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01 Indian History
Q.1 Which of the following statement(s)
regarding Partition of Bengal is/are correct?
I. It was happened in 1905.
II. It was done by Viceroy Curzon.
TGT CS 2021
A. Both I and II B. Neither I nor II
C. Only II D. Only I
Q.2 In which year was ‘Poona Pact’ introduced?
TGT CS 2021
A. 1928 B. 1922
C. 1930 D. 1932
Q.3 On ______, Buddha preached for the first
time.
TGT CS 2021
A. Rajgir B. Vaishali
C. Sarnath D. Vajji
Q.4 The Allahabad Prasasti referenced:
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Banabhatta B. Chandragupta II
C. Aryabhatta D. Samudragupta
Q.5 Malwa culture is associated with which of
the following?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Neolithic age B. Chalcolithic age
C. Palaeolithic age D. Bronze age
Q.6 The Champaran Satyagraha took place in
which of the following states of India?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Odisha B. West Bengal
C. Bihar D. Gujarat
Q.7 When and where did the Indian National
Congress first meet?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1884, at Calcutta B. 1885, at Satara
C. 1885, at Bombay D. 1885, at Ahmedabad

Q.8 Who among the following kings

constructed the Stupa at Sanchi?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Bindusara B. Kumaragupta
C. Kanishka D. Ashoka
Q.9 Who among the following was given the
title of ‘Amitraghata’ by the Greek authors?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Seleucus Nicator B. Chandragupta Maurya
C. Bindusara D. Alexander
Q.10 The first Arya Samaj unit was organised at
which of the following places?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Delhi B. Bombay
C. Calcutta D. Madras
Q.11 Which of the following cities was a great
centre of trade, religion and culture and
became the second capital of the Gupta
empire?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Patliputra B. Banaras
C. Kausambi D. Ujjain
Q.12 Who was the Viceroy of India when Burma
was separated from India?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Lord Willingdon B. Lord Wavell
C. Lord Reading D. Lord Linlithgow

Q13. The South Indian power which sent

expeditions to the Maldives and Lanka was:
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Pallavas B. Cheras
C. Pandyas D. Cholas
Q14. Who among the following was given the
title of ‘Amitraghata’ by the Greek authors?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Seleucus Nicator B. Chandragupta Maurya
C. Bindusara D. Alexande
Q15. In the medieval times, a mosque was
called a masjid in the _______ language.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Urdu B. Arabic C . Persian D. Greek
Q16. The most opposed policy of Lord Curzon
was the DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Partition of Bengal B. Army Reforms C.
Judicial Reforms D. Ancient Monuments Act
Q17. In the Gudem Hills of ________, a militant
guerrilla movement spread in the early 1920s
against the exploitation of the colonial rule.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Orissa B. Assam C. Kerala D. Andhra Pradesh
Q18. Which was the main fort of the Mewar
region under Sisodiya Rajputs? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Jaigarh Fort B. Amer Fort
C. Nahargarh Fort D. Chittorgarh Fort
Q19. Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law at
which of the following places? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Kheda B. Champaran C. Sabarmati D. Dandi
Q20 Who was the leader of the Mahad
satyagraha? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Dr. BR Ambedkar B. Madan Mohan Malviya
C. M R Jayakar D. Mahatma Gandhi
Q21 Who called Indian federalism as
‘cooperative federalism’? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ivor Jennings B. Granville Austin
C. BR Ambedkar D . Morris Jones
Q22. In which year was the Citizenship Act of
India passed by the Parliament for the first
time? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1950 B. 1952 C. 1951 D. 1955
Q23. Alauddin Khalji constructed a new
garrison town named ‘Siri’ for ___________.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. the farmers of Doab B. his traders C.
his soldiers D. his administration
Q24. Which Gupta ruler is associated with the
Allahabad inscription? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Samudragupta B. Vinayagupta
C. Chandragupta II D. Harigupta

Q25. Under whose patronage was the Red Fort

constructed in Delhi? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Aurangzeb B. Shahjahan
C. Feroz Shah Tughlaq D. Allauddin Khilji
Q26. The Harappans used which of the
following grains as their main item of food?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Rice B. Bajra C. Gram D. Wheat
Q27. Which contemporary chronicle describes
Sultan Raziya? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Baharisitan-i-Ghaybi B. Fathiya Ibriya C.
Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi D. Tabaqat-i-Nasiri
Q28. The Congress Working Committee, in its
meeting in ________ on 14 July 1942, passed
the historic ‘Quit India’ resolution. DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Ahmedabad B. Bombay C. Surat D. Wardha
Q29. Which year was declared as the ‘Year of
Social Justice’ in the memory of BR Ambedkar?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1985-1986 B. 1996-1997 C. 1990-1991 D.
1978-1979
Q30. The Great Bath was excavated from which
Harappan site? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mohenjo-daro B. Harappa C. Rakhigarhi D.
Dholavira
Q31. The first battle of Panipat was won by
which of the following Mughal emperors?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Babur B. Jahangir C. Akbar D. Humayun
Q32. The Spices Board was constituted in ____
for the export promotion of spices.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1948 B. 1987 C. 1995 D. 1960
Q33. Who has said, “No supreme court, no
judiciary, can stand in judgement over the
sovereign will of Parliament, representing the
will of the entire community DSSSB JSA 2022
A. JL Nehru B. SC Bose C. BR Ambedkar D. MK
Gandhi
Q34. Rajguru was executed in which of the
following jails of pre-independence India?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Pune B. Lahore C. Amritsar D. Delhi
Q35. _________ was the capital of the early
Shungas. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Vidisha B. Ayodhya C. Pataliputra D. Shakala
Q36. For the first time in the history of the
Sultanate, a Delhi Sultan, __________, planned
a campaign to capture the Mongol territory.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Alauddin Khalji B. Jalaluddin Khalji C.
Ghiyasuddin Balban D. Muhammad Tughluq
Q37. Gandhi outlined the main features of the
non-cooperation policy in ______. DSSSB JSA
2022
A. 1919 B. 1922 C. 1924 D. 1920
Q38. Which rock edict describes Ashoka’s first
Dhamma Yatra to Bodhgaya and Bodhi Tree?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Major Rock Edict 3 B. Major Rock Edict 6 C.
Major Rock Edict 9 D. Major Rock Edict 8
Q39. Who among the following was NOT one of
the founder members of ‘Rahnumai
Mazdayasnan Sabha’ in 1851? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Narouji Furdonji B. DadabhaiNaoroji C. S.S.
Bengalee D. Muhammad Iqbal
Q40. Who among the following was the real
founder of the Vakataka empire? DSSSB JSA
2022
A.Vindhyasakti B. Virsena C. Sarvasen D.
Rudrasen II
Q41. Kulottunga of Vengi was: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. a powerful dynast from the Pallava dynasty
who came from Vatapi
B. a member of the Eastern Chaulukya dynasty
and a Chola relative
C. a member of the Chera dynasty who fought
the Cholas
D. a prominent Pandya king who fought the
Rashtrakutas
Q42. Which of the following Mughal rulers
initiated the construction of the Agra Fort with
red sandstone? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Babur B. Akbar C. Shah Jahan D. Aurangzeb
Q43. Which of the following epidemics in 1918-
19 killed 170 lakh people in India? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Small pox B. Influenza C. Malaria D. Cholera
Q44. The Persian word ‘bandagan’ was used for
the ___________ during the early period of
Delhi Sultanate. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. special slaves purchased for military service
B. spies who worked in secretly in rural areas C.
Hindu population D. security personals of
Sultan
Q45. In which year did the British Government
announce the Communal Award? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. 1928 B. 1934 C. 1932 D. 1930
Q46. Ashokan inscriptions are divided into:
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. land grants and monastic donations
B. rock edicts and copper plate inscriptions
C. rock edicts, pillar edicts and cave inscriptions
D. pillar edicts and cave inscriptions
Q47. Megasthenes has given the description of
the administration of which of the following
Mauryan cities? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Pataliputra B. Prayag C. Tosali D. Ujjayini
Q48. _________ was a revivalist movement.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Prarthana Samaj B. Arya Samaj C. Brahma
Samaj D. Aligarh Movement
Q49. The Indian Association was DSSSB JSA
2022
A. founded in Poona in 1870
B. established in London in 1871
C. established in Calcutta in 1876
D. established in Amritsar in 1872
Q50. Din-i-Ilahi was the creation of which of the
following Mughal emperors? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Humayun B. Akbar C. Babur D. Jahangir
Q51. In which of the following places did Uday
Shankar establish the Uday Shankar India
Culture Centre in 1938? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Hyderabad B. Kolkata C. Manali D. Almora
Q52. Which of the following statements about
the Rajas of Rigveda is true? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. They had thriving capitals.
B. They collected taxes.
C. Generally, sons did not automatically
succeed their fathers as Rajas.
D. They owned their armies.
Q53. Manigramam was a renowned_______ in
South India from the Eighth Century onwards.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. land revenue B. peasant community C.
devadasis D. guild
Q54. The revolutionary Surya Sen was
associated with which of the following? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Meerut conspiracy case B. Lahore conspiracy
case C. Chittagong armoury raid D. Chauri-
Chaura incidence
Q55. ‘Dhamma’ is the ________ word used by
Mauryan King Ashoka . DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Pali B. Prakrit C. Sanskrit D. Apabhraṃśa
Q56. According to the Archaeological Survey of
India, the sophisticated water conservation
system of channels and reservoirs of Dholavira
was built completely of _______. DSSSB JSA
2022
A. stone B. timber C. bronze D. iron
Q57. When was the first synchronous census
held in India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1881 B. 1883 C. 1880 D. 1882
Q58. Who amongst the following defeated
Humayun in the Battle of Chausa in 1539?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Sher Khan B. Safavid Shah C. Kamran Mirza
D. Rana Sanga
Q59. Which King of Mewar accepted the service
of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Jagat Singh B. Karan Singh C. Udai Singh D.
Amar Singh
Q60. The Mauryan Empire grew and thrived
during the _________ Age. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Bronze B. Copper C. Stone D. Iron
Q61. Who, along with Mendeleev, was given
the Davy Medal in 1882 by the Royal Society,
London for their discovery of the periodic
relations of the atomic weights? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Lothar Meyer B. JAR Newlands C. Van
Spronsen D. Johann Dobereiner
Q62. Which of the following slogans was found
on the first stamp of Independent India? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Vande Mataram B. Jai Jawan C. Jai Hind D. Jai
Kisan
Q63. Who was the founder of the
Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in
Aligarh? ? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mirza Ghulam Ahmad B. Sir Syed Ahmed
Khan C. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar D. Dadabhai
Naoroji
Q64. The fear of ________ expansion across
Asia and to enter India was a major cause of
the first Anglo Afghan war. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. German B. Russian C. French D. Spanish
Q65. Who was the founder of the Khalji
dynasty? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ala-ud-din Khalji B. Shihabuddin Masud C.
Juna Muhammad Khalji D. Jalal-ud-din Firoz
Khalji
Q66. Aurangzeb annexed Bijapur in _______
and Golconda in ______ in the Mughal Empire.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1685; 1689 B. 1685; 1687 C. 1684; 1686 D.
1683; 1685
Q67. Which poet was a maha-danda-nayaka or
chief judicial officer during the Gupta Period?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Vishakhadatta B. Dandin C. Bhavabhuti D.
Harishena
Q68. Samudragupta was shown as playing a
____ on his coins. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. sitar B. veena C. sarod D. bansur DSSSB JSA
2022

Q69. Which of the following events led to the

British political rule in India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Battle of Plassey, 1757 B. Anglo-Mysore War,
1769 C. Partition of Bengal, 1905 D. Pitt’s India
Act, 1784
Q70. The Arthasastra of Kautilya was divided
into __________ DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 12 Adhikaranas and 190 Prakaranas B. 20
Adhikaranas and 200 Prakaranas C. 18
Adhikaranas and 160 Prakaranas D. 15
Adhikaranas and 180 Prakaranas
Q71. Who among the following Rashtrakuta
kings performed a ritual called hiranya-garbha
(literally, the golden womb) to get the status of
Kshatriya? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Dantidurga B. Indra III C. Dhruva Dharavarsha
D. Amoghavarsha
Q72. In which year did Mohammad Ghori die?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1203 B. 1205 C. 1206 D. 1204
Q73. Atomic Energy Commission of India was
established in the year__________. DSSSB JSA
2022
A. 1967 B. 1948 C. 1962 D. 1955
Q74. The famous Salt March led by Mahatma
Gandhi was associated with the ______
movement. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Civil disobedience B. Quit India C. Kheda
Satyagraha D. Non-violence
Q75. The Treaty of Pondicherry was signed
after which War? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. First Anglo-Sikh War, 1845-1846 B. Second
Anglo-French War, 1749-54 C. First Anglo-
Mysore War, 1766-1769 D. First War of
Independence, 1857
Q76. The Mansabdari system was a grading
system used by the Mughals. Which of the
following was NOT primarily fixed by the
Mughal emperor for a Mansabdar on his initial
appointment? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Military responsibilities B. Salary C. Rank D.
Architectural responsibilities
Q77. How many days did Mahatma Gandhi take
to complete the Dandi March? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 24 B. 20 C. 26 D. 22
Q78. During the Mahajanapada age, _______
was known as Bhaga DSSSB JSA 2022
A. the tax on agricultural products B. the tax on
trading products C. the barter system D.
custom duty
Q79. In 1919, who among the following decided
to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the
proposed Rowlatt Act (1919)? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mahatma Gandhi B. Dadabhai Naoroji C.
Gopal Krishna Gokhale D. Lala Lajpat Rai
Q80. Who was the founding member of the
Swadeshi Movement and campaigned for
Swaraj and Swadeshi Movement? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Lala Lajpat Rai B. Sardar Patel C. Mangal
Pandey D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Q81. Who among the following personalities is
considered as the leader of social reformation
in Western India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy B. Henry Lui Vivian
Derozio C. MG Ranade D. Rabindranath Tagore
Q82. Who bestowed the title of ‘Mahatma’
upon Gandhi? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel B. Rabindranath
Tagore C. Subash Chandra Bose D. Jawaharlal
Nehru
Q83. Who started his famous ‘Nibandhmala’ in
1874, a monthly Marathi magazine, devoted to
the cause of social reform? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Narayan Mahadev Permanand B. Ramkrishna
Gopal Bhandarkar C. KT Telang D. Vishnushastri
Chiplunkar
Q84. Formal education was theoretically
available to members of the __________ during
the Gupta period. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Dvijas only B. Kshatriyas only C. Brahmans
only D. Shudras only
Q85. When was the new system of justice
established in British India, in which each
district was to have two courts – a criminal
court (faujdari adalat) and a civil court (diwani
adalat)? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1792 B. 1786 C. 1765 D. 1772
Q86. Ancient text Devichandraguptam was
primarily related to the history of the
__________ Empire. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Satavahana B. Mauryan C. Gupta D. Kushan
Q87. Which Mughal Emperor divided his
Empire among his brothers, according to the
will of his father? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Humayun B. Babur C. Akbar D. Shah Jahan
Q88. Which of the following was the capital of
Mirza Hakim, stepbrother of Akbar? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Kabul B. Khandesh C. Malwa D. Kashmir
Q89. Who among the following personalities
was the founder of the ‘All India Mahila
Congress’ in the year 1940? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Begum Hazrat Mahal B. Indira Gandhi C.
Sucheta Kriplani D. Annie Besant
Q90. _________ composed the prashasti of the
Chalukya King Pulakeshin II who checked the
advance of Harshavardhana. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ravikirti B. Shudraka C. Badarayana D. Yaska
Q91. British officials arrested Birsa Munda in
1895, convicted him on the charges of rioting
and jailed him for __________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. six months B. two years C. one year D. three
years
Q92. In which of the following years did the
Government of India declare the first Indian
classical language? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1963 B. 2004 C. 2005 D. 1967
Q93. Which of the following words was
included in the name of Hindustan Republican
Association in 1928? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Socialist B. Communist C. National D.
Revolutionary
Q94. Who was Razia Sultana’s father? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Ghiyas ud din Balban B. Aram Shah C.
Iltutmish D. Rukn-ud-din Firuz

Q95. Who was the first ruler of the Mamluk

dynasty? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Rukn-ud-din Firuz B. Alauddin Masud C. Qutb
ud-din-Aibak D. Nasiruddin Mahmud Shah
Q96. After which of the following events did
the Mauryan King Ashoka decide NOT to fight
any more wars? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Taxila Uprising B. Ujjain Uprising C. Kalinga
War D. Battle of the Hydaspes
Answer Key

1. A 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. B
11. D 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. B 16.A 17. D 18. D 19. D 20. A
21 D 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. D 28. D 29. C 30.A
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. B 35.C 36. D 37.D 38.D 39.D 40.A
41. B 42. B 43. B 44. A 45. C 46.C 47.A 48.B 49.C 50.B
51.D 52.C 53.D 54.C 55.B 56.A 57.A 58.A 59.D 60.D
61.A 62.C 63.B 64.B 65.D 66.B 67.D 68.B 69.A 70.D
71.A 72.C 73.B 74.A 75.B 76.D 77.A 78.A 79.A 80.A
81.C 82.B 83.D 84.A 85.D 86.C 87.A 88.A 89.C 90.A
91.B 92.B 93.A 94.C 95.C 96.C
Explanations

1. The first Partition of Bengal (1905) was a territorial reorganization of the Bengal Presidency
implemented by the authorities of the British Raj.Announced on 19 July 1905 by Lord Curzon,
the then Viceroy of India, and implemented on 16 October 1905, it was undone a mere six
years later.

2. 1932
Poona Pact, (September 24, 1932), agreement between Hindu leaders in India granting new
rights to Dalits (low-caste Hindu groups then often labeled “untouchables”).

3. "Gautam Buddha preached at Sarnath for the first time. Buddha received enlightenment at
Bodh Gaya. After that he went to Sarnath to preach his first teachings at the deer park the set
the “Wheel of Dharma” in motion.

13. During the reign of Rajaraja Chola I and his successors

Rajendra Chola I, Virarajendra Chola and Kulothunga Chola
I the Chola armies invaded Sri Lanka, the Maldives and
parts of Southeast Asia like Malaysia, Indonesia and
Southern Thailand of the Srivijaya Empire in the 11th
century..
The son of the Maurya dynasty's founder Chandragupta
14.
Maurya and also the second Mauryan emperor of India,
Bindusara (born c. 320 BCE—died 272/3 BCE) was
famously known as Amitraghata (or Amitrochates) by the
Greeks, which in Sanskrit means the slayer of enemies.
15.The English word "mosque" denotes a Muslim house of
worship. The word evolved from the Arabic term masjid,
which means "place of prostration." During prayer, Muslims
briefly kneel and touch their foreheads to the ground as a
sign of submission (literally, Islam) to the will of God.
The partition of the undivided Bengal Presidency in 1905
16.
was one of Curzon's most criticised moves which triggered
widespread opposition not only in Bengal but across India
and gave impetus to the freedom movement
In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh a militant guerrilla
17.
movement spread in the early 1920s. The Gudem rebels
 attacked police stations, attempted to kill British officials and
carried on guerrilla warfare for achieving swaraj.
18. Located 84 kms north of Udaipur in the wilderness, Kumbhalgarh is the second most
important citadel after Chittorgarh in the Mewar region. Cradled in the Aravali Ranges the
fort was built in the 15th century AD by Rana Kumbha.

He led a large group of people from Sabarmati Ashram on

19.
12th March 1930 till Dandi, a coastal village in Gujarat, to
break the salt law by producing salt from seawater.
It will commemorate Mahad Satyagraha of 1927 led
20.
by Ambedkar ,B.R. Ambedkar, Karnataka State Dalit
Sangharsh Samiti is going to organise a day-long conference
on the event in Kalaburagi on Sunday.
21. Granville Austin mentioned Indian federalism as
“cooperative federalism”.
22. In 1955, the Indian government passed the Citizenship
Act, by which all people born in India subject to some
limitations were accorded citizenship. The Act also provided
two means for foreigners to acquire Indian citizenship.
23. Alauddin Khilji built a garrison town named Siri for his
soldiers. A garrison town is a fortified settlement that housed
soldiers.
24. Inscription by Samudragupta on the Allahabad pillar,
where Samudragupta presents king Gupta as his great-
grandfather. Dated circa 350 CE.
25. Red Fort, also called Lal Qalʿah, also spelled Lal Kila or
Lal Qila, Mughal fort in Old Delhi, India. It was built by Shah
Jahān in the mid-17th century and remains a major tourist
attraction
26. The Harappan people had a wide food base. Their staple
food crops were wheat and barley. Other food crops included
rice, peas, beans, fruits, millets, etc. Rice, a water-intensive
crop, was cultivated in the region.
27. Tabaqat-i Nasiri, named for Sultan Nasir-ud-Din, is an elaborate history of the Islamic world
written in Persian by Minhaj-i-Siraj Juzjani and completed in 1260.

28.On 14 July 1942, the Congress Working Committee met

again at Wardha and resolved that it would authorise Gandhi
to take charge of the non-violent mass movement. The
Resolution, generally referred to as the 'Quit India' resolution,
was to be approved by the All India Congress Committee
meeting in Bombay in August.
29. The period from 14 April 1990 — 14 April 1991 was
observed as "Year of Social Justice" in the memory of
Babasaheb.
30. Great Bath, ancient structure at Mohenjo-daro, Pakistan,
an archaeological site featuring ruins of the Indus civilization.
The Great Bath dates to the 3rd millennium bce and is
believed to have been used for ritual bathing.
31. In 1526, the Mughal forces of Babur, the Timurid ruler of
Kabulistan, defeated the much larger ruling army of Ibrahim
Lodi,Sultan of Delhi.
32. The Spices Board was constituted as a statutory body on 26th
February, 1987 under Section (3) of the Spices Board Act, 1986.
33.
34. Revolutionary freedom fighters Bhagat Singh, Shivaram
Rajguru and Sukhdev Thapar were hanged to death by the British
government for their activities on March 23, 1931, at the Lahore
Jail. This day is observed as 'Martyrs' Day' in India.
35. Its capital was Pataliputra, but later emperors such as
Bhagabhadra also held court at Besnagar (modern Vidisha) in
eastern Malwa. Territory of the Shungas circa 150
BCE. Pushyamitra ruled for 36 years and was succeeded by his
son Agnimitra.
36. Muhammad bin Tughluq (1290 – 20 March 1351), also named Juna Khan as Crown
Prince,[2] was the eighteenth Sultan of Delhi. He reigned from February 1325 until his death in
1351. The sultan was the eldest son of Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq, founder of the Tughlaq
dynasty.[3] In 1321, the young Muhammad was sent by his father to the Deccan Plateau to fight a
military campaign against the Kakatiya dynasty. In 1323, the future sultan successfully laid siege
upon the Kakatiya capital in Warangal. This victory over King Prataparudra ended the Kakatiya
dynasty

37. The correct answer is 1920

At the Calcutta session of the Congress in September 1920, Gandhi convinced

other leaders of the need to start a non-cooperation movement in support of
Khilafat as well as for Swaraj. Gandhi supported Khilafat movement so as to
build unity among the Hindus and the Muslims.
38. The correct answer is 'Major Rock Edict 8'. Key PointsMajor Rock Edict 8: It describes the
first Dhamma Yatra by Ashoka. This Edict is remarkable in that it describes the visit of the king to
Sambodhi another name for Bodh Gaya

The correct answer is 'Muhammad Iqbal'. Rahnumai

39.
Mazdayasnan Sabha was founded in 1851 AD in Bombay. It was a
Parsi reform movement. The founder members were Narouji
Furdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji, RK Cama, and S. S. Bengalee.
40. Vindhyashakti was the founder of Vakataka dynasty in the third
century. The Vakataka Empire was a dynasty of the Indian
subcontinent, starting in the mid-3rd century CE from the Deccan.
41. Kulottunga I was a Chola king who ruled between 1070-1122 A.D. He was not the legal
family member of the Imperial Cholas established by Vijayalaya Chola. He was none other than
Eastern Chalukyan prince Rajendra Chalukya. Let us understand who is Kulottunga I and what
was his connection with Chola dynasty.

The Red Fort of Agra was built by Emperor Akbar in 1565.

42.
Known as the “Fort Rouge” or “Qila-i-Akbari ”, the
construction of this huge red-sandstone fort was started by
Akbar and further built by Shah Jahan, his grandson.
43. Influenza Mortality in India The influenza pandemic of
1918 claimed up to 70 million lives around the world, until it
unexpectedly disappeared in 1919
44. The correct answer is 'special slaves purchased for
military service'. Bandagan is a Persian term used for special
slaves who are purchased for military service during the early
period of Delhi Sultanate, especially by sultan Iltutmish.
45. In August 1932, the British government on B.R.
Ambedkar's insistence announced a 'Communal Award'.
46. There are 33 inscriptions in total and primarily classified into the following:
1. Major rock edicts
2. Minor rock edicts
3. Separate rock edicts
4. Major pillar edicts
5. Minor pillar edicts

47. Thecorrect answer is Pataliputra. The description of the

administration of Patliputra is available in the book "Indica" by
Megasthenes, an ambassador to Chandra Gupta Maurya in
Patliputra by Greek ruler Seleucus Nicator I.
48. Some major revivalist movements were Arya Samaj;
Deoband movement etc.

49. The Indian Association was the first avowed nationalist organization founded in British India
by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in 1876. The objectives of this Association
were "promoting by every legitimate means the political, intellectual and material advancement of
the people"

50.Dīn-i Ilāhī, (Persian: “Divine Faith”), an elite eclectic

religious movement, which never numbered more than 19
adherents, formulated by the Mughal emperor Akbar in the
late 16th century ad.

51. His troupe toured Europe in 1930 and from 1932 until the
1960s regularly appeared in the United States. In 1938 he
founded the Uday Shankar India Culture Centre in Almora,
Uttaranchal (now Uttarakhand). (The school for dance,
drama, and music closed during World War II but reopened in
1965 in Kolkata.)
52. The correct answer is 'Generally, sons did not
automatically succeed their fathers as Rajas'.
According to rajas in Rig Veda, their name does not define
their work and fame . They just have only the name Raja
,unlike later Rajas.
Rigvedic rajas generally included wise persons , old citizens
who were experienced, and brave men.
53. Manigramam was a renowned guild. Manigirimam, or
Manigramam, usually refers to a medieval merchants guild,
organized by travelling ethnic Indian merchants, operating
mainly in South India.
54. On 12 January 1934, revolutionary freedom fighter Surya
Kumar Sen was hanged by the British at the Chittagong Jail.
He was associated with the famous Chittagong Armoury
Raid. Surya Sen was an important revolutionary in the history
of India.

55. The correct answer is 'Prakrit'. Dhamma is the Prakrit

word for the Sanskrit word Dharma. Dhamma means
Righteous living and following the path of dhamma will lead to
the salvation of the soul. It was only after the Kalinga war that
Ashoka became engaged in Dhamma according to his
inscriptions.
56. One of the unique features of Dholavira is the sophisticated
water conservation system of channels and reservoirs, the earliest
found anywhere in the world, built completely of stone. The city had
massive reservoirs, three of which are exposed.

57. The first continuous or synchronous census started in the

year 1881 and then followed a 10 year cycle. It was under the
leadership of W.C Plowden, who was the Census commissioner of
India. The first census of Independent India was conducted in 1951,
and the latest census to be conducted was of 2011.
58. Sher Khan defeated Humayun at Chausa (1539) and Kanauj (1540), forcing him to flee to
Iran. In Iran, Humayun received help from the Safavid Shah, He recaptured Delhi in 1555 but
died the next year after an accident in the library “Sher Mandal”

The Sisodiya ruler of Mewar, Amar Singh, accepted

59.
Mughal service.
60. The Maurya Empire, or the Mauryan Empire, was a geographically extensive Iron Age

61.One of them was Julius Lothar Meyer (1830-1895). Both

Meyer and Mendeleev were awarded the Davy Medal for their
discovery of the “periodic relations of the atomic weights” by
the Royal Society of London awarded in 1882.
62. The First Stamp of Independent India was issued on 21
November 1947. It depicts the Indian Flag with the patriots'
slogan, Jai Hind (Long Live India), on the top right hand
corner.

63. Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khan founded the Mohammedan

Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh in 1875.
64. Russia might expand across Asia and enter India from the
north-west. Driven by this fear, the British now wanted to
secure their control over the north-west. They fought a
prolonged war with Afghanistan between 1838 and 1842, and
established indirect Company rule there.

65. Jalal-ud-din Firoz Khilji (1290-1296 A.D.)

He was the founder of Khilji Dynasty.

66. In 1687 AD, the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb annexed Golconda and
Bijapur in 1686 AD. Though, the annexations of Bijapur and Golconda did
not benefit the Mughal empire because it was difficult to administer them as
they were too far away from Delhi (capital of Mughal empire).
67. Harisena was a 4th-century Sanskrit poet, panegyrist and a court official. He was an
important figure in the court of Gupta emperor, Samudragupta. His most famous poem, written c.
345 C.E., describes the bravery of Samudragupta and is inscribed on the Allahabad Pilla
68.N/A
69.The formal British rule in India is under- stood to have
commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of
Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India
Company. Henceforth the British Company transformed from a
commercial trading venture to a political entity which virtually ruled
India.
70. Arthashastra is divided into 15 adhikaranas or book titles, 150
chapters and 180 topics.
71. Dantidurga, the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty, performed
a ritual called Hiranya-Garbha, which means now the person is
"rebirth" as Kshatriya.
72. Muhammad Ghori died on 15 MARCH 1206
73.The correct answer is Homi Bhabha. About Atomic Energy
Commission of India: The Indian Atomic Energy Commission was
formed on 1st March 1948. The commission was created on 10th
August 1948 by the Department of Scientific Research.
74. The Salt March, also known as the Salt Satyagraha, Dandi March and the Dandi
Satyagraha, was an act of nonviolent civil disobedience in colonial India led by Mahatma
Gandhi. The twenty-four day march lasted from 12 March to 5 April 1930 as a direct
action campaign of tax resistance and nonviolent protest against the British salt monopoly.
Another reason for this march was that the Civil Disobedience Movement needed a strong
inauguration that would inspire more people to follow Gandhi's example.

75.The Second Carnatic War, fought between the English and the
French, ended with the Treaty of Pondicherry.
76. It was a grading system used by the Mughals to fix rank, salary and military responsibilities.
· Rank and salary were determined by a numerical value called zat.

77.Salt Satyagraha March started on 12th March 1930 from

Sabarmati Ashram and reached Dandi after 24 days on 6th April
1930.
78. During the age of the mahajanapadas, tax on crops was the
most important and it was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This
was known as bhaga or share.
79. Gandhiji decided to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed
Rowlatt Act, 1919, because
1) It gave enormous power to the government and no power to the leaders.
2) This law was hurriedly passed even after the united opposition by the Indians
and other Indian leaders.
3) It allowed the detention of political leaders without any trial for three years.
4) It means that the British Government can arrest any Indian leader without
any proof of crime.

80.Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, Lala Lajpat Rai are the key people in
swadeshi movement. It was in the 1906 Calcutta session, headed by Dada Bhai
Naoroji the resolution of Swadeshi was adopted.

81.M.G. Ranade was a great social reformer, scholar and author of

India who is regarded as the "father of renaissance" of western
India.
82. "Mahatma", meaning a great soul, is often taken to be Gandhi's given name
in the West. Poet and Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore bestowed this title to
Gandhi in 1915 while writing his autobiography.

Chiplunkar started his famous Nibandhmala in 1874, a monthly

83.
Marathi magazine, devoted to the cause of social reform.
84.The correct answer is Dvijas only
85. From 1772 a new system of justice was established. Each
district was to have two courts – a criminal court ( faujdari adalat )
and a civil court (diwani adalat).
86.Mudra-Rakshasa and Devi Chandragupta were both written by Vishakhadatta.
Mudra-Rakshasa is a play written about the rise of Chandragupta Maurya to the
throne of Magadha while Devi Chandragupta is a play about the early life of
Chandragupta II.

87.HUMAYUN 1530-1540, 1555-1556 (1) Humayun divided his

inheritance according to the will of his father. His brothers were
each given a province.
88. The capital of Mirza Hakim, Akbar's half-brother, was Kabul.
89. Sucheta kripalani was the first woman in India who became the chief minister of Uttar
Pradesh.

The best known Chalukya ruler was Pulakeshin II. We know

90.
about him from a prashasti. This prashasti (inscription) was
composed by Pulakeshin's (II) court poet Ravikirti.
91. They arrested Birsa in 1895, convicted him on charges of rioting
and jailed him for two years. When Birsa was released in 1897, he
began touring the villages to gather support.
92. According to Article 343, the official language of India should be
Hindi in the Devanagari script. As per the Eighth Schedule of the
Indian Constitution, we have 22 languages. In 2004 it was decided
by the Indian Government to proclaim Indian Languages meeting
certain requirements as “Classical Language”.
93. In 1928, the name of the party was changed to Hindustan
Republican Socialist Association (HSRA) primarily because of
Bhagat Singh's insistence.
94. In 1205, Razia Sultan was born into the household of Shams-
us-din Iltutmish as his only daughter
95. Qutb ud-Din Aibak (Reign: 1206 – 1210)
The first ruler of the Mamluk Dynasty. Born to a Turkish family in
Central Asia.
96. After a bloody battle for the throne following the death of his
father, Ashoka was successful in conquering Kalinga – but he was
so horrified when he saw the violence and bloodshed that he
decided not to fight any more wars .
Plusminus

PYQ GK PDF Bundle by Plusminus

02 Indian Polity
Q.1 Which article of Indian constitution is
related with the power of parliament to amend
the constitution and procedure therefor?
TGT CS 2021
A. 373 B. 378
C. 361 D. 368
Q.2 Which amendment of Indian Constitution
ceased the recognition granted to Rulers of
Indian states and abolished privy purses?
TGT CS 2021
A. 38 B. 26
C. 21 D. 15
Q.3 Which directive principle of state policy
deals with the promotion of international peace
and security?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 51 B. 50
C. 44 D. 49
Q.4 The Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali
languages were added in the Eighth Schedule of
the Constitution of India in the year:
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 2004 B. 1967
C. 1992 D. 1948
Q.5 Which amendment added the new Article
21-A to the Constitution of India, that seeks to
provide free and compulsory education to all
children aged 6 to 14 years?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 86th B. 73rd
C. 64th D. 42nd
Q.6 Which Article of the Constitution lays down
that the Supreme Court may be required to
express its opinion in two classes of matters in
an advisory capacity as distinguished from its
judicial capacity?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 137 B. 143
C. 134 D. 133
Q.7 Which of the following statements is NOT
correct?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. The Swaran Singh Committee
recommended that the duty to pay taxes
should also be a fundamental duty of the
Citizen
B. The fundamental duties are justiciable in a
court of law.
C. In the Kathiawad political conference of
1925, Gandhiji remarked that the true source of
right is duty
 D. The original Constitution in 1950 did not
incorporate any chapter on fundamental duties
Q.8 Which Article of the Indian Constitution
deals with the ‘Annual financial statement’?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 112 B. 96
C. 118 D. 121
Q.9 Which of the following does NOT fall under
the Collective Privilege of the Houses of State
Legislature?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Punish members and outsiders for breach of
their privilege
B. Right to publish their reports
C. Making rules to regulate their own
procedure
D. Exemption from jury service
Q.10 Who among the following has stated that
Indian Constitution is “first and foremost
asocial document”?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. MV Pylee B. KC Wheare
C. Granville Austin D. Winston Churchill
Q.11 The Union Public Service Commission
presents its report annually to
the___________.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Union Law Minister B. Prime Minister
C. President D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q.12 How many seats are there from Uttar
Pradesh in Rajya Sabha?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 16 B. 18
C. 31 D. 10
Q.13 The ideals of Liberty, Equality and
Fraternity in the Indian Constitution were taken
from which of the following constitutions?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. The Canadian Constitution
B. The French Constitution
C. The Australian Constitution
D. The Irish Constitution

Q14 In which of the following cases did the

Supreme Court rule that writ jurisdiction of
both the High Court and the Supreme Court
constitute a part of the basic structure of the
Constitution? DSSSB JSA 2022
AKesavananda Bharati case B.Chandra Kumar
case C.Coelho case D.Minerva Mills case
Q15. Which of the following does NOT fall
under the Collective Privilege of the Houses of
State Legislature? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Exemption from jury service B. Right to
publish their reports C. Making rules to regulate
their own procedure D. Punish members and
outsiders for breach of their privilege

Q16. Who appoints the Judges of the High

Court DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
B. The President
C. The Governor
D. Chief Justice of the High Court
Q17 Which of the following Articles states ‘The
State shall not discriminate against any citizen
on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex,
place of birth or any of them’? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Article 15 (4) B. Article 15 (3) C. Article 15 (1)
D. Article 15 (2)
Q18. What is the maximum strength of the
public accounts committee of the Parliament?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 15 members B. 22 members
C. 10 members D. 7 members
Q19 Which of the following Articles of the
Indian Constitution contains provisions
regarding fundamental duties? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Article 31 A B. Article 61
C. Article 55 D. Article 51 A
Q20. Who among the following, while opposing
the inclusion of fundamental duties in the
Constitution, said that more than 99.9 percent
of citizens were law abiding DSSSB JSA 2022
A. CK Daphtary B. Morarji Desai
C. KR Bombwall D. Swaran Singh
Q21. Who among the following has the power
to adjourn the daily sittings of the House of the
People? DSSSB JSA 2022
A.PrimeMinister B.President C.Speaker D.
Vice President
Q22. Which Article of the Constitution
mentions that the Parliament may by law
constitute a High Court for a Union Territory or
declare any court in any such territory to be a
High Court for all or any of the purposes of this
Constitution? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Article 239 B. Article 245
C. Article 241 D. Article 236
Q23. Which of the following languages is NOT
included in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution of India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Manipuri B. Odia C. English D. Nepali
Q24. Andaman and Nicobar Administration has
jurisdiction over ______ Tehsils. DSSSB JSA
2022
A. eight B. nine C. six D. seven
Q25. The MM Punchhi Commission was
constituted in the year: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 2001 B. 2007 C. 2003 D. 2005
Q26. Identify the Prime Minister of India who
abolished Privy Purses? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Shri VP Singh B. Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri C.
Shri Charan Singh D. Smt. Indira Gandhi
Q27. The idea of Directive Principles of State
Policy was borrowed from: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. France B. The US C. Ireland D. Britain
Q28. What is the minimum prescribed age to
become a member of Rajya Sabha?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 25 years B. 35 years C. 30 years D. 21 years
Q29. Under which Article of the Constitution is
it mentioned that the Speaker’s conduct in
regulating the procedure or maintaining order
in the House will not be subject to the
jurisdiction of any court? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Article 122 B. Article 112 C. Article 120 D.
Article 114
Q30. Which of the following is NOT a feature of
the Indian Constitution? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Dual citizenship B. Secular state C. Sovereign
democratic republic D. Rigid and flexible
Q31. Which Article of the Indian Constitution
provides for Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Article 280 B. Article 350-B C. Article 76 D.
Article 148
Q32. Which of the following Articles of the
Indian Constitution deals with abolition of
titles? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Article 14 B. Article 18 C. Article 25 D. Article
30
Q33. Who can, by law constitute a High Court
for a Union Territory or declare any court in any
such territory to be a High Court for all or any
of the purposes? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Prime Minister B. Parliament C. President D.
Union Law Ministry
Q34. Which of the following Articles was
inserted in the Indian Constitution by the
86thAmendment Act, 2002? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Article 21 A B. Article 32 C. Article 19
D. Article 15
Q35. In which year was Article 239 A introduced
in the Constitution to empower Parliament to
create Legislature or Council of Ministers or
both for some of the Union Territories? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. 1965 B. 1969 C. 1958 D. 1962
Q36. Under which Article has a provision for
amendment to the Indian Constitution been
made? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Article 368 B. Article 161 C. Article 72 D.
Article 324
Q37. Which of the following languages is NOT a
major language mentioned in the 8th
Schedule? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Sindhi B. Khasi C. Santali D. Nepali

Q38. Which Amendment Act of the Indian

Constitution abolished the right to property as
a fundamental right? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 97th Amendment Act B. 21st Amendment
Act C. 7th Amendment Act
D. 44th Amendment Act
Q39. Which of the following is NOT correctly
matched DSSSB JSA 2022
A . Article 50 - Promotion of international peace
and security
B. Article 43 - Living wage,etc., for workers
C. Article 47 - duty of the state to raise the
level of nutrition and the standard of living and
to improve public health
D. Article 48 - Organisation of agriculture and
animal husbandry
Q40. The Parliamentary System of the
Government in the Indian Constitution is taken
from: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. the UK B. the US C. France D. Japan
Q41. The Writ Jurisdiction of the High Court is
mentioned under which Article of the Indian
Constitution? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Article 32 B. Article 121 C. Article 215 D.
Article 226
Q42. Which Article under directive principles of
state policy deals with the organisation of
village panchayats? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Article 47 B. Article 40 C. Article
43 D. Article 48
Q43. The ________ acts as the Chairman of the
State Planning Board. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Speaker B. Chief Minister C. Judge of a High
Court D. Governor
Q44. Who among the following appoints the
Governor of a State? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Union Law Minister B. Union Home
Minister C. President D. Vice-President
Q45. When was the eleventh Fundamental
Duty added in the Indian Constitution? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. 2002 B. 1976 C. 2005 D. 1991
Q46. Which Part of the Indian Constitution is
described as the Magna Carta of India? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Part III B. Part IX C. Part IV D. Part X
Q47. Abolition of titles falls under which
Fundamental Right? ? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Right against Exploitation B. Cultural and
Educational Rights C. Right to Equality D. Right
to Constitutional Remedy
Q48. Which Fundamental Right was deleted by
the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 from the list of
Fundamental Rights? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Right against exploitation B. Right to
property C. Right to constitutional remedies D.
Right to freedom of religion
Q49. Which of the following Acts abolished the
dual government of Pitt’s India Act? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Indian Councils Act, 1861 B. Charter Act,
1833 C. Government of India Act, 1919 D.
Government of India Act, 1858
Q50. Which Part of the Indian Constitution
contains Fundamental Duties? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Part IV B. Part V C. Part VII D. Part IV-A
Q51. Which of the following is NOT a feature of
Fundamental Rights? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. They are non-justiciable. B. Some of them
are negative in character. C. Some Fundamental
Rights are available to foreigners also. D. They
are not absolute but qualified.
Q52. Which of the following is the meaning of
the Ari according to Kautilya’s inner-state
polity, the vijigishu? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Middle King B. Neutral king C. Enemy King D.
Friend King
Q53. Which of the following Acts was based on
the Simon Commission Report? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Government of India Act, 1935 B. Charter
Act, 1833 C. Defence of India Act, 1915 D.
Indian Councils Act, 1861
Q54. The Indian Constitution is DSSSB JSA 2022
: A. the shortest Constitution in the world B.
governed by the Presidential form of
government C. an unwritten Constitution D.
quasi-federal in nature
Q55. Who among the following drafted the
Gandhian Constitution for free India? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Shriman Narayan
Agarwal C. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur D. Abul Kalam
Azad
Q56. The point within the earth where an
earthquake rupture starts is called: DSSSB JSA
2022
A. isocentre B. hypercentre C. epicentre D.
hypocentre
Q57. The Indian Official Languages Act was
passed in which of the following years? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. 1965 B. 1963 C. 1967 D. 1966
Q58. Fundamental Duties in the Indian
Constitution were inspired by which
Constitution? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. The Constitution of Germany B. The
Constitution of France C. The erstwhile USSR
Constitution D. The Constitution of Canada
Q59. Fundamental Duties are applicable on
which of the following? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Citizens and foreigners both B. Citizens C.
Some on citizens, some on foreigners D.
Government officials
Q60. Freedom of conscience and free
profession, practice and propagation of religion
is given in which Article of the Indian
Constitution? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Article 32 B. Article 25 C. Article 27 D. Article
14
Q61. Fundamental Rights are enshrined in
which Part of the Indian Constitution? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Part IV B. Part IV-A C. Part III D. Part V
Q62. How many members shall be elected by
electorates consisting of members of
municipalities, district boards and such other
local authorities in the state legislative council?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. One-third B. Two-third C. One-fourth D.
One-twelfth
Q63. Which of the following Acts under the
British Rule sought more participation of
Indians in the Colonial administration? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Defence of India Act, 1915 B. Charter Act,
1833 C. Government of India Act, 1919 D.
Indian Councils Act, 1861
Q64. To value and preserve the rich heritage of
the country’s composite culture is a part of
which of the following? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Directive Principles of State Policy B.
Fundamental Duties C. Responsibility of
Executive D. Fundamental Rights
Q65. Within how many days shall the legislative
council return a money bill to the legislative
assembly? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 14 B. 20 C. 10 D. 7
Q66. How many languages are included in the
8th Schedule of the Constitution of India?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 26 B. 24 C. 22 D. 28
Q67. Who can abolish a legislative council of a
state or create it where it does not exist? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Prime Minister B. President C. Parliament D.
Lok Sabha
Q68. Which British Act had a major influence on
the structural part of the Indian Constitution?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Indian Independence Act, 1947 B.
Government of Indian Act, 1909 C. Government
of India Act, 1919 D. Government of India Act,
1935
Q69. Which of the following is also known as
the Westminster Model of government? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Parliamentary system B. Oligarchy C.
Monarchy D. Presidential system
Q70. How many members does the President
nominate to the Rajya Sabha? ? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 6 B. 2 C. 12 D. 10
Answer Key

1. D 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. C
11. C 12. C 13. B 14 B 15.A 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. A
21. C 22.C 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. D 27. C 28. C 29.A 30. A
31. B 32. B 33.B 34.A 35. D 36.A 37. B 38. D 39.A 40.A
41.D 42. B 43. B 44.C 45.A 46.A 47.C 48. B 49.D 50.D
51.A 52.C 53.A 54.D 55.B 56.D 57.B 58.C 59.B 60.B
61.C 62.A 63.C 64.B 65.A 66.C 67.C 68.D 69.A 70.C
Explanations

1. Article 368
Part-xx Article 368 (1) of the Constitution of India grants constituent power to make formal
amendments and empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition,
variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is
different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.
2. The official recognition of all official symbols of princely India was withdrawn by the 26th
Amendment of 1971.

14. Article 51 of the Constitution of India deals with the promotion of international peace and
security.

In the Chandra Kumar case (1997), the Supreme Court

15..
ruled that the writ jurisdiction of both the high court and the
Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of
the Constitution.
The Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts are to
16.
be appointed by the President under clause (1) of Article
217 of the Constitution
17.Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution prohibits
discrimination against any citizen on the basis of religion,
race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
18. The Public Accounts Committee consists of not more than twenty-two members,
fifteen elected by Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament, and not more than
seven members of Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament.

The Fundamental Duties are dealt with Article 51A under

19.
Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
C. K Daphtary opposed the inclusion of Fundamental
20.
Duties in the Constitution.
21. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on
prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.

22. Article 241, Constitution of India 1950

(1) Parliament may by law constitute a High Court for a
State specified in Part C of the First Schedule or declare
any court in any such State to be a High Court for all or any
of the purposes of this Constitution.
 23. English is the language which is the official language of
a state but is still not recognised in the 8th schedule of the
constitution of India.
24. Andaman and Nicobar Administration has jurisdiction
over 9 Tehsils.
25. The Centre-State Relations Commission was constituted by the Government of India
on 27 April 2007 under the chairmanship of Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi

26. It was again proposed before Parliament in 1971, and

was successfully passed as the 26th Amendment to the
Constitution of India in 1971. The then Prime Minister
Indira Gandhi argued for the abolition based on equal
rights for all citizens and the need to reduce the
government's revenue deficit.
27India borrowed the DPSP from Irish Constitution of 1937 which itself had borrowed it
from Spanish Constitution. Further, the Government of India Act had some “instruments of
Instructions” which became the immediate source of DPSP.
28. The minimum age of thirty years is fixed for membership of the Upper House.

29. Article 122 in The Constitution Of India 1949

122. Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament
(1) The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the
ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure
(2) No officer or member of Parliament in whom powers are vested by or under this
Constitution for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order,
in Parliament shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by
him of those powers CHAPTER III LEGISLATIVE POWERS OF THE PRESIDENT

30. The concept of dual nationality means that a person is a national

of two countries at the same time. Each country has its own
nationality laws based on its own policy. Persons may have dual
nationality by automatic operation of different laws rather than by
choice.
31. Article 350-B provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, who is known as the
Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities in India (CLM) to investigate all the matters relating to
the Safeguards provided for the linguistic minorities in India under the Constitution and
reporting to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct
and the President causes all such reports to be laid before each House of the Parliament
and sent to the Government/Administrations of States/UTs concerned.
32. The correct answer is Article 18. Article 18 abolishes titles and prohibits the state from
conferring any title except a military or academic distinction on anybody whether citizen or
foreigner. It also prohibits an Indian citizen from accepting any title from any foreign state.

33.Parliament may by law constitute a High Court for a Union

territory or declare any court in any such territory to be a High Court
for all or any of the purposes of this Constitution.

34. The Article 21A of the Constitution of India which was inserted
by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, gives right to education to all
children of the age of 6 to 14 years.

35. The correct answer is '1962'. It was introduced in the

Indian Constitution in 1962. It empowers Parliament to create
a Legislature or Council of Ministers or both for some of the
Union Territories.

36. Amending the Constitution of India is the process of making changes to the nation's
fundamental law or supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in
Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India. This procedure ensures the sanctity of the
Constitution of India and keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament of India.
However, there is another limitation imposed on the amending power of the constitution of India,
which developed during conflicts between the Supreme Court and Parliament, where Parliament
wants to exercise discretionary use of power to amend the constitution while the Supreme Court
wants to restrict that power. This has led to the laying down of various doctrines or rules in
regard to checking the validity/legality of an amendment, the most famous among them is
the Basic structure doctrine as laid down by the Supreme Court in the case of Kesavananda
Bharati v. State of Kerala.

37.Languages in the 8th schedule are 1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5)
Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11)
Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu,
(18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.

38.  The 44th amendment of the Indian Constitution removed the Right to Property in
1978.

 It was removed from the Constitution under the Moraji Desai government.
 Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 guaranteed the rights of citizens to hold property.
 It was removed from the list of fundamental rights and included in the list of legal rights
under Article 300A.
 Article 300-A of the constitution provided that “no person shall be deprived of his property
save by authority of law.
 The Right to Property was removed to:
Prohibit excessive possession of land in the hands of few people
39. The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public
services of the State.

40.The Parliamentary system has its origins in the British

colonial rule as India was governed by the governor-general
with his executive council.
41. In India, writs are issued by the Supreme Court under
Article 32 of the Constitution of India and by the High Court
under Article 226 of the Constitution of India
42. Article 40 The State shall take steps to organise village
panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority
as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of
self-government.
43. The correct answer is Chief Minister. The State Planning Board is an advisory board under
the state government and is chaired by CM of the state.

44.The Governor of a State is appointed by the President for a

term of five years and holds office during his pleasure. Only
Indian citizens above 35 years of age are eligible for
appointment to this office.
45. 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental
Duties to the Indian Constitution. 86th Amendment Act
2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.
46. Part III of the Constitution is described as the Magna
Carta of India. It contains a very long and comprehensive list
of 'justiciable' fundamental rights. In fact, the Fundamental
Rights in our constitution are more elaborate than those
found in the Constitution of any other country in the world,
including the USA.
47. Article 18 of the constitution refers to the abolition of titles. It is under the Right to
Equality.

48.In 1978, the 44th amendment to the Constitution removed

the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and
converted it into a simple legal right under article 300 A.
49.D
50. The Fundamental Duties are dealt with Article 51A under
Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
51.The correct answer is They are non justiciable .
52. "Your neighbour is your natural enemy and the neighbour’s neighbour is your friend.”
Kautilya's Mandala Theory was based on this principle. And that is the very first thing that
comes to mind when reading Kautilya's works. Mandala is a Sanskrit term that literally
translates to "circles." Kautilya created the mandala system as a theoretical state-building in
his Arthashastra.

The seven British Parliament members and no indian were the

53.
members of this Simon Commission . The report of this commission
came as the The Government of India Act , 1935 which abolished
dyarchy and created provincial autonomy .

54The term quasi-federal means a federal set-up where despite having two clear
sets of government – central and the states, more powers are given to the Central
Government. It is said that India has a quasi-federal setup.

55. Shriman Narayan Agarwal, a Gandhian economist, drafted it

based on Gandhi's ideas. Gandhi wrote a foreword to the document
in which he said that the constitution was “based on his [Agarwal's]
study of my writings” and is not “inconsistent with what I would like
to stand for.
56. Focus (Hypocenter): The point within the Earth where an
earthquake rupture starts.
57. This Act may be called the Official Languages Act, 1963.
Section 3 shall come into force on the 26th day of Januray, 1965 and the remaining
provisions of this Act shall come into force on such date as the Central Government
may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint and different dates may be
appointed for different provisions of this Act.

58.The Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part IVA of the

Constitution of India, the idea of which was borrowed from
the Russian Constitution previously USSR constitution.
59. The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of
all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the
unity of India.
60. Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience, the freedom
to profess, practice and propagate religion to all citizens.
61. Article 12 to 35 contained in Part III of the Constitution deal with
Fundamental Rights.
62. as nearly as may be, one third shall be elected by electorates consisting of members
of municipalities, district boards and such other local authorities in the State as
Parliament may by law specify;

63. The Government of India Act 1919 was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom. It
was passed to expand participation of Indians in the government of India.

64.The fundamental duty of the citizen, according to the Indian

Constitution, is to value and preserve the rich heritage of our
culture.
65. After a Money Bill has been passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State having a
Legislative Council, it shall be transmitted to the Legislative Council for its
recommendations, and the Legislative Council shall within a period of fourteen days
from the date of its receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the Legislative Assembly with its
recommendations, and the Legislative Assembly may thereupon either accept or reject
all or any of the recommendations of the Legislative Council

66. The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:- (1) Assamese,
(2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9)
Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil,
(17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri. Of these languages, 14
were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three
more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri,
Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.

67.Parliament can abolish or create a Legislative Council if the

concerned legislative assembly passes a resolution to that effect
with simple majority.
68. The Government of India Act 1935 was an Act adapted from the
Parliament of the United Kingdom. It originally received royal assent
in August 1935.
69. The Westminster system or Westminster model is a type of parliamentary government
that incorporates a series of procedures for operating a legislature. This concept was first
developed in England.

70.Twelve members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the

President of India for six-years term for their contributions towards
arts, literature, sciences, and social services.
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03 Physical
Geography
QQ.1 Which of the following statement is
correct?
I. Sedimentary rocks may contains fossils.
II. Igneous rocks can change into metamorphic
rocks under great heat and pressure.
TGT CS 2021
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
Q.2 The crust and uppermost part of the
mantle are called DSSSB JSA 2022
A. the lithosphere B. the mesosphere
C. the stratosphere D. the asthenosphere

Q3. Which of the following is a feature of land

of India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. It has great physical variations.
B. It is fertile throughout the country.
C. It is composed of metamorphic rocks.
D. It is similar in texture everywhere.
Q4. Which layer of the earth is the cool layer of
rigid rock and its thickness varies from 5 to 80
km depth? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Outer core B. Inner core C. Mantle D. Crust
Q5. The main constituent of the Earth’s crust is:
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. nickel B. manganese C. iron D. oxygen
Q6. What type of rocks are formed when heat,
pressure, and chemically reactive waters
change pre-existing rocks? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Igneous rocks B. Sedimentary rocks C.
Metamorphic rocks D. Volcanoes rocks
Q7. What types of rocks are formed when
particles settle out of water or air, or by the
precipitation of minerals from water?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Sedimentary rocks B. Volcanoes rocks C.
Igneous rocks D. Metamorphic rocks
Q8. The lowermost part of the atmosphere is
known as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. the troposphere B. the mesosphere C. the
ionosphere D. the stratosphere
Q9. The northern plains of India are mostly
formed of ___________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. black soil B. laterite soil C. alluvial soil D. arid
soil
Q10. Which of the following is NOT true about
Chilika Lake? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. It lies in the eastern coastal region. B. It lies
to the south of the Godavari delta. C. It lies in
the state of Odisha. D. It is the largest saltwater
lake in India.
Q11. The core of the Earth is mainly constituted
by which of the following metals? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Nickel and Copper B. Cobalt and Copper C.
Iron and Nickel D. Iron and Cobalt
Q12. _____________ is a small earthquake in
underground caverns and mines caused by
seismic waves produced by the explosion of
rock on the surface. ? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Volcanic earthquake B. Tectonic
earthquake C. Collapse earthquake D.
Explosion earthquake
Q13. Crust is the outermost solid part of the
earth made up of heavier rocks having density
of_______. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 3 g/cm3 B. 4.4 g/cm3 C. 2 g/cm3 D. 10 g/cm3
Q14. The core of the Earth is sometimes known
as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. fnei B. NiFe C. cufe D. feni
Q15. Which type of rock is granite? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Igneous rock B. Metamorphic rock C.
Sedimentary rock D. Sphalerite ore rock
Q16. What is the name of the layer that is
found between the crust and the core of Earth?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Lava B. Magma C. Lithosphere D. Mantle
Q17. Which of the following regions of India is
mostly dry? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Arid region B. Pine forest region C. Sub-
tropical region D. Tropical rain forest
Q18. In which of the following
geologic processes do tectonic plates split apart
from each other? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Seafloor formation B. Seafloor spreading C.
Seafloor contraction D. Volcano formation
Q19. A large geological landform with pointed
summits, rising from the seafloor that does not
reach the surface of the ocean is called: DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. seamount B. atoll C. guyot D. trench
Q20. Transverse sand dunes in the Thar desert
are known as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. yardungs B. seif dunes C. barkhans D. zeugen
Q21. Which of the following statements is true
regarding El Nino? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. El Nino is a climate pattern that describes
the unusual cooling of surface waters in the
south Pacific Ocean. B. It is an unusual cooling
of surface waters in the north Atlantic
Ocean. C. It is an unusual warming of surface
waters in the Indian Ocean. D. It is
a climate pattern that describes the unusual
warming of surface waters in the eastern
tropical Pacific Ocean.
Q22. In the context of tides, when does
perigean spring occur? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. When the moon is either new or full and
closest to Earth B. When the two highs and the
two lows are about the same height C. Seven
days after the spring tide D. When there is so
much interference by continents that only one
high tide and one low tide occur per day
Q23. Which of the following is an evidence of
the continental drift theory? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mid ocean ridges B. Jig saw fit landmass C.
Mapping of the ocean floor D. Similar
distribution of volcanoes and earthquakes
Q24. Which of the following scales describes
the intensity of an earthquake? ? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Likert scale B. Richter scale C. Mercalli scale
D. Mokken scale
Q25. In the context of climate control of any
place, latitude means: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. the measurement east or west of the prime
meridian B. the measurement of distance
above sea level C. the measurement of
International Date Line in the mid-Pacific Ocean
D. the measurement of distance north or south
of the equator
Q26. The movements of water caused by
meteorological effects (winds and atmospheric
pressure changes) are called: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. percolation B. tsunamis C. surges D. tides
Q27. Which is the brightest star visible from
both hemispheres? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Procyon B. Sirius C. Canopus D. Arcturus
Q28. The two most abundant elements in the
Earth’s crust are: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. oxygen and silicon B. iron and copper C.
aluminium and oxygen D. aluminium and silicon
Q29. The forward rotation and movement of a
mass of rock, earth or debris out of a slope are
called: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. lateral spreads B. falls C. flows D. Topple
failures
Q30. In which of the following geographical
regions is convectional rainfall prevalent?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mediterranean region B. South pole C.
Equatorial regions D. North pole
Q31. In which of the following parts of the
ocean are canyons and trenches observed?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Continental slope B. Continental shelf C.
Continental rise D. Deep sea plane
Q32. Which of the following rocks is an
intrusive igneous rock? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Sandstone B. Granite C. Slate D. Basalt
Q33. The location where sinking of plate occurs
is called a(n)_____________ DSSSB JSA 2022
A. subduction zone B. point of submergence C.
induction zone D. convergence zone
Q34. In the context of volcanic landforms,
batholith refersto - DSSSB JSA 2022
A. the large dome-shaped intrusive bodies
connected by a pipe-like conduit from below B.
the large body of igneous rock formed beneath
the earth's surface by the intrusion and
solidification of magma C. the pluton of igneous
rock parallel to the bedding plane or foliation of
folded country rock D. the feeders for the
eruptions that led to the development of the
Deccan traps
Answer Key

1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. D 6.C 7.A 8.A 9.C 10.B

11. C 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.A 16.D 17.A 18.B 19.A 20.C
21.D 22.A 23.B 24.C 25.D 26.C 27.B 28.A 29.D 30.C
31.A 32.B 33.A 34.B
Explanation

1. There are three main types of rock: igneous rock, metamorphic rock, and sedimentary
rock. Almost all fossils are preserved in sedimentary rock.

When massive amounts of heat and pressure are applied to an igneous rock, it compacts and
becomes a metamorphic rock.
2. The lithosphere is the rocky outer part of Earth. It is
made up of the brittle crust and the top part of the upper
mantle. The lithosphere is the coolest and most rigid part
of Earth.
3. In fact, our country has practically all major physical
features of the earth, i.e., mountains, plains, deserts,
plateaus and islands. The land of India displays great
physical variation. Geologically, the Peninsular Plateau
constitutes one of the ancient landmasses on the earth's
surface.
4. The correct answer is Crust. The crust is the solid, hard
part of our planet that floats on top of the
asthenosphere. The crust is a cool layer of rigid rock,
which has a thickness that varies from 5 to 80 km in
depth
5. The Earth's crust comprises about 95% igneous and
metamorphic rocks, 4% shale, 0.75% sandstone, and
0.25% limestone. Oxygen, silicon, aluminum, and
iron account for 88.1% of the mass of the Earth's crust,
while another 90 elements make up the remaining
11.9%.
6. Metamorphic rocks form when sedimentary, igneous, or
pre-existing metamorphic rocks are changed by heat,
pressure, and chemically reactive waters. These rocks
are identified by their minerals and texture.
7. Sedimentary rocks are formed when sediment is deposited out
of air, ice, wind, gravity, or water flows carrying the particles in
suspension. This sediment is often formed when weathering
 and erosion break down a rock into loose material in a source
area.
8. The Troposphere ,This is the lowest part of the atmosphere -
the part we live in. It contains most of our weather - clouds,
rain, snow. In this part of the atmosphere the temperature gets
colder as the distance above the earth increases, by about
6.5°C per kilometre.
9. The Northern Plains are formed by the interconnection of the
three major river systems in India namely: The Indus, The
Ganga, and The Brahmaputra along with their tributaries. The
plain is mainly formed of alluvial deposits and has alluvial soil.
10. The correct answer is 'It lies to the south of the Godavari
delta'.
Chilika Lake is the largest brackish water lake with estuarine character that
sprawls along the east coast of India. It is considered to be the largest lagoon in
India and counted amongst the largest lagoons in the world.

11. A. Nickel and Copper B. Cobalt and Copper C. Iron and Nickel D. Iron and Cobalt
12. A collapse earthquake are small earthquakes in
underground caverns and mines that are caused by
seismic waves produced from the explosion of rock on
the surface.
13. The correct answer is 3 g/cm3
14. The innermost layer of the earth is core. This central
mass mainly made of nickel and iron and therefore is
known as NIFE..
15. Granite is an igneous rock composed of mostly two minerals:
quartz and feldspar. It is an intrusive rock, meaning that it
crystallized from magma that cooled far below the earth's
surface.
16. The mantle is the mostly solid bulk of Earth's interior. The
mantle lies between Earth's dense, super-heated core and its
thin outer layer, the crust. The mantle is about 2,900
kilometers (1,802 miles) thick, and makes up a whopping 84
percent of Earth's total volume
17. Arid regions by definition receive little precipitation—less than
10 inches (25 centimeters) of rain per year. Semi-arid regions
receive 10 to 20 inches (25 to 50 centimeters) of rain per year.
18. Seafloor spreading is a geologic process in which tectonic
plates—large slabs of Earth's lithosphere—split apart from
each other.
19. A seamount is a large submarine landform that rises from the
ocean floor without reaching the water surface (sea level), and
thus is not an island, islet, or cliff-rock.
20. barchan, also spelled Barkhan, crescent-shaped sand dune produced by the action
of wind predominately from one direction. One of the commonest types of dunes, it
occurs in sandy deserts all over the world.
21. The correct answer is It is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface
waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
22. A perigean spring tide occurs when the moon is either new or full and closest to
Earth.
The matching of continents,
23. The correct answer is Jig Saw fit landmass,
rocks of the same age across oceans, tillite, placer deposits,
and fossil distribution are all Evidence of Continental Drift
Theory
24. The Modified Mercalli intensity scale, developed from Giuseppe Mercalli's Mercalli
intensity scale of 1902, is a seismic intensity scale used for measuring the intensity of
shaking produced by an earthquake

25. There are six major controls; of the climate of a place:

(i) Latitude: Due to the curvature of the earth, the amount of solar energy
received varies according, to latitude. As a result, air temperature'
generally decreases from, the, equator towards the poles.
(ii) Altitude: As, one goes from, the surface of the earth to higher
altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less, dense and temperature decreases.
The hills are therefore cooler during summers.
(iii) Pressure and wind system: The pressure and wind system of any
area depend on the latitude and altitude of the place. Thus it influences the
temperature arid rainfall' pattern.
(iv) Distance from the sea: The sea exerts moderating influence on
climate. As the distance from the sea increases, its moderating influence
decreases and the people experience extreme weather conditions. This
condition is known, continentality which means very hot during, summer
and very cold during winters.
 (v) Ocean Currents: Oceans along with onshore winds affect the climate
of the coastal areas:. For-instance, any coastal area with warmish-
cold'currents flowing past it, will' be warmed or cooled if the winds are
onshore:
(vi) Relief features: High. mountains act as a barrier for cold: or hot
winds.. They. may, also cause precipitation, if they are high enough and lie
in the path of rain, bearing winds. The leeward side of' the mountains
remains, relatively dry.
26. Movement of water caused by meteorological effects (winds
and atmospheric pressure changes) are called surges. Surges
are not regular like tides.
27. Bottom line: Sirius is the brightest star in the night sky as seen
from Earth and is visible from both hemispheres. And it lies
just 8.6 light-years away in the constellation Canis Major the
Greater Dog.
28. Oxygen, silicon, iron and aluminum are the most abundant
elements in the Earth's crust, accounting for 88.1% of its
mass.
29. Topples. Topple failures involve the forward rotation and
movement of a mass of rock, earth or debris out of a slope.
30. Convectional rainfall occurs in the Equatorial region. The
Equatorial region receives a greater amount of solar radiation.
When the energy of the sun heats up the earth's surface,
there is an evaporation of water, forming water vapour. The
warm air above the land surface expands and rises.
31. The depth of the slope region varies between 200 and 3,000
m. The seaward edge of the continental slope loses gradient
at this depth and gives rise to continental rise. The continental
slope boundary indicates the end of the continents. Canyons
and trenches are observed in this region.
32. Granite is an example of Intrusive Igneous Rocks.
When molten magma cools it forms Igneous Rocks. They are
two types of Igneous Rocks.
33The location where sinking of a plate occurs is called
a subduction zone.
34. a batholith is a type of igneous rock that forms when magma rises into the earth's crust,
but does not erupt onto the surface.
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04 Indian
Geography
Q.1 Which of the following is correct about
Mahanadi?
I. Mahanadi rises in highlands of Chhattisgarh.
II. Its length is about 860 km.
TGT CS 2021
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
Q.2 Which of the following states of India has
tropical rain forests? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Assam B. Punjab
C. Uttarakhand D. Rajasthan

Q3. How many longitudinal parallel ranges are

there in the Himalayas? DSSSB JSA 2022

A. Two
B. Five
C. Four
D. Three
Q4. Where is the Saddle peak located?
DSSSB JSA 2022

A. Minicoy
B. Barren island
C. Lakshadweep
D. Andaman and Nicobar islands
Q5. Where are Asiatic lions found?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Gujarat B. Tamil Nadu C. West Bengal D.
Kerela
Q6. India shares its terrestrial border with
Bhutan in the ________ direction.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. south B. west
C. east D. north
Q7. Which of the following is a correct
description of the Kumaon Himalayas?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. The Himalayas lying between Indus and
Satluj rivers
B. The Himalayas lying between Kali and Teesta
rivers
C. The Himalayas lying between Teesta and
Dihang rivers
D. The Himalayas lying between Satluj and Kali
rivers
Q8. Which of the following is the multi-purpose
rock and earth-fill embankment dam on the
Bhagirathi River?
A. Tehri Dam B. Koyna Dam
C. Thein Dam D. Gandhisagar Dam
Q9 Among the major physiographic divisions,
_________ and ___________ are the recent
landforms. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. the Islands and the Peninsular Plateau
B. the Himalayas and the Northern Plains
C. the Peninsular Plateau and the Indian Desert
D. the Coastal Plains and the Indian Desert
Q10. Through which of the following states
does the Tropic of Cancer NOT pass?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Assam B. Madhya Pradesh
C. West Bengal D. Rajasthan
Q11. In which of the following states is
Vembanad Lake situated? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Maharashtra B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Jammu and Kashmir D. Kerala
Q12. In which of the following months is the
famous Ambubachi Mela at Kamakhya Temple
celebrated in Assam? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. August B. May C. June D. November
Q13. Which of the following rivers has the
largest inhabited river island in it?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. The Brahmaputra B. The Indus
C. The Ganga D. The Narmada

Q14. Which of the following is referred to

as‘The Heart of Industrial India’?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Malwa plateau B. Deccan plateau C.
Bundelkhand plateau D. Chhota Nagpur plateau
Q15. Which of the following is NOT a major
factor governing the climate of India?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Tropical cyclones B. Surface winds C. Upper
air circulation D. Seismic disturbances
Q16. From which of the following low-pressure
depressions does Northwest India receive
rainfall during winter? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Tropical depression B. Westerly depressions
C. Depression over Bay of Bengal D. Monsoon
depression
Q17. Sunderbans’ are named after which
species of trees? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Sundari B. Chir C. Peepal D. Sal
Q18. In India, tropical climate prevails in areas
lying _______ of the Tropic of Cancer DSSSB JSA
2022
A. south B. north C. west D. east
Q19. Which of the following rivers flow from
the east to west direction? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mahi, Mahanadi and Tapti rivers
B. Narmada, Mahanadi and Tapti rivers
C. Narmada, Mahanadi and Mahi rivers
D. Narmada, Tapti, and Mahi rivers
Q20 In the western Himalayan region, ‘Guls’
and ‘Kuls’ are methods of: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. underground water storage B. irrigation C.
types of hand pumps D. crop harvesting
Q21. Which state of India has the maximum
length of the Tropic of Cancer? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Jharkhand B. Madhya Pradesh C.
Chhattisgarh D. Gujarat
Q22. The Deccan Plateau is ___________ in
shape. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. oval B. rectangular C. triangular D. square
Q23. Which of the following statements applies
to the Deccan Plateau division of the Peninsular
Plateau? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. It is higher in the east and slopes westwards.
B. The Chambal and the Betwa flow through it.
C. It is the landmass lying south of the Narmada
river.
D. It covers major areas of the Malwa plateau.
Q24. Which of the following is NOT true with
respect to the Mahanadi river? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. It runs through Chhattisgarh and Odisha B.
Hirakud dam is built on this river C. It runs
through West Bengal and Odisha D. It rises in
Sihawa in Raipur
Q25. Which of the following dams is built on
the Bhagirathi and Bhilangana Rivers? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Hirakud Dam B. Rajghat Dam C. Tehri Dam D.
Rihand Dam
Q26. Which of the following is the largest
peninsular river system in India? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Godavari B. Cauvery C. Mahanadi D.
Narmada
Q27. Which of the following is the
physiographic location of the Deccan trap
region in India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Madhyabharat plateau B. Western plain C.
Peninsular plateau D. Peninsular plain
Q28. Kulhs is an ancient water harvesting
method practised in ________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Rajasthan B. Bihar C. Himachal Pradesh D.
Maharashtra
Q29. In which of the following states are most
of the jute mills located? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. West Bengal B. Odisha C. Bihar D. Uttar
Pradesh

Q30. Which of the following rocks primarily

consist of only a single mineral? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Granite B. Pumice C. Limestone D. Gabbro
Q31. Which region of India is usually affected
by tropical cyclones? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Inland region B. Plateau region C. Hilly region
D. Coastal region
Q32. Which of the following states in India has
the largest wind farm cluster? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Rajasthan B. Telangana C. Tamil Nadu D.
Karnataka
Q33. Which of the following rivers flows
through the Thar desert? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Tapi B. Luni C. Mahi D. Wainganga
Q34. The Himalayan drainage system consists
of three main river basins which are
______________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra B. Alaknanda,
Bhagirathi, Jhelum C. Indus, Brahmaputra,
Bhagirathi D. Ganga, Indus, Sutlej
Q35. Which of the following rivers marks the
eastern-most boundary of the Himalayas?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. The Satluj B. The Teesta C. The Ganga D.
The Brahmaputra
Q36. During October and November, the
northeast monsoon passing over the Bay of
Bengal carries moisture and bring torrential
rain to which of the following state? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Rajasthan B. Tamil Nadu C. Meghalaya D.
West Bengal
Q37. The Gobind Sagar reservoir is situated on
which of the following rivers? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Son B. Rihand C. Narmada D. Sutlej
Q38. In which of the following waterbodies
does the Periyar river discharge its water?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Indian Ocean B. Arabian Sea C. Pullikot lake
D. Bay of Bengal
Q39. Which of the following rocks created the
Deccan plateau region in India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Basalt B. Slate C. Sandstone D. Limestone
Q40. Which of the following rivers divides the
peninsular block of India into two parts? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Yamuna B. Godavari C. Narmada D. Tapti
Q41. Which State has the greatest length of
National Highways in India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Maharashtra B. Bihar C. Gujarat D. Uttar
Pradesh
Q42. Which is the longest National Highway in
India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. NH04 B. NH57 C. NH44 D. NH10
Q43. The river Bhagirathi meets the
Alaknandaat DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Karnaprayag B. Vishnuprayag C. Devprayag
D. Rudraprayag
Q44. The western-most end of the East-West
Corridor is located in______. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Jaipur B. Gandhinagar C. Mumbai D.
Porbandar
Q45. Which of the following is the outermost
range in the Himalayas? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Dhauladhar B. PirPanjal C. Mahabharat D.
Shiwalik
Q46. The Mahanadi river does NOT drain which
of the following states? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Bihar B. Odisha C. Chhattisgarh D.
Maharashtra
Answer Key

1. B 2. C 3. C 4.D 5. A 6. D 7.D 8. A 9. B 10. A

11. D 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. D 16. B 17.A 18.A 19. D 20. B
21. B 22.C 23.C 24.C 25.C 26.A 27.C 28.C 29.A 30.C
31.D 32.C 33.B 34.A 35.D 36.B 37.D 38.B 39.A 40.C
41.D 42.C 43.C 44.D 45.D 46.A
Explanations

1. The Mahanadi is a major river in East Central India. It drains an area of around 132,100
square kilometres and has a total length of about 900 kilometres. Mahanadi is also known
for the Hirakud Dam. The river flows through the states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha and
finally merged with Bay of Bengal.
2. India's best rainforests are found in the northeastern region from Assam to Nagaland,
Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh.
3. The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its
longitudinal extent.
4. The place is famous for its oranges, rice, forest wealth and marine life. Saddle Peak (732
Mtrs) is the highest point in the Andaman Islands.
5. At present Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is
the only abode of the Asiatic lion. The last surviving
population of the Asiatic lions is a compact tract of dry
deciduous forest and open grassy scrublands in
southwestern part of Saurashtra region of Gujarat.
6. Bhutan is a neighbouring country of India towards the
north.
7. The correct answer is The Himalayas lying between
Satluj and Kali rivers. Kumaun Himalayas is the west-
central section of the Himalayas in northern India,
extending 200 miles
8. With a height of 260.5 m (855 ft) Tehri Dam is the tallest
dam in India and 12th tallest dam in the world. It is a
multi-purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam on
the Bhagirathi River in New Tehri, Tehri Garhwal district
in Uttarakhand, India. It is the primary dam of the THDC
India Ltd.
9. The Himalayas and the Northern Plains are the most
recent landforms.
10. In India Tropic of Cancer passes through eight State
namely Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and
Mizoram. It does not pass through the State of Odisha.
11. Vembanad is the longest lake in India,[1] as well as the largest lake in the state of Kerala.
The lake has an area of 230 square kilometers and a maximum length of
96.5 km.[2] Spanning several districts in the state of Kerala, it is known as Vembanadu
Lake in Kottayam, Vaikom, Changanassery, Punnamada
 Lake in Alappuzha, Punnappra, Kuttanadu and Kochi Lake in Kochi. Several groups of
small islands
including Vypin, Mulavukad, Maradu, Udayamperoor, Vallarpadam, Willingdon Island are
located in the Kochi Lake portion. Kochi Port is built around the Willingdon Island and
the Vallarpadam island.
12. Ambubachi Mela is one of the biggest congregations of
eastern India. It is the most important festival of the
Kamakhya temple and is celebrated in the month
of June every year.
13. Majuli, in the Brahmaputra River, is the largest inhabited
riverine island in the world.
14. Chhota Nagpur plateau is called the “Heart of industrial
India” because it is rich in minerals and power fuels. It is
also called the "Ruhr of India".
15. Most people normally associate the term "earthquake"
with seismic disturbances that arise from natural rather
than artificial causes. Actually the term applies to any
earth movement caused by a momentary disturbance of
the elastic equilibrium of a portion of the earth, whatever
the source of the disturbance may be.
16. . Winter rainfall in north-west India : Northwest India receives
winter rainfall from low pressure systems, called the western
disturbances or depressions. These depressions originate
from Mediterranean sea and Persian Gulf.
17. The Sunderban delta is named after a special type
of mangrove tree called Sundari. These trees are very
common in the mangrove forests of West Bengal.
18. Almost half of the country, lying south of the Tropic of
Cancer, belongs to the tropical area. All the remaining
area, north of the Tropic, lies in the sub-tropics.
Therefore, India's climate has characteristics of tropical
as well as subtropical climates.
19. The correct answer is Narmada, Tapti, and Mahi river.
The major west-flowing rivers are the Narmada, Tapti,
and Mahi
20. In hilly and mountain regions, people usually
build diversion channels like the 'Guls' or 'Kuls' in the
Western Himalayan region for agriculture. These are
diversion channels made to irrigate the fields.
21. The maximum length of the Tropic of Cancer is
in Madhya Pradesh. The minimum length of the Tropic
of Cancer is in Rajasthan.
22. The Deccan Plateau is triangular in shape and is
bounded by the Satpura and Vindhya mountain ranges
to the north, the Western Ghats to the west, and the Bay
of Bengal to the east. The average elevation of the
plateau is 600 metres above sea level.
23. The Deccan Plateau is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards. The
Deccan Plateau covers the majority of the southern part of the country. The Deccan
Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.
24. The correct answer is . It runs through West Bengal and Odisha
25. The Tehri Dam is the highest dam in India located on the Bhagirathi river in the Indian
state of Uttrakhand. It is a multi-purpose rock and earth-fill dam with a height of 261
meters., The construction of the tehri dam started in the year 1978. The opening date of
the dam was in the year 2006.
26. Godavari, also known as 'Dakshin Ganga' – the South
Ganges, is the longest river of peninsular India, and the
second longest river of India after the Ganges.
27. The flood basalt province known as the Deccan Traps is
located on the Deccan Plateau in west-central India and
is one of the largest volcanic provinces in the world.
28. Kuhls are a traditional irrigation system in Himachal
Pradesh- surface channels diverting water from natural
flowing streams (khuds).
29.Factors responsible for their location in the Hooghly basin are: proximity
of the jute producing areas, inexpensive water transport, supported by a
good network of railways and roadways to facilitate movement of raw
material to the mills, abundant water for processing raw jute, cheap labour
from West Bengal and adjoining states of Bihar, Orissa and Uttar
Pradesh.
31.Thirteen coastal states and Union Territories (UTs) in the country
are affected by tropical cyclones. Four states (Tamil Nadu, Andhra
Pradesh, Orissa and West Bengal) and one UT (Puducherry) on the
east coast and one state (Gujarat) on the west coast are more
vulnerable to cyclone hazards.
32. Wind farm cluster from Nagercoil to Madurai in Tamil Nadu is
the largest wind farm clusters in India. Its installed capacity is 1,500
MW. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Gujarat, Kerala, Maharashtra,
and Lakshadweep have other important wind farms.
33. The Luni is the largest river in the Thar Desert of northwest India. It originates in the
Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer, passes through the southeastern portion
of the Thar Desert, and ends in the marshy lands of Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, after travelling
a distance of 495 km (308 mi).

34.Himalayan Drainage System. The Indus, the Ganga and the

Brahmaputra systems are the three major river systems of the
Himalayan drainage system. Area – It covers a total area of
11,65,000 sq.km. In India, it covers an area of 3,21,289 sq.km.
35. The Brahmaputra river marks the easternmost boundary of the
Himalayas.
36. During October and November, northeast monsoon while
crossing over the Bay of Bengal, picks up moisture and causes
torrential rainfall over the Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra
Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast Kerala.
37. The Gobind Sagar on river Sutlej, has been created by the huge
hydel dam at Bhakra and is named in honour of Gobind Singh the
Tenth Sikh guru.
38.The correct answer is Arabian sea
39. Typically, the Deccan Plateau is made up of basalt, an extrusive
igneous rock, extending up to Bhor Ghat near Karjat.
40. The river which divides the peninsular plateau is fifth longest riverin India
and river in central in India is Narmada River.
The cluster consists of two segments, demarcated by the west-running Narmada
River.
41. Uttar Pradesh has the longest network of National Highways in
India. Only three other states of Rajasthan, Maharashtra & Gujarat
have a route length of more than 5000 Kms.
42. NH 44 covers the North-South Corridor of NHDP and it is
officially listed as running over 4,112 km (2,555 mi) from Srinagar to
Kanyakumari. It is the longest national highway in India.
43. The correct answer is Dev Prayag. Dev Prayag is one among the list of 'Panch Prayag,
where the holy streams of 'Alaknanda' and 'Bhagirathi' meet, and hereafter the river is called
Ganga. One of the major destinations of Devprayag is the sacred temple of Raghunathji.
44. The western terminal station of the East-West Corridor is Porbandar.

45.Siwalik range, also known as Siwalik Hills or Outer Himalayas,

are the outer range of the Himalayas, which extends from the Tista
River in Sikkim state for more than 1000 miles.
46. The Mahanadi river does not flow through Bihar. The Mahanadi
is a major river in East Central India. It drains an area of around
141,600 square kilometers and has a total course of 858 kilometers
Mahanadi is also known for the Hirakud Dam.23
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05 World
Geography
Q1. Which of the following is the world’s largest
lake? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Dal Lake B. Lake Superior
C. Lake Van D. Caspian Sea
Q2. Which of the following statements is
correct regarding a typhoon? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. It is the tropical cyclone of the Atlantic
Ocean, Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Mexico, and the
central northern and eastern Pacific Ocean.
B. It is the tropical cyclone of the western and
north-western Pacific Ocean and the northern
Indian Ocean.
C. It is the tropical cyclone of the south Pacific
Ocean.
D. It is the tropical cyclone of the north Atlantic
Ocean.
Q3. Which of the following forests is a type of
permanent forests? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Unclassed forests B. Unprotected forests
C. Community forests D. Reserved forests
Q4. Hot summer and mild rainy winter is the
feature of which type of climate?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mediterranean B. Subtropical C. Temperate
D. Tropical
Q5. The world's largest continental shelf
extends _______ from the coast of Siberia into
the Arctic Ocean. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1,500 km B. 1,000 km C. 1,800 km D. 800 km
Q6. The only sea gateway between the icy
Arctic and the Pacific Ocean is ________, which
lies between Alaska and Russia. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Bering Strait B. Bonifacio Strait C. Sunda
Strait D. Palk Strait
Q7. What body of salt water extends from the
60° S parallel in the south to the Arctic in the
north and lies between the continents of Asia
and Australia on the west and North America
and South America on the east? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Arctic Ocean B. Indian Ocean C. Atlantic
Ocean D. Pacific Ocean
1. D 2. B 3. D 4.A 5.A 6.A 7.D
1. The salty Caspian Sea has the greatest surface area of any lake at 143,200
square miles. It is a landlock water mass between Asia and Europe.
2. Typhoon is defined as a tropical cyclone with the maximum wind of 34 knots or
higher.
3. Reserved and protected forests are also referred to as
permanent forest estates.
4. Mediterranean climates have warm summers and short, mild,
rainy winters. Mediterranean climates are found on the west
coasts of continents between 30° and 40° latitude, and along
the shores of the Mediterranean Sea..
5. The world's largest continental shelf extends 1,500
km (about 930 miles) from the coast of Siberia into the
Arctic Ocean.
6. Located between Alaska and Russia, the Bering Strait is the
only marine gateway between the icy Arctic and the Pacific
Ocean.
7. Pacific Ocean, body of salt water extending from the 60° S
parallel in the south to the Arctic in the north and lying
between the continents of Asia and Australia on the west and
North America and South America on the east
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06 Economics
Q.1 Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct regarding the intermediate goods in an
economy?
I. These are not final goods.
II. Steel sheets used for making automobiles is
one of its examples.
DSSSB TGT CS 2021
A. Both I and II B. Only II
C. Only I D. Neither I nor II
Q.2 Income tax received by the government is
an example of __________.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. capital expenditure
B. revenue receipts
C. capital receipts
D. revenue expenditure
Q.3 According to John Maynard Keynes, which
idea of the classical economic theory did NOT
work during the Great Depression?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. The economy was always in full
employment.
B. People spent their entire income on goods
and services.
C. There was always an equilibrium level of
employment and output.
D. No competitive markets existed for factor
inputs and outputs.
Q.4 Which of the following statements is
FALSE?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Voluntary unemployment refers to a
situation when people choose to remain
unemployed.
B. A natural rate of unemployment always
exists in the economy.
C. Involuntary unemployment occurs when
people are unable to get work, even when they
are willing to work.
D. A situation of full employment implies zero
involuntary unemployment.
Q.5 Which of the following terms is used in
India for the systematically collected statistics
for different aspects of population and
economy for expansion of a state’s activity?
Junior Secretariat Assistant 2022
A. Economic statistics B. General statistics
C. Social statistics D. Population statistics

Q.6 Which of the following is a characteristic of

perfect competition?
 Junior Secretariat Assistant 2022
A. Both price taker and price maker
B. Neither price taker nor price maker
C. Price maker
D. Price taker

Q7.The National Hydrogen Mission (NHM) was

announced in the Union Budget of the financial
year: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 2019-20
B. 2020-21
C. 2017-18
D. 2018-19
Q8. Which of the following is correctly defined
as fiscal deficit minus net interest liabilities?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Fiscal deficit B. Revenue deficit
C. Fiscal imbalance D. Primary deficit
Q9. The total liability of the monetary authority
of the country is called as __________.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. high powered money B. broad money
C. bank money D. narrow money
Q10. The money spent on acquiring fixed and
intangible assets, upgrading and existing asset,
repairing an existing asset and repayment of
loan is known as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. revenue receipt B. revenue expenditure
C. capital expenditure D. capital receipt
Q11. Suppose Indians buy foreign goods; this
spending escapes as _____ from the circular
flow of income, decreasing the aggregate
demand. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. an injection B. a leakage
C. an investment D. an expenditure
Q12. With a given level of income, a consumer
purchases two commodities A and B. If the
price of commodity A increases, then the
budget line will be: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. steeper for A B. steeper for B
C. flatter for B D. flatter for A
Q13. The term that is used to denote the net
contribution made by a firm is __________.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. factor payments B. value additions
C. intermediate goods D. double counting
Q14. Non-banking Financial Companies Micro-
finance Institutions are generally regulated by
__________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development
B. The Ministry of Finance
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. State Bank of India
Q15. Equilibrium is achieved when aggregate
demand is: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. less than aggregate supply
B. sum total of consumption and investment
C. equal to aggregate supply
D. greater than aggregate supply
Q16. If consumers prefer the bundle that has
more of at least one of the goods and no less of
the other good as compared to the other
bundle, then the consumer preferences are
called: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. increasing B. substitutes C. diminishing D.
monotonic
Q17. When aggregate supply equals to
aggregate demand, along with fuller utilisation
of resources, it refers to a situation of
_____________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. underemployment equilibrium
B. involuntary unemployment equilibrium
C. natural employment equilibrium
D. full employment equilibrium
Q18. The ratio of the total increment in
equilibrium value of final goods output to the
initial increment in autonomous expenditure is
known as ________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. investment multiplier B. induced investment
C. consumption function D. autonomous
investment
Q19. Which of the following is financed by
either taxation, borrowing or printing money
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Budgetary surplus B. Private expenditure C.
Budgetary deficits D. Government expenditure
Q20. In which theory of income and
employment is the underlying assumption
perfect pricewage flexibility? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Supply side macroeconomics B. Phillipscurve
analysis C. Classical macroeconomics D.
Keynesian macroeconomics
Q21. What is the rate of increase in ex ante
consumption due to a unit increment in
income? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Average propensity to consume B.
Consumption function C. Aggregate
income D. Marginal propensity to consume
Q22. Generally, the budget is divided into:
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. revenue budget and capital budget
B. capital receipts and capital expenditure
C. balance budget and deficit budget
D. revenue receipts and revenue expenditure
Q23. Which of the following is a mixture of a
flexible and fixed exchange rate system? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Dirty floating system B. Bretton woods
system C. Currency board system D. Gold
standard exchange rate system
Q24. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT about autonomous investment?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. It is increased in response to high GDP
growth.
B. This investment includes government
investments and infrastructure projects.
C. It is a part of total investment made by the
government.
D. This investment is made for the purpose of
economic aid and national security
Q25. Consider a negatively sloping, usual
demand curve for coffee. Which of the
following describes a shift in the demand curve,
ceteris paribus?
(a) Increase in the price of coffee
(b) Increase in the price of tea
(c) Increase in the income of the consumers
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. All - (a), (b) and (c) B. Only (a) C. Only (b) D.
Both (b) and (c)
Q26. Which of the following is NOT a tool of
monetary policy used by RBI to control interest
rates in the economy? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. CRR B. Direct tax rate cut C. OMO D. Repo
rate
Q27. Quantum of transaction and quantity of
money demanded have ______ relationship
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. zero B. one-sided C. inverse D. direct
Q28. What is the main objective of a
microfinance institution? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. To provide a large amount of credit to the
low-income individuals B. To provide small
credit to the high-income individuals C. To
provide small credit to all individuals D. To
provide small credit to the low-income
individuals
Q29. ________ is the rate at which RBI lends to
the banks for a short term. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Reverse repo rate B. Repo rate C. Bank rate
D. Cash reserve rate
Q30. What is the primary objective of the
monetary policy in India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Printing currency notes B. Employment
generation C. Credit regulator D. Price stability
Q31. The ________issues coins in India. DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Reserve Bank of India B. Ministry of Metals C.
State Bank of India D. Ministry of Finance
Q32. In the context of rural credit and micro
finance, KCC stands for: . DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Krishi Credit Corporation B. Kisan Credit
Corporation C. Krishi Credit Card D. Kisan Credit
Card
Q33. Which of the following institutes does
NOT deliver microcredit? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Cooperative banks B. Scheduled commercial
banks C. Payment banks D. Non-banking
financial companies
Q34. Which of the following is a correct
statement about ‘Fiat Money’? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. It is a government-issued currency that is
backed by physical commodity. B. It is a
government-issued currency that is not backed
by physical commodity. C. It is rarely used in
modern economy. D. Fiat money does not have
any control.
Q35. Which act of the Reserve Bank of India is
known as sterilization function? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Regulating of the financial institutions B.
Governing of the bank rate, cash reserve ratio
and statutory liquidity ratio C. Acting as ‘lender
of the last resort’ D. Open market sale of
government securities
Q36. Commercial banks are regulated under
the __________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. English Companies Act, 1844 B. Banking
Regulation Act, 1949 C. Companies Act, 1850 D.
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
Q37. In India, which of the following types of
unemployment was generated due to the
slowdown of economic growth during the
pandemic? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Disguised unemployment B.
Underemployment C. Structural unemployment
D. Economic unemployment
Q38. The Classical Theory of demand for money
is known as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Friedman’s Quantity Theory of Money B.
Keynes’s Quantity Theory of Money C. Adam
Smith’s Quantity Theory of Money D. Fisher’s
Quantity Theory of Money
Q39. In the context of production, under which
of the following stages of production does the
marginal product curve move in the negative?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Stage 1 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 2 D. Both stage 2
and stage 3
Q40. In the context of microfinance, MACS
stands for: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Microfinance Aided Cooperative System B.
Mutually Aided Cooperative Societies C.
Microfinance Aided Cooperative Societies D.
Mutually Aided Cooperative System
Q41. The price of inputs is also known as
__________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. cost of production B. profit C. revenue D.
output
Q42. Who is attributed with the pioneering of
the concept of microfinance? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Muhammad Yunus B. Ela Bhatt C. M
Narasimham D. Samit Ghosh
Q43. If a person is demanding money to invest
in property, what will be the motive for his
demand for money? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. The wealth creation motive B. The
precautionary motive C. The speculative motive
D. The transaction motive
Q44. Which of the following measures of
money supply is the most liquid and easiest for
transactions? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. M2 B. M1 C. M3 D. M4
Q45. In consumer theory, an indifference curve
represents the: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. income of the consumer B. preferences of
the consumer C. labour and capital employed in
production D. price of goods in the market
Q46. Which of the following accesses to credit
methodologies based on micro-finance
institutions is generally followed in India?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Grameen and solidarity model B. Credit to
individual C. The group approach D. Community
banking
Answer Key

1. A 2.B 3. A 4.D 5.C 6.D 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. C

11. B 12. A 13. B 14.C 15. C 16. D 17.D 18.A 19.C 20. C
21.D 22.A 23.A 24. A 25.D 26 B 27.D 28.D 29.B 30.D
31.D 32.D 33.C 34.B 35.D 36.B 37.C 38.D 39.B 40.B
41.A 42.A 43.C 44.B 45.B 46.C
Explanations

1. An intermediate good is a product used to produce a final good or finished product—also

referred to as a consumer good. Intermediate goods—like salt—can also be finished
products, since it is consumed directly by consumers and used by producers to manufacture
other food products.

7. The Finance Minister in the Union budget for 2020-21 announced the National Hydrogen
Energy Mission (NHM) which aims the generation of hydrogen ...

8. The correct option is D Primary Deficit. Explanation: Primary

deficit is referred to as the difference that exists between the
fiscal deficit of the current year and the interest payment that
was needed to be paid in the previous fiscal year.
9. High Powered Money: The total liability of the monetary
authority of the country, RBI, is called the monetary base or
high powered money.
10. Capital expenditure is the money spent on acquiring fixed
assets like new equipment, machinery, land, plant etc. and
intangible assets such as patents or licenses, upgrading an
existing asset, repairing an asset or repayment of loan.
11. First, when Indians buy foreign goods, this spending
escapes as a leakage from the circular flow of income
decreasing aggregate demand. Second, our exports to
foreigners enter as an injection into the circular flow,
increasing aggregate demand for domestically produced
goods.
12. The correct answer is steeper for A
A shift on the budget line occurs when the consumer’s
income change while the prices of the goods remain constant
A tilt on the budget line occurs when the price of one good
changes while the consumer’s income and the price of the
other good remain the same
If the price of one good increases while the income and the
price of the other remain constant , then the budget line will
tilt inwards from the intercept of the good whose price is
constant .
13. The term that is used to denote the net contribution made
by a firm is called its value added. We have seen that the raw
materials that a firm buys from another firm which are
completely used up in the process of production are called
'intermediate goods'.
14. The working and operations of NBFCs are regulated by
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) within the framework of the
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (Chapter III-B) and the
directions issued by it.
15. An economy is in short-run equilibrium when the
aggregate amount of output demanded is equal to the
aggregate amount of output supplied.
16. Monotonic preferences means that a consumer will always prefer that
bundle of goods that will have at least more of one good and no less of the other
as it gives him a higher level of satisfaction.

17. Full employment level of equilibrium refers to the situation

where aggregate demand is equal to the aggregate supply when
there is full employment in the economy i.e. all willing and capable
people get job at the existing wage rate.
18. It can also be defined as the ratio of the total increment in
equilibrium value of final goods output to the initial increment in
autonomous expenditure is called the investment multiplier of the
economy
19.The correct answer is Budgetary Deficits.
A Budgetary Deficits is a difference between all receipts and
expenses in both revenue and capital account of the government.
A Budgetary Deficits Occurs when a government spends more in a
given year than it collects in revenues , such as taxes.
20. The Classical theory is essentially a theory of self-employment
in which, if prices are perfectly flexible, involuntary unemployment
can arise only from frictional delays in the physical change-over
from serving one market to another.
21. Marginal propensity to consume is the rate of increase in ex
ante consumption due to a unit increment in income
22. This budget statement is divided into two major parts-capital budget and revenue budget.
Capital budget

Capital budget accounts for government-related capital payment and receipts. Capital receipts
include loans from the public or that from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), while capital payment
includes expenses incurred towards health facilities, development and maintenance of
equipment, as well as educational facilities.

Revenue budget

As the name suggests, a revenue budget accounts for all the revenue expenditure and receipts.
If the revenue expense is in excess of the receipts, the government suffers a revenue deficit.

23.A dirty float occurs when government's monetary rules or

laws affect the pricing of its currency. With a dirty float, the
exchange rate is allowed to fluctuate on the open market, but
the central bank can intervene to keep it within a certain
range, or prevent it from trending in an unfavorable direction.
25.The Demand curve being negatively sloping indicates the
inverse relationship between the price of a product and the
quantity demanded.

If the demand for coffee remains usual , price must also

remain usual and unchanged , which make statement a
invalid
Therefore only statement B and C are true.
26. Direct tax rate cut is the correct answer
27.The correct answer is Direct. The quantity theory of money
states that money supply and price level in an economy are in
direct proportion to one another. The larger the quantum of
transactions, the bigger the amount of money demanded.

28. The objective of microfinance is similar to that of

microcredit; its goal is to provide financial services to help
encourage entrepreneurs in impoverished nations to act on
their ideas and obtain the financial tools available to do so
and to eventually become self-sustainable.
29. Definition: Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a
country (Reserve Bank of India in case of India) lends money to
commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. Repo rate is
used by monetary authorities to control inflation.

30.The main objective of monetary policy in India is growth with

stability.

31. Coins in India are issued by the Government of India. It is the sole
responsibility of the Government of India to mint coins of all denominations. But
the responsibility of distribution lies with the RBI, the central bank.

32.KCC STANDS FOR KISAN CREDIT CARD

33.The correct answer is Payment Banks.

34.The correct answer is has no intrinsic value. Fiat money is a

government-issued currency that is not backed by a commodity
such as gold. Fiat money gives central banks greater control over
the economy because they can control how much money is printed.

35.The correct answer is open market sale of government

securities.

36. The Banking Regulation Act of 1949 is an Indian law that

mandates that all banking institutions be regulated under it.
37. Structural unemployment is a longer-lasting form of
unemployment caused by fundamental shifts in an economy and
exacerbated by extraneous factors such as technology,
competition, and government policy.
38. According to Fisher, as the quantity of money in circulation
increases the other things remain unchanged. The price level also
increases in direct proportion as well as the value of money
decreases and vice-versa.
39. In the third phase (starting from 6 units of labour), the
employment of additional variable factor causes TP to decline. MP
now becomes negative. Therefore, this phase is known as negative
returns to a factor. In Figure, the third phase starts after point 'S' on
MP curve and point 'M' on TP curve.
40.The correct answer is Mutually Aided Cooperative Societies.
41. The Price of Inputs
The output is the finished good or service, and inputs are raw
materials, labor, utilities, liscensing fees, or even other goods.
These inputs are also known as factors of production.
42. The modern use of the expression "microfinancing" has roots in the 1970s when
Grameen Bank of Bangladesh, founded by microfinance pioneer Muhammad Yunus, was
starting and shaping the modern industry of microfinancing.

43. The speculative motive for demand for money arises when
investing the money in some asset or bond is considered riskier
than simply holding the money. The speculative motive for demand
for money is also affected by the expected rise or fall of the future
interest rates and inflation of the economy.
44. M1 includes the most liquid portions of the money supply
because it contains currency and assets that either are or can be
quickly converted to cash.
45. An indifference curve is a curve that represents all the
combinations of goods that give the same satisfaction to the
consumer. Since all the combinations give the same amount of
satisfaction, the consumer prefers them equally. Hence the name
indifference curve.
46.The correct answer is The group approach
Plusminus

PYQ GK PDF Bundle by Plusminus

07 Physics
Q.1 In a concave mirror, when object is at infinity then image is ______.

A. beyond C B. at C C. at infinity D. at F (TGT CS 2021)

Q.2 Which of the following is correct?

I. Sliding friction > static friction

II. Rolling friction > sliding friction

A. Only II B. Neither I nor II C. Only I D. Both I and II (TGT CS 2021)

Q 3.In optics, a relationship between the path taken by a ray of light in crossing the boundary or
surface of separation between two contacting substances and the refractive index of each is called:

A. Brewster’s law B. Snell's law C. Malus’ law D. Huygen’s law (junior secretariat assistant2022)

Q4. What is the role of air cushion between moving parts? DSSSB JSA 2022

A. To increase friction B. To reduce lubrication C. To stop the movement D. To reduce friction

Q5. Who discovered in the year 1817 that the

relative atomic mass of the middle element in
each triad was close to the average of the
relative atomic masses of the other two
elements? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Johann Wolfgang Döbereiner
B. AEB de Chancourtois
C. Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeléev
D. John Newlands
Q6. Which of the following statements is
correct about a light year? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. It is the distance travelled by light from the
Sun to Earth.
B. It is a unit of time.
C. It is the distance travelled by sound in one
year.
D. It is the distance travelled by light in one
year.
Q7. At what temperature do Fahrenheit and
Celsius scales show equal reading?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. –40°C B. 100°C C. –100°C D. 40°C
Q8. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mass B. Force
C. Angular velocity D. Momentum
Q9. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT about mercury (Hg)? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Mercury is a poor conductor of electricity,
but a fair conductor of heat.
B. Mercury has a unique electron configuration,
which strongly resists removal of an electron,
making it behave similarly to noble gas
elements.
C. Mercury dissolves to form amalgams with
gold, zinc, and many other metals.
D. Mercury is the only metal that is liquid at
standard conditions for temperature and
pressure.
Q10. What is the melting point of ice?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 283 °K B. 273 °K C. 293 °K D. 253 °K

Q11. On which of the following surfaces is

friction the highest? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Grass B. Wet floor C. Glass floor D. Marble
floor
Q12. Which of the following is an example of
centripetal force? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Planets orbiting the Sun B. Equatorial railway
C. Mud flying off a tire D. Pushing a door
Q13. Gulf of Khambhat provides ideal
conditions for utilising _________ DSSSB JSA
2022
A. geothermal energy B. solar energy C. tidal
energy D. wind energy
Q14. What will be the focal length of a concave
lens of power of −4 dioptre (D)? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. 50 cm B. −50 cm C. 25 cm D. -25 cm
Q15. Why does one sprinkle fine powder on the
carrom board? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. To reduce friction B. To clean the carrom
board C. To increase friction D. To make it
rough
Q16. Which of the following is a unit of the
power of a lens? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Metre B. Pascal C. Newton D. Dioptre
Q17. What type of heat transfer method is used
in case of ceramic coffee mugs and metal
skillets? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Conduction B. Thermal radiation C.
Evaporative cooling D. Convection
Q18. What do astronomers call the decrease in
wavelength due to the Doppler effect? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Red shift B. Green shift C. Blue shift D. Yellow
shift
Q19. Which one from the following force is
being used to hold bucket when we lift bucket
of water? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Magnetic force B. Frictional force
C. Muscular force D. Electronic force
Q20. Which of the following is a unit of
distance?
A. Year B. Candela C. Light year D. Second
Q21. Select the correct formula of Mass–energy
equivalence from the following options. DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. E = m2c B. E = mc2 C. E = m/c2 D. E = m/c
Q22. Which type of lens can form a virtual
upright and diminished image? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Plane lens B. Convex lens C. Concave lens D.
Plano-convex lens
Q23. If the refractive index of an object is 1.5,
what will be the speed of light in this object?
(Speed of light in a vacuum is 3×108 m/sec)
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 2 × 108 m/sec B. 3 × 108 m/sec C. 4×108
m/sec D. 3 × 107 m/sec
Q24. Everything that has a mass and volume is
known as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. area B. matter C. energy D. weight
Q25. Which of the following is NOT a
characteristic of particles of matter? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Particles of matter are very small B. Particles
of matter have spaces between them C.
Particles of matter attract each other D.
Particles of a matter are still
Q26. Which of the following is the reason for
the twinkling of stars? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Scattering of light B. Refraction due to
difference in the layers of gases reflection C.
Reflection D. Refraction
Q27. The process of rotating a coil in a
magnetic field of an electric generator is known
as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. electromagnetic wave B. electromagnetic
induction C. electromagnetic spectrum D.
magnetic spectrum
Q28. In a hydroelectric power station, when
water is at a higher level, _____ is stored in it,
which is converted into mechanical energy
when the water moves downstream. DSSSB JSA
2022
A. chemical energy B. electromagnetic energy
C. potential energy D. nuclear energy
Q29. What will be the power of a convex lens of
the focal length of 100 cm? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 10 dioptre B. 0.1 dioptre C. 1 dioptre D. 100
dioptre
Q30. What waves are used in an
echocardiogram that can provide a moving
picture of your heart? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Radio waves B. Infrared waves C.
Electromagnetic waves D. Ultrasonic waves
Q31.Which law involves the deflection of a
particle (water, air, ice) in motion of the Coriolis
effect? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ferrel's law B. Koppen’s law C.
Thornthwaite’s law D. Tobler's law
Q32. Which of the following particles are
emitted by radioactive elements such as
Polonium? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Beta B. Alpha C. Delta D. Gamma
Q33. Who is considered as the founder of the
wave theory of light? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Zacharias Jansen B. Christiaan Huygens C.
Galileo Galilei D. Albert Einstein
Q34. Which two forces are responsible for
creating the two major tidal bulges on the
opposite sides of Earth? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Air resistance force and centripetal force B.
Applied force and friction force C. Gravitational
and centrifugal force D. Tension force and
normal force
Q35. A perfectly elastic supply curve is
__________ to the x-axis and indicates
________ elasticity of supply. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. parallel; infinite B. perpendicular; infinite C.
parallel; zero D. perpendicular; zero
Q36. Which of the following is the reason for
the formation of a mirage in a desert? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Refraction B. Total internal refraction C.
Scattering of light D. Total internal reflection
Q37. In what type of wave, particles do not
oscillate along the line of wave propagation but
oscillate up and down about their mean
position as the wave travels? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Transverse wave B. Longitudinal wave C.
Mechanical wave D. Electromagnetic wave
Q38. Particle nature of light is shown by the
phenomenon of: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. transmission B. reflection C. photoelectric
effect D. polarisation
Q39. The ability to exert a force causing
displacement of an object is known as: DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. energy B. pressure C. power D. force
Q40. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT about the Big Bang Theory? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. In the form of tiny ball, density of the tiny
ball is finite. B. In the form of tiny ball, the
temperature of the tiny ball is infinite. C.
Within 300,000 years from the Big Bang, the
temperature dropped to 4500 K. D. In the
beginning all the matter existed in the form of a
tiny ball.
Q41. Which of the following equipment
converts mechanical energy into electrical
energy? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Electric motor B. Solar cell C. Candle D.
Dynamo
Q42. If the momentum of an object is increased
by 10%, the kinetic energy of that object will be
increased by: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 30% B. 10% C. 20% D. 21%
Q43. Which of the following types of energy
does a moving football possess? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Heat energy B. Potential energy C. Light
energy D. Kinetic energy
Q44. The attractive forces that cause nonpolar
substances to condense to liquids and to freeze
into solids when the temperature is lowered
sufficiently are called: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Dipole–Induced dipole forces B. London
Dispersion Forces C. Hydrogen bond D. Dipole –
Dipole forces
1. D 2. B 3.B 4. D 5.A 6D 7. A 8. A 9.A 10. B
11.A 12.A 13.C 14.D 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. C 19.C 20.C
21.B 22.C 23.A 24.B 25.D 26.B 27.B 28.C 29.C 30.D
31.A 32.B 33.B 34.C 35.A 36.D 37.A 38.C 39.A 40.A
41.D 42.D 43.D 44.B
Explanations

1. In the concave mirror, the image is formed at a focus point when an object is placed at
infinity. In this case, a real and inverted image is formed.
2. STATIC FRICTION: is the friction exerted on an object at rest.
SLIDING Friction: is the friction exerted when an object slides over surface with a working
fluid in between the two bodies.
ROLLING Friction: is the friction exerted when an object rolls over another surface.

Sliding friction < static friction

Rolling friction < sliding friction
3. Snell's law, in optics, a relationship between the path taken by a ray of light in crossing the
boundary or surface of separation between two contacting substances and the refractive
index of each. This law was discovered in 1621 by the Dutch astronomer and mathematician
Willebrord Snell (also called Snellius).
4. Movement becomes smooth. The substances which
reduce friction are called lubricants. In some machines,
it may not be advisable to use oil as lubricant. An air
cushion between the moving parts is used to reduce
friction.
5. Atomic masses At this time, scientists had begun to find
out the relative atomic masses of the
elements. Dobereiner discovered that the relative atomic
mass of the middle element in each triad was close to
the average of the relative atomic masses of the other
two elements.
6. Light year is a unit of distance and is defined as the
distance traveled by light in one year
7. There are two important temperature scales, Celsius
and Fahrenheit used in the world. There is a point on
both scales where the temperatures in degrees are
equal. This is - 40 ° C and - 40 ° F .
8. Examples of scalars are volume, density, speed, energy, mass, and time. Other
quantities, such as force and velocity, have both magnitude and direction and are
called vectors.
9. Mercury is a poor conductor of heat, but a good
conductor of electricity.
10. Share with the children that the temperature at which ice
melts is called the melting point. The melting point is the
 temperature at which a solid turns to a liquid. The
melting point at which ice — a solid — turns to water —
a liquid — is 32°F (273° K)
11. The correct answer is Grass
12. When spinning a ball on a string or twirling a lasso, the force
of tension on the rope pulls the object towards the centre. The
centripetal force is provided by the frictional force between the
ground and the wheels when turning a car.
13. In India, the Gulf of Khambhat, the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat on
the western coast, and the Gangetic delta in the Sundarban
regions of West Bengal provide ideal conditions for
utilising tidal energy.
14. A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m.

A convex lens which has focal length 0.25 m, will have power equal to 1f=1(0.25)=4 D
15. The sprinkling of powder on the carrom board reduces friction
and makes sliding smoother and easier. The result of
smoothening is that friction between the striker and the board
decreases and the striker slides smoothly on the surface.
16. The power of a lens is a measure of deviation produced by it
in the path of rays refracted through it. Its unit is Dioptre (D)
17. The model of heat transfer through the ceramic coffee
mug and the metal skillet involved conduction. The
ceramic of the coffee mug and the metal of the skillet are
both solids. Heat transfer through solids occurs by
conduction.
18. The shift to larger wavelengths by motion away from the observer is called a red shift
by astronomers and a shift to shorter wavelengths caused by motion toward the
observer is called a blue shift.
19. The forces on plastic bucket are:
1. Gravitational force
2. Muscular force
Gravitational force is acting downwards and muscular force is applied by the
hands lifting the bucket upwards
20. Light year is the unit of astronomical distance. It is
equivalent to the distance that light travels in a year.
Hence, Light year is the unit of distance.
21. The correct answer is 'E = mc2'. In physics, mass-energy
equivalence is the relationship between mass and energy in a
 system's rest frame, where the two values differ only by a
constant and the units of measurement.
22. A concave lens will always give a virtual, erect and
diminished image.
23.We know that refractive index of light is defined by η=
Speedoflightinvaccum/speedoflightthatmedium
/

η=v3×108=1.5
v=2×108m/s
24. In science, matter is defined as anything that has
mass and volume
25. Particles of all maters have the same kinetic energy. The
explanation for the correct answer: All particles have
kinetic energy. However, the amount of energy varies
depending on the temperature of the sample.
26. The correct answer is changing refractive index of the
atmospheric gases.
Light coming from the stars undergoes refraction on
entering the Earth’s Atmosphere . This refraction continues until it
reaches the Earth’s Surface .This happens because of temperature variation of atmospheric
air, Hence the atmospheric air has changing regractive index at various altitudes.

27. An Electric generator works on the principle of Faraday's law

of Electromagnetic Induction. An electric generator uses
mechanical energy to generate electricity applying Faraday's
law of induction. It spins a coil at a constant rate in a magnetic
field to induce an oscillating emf.
28. n/a

29. Given that,

Focal length f = 100 cm
We know that,
The power of the lens is the reciprocal of the focal length of the
lens.
the power of the lens is
 Here, P = power of the lens
f = focal length of the lens

Hence, The power of the lens is 1 D.

30. An echocardiogram uses sound waves to create pictures

of the heart. This common test can show blood flow through
the heart and heart valves.
31. Ferrel was the first to describe the Coriolis effect on moving
particles. As a result of this action, winds, oceanic currents,
and drift ice are deflected rightward (with reference to their
original motion) in the Northern Hemisphere and leftward in
the Southern Hemisphere.
32. Alpha particles come from the decay of the heaviest
radioactive elements, such as uranium, radium and polonium.
33. The wave theory of light proposed by Christian Huygens has
stood the test of time, and today, it is considered the
backbones of optics.
34. The tide-raising forces at the earth's surface thus result from a combination of basic forces:
(1) the force of gravitation exerted by the moon (and sun) upon the earth; and (2) centrifugal
forces produced by the revolutions of the earth and moon (and earth and sun) around their
common center-of-gravity (mass) or barycenter. The effects of those forces acting in the
earth-moon system will here be discussed, with the recognition that a similar force complex
exists in the earth-sun system.
35. Supply curve parallel to X-axis represents perfectly elastic
supply, where quantity supplied is responded by an infinite
amount to a very small change in price.
36. Mirage occurs due to total internal reflection of light. When the
sun is high in the sky, the sand gets heated first and then the
layers of air above it. The rays from the trees travel from an
optically denser air layer to a rarer layer and hence bend away
from the normal.
37. The particles do not move along with the wave; they simply
oscillate up and down about their individual equilibrium
positions as the wave passes by.
38. The emission of free electrons from a metal surface when light
is shone on it, is called photoemission or the photoelectric
effect. This effect led to the conclusion that light is made up of
packets or quantum of energy.
39. Energy is defined as the “ability to do work, which is the ability
to exert a force causing displacement of an object.” Despite
this confusing definition, its meaning is very simple: energy is
just the force that causes things to move. Energy is divided
into two types: potential and kinetic.
40. The correct answer is In the form of tiny ball, density of tiny
ball is finite.
41. Dynamo is the device which is used to convert mechanical
energy into electrical energy. Dynamo generators are used in
gas power plants, hydropower plants etc.
42. We know that the relationship between the kinetic energy and momentum of a
body is K.E=P22m�.�=�22�.
Given that, if momentum is increased by 10%, then by what % the K.E will
increase.
So, the initial momentum be P and initial kinetic energy
be K.E=P22m�.�=�22�.
Increase in momentum = 10% of P, i.e.
⇒10100×P=P10⇒10100×�=�10
So, final momentum = initial momentum + increased momentum.
Final momentum, P1�1 = P+P10=11P10�+�10=11�10.
Then, final kinetic energy,
⇒K.E1=(P1)22m⇒�.�1=(�1)22�
We have final momentum = 11P1011�10, putting this value, we get
⇒K.E1=(11P10)22m=121P22m×100⇒K.E1=121100×P22m=121100K.
E⇒�.�1=(11�10)22�=121�22�×100⇒�.�1=121100×�22�=121100�.�.
Now, increase in kinetic energy = final kinetic energy – initial kinetic energy.
increase in kinetic energy =121100K.E−K.E=121100�.�−�.�
increase in kinetic energy =121K.E−100K.E100=121�.�−100�.�100
increase in kinetic energy =21K.E100=21�.�100
% increase in kinetic energy.
⇒21K.E100K.E×100%⇒21K.E100K.E×100%⇒21%

43. Energy posses by an object due to its motion is known

as Kinetic energy. Whereas energy posses by an object due
 to its posion in the gravitational field is knon as potential
energy. Here football is moving hence it will have Kinetic
energy.
44. London forces are the attractive forces that cause nonpolar
substances to condense to liquids and to freeze into solids
when the temperature is lowered sufficiently.
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08 Chemistry
Q1. Which of the following is a non-metal?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Sodium B. Fluorine
C. Magnesium D. Aluminium
Q2. When water converts from a liquid into a
gas, a quantity of heat energy known as
_________is required to break the hydrogen
bonds. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. heat of condensation B. heat of combustion
C. heat of vaporization D. heat of ionization
Q3. Which of the following is the heaviest
metal? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Gold B. Osmium C. Mercury D. Silver
Q4. Which of the following is an inert gas?.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide D.
Helium
Q5. Petrochemical industries are divided into
the sub-groups: (i) polymers, (ii) synthetic
fibres, (iii) elastomers and (iv)
__________________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. surfactant intermediate B. resin C.
polyethylene D. paint and dye
Q6. The main gases present in the Sun are:
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. helium and neon B. nitrogen and hydrogen
C. hydrogen and helium D. hydrogen and neon
Q7. A slice of apple acquires brown colour if it is
not consumed immediately. Which enzyme is
involved in this process of fruit browning?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Acid hydrolase B. Polyphenol oxidase
C. Phospholipase D. Carbonic anhydrase
Q8. The vertical columns in the periodic table
are known as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. rows B. periods C. groups D. columns
Q9. Which of the following describes the most
probable distance between the nucleus and the
electrons? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Principal quantum number B. Magnetic
quantum number C. The electron spin quantum
number D. Orbital angular momentum
quantum number
10. Which of the following is an acid produced
by ants? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Formic acid B. Tartaric acid C. Butyric acid D.
Acetic acid
Q11. Which of the following has the highest
boiling point? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mercury B. Acetone C. Water D. Alcohol
Q12. Amylases, present in saliva, help in: DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. breakdown of proteins into amino acids
B. balancing of minerals
C. breakdown of fats into fatty acid
D. breakdown of carbohydrates into simple
sugar
Q13. Which of the following is NOT a noble
gas? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Helium (He) B. Neon (Ne) C. Argon (Ar) D.
Chlorine (Cl)
Q14. Which of the following pairs of essential
minerals and their functions is correct? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Magnesium–Plays an important role in
protein, carbohydrate and cholesterol
breakdown and cell division
B. Potassium– Aids in cell division, immunity
and wound healing
C. Phosphorus– Important for healthy bones
and teeth; found in every cell; part of the
system that maintains acid-base balance
D. Sodium– Necessary for the body’s
metabolism and physical and mental
development
Q15. Which of the following chemicals is most
toxic in ground water? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Calcium B. Arsenic C. Salt D. Cadmium
Q16. Which polysaccharide is used to make
jellies? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Fructose B. Starch C. Cellulose D. Agar-agar
Q17. Why does a turmeric solution turn red
when it come in contact with soap? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. The pH is very low B. Soap solution is
basic C. Soap solution is acidic D. Natural dyes
are added
Q18. Which of the following chemical
compounds is used as a disinfectant, a
refrigerant, a reducing and bleaching agent,
and a food preservative, especially in dried
fruits? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Copper sulphate B. Potassium hydroxide C.
Sulfur dioxide D. Sodium bicarbonate
Q19. Which of the following terms is used to
define the ratio of the actual volume to the
volume predicted by the ideal gas law at a given
temperature and pressure? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Avogadro constant B. Compressibility factor
C. Tension factor D. Standard ambient
temperature
Q20. The process of formation of a dark-
coloured amorphous substance (organic matter
that has reached maturity) decomposed from
plant residues is called: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. fragmentation B. humification C.
stratification D. mineralisation
Q21. In the context of separating the
components of a mixture, distillation means:
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. to separate components of a mixture
containing an undissolved solid in a liquid B. to
separate a sublimable volatile component of a
mixture from a non-sublimable impurity C. to
separate components of a mixture containing a
dissolved solid in a liquid
D. to separate mixtures comprising two or
more pure liquids by a process of heating and
cooling
Q22. Which of the following groups correctly
represent greenhouse gases? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ethylene, nitrous oxide, nitrogen, CFCs B.
Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, ozone
C. Water vapour, ethylene, nitrous oxide,
nitrogen D. Carbon dioxide, methane, oxygen,
nitric oxide
Q23. Most toothpastes are made white with
_____________, which comes from minerals
called rutile, ilmenite and anatase. DSSSB JSA
2022
A. calcium carbonate B. silica C. titanium oxide
D. aluminium oxide
Q24. What do you call substances that are
bitter in taste? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Acids B. Salts C. Water D. Bases
Q25. On what does the net direction and rate
of osmosis depend? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Turgor pressure B. Plasmolysis C. Pressure
gradient and concentration gradient D.
Imbibition
Q26. Who discovered in the year 1817 that the
relative atomic mass of the middle element in
each triad was close to the average of the
relative atomic masses of the other two
elements? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeléev B. Johann
Wolfgang Döbereiner C. AEB de Chancourtois
D. John Newlands
Q27. In 1866, who discovered that the
elements of the periodic table are placed in the
order of increasing atomic masses and the
physical and chemical properties of every
eighth element are a repetition of the
properties of the first element? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. John Newlands B. Dmitri Mendeleev C.
Johann Wolfgang Döbereiner D. Lothar Meyer
Q28. What is the chemical nature of Agar?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Polypeptide B. Fatty acid C. Polyphenol D.
Polysaccharide
Q29. A solid has high density because
___________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. it can be compressed very easily B. its
particles are very close to each other C. the
kinetic energy of the particles is very high D.
the force of attraction between particles is
negligible
Q30. Which element of group 1 of the periodic
table is NOT an alkali? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Lithium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Hydrogen
Q31. Heating of a gas increases average speed
of the gas particles due to: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. increase in kinetic energy of the gas particles
B. no change in energy level of the gas particles
C. increase in potential energy of the gas
particles D. decrease in kinetic energy of the
gas particles
Q.32. In which block of the periodic table are
inner transition metals placed? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. p-block B. s-block C. f-block D. d-block
Q33. Which of the following is the most
electronegative element? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Potassium B. Lithium C. Fluorine D. Sodium
Q34. The tendency of an atom to attract a
bonding pair of electrons is called__________.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. electro positivity B. electron affinity C.
Electro negativity D. electro attraction
.
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D 5.A 6.C 7. B 8.C 9.A 10. A
11.A 12.D 13.D 14.C 15.B 16.D 17.B 18.C 19.B 20.B
21.D 22.B 23.C 24.D 25.C 26.B 27.A 28.D 29.B 30.D
31.A 32.C 33.C 34.C

1. Fluorine is a chemical element with the symbol F and atomic number 9. It is the
lightest halogen and exists at standard conditions as a highly toxic, pale
yellow diatomic gas. As the most electronegative reactive element, it is extremely
reactive, as it reacts with all other elements except for the light inert gases.
2. The correct answer is heat of vaporization. The heat of
vaporization is defined as the amount of heat needed to
turn 1 g of a liquid into a vapour, without a rise in the
temperature of the liquid.
 3. Osmium has the highest density among all the given
metals, hence, it is the heaviest.
4. The group 18 elements are considered inert gases and
these are: helium (He), neon (Ne), argon (Ar), krypton
(Kr), xenon (Xe), and radon (Rn).
5. N/A
6. The Sun is a huge, glowing sphere of hot gas. Most of
this gas is hydrogen(about 70%) and helium (about
28%). Carbon, nitrogen and oxygen make up 1.5% and
the other 0.5% is made up of small amounts of many
other elements such as neon, iron, silicon, magnesium
and sulfur.
7. This triggers an enzyme known as polyphenol oxidase
(PPO) to—wait for it—oxidize polyphenols in the apple's
flesh. This results in new chemicals (o-quinones), which
then react with amino acids to produce brown-colored
melanins.
8. Vertical columns in the periodic table starting from top to
bottom are called groups. There are 18 groups in the
modern periodic table. The elements of same group
have same number of valence electrons.
9. The principal quantum number describes the energy of
an electron and the most probable distance of the
electron from the nucleus
10. Formic acid is otherwise called methanoic acid. It is
mostly found in the strings and bites of a variety of
insects. Formic acid is secreted by wood ants on their
prey to defend the nest.
11. The correct answer is Mercury
Mercury (Hg) is a chemical element and the only common metal which is liquid at
ordinary temperatures.
Mercury metal can be frozen and changed into a solid at a temperature of -38.85 C
It can be transformed into gas when boiled at 365.6 C

12 Amylases digest starch into smaller molecules, ultimately yielding maltose, which in
turn is cleaved into two glucose molecules by maltase.
13.The correct answer is chlorine (cl)

14.The correct answer is 'Phosphorus - Important for healthy bones

and teeth; found in every cell; part of the system that maintains
acid-base balance'.
15. Arsenic is naturally present at high levels in the groundwater of
several countries. Arsenic is highly toxic in its inorganic form
16. Agar-agar is a polysaccharide used to make jellies. It is obtained from seaweed. Thus, the
correct answer is Agar-agar.

17.Turmeric is a natural indicator which turns red when it

comes in contact with bases. Since soap is basic in nature,
the turmeric stain turns red.
18. Although its chief uses are in the preparation of sulfuric
acid, sulfur trioxide, and sulfites, sulfur dioxide also is used as
a disinfectant, a refrigerant, a reducing agent, a bleach, and a
food preservative, especially in dried fruits.
19. The compressibility factor Z is defined as the ratio of the
actual volume to the volume predicted by the ideal gas law at
a given temperature and pressure.
20.The process of 'humification' can occur naturally in soil or
in the production of compost. It leads to accumulation of dark
amorphous substance called humus.
21. distillation: is a separation technique used to separate
components of a liquid mixture by a process of heating and
cooling. evaporation: is a separation method used to separate
of a mixture of a liquid with a dissolved solid, involving
removal of a liquid by evaporating it and leaving behind a
solid.
22. Greenhouse gases that occur both naturally and from
human activities include water vapor, carbon dioxide (CO2),
methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O) and ozone (O3).
23. Most toothpaste are made white with titanium oxide,
which comes from minerals called rutile, ilmenite and
anatase.
24. The substances that taste bitter and are soapy when rubbed
are called bases. Hence this substance is a base. Sodium
hydroxide is an example of a base.
25. The rate of osmosis always depends on the concentration of
solute. The process is illustrated by comparing an environmental or
external solution to the internal concentration found in the body.
26. Dobereiner discovered that the relative atomic mass of the
middle element in each triad was close to the average of the
relative atomic masses of the other two elements.
27. In 1866, John Newlands, an English scientist, arranged the then
known elements in the order of increasing atomic masses.
28. Agar is a galactose-based heterogenous
polysaccharide derived from red algae. It is a heterogenous
polysaccharide composed of agarose and agaropectin polymers. A
typical agar composition is 70% agarose and 30% agaropectin.
29. Solids have the highest densities because the particles are
packed closely together. Gases have the lowest densities because
the particles are widely spaced.
30. Like the other elements in Group 1, hydrogen (H) has one
electron in its outermost shell, but it is not classed as an alkali metal
since it is not a metal but a gas at room temperature
31.The Correct answer is increase in Kinetic energy of the gas
particles, A. increase in kinetic energy of the gas particles B. no change in energy level of the gas
particles C. increase in potential energy of the gas particles D. decrease in kinetic energy of the gas
particles

32.The inner transition elements are sometimes called the f-

block elements, since in this region the f-orbitals are being filled in.
33. fluorine is the most electronegative element, while francium is
one of the least electronegative.
34. Electronegativity is tendency of an atom to attract a shared pair
of towards itself.
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Biology,
09 Zoology,
Botany
Q. 1 Fishes breath through there ______.

A. tail B. eyes C. gills D. skin (TGT CS 2021)

Q.2 Which of the following combinations is INCORRECT regarding cell organelles?

A. Nucleus – DNA Storage B. Lysosomes –Suicidal bag C. Mitochondrion – Energy production

D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) – Protein production; in particular for export out of the cell

(Junior secretariat assistant 2022)

Q.3 If a cell is placed in a/an ________, there will be a net flow of water out of the cell and the cell
will lose volume.

A. isosmotic solution B. isotonic solution C. hypertonic solution D. hypotonic solution

(Junior secretariat assistant 2022)

Q.4 Which of the following phyla does an earthworm belong to?

A. Aschelminthes B. Cnidarian C. Platyhelminthes D. Annelida (DSSSB JSA 2022)

Q.5 In terms of cell parts, cytoplasm is:

A. a jelly-like substance between the nucleus and the cell membrane

B. the boundary of the onion cell

C. generally spherical and located in the centre of the cell

D. porous and allows the movement of substances or materials both, inward and outward

Q6. Which of the following vitamins helps our

body to use calcium for bones and teeth?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin B
Q7. Approximately how big is the human red
blood cell? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 4.0 µm in diameter B. 7.0 µm in diameter
C. 6.0 µm in diameter D. 0.5 µm in diameter

Q8. What is the function of microvilli?

DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Food absorption in small intestine
B. Food assimilation in stomach
C. Osmoregulation D. Toxin removal from liver

Q9. Which gland is called the 'master gland'

because it produces hormones that control the
other glands and controls many functions of the
body including growth? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Pineal gland B. Adrenal gland
C. Pituitary gland D. Parathyroid gland

Q10. Which of the following algae comes under

the Phaeophyceae class? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Orange algae B. Brown algae
C. Green algae D. Red algae
Q11. Select the correct option regarding the
following statements. I. Ribosomes are
composed of RNA and protein.
II. Ribosomes are not surrounded by any
membrane DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Only I is correct. B. Only II is correct.
C. I and II both are incorrect. D. I and II both are
correct.
Q12. Which of the following a type of simple
tissue that has long, narrow cells with thick and
lignified cell walls? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Sclerenchyma B. Collenchyma C. Parenchyma
D. Meristems
Q13. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT
regarding mutation and human diseases linked
to it? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Substitution – Sickle-cell anaemia
B. Deletion – Cystic fibrosis
. C. Insertion – One form of beta-thalassemia
D. Deletion – Sickle-cell anaemia
Q14. What is the middle lamella of cell wall
made up of? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Calcium oxide B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Calcium pectate D. Calcium sulphate
Q15. Which of the following statements
regarding saccharin is INCORRECT? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. It was first produced in 1879.
B. It is about 550 times as sweet as cane sugar.
C. It was the first popular artificial sweetening
agent.
D. It is an aspartic acid-containing dipeptide
sweetener.
Q16. What is the phenotypic ratio in F2
generation for classic Mendelian dihybrid cross
in which the alleles of two different genes
assort independently into gametes? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. 9 : 4 : 3 B. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 C. 5 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 2 D. 9:7
Q17. A thin layer of tissue that covers the lungs
and lines, the inner wall of the chest cavity and
allows optimal expansion and contraction of
the lungs during breathing is called: DSSSB JSA
2022
A. pleura B. trachea C. pharynx D. alveoli
Q18. How many pairs of chromosomes are
present in a human? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 46 B. 56 C. 22 D. 23
Q19. Which of the following is traced in the
classification of organisms? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Cell structure B. Evolutionary relationships
C. Number of vertebrae D. Structure of RNA
Q20. What are desmosomes? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Desmosomes are specialised adhesive
protein complexes of fungal cells.
B. Desmosomes are specialised adhesive
protein complexes that localise to intercellular
junctions of plant cells.
C. Desmosomes are specialised adhesive
protein complexes that localise to intercellular
junctions of animal cells.
D. Desmosomes are specialised adhesive
protein complexes of bacterial cells.
Q21. Consider the following statements related
to the cell organelle and select the correct
option. DSSSB JSA 2022
1. It replicates and stores genetic information.
2. The bases include Adenine, Guanine,
Thymine and Cytosine.
3. It is found in the nucleus and can be
damaged by ultraviolet light.
A. Mitochondria B. DNA C. Plastids D. RNA
Q22. What is the earliest stage of development
in the gametophyte in a life cycle of a moss?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Sporophylls B. Gemmae C. Protonema D.
Filamentous
Q23. Who among the following proposed the
twisted ladder model of DNA structure in 1953?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. James Watson and Francis Crick
B. Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins
C. Friedrich Miescher and Erwin Chargaff
D. Linus Pauling and Oswald Avery
Q24. In the context of plant development, a
plumule is: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. a slender stem that supports the blade of a
foliage leaf
B. the primary bud of a plant embryo usually
situated at the apex of the hypocotyl and
consisting of leaves and an epicotyl
 C. the first part of a seedling to emerge from
the seed during the process of germination
D. the green leafy parts present under the
petals that protect the flower buds from
damage
Q25. Which of the following is called a
secondary messenger? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Cyclic-AMP B. Cyclic-ATP C. ATP D. AMP
Q26. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ribosomes are composed of RNA.
B. Mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell.
C. Centrioles are present in plant cells.
D. Animal cell have centrioles.
Q27. How much energy is required for an
average adult person per day? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 3600-5000 calories B. 2000-2800 calories C.
200-1000 calories D. 20-100 calories
Q28. Which of the following parts developed
from axillary buds are slender and spirally
coiled and also help plants climb, such as in the
case of gourds (cucumber, pumpkin,
watermelon) and grapevines? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Pulvini B. Tendrils C. Thorns D. Spines
Q29. Which group of animals is bilaterally
symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate, and
also have kidney-like organs for excretion?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Phylum Mollusca B. Phylum Arthropoda C.
Phylum Porifera D. Phylum Ctenophora
Q30. In context of seeds, testa is: DSSSB JSA
2022
A. the young shoot of a plant embryo above the
cotyledons
B. the outer covering of a seed derived from
the integument of the ovary
C. a minute opening in the integument of an
ovule of a seed plant
D. the first part of a seedling to emerge from
the seed during the process of germination
Q31. Which of the following is a function of
desmosome? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Helps in cell division B. Animal cells are
interconnected by desmosome C. Bacterial cells
are interconnected by desmosome D. Plant
cells are interconnected by desmosome
Q32. Which of the following is NOT surrounded
by any membrane? DSSSB JSA 2022.
A. Plastid B. Ribosome C. Nucleus D.
Mitochondrion
Q33. What is a lysosome? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Lysosome is a non-membranous cell
organelle that contains digestive enzymes. B.
Lysosomes are important organelles for
electron transport. C. Lysosomes are
abundantly found in plant cells that are
required for plant cell division. D. Lysosome is a
membrane-bound cell organelle that contains
digestive enzymes.
Q34. Which of the following types of lipids
maintain the stability and fluidity of the cell
membrane? DSSSB JSA 2022.
A. Phospholipids B. Glycolipids C. Sulpholipids
D. Sphingolipids
Q35. In which of the following cell organelles
does DNA replication take place in eukaryotic
cells? DSSSB JSA 2022.
A. Cytoplasm B. Ribosome C. Lysosome D.
Nucleus
Q36. In the context of parts of the leaf, a
‘stipule’is DSSSB JSA 2022.
A. the small, green, lateral appendages present
on either side of the leaf base B. the stalk that
connects the leaf to the stem C. the thin lines
branching from the midrib of a leaf D. the flat
and thin structure of the leaf that contains the
chloroplast and the stomata
Q37. Which of the following statements is
correct about the C4 plant? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. C4 plants absorb compare to other plants
more light. B. C4 plants absorb compare to
other plants more CO2 . C. C4 plant has more
amount of Enzyme Rubis CO. D. C4 plants avoid
photorespiration by using another enzyme
called ‘PEP’.
Q38. Which of the following food nutrient is
essential for growth and repair? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Proteins B. Fats C. Carbohydrates D.
Vitamins
Q39. Which of the following antimicrobial
enzymes is found in eggs? ? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Lipase B. Lysozyme C. Pepsin D. Zymogen
Q40. Which chromosomes are determinant of
normal male characteristics? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. YYX B. XX C. XXY D. XY
Q41. In which year did Camillo Golgi develop
the black reaction techniques that enabled
scientists to stain and view the structure of
neurons? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1910 B. 1906 C. 1873 D. 1875
Q42. Which of the following pairs of flower
parts and their definitions is INCORRECT?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Pistil –The male part of the flower consisting
of the anther and the filament B. Placenta–The
surface of the carpel to which the ovules are
attached C. Petals–The colourful part of a
flower which attracts insects and birds D.
Sepals–Green leafy parts present under the
petals that protect the flower buds from
damage
Q43. What is the role of enzyme hexokinase?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Phosphorylation of glucose, mannose and
fructose B. Hydrolysis of glucose, mannose and
fructose C. Dephosphorylation of glucose,
mannose and fructose D. Reduction of glucose,
mannose and fructose
Q44. How can you obtain glucose? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. By hydrolysis of starch by boiling it with
dilute H2SO4 at 393 K under pressure. B. By
hydrolysis of starch by boiling it with dilute
H2SO4 at 493 K under pressure. C. Starch is
Hydrolysed further to give simpler unit of
polyhydroxy ketone. D. Starch is Hydrolysed
further to give simpler unit of polyhydroxy
aldehyde
Q45. Which of the following plants is NOT
related to the Poaceae family? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Potato B. Maize C. Wheat D. Rice
Q46. Which of the following is an example of y-
linked inheritance condition in humans? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Red-green colour blindness B. Hypertrichosis
of the ears C. Haemophilia D. Exercise
intolerance
Q47. Which of the following is a highly
specialised organelle that acts as the
information processing and administrative
centre of the cell? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Plastids B. Cytoplasm C. Ribosomes D.
Nucleus
Q48. With respect to homopolysaccharides and
their biological significance, which of the
following pairs is INCORRECT? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Chitin - It plays a structural role and provides
rigidity to the exoskeleton of insects. B. Pectin -
It serves as a form of energy storage in animals,
fungi, and bacteria. C. Cellulose - It plays
structural role and provides rigidity and
strength to the cell wall. D. Inulin - It is used by
some plants as a means of storing energy.
Q49. The pentose sugar found mostly in cardiac
muscles is: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Cellulose B. Laevulose C. Lyxose D. Xylulose

Q50. Which of the following genetic disorders is

caused when abnormal cell division results in
an extra full or partial copy of chromosome 21?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Down syndrome B. Cystic fibrosis C.
Phenylketonuria D. Sickle cell anaemia
Q51. Which of the following is also known as
‘fruit sugar’ because it is mainly found naturally
in many fruits? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Cellulose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Ribose
Q52. In an ecosystem, biological magnification
means: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. the increasing build-up of toxic substances
within organisms that happens at each stage of
the food chain B. the breakdown of organic
matter by microorganisms, such as bacteria and
fungi C. the use of biological organisms, usually
microorganisms, to remove contaminants D.
the process by which toxins enter the food web
by building up in individual organisms
Q53. Rough endoplasmic reticulum appear
rough due to the presence of: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. lipid bilayer attached to its outer surface B.
oxysomes attached to its outer surface C.
lysosomes attached to its outer surface D.
ribosomes attached to its outer surface
Q54. In which of the following is fucoxanthin
pigment found? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ptridophytes B. Phaeophyceae C.
Chlorophycea D. Rhodophyceae
Q55. Which of the following pairs is correctly
matched? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Deficiency of vitamin C – Beriberi B.
Deficiency of iodine – Goiter C. Deficiency of
iron – Scurvy D. Deficiency of vitamin B – Night
blindness
Q56. What are the small openings in the
epidermis that regulate the exchange of gases
between the outside air and the branched
system of interconnecting air channels within
the leaf? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Lenticles B. Hydathodes C. Cuticle D. Stomata
Q57. Starch-containing food changes colour
when it comes in contact with iodine solution.
What is the colour it changes to? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Yellow B. Blue C. Pink D. Red
Q58. Which proteins are the major proteins of
milk? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Casein and whey B. Pepsin and whey C.
Casein and pepsin D. Trypsin and whey
Answer Key

1. C 2. D 3.C 4. D 5.A 6.A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. B

11. D 12. A 13.D 14.C 15.D 16. B 17.A 18.D 19. B 20. C
21. B 22.C 23.A 24.B 25.A 26.C 27.B 28.B 29.A 30.B
31.B 32.B 33.D 34.A 35.A 36.A 37.D 38.A 39.B 40.D
41.C 42.A 43.A 44.A 45.A 46.B 47.D 48.B 49.C 50.A
51.B 52.A 53.D 54.B 55.B 56.D 57.B 58.A
Explanations

1. Fish need oxygen to breathe, too. In order to remove oxygen from the water, they rely on
special organs called "gills." Gills are feathery organs full of blood vessels. A fish breathes by
taking water into its mouth and forcing it out through the gill passages.
2. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in many metabolic processes. It synthesizes
lipids, phospholipids as in plasma membranes, and steroids. Cells that secrete these
products, such as cells of the testes, ovaries, and skin oil glands, have an excess of smooth
endoplasmic reticulum. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum also carries out the metabolism
of carbohydrates and steroids. In muscle cells, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum regulates
calcium ion storage
3. A hypertonic solution has a higher solute concentration compared to the intracellular solute
concentration. When placing a red blood cell in any hypertonic solution, there will be a
movement of free water out of the cell and into the solution
4. earthworm, also called angleworm, any one of more than 1,800 species of terrestrial worms
of the class Oligochaeta (phylum Annelida)—in particular, members of the genus Lumbricus.
5. Cytoplasm is the gelatinous liquid that fills the inside of a
cell. It is composed of water, salts, and various organic
molecules. Some intracellular organelles, such the
nucleus and mitochondria, are enclosed by membranes
that separate them from the cytoplasm.
6. Vitamin D helps your body absorb calcium. Eat foods
that provide the right amounts of calcium, vitamin D, and
protein.
7. The discocyte shape of human RBCs is
approximately 7.5 to 8.7 μm in diameter and 1.7 to 2.2
μm in thickness
8. Every cell lining the small intestine bristles with
thousands of tightly packed microvilli that project into the
gut lumen, forming a brush border that absorbs nutrients
and protects the body from intestinal bacteria.
9. The pituitary gland is sometimes called the "master"
gland of the endocrine system because it controls the
functions of many of the other endocrine glands.
10. The correct answer is Brown algae. Members of the
Phaeophyceae are brown algae as the yellowish-brown
pigments predominate in xanthophylls.
11. Ribosomes are naked nucleoprotein particles made up of RNA and
proteins, and carry out protein synthesis. These are not introns but very
 important cell organelles. Ribosomes are found in both prokaryotic and
eukaryotic organisms. Prokaryotic organisms possess 70S type of
ribosomes whereas eukaryotic organisms possess 80S type of ribosomes
where S stands for Svedberg unit or sedimentation coefficient.
12. Sclerenchyma is a type of simple permanent tissue that
has thick and dignified walls. Sclerenchyma gives
structural support and rigidity to plants.
13. The Correct answer is Deletion – Sickle – cell anaemia
14. The middle lamella is a pectin-rich layer that binds to the cell
walls of the adjacent plant cells. This pectin-rich layer is made
up of calcium and magnesium pectates.
15. The correct answer is It is an aspartic acid-containing dipeptide sweetener.
Saccharin is a non-nutritive or artificial sweetener. It's made in
a laboratory by oxidizing the chemicals o-toluene sulfonamide
or phthalic anhydride. It looks like white, crystalline powder.
Saccharin is commonly used as a sugar substitute because it
doesn't contain calories or carbs

16. The 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is the classic Mendelian

ratio for a dihybrid cross in which the alleles of two different
genes assort independently into gametes.
17. The correct answer is Pleura
A thin layer of tissue that covers the lungs and lines the
interior wall of the chest cavity. It protects and cushions the
lungs. This tissue secretes a small amount of fluid that acts as
a lubricant, allowing the lungs to move smoothly in the chest
cavity while breathing.
18. In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of
chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty-two of these pairs,
called autosomes, look the same in both males and females.
The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males
and females
19. Evolutionary relationship are traced in the
classification of organism. Classification of organism is
based on how closely two species are related and how
much characteristics they have in common .
20. Desmosomes are adhesive intercellular junctions
that mechanically integrate adjacent cells by coupling
adhesive interactions mediated by desmosomal
cadherins to the intermediate filament cytoskeletal
network.
21. The Correct answer is DNA
DNA is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other
organisms.
Nearly every cell in a person’s body has the same DNA.
DNA is made of chemical building blocks called nucleotides.
DNA contains the instructions needed for an organism to
develop , survive and reproduce .

22. A single spore germinates to form a filamentous

protonema from which a gametophyte develops. So
there are two stages in the moss life
cycle, sporophyte which releases spores, gametophyte
which releases gametes. Hence, the first stage in the life
cycle of moss is spores.
23. The discovery in 1953 of the double helix, the
twisted-ladder structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA),
by James Watson and Francis Crick marked a milestone
in the history of science and gave rise to modern
molecular biology, which is largely concerned with
understanding how genes control the chemical
processes within cells
24. Plumule is the essential part of the seed embryo
which further develops into the shoot of the plant. The
plumule of the seed emerges out of the soil and
develops young leaves and stems. The main parts of the
plumule are epicotyl, the young leaves and the apical
meristematic tissue of the shoot.
25. cAMP is the archetypical second messenger. Its
levels increase rapidly following receptor-mediated
 activation of adenylyl cyclase (AC), which catalyzes the
conversion of adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to
cAMP.
26. Plant cells lack centrosomes and centrioles
27. For men of reference body size, the average
allowance is 2,900 kcal/day; for women, it is 2,200 kcal.
28. Stem tendrils which develop from axillary buds. are
slender and spirally coiled and help plants to climb such
as in gourds (cucumber, pumpkins, watermelon) and
grapevines.
29. Mollusca is the second-largest phylum of invertebrate animals, after the
Arthropoda; members are known as molluscs or mollusks. Around 85,000 extant species
of molluscs are recognized. The number of fossil species is estimated between 60,000
and 100,000 additional species.
30. The testa of higher plant seeds protects the embryo
against adverse environmental conditions. Its role is
assumed mainly by controlling germination through
dormancy imposition and by limiting the detrimental
activity of physical and biological agents during seed
storage.
31. Desmosomes hold cells together by forming a continuous band of epithelial
tissue or belt (or button like) points of contact. . hence the correct answer is Animal
cells are interconnected by desmosome
32. Ribosomes are the cell organelles that are not
surrounded by a membrane.
33. Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles found in every eukaryotic
cell. They are widely known as terminal catabolic stations that rid cells of
waste products and scavenge metabolic building blocks that sustain essential
biosynthetic reactions during starvation.
34.The unsaturated fatty acids (or hydrocarbon tails) present in the cell
membrane gets compressed in cold conditions which pushes the adjacent
phospholipid molecules away and thus, it helps to maintain fluidity in the
membrane.
So, the correct answer is 'Increasing number of phospholipids with
unsaturated hydrocarbon tails'.

35.
36. Stipules are foliar appendages at the base of the leaf sheath or hypopodium that are often
paired and sometimes leafy. They may range from quite leaf-like to small and inconspicuous
structures.
 They are typically regarded as a component of a normal flowering plant’s anatomy. Stipules,
however, are not present in a lot of plants. The stipules’ shape and size also vary depending on
the species. They typically take the form of scales, hairs, spines, glands, or leaf-like (laminar)
structures. They nevertheless frequently appear in dicots. Stipule-like structures are also seen in
monocots.
37.N/A

38.Proteins: Proteins are needed for the growth and maintenance of

our body. Every cell in the human body contains protein. We need
protein in our diet to help your body repair cells and make new
ones.
39. egg white lysozyme is an enzyme that makes up about 3.4% of egg white proteins.
40. Two of the chromosomes (the X and the Y chromosome) determine your sex as male or
female when you are born. They are called sex chromosomes:

 Females have 2 X chromosomes.

 Males have 1 X and 1 Y chromosome.

The mother gives an X chromosome to the child. The father may contribute an X or a Y. The
chromosome from the father determines if the baby is born as male or female.

41. Golgi published the first picture of nerve tissue stained with his
technique in 1873, which illustrated the whole nerve cell, including
its cell body, axon and branching dendrites (Fig. 3) [21, 22]. Figure
showing microscopic picture of hippocampus stained with Black
Reaction or Golgi's Staining Technique.

42.The correct answer is Pistil-The male part of the flower

consisting of the anther and the filament .

43.The correct answrer is Phosphorylation of glucose,Mannose and

fructose. Hexokinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose, the
rate-limiting first step of glycolysis. Hexokinase II (HK-II) is a
predominant isoform in insulin-sensitive tissues such as heart,
skeletal muscle, and adipose tissues

44.The correct answer is By hydrolysis of starch by boiling it with dilute

H2SO4 at 393 K under pressure. It mainly comes from foods rich in
carbohydrates, like bread, potatoes, and fruit. As you eat, food
travels down your esophagus to your stomach. There, acids and
enzymes break it down into tiny pieces. During that process,
glucose is released.
45. The Poaceae is a family of flowering plants. This family includes cereal crops
such as maize (corn), wheat, rice, barley, and millet. Poaceae constitutes the most
economically important plant family in modern times, as it provides forage,
building materials (bamboo, thatch) and fuel (ethanol), as well as food. All
grasses and paddy come under Poaceae family.

46. Hypertrichosis of the ears, webbed toes, and porcupine man are
examples of Y-linked inheritance in humans.

47. The nucleus is a highly specialized organelle that serves as the

information processing and administrative center of the cell.

48.The correct answer is Pectin - It serves as a form of energy storage in animals, fungi,
and bacteria.

49. The pentose sugar present mainly in the heart muscle is Lyxose.

50. Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is a genetic disorder caused by

the presence of all or a portion of a third chromosome 21. Patients
typically present with mild to moderate intellectual disability, growth
retardation, and characteristic facial features.

51. Fructose is also known as “fruit sugar” because it primarily

occurs naturally in many fruits.

52. Biomagnification refers to the condition where the chemical

concentration in an organism exceeds the concentration of its food
when the major exposure route occurs from the organism's diet.

53. Ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis, are

attached to the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
Hence, RER appears to have a rough surface and is associated
with protein synthesis.
54.Brown algae, comprising the class Phaeophyceae, are a large group of multicellular algae,
including many seaweeds located in colder waters within the Northern Hemisphere. Brown algae
are the major seaweeds of the temperate and polar regions. They are dominant on rocky shores
throughout cooler areas of the world.
55. Iodine deficiency is the most common cause of goiter. The body
needs iodine to produce thyroid hormone. If you do not have
enough iodine in your diet, the thyroid gets larger to try and capture
all the iodine it can, so it can make the right amount of thyroid
hormone.
56. Stomata are generally more numerous on the underside of
leaves. They provide for the exchange of gases between the
outside air and the branched system of interconnecting air canals
within the leaf.
57. On adding the iodine solution to starch, the two react to produce
a blue-black color.
58. Casein and whey protein are the major proteins of milk. Casein
constitutes approximately 80%(29.5 g/L) of the total protein in
bovine milk, and whey protein accounts for about 20% (6.3 g/L) (19-
21).
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10 Awards &
Honours
Q1. The Vigyan Gaurav Award or the Vigyan
Gaurav Samman is a lifetime achievement
award for scientific research conferred by the
Council of Science and Technology of which
State / UT, Government of India? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Haryana B. Madhya Pradesh C. Chandigarh D.
Uttar Pradesh
Q2. The Arjuna Award is given to a
_____________________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. doctor B. politician C. sportsperson D.
policeman
Q3. Who was the first winner of Jnanpith
Award for literary works in Hindi? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Mahadevi Verma B. Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’
C. Sumitranandan Pant D. Kunwar Narayan
Q4. Which of the following statements is FALSE
about the Jnanpith Award? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Its organization, Bhartiya Jnanpith, also
publishes books. B. It is given in India in the
field of Hindi Literature only. C. It is founded to
promote the literary activities in India. D. The
award is given by Bharatiya Jnanpith.
Q5. Which of the following awards is NOT
presented in the field of literature? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Booker Prize B. Arjuna Award C. Rabindra
Puraskar D. Jnanpith Award
1.D 2.C 3.C 4.B 5.B
Explaination:

1. The Vigyan Gaurav Award or the Vigyan Gaurav

Samman is a lifetime achievement award for scientific
research conferred by the Council of Science and
Technology, Government of Uttar Pradesh in India.
2. Arjuna Award is one of the famous sports awards given
to individuals for their exemplary performance in various
sports. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government
of India extends this award.
3. Sumitranandan Pant was the first Hindi writer to receive
Jnanpith Award.
4. Jnanpith Award is India’s highest literary honour. Its name has been
taken from Sanskrit words Jnana and Pitha which means knowledge-seat.
It was instituted in 1961 by Bharatiya Jnanpith trust founded by the Sahu
Shanti Prasad Jain family that owns the Times of India newspaper group.
5. The Arjuna Award, officially known as Arjuna Awards for Outstanding Performance in
Sports and Games, is the second-highest sporting honour of India, the highest being the
Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award. The award is named after Arjuna, one of the
characters of the Sanskrit epic Mahabharata of ancient India.
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11 Books &
Authors
Q.1 Who has written the book “The End of
India”? (TGT CS 2021)
A. Khushwant Singh B. Amitav Ghosh C.
Amartya Sen D. Shashi Tharoor
Q2. Who is the author of the book ‘Nathuram
Godse: The True Story of Gandhi's Assassin’?
DSSSb JSA 2022
A. Kavitha Rao B. Venu Madhav Govindu C.
Dhaval Kulkarni D. SrinathRaghvan
Q3. Who among the following authors is
famous for the fictional town named ‘Malgudi’?
DSSSb JSA 2022
A. Rabindranath Tagore B. Mulk Raj Anand C.
Raja Rao D. R. K. Narayan
Q4. Who among the following is the author of
the short stories ‘Kabuliwala’ and ‘The Post
Office’? DSSSb JSA 2022
A. Rabindranath Tagore B. Raja Rao C. Mulk Raj
Anand D. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Answer Key

1. A 2.C 3.D 4.A

Explanations

1. 'The End of India' is written by Late Mr Khushwant Singh

2. The correct answer is Dhaval Kulkarni. "Nathuram Godse: The
True Story of Gandhi's Assassin" by journalist Dhaval Kulkarni
will be published by Pan Macmillan India in 2022.
3. Rasipuram Krishnaswami Iyer Narayanaswami,better known
as R.K. Narayan (10 October 1906 – 13 May 2001) was an
Indian writer and novelist known for his work set in the fictional
South Indian town of Malgudi.
4. Kabuliwala is a Bengali short story written by Rabindranath
Tagore in 1892, during Tagore's "Sadhana" period (named for
one of Tagore's magazines) from 1891 to 1895.
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12 Music
Q.1 The __________ is a folk song sung by the
women of Uttar Pradesh and the adjacent
region during the rainy season.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Kajri B. Bhuta
C. Daskathia D. Bihu
Q2. To celebrate Indian classical music, the
‘Saptak Music Festival’ is held in which state of
India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Gujarat B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Rajasthan D. Maharashtra
Q3. Indira Kala Sangit Vishwavidyalaya is
located in which Indian state? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Chhattisgarh B. Maharashtra
C. Himachal Pradesh D . West Bengal
Q4. Select the group of musical instruments
that falls under the category of drums
(membranophones). DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Shankh, Bigul, Veena, Sitar
B. Tabla, Dholak, Damru, Naggada
C. Shehnai, Harmonium, Cello, Bansuri
D. Santur, Harmonium, Mandar, Guitar
Q5. In the book Brihaddeshi, who among the
following specifically classified the Indian music
as North and South regional variants? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Matang Muni B. Vasishta Muni C. Kashyap
Muni D. Bharata Muni
Q6. The spectrum of Swaras in Indian music is
composed of seven bands, also known
as____________.? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Shruti B. Saptak C. Saptarshi D. Raga
Q7. Which of the following playback singers
was awarded Bharat Ratna along with Ustad
Bismillah Khan in the year 2001? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Manna Dey B. Asha Bhosle C. Lata
Mangeshkar D. SP Balasubrahmanyam
Q8. Teejan Bai is a popular figure in which of
the following folk styles of singing? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Jugni B. Pandavani C. Bidesiya D. Panihari
Q9. In which of the following years was the
Indira Kala Sangeet Vishwavidyalaya
established? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1952 B. 1956 C. 1948 D. 1950
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. B 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.B 9.B
 Kajri is a folk song sung by women, from Uttar Pradesh and
1.
adjacent region, during rainy season.
The Saptak Annual Festival of Music is an annual thirteen-
2.
day Indian classical music festival held in Ahmedabad, India.
3. Established in the Year 1956, Indira Kala Sangit
Vishwavidyalaya “IKSV” is situated in the Khairagarh
township of Chhattisgarh State of India.
4. membranophone, any of a class of musical instruments in
which a stretched membrane vibrates to produce sound.
Besides drums, the basic types include the mirliton, or kazoo,
and the friction drum (sounded by friction produced by
drawing a stick back and forth through a hole in the
membrane).
5. In the book, Matang Muni specifically classified Indian music as
North and South regional variants.
6. The spectrum of swaras in Indian music is thus composed
of seven bands also known as saptak.
7. Lata Mangeshkar, the playback singer was awarded Bharat
Ratna along with Ustad Bismillah Khan in the year 2001.
8. The correct answer is Pandvani. Teejan Bai is an exponent
of Pandavani, a traditional performing art form, from
Chhattisgarh, in which she enacts tales from the
Mahabharata with musical accompaniments.
9. Established in the Year 1956, Indira Kala Sangeet
Vishwavidyalaya “IKSV” is situated in the Khairagarh township of
Chhattisgarh State of India.
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13 Dance
Q.1 The ‘Lasya’ in Indian classical dance
denotes:
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. disgust B. grace
C. laughter D. Anger

Q2. Which of the following festivals is related

to dance and sand art in Odisha DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Hornbill festival B. Konark Festival
C. Pushkar fair D. Thrissur Pooram
Q3. With which of the following Indian states is
the Kuchipudi dance primarily associated?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Tamil Nadu B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Kerala D. Odisha
Q4. Durga Arya is afamous personality
associated with which of the following dance
forms? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Manipuri B. Kathak C. Odissi D. Kuchipudi

Q5. The classical dance form ‘Sattriya’

originated in the state of: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Assam B. Bihar C. Punjab D. Goa
Q6. Which of the following is a martial dance
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Kathakali B. Kuchipudi C. Kalaripayattu D.
Kathak

Q7. Kuki dance is associated with which of the

following states? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Odisha B. Nagaland C. Bihar D. Madhya
Pradesh
Q8. Which of the following dance forms
belongs to Jammu & Kashmir?vDSSSB JSA 2022
A. Rouf B. Rangma C. Savari D. Jhora
Q9. Pandit Birju Maharaj and Shovana Narayan
are associated with which classical dance of
India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Odissi B. Mohiniyattam C. Kathak D.
Bharatanatyam
Q10. Who among the following is a reputed
dance guru? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ghulam Ali B. Ajay Chakraborty C. Birju
Maharaj D. Zakir Hussain
Q11. The Shondol dance, which is performed
for the king, is associated with which of the
following states/union territories? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Ladakh B. Puducherry C. Assam D. West
Bengal
Q12For which of the following dance forms is
Ileana Citaristi famous? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Kathakali B. Odissi C. Kuchipudi D. Kathak
Q13. Guru Bipin Singh is famous for which of
following dance forms? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Kuchipudi B. Mohiniyattam C. Manipuri D.
Odissi
Q14. Which of the following dance forms is
associated with Karnataka? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Chhau B. Kalaripayattu C. Yakshagana D.
Theyyam
Q15. In which district of Madhya Pradesh is the
Khajuraho dance festival organised? DSSSB JSA
2022.
A. Chhatarpur B. Niwari C. Tikamgarh D. Rewa
Q16. Padma Subrahmanayam is famous for
which of following dance forms? DSSSB JSA
2022.
A. Bharatanatyam B. Kathak C. Kuchipudi D.
Manipuri
Q17. How many hand gestures are used in
Mohiniyattam dance? DSSSB JSA 2022.
A. 19 B. 24 C. 45 D. 34
Q18. ‘Gotipua’ is a traditional dance form of
which state? DSSSB JSA 2022.
A. Assam B. Odisha C. Bihar D. West Bengal
Q19. ‘Kathakali’ is a dance form of which of the
following states? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Assam B. Kerala C. Karnataka D. Andhra
Pradesh
Q20. Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is famous
for which of following dance forms? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Odissi B. Manipuri C. Mohiniyattam D.
Kuchipudi
Q21. Lezim is the famous tribal dance
associated with which of the following states?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Maharashtra B. Odisha C. Rajasthan D.
Gujarat
Q22. In which of the following states was
‘Sattriya’ a modern form of dance introduced
in the 15th century AD? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Assam B. Meghalaya C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Nagaland
Q1. B Q2. B Q3 B Q4 B Q5A Q6 C 7. B 8.A 9.C 10.C
11.A 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.A 16.A 17.B 18.B 19.B 20.D
21.A 22.A
EXPLAINATION:

Q1. Lasyadance form performed by Goddess Parvati . The

term 'Lasya' in the context of Hindu mythology as it
expresses happiness and is filled with grace and beauty.
Q2. Konark Festival is conceived as the carnival of classical
dances of Odisha and it serves as a platform for renowned
classical dancers in India to showcase India's cultural depth
through various dance forms including Odissi, Kathak,
Satriya, Mohiniyattam, Bharatanatyam, and Kuchipudi among
others
Q3 Kuchipudi is indigenous to the state of Andhra
Pradesh and differs from the other five classical styles by the
inclusion of singing.
4. The correct answer is Kathak. Durga Arya is a Kathak
dancer, choreographer and teacher
5. Sattriya dance form dates back to the 15th century AD and had
originated in the monasteries of Assam by the great Vaishnava
saint.
6. Kalaripayattu is a martial art designed for the ancient
battlefield (the word "Kalari" meaning "battlefield"), with weapons
and combative techniques that are unique to Kerala. Like most
Indian martial arts, Kalaripayattu contains rituals and philosophies
inspired by Hinduism.
7. The correct answer is�Nagaland.
Key Points

 Nagaland is a mountainous state in northeast India, bordering Myanmar.

 It's home to diverse indigenous tribes, with festivals and markets
celebrating the different tribes' culture.
 Its capital city is Kohima.
 The major folk dances of Nagaland
include Modse, Agurshikukula, Butterfly Dance, Aaluyattu, Sadal
Kekai, Changai Dance, Kuki Dance, Leshalaptu, Khamba
Lim, Mayur Dance, Monyoasho, Rengma, Seecha and Kukui
 Kucho, Shankai and Moyashai etc, however, the prominent ones are War
Dance and Zeliang Dance.

8.Rouf dance is the most famous traditional and folk dance of

Jammu and Kashmir. This dance is performed in springtime,
especially on the occasion of Eid and Ramzan.

9. Shovana Narayan is a recognised Indian Kathak dancer

and a career officer with the Indian Audit and Accounts
Service. She performs in India and internationally, and has
been awarded the Padma Shri. She trained under Birju
Maharaj.
10. Pandit Birju Maharaj was an Indian dancer, composer, singer, and exponent of the
Lucknow "Kalka-Bindadin" Gharana of Kathak dance in India. He was a descendant of the
Maharaj family of Kathak dancers, which includes his two uncles, Shambhu Maharaj and Lachhu
Maharaj, and his father and guru, Acchan Maharaj.

The correct answer is 'Ladakh'. Shondol is a famous

11.
dance, performed by artists for the King of Ladakh on special
occasions.
12 Ileana Citaristi is an Italian Odissi and Chhau dancer, and dance
instructor based in Bhubaneswar, India. She was awarded the 43rd
National Film Awards for Best Choreography for Yugant in 1995
and became, in 2006, the first dancer of foreign origin to be
conferred the Padma Shri for her contributions to Odissi.
13. Guru Bipin Singh (23 August 1918 – 9 January 2000) was
a director, choreographer and teacher of Manipuri dance.
14. Yakshagana is a traditional folk dance form popular in Coastal
Karnataka districts. A trip to the coastal belt would be incomplete
without watching the Yakshagana – an elaborate dance-drama
performance unique to Karnataka. It is a rare combination of dance,
music, song, scholarly dialogues and colourful costumes.
15. The festival was hosted each year at the magnificent city of
Khajuraho located in the district of Chhatarpur, the artists perform in
the backdrop of historical monuments.
16. Award Citation. Dr. Padma Subrahmanyam is a leading figure in
Indian Bharata Natyam classical dance.
17. In total, the students will learn about 80 adavus or steps besides 24 hand gestures or
mudras.

18.Gotipua is a traditional dance form in the state of Odisha, India,

and the precursor of Odissi classical dance. It has been performed
in Orissa for centuries by young boys, who dress as women to
praise Jagannath and Krishna.
19. Kathakali or 'story play' took shape in Kerala in southern India in
the seventeenth century under the patronage of the prince of
Karnataka, who wrote plays for performance drawn from the epic
Ramayana in Malayalam, the language of the region.
20. Vempati Chinna Satyam (15 October 1929 – 29 July 2012) was
an Indian dancer and a guru of the Kuchipudi dance form.
21. The correct answer is Maharashtra. Lezim is a folk dance
associated with Maharashtra.
22. The Sattriya dance form was introduced in the 15th century A.D
by the great Vaishnava saint and reformer of Assam, Mahapurusha
Sankaradeva as a powerful medium for propagation of the
Vaishnava faith.
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14 Important
Days
Q1. World Food Safety Day is observed on
_______. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 5 June B. 7 June C. 9 June D. 6 June
Q2. Diwali is celebrated on which day of the
moon phase? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Waning B. Full moon day C. Waxing D. New
moon day
Q3. Every year, 28 February is celebrated as
National Science Day to commemorate the
discovery of which of the following
phenomenon? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Diffraction of light B. Formation of a rainbow
C. Tyndall effect D. Raman effect
1.B 2.B 3.D
EXPLAINATION

1. World Food Safety Day on 7 June 2022 will draw attention and
mobilize action to prevent, detect and manage foodborne risks
and improve human health
2. The main celebration of Diwali takes place on the day of the
new Moon, when the sky is at its darkest, so a big part of the
celebration revolves around light. Candles, clay lamps, and oil
lanterns are lit and placed throughout the home, in the streets,
in areas of worship, and floated on lakes and rivers.
3. National Science Day is celebrated in India on February 28
each year to mark the discovery of the Raman effect by Indian
physicist Sir C. V. Raman on 28 February 1928. For his
discovery, Sir C.V. Raman was awarded the Nobel Prize in
Physics in 1930.
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15 Important
Organisations
Q.1 Who publishes Global Gender Gap Report?

A. Asian Development Bank B. International Monetary Fund

C. World Economic Forum D. World Bank (TGT CS 2021)

Answer Key

1. C
Explanation

1. The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic
Forum. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality.
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16 Sports
Q.1 How many silver medals did India won at 2016 Olympic games?

A. 2 B. 1 C. 0 D. 3 (TGT CS 2021)

Q. 2 In which year did the Sports Authority of India institute the 1st SAI Institutional Awards for
Athletes and Coaches?

A.2018 B.2020 C.2019 D.2021 (junior secretariat assistant2022)

Q3. Who has won ICC Women’s cricketer of the

year 2021? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Harmanpreet Kaur B. Punam Raut
C. Mithali Raj D. Smriti Mandhana

Q4. Sakshi Malik, Yogeshwar Dutt, and Vinesh

Phogat are all connected with which of the
following sports? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Shooting B. Archery
C. Wrestling D. Weightlifting

Q5. The International Cricket Council (ICC) has

made a significant change to how LBWs are
judged under the Decision Review System
(DRS), according to this new set of rules, now
the bowlers will have to hit at least
_____________ to any part of the stump area
to out the player. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 20% of the ball B. 40% of the ball
C. 50% of the ball D. 30% of the ball
Q6. Rani Rampal was awarded the Rajiv Gandhi
Khel Ratna Award 2020. She is related to which
sport? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Archery B. Hockey C. Wrestling D. Table
Tennis
Q7. In which of the following years, Ravi Shastri
was appointed head coach of the Indian cricket
team? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 2018 B. 2015 C. 2016 D. 2017
Q8. In how many verticals is the Khelo India
Programme divided? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 16 B. 12 C. 14 D. 18
Q9. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy
is associated with which of the following?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. performance of Indian universities in space
research.
B. performance of Indian universities in
scientific researches.
C. performance of Indian universities in sports.
D. performance of Indian universities in
imparting education.
Q10. Which of the following autobiographies is
written by Sachin Tendulkar? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. A Century is Not Enough B. Playing It My Way
C. 281 and Beyond D. The Test of My Life
Answer Key

1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. D 8.B 9.C 10.B

Explanation

1. India won 1 Silver medal in Rio Olympics 2016. Overall India won 2 medals, Silver by PV
Sindhu in badminton and Bronze by Sakshi Malik in wrestling.
2. Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports conferred the first-ever Sports Authority of India
in 2021 and gave out its first-ever Institutional Awards to a total of 162 athletes and 84
coaches for their performance in national and international competitions.
3. The correct answer is Smriti Mandhana. Winners of the 2021 ICC Awards have been
announced. Rachael Heyhoe Flint Trophy for ICC Women's Cricketer of the Year has
been given to Smriti Mandhana (India).
4. The correct answer is Wrestling.
5. As per the existing rule, 50% of the ball should be hitting at least one of the three
stumps for the batter to be adjudged LBW on review, in case an umpire's not out
call has been challenged.
6. Rani Rampal is an Indian Hockey player. She was born
on 4th December 1994 in Shahbad Markanda Village in
Kurukshetra district in Haryana. She was conferred with
the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna 2020 and she is the first
woman hockey player to get this award.
7. On 13 July 2017, he was appointed as the head coach
of Indian cricket team.
8. There are various objectives of the khelo India
programme for the accomplishment of which 12 verticals
are designed by the government named – Playfield
Development, Community Coaching Development, State
Level Khelo India Centers, Annual Sports Competition,
Talent Search And Development, Utilization of Sports ...
9. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy was instituted in 1956- 57
as a running trophy by the Ministry of Education, Govt. of
India. This running trophy is awarded by the President of India
each year to a University which has all round best
performance in sports at Inter-University, National and
International competitions.
10. Playing It My Way is the autobiography of former Indian
cricketer Sachin Tendulkar.
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17 Misc.
Q.1 Which image is printed at the back of Rs. 500 note of Mahatma Gandhi (New) series?

A. Ellora Caves B. Sanchi Stupa C. Mangalyaan D. Red Fort (TGT CS 2021)

Q.2 Which continent is the largest producer of diamonds in the world?

A. Africa B. North America C. Asia D. Europe (TGT CS 2021)

Q.3 Which of the following is considered as the purest form of natural water in Rajasthan?

A. Pahar jal B. Seawater C. Palar pani D. Khara pani (Junior Secretariat Assistant 2022)

Q.4 Which of the following is the INCORRECT combination of the monument and its location?

A. Gateway of India – Hyderabad B. Golghar – Patna C. Sun Temple – Konark D. Meenakshi

Temple – Madurai (Junior Secretariat Assistant 2022)

Q 5 With which of the following states is the famous musician Roque Tome Fernandes associated?

A. Arunachal Pradesh B. Goa C. Mizoram D. Odisha (Junior Secretariat Assistant 2022)

Q 6 Identify the correct combination of monument and its respective state.

A. Konark Sun Temple – Bihar B. Gol Gumbaz – Maharashtra C. Chini ka Rauza – Kerala

D. Chota Imambada – Uttar Pradesh (DSSSB JSA 2022)

Q7. Who amongst the following was the Finance Minister of India in 1991?
A. . P Chidambaram B. Manmohan Singh C. Pranab Mukherjee D. Arun Jaitley

Q8 Which scientist assumed that only 56 elements exist in nature?

A. . Dmitri lvanovich Mendeléev B. Marie Curie C. John Newlands D. Johann Wolfgang Döbereiner

DSSSB JSA 2022

Q9. The continuous, predictable, directional movement of seawater driven by gravity, wind and
water density is called:

A. ocean belt B. ocean bight C. ocean current D. ocean strait DSSSB JSA 2022

Q10. Valabhi is a sub-type of which style of temple architecture?

A. . Pala style B. Nagara style C. Vesara style D. Dravidian style DSSSB JSA 2022

Q11. Which scientist suggested that life developed from simple inorganic molecules?

A. Stanley L Miller B. JBS Haldane C. Charles Darwin D. Harold C

Q12 X-rays were discovered by who among the following?

A. James Chadwick B. WC Röntgen C. Ernest Rutherford D. JJ Thomson

Q13. The __________ is a folk song sung by the
women of Uttar Pradesh and the adjacent
region during the rainy season. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Kajri B. Bhuta C. Daskathia D. Bihu
Q14. Who among the following belongs to
Kalka-Bindadin Gharana? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Pandit Birju Maharaj B. Gopi Krishna
C. Mrinalini Sarabhai D. Rukmini Devi
Q15. In which of the following sites are the
triple-storey rock-cut caves found?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ellora B. Ajanta C. Karla D. Bhaja
Q16. Where was the first Indian Institute of
Management (IIM) established in India?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mumbai B. Bengaluru
C. New Delhi D. Kolkata

Q17. Who among the following was referred to

as ‘Jina’? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mahavir B. AjitaKeshakambalin
C. Gosala D. Gautam
Q18. How many villages are there in Dadra and
Nagar Haveli? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 71 B. 74 C. 72 D. 73
Q19. When was coal gas used for street lighting
for the first time? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1830 B. 1870 C. 1810 D. 1850
Q20. The Bengali New Year is also known as
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Poila Baisakh B. Makar Sankranti
C. Dol Purnima D. Bihu
Q21. The Monazite sands of Kerala are rich in
_______________ DSSSB JSA 2022
A. oil B. coal C. thorium D. fermium
Q22. Which of the following was associated
with the concept of the Four Noble Truths?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Shaivism B. Jainism C. Buddhism D. Hinduism
Q23. Which of the following is the world’s
longest highway tunnel? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel B. Dr. Syama
Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel C. Atal Tunnel D.
Maliguda Tunnel
Q24. Which of the following states in India is
also known as the ‘Molasses basin’?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Mizoram B. Tripura C. Meghalaya D.
Arunachal Pradesh
Q25. Annie Besant was ___________.
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. a Theosophist and Irish socialist
B. a follower of Sri Aurobindo
C. a famous world traveller
D. initially a society lady
Q26. The oldest atomic power station in India is
located at? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Narora B. Kota C. Kalpakkam D. Tarapur

Q27. Which of the following states is NOT

included in the list of 7 States as per the
announcement by the Sports Ministry for
setting up Khelo India Centres? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Maharashtra B. Mizoram C. Uttar Pradesh D.
Goa
Q28. Where is the Dilwara Temple located?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Jodhpur B. New Delhi C. Mount Abu D. Jaipur
Q29. In which of the following festivals of
Karnataka is the buffalo race organised by the
farming communities? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Pattadakal B. Ugadi C. Kambala D. Hampi
Q30. What type of ocean floor is the shallowest
part of the ocean showing an average gradient
of 1° or even less? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Oceanic Deep or Trench B. Deep Sea Plain
C. Continental Shelf D. Continental Slope
Q31. The stories of the previous birth of
Buddha are contained in which of the following
kinds of text? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Pitak B. Jataka C. Nikay D. Anga
Q32. The entrance gateway in the Dravidian
style of temples is also known as DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Gopuram B. Garbhagriha C. Vedika D.
Shikhara
Q33. Which of the following dams is proposed
on the Indo-Nepal border? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Son Dam project B. Rajghat Dam C. Tehri
Dam D. Pancheshwar Main Dam
Q34. Ellora, in Maharashtra, is popular for its
special structural temples. What is the specialty
of the structure of the temples in Ellora? DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Temples with Domes B. Viman Temples C.
Rath Temples D. Cave Temples
Q35. Which of the following factors affecting
the distribution of temperature of the ocean
water is INCORRECT? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. The winds blowing from the land towards
the oceans drive warm surface water away
from the coast.
B. The temperature of surface water decreases
from the equator towards the poles.
C. Warm ocean currents raise the temperature
in cold ocean areas, while the cold currents
decrease the temperature in warm ocean
areas.
D. The oceans in the northern hemisphere
receive less heat due to their contact with
lesser extent of land than the oceans in the
southern hemisphere.
Q36. Name the brightest star in the sky. DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Polaris B. Antares C. Proxima Centauri D.
Sirius
Q37. Which of the following is a benefit of Crop
Rotation? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. It increases the quantity of minerals B. It
reduces expenditure C. It saves water D. It
increases the fertility of soil
Q38. What is the distance between rails in
broad gauge? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 2.981 metres B. 2.676 metres C. 1.676
metres D. 1.981 metres
Q39. Which of the following rivers is known as
the ‘river of sorrow’? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Yamuna B. Ganga C. Krishna D. Damodar
Q40. The gateway in the Buddhist Stupa is also
known as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Harmika B. Torana C. Vedika
D. Pradakshinapath
Q41. Halo, main ring and gossamer ring are
___________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. main segments of Uranus’s ring B. main
segments of Neptune’s ring C. main segments
of Saturn’s ring D. main segments of Jupiter’s
ring
Q42. Which model of SHG is also known as the
international model? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. CDF model B. SEWAA model C. SAPAP model
D. DWCRA model
Q43. Normally, In which month does the
Arabian Sea branch of the southwest monsoon
first hit the Western Ghats of the coastal state
of Kerala? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. April B. August C. June D. September
Q44. Name the star closest to our solar system,
which is at a distance of 4.37 light-years DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Procyon B. Sirius A C. Barnard's Star D. Alpha
Centauri
Q45. Which of the following crops is known as
the ‘Golden Fibre’? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Hemp B. Jute C. Silk D. Cotton
Q46. What was the symbol of Lord Rishabha of
Jainism? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Horse B. Monkey C. Red Goose D. Bull
Q47. A recurring climate pattern involving
changes in the temperature of waters in the
central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean is
known as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. ENSO B. CPSO C. ANSO D. LNSO
Q48. Who among the following personalities
was a famous leader of the Non-Cooperation
Movement from Bengal? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Khudiram Bose B. Rash Behari Bose C. Ishwar
Chandra Vidyasagar D. Chittaranjan Das
Q49. In which of the following regions of India
is the Mundari language spoken? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Thar desert B. Malwa plateau C. Chota-
Nagpur plateau D. Baghelkhand
Q50. Who among the following is the winner of
both, the Nobel Prize in Literature and the Man
Booker Prize? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Salman Rushdie B. VS Naipaul C. Arundhati
Roy D. Aravind Adiga
Q51. To which of the following religions are
Hinayana and Mahayana related? ? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Hinduism B. Jainism C. Sikhism D. Buddhism
Q52. Who was the first scientist to present the
theory of continental drift? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Louis Bauer B. Harry Hess C. George Edward
Backus D. Alfred Wegener
Q53. The Suresh Tendulkar Committee was
constituted by the Planning Commission in
2005 for: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Cauvery water dispute settlement B. poverty
estimation C. coming up with an education
policy D. suggesting administrative reforms
Q54. Mon Khmer language, spoken by the
people in north-east India, belongs to the
_____ language family. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Tibeto-Burman B. Dravidian C. Austro-Asiatic
D. Indo-European
Q55. Which river is also referred to as ‘Dakshin
Gangotri’? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Godavari B. Kaveri C. Periyar D. Narmada
Q56. Which of the following atomic power
stations is located in Uttar Pradesh? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Tarapur B. Narora C. Kalpakkam D. Kakrapar
Q57. What did the famous astronomer,
Nicolaus Copernicus proposed? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. The planets orbit around the sun B. Nuclear
fusion is the source of solar energy C. Our
universe is expanding D. The planetary laws
Q58. Which of the following states is rich in the
raw material used for obtaining aluminium?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Kerala B. Bihar C. Odisha D. Uttar Pradesh
Q59. The Super Highways in the Golden
Quadrilateral have ______ lanes DSSSB JSA
2022
A. 5 B. 8 C. 6 D. 10
Q60. Which of the following rulers started the
construction of the main shrine of the
Jagannath temple in Puri? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Kapilendra Deva B. Samudragupta C.
Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva D.
Skandagupta
Q61. Who among the following chanted tales of
glory of the Raja during the performance of
Ashvamedha Yajna? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. The Raja’s wife B. The Army Chief of Raja C.
The Brahman D. The Raja’s charioteer
Q62. What is the purpose of grooves on the
soles of shoes? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Causes less friction B. Better grip on the
floor C. Is easy to wear D. Soles act as a
cushion
Q63. Who among the following Sikh Gurus
created the order of the Khalsa to defend
dharma? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Guru Ram Das B. Guru Har Kishan C. Guru
Gobind Singh D. Guru Teg Bahadur
Q64. What is the width of a broad gauge track
in Indian Railways? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1.766 m B. 1.678 m C. 1.686 m D. 1.676 m
Q65. Which of the following is a self-
employment programme? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. MGNREGA B. NEP C. PMRY D. AWAS Yojana
Q66. We can say that the population has
‘stabilised’, or has reached the ‘replacement
level’, when: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. the difference in the birth rate and the death
rate is zero, or very small B. the difference
between the birth rate and the death rate is
high C. there is a steady increase in the death
rate D. there is a steady increase in the birth
rate
67. In which of the following months is the
kharif crop harvested in India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Between December and February B.
Between January and March C. Between
September and October D. Between July and
September
68. Where did Siddhartha (Gautam Buddha)
attain enlightenment? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Bodh Gaya B. Kapilavastu C. Sarnath D.
Lumbini
Q69. When was the National Family Planning
Programme (NFPP) introduced? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1958 B. 1955 C. 1952 D. 1953
Q70. When the number of literate persons is
multiplied by 100 and divided by the total
population of a state in India, what does it
indicate? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Natural literacy rate B. Basic literacy rate C.
Effective literacy rate D. Crude literacy rate
Q71. Which of the following is a small, low-
mass star that lies about 4.2 light-years away
from the sun in the constellation of Centaurus?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Wolf 359 B. Sirius B C. Proxima Centauri D.
Luyten 726-8A
Q72. Workers who worked for less than 183
days in the reference period are termed as
__________. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. main workers B. marginal workers C. other
workers D. non-workers
Q73. Which of the following wings of the
National Innovation Fund (NIF) works towards
obtaining the rights of technologies from
innovators after compensating them for the
same, with the purpose of disseminating and
diffusing them at a low or no cost for the larger
benefit of the society? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Innovations' exhibition at the President
House and The Festival of Innovation and
Entrepreneurship (FINE) B. Grassroots
Technological Innovations Acquisition Fund
(GTIAF) C. Grassroots Innovations Design Studio
(GRIDS) D. Micro Venture Innovation Fund
(MVIF
Q74. Which adulterant is mainly used in
sweets, pulses and turmeric powder in India?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Margarine B. Metanil yellow C. Brick powder
D. Crimson red
Q75. Which of the following terms is correct
when, for a state, the number of literate
persons aged 7 years and above is multiplied by
100 and divided by the population aged 7
years? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Simple literacy rate B. Basic literacy rate C.
Effective literacy rate D. Crude literacy rate
Q76. Brihaspati is the Hindi name of which
planet? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Mars D. Pluto
Q77. What is the thickness of thermocline
which lies between the warm surface water
and the cold deep water? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 900 to 1500 m B. 100 to 400 m C. 300 to
1000 m D. 800 to 1200 m
Q78. The outermost range of the Himalayas is
named as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Himadri B. Shiwalik C. Dhauladhar D.
Himachal
Q79. Who among the following personalities
laid the foundation of the Vishwa Bharati
University? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy B. Ishwar Chandra
Vidyasagar C. Dayanand Saraswati D.
Rabindranath Tagore
Q80. The branch of astronomy that deals with
the moon is called: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. pedology B. archaeology C. anthropology D.
selenology
Q81. The books ‘Charak Samhita’ and ‘Susruta
Samhita’ are based on which of the following
themes? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Psychology B. Language C. Performing arts D.
Medicine
Q82. Ustad Isa Khan was the main architect of:
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Red Fort B. Taj Mahal C. Gol Gumbaz D.
Humayun’s Tomb
Q83. In which year did Laplace propose the
'Nebular Hypothesis', which states that there
was a huge and hot gaseous nebula in space?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1879 B. 1796 C. 1795 D. 1876
Q84. Which of the following minerals found in
Jharkhand, in India, is used for the generation
of nuclear power? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Kyanite B. Magnesium C. Uranium D.
Graphite
Q85. What is the stretch of NW 1 waterways in
India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Allahabad to Chennai B. Allahabad to Patna
C. Allahabad to Kollam D. Allahabad to Haldia
Q86. In which year was air transport
nationalised in India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. 1954 B. 1951 C. 1952 D. 1953
Q87. The Great Himalayas is_________ type of
folding. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. vertical B. asymmetrical C. elongated D.
symmetrical
Answer Key

1. D 2. A 3.C 4.A 5.B 6. D 7. B 8.C 9. C 10. B

11. B 12. B 13.A 14. A 15. A 16. D 17.A 18. C 19. C 20. A
21. C 22. C 23.C 24. A 25. A 26. D 27.C 28. C 29. C 30.C
31. B 32. A 33. D 34.D 35. D 36.D 37.D 38.C 39. D 40.B
41.D 42.C 43.C 44.D 45.B 46.D 47.A 48.D 49.C 50.B
51.D 52.D 53.B 54.C 55.A 56.B 57.A 58.C 59.C 60.C
61.D 62.B 63.C 64.D 65.C 66.A 67.C 68.A 69.C 70.D
71.C 72.B 73.B 74.B 75.C 76.B 77.C 78.B 79.D 80.D
81.D 82.B 83.B 84.C 85.D 86.D 87.B
Explanation

1.
Main
Value Dimensions Colour Back image
Konark Sun
₹ 10 123 mm × 63 mm Brown Temple
Ellora
₹ 20 129 mm × 63 mm Yellow Caves
Hampi with
₹ 50 135 mm × 66 mm Cyan Chariot
Rani Ki
₹ 100 142 mm × 66 mm Lavender Vav
Sanchi
₹ 200 146 mm × 66 mm Orange Stupa

₹ 500 150 mm × 66 mm Stone Grey Red Fort

2. Africa
₹ 2000 166 mm × 66 mm Magenta Mangalayan Africa. Together,
Africa's diamond-
producing countries mean that Africa is the world's first diamond area representing more
than 60% of the global diamond production.
3. The Palar Pani is a term referred to the rainwater in the desert regions of Rajasthan, which is
regarded as the purified form of natural water. This water in the region is perceived value
and thus the conservation of this water takes place underground
4. The Gateway of India is an arch-monument built in the early 20th century in the city
of Mumbai (Bombay), India. Not in Hyderabad
5. The Correct Answer is Goa. Goa: Capital: Panji, located on the bank of the Mandovi river.
Goa musician and a popular figure in the State's entertainment industry, Roque Tome
Fernandes, has been selected as King Momo, the mythical king of Goa Carnival 2017
6. Chota Imambara, also known as Imambara Hussainabad Mubarak is an imposing
monument located in the city of Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India.
7. India's Prime Minister, when the New Economic Policy (NEP) was introduced was P
V Narasimha Rao and the Finance Minister was Dr. Manmohan Singh.

8. Newlands assumed that only 56 elements existed in nature and no more elements
would be further discovered in the near future. But later on, several new elements
were discovered, whose properties couldn't be defined as per the Law of Octaves.
9. Ocean currents are the continuous, predictable, directional movement of seawater
driven by gravity, wind (Coriolis Effect), and water density.
10. Valabhi (Sub-type of Nagara Style):
Rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber.
11 . J.B.S. Haldane, a British scientist, suggested in 1929 that life must have developed from the
simple inorganic molecules which were present on earth soon after it was formed. He speculated that
the conditions on earth at that time, which were far from the conditions we see today, could have
given rise to more complex organic molecules that were necessary for life. The first primitive
organisms would arise from further chemical synthesis.

12. W.C. Röntgen reported the discovery of X-rays in December 1895 after seven
weeks of assiduous work during which he had studied the properties of this new
type of radiation able to go through screens of notable thickness. He named them X-
rays to underline the fact that their nature was unknown.
13. Kajri is a folk song sung by women, from Uttar Pradesh and adjacent region,
during rainy season.
14. The correct answer is Pandit Birju Maharaj. Pandit
Birju Maharaj was an Indian dancer, composer, and
singer. He was an exponent of the Lucknow "Kalka-
Bindadin" Gharana of Kathak dance in India.
15. The correct answer is Ellora. Ellora is a UNESCO
World Heritage Site. It is located in Maharashtra. It is
one of the largest rock-cut Hindu temple cave
complexes in the world.
16. The institute at Calcutta was established first, on 13 November 1961, and
was named Indian Institute of Management Calcutta or IIM Calcutta. It was set up in
collaboration with the MIT Sloan School of Management, the government of West
Bengal, the Ford Foundation, and Indian industry
17. Vardhaman Mahavir was known as Jina which
means conqueror of physical comforts which had no
impact on him.
18. The correct answer is 72. Key PointsDadra and
Nagar Haveli: The 10th amendment to the Constitution
in 1961 made Dadra and Nagar Haveli a part of India
and in 1987 the area was given the title of a Union
Territory. Recently, Daman and Diu is merged into
Dadra and Nagar Haveli to form a single Union
Territories.
19. In 1810, first-time coal gas was used for street lighting in London. Coal gas is
Obtained to get a Coke during Coal Processing.
20. The Bengali New Year is also known as Poila Baisakh or Bangla Noboborsho.
It is Celebrated in the month of April throughout West Bengal
21. The monazite Sands of Kerala are rich for earth metals,thorium
,lanthanum and cerium.Because of the presence of thorium within
monazite, it can be radioactive. Due to the alpha decay of thorium
and uranium, monazite contains significant amount of helium, which
can be extracted by heating.
22. The Four Noble Truths comprise the essence
of Buddha's teachings, though they leave much left
unexplained. They are the truth of suffering, the truth of
the cause of suffering, the truth of the end of suffering,
and the truth of the path that leads to the end of
suffering.
23. The correct answer is Atal Tunnel. The Atal Tunnel
is a highway tunnel built under the Rohtang Pass in the
eastern Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas on the Leh–
Manali highway in Himachal Pradesh, India. It is now
the longest highway tunnel in the world at over 10,000
feet and 9.02 km (5.6 mi) long
24. The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Mizoram.
Mizoram is also known as the 'Molasses basin' which is
made up of soft unconsolidated deposits.
25. Annie Besant (née Wood; 1 October 1847 – 20
September 1933) was a British socialist, theosophist,
freemason, women's rights and Home Rule activist,
educationist, and campaigner for Indian nationalism.
Regarded as a champion of human freedom, she was
an ardent supporter of both Irish and Indian self-rule.
26. Tarapur Atomic Power Plant-1 (TAPS-1) is the first and the oldest Nuclear
Power Station In India.
27. The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh. The Sports Ministry
has dedicated a total of 143 Khelo India Centres across 7
States with a total budget estimate of Rs 14.30 Crores. These
centres will be entrusted with one sports discipline each.
28. The Dilwara temples of India are located about 2½ kilometres from Mount Abu,
Rajasthan's only hill station.
29. Kambala festival is an annual buffalo race held in the
southwestern Indian state of Karnataka.
30. The correct option is A 1 only. Explanation: Statement 1
is correct: The continental shelf is the extended margin of
each continent. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing
an average gradient of 1° or even less.
31. The Jataka Katha contains stories of the former births of
Lord Buddha. The oldest written stories in the world are the
Jataka tales in which about 600 stories have been collected
32. Gopuram acts as a characteristic feature to represent
the temples built in the Dravidian Style. The entrance
gateway in the Dravidian style of temples is known as
Gopuram..
33. The correct answer is 'Pancheshwar Main Dam'.
Pancheshwar Main Dam is a multipurpose power project to
be built on the Indo-Nepal border in the state of Uttarakhand.
34. The correct answer is Cave Temples
Not only is the Ellora complex a unique artistic creation and a technological exploit
but, with its sanctuaries devoted to Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism, it illustrates
the spirit of tolerance that was characteristic of ancient India.
35. The correct answer is The oceans in the northern
hemisphere receive less heat due to their contact with lesser
extent of land than the oceans in the southern hemisphere.
36. The brightest star in the sky is Sirius, also known as the
“Dog Star” or, more officially, Alpha Canis Majoris, for its
position in the constellation Canis Major..
37. The correct answer is 'It increases the fertility of soil'.
Crop Rotation: By growing the same type of crop
continuously in the same land, the fertility of the land
gradually starts getting destroyed and the production also
starts decreasing.
38. Broad Gauge: A broad-gauge is also known as a wide
gauge or large line. The distance between the two tracks in
these railway gauges is 5 ft 6 in (1676 mm). Any gauge wider
than the standard gauge or 1,435 mm is called a broad gauge
39. Damodar River was earlier known as the "River of Sorrows"as it used to flood
many areas of Bardhaman, Hooghly, Howrah and Medinipur districts. Even now the
 floods sometimes affect the lower Damodar Valley, but the havoc it wreaked in earlier
years is now a matter of history.
40. torana, Indian gateway, usually of stone, marking
the entrance to a Buddhist shrine or stupa or to a Hindu
temple. Toranas typically consist of two pillars carrying
two or three transverse beams that extend beyond the
pillars on either side.
41. The correct answer is main segments of Jupiter's
ring. The planet Jupiter has a system of faint planetary
rings.
42. The correct answer is 'SAPAP model'. This model
of SHG(Self Help Groups) is also known as
International Model. In 1995, SAPAP pilot in 20 poor
mandals of Andhra Pradesh. SAPAP model
contemplated the process of social mobilization as an
institutional mechanism to mobilise the poor into SHGs
(Self Help Groups).
43. The normal date of onset of the southwest monsoon over Kerala i.e. the first
place of entry in the mainland of India is June
44. Alpha Centauri is a triple star system located just over
four light years, or about 25 trillion miles, from Earth. While
this is a large distance in terrestrial terms, it is three times
closer than the next nearest Sun-like star.
45. Jute was also known as the 'Golden Fibre'. It grows
well on alluvial soil and requires high temperature,
heavy rainfall, and humid climate. This crop is grown in
the tropical areas. India and Bangladesh are the leading
producers of jute.
46. N/A
47. The El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is a
recurring climate pattern involving changes in the
temperature of waters in the central and eastern tropical
Pacific Ocean.
48. Chittaranjan Das (5 November 1870 – 16 June 1925), popularly
called Deshbandhu (Friend of the Nation), was an Indian freedom fighter, political
activist and lawyer during the Indian Independence Movement and founder-leader of
 the Swaraj Party in undivided Bengal during the period of British Colonial rule in India.
His name is abbreviated as C. R. Das.[3] He was closely associated with a number of
literary societies and wrote poems, apart from numerous articles and essays.
49. Mundari (Munɖari) is a Munda language of the Austroasiatic language family
spoken by the Munda tribes in eastern Indian states of Jharkhand, Odisha and West
Bengal. It is closely related to Santali. Mundari Bani, a script specifically to write
Mundari, was invented by Rohidas Singh Nag. It has also been written in
the Devanagari, Odia, Bengali, and Latin writing systems.
50. Naipaul is a famous writer who has won both
Booker Prize and Nobel Prize in Literature.
51. The Mahayana part of Buddhism means “Great
Vehicle” in Sanskrit, accepted in the Buddha's divinity.
In Buddhism, the sect promoted idol worship. The
Hinayana part of Buddhism means “Lesser Vehicle” in
Sanskrit, which did not accept the Buddha's divinity.
52. The realization that Earth's land masses move was
first proposed by Alfred Wegener, which he called
continental drift
53. Suresh D. Tendulkar constituted by the Planning
Commission in 2005 to review the methodology of
estimation of poverty has submitted its
recommendations in December 2009. The report of the
Expert Group has been accepted by the Planning
Commission.
54. The Austroasiatic branch has three sub-branches:
Munda, Mon-Khmer, and Vietnamese- Muong, out of
which the first one is located in India. The Munda
languages in India are spoken in the eastern and
southern parts of India.
55. River Godavari is also known as Dakshin Ganga. It
is the largest Peninsular river system. It rises in the
Nasik district of Maharashtra and discharges its water
into the Bay of Bengal.
56. Uttar Pradesh has only one nuclear power plant,
the Narora nuclear power plant located in Bulandshahar
district in Western Uttar Pradesh.
57. Nicolaus Copernicus was a Polish astronomer and
mathematician known as the father of modern astronomy. He
was the first European scientist to propose that Earth and
other planets revolve around the sun, the heliocentric theory
of the solar system.
58. The raw material of aluminium is bauxite. It is found abundantly in Orissa which is
the largest aluminium producing state. It manufactures more than half of India’s aluminium.
Aluminium has gained a huge amount of popularity because of its light weight, corrosion
resistance, as a good conductor of heat, easily malleable and becomes stranger when it is
mixed with other metals. India in total has 8 aluminum plants. They are in Orissa, West
Bengal,Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra.
59. The golden quadrilateral is a network of six-lane roads
connecting India's four major cities Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata,
and Chennai.
60. The majestic Jagannath Temple in Puri is a major
pilgrimage destination for Hindus and is a part of the “Char
Dham” pilgrimages. The construction of the temple was
begun by King Anantavarman Deva, first of the Eastern
Ganga dynasty.
61. Since the charioteer of the raja always accompanied in
all his exploits; he used to chant the raja's tales of glory
during the yajna. Other rajas were supposed to behave as
mute spectators. The relatives of the main raja got the
opportunity to perform some minor rituals.
62. Soles of shoes are grooved because the
grooves increases the friction and gives the good grip to the
person while walking with shoes.
63.The Khalsa tradition was initiated in 1699 by the Tenth Guru
of Sikhism, Guru Gobind Singh. Its formation was a key event in
the history of Sikhism.
64. Broad gauge of 1,676 mm (5 ft 6 in), commonly known as
Indian gauge, is the dominant track gauge in India, Pakistan,
Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Argentina, Chile, and on BART (Bay
Area Rapid Transit) in the San Francisco Bay Area. This is the
widest gauge in common use anywhere in the world.
65. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana is a scheme that was
launched on 15 August, 1993 by the Prime Minister of India to
provide self-employed breaks to the educated yet unemployed
youth of the country
66. Country level population stabilization occurs when births plus
in-migration equals deaths plus out-migration. Thus, there is
often a gap of a few decades between achieving replacement
level fertility i.e. TFR of 2.1 (two children per couple) and
population stabilization.
67. 1. Kharif crops are sown in winter from October to December
and harvested in summer from April to June. 2. Rabi Crops are
grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country
and these are harvested in September-October.
68. This extraordinary place—Bodh Gaya—is understood to be
the site of the enlightenment, or “great awakening”
(Sanskrit, mahabodhi), of Siddhartha Gautama, the Buddha.
69. India was the first country in the world to have launched a
National Programme for Family Planning in 1952. With its historic
initiation in 1952, the Family Planning Programme has
undergone transformation in terms of policy and actual
programme implementation.
70.The correct answer is crude literacy rate . Literacy rate is
calculated by dividing the number of literates in a given age
range by the corresponding age group population. The result is
then multiplied by 100. Alternatively, the same method can be
applied to calculate the number of illiterates; or by subtracting the
literacy rate from 100%.
71. Proxima Centauri is a small, low-mass star located 4.2465
light-years (1.3020 pc) away from the Sun in the southern
constellation of Centaurus. Its Latin name means the 'nearest
[star] of Centaurus'. It was discovered in 1915 by Robert Innes
and is the nearest-known star to the Sun.
72. Those who do not work for the major part of the year are
termed, marginal workers. These workers work for less than 6
months or less than 183 days in a year.
 73. Grassroots Technological Innovations Acquisition
Fund (GTIAF) sanctioned in 2011 and operationalized in 2012
obtains the rights of technologies from innovators after
compensating them for the same, with the purpose of
disseminating and diffusing them at low or no cost for the larger
benefit of the society.
74. Metanil Yellow (MY), a non-permitted, toxic, chief additive
adulterant is majorly used in sweets, pulses, and turmeric in
India owing to its color that ranges from yellow to orange.
75. Thus, we can say that the correct expression of effective
Literacy Rate is (Number of Literate persons aged 7 and above ×
100) / Population aged 7 and above.
76. Brihaspati is the name given to the planet Jupiter. It is the
fifth planet from the Sun.
77. The thermocline lies between the warm surface water and the
cold deep water and may have a thickness of 300 to 1,000 m.
78. Siwalik range, also known as Siwalik Hills or Outer Himalayas,
are the outer range of the Himalayas, which extends from the Tista
River in Sikkim state for more than 1000 miles.
79. Founded by the first non-European Nobel
Laureate Rabindranath Thākur(popularly known as Tagore) in
1921, Visva-Bharati was declared to be a central university and an
institution of national importance by an Act of Parliament in 1951.
80. Selenography. This is again one of the pivotal branches of
astronomy. Selenography is all about the study of all the nuances of
Moon, its physical features as well as the surface
81. The creation of the medical treatises known as the Charaka-Samhita and Sushruta-
Samhita credited to Charaka, a physician, and Sushruta, a surgeon respectively, heralded
the beginning of the golden period of Indian medicine, which spanned from 800 BCE to
around 1000 CE

82.Ustad Ahmad (a.k.a. Isa Khan), an architect in the court of Shah

Jahan from Lahore, is most often credited as the chief architect (or
plan drawer) of the Taj Mahal, based on a seventeenth century
manuscript which claims that Ustad Ahmad was the architect of
both the Taj Mahal and the Red Fort at Delhi.
83. French mathematician Laplace propounded his 'Nebular
Hypothesis' in the year 1796.
84. Uranium and thorium, which are important minerals found in
Jharkhand and the Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan are used for
generating atomic or nuclear power. The Monazite sands of Kerala
is also rich in thorium.
85. The Ganga - Bhagirathi - Hooghly river system between Haldia
(Sagar) and Allahabad (1620 km) was declared as National
Waterway-1 (NW-1) in 1986.
86. Air transport was nationalised in 1953. The Government of India
took the responsibility of operating airways in the country.
87. It is the northern most and the most continuous range of
Himalayas. It has the loftiest and the most prominent peaks that
have asymmetrical folds. The world's highest mountain peaks are a
part of it.
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18 Indian
Festivals
Q.1 Which of the following pair of festival –
state is correct?
I. Anduri Utsav – Uttarakhand
II. Pang Lhabsol – Sikkim
DSSSB TGT CS 2021
A. Both I and II B. Only II
C. Only I D. Neither I nor II
Q.2 Bathukamma festival belongs to ______.
DSSSB TGT CS 2021
A. Kerala B. Telengana
C. Goa D. Tamil Nadu
Q.3 Why is Buddha Purnima celebrated?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. On the account of the death anniversary of
Gautama Buddha.
B. To celebrate the birth anniversary of
Gautama Buddha.
C. Buddha gave his speech at Sarnath on that
day.
D. On this day, Siddhartha became Gautama
Buddha.
Q.4 Which of the following festivals is related to
dance and sand art in Odisha?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Hornbill festival B. Konark Festival
C. Pushkar fair D. Thrissur Pooram
Q5. Which festival is celebrated at the end of
the holy month of Ramzan? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Urs B. Milad-un-Nabi C. Eid-ul-Azha D. Eid-ul-
Fitr
Q6. Mahavir Jayanti is an important festival of
which religion in India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Jainism B. Buddhism C. Hinduism D.
Zoroastrianism
Q7. Bathow Puja is an important religious
festival of: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Rajasthan B. Bihar C. Assam D. Gujarat
Q8. Which of the following festivals is
celebrated as the Tamil New Year? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Vishu B. Pongal C. Onam D. Puthandu
Q9. With which of the following States / Union
Territories is the Naropa festival associated
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ladakh B. Assam C. Bihar D. Puducherry
Q10 ‘Wangala’ cultural festival (the 100 Drums
Festival) is celebrated by which of the following
states’ tribes of India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Madhya Pradesh B. Meghalaya C. Sikkim D.
Rajasthan
Q11. ‘Ugadi’ is a festival celebrated in: DSSSB
JSA 2022
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Assam C. Karnataka D.
Gujarat
Q12. The feast of Saint Francis Xavier is majorly
celebrated in which state of India? DSSSB JSA
2022
A. Telangana B. Kerala C. Goa D. Tamil Nadu
Q13. The birthday of Prophet Mohammad is
celebrated as: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Shab-e-Barat B. Muharram C. Eid-ul-Azha D.
Milad-un-Nabi
Answer Key

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. B 5.D 6. A 7.C 8.D 9.A 10.B

11.C 12.C 13.D
Explanations

1. Butter Festival is locally famous as Andhuri Utsav or Anduri Utsav celebrated on the medow
of dayara uttarakhand. Origin of butter holi, makkhan holi.

Pang Lhabsol is celebrated in Sikkim to offer respect and homage to the third highest
mountain, Mount Kanchenjunga. But this is not it, Pang means ‘to witness’ and apart from
paying homage it also commemorates the Treaty of brotherhood among Lepchas and
Bhutias. It signifies the unity of the Sikkimese.

2. Bathukamma is a flowers festival celebrated predominantly in Telangana and some parts of

Andhra Pradesh. Every year this festival is celebrated as per Sathavahana calendar for nine
days starting Mahalaya Amavasya till Durgashtami, usually in September–October of
Gregorian calendar.

5. Eid al-Fitr is celebrated for one to three days, depending on

the country. It is forbidden to fast on the Day of Eid, and a
specific prayer is nominated for this day. As an obligatory act
of charity, money is paid to the poor and the needy (Zakat-ul-
fitr) before performing the 'Eid prayer
6. Mahavir Jayanti has a great significance among Jain people.
They celebrate this day with great enthusiasm and fervor. This day
is dedicated to the Lord Mahavir, a Jain saint who is known
amongst the most famous saints.
7. Bathow Puja is an important religious festival of the Bodo-
Kacharies of Assam, India. In this festival, the people worship
a god known by different names like GilaDamra, KhuriaBwrai,
Sri Brai (Shibbwrai), BathowBwrai etc. Some identify this god
with the Hindu god Lord Shiva
8. Tamil people celebrate Puthandu, also called Puthuvarusham, as the traditional
"Tamil/Hindu New Year", states Peter Reeves. This is the month of Chittirai, the first month of the
Tamil solar calendar, and Puthandu typically falls on 14 April. In some parts of Southern Tamil
Nadu, the festival is called Chittirai Vishu.
9. The correct answer is Ladakh Key Points Naropa Festival is also referred to as the Kumbha
of Ladakh or Himalayas

Wangala Festival of Meghalaya is a most popular festival

10.
among the Garos of Meghalaya, India. Wangala Festival is
a harvest festival held in honour of Saljong, the Sun-god of
fertility.
11. Ugadi is a Hindu festival, celebrated in the south Indian
states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Telangana. The
festival marks the beginning of a new Hindu calendar year
and is celebrated on the first day of “Chaitra” month, which
falls in the months of March-April as per the Gregorian
calendar.
12. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier Festival is observed
in Goa every year. It is observed on the death anniversary of the
revered saint St. Francis Xavier that falls on 3rd December.
13. Muslims view the celebration, called Mawlid al-Nabi or simply the Mawlid, like many
other Islamic celebrations: as a sign of respect and adoration of Muhammad, whom they
believe to be God's messenger.
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19 Headquarters
Q1. Secunderabad is the headquarter of ________
zone. DSSSB JSA 2022
A. south central railways B. east central railways
C. south eastern railways D. southern railways
Q2. The headquarters of National Institute of Solar
Energy is located in ____district of Haryana
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Gurugram B. Hisar
C. Panipat D. Karnal
Q3. Where is the headquarters of the Integral Coach
Factory? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Hyderabad B. Mumbai C. Bengaluru D. Chennai
Q4. Belur Math in West Bengal is the Headquarters
of which historical institution? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Prarthana Samaj B. Veda Samaj C. Arya Samaj D.
Ramakrishna Mission
Q5 ICAR–Indian Institute of Wheat and Barley
Research is located in: DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Ambala B. Kurukshetra C. Rohtak D. Karnal
Q6Where is the Central Institute of Indian
Languages located in India? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Kolkata B. Chennai C. Mysore D. New Delhi
Q7In which of the following Indian cities is the
Central Institute of Classical Tamil (CICT) located?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Rameswaram B. Chennai C. Mysore D.
Mahabalipuram
Q8. Where is Lalit Kala Academy located in India?
DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Karnataka B. Tamil Nadu C. Maharashtra D. New
Delhi
Q9. Where is the headquarter of Share Microfin
Limited situated? DSSSB JSA 2022
A. Delhi B. Hyderabad C. Mumbai D. Kolkata

A.
Answer Key

Q1. A Q2. A 3.D 4.D 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.D 9.B

Explanations

Q1. TheCorrect Answer is South Central Railways.

Secunderabad is the headquarters of the South Center
Railway. South Center Railways was formed on 2nd October
1966. It is the first railway zone in India to complete 100%
LED Lighting At All 733 stations under its jurisdiction.
Q2. The organization's main goal is to conduct and promote
research and development in the field of solar power in India,
as well as act as a national resource center for solar energy.
It is headquartered in Gurgaon, Haryana.
3. Integral Coach Factory is a manufacturer of rail coaches located in Perambur, Chennai, Tamil
Nadu, India. It was established in 1955 and is owned and operated by the Indian Railways. It is
located in Perambur, in the suburbs of Chennai.

4.Belur Math is the international headquarters

of Ramakrishna Mission. It was founded in 1899 by Swami
Vivekananda, the world famous yogi and disciple of Sri
Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
5. The AICWIP was elevated to the status of the Directorate of Wheat Research in 1978 and in
1990 it moved from IARI, New Delhi, to its present location at Karnal, 130 km north of
Delhi along with two regional stations located at Flowerdale, Shimla and Dalang Maidan (Lahaul
valley).
6.The Central Institute of Indian Languages is an Indian research and teaching institute based in
Mysuru, part of the Language Bureau of the Ministry of Education. It was founded on 17 July
1969

7.This is an Institute constituted specifically for carrying out higher

research Classical Tamil at international levels not to be found
elsewhere globally. This unique Institute is functioning
in Chennai from May 19, 2008.
8. Lalit Kala Akademi, National Academy of Art, New Delhi was set up by the Government
of India as an autonomous body, on 5th August 1954 by the then Honourable Minister for
Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.

9.Global headquarters for SHARE Microfin is located

in Hyderabad/Secunderabad, Telangana,India.