Sample Certification (Self-Assessment) Examination Directions: Each question isfllowed by four answers, labeled A through D, Choose the best answer and write the corresponding leer inthe space to the lft ofthe question number. An answer key is provided on che page following the examination Use the key to score your exam; a score below 70% correct on any section indicates the need for further study. Chemistry ll a In absorption spectrophotometry: [A Absotbance is directly proportional ro B, Percent transmittance is directly proportional o concentration . Percent cransmittance is ditecty proportional co the light pathlength D. Absorbance is direely proportional to concentration . Which type of filter is best for measuring stray light? A Wratten B. Didymium ©. Sharp cutoff D. Neutral density A plasma sample is hemolyzed and turbid, ‘What is required to perform a sample blank in order to correct the measurement for the intrinsic absorbance of the sample when performing a spectrophotomettic assay? [A Substitute deionized water for the sample 8. Diluce the sample 1:2 with a standard of known concentration . Substitute saline for the reagent D. Use a larger volume of the sample |. The response of a sodium electrode toa 10-fold increase in sodium concentration should be: A.A 10-fold drop in potential B. An increase in potential of approximaté 60 mV . An increase in potential of approximately 10mV D.A decrease in potential of approximately 10 mV 551552 Chapter 11 | Sample Centifcation (Self Assesment) Examination 5, In gas chromatography, the elution order of, volatiles is usually based upon the: A. Boiling point B. Molecular size C. Carbon content D. Polarity 6. A patient's blood gas results are as follow: pi=726 aco, 2Ommo/L HCO,” = 29 mmol/L “These results would be classified as: A. Mexabolic acidosis B. Mecabolic alkalosis ©. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis 7. Which condition results in metabolic acidosis with severe hypokalemia and chronic alkaline urine? A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Phenformin-induced acidosis ©. Renal tubular acidosis D. Acidosis caused by starvation 8. Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap? A. Diarthea B. Hypoaldosteronism © Hyperkalemia D. Renal failure 9. Which of the following tests is consistently abnormal in osteoporosis? A. High urinary calcium B. High serum Py ©. Low serum calcium D. High urine or serum N-telopeptide of type [collagen |. SITUATION: An EDTA sample for Tal assay gives a result of 0.04 ng/mL. (reference range 0-0.03 ng/ml.) ‘Ihe test is repeated 3 hours later on a new specimen and the result is 0.06 ng/mL. A third sample collected 6 hours later gives a result of 0.07 ng/mL. “The EKG showed no evidence of ST segment elevation (STEMI). What is the most likely explanation? A.A false-positive result occurred due to matrix interference B. Heparin should have been used instead of EDTA, which causes false positives . The patient has suffered cardiac injury D. The patient has had an ischemic episode without cardiac injury —1. 15. 16. 7. Which electrolyte level best correlates with plasma osmolality? A. Sodium 8. Chloride ©. Bicarbonate D. Calcium . According to American Diabetes Association criteria, which result is consistent with a diagnosis of impaired fasting glucose? A. 99 mg/dl B. 117 mg/dL €. 126 mg/dL D135 mg/dl. . Which enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin? A. B-Glucuronidase 8. UDP-glucuronyl transferase ©. Bilirubin oxidase D. Biliverdin reductase . Which of the following conditions is cause for rejecting an analytical run? ‘A. Two consecutive controls greater than 2 sabove or below the mean 8. Three consecutive controls greater than 1 sabove the mean €. Four conteols steadily increasing in value but less than #1 sfrom the mean D. One control above +1 s and the other below -1 5 from the mean In the ultraviolet enzymatic method for BUN, the urease reaction is coupled to a second enzymatic reaction using: A. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) B. Glutamate dehydrogenase ©. Glutamine synthetase D. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) In the OliverRosalki method, the reverse reaction is used to measure creatine kinase activity. The enzyme(s) used in the coupling A. Hexokinase and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase 8. Pyruvate kinase and lactate dehydrogenase ©. Luciferase D. Adenylate kinase In familial f dyslipoproteinemia (formerly ‘Type III hyperlipoproteinemia), which lipoprotein accumulates? ‘A. Chylomicrons 8. VLDL IDL D. VLDLChapter 11 | Sample Certification (Self Asesment) Examination 553 Hematology 18. A manual white blood cell (WBC) count was, 19. performed, A total of 36 cells were counted in all 9-mm? squares of a Neubauer-ruled hemaeytometer. A 1:10 dilution was used. ‘What is the WBC count? A.0.4 x 10%L B25 x 10% €.40x 10% D.8.0« 10% ‘Which ratio of anticoagulant to blood is correct for coagulation procedures? Ald B.S cg) D.1:10 . Given the following values, which set of red blood cell indices suggests spherocytosis? AMCV MCH MCHC Toums 19.9 pg 28.5% 8. MCV MCH MCHC 90 ums 30.5 pg. 32.5% © MCV MCH MCHC 365 pg 39.0% MCH MCHC 29.0 pg 34.8% |. Congenital dyserythropoictic anemias (CDAs) are characterized by: A. Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts B. Cytogenetic disorders . Megaloblastic erythropoiesis D. An clevated ME ratio . Which anemia has red cell mosphology similar to that seen in iron deficiency anemia? AA Sickle cell anemia B. ‘Thalassemia syndrome . Pernicious anemia D. Hereditary spherocytosis . A.50-year-old patient is sufering from pernicious anemia. Which of the following laboratory data are most likely for this patient A.RBC © 2.5 x 1014/L; WBC = 12,500/uL. (12.5 x 10%L); PLT = 250,000/uL. (250 x 10°/L) B. RBC = 4.5 x 10°/L; WBC = 6,500/L (6.5 x 10°/L); PLT = 150,000/uL, (150 x 10/1) ©. RBC = 3.0 x 102/L; WBC = 5,000/HL (5.0 x 10°/L); PLT = 750,000/ (750 x 10°/1) D. RBC = 2.5 x 1022/1; WBC = 2,500/jL. (2.5 x 10°/1); PLT = 50,000/u (50 x 10%L) 24, 25. 26. 27. Neutrophil phagocytosis and particle ingestion are associated with an increase in oxygen utilization referred to as respiratory burst, What are the two most important products of this biochemical reaction? A. Hydrogen peroxide and superoxide 8, Lactofeitin and NADPH oxidase ©. Gyrochtome b and collagenase D. Alkaline phosphatase and ascorbic acid Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia? A. Acuce myeloid leukemia without B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia ©. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia D. Acute monocytic leukemia What would be the most likely designation by the WHO for the FAB AML M2 by the French~American—British classification? A. AML with (15:17) B. AML wich mixed lineage ©. AML with (8:21) D. AML with inv(16) A patient's peripheral blood smear and bone marrow both show 70% blasts. ‘These cells are negative for Sudan Black B stain. Given these data, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? ‘A. Acute myeloid leukemia 8. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia ©. Acute promyelocytic leukemia D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia Which of the following is (are) commonly found in CML? ‘A. Many teardrop-shaped cells B. Intense LAP staining ©. A decrease in granulocytes D. An increase in basophils ). SITUATION: A peripheral smear shows 75% blasts. These stain positive for both Sudan Black B (SBB) and peroxidase, Given these values, which of the following disorders is most likely? ‘A. Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML) 8. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) €. Acute undifferentiated lewkemia (AUL) D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)554 Chapter 11 | Sample Certification (Self Assesment) Examination 30. Which of the following is often associated with CML but not with AML? A. Infections B. WBCs geeater than 20.0 x 10°/L ©. Hemorthage D. Splenomegaly |. Review the following CBC results: WBCs= 17.0% 107 MOV = 85.071 RBCS = 352 x 107%. MCH = 284 pg Hgb = 10.0 g/d MCHC = 33.496 Het=299 mLidL 12 NRBCs/100 WACs RBC Morphology: Moderate polychromasia, 3+ target cells, few schistocytes PLT=155 x 10%L ‘Which of the following additional laboratory tests would yield informative diagnostic information for this patien? A, Osmotic fragility B. Hgb electrophoresis . Sugar water test D. Bone marrow examination . Which of the following platelet aggregating agents demonstrates a monophasic aggregation curve when used in optimal concentration? A. Thrombin, B. Collagen . Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) D. Epinephrine Immunology 36. Which cluster of differentiation (CD) marker appears during the first stage of T-cell development and remains present as an identifying marker for T cells? A.CDI B.Cb2 . Which MHC class of molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive ‘Tcells? A. Chass I B. Class Il ©. Chass Il D. No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition —33. 40. Which factor deficiency is associated with a prolonged PT and APT? AX 8. VIII cx D.XI . Which of the following is an appropriate screening test for the diagnosis of lupus anticoagulant? A. Thrombin time test B. Diluted Russells viper venom test (RVVT) ©. Dedimer eest D. FDP test, . Factor V Leiden promotes thrombosis by preventing: A. Deactivation of factor Va B. Activation of factor V ©. Activation of protein D. Activation of protein S ‘What has happened in a tite, if tube Nos. 5-7 show a stronger reaction than tube Nos.1-4? A. Prozone reaction 8. Postzone reaction ©. Equivalence reaction D. Poor technique . What is the titer in tube No. 8 if tube No. 1 is undiluted and dilutions are doubled? A64 8. 128 ©. 256 D.512, Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV? A. Band at p24 8. Band at gp60 ©. Bands ac p24 and p31 D. Bands at p24 and gp120—22. —43. 4s. Chapter 11 | Sample Certification (Self Asesment) Examination |- Serological tests for which disease may give a false-positive result if the patient has Lyme disease? A. AIDS B. Syphilis €. Cold agglutinins D. Hepatitis C Which of the following methods used for HIV identification is considered a signal amplification technique? A. Branched-chain DNA analysis B. DNAPCR C. Reverse transcriptase PCR D. Nucleic acid sequence-based assay (NASBA) ‘What antibodies are represented by the nucleolar pattern in the immunofluorescence test for antinuclear antibodies? A. Antihistone antibodies B. Anti-dsDNA antibodies . Anti-ENA (anti-Sm and anti-RNP) antibodies D. Anti-RNA antibodies |. Which of the following is used in rapid slide tests for detection of sheumatoid factors? A. Whole IgM molecules B. Fe portion of the IgG molecule C. Fab portion of the IgG molecule D. Fe portion of the IgM molecule A patient deficient in the C3 complement component would be expected to mount a normal: A. Type I and IV hypersensitivity response B. Type Il and IV hypersensitiviy response ype I and III hypersensitivity response ‘ype Il and III hypersensitivity response —46. —a8. —a9. 50. 555 Which disease may be expected to show an IgM spike on an electrophoretic pattern? A. Hypogammaglobulinemia B. Malkicystic kidney disease . Waldenstrim’s macroglobulinemia D. Wiskote~Aldrich syndrome - Interpret the following description of an immunofixation electrophoresis assay of urine. Dense wide bands in both the x and } lanes, No bands present in the heavy chain lanes. A. Normal B. Light chain disease ©. Increased polyclonal Fab fragments D. Multiple myeloma ‘Which of the following serial dilutions contains an incorrect factor? 14, 1:8, 1:16 Bot, 1:2, 14 ©. 1:5, 1215, 1:45 D. 1:2, 1:6, 1:12 A patient with joint swelling and pain tested negative for serum RF by both latex agglutination and ELISA methods. What other test would help establish a diagnosis of RA in this patient? A. Anti CCP antibody 8. ANA testing ©. Flow cytomeuy D. Complement levels Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection? A HBsAg 8. HBeAg ©. Ant-HBe D. Anti-HBs Blood Banking a §8=~S— hr —51. Which genotype(s) will give rise to the Bombay phenotype? A. HH only B. HH and Hh ©. Hh and hh D. hh only, 52. A patient's red cells forward as group O, serum agglutinates B cells (4+) only. Your next step would be: A. Extend reverse typing for 15 minutes 8. Perform an antibody screen including a room temperature incubation Incubate washed red cells with anti-A, and AntiA for 30 minutes at room temperature D. Test patient's red cells with Dolichorbiflorus556 Chapter 11 | Sample Certification (Self Avscesment) Examination 33. A physician orders 2 units of leukocyte reduced red blood cells. The patient is a 55-year-old male with anemia, He types as an AB negative, and his antibody screen is negative, There is only 1 unit of AB negative in inventory. What is the next blood type that should be given? A. AB positive (patient is male) B. Ane; C. B negative D.O negative |. What type of blood should be given an individual who has an anticLe? that reacts, 1+ at the IAT phase? ‘A. Blood that is negative for the Le? antigen B. Blood that is negative for both the Le* and Le antigens €. Blood that is positive for the Le antigen D. Lewis antibodies are noc clinically significant, so any type of blood may be given ;. Which antibody is frequently seen in patients with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia? A AnticTke B. Anti-e ©. Anti-K D. Anti-Fy> . Which procedure would help to distinguish between an anti-e and anti-Fy* in an antibody mixture? A, Lower pH of test serum B. Run an enzyme panel ©. Use a thiol reagent D. Run a LISS panel A donor was found to contain anti-K using pilot tubes from the collection procedure. How would this affect the compatibility test? ‘A. the AHG major crossmatch would be positive B. The IS (immediate spin) major crossmatch would be positive . The recipient's antibody screen would be positive for anti-K D. Compatibility testing would not be affected . Six units are crossmatched, Five units are compatible, one unit is incompatible, and the recipient's antibody screen is negative. Identify the problem: A. Patient may have an alloantibody to a high-frequency antigen B. Patient may have an abnormal protein ©. Donor unit may have a positive DAT D. Donor may have a high-frequency antigen —_59. —60. si. 62. How long must a recipient sample be kept in the blood bank following compatibility testing? A.3 days B. 5 days 7 days D. 10 days ‘A patient had a transfusion reaction to packed red blood cells. The medical laboratory scientist began the laboratory investigation of the transfusion reaction by assembling pre- and post-transfusion specimens and all paperwork and computer printouts. What should he do next? A Perform a DAT on the post-transfusion sample 8. Check for a clerical error(s) . Repeat ABO and Rh typing of patient and donor unit D. Perform an antibody screen on the post-transfusion sample ‘What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs of TRALL (ransfusion-telated acute lung injury)? ‘A. Red blood cell alloantibody 8. IgA antibody ©. Antileukocyte antibody D. Allergen. Which of the following is acceptable according to ABB standards? A, Rejuvenated RBCs may be made within 3 days of outdate and transfused or frozen within 24 hours of rejuvenation 8. Frozen RBCs must be prepared within 30 minutes of collection and may be used within 10 years . Irradiated RBCs must be treated within 8 hours of collection and transfused within Ghours D. Leukocyte-reduced RBCs must be prepared within 6 hours of collection and transfused within 6 hours of preparation - A unit of packed RBCs is split using the ‘open system. One of the half units is used. What may be done with the second half unit? ‘A. Mast be issued within 24 hours 8. Must be issued within 48 hours ©. Must be irradiated D. Retains the original expiration date—_s4, 67. Chapter 11 | Sample Certification (Self Asesment) Examination ‘What percentage of red cells must be retained in leukocyte-reduced red cells? 4.75% B. 80% ©. 85% D. 100% .. Which of the following individuals is acceptable as a blood donor? A. A 29-year-old man who received the hepatitis B vaccine last week B. A 21-year-old woman who has had her nose pierced last week. ©. A 30-year-old man who lived in Zambia for 3 years and returned last month D. A 54-year-old man who tested positive for hepatitis C last year, but has no active sympcoms of disease |. Which of the following vaccinations carries no deferral period? A. Rubella B. Varicella zoster ©. Recombinant HPV D. Smallpox Can an autologous donor donate blood on Monday, ithe is having surgery on Friday? A. Yes, he or she can donate up to 72 hours before surgery B. No, he or she cannot donate with 7 days of surgery . Yes, he or she can donate, but only a half D. No, he or she cannot donate within 5 days of surgery —_s8. —_s9. 70. 557 AA fetal screen yielded negative results on a mother who is O negative and infant who is positive. What course of action should be taken? A Perform a Klethauer-Betke test B. Issue one full dose of Rhlg ©. Perform a DAT on the infant D. Perform an antibody screen on the mother Should an A-negative woman who has just hhad a miscarriage receive Rhlg? AA. Yes, but only if she does not have evidence of active Anti-D B. No, the type of the baby is unknown ©. Yes, but only a minidose regardless of D. No, Rhig is given for term pregnancies only John comes in to donate a unit of whole blood at the collection center of the community blood supplier. The EIA sereen is reactive for anti-HIV-1/2. The test is repeated in duplicate and is nonreactive, John is ‘A. Cleated for donation 8. Deferred for six months . Sratus is dependent on confirmatory test D. Deferred for 12 months ody Fluids aa n. 72. Urine with an SG consistently between 1.002 and 1.003 indicates: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Renal tubular failuze C. Diabetes insipidus D. Addison’s disease ‘What is the principle of the colorimetric reagent strip determination of SG in urine? A Tonie strength alters the pK, of a polyelectrolyte B. Sodium and other cations are chelated by a ligand chat changes color . Anions displace a pH indicator from a mordant, making it water soluble D. Ionized solutes catalyze oxidation of an azo dye 73. 7a. ‘Which of the following is most likely to cause a false-positive dry reagent strip test for protein? A. Urine of high SG 8. Highly buflered alkaline urine €. Bence-Jones proteinuria D. Salicylates A discrepancy between the urine S determined by measuring refractive index and urine osmolality would be most likely to A. After catheterization of the urinary tact 8. In diabeces mellitus ©. After an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) D. In uremia—7. 75. In what condition may urinary ketone tests underestimate ketosis? A. Acidosis B. Hemolytic anemia ©. Renal failure D. Excessive use of vitamin C 76. Which of the following results are discrepant? A. Simall blood but negative protein B. Moderate blood but no RBCs in microscopic exam €. Negative blood bus 6-10 RBCs/HPF D. Negative blood, positive protein Renal tubular epithelial cells are shed into the urine in largest numbers in which. condition? A. Malignant renal disease B. Acute glomerulonephritis ©. Nephrotie syndrome D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection of the kidney 78. The diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often based upon which finding? A The presence of elevated protein and low glucose B. A decreased IgG index C. The presence of oligoclonal bands by electrophoresis D. An increased level of CSF Bf microglobulin 83. What is the purpose of adding 0.025%-0.050% sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the collection of blood cultures? A. It inhibits phagocytosis and complement B. It promotes formation of a blood clot C. Itenhances growth of anaerobes D. It functions as a preservative 84, Xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar isa highly selective medium used for the recovery of which bacteria? A. Staphylococcus spp. ftom normal flora B. Yersinia spp. that do not grow on Hektoen agar C. Enterobacteriaceae from gastrointestinal specimens D. Streptococcus spp. from stool culrares 558° Chapter 11 | Sample Centifcation (Self Assesment) Examination —_7. Which of the following laboratory results is characteristic of a transudative fluid? ASG = 1.018 B. Total protein = 3.2 g/dl. . LD fluid/serum ratio = 0.25 D. Total protein fluid/serum ratio = 0.65, ). Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an exudative cffusion? A. Congestive heart failure B. Malignancy €. Nephrotic syndrome D. Citthosis |. Which of the following sample collection and processing conditions will lead to inaccurate seminal fluid analysis results? [A Sample stored at room temperature for 1 hour before testing B. Sample collected following coitus €. Sample collected without an anticoagulant D. Sample collected without use of condom . A blood-tainted pleural fluid is submitted for clture. Which test result would be most conclusive in classifying the fluid as an exudate? ALD fluid/serum = 0.65 8. Total protein = 3.2 gldL. ©. RBC count = 10,000/4L. D. WBC count = 1,500/uL. Microbiology — | —_85. ‘Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase? A. Enterobacter, Echerichia, and Salmonella 8. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus ©. Klebsiella and Enterobacter D. Proteus, Escherichia, and Shigella16. 87. Chapter 11 | Sample Centficaton (SelfAsesmmens) Eeamination 559 Four blood cultures were taken over a 24-hour period from a 20-year-old ‘woman with severe diarthea. The cultures grew motile (room temperature), gram-negative rods. A urine specimen obtained by catheterization also showed gram-negative rods, 100,000 col/ml.. Given the following results, which is the most likely organism? TSI=WAgas Indole=+ VP=Neg MR=+ H,S=Neg Citrate =Neg Urease=Neg Lysine Phenylalanine decarboxylase deaminase =+ =Neg A, Proteus vulgaris B. Salmonella typhi ©. Yersinia enterocolitica D.E coli A bloody stool from a 26-year-old woman with 3 days of severe diarrhea showed the following results at 48 hours after being plated on the following media: MacConkey agar: litte normal flora with ‘many nonlactose-fermenting colonics Hektoen enteric agar: many blue-green colonies Campylobacter blood agar and C. difficile agar: Cleat colonies (rm MacConkey agat) tested negative for oxidase, indole, urease, motility and H,S “The most likely identification is A. Shigella spp. B. Salmonella spp. ©. Proteus spp. D.E coli “The following results were obtained from a pure culture of gram-negative rods recovered from the pulmonary secretions of a 10-year-old cystic fibrosis patient with pneumonia: Oxdase=> Motility =+ Glucose OF Gelatin hydrolysis = + (open) = 4 Pigment = Red Arginine dihydrolase = 4 (oonfluorescent) Growth at 42'C=+ — Flagella = + (polar ‘monotrichous) "Which is the most likely organism? A. Burkholderia preudomallei B. Pseudomonas stutzeri ©. Burkholderia cepacia D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 89. A yellow pigment-producing organism that is oxidase positive, nonmotile, and does not grow on MacConkey agar is: A. Acinetobacter baumannii 8. Acinetobacter luafit ©. Burkholderia cepacia D. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum 90. Which of the following tests should be done first in order to differentiate Aeromonas spp. from the Enterobacteriaceae? A. Urease: B. OF glucose ©. Oxidase D. Catalase 91. The following results were observed by using a tube coagulase test: Goagulase at Coagulase at ‘hours = 4 1B hours = Neg Novobiocin = Hemolysis on blood Sensitive agar = (16-mm zone) Mannitol sat plate = + (acid production) DNase ‘What is the most probable identification? A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis ©. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus hominis 92. Two blood cultures on a newborn grew B-hemolytie streptococei with the following Hippurate hydrolysis = + Bacitracin = Resistant PYR=Neg Trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole = Resistant Which is the most likely identific A. Group A streptococci 8. Group B streptococci ©. Group D streptococci D. Nongroup A, nongroup B, nongroup D screptococei 83. A gram-positive spore-forming bacillus growing on sheep-blood agar anaerobically produces a double zone of f-hemolysis and is positive for lecithinase. What is the presumptive identification? A Bacteroides urclyticus B. Bacteroides fragilis . Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium difficile560 Chapter 11| Sample Certification (Self Assesment) Examination —_94, 95. 96. A small, gram-negative coccobacillus recovered from the CSF of a 2-year-old child gave the following results: indole = + X requirement = + Urease = + Sucros Glucose = + (acid) Veequirement = + Lactose = Neg leg Hemolysis = Neg ‘Which is the most likely identification? A, Haemophilus parainfluenzae B. Hacmophilus influenzae C. Haemophilus ducreyi D. Haemophilus aphrophilus Growth inhibition by thiophene-2-carboxylie hydrazide (T,H) is used co differentiate IM. tuberculosis from which other Mycobacterium specie? AM, bovis B. M. aviumintracellulare complex CM. kansas DM. marinum Arthrospore (arthroconidia) production, is used to differentiate which two yeast isolates? A, Candida albicans and Candida stellatoidea B. Trichosporon spp. and Cryptococcus spp. ©. Candida albicans and Candida sropicalis D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Candida (Torulopsis) glabrata — 97. — 98. 100. A thermally dimorphic fangus shows a filamentous mold form with tuberculate macroconidia at room temperature, and a yeast form above 35°C. Which organism best fits this description? A. Histoplasma capsulatum B. Paracoccidivides brasiliensis ©. Candida albicans D. Coccidioides immitis ‘An Entamoeba bistolytica wtophoroite has the following characteristics: A. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs, and clear pseudopodia B. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and ‘uneven chromatin on the nuclear membrane . Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and large glycogen vacuoles in cytoplasm D. Large, blotiike karyosome, ingested white blood cells (WBCS), and granular pscudopods . Cysts of Lodamocba bittschlii typically have: ‘A. Chromatoidal bars with rounded ends B. A heavily vacuolated cytoplasm C. A large glycogen vacuole D. Many ingested bacteria and yeast cells ‘What gene must be amplified in PCR to differentiate methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus from methicillin resistant coagulase-negative Staphylococcus? KofX B. mec ©. VanA D. iler-2uploaded by (stormrg] Chapter 11 | Semple Cerf Sel-Asesmen) Buaminaion 561 EME Section Taxonomy 1 Taxonomy 2 Taxonomy 3 Number of Questions clinical chemistry 3 Wi 3 7 Hematology 2 9 7 1 immunology 4 7 4 is Blood banking 6 7 7 20 Body Muids| 1 3 2 12 Microbiology 3 10 5 8 Totals 19 3B 28 700Chapter 11 | Sample Cenfiation (SeAnesment) Examination 363 ANSWER KEY chemistry monotony Body Fluids 1D 36.8 me A 2 37.8 A Jc 3 38.8 B 5. B 48 39.8 Wc > 5A 40.0 A A 6c 41.8 5 C -D 7. 42.8 dD D aD 43.D C .c 9.D 44.8 1c 2c 10.¢ 45.8 B . WA 46.¢ B 2c 12.8 47.€ A . 13.8 48.D A aA 49.8 5. B 15.8 50.8 A 16.8 A 6 lood Banking c HD 100. A 52.€ 18a 53.8 1. 54.8 20.¢ 55.8 21.A 56.8 22.8 57.0 23.D 58.¢ 24.0 59.¢ 25.8 60.8 26.¢ 61. 27.D 62a 28.D 63.A 29.0 64.c 30.D 65.8 31.8 66.C 32.8 67.8 33.A 68.8 34.8 68.8 35.8 70.8 Uploaded by [StormRG]