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The T-rating, e.g. T5, marked on the certification label of equipment indicates that, the surface temperature of the equipment? i Will not reach the flashpoint temperature of the gas in normal operation; ii Is designed to reach the temperature represented by the T-rating; iii Will not reach the ignition temperature of any dust or gas in normal operation; iv Will not exceed the temperature represented by the T-rating during normal or specified fault conditions 8 Which one of the following sub-divisions does hydrogen belong? i mA; ii 0B; iii uC; vob © Equipment marked Il only (without a letter A, B or C) is? i Suitable for use in areas where IIA or IIB gases are present; ii Suitable for use in any Group II gases or vapours; iii Suitable for use where only IIA gases are present; iv Not suitable for use in hazardous areas In which one of the following zones is an explosive gas/air mixture likely to occur in normal operation occasionally? i Zone 21; ii Zone 2; iii Zone 1; iv Zone 0.15) Azone 2 area is where an explosive gas/air mixture is? i Is likely to be present during normal operation occasionally; Continuously present or present for long periods; iii Not present during normal operation; iv _ Not likely to occur in normal operation, and if it does occur is likely to do so only infrequently and will exist for a short period only @ 16) In which one of the following zones is an explosive gas/air mixture unlikely to occur in normal operation, but if it does occur, will persist for a short period only? i Zone 1; ® ii Zone 2; iii Zone 22; iv Zone 0. 17) Which one of the following statements correctly describes the ‘Temperature class’ of explosion protected equipment with regard to surface temperature? It indicates: (i) The temperature will not be exceeded should fault conditions occur; (ii) The maximum temperature of internal surfaces exposed to a flammable gas; (ii) The average surface temperature of the equipment measured at its hottest point: (iv) The maximum surface temperature of those surfaces exposed to a flammable gas during normal or specific fault conditions. a2) 3) 4) 5) 6) MCQ: Unit 2 - Standards, certification & marking Which one of the following letters, when used as a certification number suffix, indicates that apparatus has ‘component certification’? The letters used to indicate the different EPL levels of explosion protected equipment are? i xy&z ii ab&c; iii uvaw, iv A,B&C. Apparatus marked [EEx ia] is permissible in which one of the following areas? i Zone 0; ii Zone 1; iii Zone 2; iv Safe area 9 The purpose of EU Directives such as ATEX 95 is to? i Enable equipment to be produced more cheaply; ii Make EU border controls more secure; 0 iii Enable EU nations develop their own standards; iv _ Improve trade between EU nations through alignment of technical and legal requirements. Which of the following EPL’s marked én explosion protected equipment may be used in Zone 0? i Ga, Gb & Ge; ii Ge only; iii Ga only; @ iv Gbonly The recommendations for the installation of electrical systems in hazardous areas are provided by which one of the following standards? i BS EN60079-20; ii 8S EN60079-17; iii BS EN60079-19; iv BS EN60079-14. 2 NY7) 8) 9) Chay age ete pager! 10) 41) 12) 13) The international abbreviation which is the equivalent of the ATEX Categories is? EPL; 0® ii IEC; ii. API; iv UPS The requirement for equipment marked with an EPL Ga would be satisfied by which one of the following protection types? i Exib; ii Exia, Q iii Exe iv Exd Ifazone 1 area on an area classification diagram is marked as requiring EPL ‘Ga’ equipment by a risk assessment, this is due to: i The EPL is wrongly specified on the diagram: ii Ahigher than normal risk of ignition iii A lower than normal risk of ignition iv The consequences of ignition are higher than normal ® EPL is the abbreviation for: i Explosion protection level ii Enclosure protection level; iii Equipment protection level; ® iv Equipment protection limit. ‘The recommendations for the inspection of electrical systems in hazardous areas are given in which one of the following standards? BS EN50017; BS EN60079-17; Q BS EN50014; iv BS EN60079-14. ‘Which one of the following statements indicates equipment suitable for use in flammable gases of surface industries, ie. above ground i Group Il and Cats M1 & M2; ii Group | and Cats M1 & M2; iii Group Il and Cats 1, 2 & 3; 8 iv Group | and Cats 1, 2&3 If not marked on the certification label, it can be assumed that the ambient rating of apparatus for use in the UK is: i 0°Cto +45°C fi -10°Cto +50°C 9 iii -20°C to +40°C iv 0°Cto +35°C Sail14) 15) 16) 17) 18) 19) 20) Which one of the following EPL’s (Cats) is typically for use in Zone 2, unless otherwise indicated on the Area Classification diagram? i De (Cat 3D); Gb (Cat 2G); Ga (Cat 1G); Ge (Cat 36) e Compliance with the ATEX Product (Equipment) Directive is indicated by which one of the following? i IEC embossed within a hexagon symbol; ‘The CE mark; Q iii _FLP embossed within a crown symbol; iv Exembossed within a hexagon symbol. ‘An item of equipment having component certification and marked with a suffix typically which one of the following? iA fiameproof push-button switch; iA flameproof motor starter; iii, An electromagnetic relay; 4 9 iv fluorescent light fitting. Equipment for use in hydrogen where the EPL / Cat requirement is Gc / Cat 3 will be marked with which one of the following: i Exe IIB 14; Q @ Exn il T4; Exd IB T5; Ox iv exd WATS Asa result of a risk assessment, the use of EPL ‘Gc’ (Cat 3G) equipment has been designated for zone 1 in an area classification diagram. This is because: ‘The EPL is wrongly specified on the diagram; ‘There is a lower than normal risk of ignition; iii The consequences of ignition are higher than normal; Q iv The consequences of ignition are lower than normal. The ‘x’ at the end of a certification number, ie. EX848123X, indicates: i The equipment is unsuitable for outdoor use; ii The equipment is not resistant to impact; Q ili Special installation conditions apply; 9 iv The equipment can only be installed in a safe area. Which one of the following statements is true regarding comparison of the selection and installation standard versions 1EC60079-14 and BS EN60079-14? i BS EN60079-14 is more up-to-date the IEC60079-14; ii They are identical apart from some annexes; 9 iii There is no correlation between the two standards; iv They are identical.21) 22) 23) 24) 25) 26) Which one of the following represents how equipment will be marked to indicate an ambient rating higher than normal? i Exd IIB TS Ta +60°C - ii Exd IB T3 T60; 0 iii Exd IIB TS 60°C; iv Exd IIB TS 40°C amb. Category 2 equipment may be installed in? i Zone 2 & Zone 22 only; ii Zone 20, Zone 21 & Zone 22 only; 9 iii Zone 1 & Zone 21 and less arduous duties ; iv Zone 0 & Zone 20 and less arduous duties. Equipment where the certification label is marked Il, i.e. Ex e II T6, can be used in which one of the following? Can be used in all Group II gases and vapours; 9 ji Can only be used in Group IIA gases & vapout iii Can only be used in Groups IIA & IIB gases and vapours; iv Not suitable for use in an hazardous area Ex nis suitable for use in? i Anarea requiring EPL Gb (Cat 2G) equipment; ii Only an area requiring EPL Gc (Cat 3G) equipment; v iii Only areas requiring EPL Gb (Cats 2G) equipment; @ ¥ iv Areas requiring EPL’s Gb & Gc (Cats 2G & 3G) equipment. Which one of the following represents equipment suitable for use in an area requiring EPL Gb (Cat 2)? i EExp; q ii EExu; iii EExy iv EExn Equipment marked EEx ib IIC TS can be used in? i Inanarea requiring EPL Gc (Cat 3G) and in IIB gases only; ii Inany zone and in IIA & IIB gases only; iii In any zone and any gas sub-division; iv Inareas requiring EPL's Gb & Gc (Cats 2G & 3G) and in gas sub-divisions HA, 1IB or IIC y MI1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 8) 7) MCQ: Unit 3 — Flameproof Ex d Cable glands entering flameproof enclosures are required to achieve a minimum number of threads engagement. The minimum requirement is? i Eight full threads; ii Ten full threads; iii Three full threads; iv Five full threads. @ Which one of the following may be applied in the gap of a flameproof flanged joint to improve the IP rating? i Thermosetting sealant; Non setting grease; @ Non-hardening grease bearing textile tape; iv Any oil based paint. Pressure piling in a flameproof enclosure is caused by? i Over-current protection set too high; ji Exceeding the equipment rated voltage; iii Excessive tightening of cover bolts; 9 iv Alteration of the internal component layout. Maximum gaps and minimum widths are specified for the joints of flameproof enclosures in order to? i To cool the hot gases / products of an internal explosion; 0 ii To improve the mechanical strength of the enclosure; iii To allow a gasket to be fitted; iv To relieve the pressure of an internal explosion When an enclosure is termed ‘flameproof it indicates that? i An explosion will not dislodge it from its fixings; ii twill not burn; iii It will operate continuously in a fire; 9 iv Gas around the enclosure will not be ignited by an internal explosion, ‘A function (live) test on a flameproof enclosure after some internal adjustments requires which one of the following as a minimum requirement? i Fit only the corner bolts and apply a ‘Danger Live’ notice; ii All bolts to be replaced - spanner tight — and flamepath gaps checked; iii Only one bolt fitted to support the cover and a ‘Danger Live’ notice; iv Leave cover off, apply a ‘Danger Live’ notice and make sure inadvertent contact with live parts is avoided. @ 0 One of the design features of flameproof enclosures is? i Electric field strength; ii A gas detector and alarm arrangement; q iii Flanged and/or spigot joints; iv An IP67 ingress protection level. A NI _| [a8) 9) 10) 11) 12) Obstruction of the flamepath openings of the flanged joints of Ex d enclosures by solid obstructions requires minimum clearances depending on the equipment group. For a lIC enclosure this not less than? i 30mm; ii 40mm; @ iii = 10mm; iv 50mm @ The minimum requirement for tightening the cover bolts of a flameproof enclosure to ensure its safe operation is? i Allover bolts fitted but only alternate bolts need be spanner tight; ii Some bolts missing (up to 20%) and the rest spanner tight; 9 iii All cover bolts fitted and spanner tight; iv _Allcover bolts fitted and tightened by torque wrench in excess of 60kgfm. Fitting new (metric thread) cable glands to older flameproof equipment, with imperial thread forms at cable gland entries, may be achieved by? g Re-tapping the entries using a metric tap the same size as the gland; Using an Exd adaptor with appropriate thread forms; Fitting threaded inserts after drilling; iv _ Fitting the metric gland as far as possible with the aim of achieving five-full threads engagement. Cable glands for entry to flameproof enclosures are required to have a minimum number of threads engaged and thread depth, the purpose being to? i Prevent flammable gases entering the enclosure; ii Preserve the strength of the enclosure; ili Preserve the enclosure IP rating; iv Prevent the effects of an internal ignition transmitting to and igniting an external flammable gas. Pressure piling in a flameproof enclosure may be described as? i Metal fatigue due to excessive stresses; ji Operation of a vent due to gas pressure; iii Piles for supporting heavy equipment; iv _ Ignition in one section of an enclosure causing a stronger secondary) explosion in another connected section. 13) Newly installed Ex d equipment may installed in which one of the following? i Areas needing EPL Ge ( Cat 3G ) equipment; ii Areas needing EPL Gb and Gc ( Cats 2G & 3G ) equipment; ® iii Areas needing EPL Ga (Cat 1G ) equipment; iv Only areas needing EPL Gb ( Cat 2G ) equipment. Q14) A flameproof enclosure is marked gas group IIB. With consideration of the EPL 15) (Category), in which areas may it be installed? (i) Areas requiring either EPL’'s Gb or Ge (Cats 2 or 3) gas group IIB only; i) Any hazardous area; (ii) Areas requiring either EPL’s Gb or Ge (Cats 2 or 3) gas group IIA or IIB: @ (iv) Areas requiring either EPL's Gb or Gc (Cats 2 or 3) gas group IIB or IIC. Flameproof Ex d equipment may be used in which one of the following areas? (i) Ga (Cat 1G) areas only; (ii) Ge (Cat 3G) areas only; (ii) Gb or Ge (Cat 2G or 36) areas: 8 (iv) Ga, Gb or Ge (Cat 1G, 2G or 3G) areas. LT]1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) MCQ: Unit 6 - Pressurisation Ex p For an area requiring EPL Ge (Cat 3) equipment, which one of the following options may be used if the pressurised enclosure contains an ignition source? i No protection required i Expy: Expx: Q iv Ex px or Ex pz. Where a pressurised enclosure contains no ignition source, which one of the following will suit an area requiring EPL Gb (Cat 2) equipment? i Expy; ii No protection required; @ ii Expx, iv ExpxorExpz. Where a pressurised enclosure contains no ignition source, which one of the following will suit an area requiring EPL Ge (Cat 3) equipment? i Expy; ji No protection required; ii Expx: iv Expx or Ex pz. Levels of protection for pressurised enclosures are? i Expt, Ex p2 & Ex p3; @ ii Ex px, Ex py & Ex pz; ili, ExpG &ExpD; iv Expa, Ex pb or Ex pe Which one of the following statements represents the type of protection Ex p: i The internal pressure has to be greater than 0.5 Bar, ii The air used for pressurisation shall be taken from a specified non-hazardous area; ili Pressurisation of the enclosure is intended to contain explosive gases; iv Switching on is only permitted after the enclosure has been pressurised for at least 15 minutes. The interior of a pressurised control room - in a location requiring EPL Ge (Cat 3) - is ‘safe’ provided the pressurisation is maintained and there are no gases released internally. What action is required if the pressurisation fails and the internal equipment does not meet EPL Ge (Cat 3) requirements? i Alarm sounds and all flameproof equipment must be isolated; ii On operation of alarm, automatic disconnection of all equipment; iii No action; iv On operation of alarm, immediate action taken to restore pressurisation.7) Ex p equipment is permitted in which one of the following areas? (i) Anarea needing EPL Gc (Cat 3G) only; (ii) An area needing EPL Ga (Cat 1G) only; (ii) An area needing EPL Gb (Cat 2G) only; (iv) An area needing EPL’s Gb or Gc (Cats 2G or 3G) only. &db 2) 3) 4) 3) 9) MCQ: Unit 07 — Intrinsic Safety ‘Which one of the following locations may Ex ib equipment be used? i) EPL Ge (Cat 3G) only; 0 ii) EPL’s Gb & Ge (Cat’s 2G & 3G); (iii) EPL Ga (Cat 1G); (iv) EPL's Ga, Gb & Ge (Cat’s 1G, 26 & 3G); The comparison between Ex nl and Ex ic is correctly stated by which one of the following statements? i) Both may be used in zones 0, 1, and 2; % ii) Both may be used in zone 2 only; (iii) Ex nl may be used in zones 0, | & 2 and Ex nl. in zone 2 only; (iv)_Ex ic can be installed in zones 0, 1 & 2 but Ex nb in zone 2 only. ‘The maximum resistance of the cables connecting a zener barrier earth bar and the main earth should not exceed? 19; 0 109; iMQ; 10022, Which one of the following colours is recommended for the identification of IS cables? White; Yellow; ® Light blue; (iv) Red one calle ‘The minimum cross-sectional area of a single IS earth conductor is? (i) 6.0mm? ii) 16.0 mm? ii) 1.5mm? ® (iv) 4.0mm? ‘The equipment in the hazardous area which may be connected to the output of a zener barrier is which one of the following? (i) Equipment specified in the documentation and simple apparatus; (ii) The apparatus specified in the documentation only; (iii) Any equipment; (iv) Any IS certified equipment and simple apparatus. [KU N8) %» 10) 1) Which one of the following statements indicates the correct requirements for an installation comprising both IS and non-IS circuits? IS and non-IS cables may be installed side-by-side; IS and non-IS cables must be run on sparate cable trays Non-IS cables must always be screened, armoured or metal sheathed; (iv) Either the IS or non-IS cables need only be armoured, screened or metal sheathed. 9 ‘The minimum clearance between different adjacent IS circuits is? (i) 50mm Gi) 3mm © Gi) Smm. (iv) 6mm ‘The maximum permitted supply voltage (Um) at the non-IS terminals of an IS installation is? (i) 250v; Gi) 28V; @ (iii) As specified in the documentation; (iv) 1I5V. ‘An appropriate workshop test for a faulty zener barrier with a possible blown fuse would be? i) Disconnect output and measure voltage; (ii) Check the incoming supply voltage after suitable safety precautions have been applied; (iii) Place barrier in a test rack and measure the current; (iv) Disconnect and measure the resistance between the barrier input and output terminals. @ From the following statements, which one has equipment that does not require a dedicated IS earth Barrier used in circuit installed in group TIC gases; Zener barrier with output connected in hazardous area; 24V zener barrier; Galvanic isolation barrier. a 812) 13) 14) 15) 16) 17) What does the marking, [Ex ib] IIC, on an item of IS equipment indicate? (i) _Itis intrinsically safe and for use with IIC gases ii) _Itis intrinsically safe and can be installed anywhere; Gii)_It may only be installed in a non-hazardous area; @ (iv) It is equipment associated with IS circuits. ‘The minimum clearance between IS terminals and earth is? (i) 30mm. Gi) 50mm @ a Gi) 3mm (iv) 6mm © ‘The screen of a cable in an IS circuit must be connected to? (4) The main earth conductor: Q Gi) The point indicated on the loop (hook up) diagram; (iii) Earth at both ends; (iv) Earth at one end only. Equipment marked Ex d [ia] indicates that? (i) The flameproof enclosure is deemed ‘simple apparatus’ in an ‘ia’ circuit (ii) The flameproof enclosure contains associated IS @) equipment; (ii) ‘The components inside are all intrinsically safe; (iv) Electrical items other than IS items are inside IS cables with screens will have sheathing capable of withstanding which one of the following test voltages? 500Vac and 750Vde 500Vac or 750Vde @ 1000V; Double the working voltage. Power supply modules for an Ex ia circuit are to be located in an area requiring EPL Ge (Cat 3G) equipment. In which one of the following enclosures may the modules be fitted? (i) Ex g Gil) Exp; — only memop with Prorznes peanse Gi) Exe; — Sates — (iv) Exn,— .18) 19) 20) 21) 2) Which one of the following statements represent what must be considered when. selecting cables for an IS circuit ‘The cable inductance and capacitance may be ignored; Only the cable inductance is applicable; ‘The cable inductance and capacitance is applicable © Only the cable capacitance is applicable. 4 Which one of the following components may be considered simple apparatus for use in an IS Ceircuit? (4) 0.1kW motor; Gi) anLED; © (iii) a 9V battery; (iv) an electronic relay. ‘The purpose of a zener barrier in an IS circuit is to? ( 1) permit the use of any certified equipment in the hazardous ar control capacitance and inductance levels in the hazardous area; permit the use of both simple and certified apparatus in the hazardous area; (iv) limit the level of energy that may pass into the @ hazardous area equipment. Equipment with an IS output is installed in a flameproof enclosure. the following cable glands should be used for the IS output? A standard industrial cable gland: AnExe cable gland; Flameproof Ex d cable gland; 9 AnExi cable gland. A test instrument for use on an IS circuit must be? ® (i) Approved for use on the IS circuit; Ci) Used only via a protective zener barrier: ii) Intrinsically safe; (iv) Fitted with a battery having an output lower than 3V. S 4 Which one of /23) 24) 25) 26) oy) 28) An IS circuit has both Ex ia and Ex ib equipment installed in its loop, therefore, the loop will be deemed: (i) An Ex ia loop; Gii) An approved loop: iii) A non-certified loop; @ (iv) An Ex ib loop. A When IS and non-IS terminals are fitted in the same enclosure the minimum clearance between the live-parts of the two terminal types is required to be? (i) 50mm; Q a Gi) 40mm: Gil) 6mm; (iv) 3mm, An IS bartier is required to maintain safety even under fault conditions. On handover of an installation, the permitted number of faults is? (i) one fault only; two faults: (iii) three faults; 2 a Gv) no faults. The approach for installing Ex nL is? i) It cannot be used in an intrinsically safe ‘ic’ circuil Cii) it may be used in an intrinsically safe ‘ic’ circuit i) Gi) _ it can be used in any intrinsically safe circuit; (iv) it must be replaced with Ex ic equipment An insulation test on an IS system is only required? (i) Ona sample of circuits periodically; 8 S ii) On all circuits every 10 years: Gii) On all circuits in zone 0; (iv) Periodically. Compared to other methods of protection, IS systems have a higher level of documentation because? (4) Itisa low current method of protection; ii) The cable details need to be known; @ (iii) Intrinsic safety is a system concept; (iv) It is usually associated with instrument systems.1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) MCQ: Unit 10 - Wiring systems The minimum cross-sectional area for aluminium conductors of cables (except IS cables) used in hazardous areas should not be less than? (i) 25mm; ® (ii) 16mm ; (ii) 10mm; h (iv) 6mm The installation of equipment in hazardous locations essentially requires an understanding of which one of the following? (i) Combustion engine operation; (ii) Preparation of area classification diagrams; re (ii) Protection types; 8 (iv) Process instrumentation Separation of the strands of cable cores may be prevented by? (i) Soldering or fitting core lugs; (ii) Twisting the strands; 8 (ii) Fitting cable lugs or core-end sleeves; (iv) Soldering the strands A cable gland marked with a suffix ‘x’ may only be used with? (i) Portable equipment with additional clamping of the cable; (ii) Fixed equipment with additional clamping of the cable; (ii) An enclosure also marked with a suffix X’; (iv) Fixed equipment. Which one of the following statements, given in BS EN60079-14, represents the knowledge and skills required by technicians for the selection and erection of equipment? (1) Quality assurance; (ii) Detailed knowledge of the relevant techniques; (iii) Familiarity with the relevant techniques; (iv) Detailed knowledge of the principles employed. Cables for non-intrinsically fixed equipment are required to be thermostatic, thermosetting or elastomeric provided they are? (i) Circular, compact, have extruded bedding and filers (ii) Flat, compact, with extruded bedding and filers; (i) Circular, compact, with extruded bedding & fillers are non-conductive (iv) Circular, compact, have extruded bedding, and fillers, if any, are non- hygroscopic. @