@killer20bot Community Health Nursing - 240316 - 235441

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING DPP
INDEX
S.NO. TOPIC LIST PAGE NO.
COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

1. Health & Diesease 2-3
2. Epidemiology 3-5
3. Levels of Prevention 5-6
4. Immunity and Immunization 6-12
5. Family planning and contraceptive methods 12-17
6. Demography 17-19
7. Communicable Disease 19-33
8. Health Programme 33-39
9. Environmental Health 39-41
10. Primary Health Care 41-42
11. Health committee 43-43
12. Disaster 43-45
13. Occupational health 45-51
14. Biomedical waste management 51-54
15. Health care delivery system and kits 55-57
16. Covid-19 57-58
17. Mucormycosis 59
-:: 1 ::-
7. Head Quarters of World Health
HEALTH AND DIESEASE
Organization (WHO) situated at
1. Quality and quantity of an individual's (a) New York, United States of America
inter-personal lies and extent of (b) London, England
involvement with the continuity is known (c) Geneva, Switzerland
as (d) Paris, France
(a) Mental dimension of health 8. UNICEF was established in .................. year
(b) Physical dimension of health (a) 1946
(c) Spiritual dimension of health (b) 1948
(d) Social dimension of health (c) 1952
2. The functions of community are: (d) 1955
A. It provides space for socialize and 9. The germ theory of disease was
recreation propounded by
B. It provides safety and security (a) Robert Koch
C. Socialization and Education for its (b) Hippocrates
members (c) Louis Pasteur
D. Provides opportunity for interaction (d) August Weismann
among members 10. Who discovered tuberculin skin test?
(a) A, B, C (a) Von Pirquet
(b) B, C, D (b) Louis Pasteur
(c) A, C, D (c) Ronald Ross
(d) A, B, C, D (d) Edward Jenner
3. In demographic stages "when birth rate 11. Limit for registration of birth is
begins to decline and death rate further (a) 7 days
decreases" is said to be: (b) 14 days
(a) High stationary stage (c) 21 days
(b) Early expansion stage (d) Any of the above
(c) Late expansion stage 12. Census population count is in reference to
(d) Low stationary stage (a) 1st march
4. WHO 2000 report, India's health (b) 1st July
expenditure was- (c) 30th June
(a) 3.2% of GDP (d) 1st January
(b) 4.3% of GDP 13. Census is conducted in every_____ years.
(c) 6.7% of GDP (a) 10
(d) 7.2% of GDP (b) 25
5. Father of Indian Surgery is (c) 15
(a) Dhanvantari (d) 20
(b) Charak 14. First census in India was done in
(c) Sushruta (a) 1861
(d) Atreya (b) 1871
6. Entomology is the science that studies: (C) 1881
(a) Behavior of human beings (d) 1891
(b) Insects 15. WHO established in the year of...........
(c) Behavior of ants (a) 1920
(d) Formation of rocks (b) 1948
(c) 1954
(d) 1960
-:: 2 ::-
(b) Organization and comparisons of
16. Which of the following is true about Global problem
Warming? (c) Effective communication
(a) CO2 is a major greenhouse gas (d) Investigation and measurements
(b) Stratosphere ozone layer is harmful 4. Providing health education about the
(c) CFC increases Stratosphere ozone layer environment to the community people is
(d) Kyoto protocol called for 20% reduction in an example of
Greenhouse emission. (a) Social communication
17. Air velocity is measured by: (b) Structural communication
(a) Hygrometer (c) Therapeutic communication
(b) Psychrometer (d) Formal communication
(c) Anemometer 5. The constant presence of infection in a
(d) Wet bulb thermometer given geographic area without any
18. According to WHO, a child with 10 level external input is known as........ .
and IQ between 35-50. which of the (a) Epidemic
following category of mental retardation? (b) Endemic
(a) Mild (c) Pandemic
(b) Moderate (d) Sporadic
(c) Severe 6. Sporadic means:
(d) Profound (a) Sudden outbreak of disease in given an
1. [d] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [b] 5. [c] area.
6. [b] 7. [c] 8. [a] 9. [c] 10. [a] (b) Infectious disease that has spread
11. [c] 12. [a] 13. [a] 14. [c] 15. [b] through human populations across a large
16. [a] 17. [c] 18. [b] region; for instance multiple continues, or
even worldwide
EPIDEMIOLOGY (c) Disease occurs at irregular intervals or
only in few places in scattered or isolated
1. Outbreak of disease in the community in
manner
excess than normal expectation is:
(d) Constant presence of infection in a given
(a) Epidemic
geographical area without any external input
(b) Pandemic
7. Missed cases are identified by…
(c) Sporadic
(a) Active surveillance
(d) Endemic
(b) Passive surveillance
2. The agent/factor responsible for the
(c) Sentinel surveillance
occurrence of a disease includes-
(d) Prevalence rate
(A) Biological and physical agents
8. The continuous, systematic collection,
(B) Mechanical and chemical agents
analysis and interpretation of health-
(C) Vertical and inoculation agents
related data needed for the planning,
(D) Nutrient and living agents
implementation, and evaluation of public
(a) A, B, C
health practice is known as:
(b) B, C, D
(a) Incidence
(c) A, B, D
(b) Monitoring
(d) A, C, D
(c) Surveillance
3. The following are the data collection
(d) Community assessment
techniques in community assessment,
9. Submerged portion of the iceberg
EXCEPT
represents:
(a) Making appropriate judgments
(a) Undiagnosed cases
-:: 3 ::-
(b) Clinical cases (c) Sporadic
(c) Dead cases (d) Pandemic
(d) Treated cases 18. A person with no sign of disease but may
10. Blood banks get permission to operate transmit, it is called:
from (a) An allergic person
(a) NACO (b) Immune person
(b) ICMR (c) A resistant person
(c) DGHS, Ministry of health (d) A carrier person
(d) Drug controller general of India 19. Following is a contagious disease
11. Father of epidemiology is: (a) Filaria
(a) John Snow (b) Tuberculosis
(b) Joseph Lister (c) Malaria
(c) Karl Landsteiner (d) Hookworm infestation
(d) Endemic 20. Decrease in the incidence of disease to a
12. Sentinel surveillance is used to............. level where it censes to be a public health
(a) Know the total number of affected people problem is
(b) Know the hidden cases in the community (a) Elimination
(c) Compare the incidence (b) Control
(d) Measure incidence and prevalence (c) Surveillance
13. The constant presence of the disease or (d) Eradication
infection within a given geographic area is 21. Basic unit of the society
called as: (a) Individual
(a) Pandemic (b) Family
(b) Sporadic (c) PHC
(c) Epidemic (d) Country
(d) Endemic 22. HIV prevalence can be assessed by
14. The screening of the immigrants for (a) Sentinel surveillance
infectious disease is: (b) Active surveillance
(a) Mass screening (c) Central register
(b) Prescriptive screening (d) State register
(c) Prospective screening 23. All are true about incidence EXCEPT
(d) Selective screening (a) Denominator includes population at risk
15. Tear out by roots is the literal meaning of: (b) Numerator includes number of new cases
(a) Elimination (c) Does not include unit of time
(b) Eradication (d) It is a rate
(c) Isolation 24. Number of current cases (new and pre-
(d) Transmission existing) at a specified point in time
16. Robert Koch discovered the etiologic divided by population at the same
agent of specified point in time is referred as
(a) Typhoid (a) Point prevalence
(b) Small pox (b) Period prevalence
(c) Tuberculosis (c) Lifetime prevalence
(d) Polio (d) Prevalence estimate
17. Constant presence of a disease within a 25. Number of current cases (new and
geographic area: preexisting) over a specified period of
(a) Epidemic time divided by average or mid-interval
(b) Endemic population
-:: 4 ::-
(a) Point prevalence
Level of Prevention
(b) Period prevalence
(c) Lifetime prevalence 1. Prevention of risk factors is known as:
(d) Total prevalence (a) Primordial prevention
26. The number of new cases occurring in a (b) Primary prevention
defined population during a specified (c) Secondary prevention
period of time is known as…. (d) Tertiary prevention
(a) Incidence 2. Which of the following is NOT an example
(b) Point prevalence of primary prevention-
(c) Period prevalence (a) Breast self-examination
(d) Current prevalence (b) Smoking cessation
27. Time interval between primary and (c) BCG vaccination
secondary case is known as… (d) Vitamin A supplementation
(a) Extrinsic incubation period 3. Which of the following is considered as
(b) Intrinsic incubation period secondary prevention strategies
(c) Serial interval (a) Physiotherapy for arthralgia
(d) Window period (b) Surgery for cataract
28. Epidemiological triad comprise of all (c) DOTS therapy for a tuberculosis patient
expect: (d) All of the above
(a) Host 4. Early diagnosis of disease is known as ---
(b) Environmental factor strategy.
(c) Agent (a) Primary prevention
(d) Investigator (b) Secondary prevention
29. Which of the following is the most logical (c) Tertiary prevention
sequence? (d) Rehabilitation prevention
(a) Impairment-Disease-Disability - Handicap 5. Example of primary prevention strategies
(b) Disease-Impairment-Disability - Handicap include
(c) Disease-Impairment- Handicap - Disability (a) Colonoscopy at age 50.
(d) Disease-Handicap-Impairment– Disability (b) Avoidance of tobacco products.
30. "Silent epidemic' of the century is (c) Intake of a diet low in saturated fat in a
(a) Coronary artery disease patient with high cholesterol.
(b) Chronic liver disease (d) Teaching the importance of exercise to a
(c) Chronic obstructive lung disease patient with hypertension.
(d) Alzheimer's disease 6. Prevention of emergence of risk factor is:
31. Time between infection and maximum (a) Primary prevention
infectivity is known as (b) Secondary prevention
(a) Incubation period (c) Tertiary prevention
(b) Serial interval (d) Disability limitation
(c) Generation time 7. Immunization is:
(d) Communicable period (a) Primordial prevention
1. [a] 2. [c] 3. [b] 4. [b] 5. [b] (b) Primary prevention
6. [c] 7. [c] 8. [c] 9. [a] 10. [d] (c) Secondary prevention
11. [a] 12. [b] 13. [d ] 14. [c] 15. [b] (d) Tertiary prevention
16. [c] 17. [b] 18. [d] 19. [b] 20. [b] 8. Iodized salt in iodine deficiency control
21. [b] 22. [a] 23. [c] 24. [a] 25. [b] programme is:
26. [a] 27. [c] 28. [d] 29. [b] 30. [d] (a) Primary prevention
31. [c] (b) Secondary prevention
-:: 5 ::-
(c) Tertiary prevention (c) Secondary prevention
(d) Disability limitation (d) Tertiary prevention
9. Level of prevention that includes Specific 17. Primordial prevention is done in
protection is population
(a) Primordial prevention (a) With risk factor
(b) Primary prevention (b) Without risk factors
(c) Secondary prevention (c) Whole population with low prevalence of
(d) Tertiary prevention disease
10. When you immunize a child for measles (d) Population with disease
what type of prevention are you doing? 18. Which of the following is primordial
(a) Primordial prevention prevention?
(b) Health promotion (a) Action taken prior to the onset of disease
(c) Specific protection (b) Prevention of emergence of development
(d) Secondary Prevention of risk factors
11. Monitoring of blood pressure is which (c) Action taken to remove the possibility that
level of prevention? a disease will ever occur
(a) Primordial (d) Action that halts the progress of a disease
(b) Primary
(c) Secondary 1. [a] 2. [a] 3. [d] 4. [b] 5. [b]
(d) Tertiary 6. [a] 7. [a] 8. [b] 9. [b] 10. [c]
12. Pap smear test for detection of carcinoma 11. [c] 12. [c] 13. [c] 14. [c] 15. [b]
of Cervix is which level of prevention? 16. [d] 17. [b] 18. [b]
(a) Primordial
(b) Primary
Immunity and Immunization
(c) Secondary
(d) Tertiary 1. A clinic nurse prepares to administer an
13. Patient is on psychotherapy, what is the MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine
level of prevention to a five-year-old. The nurse administers
(a) Primordial this vaccine:
(b) Primary (a) Intramuscularly in the anterolateral
(c) Secondary aspect of the thigh
(d) Tertiary (b) Intramuscularly in deltoid muscle
14. Screening of the disease is which type of (c) Subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the
prevention? upper arm
(a) Primordial prevention (d) Subcutaneously in the gluteal muscle
(b) Primary prevention 2. All of the following are the role of
(c) Secondary prevention community nurse in school health
(d) Tertiary prevention program, except
15. Target group for secondary prevention (a) Assist in school medical examination and
(a) Healthy individuals follow up
(b) Patients (b) Assist in screening physical, mental and
(c) Animals other special examination of children in
(d) Children school
16. Disability limitation is which mode of (c) Assist in communicable disease control
prevention? (d) To provide immunization to the children
(a) Primordial prevention
(b) Primary prevention
-:: 6 ::-
3. Immunity acquired through natural 11. Which of the following vaccine is most
infection is: sensitive to heat?
(a) Artificial active immunity (a) Pertussis vaccine
(b) Herd immunity (b) Typhoid vaccine
(c) Natural Active immunity (c) Polio vaccine
(d) Specific human immunity (d) BCG vaccine
4. BCG is........ 12. In cold chain process, the walk in cold
(a) Live attenuated vaccine rooms stores vaccine up to ..........months
(b) Inactivated vaccine (a) 4 months
(c) Killed vaccines (b) б months
(d) Tools (c) 3 months
5. The vaccine that leaves permanent scar in (d) 1 month
babies is 13. Route of administration of Hepatitis B
(a) Measles Vaccine is.....
(b) Pentavalent (a) Intradermal
(c) DPT (b) Subcutaneous
(d) BCG (c) Intramuscular
6. Influenza-A (H1N1) vaccine was approved (d) Intravenous
in the year: 14. Expansion of BCG vaccine is:
(a) 2009 (a) Bacillus Calmette-Guerin
(b) 2010 (b) Bacillus Calmette-Guereo
(c) 2012 (c) Bacilli Calmette-Guerreror
(d) 2004 (d) Bacilli Calmette-Guerin
7. Smallpox was eradicated from the world 15. BCG vaccine is available in powder form. It
in the year........... is reconstituted with
(a) 1980 (a) Distilled water
(b) 1981 (b) Normal saline
(c) 1982 (c) 5% Dextrose solution
(d)1983 (d) Ringer lactate solution
8. Frozen DPT vaccine should be 16. Measles vaccine are stored in........ part of
(a) Discarded refrigerator.
(b) Rolled between palms until it reaches (a) Chilled tray
room temperature (b) Deep freezer
(c) Immersed in hot water (c) Tray below the freezer
(d) Kept out until it reaches room (d) Shelves in the door
temperature 17. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is............
9. Polyvalent vaccine means.................... (a) Zinc phosphate
(a) Single strain of single microorganism (b) Aluminum phosphate
(b) Two or more strains of same (c) Aluminum hydroxide
microorganism (d) Both (b) and (c)
(c) Antibody of single microorganism 18. Which of the following vaccine is
(d) None of the above contraindicated during pregnancy?
10. Anti-rabies vaccine is made from: (a) MMR
(a) Wild viruses (b) Hepatitis B
(b) Live attenuated viruses (c) DPT
(c) Mixed viruses (d) DT
(d) Killed viruses
-:: 7 ::-
19. Herd immunity is not useful in prevention (b) BCG
of................. (c) MMR
(a) Polio (d) Rabies
(b) Rubella 28. Which of the following disease are known
(c) Tetanus as six killer diseases in children?
(d) Measles (a) Whooping cough, Yellow fever, Hepatitis,
20. Administration of readymade antibody T.B. Smallpox, Tetanus
creates: (b) Diphtheria, Whooping cough, Measles,
(a) Active acquired immunity Polio, TB, Tetanus
(b) Passive acquired immunity (c) Diphtheria, Yellow fever, TB, Leprosy,
(c) Active natural immunity Malaria, Cholera
(d) Passive natural immunity (d) Whooping cough, Diphtheria, Malaria,
21. Measles vaccine is: Smallpox, TB, Chickenpox.
(a) Live viral vaccine 29. Cold Chain System is the process of
(b) Live bacterial vaccine preserving.................................
(c) Killed vaccine (a) Blood specimen for malarial parasite
(d) Toxoid (b) Chemotherapeutic agents
22. All the vaccines are in national (c) Sputum specimen
immunizations schedule EXCEPT (d) Vaccines
(a) BCG 30. Which is the recommended site of
(b) Pentavalent administration of DPT in infants?
(c) Pneumococcal (a) Gluteal muscles
(d) OPV (b) Deltoid muscles
23. Universal immunization program (UIP) (c) Lateral aspect of mid-thigh
was launched in the year of............. (d) Forearm
(a) 1974 31. What reaction might occur due to Tetanus
(b) 1978 vaccine?
(c) 1985 (a) Febrile seizures
(d) 1992 (b) Brachial neuritis
24. Live vaccine is: (c) Hypotonic
(a) DPT (d) Encephalopathy
(b) Hepatitis-B 32. The polio vaccine should be preserved at:
(c) TT (a) 2 to 8°C
(d) BCG (b) Below 0°C
25. Which of the following vaccine is (c) -2 to -8°C
contraindicated in pregnancy? (d) 0 to 4°C
(a) Rubella 33. Viral proteins called interferon’s helping
(b) Measles innate immunity are classified under:
(c) Varicella (a) Physical barriers
(d) All of the above (b) Physiological barriers
26. Measles vaccine is administered by: (c) Cytokine barriers
(a) Intradermal route (d) Cellular barriers
(b) Intravenous route 34. Which among the following vaccines is
(c) Oral route stored in the freezer?
(d) Subcutaneous route (a) Measles
27. A killed vaccine is: (b) Typhoid
(a) OPV (c) DPT
-:: 8 ::-
(d) TT (c) Storing sputum specimens
35. Salk vaccine is given for the prevention of: (d) Preserving vaccines
(a) Measles 44. ILR is designed for
(b) Mumps (a) Storing vaccines
(c) Polio (b) Incubating culture medias
(d) Rabies (c) Sterilization of rubber gloves
36. Immunization of DPT should be (d) Disinfection of sharp materials
administered by: 45. ILR is a part of
(a) Intradermal (a) Sterilization procedure
(b) Intramuscular (b) Disinfection procedure
(C) Subcutaneous (c) Cold chain
(d) Intravenous (d) Drug transport
37. The age of administration of measles 46. Which of the following is a diarrheal
vaccine is: preventive vaccine?
(a) 18 months (a) DPT vaccine
(b) 6 months (b) Rotavirus vaccine
(c) 3 months (c) MMR vaccine
(d) 9 months (d) Hepatitis B
38. Dose of BCG vaccination is 47. Salk vaccine is a
(a) 0.5 mL s/c (a) Live vaccine
(b) 0.5 mL I/D (b) Live attenuated vaccine
(c) 0.1 mL I/D (c) Killed vaccine
(d) 1 mL I/M (d) Toxoid
39. B.C.G. Vaccine is given to protect the child 48. OPV is a
against: (a) Live vaccine
(a) Diphtheria (b) Live attenuated vaccine
(b) Tuberculosis (c) Killed vaccine
(c) Tetanus (d) Toxoid
(d) Typhoid 49. Which of the following is a live attenuated
40. Example of a live vaccine is? vaccine?
(a) Hepatitis B (a) BCG
(b) Rabies (b) DPT
(c) Measles (c) Hepatitis B
(d) Typhoid vaccine (d) Tetanus Toxoid
41. Varicella vaccine is a 50. At what temperature should polio vaccine
(a) Killed vaccine be stored?
(b) Live attenuated vaccine (a) 0 °C
(c) Immunoglobulin (b) 2-5 °C
(d) None (c)15 °C
42. Smallpox vaccine was invented by? (d) -20 °C
(a) Louis Pasteur 51. Which vaccine must be stored in the
(b) Edward Jenner freezer compartment?
(c) Paul Eugene (a) DPT
(d) John Snow (b) Polio
43. Cold Chain System is the process of (c) BCG
(a) Storing blood specimen for MP and MF (d) TT
(b)Refrigerating chemotherapeutic agents
-:: 9 ::-
52. Which of the following vaccine should be (a) At birth
stored in the freezer compartment? (b) 6 month
(a) Polio (c) 9 months
(b) Measles (d) 12-15 months
(c) DPT 60. Which of the following vaccines can result
(d) Both a and b a Thrombocytopenia
53. The route of administration of live (a) MMR vaccine
attenuated polio vaccine is (b) Typhoid vaccine
(a) Intradermal route (c) Influenza vaccine
(b) Intramuscular (d) HiB vaccine
(c) Oral route 61. MMR vaccine provide protection against
(d) Subcutaneous route all, EXCEPT
54. First dose of measles vaccine is (a) Mumps
administered at (b) Meningitis
(a) 6 weeks (c) Rubella
(b) 3 months (d) Measles
(c) 6 Months 62. At the Primary Health Center (PHC) level,
(d) 9 months vaccines are stored in the
55. Site recommended for administration of (a) Cold box
infants is (b) Deep freezer
(a) Deltoid (c) Ice lined refrigerator
(b) Lateral aspect of thigh (d) Walk in cold room
(c) Anterior thigh 63. Under VIP programme which of the
(d) Forearm following vaccines administered at 9
56. Which vaccine is contraindicated in months of age?
pregnancy? (a) DPT-1
(a) Rubella (b) BCG
(b) Diphtheria (c) Measles
(c) Tetanus (d) Hepatitis B-1
(d) Hepatitis B 64. Zero dose of polio vaccine is given..........
57. Which of the following disease are known (a) Before giving DPT
as six killer diseases in children? (b) At birth
(a) Whooping cough, Yellow fever, Hepatitis, (c) When child is having diarrhea
T.B., Smallpox, Tetanus (d) When child is having polio
(b) Diphtheria, Whooping cough, Measles, 65. Which of the following statements
Polio, T.B. Tetanus regarding live vaccine false:
(c) Diphtheria, Yellow fever, TB, Leprosy, (a) Two live vaccines cannot be administered
Malaria, Cholera simultaneously
(d) Whooping cough, Diphtheria, Malaria, (b) Booster doses are not required when
Smallpox, TB, Chickenpox. administered
58. Test used to identify the immunity status (c) Single dose gives lifelong immunity
against diphtheria is (d) Live vaccine contains both major and
(a) Schick test minor antigens
(b) Widal test 66. All of following are true about Herd
(c) Mantoux test immunity for infectious diseases except:
(d) Allen's test (a) Herd immunity is constant
59. A child is vaccinated for MMR at what age?
-:: 10 ::-
(b) Depends on clinical and sub clinical 73. Following is a live attenuated vaccine:
infections (a) BCG
(c) Influenced by immunization (b) Hepatitis B
(d) Depend on presence of alternative host (c) Japanese encephalitis
67. Which of the following is true about BCG (d) Salk
vaccination? 74. Vaccine preventable neonatal disease is:
(a) Distilled water is used as diluent. (a) Tuberculosis
(b) The site of injection should be cleaned (b) Measles
with spirit. (c) Pertussis
(c) Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 (d) Tetanus
hours of vaccination. 75. BCG vaccine is:
(d) WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for (a) Killed
vaccine production. (b) Live attenuated
68. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is: (c) Toxoid
(a) Zinc (d) Cellular fraction
(b) Aluminum 76. BCG is given:
(c) Copper (a) Intramuscular
(d) Magnesium (b) Intradermal
69. True about polio vaccination is all except (c) Subcutaneous
(a) Follow up of AFP every 30 days (d) Intravenous
(b) Salk contains three types of polio virus 77. Frozen DPT vaccine should be -
(c) Pulse polio virus are extra and (a) Shaken thoroughly before use
supplemental (b) Allowed to melt before use
(d) Oral polio vaccine provides intestinal (c) Discarded
immunity also (d) Brought to room temperature before use
70. The following is NOT true about Oral Polio 78. The neurological complication of DPT is
Vaccine due to
(a) Induces both local and systemic immunity (a) Pertussis
(b) Maternal antibody is completely (b) Diphtheria
protective (c) Tetanus
(c) Live attenuated vaccine (d) All
(d) Requires subzero temperature for long 79. Dose of OPV given at birth in case of
term storage institutional deliveries
71. All are true about SALK vaccine except: (a) Primary dose
(a) OPV can be given as booster dose (b) Initial dose
(b) Injections during epidemic prevents (c) First dose
paralysis (d) Zero dose
(c) Can be given to immune compromised pt 80. Killed vaccine of polio is:
(d) Easily transported (a) Salk
72. The following vaccine if contaminated can (b) Sabin
cause Toxic Shock Syndrome: (c) Both (a) & (b)
(a) Measles Vaccine (d) None of the above
(b) DPT 81. Most heat sensitive vaccine is:
(c) Hepatitis (a) Measles
(d) Typhoid (b) DPT
(c) OPV
(d) Hepatitis B
-:: 11 ::-
90. System of storage and transport of
82. Reconstituted measles vaccine should be vaccines at low temperature from the
used within: manufacturer to the vaccination site is
(a) 1 hour called:
(b) 3 hours (a) Deep small freezers
(c) 6 hours (b) Cold room
(d) 12 hours (c) Cold chain
83. All are true about measles vaccine except: (d) Deep freezers
(a) Freeze dried live attenuated vaccine
(b) Single in dose 0.5 mL 1. [c] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [a] 5. [d]
(c) Occasionally associated with TSS 6. [a] 7. [a] 8. [a] 9. [b] 10. [d]
(d) Contraindicated in pregnancy 11. [c] 12. [c] 13. [c] 14. [a] 15. [b]
84. Active immunization following exposure is 16. [b] 17. [d] 18. [a] 19. [c] 20. [b]
given most commonly for: 21. [a] 22. [c] 23. [c] 24. [d] 25. [d]
(a) Rabies 26. [d] 27. [d] 28. [b] 29. [d] 30. [c]
(b) Polio 31. [b] 32. [a] 33. [c] 34. [a] 35. [c]
(c) Plague 36. [b] 37. [d] 38. [c] 39. [b] 40. [c]
(d) Measles 41. [b] 42. [b] 43. [d] 44. [a] 45. [c]
85. "Tear out by root is the literal meaning of 46. [b] 47. [c] 48. [b] 49. [a] 50. [d]
(a) Elimination 51. [b] 52. [d] 53. [c] 54. [d] 55. [b]
(b) Eradication
56. [a] 57. [b] 58. [a] 59. [d] 60. [a]
(c) Quarantine
61. [b] 62. [c] 63. [c] 64. [b] 65. [a]
(d) Isolation
66. [a] 67. [d] 68. [b] 69. [a] 70. [b]
86. Target Group for pulse polio immunization
71. [b] 72. [a] 73. [a] 74. [d] 75. [b]
is
76. [b] 77. [c] 78. [a] 79. [c] 80. [a]
(a) 0-1 years
81. [c] 82. [b] 83. [b] 84. [a] 85. [b]
(b) 0-3 years
86. [c] 87. [a] 88. [d] 89. [a] 90. [c]
(c) 0-5 years
(d) 0-10 years
87. Pulse polio immunization covers: Family planning and
(a) 0-5 yr. children contraceptive methods
(b) 0-1 yr. children
(c) 1-5 yr. children 1. Commonest side effect of copper-T is….
(d) 0-2 yr. children (a) Pain
88. One of the reported side effects of (b) Bleeding
Rotavirus vaccination is: (c) Vaginal discharge
(a) Pain (d) Pelvic inflammation
(b) Aphthous ulcers 2. Which of the following ATT drug is
(c) Gastritis absolutely contra-indicated in pregnancy?
(d) Intusussception (a) Pyrazinamide
89. Pulse Polio Immunization was introduced (b) Rifampicin
in: (c) Streptomycin
(a) 1995 (d) Ethambutol
(b) 1999 3. Best response from a nurse to the women
(c) 2000 who missed single dose of oral
(d) 2001 contraceptive pill?
-:: 12 ::-
(a) Take the missed pill now and continue the (d) 32 weeks
course. 11. Which of the following method of
(b) Take 2 pills the next day and continue with contraception can prevent sexually
the course. transmitted disease?
(c) Discontinue the course because OCP has (a) Oral pills
no more effect. (b) Condom
(d) Restart the course from next MC. (c) Copper-T
4. Absolute contraindication to the OCP (d) Cervical cap
includes 12. Which of the following neoplasm has been
(a) Thromboembolism associated with the use of oral
(b) Liver disease contraceptives?
(c) Ca breast (a) Breast cancer
(d) All of the above (b) Ovarian cancer
5. On prescription of oral pills to the user, (c) Endometrial cancer
the health worker will ask about the (d) Hepatic adenoma
following EXCEPT 13. Which one of the following is not an oral
(a) Number of live children contraceptive pill?
(b) Calf tenderness (a) Estrogen only, mini pill
(c) Headache (b) Estrogen and progesterone, combined
(d) Swelling of feet pill
6. Chemical components of Mala-D are (c) Estrogen followed by progesterone,
(a) D-norgestrel and Ethinyl estradiol sequential pill
(b) D-norgestrel and progestogen (d) Cortisol only pill
(c) Progestogen 14. Eligible couple is maintained at
(d) Northinetone Acetate (a) Sub center
7. Which of the following is the terminal (b) CHC
method of contraceptive in male? (c) PHC
(a) IUD (d) District headquarters
(b) Chemical methods 15. Best indicator of fertility?
(c) Vasectomy (a) GER (General fertility rate)
(d) Condom (b) TER (Total fertility rate)
8. Eligible couple represents which age (c) CBR (Crude birth rate)
group of woman? (d) NRR (Net reproductive rate)
(a) 12-45 years 16. Data indicate the optimum time for
(b) 15-45 years termination of pregnancy is
(c) 14-45 years (a) 20weeks
(d) 18-45 years (b) 12 weeks
9. The metal which is commonly used for (c) 28 weeks
family planning is: (d) 24 weeks
(a) Copper 17. Mean birth weight in India is
(b) Aluminum (a) 2.0-2.3 kg
(c) Iron (b) 2.3-2.5 kg
(d) Silver (c) 2.5-2.9 kg
10. Still birth rate includes fetus dies after: (d) 3.0 – 3.5 kg
(a) 20 weeks 18. Road-to-Health chart was given by
(b) 24 weeks (a) David Morley
(c) 28 weeks (c) Koch Darwin
-:: 13 ::-
(b) John Snow (c) Both a and b
(d) Dukes (d) Condom
19. The best parameter for assessment of 26. The emergency contraceptive for women
chronic malnutrition is (a) Mala-D
(a) Weight for age (b) Mala-N
(b) Weight for height (c) Levonorgestrel
(c) Height for age (d) Progesterone
(d) Mid upper arm circumference 27. Which of the below is a natural
20. Which of the following parameter is the contraceptive method?
best indicator for nutritional status of (a) Breast feeding
child? (b) Condom
(a) Head circumference (c) Copper-T
(b) Mid-arm circumference (d) IUD
(c) Chest circumference 28. Which of the following is a common side
(d) Rate of increase of height and weight effect of Intrauterine Device?
21. Small for gestational age newborns are at (a) Vaginal Bleeding
risk for difficulty maintaining body (b) Pelvic Inflammatory disease
temperature because (c) Uterine perforation
(a) They have less fat storage than other (d) Ectopic pregnancy
infants 29. Conventional Contraceptives are
(b) They are relatively small in size which (a) Condom
reduces the body surface area (b) IUD
(c) They are more active (c) Coitus Interrupts
(d) Their skin is more susceptible to cold (d) OCP
22. Medical termination of pregnancy can be 30. Which of the following is the terminal
done by a registered medical practitioner method of contraceptive in male?
if the gestation period is less than (a) IUD
(a) 8 weeks (b) Barrier method
(b) 12 weeks (c) Vasectomy
(c) 20 weeks (d) Condom
(d) 24 weeks 31. Spermicide in Contraceptive TODAY is:
23. What are the amounts of calories and (a) Norethisterone
proteins received by a pregnant woman (b) 9-Nonoxynol
from the Anganwadi worker? (c) Prostaglandin F2
(a) 300 cals, 15 gm protein (d) MPA
(b) 500 cals, 15 gm protein 32. Barrier methods are all Except:
(c) 300 cals, 25 gm protein (a) Diaphragm
(d) 500 cals, 25 gm protein (b) Foam tablets
24. Eligible couples are those couple whose (c) Vaginal-sponge
wife is in the age group of (d) Lippes loop
(a) 18-35 years 33. Non medicated Intra Uterine Devices
(b) 18-40 years (IUDs) are called as
(c) 15-45 years (a) 3rd generation IUD
(d) 20-45 years (b) 2nd generation IUD
25. Natural method of contraception is........... (c) 1st generation IUD
(a) Coitus interruptus (d) Multi - load devices
(b) Breastfeeding
-:: 14 ::-
34. CuT-380A IUD should be replaced once in 42. IUD associated most commonly with
(a) 4 years expulsion is
(b) 6 years (a) Lippes loop
(c) 8 years (b) Cu-T 200
(d) 10 years (c) Cu -T 380
35. IUCD of choice in a woman with (d) LNG IUD
menorrhagia is - 43. Radiopaque material in copper T is
(a) Lippes loop (a) Silicon
(b) Cu T 200 (b) BaSO4
(c) Cu T 380A (c) Carbon
(d) Progesterone containing IUCD (d) None
36. Multiload device refers to? 44. CuT is preferably inserted postnatal after
(a) 1st generation IUCD (a) 2 weeks
(b) 3rd generation IUCD (b) 4 weeks
(c) 2nd generation IUCD (c) 5 weeks
(d) Barrier contraceptive (d) 8 weeks
37. Most effective Cu T is? 45. Best contraceptive for a newly married
(a) Cu T 380 healthy couple is-
(b) Cu T 220 (a) Barrier method
(c) Cu T 200 (b) IUCD
(d) ML-Cu-250 (c) Oral contraceptive pills
38. In Cu T 200, the number denotes (d) Natural methods
(a) Weight in microgram 46. A packet of oral contraceptive pills
(b) Weight in milligram consists.....
(c) Surface area (a) 21 contraceptive and 7 iron pills
(d) Volume of device (b) 28 contraceptive pills and 5 iron pills
39. The following statements are true about (c) 23 contraceptive pills and 5 iron pills
IUD except: (d) 14 contraceptive and 14 iron pills
(a) Multiload Cu-375 is a 3rd generation IUD 47. Which of the following is not an absolute
(b) The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and contraindication for OCP?
CuT-200 are similar (a) Nursing mother
(c) IUD can be used for Emergency (b) Breast cancer
Contraception within 5 days (c) Cardiac abnormality
(d) Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an (d) H/O Thromboembolism
effective life of 5 years. 48. Serious complication of oral contraceptive
40. Which IUCD acts for 10 years? is:
(a) Cu-T 200 (a) Leg vein thrombosis
(b) Nova 1 (b) Headache
(c) Cu-T 380 (c) Break through bleeding
(d) Multiload (d) Breast tenderness
41. Characteristics of an Ideal candidate for 49. The dose of Ethinyl estradiol in Mala-N is:
Cu-T include all of the following except - (a) 20 ugm
(a) Has borne at least one child (b) 30 ugm
(b) Is willing to check IUD (c) 50 ugm
(c) Has a history of ectopic pregnancy (d) 100 ugm
(d) Has normal menstrual periods
-:: 15 ::-
50. Mala- N oral contraceptive pill differs from (a) Calendar method
Mala-D in terms of (b) Billing method
(a) Norgestrel dosage (c) Symptothermic method
(b) Estradiol dosage (d) BBT (Basal body temperature) method
(c) Sold under social marketing scheme 58. "Persona" is a method of -
(d) Supplied free of cost (a) Natural contraceptive
51. Hormonal contraceptive of choice in (b) Hormonal contraceptive
lactating woman is (c) Barrier contraceptive
(a) Combined pill (d) IUCD
(b) Multiphasic pill 59. Most common method of sterilization
(c) Mini pill practiced in India
(d) Centchroman (a) Female sterilization
52. Minipills are contraceptive of choices for (b) Male sterilization
(a) Elderly females (c) Both equally common
(b) Lactating females (d) None
(c) Obese women 60. in which year, a nationwide family
(d) Menstruating women planning programme was launched in
53. Schedule of administration of mini pill India
containing 75 microgram of Desogestrel of (a) 1948
contraception is (b) 1950
(a) Once a day pill for 3 month + 7 day pill free (c) 1952
interval (d) 1955
(b) Once a day pill for 2 month + 7 day pill free 61. Most cost effective family planning
interval method is
(c) Taken for 21 days with 7 day pill free (a) Vasectomy
interval (b) Tubectomy
(d) Taken for 28 days with no pill free interval (c) Copper T
54. Minipills contain: (d) Oral pills
(a) Only progestin in small quantity 62. Which of the following method is most
(b) Progesterone and estrogen in small suitable for the couple who is already
quantity having two children?
(c) Estrogen in small quantity and (a) Condom and Contraceptive pills
progesterone in large (b) Tubectomy
(d) None of the (c) Contraceptive pills and IUDS
55. DMPA is an injectable contraceptive given (d) Condom and Diaphragm
every: 63. Following vasectomy for family planning,
(a) 2 weeks A patient should be advised to use some
(b) 2 months other method of contraception, till:
(c) 2 years (a) Removal of all sutures
(d) 3 months (b) Pain completely subsides
56. Safe period is calculated by (c) Two weeks
(A) Length of menstrual period (d) Eight weeks
(b) Duration and date of ovulation 64. In emergency contraception, which
(C) Length of ovulation progesterone is used
(d) Length of luteal phase (a) Northisterone
57. Which of the following Natural method of (b) Medroxyprogesterone
contraception is most effective (c) Desogestrel
-:: 16 ::-
(d) Levonorgestrel (d) Arunachal Pradesh
65. The MTP Act does not allow termination of 5. The poorest child sex ratio among the
pregnancy after...... Indian states, in 2011 census is found in…..
(a) 20 weeks (a) Haryana
(b) 24 weeks (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) 28 weeks (c) Gujarat
(d) 30 weeks (d) Bihar
1. [b] 2. [c] 3. [b] 4. [d] 5. [a] 6. Census is taking usually in every.........
6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [b] 9. [a] 10. [c] (a) 2 years
11. [b] 12. [a] 13. [d] 14. [a] 15. [d] (b) 5 years
16. [d] 17. [c] 18. [a] 19. [b] 20. [b] (c) 1 year
21. [d] 22. [c] 23. [c] 24. [d] 25. [c] (d) 10 years
26. [c] 27. [a] 28. [a] 29. [a] 30. [c] 7. The first complete census of India was
conducted in......
31. [b] 32. [d] 33. [c] 34. [d] 35. [d]
(a) 1911
36. [b] 37. [a] 38. [c] 39. [c] 40. [c]
(b) 1901
41. [c] 42. [a] 43. [b] 44. [d] 45. [c]
(c) 1891
46. [a] 47. [a] 48. [a] 49. [b] 50. [d]
(d) 1881
51. [c] 52. [b] 53. [d] 54. [a] 55. [d]
8. Both birth and death are to be registered
56. [a] 57. [d] 58. [a] 59. [a] 60. [c]
within...............
61. [a] 62. [b] 63. [d] 64. [d] 65. [b]
(a) 1 Month
DEMOGRAPHY (b) 1 Year
(c) 45 Days
1. If birth rate is high and death rate is (d) 21 days
declining the country will be in which 9. ....... is the surveillance where reports are
stage of demographic cycle awaited and no attempts are made to seek
(a) High stationary reports actively from the participants in
(b) Late expanding the system?
(c) Early expanding (a) Passive surveillance
(d) Low stationary (b) Active surveillance
2. In the demographic cycle, at which stage
(c) Sentinel surveillance
does India stands at present? (d) None of the above
(a) High stationary 10. ....... is the surveillance which is based on
(b) Late expanding the collection of data from a sample
(c) Early expanding (random or non-random) of collecting
(d) Low stationary sites as indicator data for the rest of the
3. Sex ratio is used to describe the......... population, in order to identify cases of a
(a) Number of males per 1000 females disease early?
(b) Number of females per 1000 males (a) Passive surveillance
(c) Number of males per 1000 births (b) Active surveillance
(d) Number of females per 1000 births (c) Sentinel surveillance
4. The highest child sex ratio among the (d) None of the above
Indian states, as per the 2011 census is
11. Measuring the occurrence of particular
found in event in a population during given period
(a) Haryana of time:
(b) Uttar Pradesh (a) Proportion
(c) Kerala (b) Ratio
-:: 17 ::-
(c) Rate 19. Where is the Central Surveillance Unit of
(d) Frequency IDSP located?
12. The poorest sex ratio among the Indian (a) NCDC
states is found in............ (b) ICMR
(a) Assam (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(b) Bihar (d) AIIMS
(c) Rajasthan 20. ..... analysis is based on quality or attribute
(d) Haryana and not on precise measurement.
13. The tools of measurement include all, (a) Interpretation of data
except: (b) Qualitative
(a) Rate (c) Quantitative
(b) Frequency (d) None of the above
(c) Proportion 21. Which state has lowest infant mortality
(d) Ratio rate:
14. If birth rate is low and death rate is low, (a) Kerala
the country will be in which stage of (b) West Bengal
demographic cycle (c) Tamil Nadu
(a) High stationary (d) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Late expanding 22. Approximately how many people in the
(c) Early expanding world are affected by iron deficiency?
(d) Low stationary (a) 50 million
15. If birth rate and death rate is declining the (b) 250 million
country will be in which stage of (c) 750 million
demographic cycle (d) 2 billion
(a) High stationary 23. One of the following is a universally
(b) Late expanding accepted indicator of health status and
(c) Early expanding socio economic condition of a country:
(d) Low stationary (a) Maternal mortality rate
16. The important sources of vital statistics in (b) Life expectancy
India are............. (c) Under 5 proportionate rate
(a) Population census (d) Infant mortality rate
(b) Civil registration system 24. The most universally accepted indicator of
(c) Sample registration system health status is:
(d) All of the above (a) Crude death rate
17. In Sample registration system, the survey (b) Case fatality rate
will be conducting in every.................. (c) Infant mortality rate
(a) 6 months (d) Adult mortality rate
(b) 1year 25. All of the following are vital health
(c) 5 years statistics which de termines community
(d) 3 months health status except:
18. Central Birth and Death Registration Act (a) Death rate
was passed in....... (b) Birth rate
(a) 1969 (c) Life expectancy
(b) 1881 (d) Migration rate
(c) 1950
(d) 1947
-:: 18 ::-
1. [c] 2. [b] 3. [b] 4. [d] 5. [a] 7. Zinc phosphide is an efficient:
6. [d] 7. [d] 8. [d] 9. [a] 10. [c] (a) Rodenticide
11. [c] 12. [d] 13. [b] 14. [d] 15. [b] (b) Insecticide
16. [d] 17. [a] 18. [a] 19. [a] 20. [b] (c) Bactericide
21. [a] 22. [d] 23. [b] 24. [c] 25. [d] (d) Disinfectant
8. The following diseases can be transmitted
by water and food, except:
Communicable Disease (a)Hepatitis C
1. During cholera outbreak, the best (b) Hepatitis A
emergency sanitation measures to be (c) Cholera
adopted will be (d) Poliomyelitis
(a) Chemoprophylaxis 9. Which of the following infection of
(b) Mass vaccination animal’s primary transmitted through
(c) Disinfection of stool milk?
(d) Provision of chlorinated water (a) Tuberculosis
2. Mass drug administration is related to (b) Dengue
which disease? (c) Plague
(a) Malaria (d) Leptospirosis
(b) Filaria 10. "Chikungunya' species belongs to which
(c) Polio family?
(d) Chickenpox (a) Togaviridae
3. Glucose is added to antidiarrheal solution (b) Flaviviridae
because: (c) Bunyaviridae
(a) It tastes sweet (d) Reoviridae
(b) Increases absorption of amino acids 11. Scabies is a
(c) Increases absorption of sodium (a) Non-communicable disease
(d) All of above (b) Contagious disease
4. Which of the following is Zoonotic (c) Bacterial infection
disease? (d) Fungal infection
(a) Chikungunya 12. The obligate refers to the ............
(b) Malaria (a) Host in which the parasite remains
(c) Rabies asexual
(d) AIDS (b) Temporary host
5. The effective preventive measures for (c) Only host
AIDS are use of condom, which provides (d) Multiple hosts
protection against: 13. Transport host is one in which.......
(a) Inhibition of sperm action (a) Parasite passes its sexual stage
(b) Spermicidal action (b) Parasite remains asexual
(c) Agglutination of spermatozoa (c) Organism remain alive but does not
(d) All of the above undergo development
6. Characteristic feature of a zoonotic (d) Life cycle is not complete
infection is: 14. Incubatory carrier is....
(a) Swimming pool granuloma (a) A person capable of transmitting an
(b) Carbuncle infectious agent to others during the
(c) Malignant pustule incubation period of the disease
(d) Vincent's angina (b) A person who is continue to shed disease
causing agent during the period of recovery
-:: 19 ::-
(c) A person or other organism that has (d) Rubella
contracted an Infectious disease, but who 22. Koplik's spot are the clinical feature of.....
displays no symptoms. Although unaffected (a) Measles
by the disease themselves, carriers can (b) Pertussis
transmit it to others. (c) Chickenpox
(d) A person who carry micro organism (d) Rubella
23. What type of toxin is produced by
15. Mode of spread of whooping cough is: Clostridium tetani?
(a) Direct contact (a) Exotoxin
(b) Droplet infection (b) Endotoxin
(c) Fomite (c) Organic toxin
(d) Water borne (d) Inorganic toxin
16. Chain of spread of malaria is................ 24. Rabies is caused by a virus called:
(a) Man-arthropod-man (a) Filaria
(b) Man-pig-man (b) Lyssavirus type 1
(c) Mammal-bird-man (c) Myxovirus
(d) Bird-arthropod-man (d) Adenovirus
17. Which of the following is the method of 25. Boiling water helps in killing all
transmission of infection by vector? organisms: EXCEPT
(a) Biting (a) Fungi
(b) Regurgitation (b) Bacteria
(c) Scratching in-of infective feces (c) Protozoa
(d) All of the above (d) Spores
18. The maximum size of droplet nuclei that 26. ............................disease has received
can be inhaled into alveoli of lungs is- maximum social stigma in India.
(a)1-2 microns (a) Tuberculosis
(b) 1-5 microns (b) Leprosy
(c) 5-7 microns (c) Polio
(d) 7-10 microns (d) Cholera
19. Negri bodies are found in which disease 27. The another name for leprosy is
condition? (a) Hansen's disease
(a) Rabies (b) Anderson's diseases
(b) Measles (c)Chagas disease
(c) Mumps (d) Slim of disease
(d) Pertussis 28. The last known natural case of smallpox
20. The other name of pertussis is: was reported in the word in:
(a) Rubella (a) 1977
(b) Whooping cough (b) 1978
(c) Rubella (c) 1979
(d) Diphtheria (d) 1980
21. Symmetrical unilocular rashes firstly 29. Which of the following viral infections is
appearing from trunk and then on face, transmitted by tick?
arms and legs is a characteristic of (a) Japanese encephalitis
...................... disease. (b) Dengue fever
(a) Smallpox (c) Kyasanur forest disease
(b) Measles (d) Yellow fever
(c) Chickenpox
-:: 20 ::-
30. Strategies of leprosy eradication program (d) All of the above
includes all of the following EXCEPT 37. Tuberculin test denotes:
(a) Early detection and complete treatment (a) Previous or present sensitivity to tubercle
of new leprosy cases. proteins
(b) Early diagnosis and prompt MDT, through (b) Patients is resistant to tuberculosis
routine and special efforts (c) Patients is susceptible to tuberculosis
(c) Strengthening of Disability Prevention (d) Protective immune status of individual
and Medical Rehabilitation (DPMR) services. against tuberculosis.
(d) Centralized leprosy services through 38. The size of respirable dust is:
dedicated hospitals for leprosy treatments (a) 10 microns
31. Mumps presents with a clinical feature (b) 15 microns
of............................. (c) 10 microns
(a) Fever with enlargement of thyroid glands (d) 5microns
(b) Fever with non-supportive enlargement 39. Which of the following viral infections is
of the both parotid glands transmitted by tick?
(c) Fever with supportive enlargement of (a) Japanese encephalitis
parotid glands (b) Dengue fever
(d) Fever, cough and enlargement of (c) Kyasanur forest disease
submandibular glands. (d) Yellow fever
32. An infection which is present in an 40. Kala-azar is transmitted by -
individual but, not sufficient to result in a (a) Aedes mosquito
disease is called as............................... (b) Tsetse fly
(a) Latent infection (c) Sand fly
(b) Clinical infection (d) Mice
(c) Subclinical infection 41. Which disease condition is transmitted by
(d) Secondary infection Aedes mosquito?
33. Dehydrated child will have................ (a) Dengue fever
(a) Skin pinch goes back slowly (b) Chikungunya
(b) Depressed fontanelle (c) Yellow fever
(c) Sunken eyes (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above 42. Koplik's spots are seen in:
34. Most potential agent that can be used in (a) Rubella
bioterrorism: (b) Measles
(a) Viral encephalitis (c) Chikungunya
(b) Brucellosis (d) Chickenpox
(c) TB 43. Causative organism of AIDS:
(d) Clostridium Botulinum (a) Rabies virus
35. Mode of transmission of leprosy is......... (b) CMV
(a) Breast milk (c) Retro virus
(b) Insect bite (d) Adenovirus
(c) Droplet infection 44. DOTS is for ............condition
(d) Both b and c (a) Tuberculosis
36. Intervention used under prevention of (b) Leprosy
spreading STDs include (c) Malaria
(a) Treating STD (d) HIV
(b) Providing condoms
(c) Behavior change communication
-:: 21 ::-
45. Oral rehydrated solution does not 53. Staining technique used to diagnose TB is
contained: known as:
(a) Sodium chloride (a) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
(b) Calcium lactate (b) Gram stain
(c) Bicarbonate (c) Giemsa stain
(d) Glucose (d) PAS
46. Rabies free zone in India........................ 54. Spread of communicable disease across
(a) Goa country to country is referred to:
(b) Lakshadweep (a) Endemic
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Epidemic
(d) Tamil Nadu (c) Episodic
47. Among the following identify the most (d) Pandemic
complicated with mumps 55. Diseases which are transmitted by water
(a) Aseptic meningitis and food are called as:
(b) Mastitis (a) Vector-borne
(c) Orchidites (b) Air -borne
(d) Oopheritis (c) Fomite-borne
48. among the following is the secondary (d) Vehicle-borne
prevention of TB – 56. Which is the full form of DOTS
(a) BCG vaccination chemotherapy?
(b) Sputum testing (a) Directly Observed Treatment Short course
(c) Health education (b) Digitally Operated Treatment Service
(d) DOTS treatment (c) De-oxygenated Tetracycline-Streptomycin
49. Which of the following is the early sign of (d) Doxycyclin-Omaprazole-Tetracycline
leprosy? Short course
(a) Loss of sensation 57. DOTS is a comprehensive strategy to cure.
(b) Lesions over the skin the line element of DOTS is:
(c) Thickened painful nerves (a) Sputum microscopy services
(d) Sinking of the nose bridge (b) Regular drug supply to the patients
50. Amebiasis is transmitted through…. route. (c) Health workers counsel and observe their
(a) Feco-oral patients swallow each anti-TB medications
(b) Parenteral and monitor progress until cured
(c) Vector borne (d) Political will in terms of manpower
(d) Airborne 58. The mosquito that lays eggs singly:
51. Lepromin test is used to diagnose......... (a) Aedes
(a) Leprosy (b) Anopheles
(b) Malaria (c) Culex
(c) TB (d) Mansonia
(d) HIV/AIDS 59. Mass prophylaxis is used in all EXCEPT
52. International health regulation is (a) Rabies
subjected to........... (b) Lymphatic filariasis
(a) Plague (c) Trachoma
(b) Yellow fever (d) Malaria
(c) Cholera 60. Identify the sexually transmitted disease
(d) All of the above among the following:
(a) HIV/AIDS
(b) Herpes simplex-2
-:: 22 ::-
(c) Human papilloma virus infection (c) IgE
(d) All of the above (d) IgA
61. Window period means..... 69. Fifth disease is also known as....
(a) Time period between infection and (a) Erythema infectiosum
detection of antibodies (b) Mumps
(b) Time period between infection and first (c) Rubella
sign and symptom (d) Measles
(c) Time period between diagnosis and 70. Chemoprophylaxis of choice in case of
treatment meningococcal meningitis is:
(d) None of the above (a) Rifampicin
62. Schick's test is used to diagnose... (b) Tetracycline
(a) Diphtheria (C) Chloroquine
(b) Pertussis (d) Penicillin
(c) Measles 71. Lepromin test is usually read after:
(d) Mumps (a) 1 week
63. Disease which is also known as barometer (b) 2 weeks
of social welfare is........... (C) 3 weeks
(a) TB (d) 4 weeks
(b) Typhoid 72. Infectivity of whooping cough is during:
(c) Cholera (a) During the entire period of illness
(d) HIV/AIDS (b) After the onset of whoop
64. Most common complication associated (c) 10 days before and 10 days after the onset
with chickenpox in children is of whoop
(a) Secondary bacterial infection (d) None of the above
(b) Meningitis 73. Refrigerated blood for more than 48 hours
(c) Orchitis cannot transmit:
(d) Otitis media (a) HIV
65. Complications of chickenpox include (b) Hepatitis B
(a) Rey's syndrome (c) Syphilis
(b) Pneumonia (d) Gonorrhea
(c) Cerebellar ataxia 74. Classification of leprosy is based upon:
(d) All of the above (a) Bacteriological status
66. Isolation required in salmonellosis until… (b) Immunological status
(a) 3 days after initiating antibiotic therapy (c) Histological status
(b) 3 consecutive blood become negative (d) All of the above
(c) 3 consecutive blood culture become 75. Diphtheria carrier is identified through
negative (a) Throat swab culture
(d) Rashes disappear (b) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
67. Drug of choice for cholera is (c) Gram stain
(a) Tetracycline (d) Albert stain
(b) Penicillin 76. Time period between infection and
(c) Chloramphenicol detection of antibodies against HIV is
(d) Co-trimoxazole known as:
68. Congenital rubella is diagnosed in infant (a) Acute Infection
with the help of........... antibodies in infant (b) Chronic Infection
(a) IgM (c) Active HIV
(b) IgG (d) Window Period
-:: 23 ::-
77. Which one of the following disease is not 85. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of
transmitted by Fecal-Oral route? (a) Enteric fever
(a) Enteric fever (b) Malaria
(b) Measles (c) Cholera
(c) Cholera (d) Plague
(d) Hepatitis - A 86. Which among the following disease is not
78. WHO declared global eradication of small due to Aedes mosquitoes?
pox on? (a) Filariasis
(a) 26th October 1977 (b) Yellow fever
(b) 5th July 1975 (c) Dengue fever
(c) 17th May 1975 (d) Chikungunya fever
(d) 8th May 1980 87. World AIDS day is celebrated every year
79. Dengue fever is transmitted by: on:
(a) Culex fatigues (a) July 11th
(b) Culex vishnui (b) December 25th
(c) Aedes Aegypti (c) December 1st
(d) Glossina palpalis (d) June 5th
80. The infection which is acquired from 88. Which among the malarial parasite is
animals to human is: responsible for cerebral malaria?
(a) Plague (a) P. vivax
(b) Polio (b) P. ovale
(c) Pertussis (c) P. falciparum
(d) Malaria (d) P. quartan
81. Syphilis is caused by: 89. Incubation period of Chikungunya fever
(a) HIV is:
(b) Papilloma (a) 10-13 days
(c) Neisseria (b) 1-2 days
(d) Treponema (c) 14-16 days
82. Malaria infection can be transmitted by: (d) 4-7 days
(a) Blood transfusion 90. Causative organism of yellow fever is:
(b) Bite of infected female anopheles (a) Myxovirus
mosquito (b) Rhabdovirus
(c) Vertical transmission through placental (c) Enterovirus
defect (d) Arbovirus
(d) All of the above 91. Incubation period of chicken pox ranges
83. Malarial transmission occurs by: from:
(a) Vector (a) 20-25 days
(b) Food and water (b) 30-40 days
(c) Air borne (c) 6-10 days
(d) Fomite (inanimate object) (d) 14-16 days
84. Which of the following disease is 92. The characteristic fever found in typhoid
transmitted through dog bite? is:
(a) Influenza (a) Relapsing fever
(b) Yellow fever (b) Step ladder fever
(c) Herpes (c) Intermittent fever
(d) Rabies (d) Continuous fever
93. Mode of spread of polio infection is:
-:: 24 ::-
(a) Through vectors (d) Malaria
(b) Droplet infection 102. The procedure of 'Quarantine' was
(c) Fecal-oral route introduced to protect against
(d) Through blood (a) Yellow fever
94. Causative agent of mumps is: (b) Cholera
(a) Bordetella (c) Leprosy
(b) Paramyxovirus (d) Plague
(c) Toga virus 103. Scarlet fever is caused by
(d) H. influenza (a) S. pyogenes
95. First AIDs case in India was reported in the (b) Gonococci
year? (c) Meningococci
(a) 1987 (d) S. Typhi
(b) 1982 104. Which of the following communicable
(c) 1992 disease has been eradicated from the
(d) 2002 world?
96. Which part of body is affected in typhoid? (a) Chickenpox
(a) Lungs (b) Smallpox
(b) Intestines (c) German measles
(c) Liver (d) Poliomyelitis
(d) Pancreas 105. Which of the following disease has been
97. Malaria is caused by a: eradicated from India?
(a) Protozoa (a) Measles
(b) Virus (b) Mumps
(c) Bacteria (c) Guinea worm disease
(d) Fungi (d) Leprosy
98. Most common cause of post measles 106. Vector responsible for Japanese
death is encephalitis is
(a) SSPE (a) Anopheles
(b) RTI (b) Culex
(c) Weakness (c) Aedes
(d) Diarrhea (d) Mansonoides
99. Congenital varicella is related with which 107. Life cycle from egg to a complete adult
diseases? mosquito takes
(a) Mumps (a) 2-6 days
(b) Germen measles (b) 7-10 days
(c) Measles (c) 10-15 days
(d) Chicken pox (d) 14-21 days
100. Drug of choice for leprosy? 108. Maximum permissible chloride level in a
(a) DEC litre of water is
(b) Dapsone (a) 200 mg
(c) Streptomycin (b) 400 mg
(d) Ivermectin (c) 600 mg
101. Which of the following diseases is known (d) 800 mg
as "Barometer of social welfare"? 109. Insecticide used for ultra-low volume
(a) Leprosy fogging is
(b) Tuberculosis (a) Pyrethrum
(c) Cholera (b) DDT
-:: 25 ::-
(c) Fenthion (b) Tuberculosis
(d) Malathion (c) Pertussis
110. Which among the following is the most (d) Mumps
important treatment of patients with 118. Which of the following chain of infection is
Dengue H-fever? in the correct order?
(a) Aspirin for fever (a) Mode of transmission → Source/reservoir
(b) Apply ice cap over abdomen to prevent → Host
melena (b) Mode of transmission → Host →
(c) Replace body fluids Source/reservoir
(d) Use NSAIDs to control fever (c) Host → source/reservoir → Mode of
111. Who found the link between cholera and Transmission
contaminated water? (d) Source/reservoir→ Mode of Transmission
(a) Louis Pasteur → Host
(b) Ronald Ross 119. Quarantine period should be
(c) Edward Jenner (a) Minimum incubation period
(d) John Snow (b) Maximum incubation period
112. Malaria parasite was discovered by? (c) Period of communicability
(a) Robert Koch (d) Median incubation period
(b) Louis Pasteur 120. Which is the main agent of Typhoid fever?
(c) Dr. Alphonse Laveran (a) Salmonella Typhi
(d) Ronald Ross (b) Salmonella paratyphi A
113. Which of the following is also called as (c) Salmonella paratyphi B
epidemic parotitis? (d) Shigella
(a) Measles 121. Chemoprophylaxis can be done for the
(b) Chicken Pox following EXCEPT
(c) Mumps (a) Meningitis
(d) Pertussis (b) Typhoid
114. Which among the following is an airborne (c) Cholera
disease? (d) Diphtheria
(a) Typhoid 122. Which of the following disinfectant is used
(b) Kala-Azar for blood spill?
(c) Tuberculosis (a) Glutaraldehyde
(d) Malaria (b) Phenol
115. Example of water borne disease is (c) Ethanol
(a) Malaria (d) Sodium hypochlorite
(b) Cholera 123. Which is the causative organism of
(c) Tuberculosis Diphtheria?
(d) Rabies (a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
116. Which of these diseases is NOT a Water (b) Treponema pallidum
Borne Disease? (c) Corynebacterium Diphtheria
(a) Typhoid fever (d) Myxovirus parotitis
(b) Cholera 124. Which of the following is the mode of
(c) Hepatitis A transmission of Hepatitis A?
(d) Tuberculosis (a) Sexual contact
117. Which of the following disease can be (b) Use of contaminated needles and
diagnosed by Mantoux test? syringes
(a) Diphtheria (c) Vertical transmission
-:: 26 ::-
(d) Contaminated food and water 133. Sputum examination for AFB is an
125. Hydrophobia is the clinical feature of example of
(a) Mumps (a) Primordial prevention
(b) Pertussis (b) Primary prevention
(c) Rabies (c) Secondary prevention
(d) Tetanus (d) Tertiary prevention
126. Small pox eradication was NOT due to: 134. Which of the following drug in DOTS
(a) Highly effective vaccine therapy can cause deafness?
(b) Cross-immunity with animal pox virus (a) Ethambutol
(c) Subclinical infection does not transmit the (b) Isoniazid
disease (c) Rifampicin
(d) Lifelong immunity (d) Streptomycin
127. Characteristic rashes present in measles is 135. Which of the following infection of
known as: animals primarily can be transmitted
(a) Koplik spots through milk?
(b) Pleomorphic (a) Tuberculosis
(c) Vesicular rashes (b) Dengue
(d) Flushing (c) Plague
128. Most serious complication of measles is: (d) Leptospirosis
(a) Koplik spots 136. Which of the following test is done to test
(b) Parotitis the efficiency of pasteurization of milk
(c) Meningoencephalitis (a) Coliform count
(d) Nephritis (b) Methylene blue
129. In measles, Koplik spots are seen in (c) Reduction test
(a) Prodromal stage (d) Indicator test
(b) Post measles stage 137. Which of the following test is done to
(c) Eruptive Stage check the presence of tuberculosis in
(d) None of the above human being?
130. the most appropriate test to assess the (a) Western Blot
prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a (b) Widal test
community is: (c) Mantoux test
(a) Mass miniature Radiography (d) ELISA test
(b) Sputum examination 138. Case finding in RNTCP is based on:
(c) Tuberculin test (a) Sputum culture
(d) Clinical examination (b) Sputum microscopy
131. Incidence of TB in a community measured (c) X-ray chest
by: (d) Mantoux test/ PCR
(a) Sputum smear positivity 139. All among the following are bacteriocidal
(b) Positive Tuberculin test ATT drugs except
(c) Sputum culture (a) Rifampicin
(d) Mantoux test positive (b) Ethambutol
132. Nosocomial infection developed: (c) Streptomycin
(a) Within 24 hours after hospitalization (d) Pyrazinamide
(b) Within 48 hours of hospitalization 140. Dehydration in a child with diarrhea,
(c) After 48 hours of hospitalization thirst present, tears absent is:
(d) After 7 days of hospitalization (a) Mild
(b) Moderate
-:: 27 ::-
(c) Severe (c) Dracunculiasis
(d) None (d) Rabies
141. During a home visit, a community health 149. Zoonotic disease transmitted by
nurse found a child who is suffering from arthropods is/are.
diarrhea and vomiting. What would be the (a) Plague
nurse teach the mother to prepare first? (b) Melioidioses
(a) Oral dextrose solution (c) Rabies
(b) Oral rehydration solution (d) Leptospirosis
(c) Oral saline solution 150. Rabies free country is?
(d) Semi solid food (a) China
142. New WHO ORS Osmolarity is: (b) India
(a) 270 (c) Australia
(b) 245 (s) France
(c) 290 151. Rabies is also known as....
(d) 310 (a) Hydrophobia
143. Which of the following is NOT present in (b) MiniMata disease
ORS? (c) Leptospirods
(a) Glucose (d) Kawasaki disease
(b) Calcium gluconate 152. Which is not transmitted by Aedes
(c) Potassium chloride aegypti?
(d) Sodium chloride (a) Yellow fever
144. ORS should be discarded after………of (b) Dengue
preparation (c) Japanese encephalitis
(a) 4 hours (d) Chikungunya
(b) 6 hours 153. Chikungunya is transmitted by?
(c) 12 hours (a) Aedes
(d) 24 hours (b) Culex
145. Drug of choice for cholera (c) Mansonoides
chemoprophylaxis is: (d) Anopheles
(a) Erythromycin 154. An example of epidemic disease is
(b) Ampicillin (a) Plague
(c) Ciprofloxacin (b) Fracture
(d) Tetracycline (c) AIDS
146. Malaria is transmitted by: (d) Hypertension
(a) Female anopheles 155. Plague is transmitted by:
(b) Male anopheles (a) Hard tick
(c) Culex (b) Soft tick
(d) Aedes (c) Rat flea
147. Which of the following is a zoonotic (d) Louse
disease 156. The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis
(a) Hydatid cyst in contacts of a patient of plague is:
(b) Malaria (a) Penicillin
(c) Filariasis (b) Rifampicin
(d) Dengue fever (c) Erythromycin
148. All are anthropozoonotic disease EXCEPT (d) Tetracycline
(a) Plague 157. Kala-azar is transmitted by:
(b) Hydatid disease (a) Phlebotomus sergenti
-:: 28 ::-
(b) Phlebotomus argentipes 165. HIV post exposure prophylaxis should be
(c) Phlebotomus papatassi started within-
(d) All (a) 24 hours
158. Strategy for prevention of neonatal (b) 72 hours
tetanus include all except: (c) 48 hours
(a) TT to all females in reproductive age (d) 6 hours
group. 166. HIV transmission from mother to child can
(b) Giving penicillin to all neonates. be reduced by all except:
(c) 2 doses of TT to all unimmunized (a) Caesarean section
pregnant women. (b) Vitamin A supplementation
(d) Three clean's techniqes (c) Stopping breastfeeding
159. In Tetanus communicable period is: (d) Nevirapine to antenatal mother and
(a) 7 day newborn after delivery
(b) 10 day 167. In which of the of the following condition
(c) 14 day breastfeeding is contraindicated?
(d) None (a) Hepatitis C
160. What reaction might occur due to tetanus (b) Leprosy
vaccine? (c) Tuberculosis
(a) Febrile seizures (d) Typhoid
(b) Brachial neuritis 168. First country in in South East Asia to report
(c) Hypotonic muscles AIDS was:
(d) Encephalopathy (a) Sri Lanka
161. Lepromin test is used for all of the (b) India
following except: (c) Thailand
(a) Classify the lesions of leprosy patients (d) Bangladesh
(b) Determine the prognosis of disease 169. Window period for HIV infection is:
(c) Assess the resistance of individuals to (a) 3-12 Week
leprosy (b) 8-20 Week
(d) Diagnosis of leprosy (c) 6-24 Week
162. Which of the following communicable (d) None
diseases is treated by the drug Dapsone? 170. HIV is NOT transmitted by:
(a) Tuberculosis (a) Eating with a person having HIV
(b) Hepatitis B (b) Unprotected sex
(c) Leprosy (c) Use of unsterile syringes
(d) Syphilis (d) Transfusion of HIV infected blood
163. Scabies is caused by: 171. Which of the following is a sexually
(a) Trichophyton transmitted diseases?
(b) Dermatophyton (a) Fibroid uterus
(c) Mycobacterium (b) Gonorrhea
(d) Sarcoptes scabiei (c) Ovarian cancer
164. HIV virus was discovered in the year (d) SLE
(a) 1981 172. High prevalence of Tuberculosis found in
(b) 1996 which of the following group of people?
(c) 1986 (a) Smokers
(d) 1983 (b) Diabetics
(c) Asthmatics
(d) HIV positive
-:: 29 ::-
173. Commonest mode of transmission of AIDS 181. Multi drug therapy (MDT) is treatment for
in India is: (a) T.B.
(a) Trans placental/mother to child (b) Leprosy
(b) Use of unsterile syringes and needles (c) HIV
(c) Sexual (d) All of the above
(d) Blood transfusion 182. In Tuberculosis combination of
174. Which of the following disease was antimicrobial is used to:
declared eradicated from world? (a) Delay development of resistance
(a) Small pox (b) To reduce toxicity
(b) Guineaworm (c) To broaden antibacterial spectrum
(c) Polio (d) To prevent liberation of toxins from
(d) Diphtheria organism.
175. True about Measles is 183. Anti-tubercular drug contraindicated in
(a) Incubation period is 10 days pregnancy is
(b) Infectious 4 days before the rash (a) Ionized
(c) Koplik spots are seen (b) Rifampicin
(d) All of the above (c) Streptomycin
176. Chicken pox rashes first appear in which (d) Ethambutol
body part? 184. Which type of sample use to collect
(a) Trunk and face poliovirus earliest:
(b) Trunk and legs (a) Stool
(c) Trunk and arms (b) Blood
(d) Arms and legs (c) CSF
177. Measles (Rubeola) rashes first appear in (d) Throat swab
which body part? 185. Which of the following virus is secreted
(a) Trunk through faeces
(b) Face (a) Hepatitis b
(c) Hands (b) HIV
(d) Legs (c) Poliomyelitis
178. Rubella (German measles) rashes first (d) Hepatitis C
appear in which body part? 186. Food poisoning within 6 hours of Intake of
(a) Trunk milk is caused by:
(b) Face (a) Staphylococcus aureous
(c) Hands (b) Bacillus Cereus
(d) Legs (c) Clostridium
179. Keratomalacia is associated with: (d) Salmonella
(a) Diarrhea 187. Food poisoning is caused by all except:
(b) Measles (a) Clostridium
(c) Chickenpox (b) Bacillus cereus
(d) Both a and b (c) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
180. Commonest complication of Mumps (d) Staphylococcus aureus
(a) Pneumonia 188. Chikungunya virus is transmitted through
(b) Encephalitis (a) Aedes mosquito
(c) Aseptic meningitis (b) Chikungunya mosquito
(d) Pancreatitis (c) Culex mosquito
(d) Marsh mosquito
-:: 30 ::-
189. Incubation period of Plasmodium vivax is: (b) Nevirapine for 6 weeks to 3 months to
(a) 5-7 day newborn
(b) 7-10 day (c) Single dose of Zidovudine to newborn
(c) 10-14 day (d) Zidovudine for 3 months to newborn
(d) 15-30 day 196. Following are major criteria of Jones in
190. the most effective way of preventing Rheumatic Fever except:
tetanus is: (a) Carditis
(a) Surgical debridement and toilet (b) Polyarthritis
(b) Hyperbaric oxygen (c) Chorea
(c) Antibiotics (d) Elevated ESR
(d) TT 197. Why a TB patient is recommended a
191. "Five clean practices under strategies for regimen of 4 drugs at Ist visit
elimination of neonatal tetanus include all (a) To avoid emergence of resistance
except: (b) To avoid side effects
(a) Clean surface for delivery (c) To cure disease early
(b) Clean hand of attendant (d) None of the above
(c) New blade for cutting the cord 198. DOTs is the treatment of.......................
(d) Clean airway (a) Typhoid
192. A person received complete immunization (b) Cholera
against tetanus 10 years ago; now he (c) Dengue
presents with a clean wound without any (d) Tuberculosis
lacerations from an injury sustained 2.5 199. Multidrug resistance in TB is defined as
hours ago; He should be given: resistance to -
(a) Full course of TT (a) Streptomycin, Rifampicin and Isoniazid
(b) Single dose of TT (b) Streptomycin and Rifampicin
(c) Human Tetanus globulin. (c) Isoniazid and Rifampicin
(d) Human Tetanus globulin & Single dose of (d) Streptomycin and Isoniazid
TT 200. Anti-tubercular drug not given in children
193. The true statement regarding tetanus is: below 6 years age is
(a) 5 dose immunization provides lifelong (a) Isoniazid
immunity. (b) Rifampicin
(b) TT affords no protection in the present (c) Streptomycin
injury (d) Ethambutol
(c) TT serves no use once 12 hours have 201. Anti-tubercular drug contraindicated
elapsed following injury during pregnancy
(d) TT and Ig may both be given in suspected (a) Isoniazid
tetanus. (b) Rifampicin
194. Drug of choice for Scabies is- (c) Streptomycin
(a) 5% Permethrin (d) Ethambutol
(b) 25% Benzyl benzoate 202. In acute silicosis clinical manifestation is -
(c) Ivermectin (a) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
(d) 5 % Sulfur ointment (b) Hypersensitivity pneumonia
195. Drug used to prevent vertical (c) Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
transmission of HIV infection in a child of (d) Forms nodules and causes
HIV positive pregnant mother is: pneumoconiosis
(a) Single dose of Nevirapine to newborn 203. Q fever is transmitted by
(a) Mosquitos
-:: 31 ::-
(b) Mites 212. Which of the following vector causes
(c) Ticks Scabies?
(d) Flea (a) Mosquito (b) Itch mite
204. Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by: (c) Louse (d) Sand-fly
(a) Mosquito 213. Which of the following is the carrier of
(b) Tick Plague virus?
(c) Mite (a) Dogs and carnivores
(d) Rat flea (b) Rats and rodents
205. Chikungunya is transmitted by (c) Snakes and Reptiles
(a) Aedes (d) Frogs and amphibians
(b) Culex 214. What is the cause of Kala-azar?
(c) Mansonoides (a) Housefly
(d) Anopheles (b) Mosquito
206. Which of the following disease is (c) Sand-fly
transmitted by mosquitoes? (d) Ticks
(a) Dengue 215. Which of the following would be the right
(b) Kala-azar method of choice of discarding the blood
(c) Trypanosomiasis soaked-dressing removed from a HIV
(d) Listeriosis patient?
207. Transovarian transmission is seen in: (a) Pour 1% hypochlorite on the dressing
(a) Rickettsial disease material and send it for incineration in an
(b) Malaria appropriate bag.
(c) Filariasis (b) Pour 5% hypochlorite on the dressing
(d) None material and send it for incineration in an
208. All are "Water-Washed Diseases" except- appropriate bag.
(a) Trachoma (c) Pour 5% Lysol on the dressing material
(b) Scabies and send it for incineration in an appropriate
(c) Conjunctivitis bag
(d) Yellow fever (d) Pour 1% Lysol on the dressing material
209. Scabies, an infection of the skin caused by and send it for incineration in an appropriate
Sarcoptes scabiei, is an example of bag.
(a) Water borne Diseases 216. ART stands for?
(b) Water washed Diseases (a) Antiretroviral Therapy
(c) Water based Diseases (b) Antiretroviral Treatment
(d) Water related Diseases (c) Anti rhesus Treatment
210. Mosquito is not associated with (d) All retroviral Therapy
transmission of- 217. Which of the following is not true about
(a) Malaria Zika Disease?
(b) Typhus (a) Causes Microcephaly in newborn
(c) Dengue fever (b) Caused by a virus and spreads sexually
(d) Japanese encephalitis (c) Caused by bacteria and spreads by
211. Diseases transmitted by water and food contamination
are called as (d) Mosquitoes are the vectors
(a) Vector borne diseases 218. The following infection is transmitted by
(b) Air bone diseases Tick
(c) Fomite borne diseases (a) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Vehicle borne diseases (b) Dengue Fever
-:: 32 ::-
(c) Kyasanur Forest Disease 196. [d] 197. [a] 198. [d] 199. [c] 200. [d]
(d) Yellow Fever 201. [c] 202. [c] 203. [c] 204. [a] 205. [a]
219. Nosocomial infection occurs in: 206. [a] 207. [a] 208. [d] 209. [b] 210. [b]
(a) Agricultural fields 211. [d] 212. [b] 213. [b] 214. [c] 215. [a]
(b) Crowded place 216. [a] 217. [c] 218. [c] 219. [c]
(c) Hospital
(d) Working place Health Programme
1. [d] 2. [b] 3. [c] 4. [c] 5. [a] 1. Which of the following is an international
6. [c] 7. [a] 8. [a] 9. [a] 10. [a] agency which assist in Programme that
11. [b] 12. [c] 13. [c] 14. [a] 15. [b] benefit child health most?
16. [a] 17. [d] 18. [b] 19. [a] 20. [b] (a) UNDP
21. [c] 22. [a] 23. [a] 24. [b] 25. [d] (b) WHO
26. [b] 27. [a] 28. [a] 29. [c] 30. [d] (c) UNICEF
31. [b] 32. [c] 33. [d] 34. [d] 35. [d] (d) Red Cross
36. [d] 37. [a] 38. [d] 39. [c] 40. [c] 2. One basic health worker (multipurpose
41. [d] 42. [b] 43. [c] 44. [a] 45. [b] worker) for 10000 populations was
46. [b] 47. [a] 48. [b] 49. [c] 50. [a] recommended by:
51. [a] 52. [d] 53. [a] 54. [d] 55. [d] (a) Chadha committee
56. [a] 57. [c] 58. [b] 59. [a] 60. [d] (b) Mukherjee committee
61. [a] 62. [a] 63. [a] 64. [a] 65. [d] (c) Bhore committee
66. [b] 67. [a] 68. [a] 69. [a] 70. [a] (d) Mudaliar committee
71. [d] 72. [c] 73. [c] 74. [d] 75. [a] 3. All are true about Anganwadi workers
76. [d] 77. [b] 78. [d] 79. [c] 80. [a] except:
81. [d] 82. [d] 83. [a] 84. [d] 85. [a] (a) Part time worker
(b) Covers population of 5000
86. [a] 87. [c] 88. [c] 89. [d] 90. [d]
(c) Supply Nutrition and educate about
91. [d] 92. [b] 93. [c] 94. [b] 95. [a]
vaccination
96. [b] 97. [a] 98. [b] 99. [d] 100. [b]
(d) Under controls ICDS
101. [b] 102. [d] 103. [a] 104. [b] 105. [c]
4. All are true about midday meal
106. [b] 107. [b] 108. [c] 109. [d] 110. [c]
Programme except:
111. [d] 112. [c] 113. [c] 114. [c] 115. [b]
(a) Should supply one-third daily calories and
116. [d] 117. [b] 118. [d] 119. [b] 120. [a]
half of daily protein
121. [b] 122. [d] 123. [c] 124. [d] 125. [c] (b) Substitute for regular food
126. [b] 127. [a] 128. [c] 129. [a] 130. [c] (c) Locally available foods are used
131. [a] 132. [c] 133. [c] 134. [d] 135. [a] (d) Cheap and easy to prepare
136. [a] 137. [c] 138. [b] 139. [b] 140. [b] 5. Mid-day Meal Programme the meals
141. [b] 142. [b] 143. [b] 144. [d] 145. [d] served should supply at least.........of the
146. [a] 147. [a] 148. [c] 149. [a] 150. [c] total energy requirement:
151. [a] 152. [c] 153. [a] 154. [a] 155. [c] (a) 1/3rd
156. [d] 157. [b] 158. [b] 159. [d] 160. [b] (b) 1/4th
161. [d] 162. [c] 163. [d] 164. [d] 165. [b] (c) 1/6th
166. [b] 167. [c] 168. [c] 169. [a] 170. [a] (d) 3/4th
171. [b] 172. [d] 173. [c] 174. [a] 175. [d] 6. The WHO initiative "Right to Sight" is
176. [a] 177. [b] 178. [b] 179. [d] 180. [c] named as:
181. [d] 182. [a] 183. [c] 184. [a] 185. [c] (a) Vision 2015
186. [a] 187. [c] 188. [a] 189. [c] 190. [d] (b) Vision 2020
191. [d] 192. [b] 193. [d] 194. [a] 195. [b] (c) Vision 2030
-:: 33 ::-
(d) Vision 2025 (d) 2010
7. The diseases that comes under National 15. International labor organization is
vector borne disease control program are situated in:
EXCEPT (a) Geneva
(a) Filariasis (b) Denmark
(b) Japanese encephalitis (c) Scotland
(c) Malaria (d) United states of America
(d) Swine flu 16. An employer contributes.......percentage
8. National malaria eradication program of water of wages for the benefit of
was launched in the year: employee in every wage period under ESI
(a) 1953 Act.
(b) 1958 (a) 1.75%
(c) 1970 (b) 4.75%
(d) 2002 (c) 2.35%
9. Management of area with Annual Parasite (d) 3.75%
Index (API) less than 2 include EXCEPT 17. Midday meal program started in .......year?
(a) Regular insecticidal spray (a) 1960
(b) Passive surveillance (b) 1995
(c) Detected cases gets radical treatment (c) 1961
(d) Follow-up blood smears are to be (d) 2001
collected 18. Health survey and development
10. Case finding in RNTCP is based on: committee is also known as..................?
(a) Sputum culture (a) Bhore committee
(b) Sputum microscopy (b) Chadah committee
(c) X-ray chest (c) Srivastava committee
(d) Mantoux test/PCR (d) Mukherjee committee.
11. Beti bachao beti padhao programme was 19. Bhore Committee was appointed by the
first launched in which state? Govt. of India in the year:
(a) Haryana (a) 1933
(b) Bihar (b) 1953
(c) Uttar Pradesh (c) 1943
(d) Delhi (d) 1963
12. JSY stands for: 20. Child Survival and Safe Motherhood
(a) Janani Swetchath Yojana (CSSM) programme was replaced by which
(b) Jan suraksha Yojana program in India?
(c) Janani Suraksha Yojana (a) MCH
(d) Jan Sulabh-sauchalay Yojan (b) NRHM
13. The act that is recommended for provision (c) RCH
of crèches for Women In factory: (d) ICDS
(a) ESI Act 1948 21. In India the target disease included in
(b) The Indian Mines Act 1923 vision 2020 is:
(c) The Factories Act 1976 (a) Cataract
(d) CGHS (b) Refractive errors
14. ESI ACT, 1948 was last amended in the year (c) Childhood blindness
(a) 2008 (d) All of the above
(b) 1998
(c) 1989
-:: 34 ::-
22. Which of the following day is celebrated as 30. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana is a
world environment day? Government run insurance scheme for
(a) May 1 (a) Poor people
(b) September 5 (b) Older persons
(c) December 1 (c) Girl children
(d) June 5 (d) All women
23. Which of the following is an activity of 31. Which of the following is the Beti Padhao
under-five clinics? Scheme?
(a) Mid-day meal program (a) Financial help for girl child until her 14
(b) Child education years of age
(c) Growth monitoring (b) Celebrate girl child help and enable her
(d) School health services education
24. Which of the following is observed as anti- (c) Government of employment for girl child
malaria month? (d) All of the above
(a) December 32. in which state Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
(b) May Scheme was launched?
(c) June (a) Rajasthan
(d) January (b) Haryana
25. The Goal of Health for all by 2000 AD" was (c) Uttar Pradesh
proposed in world health assembly in the (d) Bihar
year: 33. Name the special deposit account under
(a) 1966 Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme?
(b) 1948 (a) Suraksha Samriddhi Account
(c) 1957 (b) Sukanya Samriddhi Account
(d) 1978 (c) Beti Samriddhi Account
26. Alma Ata Declaration was made in: (d) Janani Samriddhi Account
(a) 1948 34. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana will
(b) 1978 cover
(c) 1967 (a) Death due to accident
(d) 2002 (b) Disablement due to accident
27. National tuberculosis control program (c) Both disablement and death due to
was adopted in India in the year: accident
(a) 1960 (d) Death due to communicable diseases
(b) 1966 35. What is the cover amount for full disability
(c) 1962 in Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana?
(d) 1964 (a) 1 lakh
28. Which day is celebrated as Labor Day? (b) 2 lakhs
(a) 1st June (c) 4 lakhs
(b) 30th May (d) 5 lakhs
(c) 1st May 36. Which of the following is NOT induced as a
(d) None of the above target disease in Vision 2020, a global
29. MTP Act (1971) in India specifies all of the initiative to reduce avoidable blindness by
following except the year 2020
(a) Persons who should perform abortion (a) Cataract
(b) Conditions for abortion (b) Refractive error
(c) Techniques of abortions (c) Childhood blindness
(d) Place for conducting abortions (d) Diabetic retinopathy
-:: 35 ::-
37. Components of RCH 1 include all of the (b) 1992
following EXCEPT (c) 1995
(a) Family planning (d) 1997
(b) CSSM 46. Revised national tuberculosis control
(c) Prevention of STD program Launched in the year of............
(d) Emergency obstetric care (a) 1962
38. Component of RCH II include all EXCEPT (b) 1997
(a) Emergency obstetric care (c) 1995
(b) Essential obstetric care (d) 1992
(c) Family planning 47. First round of pulse polio immunization
(d) Strengthening of referral system program launched in the year of............
39. Vande Mataram scheme is included in (a) 1962
(a) RCH program (b) 1997
(b) JSY program (c) 1995
(c) IMNCI program (d) 1993
(d) ICDS program 48. NRHM was started in:
40. Urban malaria scheme is based on (a) 2005
(a) Epidemiological survey (b) 2006
(b) Anti-adult mosquito measure (c) 2007
(c) Anti-larval measures (d) 2008
(d) Chemoprophylaxis 49. The main objective of Janani Suraksha
41. RNTCP case finding is Yojana is
(a) Active (a) Tetanus immunization
(b) Passive (b) Institutional deliveries
(c) Active and Passive (c) Iron supplementation
(d) None of the above (d) Nutritional supplementation
42. As per RCH, the community health centres 50. Full form of ASHA is
are (a) Accredited Social Health Activist
(a) First referral unit (b) Accredited School Health Act
(b) Secondary referral unit (C) A specific health agent
(c) Tertiary referral unit (d) Association of School Health Activist
(d) None of the above 51. All are included in National Rural Health
43. Recent Mental Health Act in India is Mission except:
designated as (a) Strengthening of JSY (Janani Suraksha
(a) Mental Health Act (2011) Yojana)
(b) Mental Healthcare Act 2017 (b) Formation of family health and social
(c) Mental Health and Lunatics Act (2011) welfare
(d) Mental Health and Illness Act (2011) (c) State and district health mission
44. National family health survey done in (d) Recruitment and training of ASHA
every……… 52. "JSY' stands for:
(a) 6 months (a) Janani Suraksha Yojana
(b) 1 year (b) Janani Samriddhi Yojana
(c) 5 years (C) Janani Swarojgar Yojana
(d) 10 years (d) Janani Sampooma Yojana
45. National tuberculosis control programme 53. All are correct statement about ASHA
was launch in the year of............. except:
(a)1962 (a) Female trained village guide
-:: 36 ::-
(b) One for per village (d) Early registration of pregnancy up to 12-
(c) One for per 1000 population 16 week
(d) Female untrained guide 61. IMNCI target groups is
54. ASHA scheme is associated with: (a) Up to 5 yrs
(a) ICDS (b) Up to 10 yrs
(b) Rural health mission (c) Up to 15 yrs
(c) 20 points programme (d) Up to 20 yrs
(d) Minimum needs programme 62. IMNCI includes management of all of
55. Under NRHM, lowest level at which Health conditions EXCEPT
Action prepared is: (a) Diarrhea
(a) State level (b) Measles
(b) District level (c) Acute respiratory infections
(c) Village level (d) Vitamin A deficiency
(d) Sub center level 63. Kishori Shakti Yojana has been designed
56. Under National Rural Health mission, who to improve nutritional status of
will be person between community and (a) Adult men
health care services? (b) Adolescent girls
(a) Anganwadi worker (c) Under five children
(b) TBA (d) Senior citizens
(c) ASHA 64. According to IMNCI, fast breathing in 5
(d) ANM months child in defined as
57. What is the aim of swajal dhara? (a) >30/min
(a) Providing safe drinking water (b) >40/min
(b) Promotion of institutional delivery (c) >50/min
(c) Providing irrigation facilities for barrel (d) >60/min
lands 65. IMNCI differs from IMCI in all except:
(d) Interlinking of river project (a) Malaria and Anemia are included
58. IMNCI refers to (b) 0-7 days infants are included
(a) Integrated mother and neonatal critical (c) Sick neonates are preferred over sick
illness older children
(b) Integrated mother and newborn clinical (d) Treatment is aimed at more than one
interventions disease (condition) at a time
(c) Integrated management of neonatal and 66. Integrated Management of Neonatal and
childhood illness Childhood Illness (IMNCI) includes the
(d) Integrated management of metal and following except:
clinical illness (a) Malaria
59. A patient treated at home allotted which (b) Respiratory infections
color code according to IMNCI coding (c) Diarrhea
(a)Pink (d) Tuberculosis
(b) Red 67. Integrated Management of Childhood
(c) Green Illness (IMCI) initiative was taken to
(d) Yellow prevent morbidity and mortality from all
60. RCH phase 2 does not included: of the following except:
(a) Immunization of pregnant women (a) Malaria
(b) Treatment of STD/KTI (b) Malnutrition
(c) Feed to malnourished children (c) Otitis Media
(d) Neonatal tetanus
-:: 37 ::-
68. IMNCI includes all except: (d) Panchayat, Tehsil Blocks and municipal
(a) Tetanus Board
(b) Acute respiratory tract infection 76. ICDS does not cover:
(a) Measles (a) Nutritional supplementation
(d) Malaria (b) Formal education
69. Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY) is (c) Health education
(a) Empowerment of females under (d) ) Immunization
Maternity Benefit Scheme 77. Which of the following disease is not
(b) Adolescent girl's scheme under ICDS included in "Vision 2020-Right to sight"
(c) Free and compulsory education for girl immediate goals?
child (a) Cataract
(d) Child care home scheme for female (b) Onchocerciasis
juvenile delinquents (c) Trachoma
70. RNTCP, Category II treatment comprises (d) Epidemic conjunctivitis
(a) 2H3R3Z3E3 + 4H3R3 78. Vitamin A supplement administered
(b) 2H3R3Z3E3S3 + 1H3R3Z3E3+ 5H3R3E3 under "National Programme for
(c) 2H3R3Z3E3 + 5H3R3Z Prevention of Nutritional Blindness",
(d) None contains:
71. RNTCP case finding is (a) 125,000 IU/ml
(a) Active (b) 1 Lakh IU/mL
(b) Passive (c) ) 3 Lakh IU/mL
(c) Both (d) ) 5 Lakh IU/mL
(d) None 79. National malaria control programme was
72. True statement regarding RNTCP includes launched in the year of...........
all except: (a) 1921
(a) Sputum microscopy (b) 1953
(b) Exclusion of private practitioners (c) 1954
(c) Participation of all health workers (d) 1960
(d) Provide latest equipment 80. Red cross society established in..............
73. ICDS was launched in (a) 1920
(a) 1955 (b) 1953
(b) 1968 (c) 1954
(c) 1975 (d) 1960
(d) 2005 81. The Children's Act was passed in
74. Administrative unit of the ICDS project in (a) 1969
rural areas is (b) 1960
(a) PHC (c) 1971
(b) Community development block (d) 1986
(c) Zila Parishad 82. Red cross society was founded by
(d) Gram Panchayat (a) Alfred
75. The Panchayati Raj consists of 3 tier (b) Henry Dunant
structures: (c) Emyllin
(a) Panchayat, Panchayat samiti, Municipal (d) William James
area committee 83. In India the ESI Act was enacted in the
(b) ) Panchayat, Panchayat samiti, and Zila year
Parishad (a) 1942
(c) Panchayat, Tehsil Blocks (b) 1948
-:: 38 ::-
(c) 1950 (c) 60 mg iron +100 mcg folic acid
(d) 1952 (d) 100 mg iron +100 mcg folic acid
84. All are true of Mid day School Meal
Programme except:
(a) Should supply one-third daily calories and
half of daily protein.
(b) Is a substitute for regular Food 1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [b] 4. [b] 5. [a]
(c) Locally available foods are used 6. [b] 7. [d] 8. [b] 9. [a] 10. [b]
(d) Cheap and easy to prepare 11. [a] 12. [c] 13. [c] 14. [d] 15. [a]
85. Which is the following would contribute to 16. [b] 17. [b] 18. [a] 19. [c] 20. [c]
growth monitoring of under-five children? 21. [d] 22. [d] 23. [c] 24. [c] 25. [d]
(a) Health education 26. [b] 27. [c] 28. [c] 29. [c] 30. [a]
(b) Road to health chart 31. [b] 32. [b] 33. [b] 34. [c] 35. [b]
(c) Apgar Score 36. [d] 37. [d] 38. [c] 39. [a] 40. [c]
(d) Weight Monitoring 41. [b] 42. [a] 43. [b] 44. [c] 45. [a]
86. In ICDS all of the following are included 46. [b] 47. [c] 48. [a] 49. [b] 50. [a]
except:
51. [b] 52. [a] 53. [d] 54. [b] 55. [c]
(a) Immunization
56. [c] 57. [a] 58. [c] 59. [c] 60. [c]
(b) Health Education
61. [a] 62. [d] 63. [b] 64. [c] 65. [c]
(c) Prevention of iodine deficiency disorders
66. [d] 67. [d] 68. [a] 69. [b] 70. [b]
(d) Supplementary nutrition
71. [b] 72. [b] 73. [c] 74. [b] 75. [b]
87. According to ICDS programme, children
76. [b] 77. [d] 78. [b] 79. [b] 80. [a]
should be supplemented with which of the
81. [b] 82. [b] 83. [b] 84. [b] 85. [b]
following?
86. [c] 87. [a] 88. [a] 89. [b] 90. [b]
(a) 200 cal + 20 g proteins
(b) 300 cal + 15 g proteins
(c) 500 cal + 25 g proteins Environmental Health
(d) 300 cal + 10 g proteins
88. Which of the following is known as 'Heart 1. True about slow sand filter is:
of ICDS system? (a) Occupies less space
(a) Mother and children (b) More expensive
(b) CDPO (c) Requires longer duration
(c) Primary Health Center (d) Sand size 0.4-0.7mm
(d) Anganwadi 2. Slow sand filter is differentiated from
89. Guidelines for Baby friendly hospital rapid sand filter by
initiative include following EXCEPT? (a) Bacteria are removed more effectively
(a) Mothers and infant to be together for 24 (b) Skilled person is needed
hours a day (c) Cost construction is cheaper.
(b) Mother to initiate beast-feeding in 4 (d) Sand particle are of bigger size
hours normal delivery 3. Purest water in nature is:
(c) Giving newborn infants no food or drink (a) River water
only breast milk. (b) Rain water
(d) Encouraging breast-feeding on demand (c) Deep well
90. Under MCH programme: IFA tablets to be (d) Impounding reservoirs
given daily to mother has 4. Residual Chlorine after chlorination of
(a) 60 mg iron + 500 mcg folic acid water should be
(b) 100 mg iron + 500 mcg folic acid (a) 1 mg/L after 1 hour
-:: 39 ::-
(b) 1 mg/L after 30 Minutes (b) Bound chlorine
(c) < 0.5 mg/L after 1 hour (c) Free and combined chlorine
(d) 0.5 mg/L after 45 hour (d) Chlorine demand
13. Fresh Bleaching powder contains:
5. The minimum recommended level of (a) 33% chlorine
residual chlorine in the drinking water is (b) 3.3% chlorine
for one hour (c) 0.33% chlorine
(a) 0.25 mg/L (d) 0.033% chlorine
(b) 0.5 mg/L 14. Venturi meter is used for measuring
(c) 1.0 mg/L (a) The bed strength in slow sand filter
(d) 10 mg/L (b) Amount required for chlorination
6. Hardness of water is expressed as: (c) Airflow direction
(a) OZ/L (d) Airflow velocity
(b) mg/L 15. Not a feature of hard water is:
(c) mg% (a) Increased fuel consumption
(d) mEq/L (b) Erosion of lead pipe
7. How much gram of chlorine tablet is (c) Scaling of boiler
required to disinfect 20 liters of water? (d) Decreased soap consumption
(a) 0.2 g 16. Coliform test is for
(b) 0.3 g (a) Air pollution
(c) 0.5 g (b) Water contamination
(d) 1.0 g (c) Sound pollution
8. Hardness of water can be removed by (d) None
(a) Adding sodium carbonate into water 17. The best bacterial indicator of water
(b) Base exchange process contamination is
(c) Chlorination (a) Streptococci Fecalis
(d) All of the above (b) E. coli
9. Contact time for chlorination is: (c) Clostridium Perfringens
(a) 4 hour (d) Klebsiella
(b) 1/2 hour 18. Fecal contamination of drinking water is
(c) 1 hour indicated by the presence of
(d) 2 hour (a) Klebsiella
10. Disinfecting action of chlorine on water is (b) E.coli
mainly due to: (c) Proteus
(a) Hydrogen Chlorine (d) Coagulase
(b) Hypochlorus acid 19. Which of the following is used as an
(c) Hypochlorite ions indicator for recent fecal contamination of
(d) Hydrogen water:
11. True statement regarding chlorination is (a) E coli
(a) Orthotolidine test measures free chlorine (b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
separately (c) Pseudomonas
(b) Chlorine acts best when pH is around 7 (d) Streptococci
(c) It kills bacteria, viruses and spores 20. Not seen In Fecal pollution is
(d) Hypochlorite ions are mainly responsible (a) E.coli
for disinfecting activity (b) Staphylococcus
12. Orthotolidine test is used to detect (c) Streptococcus
(a) Free residual chlorine (d) Clostridium Perfringens
-:: 40 ::-
21. Temporary hardness of water is due to (a) Barrier method
presence of: (b) Rhythm method
(a) Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium (c) Intrauterine devices
(b) Chlorides of calcium and magnesium (d) Combined Oral Pills
(c) Nitrates of calcium and magnesium 3. The best time for insertion of IUCD in
(d) Oxides of calcium and magnesium women is:
22. Maximum permissible chloride level is: (a) Within first week of cessation of
(a) 200 mg/L menstrual period
(b) 300 mg/L (b) Fourteen days after menstrual period
(c) 500 mg/L (c) One week before menstrual period
(d) 600 mg/L (d) During menstrual period
23. Which among the following is regarded as 4. Neural tube defect occurs due to lack
the most widely and commonly of….....
distributed air pollutant? (a) Folic acid
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Calcium
(b) Carbon dioxide (c) Niacin
(c) Hydrocarbons (d) Riboflavin
(d) Ozone 5. Baby friendly hospital initiative was
24. All of the following waste water contains started in India in the year:
human excreta except: (a) 1993
(a) Sewage (b) 1991
(b) Sullage (c) 1996
(c) Feces (d) 1990
(d) None 6. Rooming in practice means keeping
25. Vital layer in slow sand filter is seen: mother and infant together
(a) Top of water (a) For 24 hours a day
(b) On the sand bed (b) For 8 hours
(c) Near filter valves (c) Whenever baby demands for feeding
(d) None (d) Whenever infant becomes hypothermic
7. Exclusive breastfeeding helps mother in,
1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [b] 4. [c] 5. [b] except
6. [b] 7. [c] 8. [d] 9. [b] 10. [b] (a) Prevention of cervical cancer
11. [b] 12. [c] 13. [a] 14. [a] 15. [d] (b) Prevention of breast cancer
16. [b] 17. [b] 18. [b] 19. [a] 20. [b] (c) Act as a contraceptive method
21. [a] 22. [d] 23. [a] 24. [b] 25. [b] (d) Helps in quick and early involution of
uterus
8. Prolactin reflex in mother causes:
Primary Health Care (a) Ejection of milk
1. Gray baby syndrome is caused by......... (b) Production of milk
(a) Chloramphenicol (c) Suppression of milk production
(b) Amphotericin B (d) Storage of milk
(c) Vancomycin 9. Baby with birth weight of 1000-2000 gm
(d) Tetracycline are termed as:
2. A newly married healthy couple is asking (a) Low birth weight babies
for the best method of contraception and (b) Very low birth weight babies
which of the following methods a nurse (c) Small for date baby
will advise? (d) Extremely low birth weight babies
-:: 41 ::-
10. Vitamin K at birth is administered to (c) Neural tube defect
...............Newborns. (d) Development of tumor
(a) Prevent excessive bleeding 18. Kegel exercises during pregnancy helps in
(b) Increase immunity strengthening of:
(c) Prevent Infection (a) Pelvic floor muscle
(d) Correct malnutrition (b) Psoas muscle
11. Warm Chain means........ (c) Rectus abdominis
(a) Drying the baby (d) Quadrates lumborum
(b) Establishing skin to skin contact with 19. Punnett square is useful for..............
mother and immediate initiation of (a) To determine the probability of an
breastfeeding offspring having a particular genotype
(c) Warm resuscitation and warm (b) To determine the incidence of disease
transportation condition
(d) All of the above (c) To determine the surveillance of the
12. Apgar score helps to assess depression of: disease condition
(a) Cardiopulmonary functions (d) To determine the outcome of disease
(b) Psychomotor functions condition
(c) Integumentary functions 20. Human milk is rich in all, EXCEPT
(d) Cardiopulmonary and neurologic (a) Fat
function (b) Protein
13. Apgar score of 4-6 of newborn indicates (c) Iron
(a) Severe depression (d) Carbohydrate
(b) Mild depression 21. Exclusive breastfeeding refers to feeding
(c) Moderate depression of infant only with breast milk for the
(d) No depression period of
14. Normal umbilical cord contains: (a) 3 months
(a) 1 arteries and 2 veins (b) 6 months
(b) 2 arteries and 1 vein (c) 8 months
(c) 1 arteries and 1 vein (d) 12 months
(d) 2 arteries and 2 vein 22. Neonatal tetanus can be prevented
15. Primary postpartum hemorrhage occurs through............
within............. hours of delivery: (a) Clean surface of delivery
(a) 6 hours (b) Clean hand of the attendant
(b) 8 hours (c) Clean cord cutting
(c) 12 hours (d) All of the above
(d) 24 hours
16. The management of postpartum 1. [a] 2. [d] 3. [a] 4. [a] 5. [a]
hemorrhage includes all, EXCEPT: 6. [a] 7. [a] 8. [b] 9. [b] 10. [a]
(a) Bimanual uterine compression 11. [d] 12. [d] 13. [c] 14. [b] 15. [d]
(b) Administration of oxytocin 16. [d] 17. [c] 18. [a] 19. [a] 20. [c]
(c) Controlled cord traction 21. [b] 22. [d]
(d) Administration of progesterone
17. Detection of high levels of alpha
fetoprotein in mother's blood indicates
that developing baby has....
(a) Coarctation of aorta
(b) Delayed skeletal development
-:: 42 ::-
(c) Prevention of emergence
Health committee (d) None of the above
1. Other name of multipurpose worker's 1. [b] 2. [a] 3. [c] 4. [b] 5. [b]
committee is 6. [b] 7. [c] 8. [c]
(a) Bhore committee
(b) Kartar Singh Committee
Disaster
(c) Mudaliar committee
(d) Mukherji committee 1. Post disaster (earthquake) in Pakistan,
2. Other name of 'health survey and which of the following vaccines is
develpment committee' is recommended by WHO?
(a) Bhore committee (a) Typhoid
(b) Kartar Singh Committee (b) Cholera
(c) Mudaliar committee (C) Tetanus
(d) Mukherji committee (d) None of the above
3. Health survey and planning committee is 2. Chernobyl nuclear explosion accident
also known as occurred on 26th April, 1986. It resulted in
(a) Bhore committee emission of:
(b) Kartar Singh Committee (a) Methyl isocyanate (MIC)
(c) Mudaliar committee (b) Union carbide
(d) Mukherji committee (C) Ur235, Po210
4. Chadha committee was appointed in the (d) Cs134, Cs137, Sr90
year ------------------ 3. In draughts, commonly noticed vitamin
(a) 1960 deficiency is:
(b) 1963 (a) Vitamin A
(c) 1965 (b) Vitamin B
(d) 1968 (c) Vitamin C
5. Drug-kit B is given at (d) Vitamin D
(a) PH 4. Arrange the following phases of Disaster
(b) Subcenter Cycle in a logical sequence:
(c) CHC (a) Disaster impact-Mitigation-Rehabilitation
(d) FRU level - Response
6. All of the following are the functions of (b) Disaster impact-Response-Rehabilitation-
PHC except Mitigation
(a) Providing medical care (c) Rehabilitation-Response-Disaster impact-
(b) Performing surgeries Mitigation
(c) Health education (d) Response-Disaster impact-Rehabilitation-
(d) Referral services Mitigation
7. Community mental health services does 5. During a disaster, rapidly classifying the
not involve injured on the basis of likelihood of their
(a) Early diagnosis survival with prompt medical
(b) Treatment with modern psychoactive intervention, is a part of:
drugs (a) Search, rescue and first aid
(c) Psychosurgery (b) Triage
(d) Referral services (c) Tagging
8. Primordial prevention means (d) Disaster mitigation
(a) Prevention of complications 6. Most commonly reported disease in the
(b) Prevention of infections post disaster period is:
-:: 43 ::-
(a) Acute Respiratory Infections 14. The gas responsible for Bhopal gas
(b) Gastroenteritis tragedy was:
(c) Tetanus (a) Methyl isocyanate
(d) Malaria (b) Potassium isothiocyanate
7. As per the most common classification of (c) Sodium isothiocyanate
Triage system that is internationally (d) Ethyl isothiocyanate
accepted, the colour code that indicates 15. Which epidemic does not occur after a
high priority treatment or transfer is: disaster?
(a) Black (a) Leptospirosis
(b) Yellow (b) Leishmaniasis
(c) Red (c) ARTI
(d) Blue (d) Rickettsia
8. Black colour in triage is: 16. Nodal centre in case of disaster
(a) Death management:
(b) Transfer (a) PHC
(c) High priority (b) Sub centre
(d) Low priority (c) CHC
9. All vaccines are NOT given in disaster, (d) District
except: 17. During massive disaster what should be
(a) Cholera done first?
(b) Polio (a) Search and rescue, first aid
(c) Tetanus (b) Triage
(d) Measles (c) Stabilization of victims
10. True about triage is: (d) Hospital treatment and redistribution of
(a) Yellow-least priority patients to hospital if necessary
(b) Red-morbidity 18. In a disaster management triage, patients
(c) Green-ambulatory who need surgery within 24 hours, are
(d) Blue-ambulatory categorized under which color category:
11. Natural disaster causing maximum (a) Red
deaths: (b) Green
(a) Hydrological (C) Blue
(b) Meteorological (d) Black
(c) Geological 19. In disaster management all are true
(d) Fires except:
12. Triage is: (a) Mitigation before a disaster strikes
(a) A concept in trauma (b) Response in pre-disaster phase
(b) A method of breast lump diagnosis (c) Yellow color is for medium priority
(c) An investigation for duodenum and (d) Gastroenteritis is commonest infection
pancreas after disaster
(d) Management of old age health problems 20. In disaster management following are
13. Epidemics after disaster are caused by all practiced except:
except: (a) Triage
(a) Leptospirosis (b) Rehabilitation
(b) Rickettsiosis (c) Mass vaccination
(c) Leishmaniasis (d) Disaster response
(d) Acute respiratory infection 21. Triage category correctly matched is:
(a) Red - Deceased/ dead
-:: 44 ::-
(b) Black - Minor injuries 4. Appearance of Burton's line in lead
(c) Green - Immediate intervention needed poisoning:
(d) Yellow - Stable patient, Needs observation (a) Bluish purple line on gums
22. Triage means: (b) Greenish purple line on gums
(a) First come first serve basis (c) Brown purple line on gums
(b) Treating person with better prognosis (d) Pale purple line on gums
(c) Labeling the death patients 5. Role of occupational health nurse includes
(d) Identifying seriously ill who needs the following EXCEPT:
treatment first (a) Prevention of workplace accidents and
23. In a Triage black color is for: injuries
(a) Immediate resuscitation required (b) Promotion of health and work ability
(b) Ambulatory patients (c) Improving environment health for
(c) Unsalvageable occupational health workers
(d) Highest priority patients (d) Improve the productivity outcome of
24. During disaster management the workers
following condition would be classified 6. Continuous vomiting can lead to........
under international code green signal: (a) Respiratory acidosis
(a) High priority treatment (b) Respiratory alkalosis
(b) Medium priority treatment (c) Metabolic acidosis
(c) Ambulatory patient (d) Metabolic alkalosis
(d) Dead patients 7. A 14-year-child having lost his father a
1. [d] 2. [d] 3. [a] 4. [b] 5. [b] year ago, is caught shoplifting. The boy
6. [b] 7. [c] 8. [a] 9. [c] 10. [c] will be sent to
11. [a] 12. [a] 13. [c] 14. [a] 15. [b] (a) Orphanage
16. [d] 17. [a] 18. [b] 19. [b] 20. [c] (b) Remand Home
21. [d] 22. [d] 23. [c] 24. [c] (c) Prison
(d) Anganwadi
8. Most common heavy metal poisoning in
OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH the world:
1. Ergonomics is a science of: (a) Lead
(a) Designing the job to fit to the worker (b) Arsenic
(b) Training the worker to fit to the job (c) Mercury
(c) Prevention of occupational diseases (d) Cadmium
(d) Recruiting the employee to fit for the job 9. Which of the following is non natural gas
2. Cutaneous vasoconstriction on exposure causing greenhouse effect?
to hypothermia results in: (a) Carbon Dioxide
(a) Immersion foot (b) Methane
(b) Frost bite (c) Ozone
(c) Erythrocyanosis (d) CFCs
(d) All of the above 10. Exposure to noise above........... Cause
3. Lead is widely used in variety of industries permanent loss of hearing.
because of its Properties: EXCEPT (a) 100 dB
(a) Low boiling point (b) 90 dB
(b) Anti-corrosive (c) 85 dB
(c) Non-oxidizing (d) 160 dB
(d) Mixes with other easily 11. The level of noise that can be tolerated
without damage to hearing is
-:: 45 ::-
(a) Up to 60 dB 19. Arc welders are more prone to suffer
(b) Up to 85 dB from.................occupation hazard
(c) Up to 95 dB (a) Glaucoma
(d) Up to 120 dB (b) Welder' flash
12. The 'acceptable' noise level is: (c) Welder's cataract
(a) 85 dB (d) Temporary blindness
(b) 90 dB 20. Following are the diseases that comes
(c) 95 dB under pneumoconiosis EXCEPT
(d) 100 dB (a) Silicosis
13. Unit of absorbed radiation is: (b) Asbestosis
(a) Roentgen (c) Siderosis
(b) Rad (d) Psittacosis
(c) Rem 21. Anthracosis is caused due to inhalation of:
(d) Sievert like (a) Coal particles
14. Which of the following would the nurse (b) Sugarcane dust
reinforce after a teaching session as the (c) Cotton dust
most important lifestyle modification for (d) Silicon dust particles
the patient whose age is 59yr; Height 22. Bagassosis is caused by inhalation of:
5'11", weight 280 pounds and is (a) Sugarcane dust
hypertensive? (b) Cotton dust
(a) Reduce weight (c) Jute dust
(b) Restrict salt intake (d) Coal dust
(c) Increase potassium intake 23. Strategies to prevent occupational
(d) Decrease alcohol intake dermatitis include:
15. DDT is a: (a) Pre selection examination
(a) Contact poison (b) Application of barrier creams
(b) CNS poison (c) Use of protective equipment and periodic
(c) Stomach poison health check up
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
16. SAFE strategy is recommended for the 24. Which is the best test to detect iron
control of Trachoma. SAFE contain all the deficiency in a client?
following components EXCEPT (a) Ferrous sulfate
(a) Surgery (b) Serum Ferritin
(b) Annual eye check up (c) Serum Iron
(c) Facial cleanliness (d) Hemoglobin
(d) Environmental hygiene 25. Name the classification developed by
17. Leading cause of blindness in India is........ WHO for disability:
(a) Cataract (a) International classification of functioning,
(b) Trachoma disability and health
(c) Glaucoma (b) Kuppuswamy classification
(d) Vitamin A deficiency (c) NYHA classification
18. Chronic exposure to poor lighting causes: (d) FAB classification
(a) Miner's nystagmus 26. Monday fever is also known as.........
(b) White finger (a) Bagassosis
(c) Cataract (b) Byssinosis
(d) Blurring of vision (c) Asbestosis
(d) COPD
-:: 46 ::-
27. Which of following agent is responsible for 35. Optimum level of fluoride in drinking
Bagassosis? water per liter is:
(a) Smoke (a) 1-2 mg/L
(b) Silica (b) 0.05 -0.08 mg/L
(c) Sugarcane dust (C) 0.7 – 1.2 mg/L
(d) Coal (d) 0.5 - 0.8 mg/L
28. Scotch tape swab is used to identify........ 36. "Monday morning fever' is common name
(a) Tape worm for:
(b) Pinworm (a) Asbestosis
(c) Anglostoma (b) Bagassosis
(d) Cryptosporidium (c) Byssinosis
29. As per WHO, blindness is if visual acuity (d) Mad Hatter's disease
less than 37. The most effective method of well
(a) 6/18 disinfection is done by:
(b) 6/24 (a) Chlorine tablets
(c) 3/60 (b) KMnO4
(d) 6/60 (c) Per chlorine
30. Occupational exposure that may cause (d) CaOCl2
sterility in females: 38. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a (an)
(a) Aniline (a) X-linked recessive disorder
(b) Lead (b) X-linked dominant disorder
(c) Radon (c) Autosomal recessive disorder
(d) Nickel (d) Autosomal dominant disorder
31. the most common cause of Urinary Tract 39. The diagram that is word to predict
Infection (UTI) in community is: possible genotypes in an offspring is
(a) E.coli known as
(b) Klebsiella (a) Genogram
(c) Citrobacter (b) Punnett square
(d) Proteus Vulgaris (c) Pedigree chart
32. Hookworm penetrates into the body by (d) All of the above
penetrating the skin 40. The most characteristic and specific signs
(a) Hand of Vitamin A deficiency is/are
(b) Foot (a) Eye lesion
(c) Ear (b) Color blindness
(d) Head (c) Blurring of vision
33. Filariasis is caused by (d) Double Vision
(a) Bacteria 41. The most common congenital lesbian in
(b) Protozoa North India
(c) Fungus (a) Cleft lip and cleft palate
(d) Virus (b) Club foot
34. Temporary hardness of water is removed (c) Neural tube defect
by (d) Congenital heart diseases
(a) Boiling 42. which of the following is the major risk
(b) Filtration factor of candidiasis of oral cavity?
(c) SODIS method (a) Poor personal hygiene
(d) Addition of chlorine (b) Alcoholism
(c) Thiamine deficiency
-:: 47 ::-
(d) Smoking 51. Deficiency of which of the following
43. While teachings patient with COPD vitamin causes beriberi?
regarding cardiac failure, community (a) Vitamin B1
health nurse should emphasize (b) Vitamin B2
(a) Rest in between exercise (c) Vitamin B6
(b) Avoid exercise (d) Vitamin B12
(c) Exercise strenuously
(d) Take medication in between exercise 52. In India, goiter is found commonly in
44. Childhood obesity prevention is a type of (a) Southern region
(a) Primordial prevention (b) Himalayan region
(b) Primary prevention (c) Western region
(c) Secondary prevention (d) Coastal region
(d) Tertiary prevention 53. While teaching "survival skills” to newly
45. Screening of the immigrants for infectious diagnosed type-I diabetic patient, the
disease is referred as community nurse should include
(a) Primordial screening information about
(b) Prospective screening (a) Foot care
(c) Prescriptive screening (b) Eliminating sugar from diet
(d) Quarantine screening (c) Prevention of hypoglycemia
46. RDA of iodine for an adult is (d) Need to increase rest
(a) 50 g/day 54. Which of the following term refers to a
(b) 75 g/day fungal infection of foot?
(c) 100 g/day (A) Tinea corporis
(d) 150 g/day (b) Tinea pedis
47. Vitamin A prophylaxis is an example of (c) Tinea capitis
(a) Primordial prevention (d) Tinea cruris
(b) Health protection 55. Modifiable risk factors for hypertension is
(c) Specific protection (a) Ethnicity
(d) Disability limitation (b) Age
48. Highest source of vitamin A is (c) Sex
(a) Cod liver oil (d) Obesity
(b) Green leafy vegetable 56. Not included among major criteria in
(c) Amla acute rheumatic fever is?
(d) Guava (a) Erythema marginatum
49. Which of the following disease is caused (b) Polyarthralgia
by deficiency of Thiamine? (c) Chorea
(a) Wernicke's encephalopathy (d) Pancarditis
(b) Cheilosis 57. Not a dietary modification to high risk
(c) Pellagra Cardiovascular Disease group is?
(d) All of the above (a) LDL Cholesterol less than 100 mg/dl
50. Deficiency of............. causes Wernicke's (b) Avoidance of alcohol
encephalopathy? (c) Saturated fat intake limited to 7% of total
(a) Niacin calories
(b) Phosphorus (d) Salt Intake less than 5 gm/day
(c) B12 58. Modifiable risk factor in CHD are all
(d) Thiamine except:
(a) Smoking
-:: 48 ::-
(b) Obesity 67. BMI is defined as:
(c) Personality (a) Weight (kg)/Height (meters)2
(d) Hypertension (b) Weight (kg)/Height (cm)2
59. Ideal cholesterol level should be less than: (c) Midarm circumference (cm) /Head
(a) 200 circumference (cm)
(b) 220 (d) Midarm circumference (cm) between
(c) 300 ages 1-5 years
(d) 350
60. The most common cancer, affecting both 68. Most common type of blindness in India is:
males and females worldwide is: (a) Cataract
(a) Cancer of the pancreas (b) Trachoma
(b) Buccal mucosa cancer (c) Vit A deficiency
(c) Lung cancer (d) Glaucoma
(d) Colorectal cancer 69. Which vitamin deficiency causes night
61. Most common cancer affecting Indian blindness
females is: (a) Vitamin A
(a) Cervical cancer (a) Vitamin B
(b) Ovarian cancer (a) Vitamin C
(c) Breast cancer (a) Vitamin D
(d) Colonic cancer 70. Vitamin A is also known
62. Most common cancer among women (a) Thiamine
worldwide is (b) Cholecalciferol
(a) Lung cancer (c) Tocopherol
(b) Oral cancer (d) Retinol
(c) Breast cancer 71. Which of the following is the micro
(d) Gastric cancer nutrient?
63. Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects the (a) Proteins
mean blood glucose level of previous: (b) Zinc
(a) 15 days (c) Vitamins
(b) 1 month (d) Calcium
(c) 3 months 72. What is the normal range of BMI (Body
(d) 6 months Mass Index)?
64. A patient is called obese if BMI is: (a) 0-8
(a) 20-30 (b) 8-15
(b) >25 (c) 18-25
(c) >30 (d) 25-30
(d) >40 73. Pellagra is characterized by
65. BMI for normal weight: (a) Diarrhea, Dermatitis, Dementia
(a) 18.5-27.99 (b) Delusion, Diarrhea, Dementia
(b) 18.5-24.99 (c) Deformity, Delusion, Deviated septum
(c) 23.0-24.99 (d) Dementia, Delusion, Disarticulation
(d) >30 74. Most common cause of stroke in India is-
66. BMI is also known as: (a) Cerebral thrombosis
(a) Quetelet Index (b) Cerebral embolism
(b) Lorentz Index (c) Cerebral hemorrhage
(c) Broca Index (d) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
(d) Corpulence Index
-:: 49 ::-
75. Best method of screening for early (d) Blood in sputum
detection of breast carcinoma in women 83. Following are chemical agent, that cause
aged above 40 years is: occupational dermatitis by local irritation
(a) Regular X-rays except:
(b) Self-examination (a) Rubber
(c) Mammography (b) X-ray
(d) Regular biopsy (c) Lime
76. Which is not a predisposing factor for (d) Ether
Carcinoma of cervix? 84. Occupational cancer involve following
(a) Early marriage organs except:
(b) Early coitus (a) Lung
(c) Early child bearing (b) Breast
(d) Single child birth (c) Bladder
77. Following is not a risk factor for (d) Liver
development of diabetes mellitus: 85. Most common mode of lead poisoning is:
(a) Sedentary life style (a) Ingestion
(b) Protein energy malnutrition in infancy (b) Skin
(c) Excessive intake of alcohol (c) Inhalation
(d) High intake of vitamin-A (d) Faeco-oral
78. "Guthrie Test" is done in neonates for 86. Asbestosis is
mass screening of- (a) A water borne disease
(a) Neonatal Hypothyroidism (b) An occupational disease
(b) Phenyl ketonuria (c) An airborne disease
(c) Hemoglobinopathies (d) A food borne disease
(d) Congenital Dislocation of Hip 87. Which occupational disease is caused by
79. Most common neonatal disorder screened extreme cold climate?
is - (a) Occupational cataract
(a) Neonatal hypothyroidism (b) Miner's nystagmus
(b) Phenylketonuria (c) Pancytopenia
(c) Hemoglobinopathies (d) Frost bite
(d) Congenital dislocation of Hip 88. Which of the following disease is caused
80. Benzene is associated with cancer of: by inhalation of sugarcane dust?
(a) Skin cancer (a) Asbestosis
(b) Lung cancer (b) Bagassosis
(c) bladder cancer (c) Byssinosis
(d) Leukemia (d) Silicosis
81. All are disease manifestation associated 89. A lung disease caused by prolonged
with low temperature except: inhalation of cotton fiber dust is
(a) Frost bite (a) Bagassosis
(b) Trench foot (b) Byssinosis
(c) Prickles (c) Farmers lung
(d) Chill blains (d) Pneumonia
82. The most common early manifestation of 90. 'Snow storm appearance’ in X-ray of an
chronic bronchitis adult male suggests
(a) Frequent productive cough (a) Asbestosis
(b) Dyspnea on exertion (b) Siderosis
(c) Cyanosis at feet (c) Anthracosis
-:: 50 ::-
(d) Silicosis 2. Waste water without human excreta is
91. Diffuse Mesothelioma is seen with - called
(a) Asbestos (a) Sewage
(b) Tobacco (b) Humus
(c) Arsenic (c) Sullage
(d) TB (d) Effluent
3. What is the first step in sewage
92. "Farmers lung" is due to inhalation of- treatment?
(a) Cotton fiber (a) Aeration
(b) Sugarcane dust (b) Chlorination
(c) Hay dust (c) Precipitation
(d) Coal dust (d) Sedimentation
93. Main cause of Farmer's lung is: 4. Most hazardous pesticide color coding is:
(a) Pneumococcus (a) Red
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (b) Green
(c) Micropolyspora faeni (c) Yellow
(d) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Black
5. Sputum can be disinfected by all of the
1. [a] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [a] 5. [d] following EXCEPT
6. [d] 7. [b] 8. [a] 9. [d] 10. [c] (a) Autoclaving
11. [b] 12. [a] 13. [b] 14. [a] 15. [a] (b) Boiling
16. [b] 17. [a] 18. [a] 19. [c] 20. [d] (c) Chlorhexidine
21. [a] 22. [a] 23. [d] 24. [b] 25. [a] (d) Cresol
26. [b] 27. [c] 28. [b] 29. [c] 30. [c] 6. Best disinfectant of cholera stool is
31. [a] 32. [b] 33. [b] 34. [a] 35. [c] (a) Bleaching powder
36. [c] 37. [d] 38. [b] 39. [b] 40. [a] (b) Lime
41. [c] 42. [a] 43. [a] 44. [a] 45. [b] (c) Phenol
46. [d] 47. [c] 48. [a] 49. [a] 50. [d] (d) Cresol
51. [a] 52. [b] 53. [c] 54. [b] 55. [d] 7. Best indication of air pollution is:
56. [b] 57. [a] 58. [c] 59. [a] 60. [c] (a) SO2
61. [c] 62. [c] 63. [c] 64. [c] 65. [b] (b) CO2
66. [a] 67. [a] 68. [a] 69. [a] 70. [d] (c) Smoke index
(d) Suspended particle
71. [c] 72. [c] 73. [a] 74. [a] 75. [c]
8. Which of the following methods is safe for
76. [d] 77. [d] 78. [b] 79. [b] 80. [d]
disposal of mercury?
81. [c] 82. [a] 83. [a] 84. [b] 85. [c]
(a) Bury under earth
86. [b] 87. [d] 88. [b] 89. [b] 90. [d]
(b) Collect carefully and reuse
91. [a] 92. [c] 93. [c]
(c) Autoclaving and discard
Biomedical waste management (d) Treat with chemical
9. Universal precautions are applied to:
1. Best method for disposal of refuse where
(a) Blood
land is available is:
(b) Semen
(a) Burial
(c) Amniotic fluid
(b) Dumping
(d) All of the above
(c) Manure pit
10. Color coded bag not to be incinerated as it
(d) Controlled tipping
contains Cadmium is:
(a) Black bag
-:: 51 ::-
(b) Yellow bag (d) Sharps must be incinerated
(c) Blue bag 19. Animal waste is disposed by
(d) Red bag (a) Autoclaving
11. Sharp Waste are disposed in: (b) Incineration
(a) Black bag (c) Chemical treatment
(b) Yellow bag (d) Microwave
(c) Blue bag 20. Incineration is done for
(d) Red bag (a) Waste sharps
12. Most satisfactory method of Refuse (b) Human anatomical waste
disposal is- (c) Radiographic waste
(a) Dumping (d) Used batteries
(b) Controlled tipping 21. What is the best method to dispose
(c) Incineration hospital waste?
(d) Manure pits (a) Composting
13. If land is available the ideal method of (b) Dumping
disposal is: (c) Chemical treatment
(a) Composting (d) Incineration
(b) Incineration 22. Incineration is not done for
(c) Controlled tipping (a) Cytotoxic drugs
(d) None (b) Waste Sharp
14. Discarded and expired medicines are to be (c) Human Anatomical Waste
thrown into: (d) Both a and b
(a) Green bag 23. Incineration is:
(b) Black bag (a) High temperature reduction process
(c) Yellow bag (b) High temperature oxidation process
(d) Red bag (c) Low temperature reduction process
15. Not true about screw feed technique is: (d) Low temperature oxidation process
(a) 80% volume reduction 24. Sharp waste should be disposed in
(b) Pathological waste are removed (a) Black
(c) Weight is decreased by 20-30% (b) Blue/White translucent
(d) Based on non-burn thermal treatment (c) Yellow
16. Blood spills in Indian Hospitals are (d) Red
disinfected by compounds 25. "3-D" means in hospital waste
(a) Quaternary ammonium management is:
(b) Phenol based (a) Disinfection, Disposal, Drainage
(c) Chlorine based (b) Discard, Disinfection, Drainage
(d) Alcohol based (c) Destruction, Deep burial, Drainage
17. Which of the following waste is disposed (d) Destruction, Deep burial, Disposal
through incineration? 26. Which of the following can be incinerated?
(a) Anatomical waste (a) Human waste
(b) Sharp waste (b) Radiographic waste
(c) Cytotoxic waste (c) PVC
(d) Radioactive waste (d) Pressurized gas container
18. True about incineration is 27. Safe disposal of mercury is by:
(a) Red bag can be incinerated (a) Collect carefully and recycle
(b) Yellow bag must be incinerated (b) Controlled combustion
(c) Pretreatment required (c) Chemical treatment
-:: 52 ::-
(d) Deep burial (c) Category 5 (Discarded drugs and
28. Outdated cytotoxic drug are disposed of Cytotoxic medications)
by: (d) Category 8 (Liquid waste)
(a) Disposal in municipal waste 35. Incineration is:
(b) Destruction and dumping in secured (a) High temperature reduction process
landfill (b) Low temperature reduction process
(c) Store for months and then burial (c) High temperature oxidation process
(d) Autoclave (d) Low temperature oxidation process
29. Method for waste disposal in small camps 36. Which of the following Biomedical wastes
is can be incinerated?
(a) Burial (a) Pressurized gas containers
(b) Land filling (b) Radiographic wastes
(c) Incineration (c) PVC
(d) Dumping (d) Human anatomical wastes
30. What is the color-coding of bag in 37. Which of the following Biomedical wastes
hospitals to dispose off human anatomical cannot be disposed off Yellow Bags?
wastes such as body parts? (a) Reactive chemical wastes
(a) Yellow (b) Human anatomical wastes
(b) Black (c) Microbiology and Biotechnology wastes
(c) Red (d) Dressings soiled with blood
(d) Blue 38. A known HIV positive patient is admitted
31. "Inertization" deals with: in an isolation ward after an abdominal
(a) Mixing biomedical waste with cement and surgery following an accident. The
other substance before disposal resident doctor who changed his dressing
(b) Incineration of biomedical waste with the next day found it to be soaked in
cement and other substance before disposal blood. Which of the following would be
(c) Dumping of Biomedical waste in sanitary right method of choice of discarding the
landfills dressing?
(d) Screw feed technology to disinfect sharps (a) Pour 1% hypochlorite on the dressing
32. What is the color-coding of bag in material and send it for incineration in an
hospitals to dispose off human anatomical appropriate bag
wastes such as appendix: (b) Pour 5% hypochlorite on the dressing
(a) Yellow material and send it for incineration in an
(b) Black appropriate bag
(c) Red (c) Put the dressing material directly in an
(d) Blue appropriate bag and send for incineration
33. What is the color-coding of bag in (d) Pour 2% Lysol on the dressing material
hospitals to dispose off waste sharps? and send it for incineration in an appropriate
(a) Yellow bag
(b) Black 39. Yellow plastic bags containing biomedical
(c) Red wastes are treated by:
(d) Blue (a) Autoclaving
34. Which of the following Categories of (b) Incineration
Biomedical wastes in India do not require (c) Microwaving
containers/bags for disposal? (d) Shredding
(a) Category 1 (Human anatomical waste) 40. Hospital waste product accounts:
(b) Category 4 (Waste sharps) (a) Paper 40%
-:: 53 ::-
(b) Plastic 30% (b) Yellow bag
(c) Infectious waste 30% (c) Black bag
(d) Rage 30% (d) Blue bag
41. True about composition of Indian hospital 49. Waste sharps should be disposed in:
waste products: (a) Black bag
(a) Metal 1% (b) Yellow bag
(b) Paper 15% (c) White bag
(c) Glass 55% 50. True about Inertization all except.
(d) Infectious waste 3% (a) Mixing biomedical waste with cement
42. All of the following statements regarding (b) Used for pharmaceutical waste
Biomedical Waste management are true (c) Contaminates water sources
except: (d) Not useful for infectious waste
(a) Human Anatomical waste is thrown in 51. Incineration is done for BMW categories:
Yellow bag (a) 1 only
(b) Blue bag waste is disposed by Landfill (b) 3, 6, 7
(c) Incineration ash is discarded in Black bag (c) 1, 2, 3
(d) Material in Red bag could be a source of (d) 1, 2, 3, 6
contamination 52. Waste disposal of placenta after delivery is
43. Incineration not done for: done by
(a) Cytotoxic drugs (a) Disposing it in blue bags
(b) Waste sharps (b) Autoclaving
(c) Human anatomical waste (c) Incineration
(d) Cotton contaminated by blood (d) Microwaving
44. Advantage of Single chamber incinerator: 53. All are incinerated except:
(a) Low pollutant emissions (a) Human anatomical waste
(b) Effective for thermally resistant articles (b) Animal waste
(c) Good efficiency (c) Infected solid waste
(d) All of the above (d) Broken thermometers
45. Biomedical wastes not to be discarded in 54. Urine bags and catheters biomedical
Yellow Bag: waste will be disposed in:
(a) Waste sharps (a) Yellow bag
(b) Animal waste (b) Red bag
(c) Microbiological waste (c) White container
(d) Human anatomical waste (d) Blue bag
46. Incineration is done for: 55. Biomedical waste mixing with cement is
(a) Waste sharps known as:
(b) Human anatomical waste (a) Incineration
(c) Radiographic waste (b) Inertization
(d) Used batteries (c) Shredding
47. Not safe disposal but good for soil (d) Autoclaving
building: 1. [d] 2. [c] 3. [d] 4. [a] 5. [c]
(a) Incineration 6. [d] 7. [a] 8. [b] 9. [d] 10. [d]
(b) Controlled tipping 11. [c] 12. [b] 13. [c] 14. [c] 15. [b]
(c) Composting 16. [c] 17. [a] 18. [b] 19. [b] 20. [b]
(d) Dumping 21. [d] 22. [b] 23. [b] 24. [b] 25. [a]
48. Plastic cover of syringes are disposed in: 26. [a] 27. [a] 28. [b] 29. [a] 30. [a]
(a) Red bag 31. [a] 32. [a] 33. [d] 34. [d] 35. [c]
-:: 54 ::-
36. [d] 37. [a] 38. [a] 39. [b] 40. [b] (c) A, C, D
41. [a] 42. [b] 43. [b] 44. [d] 45. [a] (d) A, B, C, D
46. [b] 47. [c] 48. [a] 49. [d] 50. [c] 7. The following are the functions of Male
51. [d] 52. [c] 53. [d] 54. [b] 55. [b] health workers as a health Team member
"Except"
(a) Conduct survey of the Sub center and
maintain record of all families.
Health care delivery system and kits (b) Provide nutrition advice and
1. Philosophy of Primary Health Care are as Immunization to mothers and Children.
follows EXCEPT? (c) Maintain information of all vital events.
(a) Equity and justice (d) Promote health education activities.
(b) Intersectoral approach 8. In India, which one is the following is the
(c) Primary prevention first referral unit?
(d) Inter-relationship of health and (a) Sub center
development (b) Primary health centers
2. Secondary prevention is: (c) Community health center
(a) Safe water supply, Vector and animal (d) Regional hospital
reservoir control 9. Which of the following is not content of
(b) Early detection (diagnosis) of disease and Drug Kit A provided sub center?
Prompt treat (a) Oral rehydration salt
(c) Good living and working condition (b) Tab co-trimoxazole
(d) Nutritional counseling (c) Tablet Paracetamol
3. Population covered by sub-center is hilly (d) Vitamin A solution
area 10. Following are the elements of primary
(a) 5000 population health care: EXCEPT
(b) 3000 population (a) Health education
(c) 10,000 population (b) Intersectoral coordination
(d) 30,000 population (c) Cost effectiveness
4. Which of the following is NOT a content of (d) Provision of essential drug
Drug Kit A provided at sub center? 11. Primary health care is:
(a) Oral rehydration salt (a) Health for all
(b) Tab Co-trimoxazole (b) Health for those who are in need
(c) Tablet Paracetamol (c) Health for an area of 30,000 population
(d) Vitamin A Solution (d) Health for children attending primary
5. One PHC covers a population of: school
(a) 150,000 12. ASHA (Accredited social health activist)
(b) 30,000 workers are functioning at:
(c) 10,000 (a) Community level
(d) One lakh (b) Village level
6. The principles of primary health care (c) PHC level
include (d) District level
A. Equitable distribution 13. Prevention of risk factors related to a
B. Community participation disease condition is known as-
C. Coverage and accessibility (a) Primordial prevention
D. Appropriateness and continuity (b) Primary prevention
(a) A, B, C (c) Secondary prevention
(b) B, C, D (d) Tertiary prevention
-:: 55 ::-
14. ASHA workers performance is monitored (d) 1000
through: 22. The three tier system of local self-
(a) Number of deliveries attended government at block level
(b) Number of home visits done (a) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Reduction in IMR (b) Grame Sabha
(d) Number of training hours attended (c) Nyaya Panchayat
15. The human resource available in sub (d) Zilla Parishad
center is: 23. The backbone of public health nursing is:
(a) Multipurpose health worker (a) Home visit
(b) Physician (b) Recording
(c) Anganwadi worker (c) Health education
(d) Medical officer (d) Immunization
16. In health care delivery system grass root 24. Main Intervention in primordial
level workers includes........ prevention is
(a) Anganwadi workers (a) Health education
(b) ASHA (b) Immunization
(c) Village health guide (c) Early diagnosis
(d) All of the above (d) Early screen
17. An example of Primary Prevention 25. Pap smear screening is an example of:
strategies is: (a) Primordial prevention
(a) Early diagnosis (b) Primary prevention
(b) Hospitalization and treatment (c) Secondary prevention
(c) Rehabilitation (d) Tertiary prevention
(d) Health Education 26. Which of the following action by a public
18. The Multipurpose Worker in generally health is likely to encourage community
serves a rural population of: participation?
(a) 500 (a) Invite people from NGOs
(b) 1000 (b) Refer to the physician for prescription
(c) 3000 (c) Listen to people when they relate their
(d) 5000 problem
19. Which one of the health services is not (d) Encourage sponsorship for participation
available in rural health unit? 27. All of the following are the essential
(a) Maternal and child health work elements of health care, EXCEPT:
(b) Communicational disease control work (a) Multi-sectoral Approach
(c) Environmental sanitation work (b) Qualification of health providers
(d) Cancer treatment facility (c) Community participation
20. In the prevention of communicable (d) Appropriate technology
disease, the primary results from 28. The focus of secondary health care is
(a) Immunizations (a) Early detection
(b) Early diagnosis (b) Early diagnosis and treatment
(c) Strict isolation (c) Prevention of risk factors
(d) Treatment of disease (d) Immunization for preventable diseases
21. Population covered by an Anganwadi 29. All of the following are principles of
worker is primary health EXCEPT:
(a) 200 (a) Accessibility
(b) 3000 (b) Inequitable distribution
(c) 1500 (c) Appropriate use of technology
-:: 56 ::-
(d) Intersectoral collaboration 7. When was the first case of COVID 19
1. [c] 2. [b] 3. [b] 4. [c] 5. [b] reported in India?
6. [a] 7. [b] 8. [c] 9. [c] 10. [c] (a) January 30, 2020
11. [a] 12. [b] 13. [a] 14. [c] 15. [a] (b) March 1st, 2020
16. [d] 17. [d] 18. [d] 19. [d] 20. [a] (c) December 31st, 2019
21. [d] 22. [a] 23. [a] 24. [a] 25. [c] (d) February 10, 2020
26. [c] 27. [b] 28. [b] 29. [b] 8. Which of the following antibodies develop
first against during COVID 19 and helps to
identify recent exposure?
Covid-19
(a) IgA
1. In COVID treatment unit, high touch (b) IgM
surface should be disinfected every. (c) IgD
(a) 1-2 hourly (d) IgG
(b) 3-4 hourly 9. Viruses are named by?
(c) 2-4 hourly (a) International Committee on Taxonomy of
(d) 6-8 hourly Viruses (ICTV)
2. On which date World Health Organization (b) WHO
(WHO) recognized novel coronavirus as a (c) CDC
pandemic? (d) UNICEF
(a) 11 March 2020 10. First Case of COVID-19 seen in outside of
(b) 12 February 2020 the China?
(c) 24 February 2020 (a) Italy
(d) 05 March 2020 (b) America
3. SARS virus was spread in 2003 in which (c) Spain
country? (d) Thailand
(a) China 11. Nucleic Acid found in Novel CORONA
(b) Saudi Arabia Virus-2 is?
(c) Vietnam (a) Positive sense Single stranded RNA
(d) Iran (b) Negative sense Single stranded RNA
4. Which of the following is/are symptoms of (c) Negative sense Double stranded RNA
novel coronavirus? (d) Positive sense Double stranded DNA
(a) Fever 12. From Where Corona virus got its name?
(b) Cough (a) due to their crown-like projections.
(c) Shortness of breath (b) Due to their leaf-like projections.
(d) All of these (c) Due to their Surface Structure of bricks
5. Coronavirus outbreak was originated in (d) None of the above
which province of China? 13. Coronavirus is a type of..?
(a) Hubei (a) Enveloped RNA virus
(b) Shandong (b) Enveloped DNA virus
(c) Wuhan (c) Non – enveloped DNA Virus
(d) Henan (d) Single stranded DNA virus
6. In which state of India reported the first 14. A nursing officer given a covishield
death due to COVID-19? vaccine against the cov19, which of the
(a) Kerala following recombinant virus injected in
(b) Karnataka this vaccination..?
(c) Maharashtra (a) Coronavirus
(d) Delhi (b) Adenovirus
-:: 57 ::-
(c) Ribovirus Hydroxychloroquine except:
(d) Paramiyxovirus (a) Black water fever
15. Covishield is type of vaccine..? (b) QTc prolongation
(a) Live vaccine (c) Mental disturbances
(b) Killed vaccine (d) Retinopathy
(c) Both A & B 23. All of the following drugs act by inhibiting
(d) Toxoid entry of SARS-COV2 in the cell except:
16. Identify aerosol generating procedures (a) Remdesivir
performed in ICU setting. (b) Hydroxychloroquine (HCQ)
(a) Endotracheal intubation (c) Camostat
(b) Open suctioning endotracheal tube (d) Arbidol
(c) Giving prone position to a ventilated 24. Inhibitor of TMPRSS-2, being tested for
Patient treatment of covid-19 is -
(d) All of the above (a) Remdesivir
17. Which of the following solution is used to (b) Hydroxychloroquine
disinfect the surfaces in treatment units. (c) Camostat
(a) 1% Hypochlorite solution (d) Ivermectin
(b) 2% chlorohexdine solution 25. All of the following are RNA dependent
(c) Hydrogen peroxide solution RNA polymerase (RdRp) inhibitor tested
(d) 7.5% povidone iodine for treatment of COVID-19 except:
18. Janta curfew was held on? (a) Aribidol
(a) 21 March 2020 (b) Remdesivir
(b) 22 March 2020 (c) Favipiravir
(c) 24 March 2020 (d) Ribavirin
(d) 25 March 2020 26. COVID-19 tracking mobile app developed
19. Aarogya setu app launched on? by national informatic centre, under
(a) 25 March 2020 ministry of electronic & information
(b) 1 April 2020 technology, govt. of India is known as.
(c) 2 April 2020 (a) Nikshay
(d) 10 April 2020 (b) Aarogya setu.
20. Privileged communication is made (c) COVA
between (d) Ayush COVID kavach/Ayush sanjivani app
(a) Patient & doctor 27. False statement regarding SARS – COV2 is:
(b) Doctor & Court of law (a) Enveloped virus
(c) Doctor & Concerned authority (b) SARS – CoV2 name is given by
(d) Doctor & Relatives international Committee on taxonomy of
21. All are true Regarding HCQ virus on 11 Feb.2020
(Hydroxychloroquine) except: (c) Segmented, Non-enveloped virus
(a) HCQ should be avoided if QTc>500ms (d) May cause ARDS
(b) It is also tried for treatment COVID19
infection 1. [a] 2. [a] 3. [a] 4. [d] 5. [c]
(c) An ECG should ideally be done before 6. [b] 7. [a] 8. [b] 9. [a] 10. [d]
prescribing the drug to measure QTc 11. [a] 12. [a] 13. [a] 14. [b] 15. [a]
interval 16. [d] 17. [a] 18. [b] 19. [c] 20. [c]
(d) HCQ is also useful for treatment of 21. [d] 22. [a] 23. [a] 24. [c] 25. [a]
psoriasis 26. [b] 27. [c]
22. All of the following are adverse effects of
-:: 58 ::-
Mucormycosis 8. Drug of choice in mucormycosis?
(a) Fluconazole
1. Which statement said by nurse is (b) Amphotericine B
considered wrong about mucormycosis? (c) Remdesivir
(a) It is opportunistic infection (d) Corticosteroid
(b) It is fungal infection
1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [d] 4. [d] 5. [c]
(c) It is chronic reversible localized infection
6. [c] 7. [b] 8. [b]
(d) It associated with covid 19
2. Most common causative organism
resposible for mucormycosis is
(a) Rhizopus
(b) Mucor
(c) Rhizomucor
(d) Liethemia
3. What is mode of transmission of
mucormycosis?
(a) Inhalation of spores
(b) Ingestion of spores
(c) Direct contact of injured skin with
contaminated soil
(d) All of them
4. What assessment finding does not expect
during history collection of patient having
mucormycosis?
(a) DKA patient
(b) Renal transplant patient
(c) Thalasemia patient
(d) None of them
(e) all of them
5. Most common type of mucormycosis?
(a) Pulmonary mucormycosis
(b) Disseminated mucormycosis
(c) Rhino-cerebral mucormycosis
(d) cutaenous mucormycosis
6. Cofirmatory diagnosis test for
mucormycosis?
(a) RT-PCR
(b) CT/MRI
(c) Tissue biopsy
(d) None of the above
7. Which assessment seen in HRCT of patient
having mucormycosis?
(a) Homan sign
(b) Reverse halo sign
(c) Ground glass opacity
(d) Blue botter
-:: 59 ::-

@killer20bot Community Health Nursing - 240316 - 235441

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

@killer20bot Community Health Nursing - 240316 - 235441

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING DPP

S.NO. TOPIC LIST PAGE NO.

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

3. Levels of Prevention 5-6

4. Immunity and Immunization 6-12

5. Family planning and contraceptive methods 12-17

7. Communicable Disease 19-33

8. Health Programme 33-39

9. Environmental Health 39-41

10. Primary Health Care 41-42

11. Health committee 43-43

12. Disaster 43-45

13. Occupational health 45-51

14. Biomedical waste management 51-54

15. Health care delivery system and kits 55-57

16. Covid-19 57-58

You might also like