1. What does AWS stand for?

A) Advanced Web Services

B) Amazon Web Solutions

C) Amazon Web Services

D) Advanced Web Solutions

- Correct Answer: C) Amazon Web Services

2. Which of the following is a core component of AWS?

A) Azure

B) EC2

C) Google Cloud Platform

D) Alibaba Cloud

- Correct Answer: B) EC2

3. Which AWS service is used for scalable storage in the cloud?

A) S3

B) EC2

C) EKS

D) Lambda

- Correct Answer: A) S3

4. Which AWS service provides a fully managed relational database service?

A) S3

B) EC2

C) RDS

D) Lambda

- Correct Answer: C) RDS

5. What does EC2 stand for?

A) Elastic Compute Cloud

B) Elastic Container Cloud

 C) Elastic Cache Cloud

D) Elastic Cloud Compute

- Correct Answer: A) Elastic Compute Cloud

6. What does S3 stand for?

A) Simple Storage Service

B) Secure Storage Service

C) Scalable Storage Service

D) Shared Storage Service

- Correct Answer: A) Simple Storage Service

7. Which AWS service allows you to automatically scale your application in response to demand?

A) S3

B) EC2

C) Auto Scaling

D) RDS

- Correct Answer: C) Auto Scaling

8. Which AWS service provides a way to distribute traffic across multiple EC2 instances?

A) S3

B) EC2

C) ELB (Elastic Load Balancing)

D) Lambda

- Correct Answer: C) ELB (Elastic Load Balancing)

9. What does "AZ" stand for in AWS terminology?

A) Amazon Zones

B) Availability Zones

C) Access Zones

D) All Zones

- Correct Answer: B) Availability Zones

10. How many Availability Zones typically exist within a single AWS region?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) It varies

- Correct Answer: D) It varies

11. Which of the following is NOT a factor typically considered when selecting an AWS region?

A) Latency

B) Cost

C) Compliance requirements

D) Internet service provider (ISP) availability

- Correct Answer: D) Internet service provider (ISP) availability

12. How can you view the list of available AWS regions?

A) By logging in to the AWS Management Console

B) By running a command in the AWS Command Line Interface (CLI)

C) By checking the AWS website

D) All of the above

- Correct Answer: D) All of the above

13. Which of the following is NOT a type of EC2 instance?

A) General Purpose

B) Compute Optimized

C) Memory Optimized

D) Data Optimized

- Correct Answer: D) Data Optimized

14. What type of workload is best suited for Compute Optimized EC2 instances?

A) Memory-intensive tasks
 B) CPU-intensive tasks

C) I/O intensive tasks

D) Storage-intensive tasks

- Correct Answer: B) CPU-intensive tasks

15. Which EC2 instance type is designed for applications requiring a balance of compute, memory,
and network resources?

A) Memory Optimized

B) General Purpose

C) Compute Optimized

D) Accelerated Computing

- Correct Answer: B) General Purpose

16. What type of workload would benefit most from Memory Optimized EC2 instances?

A) CPU-intensive tasks

B) I/O intensive tasks

C) Memory-intensive tasks

D) Network-intensive tasks

- Correct Answer: C) Memory-intensive tasks

17. What distinguishes the Storage Optimized EC2 instance type?

A) High CPU to memory ratio

B) Large amounts of local storage

C) GPU acceleration for graphics-intensive tasks

D) Burstable performance capabilities

- Correct Answer: B) Large amounts of local storage

18. What does IAM stand for in AWS?

A) Integrated Access Management

B) Internet Authorization Model

C) Identity and Authorization Management

 D) Identity and Access Management

- Correct Answer: D) Identity and Access Management

19. What is the primary purpose of IAM in AWS?

A) To manage internet access to AWS services

B) To monitor user activity within AWS accounts

C) To control access to AWS services and resources

D) To provide secure email communication within AWS

- Correct Answer: C) To control access to AWS services and resources

20. Which of the following is NOT a component of IAM?

A) Policies

B) Users

C) Groups

D) Regions

- Correct Answer: D) Regions

21. What is an IAM policy?

A) A set of rules that define the permissions granted to users, groups, or roles

B) A virtual private network (VPN) configuration for accessing AWS services securely

C) A billing plan for AWS services usage

D) A backup and restore policy for data stored in AWS S3

- Correct Answer: A) A set of rules that define the permissions granted to users, groups, or roles

22. Which of the following is NOT a recommended best practice for IAM?

A) Use the root user for everyday tasks to simplify management.

B) Enable multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all IAM users.

C) Assign permissions based on least privilege.

D) Regularly review and rotate access keys.

- Correct Answer: A) Use the root user for everyday tasks to simplify management.
23. What is an IAM role?

A) A user account used for managing AWS resources

B) A temporary set of permissions assigned to an IAM user

C) An identity with its own set of security credentials that can be assumed by AWS services

D) A group of IAM users with similar job roles or responsibilities

- Correct Answer: C) An identity with its own set of security credentials that can be assumed by
AWS services

24. What is the AWS account root user?

A) The first IAM user created within an AWS account

B) The top-level administrator of an AWS account with complete access to all resources

C) An IAM role assigned to the primary AWS account holder

D) An IAM policy applied by default to all users within an AWS account

- Correct Answer: B) The top-level administrator of an AWS account with complete access to all
resources

25. What is EC2 user data?

A) Data generated by the EC2 instance during its operation

B) Data stored on the EC2 instance's local storage

C) Initial configuration scripts or commands provided during instance launch

D) User authentication information for accessing the EC2 instance

- Correct Answer: C) Initial configuration scripts or commands provided during instance launch

26. How is user data typically provided to an EC2 instance?

A) Through the AWS Management Console only

B) Through the AWS CLI (Command Line Interface) only

C) Through the EC2 instance metadata

D) Through the EC2 instance launch configuration

- Correct Answer: D) Through the EC2 instance launch configuration

27. What is the purpose of providing user data to an EC2 instance?

A) To encrypt data stored on the instance

 B) To enable remote access to the instance

C) To configure the instance during its launch

D) To schedule automated backups of the instance

- Correct Answer: C) To configure the instance during its launch

28. Which of the following can be achieved using user data scripts?

A) Installing software packages

B) Configuring network settings

C) Customizing user accounts

D) All of the above

- Correct Answer: D) All of the above

29. Can user data scripts be modified after an EC2 instance is launched?

A) Yes, through the AWS Management Console

B) No, user data scripts are immutable once the instance is launched

C) Yes, through the EC2 instance metadata

D) No, user data scripts can only be modified during instance launch

- Correct Answer: D) No, user data scripts can only be modified during instance launch

30. In which format are user data scripts typically provided?

A) JSON

B) YAML

C) Bash script

D) XML

- Correct Answer: C) Bash script

31. Can user data scripts be used to change the instance type or other fundamental characteristics of
the instance after launch?

A) Yes, through the AWS Management Console

B) No, user data scripts are only executed during instance launch

C) Yes, through the EC2 instance metadata

 D) No, user data scripts can only be used for initial configuration

- Correct Answer: B) No, user data scripts are only executed during instance launch

32. Which AWS service allows you to retrieve the user data of a running EC2 instance?

A) Amazon EKS

B) Amazon EC2

C) Amazon CloudWatch

D) Amazon Inspector

- Correct Answer: B) Amazon EC2

33. What is a Security Group (SG) in AWS?

A) A firewall that controls traffic at the instance level

B) A service for managing user authentication

C) A tool for monitoring resource utilization

D) A database management system

- Correct Answer: A) A firewall that controls traffic at the instance level

34. How are Security Groups applied in AWS?

A) To individual EC2 instances

B) To entire AWS accounts

C) To S3 buckets

D) To CloudFront distributions

- Correct Answer: A) To individual EC2 instances

35. How many Security Groups can you assign to an EC2 instance?

A) One

B) Two

C) Three

D) Unlimited

- Correct Answer: D) Unlimited

36. What is the default behavior of a new Security Group in AWS?

A) Allow all inbound and outbound traffic

B) Deny all inbound and outbound traffic

C) Allow all outbound traffic and deny all inbound traffic

D) Allow all inbound traffic and deny all outbound traffic

- Correct Answer: B) Deny all inbound and outbound traffic

37. What happens if a packet does not match any of the rules in a Security Group?

A) It is allowed by default

B) It is denied by default

C) It is logged for analysis

D) It is redirected to the root account

- Correct Answer: B) It is denied by default

38. Can you change the rules of a Security Group while an EC2 instance is running?

A) Yes, but only if the instance is stopped first

B) No, Security Group rules can only be modified when an instance is launched

C) Yes, you can modify Security Group rules at any time

D) No, Security Group rules are immutable

- Correct Answer: C) Yes, you can modify Security Group rules at any time

39. Which of the following protocols can be specified in Security Group rules?

A) HTTP

B) SSH

C) FTP

D) All of the above

- Correct Answer: D) All of the above

40. In which state does an EC2 instance initially reside after it is launched?

A) Running

B) Stopped
 C) Terminated

D) Pending

- Correct Answer: D) Pending

41. What does it mean when an EC2 instance is in the "Running" state?

A) The instance is stopped and not running any tasks.

B) The instance is fully operational and running tasks as expected.

C) The instance is in the process of being terminated.

D) The instance is in a transitional state and cannot perform tasks.

- Correct Answer: B) The instance is fully operational and running tasks as expected.

42. In which state can an EC2 instance incur charges for usage?

A) Stopped

B) Running

C) Pending

D) Terminated

- Correct Answer: B) Running

43. Can you start a terminated EC2 instance?

A) Yes, but only if it was terminated less than 24 hours ago.

B) No, terminated instances cannot be restarted.

C) Yes, you can restore a terminated instance from a snapshot.

D) Yes, terminated instances can be recovered from the AWS recycle bin.

- Correct Answer: B) No, terminated instances cannot be restarted.

44. What is the significance of the "Pending" state for an EC2 instance?

A) The instance is in the process of being launched.

B) The instance is awaiting manual approval before it can start.

C) The instance is pending payment verification.

D) The instance is experiencing network connectivity issues.

- Correct Answer: A) The instance is in the process of being launched.

45. Which state indicates that an EC2 instance is in the process of being stopped?

A) Stopped

B) Stopping

C) Pending

D) Shutting down

- Correct Answer: B) Stopping

46. What is Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)?

A) A distributed file storage service

B) A scalable object storage service

C) A block-level storage service for EC2 instances

D) A data warehousing service

- Correct Answer: C) A block-level storage service for EC2 instances

47. Which of the following types of storage does Amazon EBS provide?

A) Object storage

B) Block storage

C) File storage

D) Archive storage

- Correct Answer: B) Block storage

48. What is the primary benefit of using Amazon EBS with EC2 instances?

A) It provides unlimited storage capacity.

B) It improves network performance.

C) It offers durable and reliable block-level storage.

D) It reduces data transfer costs.

- Correct Answer: C) It offers durable and reliable block-level storage.

49. What does AMI stand for in AWS?

A) Amazon Machine Instance

B) Amazon Machine Image

 C) Amazon Managed Instance

D) Amazon Memory Image

- Correct Answer: B) Amazon Machine Image

50. What is an Amazon Machine Image (AMI) in AWS?

A) A virtual machine instance running on AWS infrastructure

B) An image of an EC2 instance used to create new instances

C) A snapshot of an S3 bucket containing application data

D) An encrypted database stored in RDS

- Correct Answer: B) An image of an EC2 instance used to create new instances

51. How are AMIs typically created?

A) By exporting existing EC2 instances to S3

B) By taking snapshots of running EC2 instances

C) By manually copying files from one instance to another

D) By downloading templates from the AWS Marketplace

- Correct Answer: B) By taking snapshots of running EC2 instances

52. Which AWS service is used to launch instances from AMIs?

A) Amazon S3

B) Amazon EC2

C) Amazon RDS

D) Amazon EBS

- Correct Answer: B) Amazon EC2

53. What is the difference between a public AMI and a private AMI?

A) Public AMIs are free to use, while private AMIs incur charges.

B) Public AMIs are accessible to all AWS accounts, while private AMIs are restricted to specific
accounts.

C) Public AMIs are stored in Amazon S3, while private AMIs are stored in Amazon EBS.

D) Public AMIs are pre-configured with additional security features, while private AMIs are not.
 - Correct Answer: B) Public AMIs are accessible to all AWS accounts, while private AMIs are
restricted to specific accounts.

54. What is scalability in the context of AWS?

A) The ability to increase the physical size of AWS data centers

B) The ability to handle increasing workloads or demands by adding resources

C) The ability to reduce costs by optimizing resource usage

D) The ability to secure AWS services against cyber threats

- Correct Answer: B) The ability to handle increasing workloads or demands by adding resources

55. Which AWS service provides automatic scaling based on application demand?

A) Amazon S3

B) Amazon EC2

C) AWS Lambda

D) Amazon Auto Scaling

- Correct Answer: D) Amazon Auto Scaling

56. What is horizontal scaling in AWS?

A) Adding more processing power to existing instances

B) Increasing the size of storage volumes attached to instances

C) Increasing the number of instances in a fleet to distribute the workload

D) Increasing network bandwidth for improved data transfer speeds

- Correct Answer: C) Increasing the number of instances in a fleet to distribute the workload

57. Which AWS service allows you to automatically scale the number of EC2 instances based on
demand?

A) Amazon S3

B) Amazon RDS

C) AWS Lambda

D) Auto Scaling

- Correct Answer: D) Auto Scaling

58. What is the benefit of using AWS Auto Scaling?

A) It reduces the overall cost of AWS services.

B) It provides higher security for AWS resources.

C) It eliminates the need for monitoring AWS environments.

D) It ensures that the application can handle varying levels of traffic without manual intervention.

- Correct Answer: D) It ensures that the application can handle varying levels of traffic without
manual intervention.

59. What is vertical scaling in AWS?

A) Increasing the number of instances in a fleet

B) Adding additional layers of security to AWS resources

C) Increasing the size of existing instances by adding more resources (CPU, RAM)

D) Increasing the geographical distribution of AWS data centers

- Correct Answer: C) Increasing the size of existing instances by adding more resources (CPU, RAM)

60. Which AWS service allows you to create and manage virtual networks for your AWS resources?

A) Amazon VPC

B) Amazon ECS

C) Amazon EBS

D) Amazon RDS

- Correct Answer: A) Amazon VPC

61. What does "high availability" refer to in the context of AWS?

A) The ability of AWS services to handle large amounts of data

B) The capability of AWS to provide services without interruption

C) The speed at which AWS services can process user requests

D) The level of security provided by AWS services

- Correct Answer: B) The capability of AWS to provide services without interruption

62. How does AWS achieve high availability for its services?

A) By utilizing multiple Availability Zones (AZs) within each region

 B) By restricting access to services during peak usage periods

C) By limiting the number of concurrent users accessing services

D) By reducing the number of regions where services are deployed

- Correct Answer: A) By utilizing multiple Availability Zones (AZs) within each region

63. What is an AWS Availability Zone (AZ)?

A) A physical location within an AWS region with independent power, cooling, and networking

B) A virtual network segment within an AWS account

C) An isolated environment where AWS services are deployed

D) A geographic region where AWS data centers are located

- Correct Answer: A) A physical location within an AWS region with independent power, cooling,
and networking

64. Which AWS service provides automated load balancing across multiple EC2 instances to ensure
high availability?

A) Amazon S3

B) Amazon EC2

C) Amazon RDS

D) Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)

- Correct Answer: D) Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)

65. How does AWS Auto Scaling contribute to high availability?

A) By automatically provisioning additional resources during peak traffic periods

B) By reducing the number of resources to conserve costs during low traffic periods

C) By limiting the number of users accessing AWS services

D) By providing real-time monitoring of AWS infrastructure

- Correct Answer: A) By automatically provisioning additional resources during peak traffic periods

66. Which AWS service provides automated failover for databases to achieve high availability?

A) Amazon S3

B) Amazon EC2

C) Amazon RDS
 D) AWS Lambda

- Correct Answer: C) Amazon RDS

67. What is Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) in AWS?

A) A service for distributing incoming application or network traffic across multiple targets, such as
EC2 instances, containers, and IP addresses.

B) A service for managing DNS records and routing traffic to different AWS resources.

C) A service for storing and retrieving data objects in the cloud.

D) A service for monitoring and logging network traffic within AWS environments.

- Correct Answer: A) A service for distributing incoming application or network traffic across
multiple targets, such as EC2 instances, containers, and IP addresses.

68. Which types of load balancers are available in Elastic Load Balancing?

A) Application Load Balancer (ALB), Network Load Balancer (NLB), and Classic Load Balancer (CLB).

B) HTTP Load Balancer (HLB), TCP Load Balancer (TLB), and HTTPS Load Balancer (HSLB).

C) Web Load Balancer (WLB), Database Load Balancer (DLB), and Storage Load Balancer (SLB).

D) Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) and Advanced Load Balancer (ALB).

- Correct Answer: A) Application Load Balancer (ALB), Network Load Balancer (NLB), and Classic
Load Balancer (CLB).

69. What is the primary function of a load balancer?

A) To ensure data durability and high availability.

B) To optimize network latency and reduce packet loss.

C) To evenly distribute incoming traffic across multiple targets to prevent overloading any single
resource.

D) To encrypt network traffic between clients and servers.

- Correct Answer: C) To evenly distribute incoming traffic across multiple targets to prevent
overloading any single resource.

70. Which load balancer operates at the connection level and is capable of handling millions of
requests per second with ultra-low latency?

A) Application Load Balancer (ALB)

B) Network Load Balancer (NLB)

 C) Classic Load Balancer (CLB)

D) Advanced Load Balancer (ALB)

- Correct Answer: B) Network Load Balancer (NLB)

71. What is a target group in Elastic Load Balancing?

A) A group of load balancers that work together to distribute traffic.

B) A set of rules that define how traffic is routed to different backend servers.

C) A logical grouping of EC2 instances or IP addresses that the load balancer forwards traffic to.

D) A list of clients authorized to access the load balancer's endpoints.

- Correct Answer: C) A logical grouping of EC2 instances or IP addresses that the load balancer
forwards traffic to.

72. Which AWS service integrates seamlessly with Elastic Load Balancing to provide automatic scaling
of EC2 instances based on traffic load?

A) Amazon S3

B) Amazon RDS

C) Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

D) Amazon CloudWatch

- Correct Answer: C) Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

73.What is Auto Scaling in AWS?

A) A service for automatically managing DNS records.

B) A service for automatically distributing incoming traffic across multiple targets.

C) A service for automatically adjusting the number of EC2 instances based on demand.

D) A service for automatically configuring security groups for EC2 instances.

Correct Answer: C) A service for automatically adjusting the number of EC2 instances based on
demand.

74.Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Auto Scaling?

A) Improved fault tolerance and availability

B) Reduced cost by optimizing resource utilization

C) Simplified management of EC2 instances

D) Enhanced security through automated threat detection

Correct Answer: D) Enhanced security through automated threat detection

75.Can Auto Scaling automatically scale down the number of EC2 instances based on reduced
demand?

A) Yes, it can automatically scale both up and down.

B) No, Auto Scaling only scales up to meet increased demand.

C) Yes, but only if specifically configured to do so.

D) No, Auto Scaling requires manual intervention for scaling down.

Correct Answer: A) Yes, it can automatically scale both up and down.

76.Which Auto Scaling feature ensures that the number of running instances is evenly distributed
across Availability Zones?

A) Health Check

B) Load Balancer

C) Auto Scaling Group

D) Placement Group

Correct Answer: C) Auto Scaling Group

77.Can you manually adjust the minimum and maximum number of instances in an Auto Scaling
group?

A) No, Auto Scaling groups are automatically adjusted based on demand.

B) Yes, but only through the AWS CLI.

C) Yes, through the Auto Scaling console or API.

D) No, minimum and maximum values are fixed once the group is created.

Correct Answer: C) Yes, through the Auto Scaling console or API.

78.What is Amazon Route 53?

A) A content delivery network (CDN) service.

B) A domain registration service.

C) A scalable domain name system (DNS) web service.

D) A load balancing service.

Correct Answer: C) A scalable domain name system (DNS) web service.

79.What does Amazon S3 stand for?

A) Simple Storage Service

B) Secure Storage Service

C) Structured Storage Service

D) Scalable Storage Service

Correct Answer: A) Simple Storage Service

80.What is Amazon S3 primarily used for?

A) Virtual machine deployment

B) Database management

C) Object storage

D) Content delivery

Correct Answer: C) Object storage

1. What is an AWS region?

A) A set of data centers located in different countries
B) A geographical area consisting of one or more availability zones
C) A specific location where AWS services are hosted
D) A virtual network segment within the AWS global infrastructure
- Correct Answer: B) A geographical area consisting of one or more availability zones

2. Which AWS service is NOT region-specific?

A) Amazon S3
B) Amazon EC2
C) Amazon RDS
D) Amazon Route 53
- Correct Answer: D) Amazon Route 53

3. What is the purpose of AWS regions?

A) To provide redundancy and high availability for AWS services
B) To segment network traffic based on geographical location
C) To isolate AWS resources for compliance purposes
D) To optimize performance for users in different geographic areas
 - Correct Answer: D) To optimize performance for users in different geographic areas

4. What is the relationship between AWS regions and availability zones (AZs)?
A) Each region consists of multiple AZs
B) Each AZ consists of multiple regions
C) AZs and regions are the same thing
D) There is no relationship between AZs and regions
- Correct Answer: A) Each region consists of multiple AZs

5. Which AWS service is used to distribute traffic across multiple regions for improved
performance and availability?
A) Amazon CloudFront
B) Amazon Route 53
C) Amazon ELB (Elastic Load Balancer)
D) Amazon EC2
- Correct Answer: B) Amazon Route 53

6. What is Amazon RDS primarily used for?

A) Object storage
B) Data analytics
C) Relational database management
D) Content delivery
- Correct Answer: C) Relational database management

7. Which of the following database engines is NOT supported by Amazon RDS?

A) MySQL
B) PostgreSQL
C) MongoDB
D) Oracle
- Correct Answer: C) MongoDB

8. What does Amazon RDS handle for users?

A) Virtual machine deployment
B) Operating system management
C) Database administration tasks
D) Network configuration
- Correct Answer: C) Database administration tasks

9. Which Amazon RDS feature allows you to automate database backups and point-in-time
recovery?
A) Multi-AZ deployment
B) Read Replicas
 C) Automated backups
D) Security groups
- Correct Answer: C) Automated backups

10. Which statement about Amazon RDS is true?

A) Amazon RDS requires manual installation and configuration of the database software
B) Amazon RDS supports only relational databases
C) Amazon RDS allows you to directly access the underlying operating system of the
database
D) Amazon RDS automatically handles routine database tasks such as patching and
backups
- Correct Answer: D) Amazon RDS automatically handles routine database tasks such as
patching and backups

11. Which AWS service integrates seamlessly with Amazon RDS for automatic scaling of
database resources?
A) Amazon Route 53
B) AWS Lambda
C) Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
D) Amazon DynamoDB
- Correct Answer: C) Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

12. How does Amazon RDS enhance security for databases?

A) By encrypting data in transit and at rest
B) By providing a fully isolated network environment
C) By offering fine-grained access control through IAM
D) All of the above
- Correct Answer: D) All of the above

13. What is Amazon Redshift primarily used for?

A) Object storage
B) Data analytics and warehousing
C) Relational database management
D) Content delivery
- Correct Answer: B) Data analytics and warehousing

14. What is the purpose of Amazon Redshift Spectrum?

A) To provide real-time data processing
B) To automate database backups
C) To analyze data directly from Amazon S3
D) To optimize network traffic within the Redshift cluster
- Correct Answer: C) To analyze data directly from Amazon S3

15. Which statement about Amazon Redshift is true regarding scaling?

 A) Redshift clusters cannot be scaled after creation
B) Redshift clusters can only scale vertically
C) Redshift clusters can scale both vertically and horizontally
D) Redshift clusters can only scale horizontally
- Correct Answer: C) Redshift clusters can scale both vertically and horizontally

16. How does Amazon Redshift enhance security for data stored in the warehouse?
A) By providing encryption at rest and in transit
B) By restricting access to authorized users and IAM roles
C) By integrating with AWS Key Management Service (KMS)
D) All of the above
- Correct Answer: D) All of the above

17. What is the primary function of a Network Access Control List (NACL) in AWS?
A) Filtering traffic within an EC2 instance
B) Controlling access to AWS services
C) Filtering traffic at the subnet level
D) Enabling secure communication between VPCs
- Correct Answer: C) Filtering traffic at the subnet level

18. How are Network Access Control Lists (NACLs) associated with a subnet in AWS?
A) They are associated directly with EC2 instances
B) They are associated with VPCs
C) They are associated with security groups
D) They are associated with subnets
- Correct Answer: D) They are associated with subnets

19. What is the default action of a newly created Network Access Control List (NACL) in
AWS?
A) Allow all traffic
B) Deny all traffic
C) Allow all inbound traffic and deny all outbound traffic
D) Allow all outbound traffic and deny all inbound traffic
- Correct Answer: B) Deny all traffic

20. How are Network Access Control Lists (NACLs) evaluated in relation to security groups in
AWS?
A) NACLs are evaluated before security groups
B) NACLs are evaluated after security groups
C) NACLs and security groups are evaluated independently
D) NACLs and security groups are not related
- Correct Answer: A) NACLs are evaluated before security groups
21. What is the main difference between Network Access Control Lists (NACLs) and security
groups in AWS?
A) NACLs are stateful, while security groups are stateless
B) NACLs are applied at the instance level, while security groups are applied at the subnet
level
C) NACLs control inbound and outbound traffic, while security groups control only inbound
traffic
D) NACLs are managed by AWS, while security groups are managed by the user
- Correct Answer: B) NACLs are applied at the instance level, while security groups are
applied at the subnet level

22. Which of the following statements about Network Access Control Lists (NACLs) is true?
A) NACLs can be associated with multiple subnets
B) NACLs can be used to filter traffic between different VPCs
C) NACLs support dynamic rule updates without downtime
D) NACLs can restrict access based on EC2 instance tags
- Correct Answer: A) NACLs can be associated with multiple subnets

23. What is the primary purpose of an Internet Gateway (IGW) in AWS?

A) To provide secure access to AWS resources
B) To facilitate communication between VPCs
C) To enable communication between a VPC and the internet
D) To manage network traffic within a VPC
- Correct Answer: C) To enable communication between a VPC and the internet

24. Which statement best describes the role of an Internet Gateway (IGW) in AWS?
A) It acts as a firewall for incoming internet traffic
B) It provides NAT (Network Address Translation) for instances within a VPC
C) It serves as a bridge between a VPC's internal network and the public internet
D) It facilitates communication between VPCs in different regions
- Correct Answer: C) It serves as a bridge between a VPC's internal network and the public
internet

25. Can an Internet Gateway (IGW) be associated with multiple VPCs?

A) Yes, an IGW can be associated with multiple VPCs
B) No, an IGW can only be associated with a single VPC
C) Yes, but only if the VPCs are in the same region
D) No, an IGW is always specific to a single VPC
- Correct Answer: A) Yes, an IGW can be associated with multiple VPCs

26. What happens if an Internet Gateway (IGW) is not attached to a VPC?

A) Instances within the VPC cannot communicate with each other
B) Instances within the VPC cannot communicate with the internet
 C) Instances within the VPC cannot communicate with AWS services
D) Instances within the VPC cannot communicate with resources in other VPCs
- Correct Answer: B) Instances within the VPC cannot communicate with the internet

27. Which AWS service is used to manage the lifecycle and configuration of Internet
Gateways?
A) Amazon EC2
B) Amazon VPC
C) Amazon Route 53
D) Amazon CloudWatch
- Correct Answer: B) Amazon VPC

28. Can an Internet Gateway (IGW) be detached from a VPC while there are still instances
running in the VPC?
A) Yes, detaching an IGW will not affect running instances
B) No, detaching an IGW will terminate all running instances
C) Yes, but running instances will lose internet connectivity
D) No, detaching an IGW is not allowed if there are running instances in the VPC
- Correct Answer: D) No, detaching an IGW is not allowed if there are running instances in
the VPC

29. Can an Internet Gateway (IGW) be used for private network communication within a
VPC?
A) Yes, an IGW can facilitate communication between private subnets within a VPC
B) No, an IGW is only for communication with the public internet
C) Yes, but only if NAT Gateway is also configured
D) No, an IGW cannot be used for internal VPC communication
- Correct Answer: B) No, an IGW is only for communication with the public internet

30. How is traffic routed to and from the internet when using an Internet Gateway (IGW) in
AWS?
A) Through the Elastic Load Balancer (ELB)
B) Through the Route 53 DNS service
C) Through the Amazon VPC route table
D) Through the AWS Direct Connect service
- Correct Answer: C) Through the Amazon VPC route table

31. What is Amazon CloudFront primarily used for?

A) Object storage
B) Database management
C) Content delivery
D) Network routing
- Correct Answer: C) Content delivery
32. What type of content can be distributed by Amazon CloudFront?
A) Only static content
B) Only dynamic content
C) Both static and dynamic content
D) Only encrypted content
- Correct Answer: C) Both static and dynamic content

33. What is the purpose of Amazon CloudFront distributions?

A) To store and manage content in the cloud
B) To distribute content to end-users with low latency
C) To provision virtual private servers
D) To configure network routing policies
- Correct Answer: B) To distribute content to end-users with low latency

34. What is the purpose of Amazon CloudFront behaviors?

A) To specify the cache behavior for different types of content
B) To define access control policies
C) To configure SSL/TLS settings
D) To manage user authentication
- Correct Answer: A) To specify the cache behavior for different types of content

35. What is Amazon Route 53 primarily used for?

A) Content delivery
B) Load balancing
C) Domain name system (DNS) routing
D) Object storage
- Correct Answer: C) Domain name system (DNS) routing

36. What type of records can be managed with Amazon Route 53?
A) Only A records
B) Only CNAME records
C) Both A and CNAME records
D) Only MX records
- Correct Answer: C) Both A and CNAME records

37. How does Amazon Route 53 help improve the availability and reliability of web
applications?
A) By providing encryption for data in transit
B) By load balancing traffic across multiple servers
C) By optimizing database queries
D) By routing user requests to the nearest server
- Correct Answer: D) By routing user requests to the nearest server
38. What is the purpose of health checks in Amazon Route 53?
A) To monitor the health and performance of servers
B) To encrypt DNS queries
C) To prevent DDoS attacks
D) To manage access control policies
- Correct Answer: A) To monitor the health and performance of servers

39. How does Amazon Route 53 support routing policies?

A) By providing fine-grained access control
B) By enabling traffic routing based on geographic location
C) By supporting real-time data analytics
D) By optimizing network bandwidth
- Correct Answer: B) By enabling traffic routing based on geographic location

40. Which DNS record type is used to map domain names to IP addresses?
A) A record
B) CNAME record
C) MX record
D) TXT record
- Correct Answer: A) A record

41. What is the purpose of latency-based routing in Amazon Route 53?

A) To distribute traffic evenly across multiple servers
B) To route traffic to the server with the lowest latency for the end-user
C) To encrypt DNS queries
D) To prevent DNS cache poisoning attacks
- Correct Answer: B) To route traffic to the server with the lowest latency for the end-user

42. What is a public subnet in AWS Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)?

A) A subnet that allows public access to the internet
B) A subnet with no internet access
C) A subnet reserved for internal communication only
D) A subnet used for database servers
- Correct Answer: A) A subnet that allows public access to the internet

43. How does a public subnet in AWS VPC route traffic to the internet?
A) Through a virtual private network (VPN)
B) Through an internet gateway
C) Through a NAT gateway
D) Through a virtual private gateway
- Correct Answer: B) Through an internet gateway

44. What is the purpose of an internet gateway in AWS VPC?

A) To provide private access to AWS services
 B) To provide public access to the internet for instances in public subnets
C) To encrypt data in transit
D) To establish secure VPN connections
- Correct Answer: B) To provide public access to the internet for instances in public subnets

45. How are public subnets in AWS VPC typically used?

A) For deploying backend services
B) For hosting internal databases
C) For running web servers or other publicly accessible resources
D) For internal communication between instances
- Correct Answer: C) For running web servers or other publicly accessible resources

46. Which of the following resources are required to enable internet access for instances in a
public subnet?
A) Internet Gateway
B) NAT Gateway
C) Virtual Private Gateway
D) VPN Connection
- Correct Answer: A) Internet Gateway

47. How are instances in a public subnet assigned public IP addresses?

A) They are assigned automatically by AWS
B) They are manually assigned by the user
C) They are inherited from the VPC's IP range
D) They are not assigned public IP addresses
- Correct Answer: A) They are assigned automatically by AWS

48. What is the route table configuration for a public subnet in AWS VPC?
A) It contains a default route pointing to a NAT gateway
B) It contains a default route pointing to an internet gateway
C) It contains a default route pointing to a virtual private gateway
D) It does not contain any default routes
- Correct Answer: B) It contains a default route pointing to an internet gateway

49. Which AWS service can be used to dynamically manage public IP addresses for instances
in a public subnet?
A) Amazon EC2
B) Amazon Route 53
C) Amazon VPC
D) Amazon Elastic IP addresses
- Correct Answer: D) Amazon Elastic IP addresses

50. What is a private subnet in AWS VPC?

 A) A subnet that does not have internet access
B) A subnet that is isolated from other subnets
C) A subnet that allows public access to the internet
D) A subnet reserved for internal communication only
- Correct Answer: A) A subnet that does not have internet access

51. How do instances in a private subnet communicate with the internet or other AWS
services?
A) Through a virtual private network (VPN)
B) Through an internet gateway
C) Through a NAT gateway
D) Through a virtual private gateway
- Correct Answer: C) Through a NAT gateway

52. What is the purpose of a NAT gateway in AWS VPC?

A) To provide private access to AWS services
B) To provide public access to the internet for instances in private subnets
C) To encrypt data in transit
D) To establish secure VPN connections
- Correct Answer: B) To provide public access to the internet for instances in private
subnets

53. How are private subnets in AWS VPC typically used?

A) For deploying web servers
B) For hosting publicly accessible databases
C) For running backend services or databases that do not require internet access
D) For internal communication between instances
- Correct Answer: C) For running backend services or databases that do not require
internet access

54. Which of the following resources are required to enable outbound internet access for
instances in a private subnet?
A) Internet Gateway
B) NAT Gateway
C) Virtual Private Gateway
D) VPN Connection
- Correct Answer: B) NAT Gateway

55. How are instances in a private subnet assigned private IP addresses?

A) They are assigned automatically by AWS
B) They are manually assigned by the user
C) They are inherited from the VPC's IP range
D) They are not assigned private IP addresses
- Correct Answer: A) They are assigned automatically by AWS
56. What is the route table configuration for a private subnet in AWS VPC?
A) It contains a default route pointing to a NAT gateway
B) It contains a default route pointing to an internet gateway
C) It contains a default route pointing to a virtual private gateway
D) It does not contain any default routes
- Correct Answer: D) It does not contain any default routes

57. Which AWS service can be used to manage inbound access to instances in a private
subnet?
A) Amazon EC2
B) Amazon Route 53
C) Amazon VPC
D) Amazon Security Groups
- Correct Answer: D) Amazon Security Groups

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on Amazon Glacier:

58. What is Amazon Glacier primarily used for?

A) Real-time data processing
B) High-performance computing
C) Long-term data archival and backup
D) Content delivery
- Correct Answer: C) Long-term data archival and backup

59. Which of the following statements about Amazon Glacier is true?

A) It provides low-latency access to data
B) It is suitable for frequently accessed data
C) It is optimized for real-time analytics
D) It offers low-cost storage for data archival
- Correct Answer: D) It offers low-cost storage for data archival

60. How does Amazon Glacier differ from Amazon S3 in terms of storage class?
A) Amazon Glacier provides real-time access to data, while Amazon S3 offers archival
storage
B) Amazon Glacier offers low-cost storage for infrequently accessed data, while Amazon S3
provides high-performance storage for frequently accessed data
C) Amazon Glacier offers real-time data analytics, while Amazon S3 is suitable for long-
term data archival
D) Amazon Glacier provides high-performance storage, while Amazon S3 offers low-cost
archival storage
- Correct Answer: B) Amazon Glacier offers low-cost storage for infrequently accessed data,
while Amazon S3 provides high-performance storage for frequently accessed data
61. Which AWS service is commonly used to manage lifecycle policies for transitioning data
to Amazon Glacier?
A) Amazon S3
B) Amazon RDS
C) Amazon Route 53
D) Amazon CloudWatch
- Correct Answer: A) Amazon S3

62. What is the mechanism used by Amazon Glacier to store data durably?
A) Replication across multiple data centers
B) Data mirroring
C) Data partitioning
D) Data redundancy across multiple availability zones
- Correct Answer: A) Replication across multiple data centers

63. Which AWS service can be integrated with Amazon Glacier for seamless backup and
archival of data?
A) Amazon S3
B) Amazon EC2
C) Amazon CloudFront
D) Amazon EBS (Elastic Block Store)
- Correct Answer: A) Amazon S3

64. Which cloud service model provides virtualized computing resources over the internet?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) All of the above
- Correct Answer: A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

65. In which cloud service model is the provider responsible for managing the underlying
infrastructure including servers, storage, and networking?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) None of the above
- Correct Answer: A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

66. Which cloud service model offers a runtime environment for developing, testing, and
managing applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the
infrastructure?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
 D) All of the above
- Correct Answer: B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)

67. Which cloud service model delivers software applications over the internet on a
subscription basis?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) All of the above
- Correct Answer: C) Software as a Service (SaaS)

68. In which cloud service model is the provider responsible for managing and maintaining
the software application, including updates and security patches?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) None of the above
- Correct Answer: C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
69. Which cloud service model offers the highest level of abstraction and is typically used by
end-users to access applications via web browsers or APIs?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) All of the above
- Correct Answer: C) Software as a Service (SaaS)

70. In which cloud service model do users have the most control over the underlying
infrastructure?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) All of the above
- Correct Answer: A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

71. Which cloud service model typically requires the least amount of management and
administrative effort from the user?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) All of the above
- Correct Answer: C) Software as a Service (SaaS)

72. Which cloud service model is most suitable for organizations looking to quickly deploy
applications without worrying about infrastructure management?
 A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) All of the above
- Correct Answer: B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)

73. Which type of cloud deployment model involves sharing computing resources among
multiple tenants over the internet?
A) Public cloud
B) Private cloud
C) Hybrid cloud
D) Community cloud
- Correct Answer: A) Public cloud

74. In which type of cloud deployment model are computing resources exclusively dedicated
to a single organization?
A) Public cloud
B) Private cloud
C) Hybrid cloud
D) Community cloud
- Correct Answer: B) Private cloud

75. What is a characteristic of public cloud deployments?

A) High level of control and customization
B) Shared infrastructure with limited security concerns
C) Restricted access to resources over the internet
D) Lower upfront costs compared to other deployment models
- Correct Answer: D) Lower upfront costs compared to other deployment models

76. Which type of cloud deployment model is known for offering enhanced security and
control over data?
A) Public cloud
B) Private cloud
C) Hybrid cloud
D) Community cloud
- Correct Answer: B) Private cloud

77. What is a key advantage of private cloud deployments?

A) Scalability and flexibility
B) Lower costs compared to public cloud
C) Enhanced security and compliance
D) Access to shared computing resources
- Correct Answer: C) Enhanced security and compliance
78. In which cloud deployment model does an organization retain some control over their
data and applications while leveraging the benefits of public cloud services?
A) Public cloud
B) Private cloud
C) Hybrid cloud
D) Community cloud
- Correct Answer: C) Hybrid cloud

79. Which cloud deployment model is most suitable for organizations with dynamic
workloads and varying security requirements?
A) Public cloud
B) Private cloud
C) Hybrid cloud
D) Community cloud
- Correct Answer: C) Hybrid cloud

80. What is the primary challenge associated with hybrid cloud deployments?
A) Limited scalability
B) Complex management and integration
C) Higher costs compared to other deployment models
D) Lack of security controls
- Correct Answer: B) Complex management and integration