Physics Questions For SSC CGL Exam

1. Which of the following methods is/are suitable for soil conservation in hilly region?

1. Terracing and contour bunding

2. Shifting cultivation

3. Contour ploughing

Select the correct answer using the code give below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. National Biodiversity Authority is located at

(a) Puducherry

(b) Mangalore

(c) Hyderabad

(d) Chennai

3. The rapidly growing mass of phytoplankton covering the surface water of lake or pond
is known as:

(a) Water pollution

(b) Water hyacinth

(c) Eutrophication

(d) Water bloom

4. Biodiversity is richer in:

(a) tropical regions

(b) polar regions

(c) temperate regions

(d) oceans

5. Which of the gas is not known as greenhouse gas?

(a) Methene

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Nitrous oxide

(d) Hydrogen

6. Transboundary pollution (or) Acid rain is caused by:

(a) nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide

(b) Carborn monoxide

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Hydrocarbon

7. Acceptable “Noise Pollution Level” in India range between:

(a) 10 – 15 dec

(b) 16 – 35 dec

(c) 40 – 45 dec

(d) 70 – 100 dec

8. Endosulfan spray on cashew crop resulted in the pollution to the tune of tragedy in:

(a) Tamil Nadu

(B) Keral

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Karnataka

9. Which of the following series is true about energy flow in an ecosystem?

(a) Prodcucers → Decomposeers → Consumers.

(b) Decomposers → Consumers → Producers.

(c) Prodcucers → Consumers → Decomposeers.

(d) Consumers → Prodcucers → Decomposeers.

10. Chlorofluro carbons are widely used in:

(a) Micro overns

(b) Solar heaters

(c) Washing machines

(d) Refrigerators

11. In which Eco-system Grassland is included?

(a) marine

(b) Fresh Water

(c) Terrestrial
(d) Artificial

12. The main pollutant responsible for Bhopal Gas Tragedy is:

(a) Methyl isocyanate

(b) Bromine

(c) Chlorofluro carbon

(d) Chlorine

13. An organism which can monitor air pollution is:

(a) Alage

(b) Fungi

(c) Bacteria

(d) Lichen

14. Which among the following is symbiosis Nitrogern – fixing bacteria?

(a) Pseudomoria

(b) Rhizobium

(c) Azotobacter

(d) Xanthomonas

15. The concentration of pollutants in atmosphere is generally expressed in:

(a) Parst per billion

(b) Kilogram per square metre

(c) Parts per trillion

(d) Parst per million

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam 2020 Solved Question

Papers PDF Download
16. Which one among the following rroups is the most abundant in terms of number os
species identified?

(a) Fundgi

(b) Green plants

(c) Bacteria

(d) Insects

17. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts
of India?
1. Arsenic

2. Sorbital

3. Dluoride

4. Formaldehyde

5. Uranium

Select the correct answer usning fthe codes given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

18. Due to improper /indiscrimate disposal of old and used computers or their parts,
which of the following are released into the environment as e- waste?

1. Beryllim

2. Cadmium

3. Chromium

4. Heptachlor

5. Mercury

6. Lead

7. Plutonium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only

(b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 6 and 7

19. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by
an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organism?

(a) Ecotone

(b) Ecological niche

(c) Habitat

(d) Home range

20. The depletion of Ozone layer is mainly due to-

(a) Radioactive rays

(b) Chloroflurocarbons

(c) Volcanic Eruptions

(d) Aviation fuels

21. The chipko Movement

1. was an environmental movement to prevent cutting down of trees

2. Raised the questions of ecological and economic exploitation

3. Is a movement against alcoholism as its bradened agenda?

4. Demanded that local communities should have control over their natural resources

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

22. Which of the following factors can decrease biological oxygen demand (BOD) of any
freshwater ecosystem?

(a) Large amount of sewage

(b) Lrage biomass accumulation and decomposition

(c) Increased organic matter pollution

(d) Low temperature and low plant biomass accumulation

23. Industrial and technological advancement has brought about a rapid exploration of
forest resources. Which one among the following is not the impact of above
phenomenon?

(a) Declining wild life

(b) Increase in ground water level

(c) Declining biodiversity

(d) Increasing surface water flow

24. Which one among the following is responsible for formation of ‘Ozone Holes’ in the
stratosphere?

(a) Benzophye

(b) Hydrocarbons

(c) Chlorofluorocarbons
(d) UV radiation

25. What type of mixture is smoke?

(a) Solid mixed with a gas

(b) Gas mixed with a gas

(c) Liquid mixed with a gas

(d) Gas mixed with a liquid and solid

26. Which one among the following is not responsible for ‘green house effect’?

(a) Water

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Nitrogen

(d) Chlorofluorocarbons

27. Air pollution by “Fly ash” is caused by:

(a) Hydro-electric Power Stations

(b) Power generation through wind – farms

(c) Coal combustion in Thermal Power Plants

(d) Nuclear Power Plants

28. The ‘super bug’ used in controlling oil pollution is:

(a) An algal starin

(b) A fungal strain

(c) A bacterial strain

(d) A water flea

29. The natural disaster in which carbondi-oxide suddently erupts from adeep lake water
is known as ………

(a) Liminic

(b) Lacaustrin

(c) Fluvial

(d) Glacial

30. Which one of the following is the most stable ecosystem?

(a) Mountain

(b) Ocean

(c) Forest
(d) Desert

31. A population that is growing exponentially in the absence of limiting factors can be
illustrated by a (n)…..

(a) S-shaped curve

(b) J- shaped curve

(c) Curve that terminated in a plateau phase

(d) Tolerance curve

32. A one – way relationship where one species benefits at the expense of another is
called _____.

(a) Commensalism

(b) Competative exclusion

(c) Parasitism

(d) An obligatory relationship

33. A symbiotic relationship in which both species benefit is best described as _______.

(a) Commensalism

(b) Competative exclusion

(c) Parasitism

(d) An obligatory relationship

34. Which of the following is a primary consumer?

(a) Cow

(b) Dog

(c) Hawk

(d) Bear

35. The “greenhouse effect” refers to:

(a) Increasing agricultural yields

(b) Gradual warming of the earth’s surface

(c) Build-up of toxic airborne pollutants

(d) Reduction in the earth’s ozone layer

36. Bacteria and fungi act as ____ within an ecosystem.

(a) Primary producers

(b) Primary consumers

(c) Secondary consumers

(d) Decomposers

37. What is the term for the maximum number of individuals that an area can support
indefinitely?

(a) Biotic potential

(b) Carrying capacity

(c) Niche

(d) Maximum density

38. All of the organisms living in a particular area make up _____.

(a) A food chain

(b) A population

(c) A biological community

(d) A biosphere

39. Project Tiger, a programme to maintain a viable population of tigers in the country and
to chalk out areas for their habitat, was launched in the year

(a) 1775

(b) 1973

(c) 1974

(d) 1971

40. SPM stands for

(a) Suspended Particular Matter

(b) Standard Particles Material

(c) Suspended Particles Material

(d) None of the above

41. The massive hole in the ozne layer over the Antharctica was first discovered in

(a) 1976

(b) 1985

(c) 1960

(d) None of these

42. India would phase out the production and consumption of the controlled ODS (ozone –
depleting substances) withing the time frame and limits specified in the
(a) Vienna convention

(b) Basel Convention

(c) Montreal Protocol

(d) Agenda 21

43. This strain of rice was one of the first High Yielding Varieties of seeds developed in
the world. Name it

(a) IR-8

(b) IS- 7

(c) RS – 8

(d) RV – 9

44. What is the primary source of food for marine life?

(a) Phytoplankton

(b) Zooplankton

(c) Sea weed

(d) Grass

45. Earth Summit was held in –

(a) Chicago

(b) Adilaide

(c) Rio de Jenerio

(d) London

46. Which of the following is biodegradable?

(a) Paper

(b) D.D.T.

(c) Aluminium

(d) Plastic

47. The largest ecosystem of the Earth is-

(a) Biosphere

(b) Hydrosphere

(c) Lithosphere

(d) Biome

48. An artificial ecosystem is represented by-

(a) Pisciculture tank

(b) Agriculture land

(c) Aquarium

(d) Zoo

49. Global warming is expected to result in-

(a) Increase in level of sea

(b) Change in crop pattern

(c) Change in coastline

(d) Each of the above

50. The sun is a

(a) Producer of water

(b) Secondary source of energy

(c) Primary producer of energy

(d) Teritiary Producer of energy

Q1. Why metals are good conductors of electricity?

(a) They contain free electrons
(b) The atoms are lightly packed
(c) They have high melting point
(d) All of the above
Ans.(a)

Q2. Pa (Pascal) is the unit of which of the following?

(a) Thrust
(b) Pressure
(c) Frequency
(d) Conductivity
Ans.(b)

Q3. On a clean glass plate a drop of water spreads to form a thin layer whereas a drop of mercury
remains almost spherical because—
(a) Mercury is a metal
(b) The density of mercury is greater than that of water
(c) The cohesion of mercury is greater than its adhesion with glass
(d) The cohesion of water is greater than its adhesion with glass
Ans.(c)

Q4. When a liquid is at its boiling point, no temperature change takes place due to heating. The
energy supplied due to heating—
(a) Is used up to increase the potential energy of the liquid molecules
(b) Is used up to increase the kinetic energy of the molecules
(c) Is used up to increase the kinetic energy and potential energy of the molecules
(d) Is wasted
Ans.(a)

Q5. A copper plate has a circular hole cut in it. If the plate is heated to a higher temperature, the
diameter of the hole—
(a) Become smaller
(b) Increases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Increases but the total area of the plate remains constant
Ans.(b)

Q6. The fundamental characteristic of all waves are—

(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Velocity
(d) All of the above
Ans.(d)

Q7. Of the following properties of a wave, the one that is independent of the other is its—
(a) Amplitude
(b) Velocity
(c) Wavelength
(d) Frequency
Ans.(a)

Q8. A man standing at the finish line is recording the time of a race competition by means of a stop
watch. He must start the watch when—
(a) He hears the sound of the starting gun
(b) He sees flash of light coming from the starting gun
(c) He sees first man leaving the starting line
(d) He either sees the flash or hears the sound
Ans.(b)

Q9. The crystal of diamond shines due to—

(a) High density
(b) Total internal reflection
(c) Crystal lattice
(d) None of these
Ans.(b)

Q10. The refractive index of the material of a glass prism depends upon—
(a) The angle of the prism
(b) The intensity of the incident light ray
(c) The colour of the incident light ray
(d) Size of the prism
Ans.(c)

Q11. A man wearing spectacles, when working with a microscope—

(a) Cannot see anything through the microscope
(b) Should keep on wearing spectacles
(c) Should take off his spectacles
(d) May work with or without spectacles
Ans.(c)

Q12. The spread in colours in a rainbow on sky is primarily due to

(a) dispersion of sunlight
(b) reflection of sunlight
(c) refraction of sunlight
(d) total internal reflection of sunlight
Ans.(a)

Q13. Ability of the eye to see objects at all distances is called—

(a) Binocular vision
(b) Myopia
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) Accommodation
Ans.(d)

Q14. Mach number is used in connection with the speed of—

(a) Sound
(b) Aircraft
(c) Spacecraft
(d) Ships
Ans.(b)

Q15. Sound of frequency below 20 Hz are called—

(a) Audio sounds
(b) Infrasonics
(c) Ultrasonics
(d) Supersonics
Ans.(b)