O bond
[MP PET 1989; KCET 1999]
(c) The anion has two resonating
(a) Sodium acetate (b) Sodium propionate
structures
(c) Sodium benzoate (d) Sodium oxalate
(d) The anion is obtained by removal of a proton form
5. What makes a lemon sour the acid molecule
[CPMT 1972; CBSE PMT 1991; RPET 1999] 5. An organic compound of molecular formula
(a) Tartaric acid (b) Oxalic acid does not react with sodium. With excess of
(c) Citric acid (d) Hydrochloric acid
it gives only one type of alkyl halide. The
, ,
compound is [SCRA 2001]
(a) Ethoxyethane (b) 2-Methoxypropane
(c) 1-Methoxypropane (d) 1-Butanol
6. When is reduced with (a) (b)
, the compound obtained will be [AIEEE 2003] (c) (d)
13. The compound not soluble in acetic acid is
(a) (b)
[UPSEAT 2003; IIT-JEE 1986]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
14. The ortho/para directing group among the following is
7. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a [AIIMS 2003]
product C (a) (b)
. (c) (d)
15. Iodoform test is not given by [BHU 1995]
Product C would be [CBSE PMT 2003] (a) Acetone (b) Ethyl alcohol
Te
(c) Acetic acid (d) None of these

(a) (b) 16. How will you convert butan-2-one to propanoic acid
le

gr
(a) Tollen’s reagent (b) Fehling’s solution

(c) (d)
am
(c) (d)
17. Which of the acids cannot be prepared by Grignard
reagent
@
8. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol and [MH CET 2004]
alcohol because of [Tamil Nadu CET 2001] (a) Acetic acid (b) Succinic acid
C
(a) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding (c) Formic acid (d) All of these
he
(b) Formation of dimers

(c) Highly acidic hydrogen
m
(d) Resonance stabilization of their conjugate base

is
9. can be converted into

try
The correct sequence of the

reagents is
_S
[AIIMS 1997]
(a) (b)
pa
option out of the options given below :

(c) (d) (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
rk
10. When propionic acid is treated with aqueous sodium the correct explanation of the assertion.
bicarbonate is liberated. The ‘C’ of comes (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
from the correct explanation of the assertion.
[IIT-JEE (Screening) 1999] (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Methyl group (b) Carboxylic acid group (d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(c) Methylene group (d) Bicarbonate (e) If assertion is false but reason is true.
11. Benzoyl chloride is prepared from benzoic acid by
[IIT-JEE (Screening) 2000] 1. Assertion : Carboxylic acid exist as dimer.
(a) (b) Reason : Carboxylic acid shows hydrogen
(c) (d) bonding.
12. Identify the correct order of boiling points of the 2. Assertion : Trichloroacetic acid is stronger than
following compounds acetic acid.
Reason : Electron withdrawing substituents
decrease the activity.
3. Assertion : First four aliphatic monocarboxylic Reason : Both are easily oxidised to and
acids are colourless.
Reason : Carboxylic acids with more than five
carbon atoms are insoluble in water. 14. Assertion : Esters which contatin hydrogens
4. Assertion : Carboxylic acids do not give undergo Claisen condensation.
characteristic reactions of carbonyl Reason : reduction of esters gives
group. acids.
Reason : Carboxylic acids exist as cyclic dimers
in solid, liquid and even in vapour
state.
5. Assertion : Pure acetic acid is converted into ice
like solid called glacial acetic acid.
Reason : Acetic acid is stronger than
6. Assertion : The second dissociation constant of Their Derivatives
maleic acid is greater than fumaric
acid.
Te
1 d 2 d 3 c 4 d 5 a
Reason : Higher the dissociation constant of
6 c 7 d 8 c 9 c 10 d
acid more is acidic character.
le
11 a 12 c 13 d 14 d 15 b
7. Assertion : Lower acids on reacting with strong
gr
electropositive metals give 16 c 17 d 18 d 19 c 20 b,d

am
effervescences of 21 a 22 a 23 c 24 b 25 b
Reason : hydrolyses rapidly 26 b 27 c 28 d 29 a 30 a

@
than 31 c 32 b 33 d 34 c 35 a
8. Assertion : Melting point of carboxylic acids shows 36 d 37 a 38 d

C
a regular pattern.
he
Reason : Carboxylic acids are reduced to Preparation of Carboxylic Acids and Their
alkanes on reduction with in Derivatives
m
presence of red phosphorus.

is
9. Assertion : Electron withdrawing groups decrease 1 d 2 a 3 a 4 c 5 c

try
the acidity of carboxylic acids.

6 a 7 a 8 c 9 a 10 b
Reason : Substituents affect the stability of the
_S
11 d 12 a 13 b 14 d 15 a
conjugate base and acidity of
carboxylic acids. 16 c 17 c 18 a 19 c 20 b
pa
10. Assertion : Fluoroacetic acid is stronger acid than 21 a 22 b 23 b 24 a 25 c

bromoacetic acid.
rk
26 d 27 c 28 b 29 a 30 b
Reason : Acidity depends upon the electron
31 c 32 a 33 b 34 c 35 a
withdrawing effects of the fluorine and
chlorine. 36 b 37 b 38 c 39 b 40 a
11. Assertion : Aminoacetic acid is less acidic than 41 d 42 b 43 b 44 a 45 b

acetic acid. 46 d 47 c 48 a 49 a
Reason : Amino group is electron donating in
nature. Properties of Carboxylic Acids and Their
12. Assertion : Carboxylic acids have higher boiling Derivatives
points than alkanes.
Reason : Carboxylic acids are resonance 1 c 2 b 3 d 4 b 5 d
hybrids.
6 b 7 ad 8 b 9 a 10 a
13. Assertion : Both formic acid and oxalic acid
11 a 12 d 13 b 14 b 15 d
decolourize solution.
16 b 17 c 18 a 19 d 20 d
21 b 22 b 23 b 24 d 25 c
26 c 27 b 28 c 29 c 30 c
31 b 32 c 33 d 34 c 35 d
36 c 37 d 38 c 39 c 40 c
41 a 42 b 43 d 44 c 45 b
46 b 47 c 48 d 49 c 50 c
51 c 52 b 53 b 54 b 55 d Their Derivatives
56 b 57 c 58 a 59 c 60 a
61 c 62 c 63 b 64 c 65 b 1. (d) Methyl salicylate occurs in natural essential oils

like winter green.
66 a 67 c 68 b 69 c 70 a
2. (d) Tartaric acid have the chiral carbon (*) atom. So it
71 b 72 b 73 c 74 b 75 a is optically active.
76 d 77 c 78 a 79 c 80 d
81 a 82 a 83 b 84 b 85 b
86 b 87 d 88 d 89 d 90 d
Te
91 d 92 d 93 c 94 b 95 d
96 d 97 b 98 a 99 a 100 a
le
101 a 102 a 103 a 104 a 105 c

gr
3. (c) Formula of palmitic acid is .

106 a 107 c 108 d 109 d 110 a
am
111 d 112 b 113 b 114 a 115 d
116 c 117 c 118 d 119 b 120 b

@
121 a 122 c 123 a 124 d 125 c

C
126 a 127 b 128 b 129 c 130 a

he
131 a 132 a 133 a 134 a 135 b
136 b 137 c 138 d 139 b 140 c

m
141 a 142 a 143 a 144 c 145 a

is
146 d
try
Uses of Carboxylic Acids and Their Derivatives

_S
1 b 2 c 3 a 4 c 5 c
pa
6 d
rk
1 a 2 b 3 d 4 c 5 a
6 b 7 a 8 d 9 a 10 d
11 c 12 b 13 c 14 d 15 c
16 c 17 c
Assertion & Reason
1 a 2 c 3 c 4 b 5 c
6 e 7 c 8 e 9 e 10 a
11 c 12 b 13 a 14 c
ALDEHYDES & KETONES
1.
Number of bonds present in A.
2.
Find the total number of products. (Including stereoisomers)
Te
3.
le
gr
The value of (m + n) is
am
4. How many of the following will give faster rate of cyanohydrins formation
than benzaldehyde?
@
(a) p-methoxy benzaldehyde (b) p-cyano benzaldehyde

C
(c) p-nitrobenzaldehyde (d) p-methylbenzaldehyde

he
5.
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
How many oxygen atoms are present in (A) ?
6. 10 moles of are treated with 8 moles of CH3MgBr

followed by hydrolysis. How many moles of diol will be obtained?
7. How many carbon – carbon double bonds are present in the end product, Z?
>
Page No 1
8. How many number of possible condensation products are obtained when
propanal and propanone are together treated with moderately concentrated
alkali?
9. A compound (A) of molecular formula C14H10O12 is formed formed from
C14H14O2 by oxidation Cr2O7–2. (A) upon treatment with OH–gives (B) on
treatment with conc. H2SO4 and heat gives compound (C) of molecular
formula C28H20O4(B) reaponds to NaHCO3 test and effervescence comes
out. What should be the moleculat wt. of B ?
10. C8H6O2 on reation with conc. NaOH undergoes a redox reaction to yield (A)
which on treatment with KMnO4/H followed by HaOH/CaO gives an aromatic
compound (X). Calculate the mol. mass of aromatic compound (X).
CH 3 — CH= O + PhCH 2— CH=O m ixture of aldols

11. (z) total num ber of aldols including stereoisomers
Te
12. Total number of aldol products obtained by involving reaction between

le
CH3CH2CHO and CH3CHO

gr
13. Acetone on treatment with dry HCl gives W. The number of sp 2 carbons in W
am
are _____
@
14. In the following compound which numbered carbon atom enters into
intramolecular aldol condensation to give major product
C
he
m
is
try
x is_____
_S
15. product.
pa
Number of isomeric hydrazone products in above reaction is/are____

rk
16.
The number of moles of - unsaturated ketone react with cyclohexanone
are………
17. When acetone is treated with conc.HCl, the number of acetone molecules
required to form phorone is………
18. compounds A & B can be differentiated

by how many of the following reagents ?
-
Page No 2
Brady’s Reagent ; Fehlings Solution ; Hinsberg Reagent ;
; ; ; Tollen’s Reagent
19. An organic compound (A) was treated with I2 /NaOH consumes 6
moles of I2 to produce iodoform and a dibasic acid (B) which when treated
with alkaline KMnO4, pink color of KMnO4 gets decolorized with no organic
compound left as residue. The minimum value of X is.
20. How many of the following conversion is/are possible by reagent indicated.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
21. How many of the following compounds would give a positive Tollen’s test?
pa
rk
(I) (II)
(III)
(IV) (V) CH3COOH, (VI) HCOOH

(VII) CHOCOOH (VIII) CHOCHO (IX)CH3COCH2OH
(X)CH3COCH(OH)CH3
22.
*
Page No 3
Find the value of n for the organic compound A.
23. The no. of compounds undergoe self Aldol condensation is
I) Methanal II) Ethanal III) Benzene carbaldehyde IV) Propanone
V) 2, 2-dimethyl propanal VI) Propenal VII) Phenyl ethanal VIII)
Cyclohexanone
24. The number of compounds give positive Fehling test
1) CH3-CHO 2) CH3-CH2-CHO 3) Ph-CHO 4) CH3COCH3
CHO
O O
5) Ph-C-CHOH-Ph 6) CH 3 7) Ph-CH2-CHO 8)
25. The no. of compounds give the Idoform Test
1) CH3-CHO 2) CH3COCH3 3) CH3-CH2-CO-CH2-CH3
Te
4) CH3CH2OH 5) Ph-CHOH-CH3 6) CH3-C-CH2-COCH3

le
O
gr
am
7) CH3 - CO - CH2 - COOEt 8) O
26. 1 mole SBH reduces ‘y’ moles acetaldehyde to ethyl alcohol. The value of ‘y’
@
is
27. The number of organic compounds out of the following which can show
C
positive iodoform test is

he
Acetaldehyde, methanal, Butanone, Acetone, Glyoxal, Pentan-2-one

m
is
28.
try
_S
pa
rk
How many oxygen atoms are present in (A) ?
29.
value of X + Y would be
=>
Page No 4
30. Among the following how many of them reduce Tollen’s reagent and give Ag
mirror test?
31. Find the minimum no.of carbon atoms in aldehyde required to produce stereo
isomeric aldol product.
32.
Te
le
Find the total number of products. (Including stereoisomers)

gr
am
33. How many of the following will give faster rate of cyanohydrins formation
than
@
benzaldehyde?
C
he
(a) p-methoxy benzaldehyde (b) p-cyano benzaldehyde

m
(c) p-nitrobenzaldehyde (d) p-methylbenzaldehyde

is
34. Number of carbon atoms in the compound D is

try
_S
pa
35.
rk
Numbe of bonds present in A.
36 How many vacant hybrid orbitals are involved in formation of banana bonds
in diborane structure.
=
Page No 5
ALDEHYDES & KETONES – KEY SHEET
Integer Answers
1 4 2 2 3 4 4 2 5 5 6 0
7 1 8 4 9 144 10 72 11 12 12 4
13 5 14 2 15 2 16 4 17 3 18 4
19 4 20 4 21 7 22 2 23 4 24 4
25 6 26 4 27 4 28 5 29 5 30 6
31 2 32 2 33 2 34 6 35 4 36 3
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
ALDEHYDES & KETONES – SOLUTIONS

Page No 6
-
Integer solutions
1.
2. 2
3. Pair of diastereomers is formed (m), therefore, two fractions are obtained
4. 2
5. Double Michael Addition
6. Because of acidic hydrogen of group 8 moles of will be obtained.
Te
7. (1)
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
8. Fact.
9. [84 + 48 + 12 = 144]
pa
rk
(A) (B) Lactide (C)

10. 72
Internal Cannizaro
Page No 7
11. 12
+
Te
le
gr
12. Conceptual
am
13. Acetone forms Phorone with dry HCl

14. C2 carbon is involved in internal Aldol condensation
@
15. Forms two oxines. (E and Z)

C
16. atoms are present

he
17. 3 molecules condense

18. A & B are propionaldehyde and propanone
m
is
try
19. A is
_S
20. 4
21. 7
pa
22. 2
rk
23. Conceptual
24. Conceptual
25. Conceptual
26. Conceptual
27. Copounds containing under go iodoform reaction
28. Double Michael Addition
&
Page No 8
29.
30. Conceptual
31. Conceptual
32. Conceptual
33. Conceptual
34. Conceptual
35.
Te
le
gr
am
36. (3)
Total 12 isomers
@
(2) + (4)
C
he
m
+ (2) + (4)
is
try
_S
pa
rk
=>
Page No 9
ALDEHYDES & KETONES
Column I (Mixture) Column II (pH)
(under adiabatic free
expansion)
(a) (p)
(i)
(ii) Ph3 P = CH Et
(b) (q) NaBH4
Te
(c) (r)
le
(i) KMnO4, (ii)

gr
am
(iii) LiAlH4, (iv) H3O

(d) (s)
@
i)
C
he
ii) NaBH4,
m
iii) H3O +
is
try

COLUMN – I COLUMN - II
_S
Gives reddish brown

pa
precipitate with
(A) (P)
CuSO4/sodium potassium
rk
tartrate solution
(B) (Q) Shows tautomerism
Gives two isomeric compounds

(C) (R)
with hydrazine hydrochloride
Gives yellow precipitate with

(D) (S)
I2/NaOH
-
Page No 1
Column I (Compound) Column II (Reaction / test
shown by the compound)
(a) (p) Tollen’s Test
(b) (q) Fehling’s Test

(c) (r) Intramolecular
Cannizzaro’s reaction
(d) (s) Intramolecular aldol

condensaiton
Te
le
gr
(t) Haloform Test

am

Column I Column II
@
(a) (p)
C
(b) (q)
he
m
is
(c) (r)
try
_S
(d) (s)
(t)
pa
rk
A. P. Haloform
B. Q. Ceric ammonium nitrate
C. R. Cannizaro’s reaction
D. S. Aldol condensation
=
Page No 2
6. Column – I Column – II ( X may be )
A) P)
B) Q)
C) R)
Te
D) S)
le
7. Match the column (I) and Column (II). (Matrix)

gr
Column I Column II
am
(A) (p) Formation of six

member ring takes
@
place
C
he
(B) (q) Final product is

m
Ketone
is
try
_S
(C) (r) Final product

pa
formed will give

rk
positive Tollen’s
test
(D) (s) Final product
formed will react
with 2,4-DNP. (2,4-
Di-nitrophenyl
hydrazine)
-
Page No 3
-
Column I Column II
(A) (p) Aldol condensation
(B) (q) Perkins reaction
(C) (r) Swern oxidation
(D) (s) Cross Claisen

Te
condensation
le
gr
am
9. List – I List – II
a) p)
@
b) q)
C
O
he
HO C  CH 3 HO CH 2  CH 3
m
is
c) r)
try
O
_S
Br C  CH 3 Br CH 2  CH 3
pa
d) s) NH 2  NH 2 / OH
rk
10.
Match the following :

Column I Column II
(A) A can give / gives (P) Haloform reaction
(B) B can give / gives (Q) 1 mole of haloform
(C) C can give / gives (R) 2 mole of haloform
-
Page No 4
(D) D can give / gives (S) Aldol condensation
(either inter or intramolecular)

O
(A) (P) 1, 4-addition
Ph–CH 2–C–C H=C H 2
(B) (Q) Tautomerism

OH C
(C) C H 3– C H = C H – C H = C H 2 (R) AgNO3/NH4OH

Te
C H 3– C – C H 2– C – H
(D) (S) 2,4 DNP test
le
O O
gr
am

O
@
C
(A) NaC N + H 2 SO 4 (A) LiAlH 4 Formation of six member

(P)
he
ring take place

HNO 2
m
(B) Product
is
O
try
NH 2O H H LiAlH 4 (Q) Final product is ketone

(B) (A) (B) Product
_S
OH Product Final product formed will give

(C) CH 3 –C –CH 2 –CH 2 –CH 2 –C–H
pa
(R)
positive tollen's test
O O
rk
Ph
(D)
H
Product Final product will react with
CH 3 (S)
2, 4 DNP
OH OH
·
Page No 5
(A ) P h – C – H a lk a lin e K C N P ro d u c t Final product formed give
(P)
O positive tollen test
O (1) OH Final product give test with 2,
(B) Product (Q)
4 DNP
O
(1) C 2 H 5 ON a Final product react with
(C) CH 3 –C–OEt Product
(R) NaOCO3 and
O liberated CO2 gas
(1) KO H Final product react with Na
(D) Ph–CH =O Product (S)
(2) H and liberated H2 gas
Te
14. Match the Coloumn -I with Coloumn -II

le
gr
(A) (p) 1,4 – addition

am
(B) (q) Tautomerism

@
(C) (r) AgNO3/NH\4OH

C
he
(D) (s) 2, 4–DNP test

m
is
try
15. Column (Reactions ) – I Column – II

_S
(Type of reaction)
pa
a) p) Beckmann rearrangement
rk
b) q) Double eliminations
c) r) Radical substitution
d) s) Addition
16. Match the column I and II
(Column I) (Column II)
*
Page No 6
(A) (p) Formation of six
member ring takes
place
(B) (q) Final product is
ketone
(C) (r) Final product formed

will give positive
Tollen’s test
(D) (s) Final product formed
will react with 2, 4-
DNP.
(2, 4-Di-nitrophenyl
hydrazine)
Te
17. Match the column–I, column–II

le
gr
Column I (Mixture) Column II (pH)

am
(A) Acid catalysed dehydration of an aldol (p) E1CB

(B) Base catalysed dehydration of an aldol (q) E1
@
(C) Acid catalysed dehydration of alcohol (r) E2

C
he
(D) Dehydration of alcohol by POCl3 in (s) E1 + E2

pyridine
m
is
18. Match the following column – I with column – II

try
_S
Column – I Column– II
(p) Three membered cyclic
pa
intermediate
rk
(q) six-membered cyclic

intermediate
(r) Carbocation
(s) Four membered cyclic

intermediate.
19. Match the following column – I with column – II

(A) CH2 = C = CH2 (p) carbocation
Page No 7
-
(q) 1,1-elimnation
carbene
(r) ECB1
(s) benzyne
20. Match the chemical compounds in column I with the reagents used to test
them in column II. Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate
bubbles of the 4  4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II
(A) Ethanal (p) [Ag(NH3)2]OH
(B) Glucose (q) CuO
Te
(C) Glyoxal
le
gr
(D) Benzaldehyde (s) I2/NaOH

am
21. Match each of the compounds given in column-I with the reaction that they
can undergo given in column –II
@
C
he
A P
m
is
try
B
_S
Q
pa
rk
C
R
D
S

Column I Column II
Page No 8
-
(a) (p) Racemic mixture
(b) (q) Addition reaction
(c) (r) Substitution reaction
(d) (s) Carbocation intermediate

Te
le
gr
am

@
C
(+ ve) Tollen’s Test

he
(A) (P)
m
is
try
Cannizaro Reaction
(B) (Q)
_S
pa
(+ ve) Haloform Test

(C) (R)
rk
Aldol condensation
(D) (S)

Column I Column II
Involves a carbocation
(A) (p)
intermediate
-
Page No 9
The electrophile
(B) (q) involved is not electron
deficient.
Gives a pair of
(C) (r)
enantiomers.
The product has more

(D) (s) number of pi bonds
than the reactant.
Heating the product

with aqueous NaOH
(t)
results in the formation
of a salt.
Te
le
25. Match the compounds in Column – I with their characteristics in Column – II.
gr
Column I Column II
am
(A) (p) Forms a stable hydrate.

@
C
he
Gives yellow precipitate with

(B) (q)
m
NaOI.
is
try
Reacts with only one equivalent

(C) (r) of NH2OH.HCl and gives two
_S
isomeric oximes.
pa
rk
Undergoes addition as well as

(D) (s)
substitution reactions.
Has a double bond equivalent

(t)
more than 3.
26. Column-I
Match the folloiwng Column-II
(Reactions) (Involved
phenomenon)
a) p) Oxidation
b) q) Condensation
c) r) Nucleophilic
addition
d) s) Electrophilic
Page No 10 substitution
t) Nucleophilic
substitution
27. Match the following column I and II
(A) (p) Yellow precipitate with
(q)
Isomer of
(B)
Te
(r) Stronger acid than benzoic acid.

(C)
le
gr
am
(s) Yellow orange precipitate with 2,4 –

dinitrophenyl hydrazine.
@
(D)
C
he
m
28. Match Column –I with Column – II.

is
Column –I Column –I
try
_S
p
A) Haloform
pa
rk
q
B) CericAmmonium nitrate
C) r) Cannizaro’s reaction
s
D) Aldol condensation
29. Column-I Column-II

AC2O/ACONa
Ph-CHO
A. P. Reformat sky reaction
=
Page No 11
Zn/ether
Ph-CHO
B. BrCH2COOEt Q. Aldol reaction
-
OH
2CH3-CHO
C. R. Perkins reaction
O
I 2 / OH
C-CH3
D. S. Haloform reaction
(A) (p) Aldol Condensation
(B) (q) Cannizzaro reaction
(C) (r) Keto-enol tautomerism

Te
Iodoform reaction
le
(D) (s)
gr
(t) Perkin reaction

am
31. Match the following type :

@
Column I Column II
C
(Reductive Ozonolysis) (Possible products)

he
(A) (p)
m
(B) (q)
is
try
_S
(C) (r) HCHO

pa
rk
(D) (s)
(t)
Column I Column II
(a) (p)
(b) (q)
Page No 12
- -
(c) (r)
(d) (s)
(t)

Column I (Compound) Column II (Reaction / test
shown by the compound)
(a) (p) Tollen’s Test
(b) (q) Fehling’s Test

(c) (r) Intramolecular
Cannizzaro’s reaction
Te
le
gr
am
(d) (s) Intramolecular aldol

condensaiton
@
C
he
(t) Haloform Test

m
34. Match the folloiwng

is
Column-I Column-II
try
(Reactions) (Involved
_S
phenomenon)
a) p) Oxidation
pa

b) Column I (Mixture) Columnq)II (pH)Condensation
rk
c) (under adiabatic
r) free
Nucleophilic
expansion) addition
(a)d) (p) s) Electrophilic
(i) substitution
t) Nucleophilic
(ii) Ph3 P = CH Et substitution
(b) (q) NaBH4
-
Page No 13
(c) (r)
(i) KMnO4, (ii)
(iii) LiAlH4, (iv) H3O

(d) (s)
i)
ii) NaBH4,
iii) H3O +
36.
Te
le
gr
am
@

Column I Column II
C
(a) (p) Gives reddish brown

he
precipitate with
m
CuSO4/sodium
potassium tartrate
is
solution
try
(b) (q) Shows tautomerism

_S
pa
rk
(c) (r) Gives two isomeric

compounds with
hydrazine
hydrochloride
(d) (s) Gives yellow precipitate
with I2/NaOH
Matching Answers
1 A–R 2 A – QRS 3 A – PQST 4 A – PS 5 A–R 6 A–R
B–S B – PQR B – PR B – QS B–R B–P
Page No 14
=
C–P C – QS C–P C–R C – PS C–S
D-Q D - QR D – PQ D-R D - PS D-Q
7 A – PQS 8 A–R 9 A–R 10 A-PRS 11 A-PQS 12 A-PQS
B – PRS B–P B–S B-S B-PQRS B-P
C – PQS C–Q C–P C-PRS C-P C-PQS
D – PQS D-S D-Q D-PQS D-QRS D-PQS
13 A-PQS 14 A – PQS 15 A-R 16 A-PQS 17 A-Q 18 A-S
B-RS B – RS B-S B-P B-P B-Q
C-Q C–P C-Q C-PQS C-Q C-P
D-RS D – QRS D-P D-PQS D-R D-Q
19 A-P 20 A-PQRS 21 A-PQT 22 A-PQ 23 A–P 24 A-QST
B-S B-PQ B-PQST B-R B – PQ B-PQST
C-R C-P C-P C-PRS C – PRS C-PT
D-Q D-PR D-RS D-PQ D - PRS D-RST
25 A-QRST 26 A-QR 27 A-QR 28 A-R 29 A–R 30 A-S
Te
B-S B-PRT B-QS B-R B–P B-PRS

le
C-QS C-QR C-PQS C-PS C–Q C-QT

D-PST D-PST D-PRS D-PS D–S D-PRS
gr
31 A-PQS 32 A-PS 33 A-PQST 34 A-QR 35 A-R 36 A-R

am
B-PQR B-QS B-PR B-PRT B-S B-S

C-PRS C-R C-P C-QR C-P C-P
@
D-RS D-R D-PQ D-PST D-Q D-Q

C
37 A-QRS
he
B-PQR
C-QS
m
D-QR
is
try

_S
Matching solutions
pa
1. Conceptual
2. Conceptual
rk
3. Conceptual
4.
=
Page No 15
5. Conceptual
6. Conceptual
7. Conceptual
8. Based on Name reactions
9. Conceptual
10. A-PRS, B-S, C-PRS, D-PQS

Te
le
gr
am
@
C
11. A-PQS;B-PQRS; C-P; D-QRS

he
12.
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
13.
-
Page No 16
Te
14. Conceptual
le
15. Conceptual
16. Conceptual
gr
17. Conceptual
am
18. Conceptual
19. Conceptual
@
20. Conceptual
21. Conceptual
C
22. Conceptual
he
23. Conceptual
m
24. Conceptual
is
25. Conceptual
try
26.
27. Aq, r, Bq, s, Cp, q, s, Dp, r, s
_S
(A) Stronger acid than benzoic acid due to Ortho effect

pa
(B) Give positive test with 2,4-DNP, due to presence of CHO group.
(C) Give yellow precipitate with I2/NaOH and yellow orange precipitate with
rk
2,4-DNP, due to presence of group
(D) Stronger acid than benzoic acid, due to –I, –R or COCH 2I and give yellow
precipitate with I2/NaOH and yellow orange precipitate with 2,4-DNP, due to
presence of COCH2I group
28. a) r b)r c) p,s d) p,s
29. Conceptual
30. Conceptual
31. (A)
Page No 17
=
(B)
(C)
Te
(D)
le
gr
am
@
32.
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
33. Conceptual
34.
35. Conceptual
36. Explanation :(A) (R) ; (B) (S) ; (C) (P) ; (D) (P) and (Q) ;
37. Conceptual
-
Page No 18
ALDEHYDES & KETONES
One or more than one answer type questions:
1. Which of the following will give yellow precipitate with ?
A) B)
C) D)
2.
.
In this conversion reagent (X) could be
A) ,glycol/ B) Red P/HI
C) Raney D)
3. Which of the following are converted to aldehydes or ketones by MnO 2 ?
A) B) C) D)
Te
le
4. Which of the following compounds do not give Cannizaro reaction ?

gr
am
@
C
a) b) c) d)
he
5. The products of the following reaction are,

m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
6. Which of the following are disproportionation reactions?
(A)
(B)
-
Page No 1
(C)
(D)
7. Identify the possible products formed during the following reaction
Te
le
gr
(A) (B)
am
@
(C) (D)
C
8.
he
CO OH
m
is
1.PCI 5 NH 2 OH.HCI H 2 SO 4
H Ar X Y Z
try
2.CH 3 MgBr
_S
Et
pa
X, Y, Z are –
rk
=
Page No 2
CH 3 OH
CO CH 3 C=N
(A) H Ar (B) H Ar
Et Et
NHCO CH 3 NHC O C H 3
(C) H Ar (D) H Et
Et Ar
Te
9. Which of the following products is/are correctly mentioned in the following

reactions.
le
(A) HCOH HCOONa + CH3OD (B) HCDO DCOONa + CH2DOH

gr
(C) HCDO DCOOEt + DCH2ONa (D) D2CO DCOONa + CD3OD

am
10. The correct statement/s about the following reaction sequence is / are
CI2 / FeCI 3 HNO 3 + H 2 SO 4 HNO 3 + H 2 SO 4 NH 2N H 2 ,
@
(P)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
C
he
O 2N
(R)
m
CH = N – N H NO 2 (Q)
(5)
is
(A) 'R' gives an aldol condensation reaction kon heating with NaOH solution
try
(B) The rate of deukteration in presence of heavy water the rate of acid cataly
_S
sed halogenation are same

(C) Base catalysed haloform reaction involves formation of carbanion
pa
(D) Acid catalysed halogenation of CH3COCH3 inovolves enol formation

rk
11. Which statement is / are correct ?

(A) The rates of acid catalyed chlorination, bromination of acetone are same
(B) The rate of deuteration in presence of heavy water the rate of acid
catalysed halogenction are same
(C) Base catalysed haloform reactyion involves formation of carbanion
(D) Acid catalysed halogenation of CH3COCH3 inovolves enol formation
12. Which one can be the product of the following reaction ?
1. NaOH,
HOO C CHO +
2. H 3 O
(A) A diacid (B) A monoacid (C) A diol (D) An alcohol
-
Page No 3
13. Which of these carbony compounds on reduction winth Zn – Hg / HCI will
give th3e same compound as product
O O
|| ||
H–C CH 2 C H(C H 3 ) 2 H 3C C – C H(C H 3 ) 2
(A) (B)
H–C=O O
||
(C) H 3 C CH 2 – C – CH 3 (D) H 3 C C – C (C H 3 ) 2
H
14. whic one of the followning compound will not show enolisation ?
O OH
O
Me O O
(A) (B) (C) (D) O OH
Ph O O O
OH
Me Ph
15.
Te
le
gr
am
@
The products of the above reaction is/are

C
he
m
is
try
a) b)
_S
pa
rk
c) d)
16. Consider the following pairs of organic compounds
(i)
(ii)
-
Page No 4
(iii)
(iv)
Test/s that can make distinction between each and every pair is / are
(A) Victor-Meyer’s test (B) Tollen’s test
(C) Iodoform test (D) Mulliken’s test.
17.
The correct statements regarding this reaction

(A) The first step is r.d.s when the PH of the reactions is < 4.5
Te
(B) The second step is r.d.s when the PH of the reaction mixture is
le
approximately 7
gr
(C) The reaction proceeds with optimum speed and yield is also good when
the PH of the reaction mixture is 4.5 approximately.
am
(D) The rate of the reaction is very low at P H = 1

@
18.
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Correct statement regarding this reaction chart

(A) Path ‘A’ involves the formation of an enolate ion
(B) Path ‘B’ is alkylation
(C) Path ‘C’ involves the formation of Betaine if CH 3Cl, and Bu-Li are
used
(D) Path ‘C’ can also be achieved by Wolf kishner reduction
19. Consider the following sequence
Page No 5
=
Which of following statements are correct for above reaction sequence?
(a) Step I is acid-base reaction
(b) Step II is nucleophilic addition reaction
(c) Step III is acid base reaction
Te
(d) Step IV is elimination reaction

le
20.
gr
am
@
C
he
Select the reactions and mechanism evolved.

m
(A) Michael Addition (B) E-1 CB

(C) Aldol addition reaction (D) Acid-base reaction
is
21.
try
Which of the following keto esters is/are not likely to have been prepared by a Claisen condensation?
_S
A) B)
pa
rk
C) D)
22. Which of the following responds to iodoform test with NaOH/I 2 ?

(A) CH3COC2H5 (B) CH3COOH
(C) (D)
Page No 6
-
23. In which of the following, the reaction is associated with hydride shift
O O
(A) Reaction between C H 3 – C – C H 3 + (C H 3 – C H – C H 3 ) 3 A l

CH3
C H 3– C – C H = O
CH 3 OH
(B) + CH 3 –CHO
H OH
C =N H
(C) P h
CHO
Te
OH
(D) CHO
le
24. Which of the following reactions are correct ?

gr
HO CH2 O
am
NH2
(A)
@
O
C
he
O C H 3– C – C – C H 3
m
(B) C H 3 – C H 2 – C – C H 3 N –O H
is
try
N H –C H 3
_S
N H –C H 3
pa
rk
(C) NO
COOH
(D) NH2
25. Which of the following statement are correct

O O O O  O

 ||


 Me3C  C 
CH
> 
>  

 
a) 3
decreasing order of enol content of
respective molecules
-
-
Page No 7
O OH O
O
b) enol % is more than keto form at equilibrium

O OH O
O
c) 

 enol % is more than keto form at equilibrium
O
O
d) Dipolmenomet of

Te
OH/H2O A
II
26. 2CH3 - CHO II (Aldol) crotanaldehyde. The correct statement is/are
le
gr
a) Step - I is nucleophilic addition

am
b) Step-I is nucleophilic substitution,

c) Step-II is elimination by E1 Mechanism
@
d) Step - II is elimination by E1CB Mechanism

C
27. Which of the following reactions form cyclo-butane carbaldehyde.

he
CH = N - OH CN SnCl2+HCl
m
dil. H+
a) b) H3O+
is
CH2OH COOH Meli

PCC
try
c) d) H3 O+
_S
28. Which of the following compounds not reduce to alkane in Clemmenson’s

reduction.
pa
O
rk
O
C - NR2 O CHO
a) COOH b) c) d)
NaOH ..........products are
2Ph-CDO
29. D+
a) Ph-COOD b) Ph-CH2OH c) Ph-CD2OH d) Ph-COOH

30. The compounds readily undergoes E1cb mechanism in base medium.
O NO2 CHO
OH
a) OH b) OH c) OH d)
31. An alkene having M.F . The alkene
shows geometrical isomerism. Which of the following statements are correct for
-
Page No 8
the above reaction?
A) B is a salt of carboxylic acid
B) B on decarboxylation gives an aromatic compound
C) A is a carbonyl compound
D) A on reduction gives alcohol
32. Which of the following will give yellow precipitate with ?

A) B)
C) D)
33. Which of the following are converted to aldehydes or ketones by MnO 2 ?

A) B) C) D)
Te
le
34. is prepared from formaldelyde and acetaldehyde. The reaction

gr
involves,
am
A) Cannizzaro reaction B) Tollen’s reaction

C) Aldol condensation D) Schmidt reaction
@
35.
C
he
.
In this conversion reagent (X) could be
m
A) ,glycol/ B) Red P/HI

is
C) Raney D)
try
36. Which of the following compounds do not give Cannizaro reaction ?

_S
pa
rk
a) b) c) d)
37. Which of the following keto esters is/are not likely to have been prepared by a Claisen condensation?
A) B)
C) D)
-
Page No 9
rk
pa
_S
try
is
-
m
Page No 10
he
C
@
am
gr
le
Te
38.
39.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
40.
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
41. In the process , which of the following possible

intermediate species are obtained ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
-
Page No 11
ALDEHYDES & KETONES – KEY SHEET
One or more than one Answers
1 AD 2 ABCD 3 ACD 4 ABC 5 AC 6 AB
7 ACD 8 ABC 9 ABCD 10 BC 11 ABCD 12 ABD
13 ABC 14 ABCD 15 ACD 16 B 17 ABCD 18 ABC
19 ABCD 20 ABCD 21 BD 22 ACD 23 ABD 24 ABD
25 ABD 26 AD 27 ABC 28 AB 29 AC 30 ABC
31 ABCD 32 AD 33 ACD 34 AC 35 ABCD 36 ABC
37 BD 38 B 39 ABC 40 AC 41 ABCD
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
E
Page No 12
One or more than one solutions
1. Conceptual
2. Fact
3. ACD
4. ABC
5. (AC)
O O O
C H
51. C H C H
OD
OD + OD
CH2OD O O
C O CH 2 O
C O D
+ deuterium
+
Te
exchange
6. AB
le
7. (ACD)
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
8. (A, B, C) Bakemann’s rearrangement.

9. (A, B, C, D)
Cannizaro reaction
Page No 13
10. (B, C)
11. (A, B, C, D)
12. (A, B, D)
Te
le
It is a Cannizzaro reaction.
gr
am
13. (A, B, C)
@
On reduction will give H3 C

C
he
m
14. (A, B, C, D)
is
15. Hoffmann rearrangement is a intramolecular reaction hence, no cross over

try
products formation takes place.

_S
pa
rk
16. Conceptual
17. Conceptual
18. Conceptual
19. ABCD
=
Page No 14
20.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
21.
Ans: B,D
pa
deprotonation is essential in the Clasien condensation, otherwise

rk
reaction is not possible.
There is no for deprotonation.

(4) cannot be a Claisen product.
22. CH3COOH will not respond to iodoform test as the COOH group is more acidic.
23. (A)
z
Page No 15
O
CH3 O
C H 3 C = O + (C H 3 – C H – C H 3 ) A l M e2C A l(O C H M e ) 2
H
H y d rid e (C H 3 ) 2 C = O
sh ift
M e 2 C = O + (C H 3 ) 2 C H O – A l(O C H M e 2 ) 2
(B)
CH3
C H 3 – C – C H O + C H 3– C H O OH
Te
CH3
le
H H
gr
OH
C H 3–C = O C H 3–C –O H
am
H y d rid e sh ift
O
@
CH3 O CH3 O O
C
C H 3– C — — C – H + C H 3– C – O H
he
C H 3–C – –— C – H
CH3
m
CH3 H
is
(C)
try
H OH H
H H 2O
_S
C =N C =N H C =N Ph
Ph Ph OH2
pa
O HO
rk
C–N H Ph N –Ph
H H
(D)
CHO
OH
CHO
It is intra molecular cannizaro reaction in which no a-hydrogen is
present on dialdehyde and it is done by hydride shift
e
Page No 16
24. (A)
O
OH CH 2 OH CH2
N H 2 N aN O OH OH
2
HCl
(B)
Te
le
gr
am
N =O
@
N H –C H 3 N H –C H 3
C
he
(C)
m
COOH
is
try
2
_S
NH2
pa
COOH
rk
(D) NH2
25. Conceptual
26. Conceptual
dil. H3O+ CHO
CH= NOH
27. Aldoximes on treatment with dilute acid give aldehydes
CN SnCl2+HCl
Stephens reaction
H3O+
28. Conceptual
Page No 17
-
29. Conceptual
30.
O O O-
O
OH-
OH OH OH
-
NO2 +O
N NO2
NO2 O
OH
OH OH
CHO CHO
CHO
OH OH
Te
31.
le
gr
am
32. Conceptual
@
33. Fact
C
34. Fact
he
35. Fact
m
36. Fact
is
37. Ans: B,D

try
deprotonation is essential in the Clasien condensation, otherwise

_S
reaction is not possible.

pa
rk
There is no for deprotonation.

(4) cannot be a Claisen product.
38. (b) Explanation :
It is internal Cannizzaro reaction.

39.
-
Page No 18
Te
40. Conceptual
le
41. ABCD
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
-
Page No 19
O
Te
40. Conceptual
le
41. ABCD
6. Chapter
gr
am
@
Nitrogen Containing Compounds

C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Page No 19
(c) Strongly acidic (d) Non-reactive and
neutral
2. Compounds containing both amino and COOH groups
are known as
(a) Diamines (b) Unknown
(c) Amino acids (d) Enzymes
3. Which of the following is amine
 Alkyl nitrites are the esters of nitrous acid. (a) Ethylene diamine (b) Dimethyl amine
 Nitroparaffins are used as solvents for oils, fats, resins, (c) Trimethyl amine (d) N-methyl aniline
esters, rubbers and cellulose etc. nitromethane is used as 4. represents [AMU 1988]
high power fuel in racing automobiles.
(a) Primary amine (b) Secondary amine
 Nitrobenzene is good solvent in friedel crafts reaction (c) Tertiary amine (d) All of these
because it dissolves AlCl3
 All amines have basic properties. The basic property, 5. is [MP PET/PMT 1988]
that is, the tendency of primary, secondary and tertiary
amines to bind a proton, is due to the unshared pair of (a) Diacetone (b) Acetoneamine
Te
electrons on the nitrogen. When a proton is bound, (c) Diacetoneamine (d) Aminoacetone
positive ion is formed and originally electrically neutral 6. A secondary amine is [KCET 1992]
le
amine takes on the charge of the proton. When ions are (a) An organic compound with two groups
gr
formed in this way, they are called onium ions. The ion (b) A compound with two carbon atoms and an
formed in case of amines are substituted ammonium
am
group
ions. The hydronium ion, H3O+ is also the onium ion, which
(c) A compound with an group on the carbon
belongs to the class of oxonium ions.
atom in number 2 position
@
 Some derivatives of ammonia arranged in order of

(d) A compound in which two of the hydrogens of
deecreasing basicity are (CH3)4N+OH–, (CH3)2NH, CH3NH2,
C
have been replaced by organic groups

(CH3)3N, NH3, C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5NH2, (C6H5)2NH,
he
7. The structural formula of methyl aminomethane is

CH3CONH2.
[MP PMT 1991]
 In water the basicity follows the order : Primary <
m
(a) (b)
Tertiary < Secondary amine, with reference to hydronium
is
(c) (d)
ion, H3O+. In this case solvation factor and steric effect
try
alter, to some extent, the order of basicity because of 8. Allyl isocyanide has [IIT 1995]
inductive effect alone. (a) 9 sigma bonds and 4 pi bonds

_S
(b) 8 sigma bonds and 5 pi bonds

 In a non-polar solvent such as benzene, using
(c) 8 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds and 4 non-bonding
trichloroacetic acid as the reference acid, the basicity
pa
electrons
follows the order Tertiary < Secondary < Primary amines.
(d) 9 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds and 2 non-bonding
rk
The solvation factor is absent but steric effect upsets the electrons
inductive effect of alkyl groups. 9. Triaminobenzene is a [BHU 1996]
 Carylamine test is specific for primary amines. (a) amine (b) amine
(c) amine (d) Quarternary salt
10. is a [RPET 2000]
(a) Secondary amine (b) Primary amine
(c) Tertiary amine (d) None of these
11. Leakage of which gas was responsible for the Bhopal
tragedy in 1984 [MP PET 2001]
(a) (b)
Introduction of Nitrogen Containing Compounds
(c) (d)
12. Which of the following is not a nitro-derivative
1. Cyanide ion is
[DCE 2004]
(a) Nucleophilic (b) Electrophilic
(a) (b)
7. Ethylamine can be obtained by the [CPMT 1985]
(a) Action of on ethyl iodide
(c) (d)
(b) Action of on ethyl alcohol
13. Acetonitrile is: [MP PMT 2004]
(a) (b) 8. Aniline is usually purified by
(c) (d) [CPMT 1983, 93; JIPMER 1997]
(a) Steam distillation (b) Simple distillation
14. In alkyl cyanide alkyl group attached with [BCECE 2005]
(c) Vacuum distillation (d) Extraction with a
(a) C of CN group
solvent
(b) N of CN group
9. Reduction of nitroalkanes yields
(c) Either C or N of CN group
(a) Acid (b) Alcohol
(d) Both C and N of CN group
(c) Amine (d) Diazo compounds
15. Number of isomeric primary amines obtained from
10. Acetamide changes into methylamine by
are (a) Hofmann bromamide reaction
[DPMT 2005] (b) Hofmann reaction
Te
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) Friedel-Craft's reaction

(c) 5 (d) 6
le
(d) Hinsberg reaction

gr
11. When methyl iodide is heated with ammonia, the

Preparation of Nitrogen Containing Compounds product obtained is
am
(a) Methylamine
1. Amides may be converted into amines by reaction (b) Dimethylamine
named after [CPMT 1974; MP PET 1992; CBSE PMT 1999]
@
(c) Trimethylamine
(a) Perkin (b) Claisen
(d) A mixture of the above three amines
C
(c) Hoffmann (d) Kolbe

12. Acetanilide can be prepared from aniline and which of
he
2. Reaction gives the following

[CPMT 1983, 93, 97] (a) Ethanol (b) Acetaldehyde
m
(a) (b) (c) Acetone (d) Acetic anhydride

is
(c) (d) 13. Reduction of nitroalkanes in neutral medium (e.g. Zn /

try
3. Acetamide is treated separately with the following ) forms mainly

reagents. Which would give methyl amine (a) (b)
_S
[IIT 1983; CPMT 1988, 94; MP PET 1993;

MP PMT 1996; AIIMS 1998]
14. Nitrosobenzene can be prepared by oxidizing aniline
pa
(a) (b) from

rk
(c) Sodalime (d) Hot conc. (a) (b)

4. The amine formed from an amide by means of (c) (d)
bromine and alkali has
15. The Hinsberg's method is used for
(a) Same number of C atoms as that of amide
(a) Preparation of primary amines
(b) One less C atom than that of amide
(b) Preparation of secondary amines
(c) One more C atom than that of amide
(c) Preparation of tertiary amines
(d) Two more C atoms than that of amide
(d) Separation of amine mixtures
5.
16. Which one of the following compound gives a
The compound X is [MP PMT 1983; BHU 1984] secondary amine on reduction
(a) (b) (a) Nitromethane (b) Nitrobenzene
(c) (d) (c) Methyl isocyanide (d) Methyl cyanide
17. Chloropicrin is manufactured by the reaction between
6. Ethylamine can be prepared by the action of bromine
and caustic potash on [CPMT 1994] and
(a) Acetamide (b) Propionamide (a) Nitromethane (b) Nitroethane
(c) Formamide (d) Methyl cyanide (c) Nitrophenol (d) Nitrostyrene
18. In the reaction 26. Starting from propanoic acid, the following reactions
were carried out
'X' is
[MP PMT 1990] What is the compound Z

(a) Isonitrile (b) Nitrile (a)
(c) Nitrite (d) Oxime (b)
19. When ethanol is mixed with ammonia and passed
over alumina the compound formed is [CBSE PMT 1990] (c)
(a) (b)
(d)
(c) (d)
27. In the reaction
20. Which of the following reactions does not yield an
amine
[CPMT 1989, 93] the final product (C) is
(a) (a) Ammonium acetate (b) Acetamide
(c) Amino methane (d) Ethanal
(b) 28. In the following reaction, X is
Te
(c)
le
(d) [CPMT 1999]

gr
21. Identify 'B' in the reaction (a) Benzoic acid (b) Salicylic acid
am
(c) Phenol (d) Aniline

Acetamide [MP PET 1995]
29. Which of the following reactions will not give primary
(a) (b) amine
@
[CPMT 1999]
(c) (d)
(a)
C
22. Which of the following gives primary amine on

he
reduction (b)
[MP PMT 1995]
(c)
m
(a) (d)
is
30. Carbylamine reaction is given by

try
(b) [BHU 1996; EAMCET 1990]
(c) (a) amine (b) amine

_S
(d) None of these (c) amine (d) Quarternary salts

pa
23. Which of the following is converted into an alcohol on 31. The reaction
treatment with [MP PET 1996; MP PMT 1999]
rk
(a) Methyl amine (b) Aniline

(c) Dimethyl amine (d) Triethyl amine is known as [BHU 1996]
24. Which of the following gives RNC, when reacted with (a) Carbylamine reaction
and KOH [MP PET 1996] (b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(c) Kolbe reaction
(a) (b)
(d) Hofmann's degradation
(c) (d)
32.
25. When aniline reacts with and dil. HCl at What is Z ? [CPMT 1996]
the product formed is [MP PMT 1996; AIIMS (a) (b)
1996]
(c) (d)
(a) Nitroaniline
33. Which of the following reacts with chloroform and a
(b) Benzene diazonium chloride
base to form phenyl isocyanide [AFMC 1997]
(c) Benzene
(a) Aniline (b) Phenol
(d) Trinitroaniline
(c) Benzene (d) Nitrobenzene
34. Aromatic primary amine when treated with cold (a) Benzylamine (b) Diazonium salt
gives [Pb. CET 2002; DCE 1999] (c) Schiff’s base (d) Aniline
42. Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene by using
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Nitro benzene
(c) Benzene (d) Diazonium salt a mixture of conc. and conc. . In the
35. Which of the following compound is the strongest nitrating mixture, acts as a [BHU 2001]
base (a) Base (b) Acid
[BHU 1999] (c) Catalyst (d) Reducing agent
(a) Ammonia (b) Aniline 43. The rate determining step for the preparation of
(c) Methylamine (d) N-methyl aniline nitrobenzene from benzene is [AIIMS 2001]
36. Nitrobenzene combines with hydrogen in the (a) Removal of (b) Removal of
presence of platinum to produce [BHU 1999]
(a) Toluene (b) Benzene (c) Formation of (d) Formation of
(c) Aniline (d) Azobenzene
 44. In this reaction
N2 . Product X is
[RPMT 2002; AFMC 2002]
37. (a) Aniline hydrochloride
Te
(b) Nitro aniline

CH (c) Benzenediazonium chloride
le
3
(d) None of these
gr
The product is [RPET 2000] 45. The diazonium salts are the reaction products in
presence of excess of mineral acid with nitrous acid
NH 2
am
CN
and [MP PET 2002]
(a) Primary aliphatic amine
(a) (b) (b) Secondary aromatic amine
@
(c) Primary aromatic amine

CH CH 3
C
3 (d) Tertiary aliphatic amine

NH 2 46. In acid medium nitrobenzene is reduced to aniline as
he
CN
shown in the reaction
m
(c) (d)
The reducing agent used in this reaction is …….
is
[Orissa JEE 2002]

try
38. Ethyl amine on heating with in presence of

(a) (b)
forms [MP PET 2000]
_S
(c) Na/alcohol (d)

(a) (b) 47. When aniline is treated with sodium nitrite and
pa
hydrochloric acid at 0oC, it gives [Orissa JEE 2003]

(c) (d)
(a) Phenol and (b) Diazonium salt
rk
39. Which of the following reacts with to (c) Hydrazo compound (d) No reaction takes
give phenol [MP PMT 2000] place
(a) (b) 48. the ‘X’ contain
[CPMT 2003]
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
40. Which of the following reactions give
(c) (d)
[Roorkee 2000]
49. In the series of reaction
(a)
X and
(b)
(c) Y are respectively [EAMCET 2003]
(d) (a)
41. When chlorobenzene is treated with in presence (b)

of in xylene at 570 K. The product obtained is (c)
[Pb. PMT 2000]
(d)
50. Aromatic nitriles (ArCN) are not prepared by reaction (b)
[AIIMS 2004]
(a) ArX + KCN (b)
(c) (d) (c)
51. An organic amino compound reacts with aqueous

nitrous acid at low temperature to produce an oily (d)
nitroso amine. The compound is :
[DCE 2003]
(a) (b) 4. Nitro group in nitrobenzene is a [MNR 1986]
(a) Ortho director (b) Meta director
(c) (d)
(c) Para director (d) Ortho and para
director
52. Azo-dyes are prepared from : [BHU 2004; Pb. CET 2001] 5. The alkyl cyanides are
(a) Aniline (b) Salicylic acid (a) Acidic (b) Basic
Te
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Chlorobenzene (c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric

53. Gabriel's phthalimide synthesis is used for the 6. The alkyl cyanides when hydrolysed to the
le
preparation of corresponding acid, the gas evolved is

gr
[CPMT 1982; DPMT 1983] (a) (b)

(a) Primary aromatic amine (b) Secondary amine
(c) (d)
am
(c) Primary aliphatic amine (d) Tertiary amine

54. For the preparation of p-nitroiodobenzene from p- 7. Aniline when treated with and HCl at
nitroaniline, the best method is [Orissa JEE 2005] gives
@
(a) followed by [CPMT 1982, 89; RPMT 2000]

(a) Phenol (b) Nitrobenzene
C
(b) followed by
(c) A diazo compound (d) None of these
he
(c) followed by
8. Nitrosobenzene can be isolated from nitrobenzene
(d) followed by under
m
55. reacts readily to give a cyanide with [J & K 2005] [DPMT 1982]
is
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Ethyl bromide (a) Metal and acid
try
(c) Bromobenzene (d) Chlorobenzene (b) Zn dust and

(c) Alkaline sodium arsenite
_S
Properties of Nitrogen Containing Compounds (d) Cannot be isolated

9. Alkyl cyanides when react with Grignard reagent, the
pa
1. Which of the following amine will not react with product on hydrolysis found, is [MP PMT 1980]
nitrous acid to give nitrogen
(a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone
rk
[NCERT 1984]
(c) Alcohol (d) Acid
(a) (b)
10. The product formed when benzene is nitrated by
fuming nitric acid is [MP PMT 1979]
(c) (d) (a) m-dinitrobenzene (b) Nitrobenzene
(c) sym-trinitrobenzene (d) None of these
2. Which of the following compound is expected to be
11. Ethyl amine undergoes oxidation in the presence of
most basic [NCERT 1982]
to form [CPMT 1985]
(a) Aniline (b) Methylamine
(c) Hydroxylamine (d) Ethylamine (a) An acid (b) An alcohol
3. Which of the following compounds is an amino acid (c) An aldehyde (d) A nitrogen oxide
[Manipal MEE 1995] 12. Which of the following amines would undergo
diazotisation
(a) (a) Primary aliphatic amines (b) Primary aromatic
amines
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
13. Reaction of primary amines with aldehyde yields
[NCERT 1984; Manipal MEE 1995] (b) Methyl amine is less basic than
(a) Amides (b) Aldimines
(c) Methyl amine is stronger base than
(c) Nitriles (d) Nitro compounds
(d) Methyl amine forms salts with alkalies
14. When acetamide is treated with the gas is
25. The product of mustard oil reaction is
evolved
(a) Alkyl isothiocyanate (b) Dithio carbonamide
[CPMT 1993]
(c) Dithio ethylacetate (d) Thioether
(a) (b)
26. Which of the following is azo- group
(c) (d) (a) (b)
15. Nitrobenzene on nitration gives (c) (d)
[NCERT 1978; CPMT 1989] 27. 'Oil of mirbane' is
(a) o-dinitrobenzene (b) p-dinitrobenzene (a) Aniline (b) Nitrobenzene
(c) m-dinitrobenzene (d) o- and p-nitrobenzene (c) p-nitroaniline (d) p-aminoazobenzene
16. Reduction of alkyl nitrites yields
28. The maximum number of groups that can be
(a) Alcohol (b) Base
introduced by nitration in benzene is usually
(c) Amine (d) Acid
(a) 4 (b) 2
Te
17. When primary amines are treated with HCl, the

(c) 3 (d) 6
product obtained is
29. Nitrobenzene at room temperature is
le
(a) An alcohol (b) A cyanide

(a) Gas (b) Liquid
gr
(c) An amide (d) Ammonium salt

(c) Solid (d) Solution
18. Which one is weakest base [BHU 1982; RPMT 2000]
am
30. In the explosive amatol, TNT is mixed with [CPMT 1988]

(a) Ammonia (b) Methylamine
(a) Ammonium citrate (b) Ammonium nitrate
(c) Dimethylamine (d) Trimethylamine
(c) Ammonium oxalate (d) Ammonium sulphate
@
19. Chloroform when treated with aniline and alcoholic

31. By reduction of nitrosobenzene which of the following
KOH gives [CPMT 1986; EAMCET 1992;
is not obtained
C
MP PMT 1997; Pb. PMT 1999]

he
(a) Phenyl cyanide (b) Phenyl isocyanide

(a) NH2 (b) N=N
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Phenol
m
20. Which of following do not react with

NH.OH
is
(c) (d) NO2

(a) Primary nitroalkanes (b) Secondary
try
nitroalkanes
(c) Tertiary nitroalkanes (d) All of these 32. By the presence of a halogen atom in the ring, basic
_S
properties of aniline is
21. Primary amines can be distinguished from secondary
and tertiary amines by reacting with [CPMT 1983] (a) Increased (b) Decreased
pa
(a) Chloroform and alcoholic KOH (c) Unchanged (d) Doubled

(b) Methyl iodide 33. In the mustard oil reaction, an amine is treated with
rk
(c) Chloroform alone (a) (b)

(d) Zinc dust (c) (d)
22. Which of following is not an usual method for 34. Primary nitro compounds when react with
preparation of primary amine
forms crystalline solids which on treatment with NaOH
(a) Hofmann's method (b) Curtius reaction
gives
(c) Schmidt reaction (d) Friedel-Craft's reaction
(a) Red solution (b) Blue solution
23. A solution of methyl amine
(c) White precipitate (d) Yellow colouration
(a) Turns blue litmus red
35. Secondary nitro compounds when react with
(b) Turns red litmus blue
forms crystalline solids which one on treatment with
(c) Does not affect red or blue litmus
NaOH gives
(d) Bleaches litmus
(a) Red solution (b) Blue solution
24. Mark the correct statement
(c) White precipitate (d) Yellow colouration
[CPMT 1974; DPMT 1983; MP PMT 1994]
36. Which of the following possess powerful mustard
(a) Methyl amine is slightly acidic
smell (and are called mustard oils)
(a) Alkyl isocyanates (b) Alkyl cyanates 46. Methyl amine reacts with giving [RPMT 1997]
(c) Alkyl isothiocyanates (d) Alkyl thiocyanates
(a) (b)
37. On heating acetamide in presence of which of
(c) (d) (a) and (b) both
the following is formed [MP PMT 1992; MP PET 1994;
47. Nitrobenzene on reduction by zinc and gives
Kurukshetra CEE 1998]
[CPMT 1989, 94; BHU 1996; Pb. PMT 1999]
(a) Ammonium acetate (b) Acetonitrile
(a) Aniline (b) Nitrosobenzene
(c) (d) Methylamines
(c) Hydrazobenzene (d) Phenylhydroxyl amine
38. When chloroform reacts with ethyl amine in presence 48. The decreasing order of the basic character of the
of alcoholic KOH, the compound formed is three amines and ammonia is [MP PET/PMT 1988; KCET
[CPMT 1983; MP PMT 1993; 1990]
CBSE PMT 1997; BHU 1999; AIEEE 2002] (a)
(a) Ethyl cyanide (b) Ethyl isocyanide
(b)
(c) Formic acid (d) An amide
(c)
39. When methyl cyanide is hydrolysed in presence of
alkali, the product is [MP PMT 1993; BCECE 2005] (d)
(a) Acetamide (b) Methane 49. Correct order of increasing basicity is [CBSE PMT 1992]
Te
(c) (d) Acetic acid (a)

le
40. Hofmann's hypobromite reaction affords a method of

[MP PMT 1993] (b)
gr
(a) Preparing a tertiary amine

am
(b) Preparing a mixture of amines (c)

(c) Stepping down a series
(d) Stepping up a series (d)
@
41. The compound which on reaction with aqueous

C
nitrous acid on at low temperature produces 50. Among the following compounds nitrobenzene,
he
an oily nitrosoamine is [IIT 1981; CPMT 1989; MP PET/PMT benzene, aniline and phenol, the strongest basic
1998; behaviour in acid medium is exhibited by [KCET 1993]
m
Kurukshetra CEE 1998; MP PMT 2001] (a) Phenol (b) Aniline

(a) Diethylamine (b) Ethylamine (c) Nitrobenzene (d) Benzene
is
(c) Aniline (d) Methylamine 51. Aniline on treatment with excess of bromine water
try
42. Identify the product Z in the series gives

[AFMC 1990; MP PMT 1991; RPMT 1997]
_S
(a) Aniline bromide (b) o-bromoaniline

(c) p-bromoaniline (d) 2, 4, 6-tribromoaniline
pa
[AIIMS 1983; JIPMER 2001]

52. Unpleasant smelling carbylamines are formed by
(a) (b) heating alkali and chloroform with [KCET 1987, 2000, 01]
rk
(c) (d) (a) Any amine (b) Any aliphatic amine

43. The end product of the reactions is (c) Any aromatic amine (d) Any primary amine
53. When an organic compound was treated with sodium
nitrite and hydrochloric acid in the ice cold, nitrogen
[CPMT 1988, 89, 93; DCE 1999; JIPMER 2000] gas was evolved copiously. The compound is [KCET
(a) Ethyl cyanide (b) Ethyl amine 1986]
(c) Methyl amine (d) Acetamide (a) A nitro compound
44. Primary and secondary amines are distinguished by (b) A primary amine
[AMU 1988; MP PMT 1996] (c) An aliphatic primary amine
(d) An aromatic primary amine
(a) (b)
54. Aniline reacts with alkyl halide to give [KCET 1984]
(c) (d) (a) Amino compound
45. Which one of the following will give a primary amine (b) Tertiary compound
on hydrolysis [BHU 1982] (c) Quaternary ammonium compound
(a) Nitroparaffin (b) Alkyl cyanide (d) Azomethane
(c) Oxime (d) Alkyl isocyanide
55. Aniline on treatment with conc. conc. (a) Acetone (b) Ethylamine
mixture yields [AIIMS 1992] (c) Acetaldehyde (d) Dimethylamine
(a) o- and p-nitroanilines (b) m-nitroanilines 67. The following compound can be classified as N-N
dimethyl propanamine, N-methyl aniline and aniline
(c) A black tarry matter (d) No reaction
[Bihar MEE 1996]
56. Which statement is not correct [MP PMT 1995]
(a) Primary, secondary, tertiary
(a) Amines form hydrogen bond
(b) Primary, tertiary, secondary
(b) Ethyl amine has higher boiling point than propane
(c) Secondary, tertiary, primary
(c) Methyl amine is more basic than ammonia
(d) Dimethyl amine is less basic than methyl amine (d) Tertiary, primary, secondary
57. Which of the following is not used as an explosive (e) None of these
[MP PET 1996] 68. Which of the following compounds does not react with
(a) Trinitrotoluene (b) Trinitrobenzene and HCl [KCET 1996]
(c) Picric acid (d) Nitrobenzene (a) (b)

58. Primary amines react with nitrous acid to yield (c) (d)
(a) Insoluble nitrite salts (b) Yellow oily layer
69. In the reduction of nitrobenzene, which of the
Te
(c) Nitrogen gas (d) Azo dye following is the intermediate

59. Which of the following has the smell of bitter almonds [CPMT 1999]
le
(a) Nitromethane (b) Nitroethane (a)

gr
(c) Nitrobenzene (d) Aniline

(b)
am
60. The reaction of with 'A' gives quaternary

(c)
ammonium salt. A is [MP PMT 1997]
(a) Methyl amine (b) Dimethyl amine (d)
@
(c) Trimethyl amine (d) Aniline

70. Aniline when treated with conc. gives
C
61. Reaction of nitrous acid with aliphatic primary amine

in the cold gives [KCET 1996]
he
[MP PET/PMT 1998; CBSE PMT 1994]

NH2 NH2 NH2
(a) A diazonium salt (b) An alcohol NO2 NO2
m
(c) A nitrite (d) A dye (a) (b)

is
62. In presence of acid, hydrolysis of methyl cyanide gives

NH2
[MP PET/PMT 1998]
try
O NO2
(a) Acetic acid (b) Methylamine
_S
(c) Methyl alcohol (d) Formic acid

(c) (d)
63. The amine which does not react with acetyl chloride is
pa
or Which of the following cannot be acetylated O

[MP PET 1999; MP PMT 1999]
rk
71. Which one of the following is not a base [EAMCET 1997]

(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d) None of these (c) (d)
64. The fusion of sodium with amine gives mainly 72. p-Nitrobromobenzene can be converted to p-
[MP PMT 1999; CPMT 2002] nitroaniline by using . The reaction proceeds
(a) NaCN (b) through the intermediate named [Orissa JEE 2005]
(a) Carbocation (b) Carbanion
(c) NaSCN (d)
(c) Benzyne (d) Dianion
65. Which of the following is most basic [MP PMT 1999] 73. If methyl is alkyl group, then which order of basicity is
(a) (b) correct [RPMT 1997]
(a)
(c) (d)
(b)
66. In reaction
(c)
the term Y is
(d)
[CBSE PMT 1999]
74. Which of the following has the minimum heat of (a) Acetic acid (b) Acetone
dissociation (c) Acetaldehyde (d) Ethyl alcohol
81. is known as acetonitrile because [AMU
(a) 1999]
(b) (a) It contains an aceto group
(c) (b) On hydrolysis it gives acetic acid
(d)
(d) None of these
75. The major product (70% to 80%) of the reaction
82. What is formed, when nitrobenzene is reduced using
between m-dinitrobenzene with is
zinc and alkali
NO2 NH2 [AIIMS 1997] [BHU 2000; AIIMS 2000; CBSE PMT 2000; MH CET 2003]
(a) Phenol (b) Aniline
(a) (b) (c) Nitrosobenzene (d) Hydrazobenzene
NO2 NO2
NH2 NH2 83.
Here A is [RPET 2000]

(c) (d)
Te
NO2 HS NH2
HS (a) (b)
le
76. Which one is less alkaline [CPMT 1997] (c) (d)

gr
84. Decreasing order of basicity is [RPET 2000]

(a) (b)
am
(1) (2)
(3) Ph–
(a) 1 > 2 > 3 (b) 2 > 1 > 3
@
77. In the diazotisation of aniline with sodium nitrite and (c) 3 > 2 > 1 (d) None of these
C
hydrochloric acid, an excess of hydrochloric acid is 85. Among the following, the strongest base is
used primarily to
he
[Pb. PMT 1998] [UPSEAT 2000; IIT-JEE (Screening) 2000]

(a) Suppress the concentration of free aniline (a) (b)
m
available for coupling

(c) (d)
(b) Suppress hydrolysis of phenol
is
(c) Insure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid 86. Aniline and methyl amine can be differentiated by
try
(d) Neutralize the base liberated [DPMT 2000]
78. A primary amine can be converted to an alcohol by the (a) Reaction with chloroform and aqueous solution of
_S
action of [CET Pune 1998] KOH

(a) Alkali (b) Nitrous acid (b) Diazotisation followed by coupling with phenol
pa
(c) Reducing agent (d) Oxidising agent (c) Reaction with

(d) None of these
rk
79. Arrange the following in increasing order of basicity

87. The amine which can react with to
[AFMC 1997] form a product insoluble in alkali shall be [AMU 2000]
(a) (a) Primary amine
(b) Secondary amine
(b) (c) Tertiary amine
(d) Both primary and secondary amines
88. A mixture of benzene and aniline can be separated by
(c)
[KCET (Engg.) 2001]
(a) Hot water (b) dil. HCl
(d) (c) dil. NaOH (d) Alcohol
89. Nitrobenzene on further excessive nitration gives
80. In the reaction [AFMC 2001]
(a) Trinitrobenzene (b) m-dinitrobenzene
(c) p-dinitrobenzene (d) All of these
The compound B is [KCET 1999]
90. The compound A with following sequence of reaction (b) 2, 4, 6-tribromo aniline
gave benzoic acid (c) 4-bromo aniline
benzoic acid. The (d) 3-bromo aniline
100. Mustard gas is obtained by [MP PET 2002]
compound A is [AMU 2001]
(a) Nitrobenzene (b) Aniline (a) The action of dilute acids on mustard seeds
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Amides (b) Treating ethylene with mustard oil
91. Which of the following chemicals are used to (c) Treating sulphur chloride with ethylene
manufacture methyl isocyanate that caused “Bhopal (d) None of these
Tragedy” 101. Which of the following is capable of forming a zwitter
(i) Methylamine (ii) Phosgene ion
(iii) Phosphine (iv) Dimethylamine [JIPMER 2002]
[AIIMS 2005]
(a) (b)
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
92. An isocyanide on hydrolysis gives [AMU 2001] (c) (d)
(a) An amide
Te
(b) A carboxylic acid and ammonia

(c) A N-substituted amide 102. Which one of the following reducing agents is likely to
le
(d) A 1o-amine and formic acid be the most effective in bringing about the following
gr
93. Methyl isocyanide on hydrolysis gives [UPSEAT 2001] change

(a) (b) HCOOH
am
[AMU 2002]
94. Pure aniline is a [UPSEAT 2001]
@
(a) (b)
(a) Colourless solid
(b) Brown coloured solid (c) (d) Na-alcohol
C
(c) Colourless liquid 103. During acetylation of amines what is replaced by

he
(d) Brown coloured liquid acetyl groups [UPSEAT 2002]

m
95. Reduction of methyl isocyanide gives [RPMT 2002] (a) Hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom
(a) Ethylamine (b) Methylamine (b) One or more hydrogen atoms attached to carbon
is
(c) Dimethylamine (d) Trimethylamine atom

try
96. Reaction of aniline with benzaldehyde is [RPMT 2002]

(c) One or more hydrogen atoms attached to nitrogen
(a) Polymerisation (b) Condensation atom
_S
(c) Addition (d) Substitution

(d) Hydrogen atoms attached to either carbon atom
97. In the reaction
pa
or nitrogen atom
the compound 104. Hydrolysis of acetonitrile in acidic medium produces
rk
is known as [CPMT 2003; RPMT 2003]
[RPMT 2000; AIIMS 2002; AMU 2001] (a) (b)

(a) Aldol (b) Schiff’s reagent
(c) (d)
(c) Schiff’s base (d) Benedict reagent
105. Which has a pyramidal structure [UPSEAT 2003]
98. The unshared pair of electrons on a cyanide ion can
acts as (a) Trimethylamine (b) Methanol
[Kerala (Med.) 2002] (c) Acetylene (d) Water
(a) Isocyanide centre (b) Amido centre 106. Ethyl amine on acetylation gives [BHU 2002; BVP 2003]
(c) Cationic centre (d) Nucleophilic centre (a) N-ethyl acetamide
NH 2 (b) Acetamide
(c) Methyl acetamide
99. Electrophilic substitution of with bromine
(d) None
gives
[Kerala (Med.) 2002] 107. The refluxing of with acid gives
(a) 1, 4, 6-tribromo aniline [BHU 2002; BVP 2003]
(a) 113. Benzaldehyde condenses with N, N-dimethylaniline in
presence of anhydrous to give [Kerala (Med.)
(b)
2003]
(c)
(a) Michler’s ketone (b) Azo dye
(d) (c) Malachite green (d) Buffer yellow
108. p-chloro aniline and anilinium hydrogen chloride can 114. The correct order of reactivity towards the
be distinguished by [UPSEAT 2003] electrophilic substitution of the compounds aniline (I)
(a) Sandmaeyer reaction benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is [CBSE PMT 2003]
(b) Carbyl amine reaction (a) I > II > III (b) III > II > I
(c) Hinsberg’s reaction (c) II > III > I (d) I < II > III
(d) 115. The final product C, obtained in this reaction
NH2
NO2
109. would be
Te
[CBSE PMT 2003]

Product ‘A’ in above reaction is [RPMT 2003] CH3
le
NO2 NO2
gr
SO3H
NHCOCH3 NH2
(a) (b)
am
SO3H Br COCH3
NO2 (a) (b)
@
CH3 CH3
C

COCH3 NH2
SO3H
he
Br Br
m
110. Product obtained by electrolytic reduction of (c) (d)

is
nitrobenzene in presence of is [RPMT 2003] CH3 CH3

try
(a) o-amino phenol (b) m-amino phenol

(c) p-amino phenol (d) None of these 116. The correct order of increasing basic nature for the
_S
bases and is [AIEEE

O
111. . 2003]
pa
(a)
The product ‘B’ is [RPMT 2003]
rk
(b)
(a) (b) (c)

OH
(d)
O O 117. Nitrobenzene gives N-phenylhydroxylamine by
[AIIMS 2003]
(c) NH (d) O
(a) (b)
112. Identify the product Z in the following reaction (c) (d)

118. Among the following the weakest base is [AIIMS 2003]
(a) (b)
(a) p-Bromoaniline (b) p - (c) (d)

Bromoacetophenone 119. The correct order of basicity of amines in water is :
[Pb. CET 2003]
(c) o-Bromoacetophenone(d) o-Bromoacetonilide
(a)
N
|
(b) H
(c)
(A) (B) (C)
(d) (a) (A) (b) (B)
120. Complete the following reaction : (c) (C) (d) All are equally basic
[MHCET 2004] 129. Which one of the following methods is neither meant
for the synthesis nor for separation of amines [AIEEE
2005]
(a) (b) (a) Hinsberg method (b) Hofmann method
(c) Wurtz reaction (d) Curtius reaction
(c) (d) No reaction
130. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D.
121. Which of the following compound reacts with
NH 2
chloroform and a base to form phenyl isocyanide ?
NaNO 2 CuCN H2 HNO 2
[MHCET 2003]   A   B 
 C   D
HCl Ni
(a) Phenol (b) Aniline
The structure of product D would be [CBSE PMT 2005]
(c) Benzene (d) Nitro benzene
Te
(a) (b)
122. Which one doesn't liberate when undergoes
le
hydrolysis [Orissa JEE 2005]

gr
(a) Acetanilide (b) Acetonitrile (c) (d)

(c) Acetamide (d) Phenyl isocyanide 131. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic
am
123. A nitrogen containing organic compound gave an oily medium gives [CBSE PMT 2005]
liquid on heating with bromine and potassium (a) Aniline (b) Nitrosobenzene
hydroxide solution. On shaking the product with
@
(c) N-Phenylhydroxylamine (d) p-Hydroxylaniline

acetic anhydride, an antipyretic drug was obtained.
132. Among the following compounds
C
The reactions indicate that the starting compound is

and the
he
[KCET 2004]
(a) Aniline (b) Benzamide least basic compound is
m
(c) Acetamide (d) Nitrobenzene (a) (b)

is
124. Benzamide on reaction with gives [IIT-JEE 2004] (c) (d)

(a) Aniline (b) Chlorobenzene
try
(e)
(c) Benzyl amine (d) Benzonitrile
133. The reduction of which of the following compound
_S
125. Among the following which one does not act as an

intermediate in Hofmann rearrangement [AIIMS 2005] would yield secondary amine ?
[DCE 2004]
pa
(a) (b) (a) Alkyl nitrite

rk
(b) Carbylamine
(c) (d)
(c) Primary amine
126. Aniline reacts with which of these to form Schiff base (d) Secondary nitro compound
[AFMC 2004] 134. Azo dye is prepared by the coupling of phenol and :
(a) Acetic acid (b) Benzaldehyde [Pb. CET 2000]
(c) Acetone (d) (a) Diazonium chloride
127. Which of the following does not reduce Tollen’s (b) o-nitro aniline
reagent (c) Benzoic acid
[Kerala PMT 2004] (d) Chlorobenzene
(a) (b) 135.
(c) (d) Z is identified as : [Pb. PMT 2004]
(e) None of these (a)
128. Which one of the following compound is most basic ?
(b)
[UPSEAT 2004]
H H (c)
|
|
N
N
O
(d) 143. The correct order of basicity in amines
136. When acetamide reacts with and caustic soda, (i) (ii)
then we get : (iii) (iv)
[CPMT 2004] [Kerala CET 2005]
(a) Acetic acid (b) Bromoacetic acid (a) (i) < (iv) < (ii) < (iii) (b) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(c) Methyl amine (d) Ethyl amine (c) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (d) (ii) < (iii) < (iv) < (i)
137. In the reaction (e) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
Tests for Nitrogen Containing Compounds

the term Y is: [BHU 2004]
(a) Acetone (b) Ethyl amine 1. When acetamide reacts with and caustic soda, then
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Dimethyl amine we get
138. Reaction of cyclohexanone with dimethylamine in the [DPMT 1983; BHU 1997; Orissa JEE 2002;
presence of catalytic amount of an acid forms a CPMT 1971, 78, 79, 81, 85, 2000, 03;
compounds if water during the reaction is
MP PMT 1989; MP PET 1995, 2002]
continuously removed. The compound formed is
Te
(a) Acetic acid (b) Bromoacetic acid

generally known as [AIEEE 2005]
(c) Methyl amine (d) Ethane
(a) A Schiff’s base (b) An enamine
le
(c) An imine (d) An amine 2. In organic compounds, nitrogen is tested in Lassaigne's

gr
test as
139. product
(a) (b) NaCN
am
In the given reaction what will be the product [BHU (c) (d)
2005]
3. Liebermann's nitroso reaction is used for testing
@
(a) R – N = C = O (b)
(a) Primary amines (b) Secondary amines
C
(c) (d) None of these. (c) Tertiary amines (d) All the above
he
140. Which of the following is secondary pollulant. 4. A nauseating smell in the carbylamine test for primary
[BHU 2005] amines is due to the formation of [MP PET 1993]
m
(a) CO2 (b) N2O (a) Isocyanide (b) Chloroform

is
(c) PAN (d) SO2 (c) Cyanide (d) DDT

try
141. Nitration of aniline also gives m-nitro aniline, in strong 5. A positive carbylamine test is given by [IIT-JEE 1999]
acidic medium because [Kerala CET 2005] (a) N, N-dimethylaniline
_S
(a) In electrophilic substitution reaction amino group (b) 2, 4-dimethylaniline

is meta directive
(c) N-methyl-o-methylaniline
pa
(b) Inspite of substituents nitro group always goes to

(d) p-methylbenzylamine
m- position
6. The colour of p-amino azobenzene is
rk
[BHU 1997]
(c) In strong acidic medium, nitration of aniline is a
nucleophic substitution reaction (a) Orange (b) Congo red
(d) In strong acidic medium aniline present as (c) Bismark brown (d) Indigo
anilinium ion 7. When primary amine is heated with in presence
(e) Strong acid, gives nitrate anion, which attacks at of excess mercuric chloride, it gives isothiocyanate.
m-position This reaction is called [KCET 1998; CPMT 1997]
142. Identify the product in following order
(a) Hofmann bromide reaction
3,4,5-Tribromoaniline [Kerala CET (b) Hofmann mustard oil reaction
2005] (c) Carbylamine reaction
(a) 3, 4,5 –Tribromobenzene (d) Perkin reaction
(b) 1, 2, 3 – Tribromobenzene 8. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some [CPMT 1999]
(c) 2, 4, 6 – Tribromobenzene (a) Dyes (b) Proteins
(d) 3, 4, 5 – Tribromo nitro benzene
(c) Pesticides (d) Vitamins
(e) 3, 4, 5 – Tribromo phenol
9. Carbylamine test is used in the detection of [DCE 1999]
(a) Aliphatic 2o amine
(b) Aromatic 1o amine (c)
(c) Aliphatic 1 amine
o
(d) Both aliphatic and aromatic 1o amines

10. Which of the following substance does not give (d)
iodoform test
[BHU 2003]
4. Indicate which nitrogen compound amongst the
(a) (b) following would undergo Hofmann's reaction (i.e.
reaction with and strong KOH) to furnish the
(c) (d) All
primary amine ( )
11. Which one of the following compounds when heated
[CBSE PMT 1989]
with and a primary amine gives carbylamine
test
(a) (b)
[Orissa JEE 2005]
(a) (b)
Te
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
le
gr
5.
am
[BHU 1995]
NH2 NH2
(a) (b)
@
NH2
C
1. The compound NH2 NO2

he
(c) (d)
m
NH2
NH2
is
forms nitroso amines when the substituents are

try
6. The correct order of basicities of the following

[Roorkee 1999]
compounds is
_S
(a)
(b)
pa
(c)
rk
(d)
2. The action of nitrous acid on ethyl amine gives
[DPMT 1982; CPMT 1971, 89, 94;
(a) (b)
MP PET 1993, 2001; RPMT 1997; Pb. PMT 1999]
(a) Ethane (b) Ammonia (c) (d)
(c) Ethyl acohol (d) Nitroethane 7. Which of the following would be most reactive
towards nitration [AMU 2000; UPSEAT 2002]
3. Aniline when diazotized in cold and then treated with
dimethyl aniline gives a coloured product. Its (a) Benzene (b) Nitro benzene
structure would be [CBSE PMT 2004] (c) Toluene (d) Chloro benzene
8. Aniline reacts with acetaldehyde to form
(a)
[MHCET 2004; AFMC 2004]
(a) Schiff's base (b) Carbylamine

(b)
(c) Immine (d) None of these
9. p-chloroaniline and anilinium hydrochloride can be (d) None of these
distinguished by [IIT-JEE 1998] 16. reacts with in aqueous
(a) Sandmeyer reaction (b) to give a clear solution. On acidification a precipitate is
obtained which is due to the formation of [Roorkee
(c) (d) Carbylamine test
2000]
NO2 X
10. Sn+HCl
(a)
In the above reaction 'X' stands for

[CPMT 1986, 2001; MP PET 1992; (b)
KCET (Engg./Med.) 2000]
(c)
(a) (b)
(d)
(c) Cl (d)
17. If N and S are present in an organic compound during
NH 2 Lassaigne test, then both changes into [CPMT 1997]
11. (a) and
Te
(b) NaSCN
[BHU 2000; Pb. PMT 2000; Kerala 2003]
le
(a) Phenyl isocyanide (b) Benzyl amine (c) and NaCN

gr
(c) Benzyl chloride (d) None of these (d) and NaCNO

12. The order of basic strength among the following 18. The strongest base among the following is
am
amines in benzene solution is [AIIMS 1991; RPMT 2002] [AIIMS 2004; BHU 2004]
(a) (a) (b)

@
N
(b) N
H
C
(c) NH 2
he
(c) (d)
(d)
m
N
13. The refluxing of with acid gives
is
H
[KCET 1996]
try
(a) 19. Nitroso amines are soluble in water. On

_S
heating them with concentrated they give

(b)
secondary amines. The reaction is called [AFMC 1998;
pa
(c) AIIMS 1998; BHU 2002]

(a) Perkin's reaction
(d)
rk
(b) Fittig's reaction

14. Order of basicity of ethyl amines is [MP PMT/PET 1988] (c) Sandmeyer's reaction
(a) Secondary > Primary > Tertiary (d) Liebermann's nitroso reaction
(b) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary 20. A primary amine is formed an amide by the treatment
of bromine and alkali. The primary amine has : [BHU
(c) Secondary > Tertiary > Primary 2004]
(d) Tertiary > Primary > Secondary (a) 1 carbon atom less than amide
15. The following reaction is [KCET 1996] (b) 1 carbon atom more than amide
NO2 NO2 NO2 (c) 1 hydrogen atom less than amide
OH (d) 1 hydrogen atom more than amide
+KOH (solid) +
21. The structural formula of Indigo dye is : [DPMT 2004]
O OH
OH
(a) Nucleophilic substitution OH
(b) Electrophilic substitution
(a)
(c) Free radical substitution
O
(a) Mixture of (K) and (L) (b) Mixture of (K) and (M)
OH
(c) Only (M) (d) Only (K)
NO 2
(b)
NO 2
O H
|| |
C N
(c) C C
option out of the options given below :
N C
| || (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
H the correct explanation of the assertion.
O
Te
(d) N N NH 2 the correct explanation of the assertion.

le

22. Which of the following is the strongest base ? [AIEEE
gr
2004]
am
1. Assertion : Benzene diazonium chloride does not

(a) NH 2
(b) NHCH 3
give tests for nitrogen:
@
CH 3 Reason : gas lose takes place during

heating
C
NH 2 CH 2 NH 2 [AIIMS 1999]
he
(c) (d) 2. Assertion : Amines are basic in nature.

Reason : Presence of lone pair of electron on
m
23. The following compound on hydrolysis in aqueous nitrogen atom. [AIIMS 1999]
is
acetone will give CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 3. Assertion : Methyl isocyanide reacts with ozone to

try
form methyl isocyanate.

CH 3O NO 2 Reason : Methyl isocyanate was responsible for
_S
Bhopal tragedy.
H Cl CH 3 4. Assertion : Alkyl cyanide can be prepared by
pa
carbylamine reaction
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
Reason : Ethyl amine when heated with
rk
chloroform in presence of alcoholic

CH 3O NO 2 KOH, cyanide is formed.
(K:) 5. Assertion : ion is an ambident nucleophile.
H OH CH 3
Reason : Nucleophiles are electron rich species.
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 6. Assertion : Sulphanilic acid exists as dipolar ion
whereas p-aminobenzoic acid does
CH 3O NO 2 not.
Reason : Carboxyl group being more acidic than
(L:) group can easily transfer a
OH H CH 3
to the amino group.
7. Assertion : Nitrating mixture used for carrying our
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 nitration of benzene consists of conc.
conc.
(M:) CH 3O NO 2
H CH 3 OH
Reason : In presence of acts Reason : group in anisidine exerts –R
as a base and produces ions. effect.

18. Assertion : Lower aldehydes and ketones are
8. Assertion : In order to convert R–Cl to pure R–NH2, soluble in water but the solubility
Gabriel pthalimide synthesis can be decreases as the molecular mass
used. increases.
Reason : With proper choice of alkyl halides, Reason : Distinction between aldehydes and
pthalimide synthesis can be used to ketones can be made by Tollen’s test.
prepare 1°, 2° or 3° amines.
[AIIMS 1999]
9. Assertion : Ammonolysis of alkyl halides involves
19. Assertion : Aniline hydrogen sulphate on heating
the reaction between alkyl halides and
forms a mixture of ortho and para
alcoholic ammonia.
aminobenzene sulphonic acids.
Reason : Reaction can be used to prepare only
Reason : The sulphonic acid group is electron
2° amines.
withdrawing. [AIIMS 1996]
10. Assertion : Nitroalkanes, but not nitroarenes can
20. Assertion : is
be distilled at normal atmospheric
pressure. prepared by Friedel Crafts acylation of
Te
nitrobenzene.
Reason : Nitroalkanes are sparingly soluble in
water while nitroarenes are insoluble. Reason : Nitrobenzene easily undergoes
le
electrophilic substitution reaction.

11. Assertion : In Hofmann bromide reaction, the
gr
[AIIMS 2005]
amine formed has one carbon atom
21. Assertion : Alkyl isocyanides in acidified water give
am
less than the parent 1° amide.

alkyl formamides.
Reason : N-methyl acetamide undergoes
Hofmann bromamide reaction. Reason : In isocyanides, carbon first acts as a
@
nuclephile and then as an electrophile.

12. Assertion : Nitrobenzene does not undergo
[AIIMS 2005]
Friedel Craft alkylation.
C
Reason : Nitrobenzene is used as solvent in

he
laboratory and industry.

13. Assertion : Ammonia is less basic than water.
m
Reason : Nitrogen is less electronegative than

is
oxygen.
try
14. Assertion : The reaction between a diazo salt and

an aromatic amine or a phenol, giving
_S
an aminoazo or hydroxyazo Introduction of Nitrogen Containing Compounds

compounds is called coupling reaction.
pa
1 a 2 c 3 a 4 d 5 c
Reason : Condensation of diazonium salt with
phenol is carried out in weakly acidic 6 d 7 c 8 d 9 c 10 a
rk
medium. 11 a 12 b 13 b 14 a 15 b
15. Assertion : Carbylamine reaction involves the
reaction between 1° amine and Preparation of Nitrogen Containing Compounds
chloroform in basic medium.
Reason : In carbylamine reaction, 1 c 2 d 3 b 4 b 5 b
group is converted into –NC group. 6 b 7 c 8 a 9 c 10 a
16. Assertion : reacts with whereas 11 d 12 d 13 b 14 b 15 d
does not. 16 c 17 a 18 b 19 a 20 c
Reason : The electron pair on nitrogen atom in 21 b 22 a 23 a 24 a 25 b

is delocalised in the benzene 26 b 27 c 28 d 29 c 30 a
ring and is not available to boron in 31 a 32 a 33 a 34 d 35 c
36 c 37 b 38 a 39 d 40 b,c
17. Assertion : p-Anisidine is weaker base than aniline. 41 d 42 b 43 c 44 c 45 c
46 b 47 b 48 a 49 c 50 a
51 c 52 a 53 c 54 a 55 b
Properties of Nitrogen Containing Compounds

1 d 2 d 3 b 4 b 5 a
6 c 7 c 8 d 9 b 10 c
11 c 12 b 13 b 14 c 15 c
16 a 17 d 18 a 19 b 20 c
21 a 22 d 23 b 24 c 25 a
26 b 27 b 28 c 29 b 30 b
31 d 32 a 33 c 34 a 35 b
36 c 37 b 38 b 39 d 40 c
41 a 42 c 43 b 44 c 45 d
46 d 47 d 48 b 49 d 50 b
Te
51 d 52 d 53 c 54 c 55 c
56 d 57 d 58 c 59 c 60 c
le
61 b 62 a 63 c 64 a 65 b
gr
66 c 67 e 68 c 69 a 70 c
71 d 72 c 73 a 74 b 75 b
am
76 a 77 a 78 b 79 c 80 b
81 b 82 d 83 a 84 b 85 d
@
86 b 87 b 88 b 89 b 90 b
C
91 c 92 d 93 d 94 c 95 c
96 b 97 c 98 c 99 b 100 c
he
101 d 102 a 103 c 104 b 105 a

m
106 a 107 a 108 d 109 b 110 c

is
111 c 112 a 113 c 114 a 115 d

try
116 c 117 d 118 b 119 a 120 b

121 b 122 d 123 b 124 d 125 d
_S
126 b 127 d 128 b 129 c 130 d

131 a 132 d 133 b 134 a 135 b
pa
136 c 137 c 138 b 139 b 140 c

rk
141 d 142 b 143 a
Tests for Nitrogen Containing Compounds
1 c 2 b 3 b 4 a 5 b
6 a 7 b 8 a 9 d 10 d
11 a
1 c 2 c 3 a 4 c 5 b
6 b 7 b 8 a 9 bc 10 a
11 a 12 b 13 c 14 a 15 a
16 c 17 b 18 c 19 d 20 a
21 c 22 d 23 a
EXERCISE-13
(MCQ OF NITROGEN COMPOUNDS)
Q.1 Compound is a Q.9 Hydrolysis of alkyl isocyanide yields -
(1) Primary amine (2) Tert. amine
(3) Alcohol (4) Aldehyde
Q.10 How many isomeric amines can have the formula
C4H11N -
(1) Five (2) Six
(1) 1º and 3º amine
(3) Seven (4) Eight
(2) Only primary amine
(2) 2º and 3º amine Q.11 C2H5NH2 cannot be prepared by the
(4) Only secondary amine reduction of -
Q.2 The third member of homologous series of (1) C2H5NO2 (2) CH3CH = NOH
dimethyl amine - (3) C2H5NC (4) CH3CN
(1) CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3
Q.12 A mixture of 1º, 2º and 3º amine is formed in the
Te
(2) CH3–NH–CH2–CH2–CH3
(3) CH3–NH–CH(CH3)2 reaction -
(1) 1º Amide + caustic potash + bromine
le
(2) Methyl halide and ammonia

(4) (2) and (3) are correct
gr
(3) Cyclic imide + H3O

Q.3 Tertiary butyl amine is a-
am
(4) Alkyl isocyanide + H2

(1) 1º Amine (2) 2º Amine
(3) 3º Amine (4) Quaternary salt Q.13 The presence of primary amines can be
confirmed by -
@
Q.4 Aliphatic amines are ........... basic than NH3, but (1) Reaction with HNO2
C
aromatic amines are ...... basic than NH3 - (2) Reaction with CHCl3 and alc. KOH
he
(1) More, less (2) Less, more (3) Reaction with Grignard reagent
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these (4) Reaction with acetyl chloride
m
Q.5 Suitable explanation for the order of basic Q.14 Ethylamine can be prepared by the all
is
character (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH is - except -

try
(1) Steric hindrance by bulky methyl group (1) Curtius reaction

(2) Higher volatility of 3ºamine (2) Hofmann reaction
_S
(3) Decreased capacity for H-bond formation (3) Mendius reaction

with H2O (4) Reduction of formaldoxime
pa
(4) Decreased electron- density at N atom Q.15 Ammonolysis of alcohol, i.e. -

Q.6 The basic character of amines can be xCH3OH + yNH3 Products
rk
explained - (1) CH3NH2

(1) In terms of Lewis and Arrhenius concept (2) (CH3)2NH2
(2) In terms of Lowry and Bronsted concept
(3) (CH3)3N
(3) In terms of Lewis and Lowry Bronsted
concept (4) A mixture of amines
(4) Only by Lewis concept Q.16 The compound obtained by the reaction
Q.7 The number of  bonds present in between primary amine and aldehyde is -
CN–CH=CH–CN - (1) An amide (2) Imine
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (3) Nitrite (4) Nitro
(4) 2
Q.17 Which one of the following behaves both as
Q.8 Hinsberg’s reagent is - nucleophile and as an electrophile ?
(1) Diethyl oxalate (1) CH3CN (2) CH3–OH
(2) Benzyl chloride
(3) Benzene sulphonyl chloride (3) H2C=CH–CH3 (4) CH3–NH3
(4) None of these
nu
127
127
Q.18 A primary nitroalkane is treated with nitrous acid, (1) RCONH2 + Br2 + KOH
which of the following will be the main product :
(2) RCH2Cl + KCN
(1) pseudonitrol (2) nitrolic acid
(3) a primary amine (4) a primary alcohol (3) RNH2 + CHCl3 + KOH
Q.19 Acetonitrile has the structure :
(4) None of the above
(1) C2H5NC (2) C2H5CN
(3) CH3NC (4) CH3CN Q.27 A B C + D,
Q.20 Which of the following method is generally not C and D in the sequence are -
employed for the separation of primary, (1) Benzoic acid + aniline
secondary and tertiary amines ? (2) Phthalic acid + ethylamine
(1) fractional distillation (3) Phthalic acid + aniline
(2) Hinsberg's method (4) Benzoic acid + ethylamine
(3) Hofmann's method
(4) Filteration Q.28 CH3CONH2
Te
Q.21 How many primary amines are possible for the

The functional groups of (B) and (C) respectively
le
formula C4H11N ?
are-
gr
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3

(4) 4
am
(1) – –NH2, –NH2 (2) – –NH2, –COOH

Q.22 CH3NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH  X + Y + 3H2O;
@
compounds X and Y are - (3) –CN, –NH– (4) – –OH, – –

(1) CH3CN + 3KCl
C
(2) CH3NC + 3KCl Q.29 On reduction of Schiff’s base we get -

he
(1) Primary amine (2) Secondary amine

(3) CH3CONH2 + 3KCl
m
(3) Anils (4) Anilide

(4) CH3NC + K2CO3
is
Q.30 Alkyl halide reacts with AgCN to form -

try
Q.23 HCONHR (product) + H2O : (1) Alcohol (2) Cyanide

(3) Isocyanide (4) Both (2) and (3)
_S
(product) in the above reaction is -

(1) RCH=NOH (2) R–N=C=O Q.31 Amide on heating with P2O5 gives -
pa
(1) Alkane nitrile (2) Alkyl halide

(3) R–CN (4)
rk
(3) Amine (4) None of these

Q.24 –CONH2 –CH2NH2
Q.32 Grignard reagent reacts with cyanogen chloride to
In above reaction hybridisation state of carbon
form -
changes from .....  ........
(1) Alkane nitrile (2) Alkyl halide
(1) sp  sp2 (2) sp  sp3 (3) Amine (4) None of these
(3) sp2  sp3 (4) sp2  sp
Q.33 The IUPAC name of CH3NC is -
(1) Methyl isocyanide
Q.25 Mendius reaction involves the reduction of -
(2) Methyl isonitrile
(1) Cyanoalkanes (2) Alkyl isocyanides
(3) Methylcarbylamine
(3) Oximes (4) Nitroalkanes
(4) Carbylamino methane
Q.26 A reaction used in descending a homologous
series would be -
128
# ·
128
Q.34 Ethyl iodide on reaction with potassium nitrite (2) CH3CH2NHCH2CH3
gives -
(1) Ethyl nitrite (2) Nitro ethane (3)
(3) Amine (4) Acid
(4)
Q.42 The IUPAC name of the following compound is -

Q.35 Which of the following is optically active amine-
(1) CH3NH2
(1) N, 3-dimethyl-N-propyl-3-propanamine
(2) CH3NHCH3 (2) N-methyl-N-propyl-2-butanamine
(3) s-butylmethyl-n-propylamine
(3) (4) N, 1-dimethyl-N-propyl-propanamine
Q.43 The end product (B) formed in the reaction
(4) CH3CH2Br A B is -
Te
(1) CH3CH2NHCH3 (2) CH3CH2CH2NH2

le
Q.36 Which of the following would undergo Hoffmann (3) CH3CH2NH2 (4) CH3CH2NHCOH
gr
bromide reaction to form primary amine- Q.44 The major product formed in the reaction is -
(1) RCONHCH3 (2) RCOONH4
am
(3) RCONH2 (4) RCONHOH

@
Q.37 Which of the following will give primary amine (1)

C
on hydrolysis -
he
(1) Nitroparaffins (2)

(2) Alkyl cyanide
m
(3) Oxime (3)

is
(4) Alkyl isocyanide

try
(4)
Q.38 The alkanenitriles are isomeric with-
_S
(1) Primary alkanamines Q.45 The end product (B) formed in the reaction
(2) Secondary alkanamines
pa
CH2=CH2 A B
(3) Alkyl isocyanides
(1) CH2=CHCH2NH2
rk
(4) Nitroalkanes
(2) H2N(CH2)4NH2
Q.39 Which of the following is obtained by reducing (3) CH3NH(CH2)2NHCH3
methyl cyanide with Na + C2H5OH - (4) NC(CH2)2CN
(1) Methyl alcohol (2) Acetic acid
Q.46 Among the following compounds which one will
(3) Ethyl amine (4) Methane
produce a Schiff base on reaction with
Q.40 Ethylamine can be prepared by the all except - cyclohexanone ?
(1) Curtius reaction
(2) Hoffmann reaction
(3) Mendius reaction (1) (2)
(4) Reduction of formaldoxime
Q.41 Which of the following compounds possesses a (3) (4)
chiral nitrogen atom ?
Q.47 The possible product formed in the reaction
(1)
Ma
129
129
(3) (4)
Q.54 In carbylamine reaction :

(1) (2) (1) the nucleophile is a RNH2 and electrophile
is : CCl2
(2) the nucleophile is primary amine and
(3) (4) All of these
electrophile is
Q.48 Consider the following sequence of reactions (3) the nucleophile is : CCl2 and the electrophile
A B is primary amine
(4) the attacking reagent is electrophile
The major product (B) is - Q.55 Which one of the following will not react with the
(1) CH3CH2CH=CH2 Grignard reagent (C2H5MgBr) ?
(2) (1) C2H5–NH2 (2)

Te
(3) CH3CH=CHCH3
le
(3) (4) CH3– –NH2

gr
(4)
Q.56 One mole of an amine (A) consumes two moles
am
Q.49 A compound (X) having the molecular formula of methyl bromide to give a quaternary
C3H9N reacts with benzenesulphonyl chloride to ammonium salt. The amine (A) is -
(A) (CH3)3CCH2NH2 (B) (CH3)2NCH2CH3
@
form a solid that is insoluble in alkalies. The

compound (X) is -
C
(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (2) (CH3)2CHNH2 (3) (piperidine) (4) (Pyridine)

he
(3) CH3CH2NHCH3 (4) (CH3)3N
Q.50 Consider the following sequence of reactions

m
Q.57 (A) 1° Amine

X(C3H9N) C3H8O C3H6O2
is
(B) 2° Amine :
try
The compound (X) is - (A) and (B) respectively are -

(1) CH3CH2NHCH3 (2) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (1) RNC, RNC (2) RCN, RCN
_S
(3) (CH3)2CHNH2 (4) (CH3)3N (3) RCN, RNC (4) RNC, RCN
Q.51 The product (A) and (B) of the reaction Q.58 CH3CH2NH2 contains a basic NH 2 group, but
pa
CH3CH2NH2 + CH3MgBr  A + B CH3CONH2 does not, because :

(1) Acetamide is amphoteric in character
rk
are -
(1) CH3CH2CH3 and NH2MgBr (2) In CH3CH2NH2 the electron pair on
(2) CH3CH2NHCH3 and MgBr2 N-atom is delocalised by resonance
(3) CH3CH2N(CH3)2 and MgBr2 (3) In CH3CH2NH2 there is no resonance, while
(4) CH3CH2NHMgBr and CH4 in acetamide the lone pair of electrons on
N-atom is delocalised and therefore less
Q.52 Which nitrogen is protonated readily in guanidine available for protonation
(4) None of these
Q.59 The reaction
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) All of these
Q.53 Which of the following is most basic ? is called -
(1) Cope reaction (2) Ritter reaction
(1) (2)
(3) Schmidt reaction (4) Gabriel's reaction
130
& M 130
Q.60 The major organic product in the reaction is
H2NCOCH2CH2CONH2
(1) H2NCO(CH2)3NH2
(2) BrNH–CO–(CH2)3–CO–NH2
(3) BrNH–CO–(CH2)3–CO–NHBr
(4) H2N(CH2)2NH2
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
na
131
131
EXERCISE-14
(BRAIN TWISTERS OF NITROGEN COMPOUNDS)
Q.1 Identify X in the reaction
(3) (4)
Intermediate X
Q.4 Of the following statements -
(P) C6H5N=CH–C6H5 is a Schiff's base
(Q) A dye is obtained by the reaction of aniline
and C6H5N=NCl
(1) (2) (R) C6H5CH2NH2 on treatment with
[NaNO2 + HCl] gives diazonium salt
(S) p–Toluidine on treatment with [HNO2 + HCl]
gives diazonium salt
(1) Only (P) and (Q) are correct
Te
(2) Only (P) and (R) are correct

(3) Only (R) and (S) are correct
le
(3) (4) (4) (P), (Q) and (S) are correct

gr
Q.5 Choose the false statement -

(1) –NH2 is strongly activating while
am
– NHCOCH3 is activating
(2) –NO2 is strongly deactivating while –CHO is
@
deactivating
Q.2 Z, Z is -
C
(3) –NH– –R and –CH=O are m–directing

he
groups
(1) (2)
m
(4) –CF3 and – –R are m–directing groups

is
Q.6 Which of the following is most basic -

try
_S
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
pa
rk
(3) (4)
Q.3 Identify 'Z' in the reaction given below -
Q.7 (A) (B).
(1) (2) Here end product (B) is -
(1) (2)
132
&
n
132
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
Q.8 + NH2–OH A B. Q.12 CH3–CH2–Cl A;
Here end product (B) is -

B. A and B are -
(1) (2)
(1) CH3–CH2–NO2, CH3–CH2–O–N=O
(2) CH3–CH2–O–N=O, CH3–CH2–NO2
(3) (4) (3) Both are CH3–CH2–NO2

Te
(4) Both are

le
Q.9 A. Here A is -
gr
Q.13 Name the products in the acid- base reaction -

am
(A) CH3CH2NH2 + HI (B) (CH3)3N + HBr

(1) (2)
(1) (A) Trimethyl ammonium iodide
@
(B) Trimethyl ammonium bromide

C
(3) (4) (2) (A) Ethyl ammonium iodide

he
(B) Methyl ammonium bromide

m
(3) (A) Ethyl ammonium iodide

Q.10 Which of the following is least alkaline -
is
(B) Trimethyl ammonium bromide

try
(4) All of these

_S
(1) (2)
Q.14 CH3–CH2– product will be -
pa
rk
(1) CH3–CH2– –OH (2) CH3–CH2– –NO2

(3) (4) All are equally basic
(3) CH3– –CH2–NO2 (4) –CH2–CH2–NO2
Q.15 The product formed in the reaction is -

Q.11
(1) (2)
n 133
133
(1) (2) (4) and NH2CH2CH2Br
Q.19 The product of the reaction is -

(3) (4) ?
(1) (2)
Q.16 An optically active compound (A) decolourises (3) (4) (C6H5)2CHCOCH3

Br2/CCl4 and releases N2 with nitrous acid. The
compound (A) is - Q.20 In the reaction the structure of the product [X] is
(1) (2)
Te
(3) (4)
le
(1)
gr
am
Q. 17 (2)
The end product C is

@
(3)
C
(1) (2)
he
(4)
m
(3) (4)
is
try
Q.21 [A] [B]

_S
[C] + CH3 – NH2

pa
What is the compound [C] ?

rk
The products (B) and (C) are -

(1) (2)
(1) and NH2CH2CH2F
(2) and NH2CH2CH2Br

(3) (4)
(3) and NH2CH2CH2F
134
&
Ma
134
Q.22 A
B C D
What is the end product D ?
(1) (2)
Te
(3) (4)
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
A
135
135
EXERCISE-15 A
Q.1 A B (4) Nitroso benzene
C N-methyl aniline than A is - Q.5 Aniline in a set of reactions yields a end product
[AIPMT-2000] A B C D
(1) (2)
The product D would be - [AIPMT-2005]
(1) C6H5CH2OH (2) C6H5CH2NH2
(3) C6H5NHOH (4) C6H5NHCH2CH3
(3) CH3NH2 (4) Q.6 Nitrobenzene gives N-phenyl hydroxyl amine
by - [AIIMS-2003]
(1) Sn/HCl (2) H2/Pd–C
Q.2 + CH3MgBr product is - (3) Zn/NaOH (4) Zn/NH4Cl
Te
Q.7 Aromatic nitriles (ArCN) are not prepared by

[AIPMT-2002]
le
reaction - [AIIMS-2004]
gr
(1) ArX + KCN (2)

am
(1) (2)
(3) ArCONH2 + P2O5 (4) ArCONH2 + SOCl2
Q.8 Melting points are normally the highest for -
@
[AIIMS-2004]
(1) Tertiary amides (2) Secondary amides
C
(3) (4)
(3) Primary amides (4) Amines
he
m
Q.9 Among the following which one does not act an

Q.3 The final product C, obtained in this reaction
is
intermediate in Hoffmann rearrangement -

would be [AIPMT-2003]
try
[AIIMS-2005]
A B C (1) RNCO (2)
_S
(3) (4) RNC

pa
Q.10 In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a

rk
compound (D) ; [AIPMT-2006]

(1) (2) CH3CH2COOH (A) (B) (C) (D).
What is the structure of (D)
(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (2) CH3CH2CONH2

(3) (4)
(3) CH3CH2NHCH3 (4) CH3CH2NH2
Q.11 Which one of the following on reduction with
LiAlH4 yields a secondary amine [AIPMT-2007]
Q.4 Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly
(1) Methyl isocyanide (2) Acetamide
acidic medium gives [AIPMT-2005]
(1) Aniline (3) Methyl cyanide (4) Nitro ethane
(2) p-Hydroxy aniline Q.12 Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene
(3) N-Phenyl hydroxyl amine by using a mixture of conc. HNO3 and
136
-
T
136
conc. H2SO4. In the mixture, nitric acid acts as Q.15 Which of the following statements about primary
a/an - [AIPMT-2009] amines is 'False' ? [AIPMT-2010]
(1) catalyst (1) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl
amines
(2) reducing agent (2) Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to
(3) acid produce alcohols
(4) base (3) Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to
produce phenols
Q.13 Predict the product : [AIPMT-2009] (4) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than
ammonia
Q.16 What is the product obtained in the following
reaction : [AIPMT-2011]
(1)
(1)
Te
(2)
(2)
le
gr
(3)
am
(3) (4)
@
C
Q.17 Which of the following compounds is most

he
basic ? [AIPMT MAINS-2015]

m
(1) (2)
(4) +
is
try
(3) (4)
_S
Q.14 Aniline in a set of the following reactions yielded Q.18 An organic compound 'A' on treatment with NH 3
a coloured product 'Y'. [AIPMT-04,08,10]
gives 'B', which on heating gives 'C'. 'C' when
pa
treated with Br2 in the presence of KOH produces

rk
ethylamine. Compound 'A' is -

The structure (Y) would be - (1) CH3CH2COOH [AIPMT MAINS-2016]
(2) CH3COOH
(1) (3) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(4)
(2)
(3)
(4)
na
137
137
EXERCISE-15B
Q.1 After nitration of benzene, reaction with (Sn + HCl) (3) (4) Biuret
the end product will be - [RPMT-2000]
(1) C6H5NH2 (2) C6H5NO2 Q.9 CH3CH2–NH2 X CH3CHO. What is
'X' [RPMT-2003]
(3) C6H5OH (4) C6H5–N= –O (1) CH3CH2OH (2) CH3COOH
(3) CH3–CH=NH (4) CH3–CH2–NO2
Q.10 Ethyl amine react with CHCl3 in presence of
Q.2 When aniline heated with benzaldehyde, then
NaOH to gives offensive smell. The compound
product is - [RPMT-2000] obtained is - [RPMT-2003]
(1) Benzene (2) Azoxy benzene (1) C2H5Cl (2) C2H5CN
(3) Schiff base (4) Unsaturated acid (3) C2H5NC (4) CH3–CH=NH
Te
Q.3 Which of following exist as zwitter ion - Q.11 CH3CH2NH2 ?

[RPMT-2002] The product of the above reaction is –
le
(1) Ammonium acetate [RPMT-2003]

gr
(2) Ethyl acetate (1) CH3CH2OH (2) CH3CHO

(3) Glycine (3) CH3–CH3 (4) CH3COCH3
am
Q.12 Hinsberg reagent is used to distinguish between -

(4) Aniline hydro chloride
[RPMT-2004]
Q.4 In the sequence of the following reaction (1) 1ºamine and 2ºamine
@
CH3OH CH3I CH3CN (2) 2ºamine and 3ºamine

C
(3) 1ºamine and 3ºamine

X Y; (4) All the above
he
X and Y respectively are - [MP PMT-2002]

Q.13 Which reaction does not give primary amine
(1) CH3CH2NH2 and CH3CH2OH
m
[RPMT-2004]
(2) CH3CH2NH2 and CH3COOH
is
(1) CH3CONH2
(3) CH3CH2OH and CH3CHO
try
(2) CH3–CN
(4) CH3OCH3 and CH3CHO
(3)
_S
Q.5 Reduction of methyl isocyanide gives -

(4) None of these
[MP PMT-2002]
pa
(1) Ethyl amine (2) Methyl amine Q.14 Gabrial pthalimide reaction is used to prepare -
[RPMT-2005]
(3) Dimethylamine (4) Trimethyl amine
rk
(1) Amine (2) Alcohol

Q.6 Which of the following compound on treatment (3) Aldehyde (4) Acid
with NaNO2 and HCl gives alcohol and N2 gas - Q.15 Biurest test used for - [RPMT-2005]
[RPMT-2003] (1) Urea (2) Amine
(1) Benzene (2) C2H5Cl (3) Nitro (4) None of these
(3) CH3CH2NH2 (4) C2H5NO2
Q.7 What is the 'X' in given reaction Q.16 Product will be -
NH2–CH2–COOH X [RPMT-2003]
[RPMT-2005]
(1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3COOH
(1) Ammonium acetate (2) Ammonia
(3) CH3NO2 (4) NH2CH2CHO
(3) Methyl amine (4) Methyl cyanide
Q.8 On slowly heating urea gives [RPMT-2003] Q.17 Primary amine + CHCl3 + KOH  product,
(1) NH3 + CO2 (2) NH3 + CO here product will be - [AIEEE-2002]
(1) Cyanide (2) Isocyanide
138
>
M138
(3) Amine (4) Alcohol the compound A and B respectively are -
Q.18 Reaction of cyclohexanone with dimethylamine (1) Nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
in the presence of catalytic amount of an acid (2) Nitrobenzene and flurobenzene
forms a compound if water during the reaction is (3) phenol and benzene
continuously removed. The compound formed is (4) benzene diazonium chloride and
generally known as - [AIEEE-2005] flurobenzene
(1) an enamine (2) a Schiff's base
Q.23 The major product of the following reaction is –
(3) an amine (4) an imine
Q.19 In the chemical reaction, [IIT-
C2H5NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH  (A) + (B) + 3H2O, 2011]
the compounds (A) and (B) are respectively -
[AIEEE-2007]
(1) C2H5CN and 3KCl
(2) CH3CH2CONH2 and 3KCl
(3) C2H5NC and K2CO3
Te
(4) C2H5NC and 3KCl

le
Q.20 CH3NH2 + CHCl3 Product, Product is (1)

gr
[IIT-2006]
am
(1) (2)
(3) CH3 –NH–CH3 (4) CH3–CN
(2)
@
Q.21 In the following reaction, [IIT - 2007]

C
he
X
m
(3)
is
the structure of the major product ‘X’ is -

try
(4)
(1)
_S
pa
(2)
rk
Q.24 Amongst the compounds given, the one that

would form a brilliant colored dye on treatment
with NaNO2 in dill. HCl followed by addition to
(3) an alkaline solution of -naphthol is [IIT-2011]
(1)
(4)
(2)
Q.22 In the chemical reaction [IIT-2010]
nar
139
139
(3)
(4) Q.27 Benzene diazonium chloride on treatment with

Q.25 In the chemical reactions
ethanol gives - [RPMT-2011]
the compounds (1) Chlorobenzene (2) benzene
(3) phenol (4) aniline

A and B respectively are -
[AIEEE-2011]
(1) Benzene diazonium chloride and
benzonitrile
Te
(2) Nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene

(3) Phenol and bromobenzene
le
(4) Fluorobenzene and phenol

gr
am
Q.26 Biuret test is characteristic of compounds
containing the functional group - [RPMT-2011]

@
(1) > C = O (2) – NH2

C
(3) –CONH– (4) –C N

he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
140
=>
A140
EXERCISE # 16
(ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS)
These questions of two statements each, Q.5 Assertion : Aniline is a weaker base than benzyl
printed as Assertion and Reason. While amine.
answering these Questions you are required to Reason : In aniline, mesomeric interaction occurs
choose any one of the following four responses. between benzene ring and amino group.
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are true & the (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Reason is a correct explanation of the Q.6 Assertion : The following compound are given
Assertion. below -
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Te
Reason is not a correct explanation of the

le
Assertion. all three compounds are soluble in NaOH.

gr
(C) If Assertion is true and Reason is false. Reason : All above compound have lower boiling
(D) If Assertion & Reason both are false. point then CH3NO2.
am
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.1 Assertion : Pyrrole is more basic than pyridine.
@
Reason : In pyrrole, nitrogen is sp3– hybridized. Q.7 Assertion : Nitroalkanes and alkylnitrites are
C
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D functional isomers of each other.

he
Reason : Both alkylnitrites and nitroalkanes give

Q.2 Assertion : Ethyl isopropyl amine is more basic same hydrolytic products.
m
than dimethyl amine. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

is
Reason : More +I effect in case of dimethyl

try
amine. Q.8 Assertion : Acetonitrile is another name of

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D ethane nitrile.
_S
Reason : -H atom of acetonitrile exhibit acidic

pa
Q.3 Assertion : Boiling point of trimethyl amine is character.

higher than that of n-propyl amine. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
rk
Reason : H-bonding is more extensive in tertiary

amines. Q.9 Assertion : Pyrrole is a weaker base than its
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D hydrogenated product pyrrolidine.
Reason : Lone pair of electrons on nitrogen are
delocalized in pyrrole.
Q.4 Assertion :
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.10 Assertion : Benzonitrile is prepared by the

reaction of chlorobenzene with potassium
Reason : Both have same functional group. cyanide.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Reason : Cyanide ion is a strong nucleophile.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Ma
141
141
Q.11 Assertion : exists as a zwitter ion
whereas does not.

Reason : –COOH group being more acidic than
–SO3H group so it can easily transfer a H + to the
amino group.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.16 Assertion : In strongly acidic solutions, aniline
Q.12 Assertion : Oxidation of the nitro naphthalene becomes more reactive towards electrophilic
gives phthalic acid. reagent
Reason : An amino group attached to the benzene Reason : The amino group being completely
ring makes it resistant to oxidation whereas nitro protonated in strongly acidic solution, the lone
group makes the benzene ring susceptible to pair of electrons on the nitrogen is no longer
oxidation. available for resonance.
Te
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

le
Q.13 Assertion : Ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not a Q.17 Assertion : Aniline on reaction with NaNO 2/HCl
gr
suitable method for the preparation of pure at 0ºC followed by coupling with -naphthol
am
primary amines. gives a dark blue coloured precipitate. [IIT-2008]

Reason : Ammonolysis of alkyl halides yields Reason : The colour of the compound formed in
mainly secondary amines. the reaction of aniline with NaNO2/HCl at 0ºC
@
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D followed by coupling with -naphthnol is due to

C
the extended conjugation.

he
Q.14 Assertion : Carbylamine reaction involves (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

chemical reaction between 1º amine and
m
chloroform in basic medium.

is
Reason : In carbylamine reaction, –NH2 group

try
changes into –NC group.

_S
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

pa
Q.15 Assertion : The main product of reaction of

alcoholic silver nitrite and ethyl bromide is
rk
nitroethane.
Reason : Silver nitrite is predominantly covalent
compound.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
142
=>
na
142
EXERCISE-11A
Answer Key
EXERCISE-11B
Te
EXERCISE-12
le
gr
am
@
EXERCISE-13
C
he
m
is
try
EXERCISE-14
_S
pa
rk
EXERCISE-15A
EXERCISE-15B
EXERCISE-16
Hard
227
1. Melting points are normally the highest for [AIIMS (d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2004]
7. Nitrolim is [BVP 2004]
(a) Tertiary amides (b) Secondary amides
(a) (b)
(c) Primary amides (d) Amines
(c) (d)
2. Amines behave as [Karnataka (Med.) 1999]
8. Phenyl isocyanides are prepared from which of the
(a) Lewis acids
following reactions [CBSE PMT 1999]
(b) Lewis bases
Te
(a) Rosenmund's reaction

(c) Aprotic acids
(b) Carbylamine reaction
le
(d) Amphoteric compounds

gr
(c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

3. Which of the following compound gives dye test
(d) Wurtz reaction
am
[MP PET/PMT 1998]

9. On strong heating, ammonium acetate gives [MNR
(a) Aniline 1995]
@
(b) Methylamine (a) Acetamide

C
(c) Diphenylamine (b) Methyl cyanide

he
(d) Ethylamine (c) Urea

m
4. In hydrolysis of aniline, the reagent used is [AFMC 1995] (d) Formamide

is
(a) Dil. HCl (b) Acetyl chloride 10. Aniline is separated from a mixture by [UPSEAT 2000,
try
(c) (d) None of these 01]

_S
(a) Fractional crystallization

5. A nitrogen containing organic compound on heating
with chloroform and alcoholic KOH, evolved very (b) Fractional distillation
pa
unpleasant smelling vapour. The compound could be (c) Vacuum distillation

rk
[BHU 2002; BVP 2003] (d) Steam distillation

(a) N, N-dimethyl amine 11. Molecular formula of chloropicrin is [MH CET 2003]
(b) Nitrobenzene
(a) (b)
(c) Aniline
(c) (d)
(d) Benzamide
6. The reaction between a primary amine, chloroform 12. In amines, the hybridisation state of N is [CPMT 1999]
and few drops of alcoholic KOH is known as (a) (b)

[MNR 1987; MP PMT 1994; Bihar MEE 1996;
(c) (d)
AIIMS 1998; MP PET 2002]
13. Foul smelling compound formed, during carbyl amine
(a) Cannizzaro reaction
reaction is : [Pb. CET 2001]
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(a) Alcohol
(c) Wurtz's reaction
(b) Aldehyde (a) Ethyl amine
(c) Alkyl isocyanide (b) Diethyl amine
(d) Carboxylic acid (c) Propane nitrite
14. The end product of the reaction (d) Triethyl amine
[Kerala PMT 2004] (e) Methyl amine
is
(SET -29)
1. (c) The higher boiling points of amide is because of 8. (b)

Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
.
Te
Carbyl amine reaction.

le
gr
am
Due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding they ***

have high boiling point than amine and amongst
@
amide the order of Boiling point are

Primary > Sec > Tertiary
C
This is because of alkyl group by which the

he
carbonyl oxygen do not form the hydrogen bond

m
(other molecule) so primary amide have high

boiling point and Tertiary amides does not have to
is
form bond with O of other amide and have least

try
B.P
2. (b) In amines nitrogen has a love pair of . It can
_S
donate a election pair. So amines behaves as a

lewis base.
pa
3. (a) Basically all the Azo dye are derivatives of aniline.

9. (b)
rk
4. (a) All amines react with mineral acids such as ,

etc. to form salts which are
10. (d) Steam distellation is used for separation of aniline
soluble in water.
from mixture. Aniline is insoluble in water but it is
5. (c) steam soluble.
11. (d) Molecular formula of chloropicrin is
6. (b) 12. (c) It is similar that of except H- is replaced by –R

group.
.
7. (b) Nitrolim is a mixturee of calcium cyanamide and
carbon.
13. (c) On heating with ethanolic KOH and
NH2 NC
primary amine, isocyanide is formed and is readily
detected by its offensive odour. This is called as
carbyl amine test.
+ 3 KOH +
Chlorofor Potassium Primary

m hydroxide amine
RNC + 3 KCl +
Alkyl Potassiu Water
Isocyanide m
chloride
(Foul
smell)
14. (c)
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk

NEET JEE Chemistry Practice Question Bank Part 1 (5000+ Questions)

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NEET / IIT-JEE

Sudhir Nama is an Accomplished Author With A Background Of Chemistry. Holding A

Subject. He Is An Experienced Chemistry Teacher With Over 10 Years Of Dedicated

Teaching Experience. His Teaching Methods Focus On Creating A Supportive And

Explore Their Curiosity.

Organic Reaction And Mechanism (Organic Chemistry For 12th Board,

Book Availability : On Amazon, Flipkart, Google Book (Read For Free)

2. Classification & Nomenclature, Stereochemistry

4. Halo-Alkanes And Halo-Arenes

5. Oxygen Containing Compounds

(Alcohol, Phenol, Ether, Carboxylic Acid, Aldehyde & Ketone)

6. Nitrogen Containing Compounds

General Organic Chemistry

 Wohler synthesised the first organic compound urea

 The nitration and sulphonation of alkanes involve

2. In carbon tetrachloride, four valence of carbon are

[CPMT 1973, 77]

benzoyl peroxide (C6H5COO)2. 3. In alkene (ethene) number of hybrid carbon

 The polymerisation of alkenes is free radical addition atoms are

4. Each carbon atom in benzene is in the state of

of hyperconjugation or conjugation. KCET (Med.) 1999; DCE 2001]

 Propene is more reactive than ethene towards (a) (b)

more stable 2° carbocation. 5. Which of the following hybridisation has highest

10. Which of the following has a bond formed by overlap (ii)

of hybrid orbitals [MNR 1993; UPSEAT 2001, 02] (iii)

(a) (iv) [CBSE PMT 1995]

(b) (a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv)

(c) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii)

(2) in compound involves the

(a) and (b) and

(c) and (d) and (iii) (iv)

12. Number of bonds in

(a) 2 (b) 3 Which of these systems have essentially planar

(a) sp and hybridised C-atoms

25. The number of bonds in 3-hexyne-1-ene is

[MP PMT 1999]

(a) Primary bond

(b) Secondary bond

(c) Tertiary bond

(d) All of these

(c) (d) (a) (b)

[Roorkee 1999] (a) (b)

(a) sp hybridized (c) (d)

(c) Chloromethane (d) Iodoform (a) (b)

(a) (b) (a) 10, 3 (b) 3, 10

(c) (d) (c) 4, 9 (d) 9, 4

44. Conjugated double bond is present in

[RPMT 1999; JIPMER 2001]

(a) (b) hybridization

46. The bond angle in is [MP PET 2002]

(a) (b) 57. Hybridization of 1 and 2 carbon atoms in

58. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in [UPSEAT 2003]

(a) (b) (a) Identical arrangement of atoms

(a) 6 (b) 15 (a) Aromatic sextet theory (b) Resonance theory

(c) and (d) and

(c) 1-butene (d) Neo-pentane O

67. The enolic form of acetone contains [Pb. PMT 2002]

10. Which one of the following orders is correct regarding

(d) 10 -bonds, 1 -bonds and 1 lone pairs

Dipole moment, resonance and reaction (c) (d)

intermediates 11. Benzene is unreactive because [KCET 1998]

(a) It has double bonds

(c) 1-butene (d) 2-methyl-1-propene

(a) 1, 4-dichloro benzene this statement [UPSEAT 1999]