Professional Documents
Culture Documents
ACCOUNTING 0452/21
Paper 2 May/June 2023
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 100
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
1(a) Shvan 10
Petty Cash Book
Total Total Office Travel Ledger
received Date Details paid expenses accounts
$ $ $ $ $
2023
61 Mar 1 Balance b/d (1)
139 Bank (1)
2 Giles (1) 55 55
3 Taxi fare (1) 21 21
6 Notepads and pens (1) 18 18
25 6 Mitchell (1)
7 Office cleaning (1) 30 30
(1)OF 124 48 21 55
101
225 7 Balance c/d 225
101 Mar 8 Balance b/d (1)OF
+ (1) dates
1(b) Shvan 4
Giles account
Date Details $ Date Details $
2023 2023
Mar 2 Petty cash (1) 55 Mar 1 Balance b/d 165
13 Bank (1) 110 22 Purchases (1) 144
31 Balance c/d 144
309 309
2(a)(i) Stalla 3
Provision for doubtful debts account
Date Details $ Date Details $
2022 2022
Dec 31 Balance c/d 3 080 Jan 1 Balance b/d (1) 3 000
2022
Dec 31 Income statement (1)OF 80
3 080 3 080
2023
Jan 1 Balance b/d (1) 3 080
2(a)(ii) Not all trade receivables will pay the amount they owe/ to anticipate irrecoverable debts (1) 2
To apply the principle of prudence/ to ensure the profit is not overstated/ to ensure the trade receivables are not overstated
(1)
To apply the principle of matching / to ensure that the sales for which payment is not likely to be received are regarded as
an expense of the year in which the sales were made (1)
Max (2)
2(b) $ $ 4
Proceeds 9 500
Cost 16 000 (1)
Less provision for depreciation 7 000 (1) 9 000
Profit on disposal (1) 500 (1)OF
2(c)(i) Stalla 2
Motor Vehicles account
Date Details $ Date Details $
2022 2022
Jan 1 Balance b/d 48 000 Dec 31 Disposal (1) 16 000
Balance c/d 32 000
48 000 48 000
2023
Jan 1 Balance b/d (1) 32 000
2(c)(ii) Stalla 5
Provision for depreciation of Motor Vehicles account
Date Details $ Date Details $
2022 2022
Dec 31 Disposal (1)OF 7 000 Jan 1 Balance b/d (1) 21 000
Balance c/d 18 500 Dec 31 Income statement
(2)CF (1)OF 4 500
25 500 25 500
2023
Jan 1 Balance b/d (1)OF 18 500
2(d) 4
Capital Revenue
expenditure expenditure
3(b) Eshe 3
Suspense account
2023 2023
Mar 31 Motor expenses (1) 100 Mar 31 Difference on trial balance 56
(1)OF
Returns inwards (1) 44
100 100
4(a) Salman 10
Manufacturing Account for the year ended 30 April 2023
$ $
Cost of material consumed
Opening inventory of raw material 8 190
Purchases of raw material 78 420
86 610
8 000
Less Closing inventory of raw material 78 610 (1)
Direct wages 52 396 (1)
Prime cost 131 006 (1)OF
Factory overheads
Wages of factory supervisor 27 500 (1)
Rates and insurance (17 528 3/4) 13 146 (1)
Factory electricity (11 442 + 1 048) 12 490 (1)
General expenses 8 244
Depreciation of factory equipment
(90 000 – 43 920) 20% 9 216 (1) 70 596
201 602 (1)OF
Add opening work-in-progress 15 200 *
216 802
Less closing work-in-progress 16 100 *
Cost of production 200 702 (1)OF
4(b) Salman 5
Income statement (trading section) for the year ended 30 April 2023
$ $
Revenue 435 174 (1)OF
Cost of sales
Opening inventory 23 860
Cost of production 200 702 (1)OF
Purchases of finished goods 90 144 (1)
314 706
Closing inventory 24 590 290 116 (1)OF
Gross profit 145 058 (1)OF
Max (4)
5(b) Q Limited 8
Statement of Financial Position at 31 March 2023
$ $ $
Assets
Non-current Assets Cost Provision For Net Book
Depreciation Value
Fittings and equipment 150 000 40 650 109 350 } (1) for
Motor vehicles 72 000 31 125 40 875 } both lines
222 000 71 775 150 225 (1)
Current Assets
Inventory 51 790
Trade receivables 19 700
Less Provision for doubtful debts 591 19 109 (1)
Bank 1 076
71 975 (1)OF
Total assets 222 200
Current Liabilities
Trade payables 31 450 (1)
Total Equity and Liabilities 222 200
5(c) (19 109 OF + 1 076) : 31 450 OF = 20 185 OF : 31 450 OF (1) whole formula = 0.64 : 1 (1)OF 2
Max (2)
Max (4)
(1) for recommendation