BBE Fiitjee

FIITJEE Big Bang Edge Test - 2023
for students presently in Class VIII (going to IX) (Paper 2)

SAMPLE PAPER
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm) CODE: 89-2 Maximum Marks: 272
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 55 Minutes on Section-I, 45 Minutes on Section-II, 40
Minutes on Section-III and 40 Minutes on Section-IV.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer
PHYSICS (PART-A) 1 to 12 +1 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 13 to 24 +1 0
SECTION – I
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 25 to 36 +1 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 37 to 48 +1 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 49 to 52 +4 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 53 to 56 +4 –1
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 57 to 60 +4 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 61 to 68 +4 –1
SECTION – III CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 77 to 84 +3 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-C) 85 to 92 +3 –1
SECTION – IV
PHYSICS (PART-D) 108 to 110 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 111 to 113 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 114 to 116 +3 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your
rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 108 to 116.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 116 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph: 49283471/73/75
website: www.fiitjee.com
SAMPLE PAPER-BBE-2023-C-VIII (Paper-2)-S&M-2
For questions 108 to 116

Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9
Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Recommended Time: 55 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 12. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Pressure at a point in the liquid is :

(A) same in all directions (B) greater in the upward direction
(C) greater in the downward direction (D) none of these
2. According to which of the following scientist, “an increase in pressure at any point inside a liquid
at rest is transmitted equally and without any change in all directions to every other point in the
liquid”.
(A) Boyle (B) Pascal
(C) Archimedes (D) Newton
3. What is Archimedes’ principle. Choose the most appropriate:

(A) buoyant force = weight of object (for sunk object)
(B) buoyant force = weight of object (for floating as well as sunk object)
(C) buoyant force = weight of replaced water (for only a floating object)
(D) buoyant force = weight of replaced water (for all cases)
4. Which of the following groups of forces could be in equilibrium?

(A) 3 N, 4 N, 5 N (B) 4N, 5 N, 10 N
(C) 30N, 40 N, 80 N (D) 1N, 3 N, 5 N
5. A person is standing in an elevator, in which situation he finds his weight greater than actual
weight:
(A) The elevator moves upwards with constant velocity
(B) The elevator moves downwards with constant acceleration
(C) The elevator moves downwards with constant velocity
(D) The elevator moves upwards with constant acceleration
6. Weight of the body in air is 100 N and its appeared weight in water is 36 N then Buoyant force
acting on it is
(A) 100 N (B) 36 N
(C) 64 N (D) 136 N
Space for Rough Work
7. Apparent weight of the body of density (  ) when immersed in a liquid of density ( ) is

(A) Apparent weight = Actual weight + Upthrust (B) Apparent weight > Actual weight
(C) Apparent weight = Actual weight - Upthrust (D) (A), (B) and (C) all are correct explanations
8. What happens to the coefficient of friction, when the normal reaction is halved?
(A) Halved (B) Doubled
(C) No change (D) Depends on the nature of the surface
9. When a body is in equilibrium, its acceleration is

(A) unity (B) positive
(C) negative (D) zero
10. If the weight of the floating body is equal to the buoyant force then body:
(A) sinks (B) rises
(C) floats (D) first floats and then sinks
11. A wooden cylinder floats vertically in water with half of its length immersed. The density of wood
is
(A) Equal of that of water (B) Half the density of water
(C) Double the density of water (D) The question is incomplete
12. A force of 10 N is acting on a body of mass 20 kg for 10 seconds. Change in its momentum is
(A) 5 kg m/s (B) 200 kg m/s
(C) 100 kg m/s (D) 1000 kg m/s
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 13 to 24. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
13. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust.

(A) Oxygen (B) Silicon
(C) Hydrogen (D) Aluminium
14. Bromine is
(A) A gas at room temperature (B) A solid at room temperature
(C) A liquid at room temperature (D) A semi-solid at room temperature
15. Which of the following is most abundant metal in the earths crust?
(A) Cu (B) Zn
(C) Al (D) Fe
16. H2 gas is evolved when magnesium reacts with

(A) NaOH (B) N2
(C) H2SO4 (D) Na
17. The chemicals that have fruity smell are

(A) Alcohols (B) Esters
(C) Ketones (D) Amides
18. The correct order of electrical conductivity is

(A) Al > Au > Cu > Ag (B) Cu > Ag > Al > Au
(C) Au > Ag > Al > Cu (D) Ag > Cu > Au > Al
19. Chemical formula of Rust

(A) Fe2O3. XH2O (B) Fe3O4.H2O
(C) Fe3O4. 5H2O (D) Fe2O3.5H2O
20. The metal which melts at around room temperature is

(A) Sodium (B) Gallium
(C) Germanium (D) Potassium
21. Chemical composition of galena

(A) HgS (B) CuS
(C) PbS (D) ZnS
22. Which of the following substance(s) is/are formed when calcium reacts with water?
(A) CaO and H2 (B) Ca(OH)2 and O2
(C) Ca(OH)2 and H2 (D) CaH2 + O2
23. The most abundant element in the universe is

(A) Oxygen (B) Helium
(C) Hydrogen (D) Nitrogen
24. Metal which can catch fire even without any external heat source.
(A) Silver (B) Sodium
(C) Iron (D) Aluminium
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
1 1
25. If x  y  a and xy  b, then the value of  is
x3 y3
a3  3ab a3  3ab2
(A) (B)
b3 b3
a  3a2b
3 3
a 3
(C) (D)
b b2
26. A reduction of 20% in the price of rice enables a person to buy 3.5 kg more rice for Rs. 385. The
original price of rice per kg is:
(A) Rs. 20 (B) Rs. 22.50
(C) Rs. 25 (D) Rs. 27.50
p
27. 36.28  then p+ 90 =
90
(A) 3266 (B) 3628
(C) 3556 (D) 3356
28. A mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio 8 : 11. If 5 litres of alcohol is added to the
mixture, the ratio becomes 4 : 5. The quantity of alcohol in the previous mixture is
(A) 10 litres (B) 50 litres
(C) 7.5 litres (D) 2.5 litres
29. The rational number 0 is

(A) positive (B) negative
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
5 6
30. LCM of and is
12 17
11 1
(A) (B)
29 30
30 1
(C) (D)
1 204
31. Find the mode when median is 8 and mean is 10 of the data.
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 5
32. The sum of two irrational numbers

(A) is always rational (B) is always irrational
(C) can be rational as well as irrational (D) is neither rational nor irrational
33. Four identical small rectangles are put together to form a large
rectangle as shown. The length of the shorter side of the large
rectangle is 10 cm. What is the length of the longer side of the
large rectangle?
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm
(C) 30 cm (D) 40 cm
o
34. ABCD is a rhombus with ABC  56 , then the ACD will be:
o o
(A) 56 (B) 62
o
(C) 124o (D) 34
2x
35. If  1, then find the value of x.
1
1
1
1
x
1
1 x
2 1
(A) (B)
3 3
5 1
(C) (D)
6 4
36. Which of the following statements is false ?

(A) Natural numbers are closed under addition
(B) Whole numbers are closed under addition
(C) Integers are closed under addition
(D) Rational numbers are not closed under addition
BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
37. What are the important steps in the preparation of soil?

(A) Loosening and sowing (B) Loosening and weeding
(C) Turning and sowing (D) Turning and loosening
38. If you were a farmer, which of the following methods will you use to separate good quality and
viable grains from a heap of grains after harvest?
(A) Checking the weight of grains. (B) Checking grains under sunlight for pores.
(C) Immersing the grains in water. (D) Sowing seeds and waiting for germination.
39. The process by which amount of nitrogen remains the same in the atmosphere is known as
(A) fermentation (B) carbon cycle
(C) nitrogen cycle (D) photosynthesis
40. Which of the following disease is spread due to bacteria?

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Measles
(C) Chicken pox (D) Polio
41. The process of separation of grain from the chaff after harvesting is known as
(A) tilling (B) threshing
(C) spraying (D) weeding
42. ________ is used for the production of alcohol and wine.

(A) Yeast (B) Mosquito
(C) Ant (D) Algae
43. Which organisms are microscopic and dependent on host organisms for reproduction?
(A) Algae (B) Protozoa
(C) Viruses (D) Bacteria
44. Which one of the following is not a method of food preservation?

(A) Salting (B) Drying
(C) Boiling (D) Pickling
45. Rabi crop is harvested in

(A) January (B) March
(C) October (D) September
46. The status of algae in the aquatic food chain is

(A) consumers (B) producers
(C) host (D) small in size
47. Arrange the following agricultural practices in the order in which they are followed.
1. Harvesting
2. Sowing
3. Storage
4. Irrigation
5. Preparation of soil
(A) 1  2  3  4  5 (B) 5  2  4  1  3
(C) 2  1  3  5  4 (D) 5  3  4  1  2
48. Which of the following should be used by a farmer with a large farm to harvest his crops quickly
and efficiently?
(A) Winnowing machine (B) Combine
(C) Sickle (D) Seed drill
Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
49. The tension in the spring is

5N 5N
(A) Zero (B) 2.5 N
(C) 5 N (D) 10 N
50. Static friction force acting on a body is

(A) self adjusting force (B) depends on area of contact
(C) constant force (D) can never be zero
51. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a rough surface, F = 6

N is applied on the block as shown, force of friction on the
block is
(A) 12 N
(B) 0 N
(C) 10 N
(D) 6 N
52. The force-time (F – t) curve of a particle executing +2

linear motion is as shown in the figure. The momentum
Force (N)
2 4 6 8
acquired by the particle in time interval from zero to 8
second will be Time (s)
–2
(A) – 2 N-s
(B) + 4 N-s
(C) 6 N-s
(D) Zero
53. Sulphide ores are generally concentrated by

(A) Froth floatation (B) Roasting
(C) Gravity Separation (D) Reduction by carbon
54. Which of the following statements is/are Correct?

(A) Coal is hard, black, combustible substance that consists mainly of carbon.
(B) The slow process by which the dead plants buried deep under the earth have coal is called
carbonization.
(C) The strong heating of coal is the absence of air is called “destructive distillation” of coal.
(D) All of the above
55. Give the constituent of fluorspar

(A) MnO 4 (B) CaF2
(C) Sn(SO 2 )3 (D) None of these
56. Duralumin is made up of

(A) Al, Cu, Mn, Zn (B) Al, Mg, Cu, Zn
(C) Al, Mn, Mg, Cu (D) Al, Mg, Zn, Fe
ax  b
57. Find the value of x, e
cx  d
bd  e eb  d
(A) (B)
ac  e ec  a
ed  b ed  b
(C) (D)
e  ac a  ec
9
58. x , then x3=
9
6 
9
6 
6  ....
(A) –8 (B) 8
(C) 27 (D) –27
2 1
59. A rational number between and is
3 2
5
(A) 1 (B) 
6
1
(C)  (D) 5
12
60. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram with B = 110º. Find the values of x and y.
(A) x = 20º, y = 60º (B) x = 30º, y = 70º

(C) x = 40º, y = 50º (D) x = 10º, y = 60º
61. What helps in the rise of bread or dosa dough?

(A) Heat (B) Grinding
(C) Growth of yeast cells (D) Low pressure
62. Grains produced at a large scale can be stored in

(A) Silos (B) Jute bags
(C) Granaries (D) Both (A) and (C)
63. Dried leaves can be used to ___________

(A) repel insects (B) control weeds
(C) increase soil fertility (D) None of these
64. The agricultural instrument used for removal of weed is

(A) sickle (B) khurpi
(C) seed drill (D) plough
65. The chemical substances rich in nutrients are called

(A) fertiliser (B) weedicide
(C) pesticides (D) herbicides
66. While baking cakes, yeast reproduces rapidly and produces gas.
(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) carbon dioxide (D) nitrogen
67. Microorganisms are

(A) Unicellular (B) Multi-cellular
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
68. The disease caused by protozoa is

(A) tuberculosis (B) polio
(C) typhoid (D) malaria
Recommended Time: 40 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
69. A grocery shop keeper develops a trick to cheat the customers, He keeps a hidden magnet under
one of the iron pan of the beam balance as shown in figure. Then to fulfill his purpose he should
place the item to be weighed in:
(A) Pan A (B) Pan B

(C) Pan A or Pan B (D) The trick will not work
70. A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed to a wall. The forces acting on
the sphere are shown in figure. Which of the following statement is 
T
correct:
  
(A) R  T  W  0 (B) R=T+ W R
(C) T = R + W (D) R = tan

W
71. A block of weight 5 N is pushed against a vertical wall by a force 12 N. The coefficient of friction
between the wall and block is 0.6. The magnitude of the force exerted by the wall on the block is
12N
(A) 12 N (B) 5 N
(C) 7.2 N (D) 13 N
72. The spring balance A reads 2 kg with a block m suspended from it.
A balance B reads 5 kg when a beaker filled with liquid is put on the A
pan of the balance. The two balances are now so arranged that the
hanging mass is inside the liquid as shown in figure. In this situation
(A) The balance A will read more than 2 kg
(B) The balance B will read less than 5 kg
(C) The balance A will read less than 2 kg m
(D) The balances A and B will read 2 kg and 5 kg respectively
B
73. Identify the wrong statement.

The momentum of a body is
(A) The product of mass and velocity of the body
(B) The product of force and time
(C) The product of force and velocity
(D) Measured in kg m/s in S.I. system
74. A body of mass m is kept stationary on a rough plane. What is the normal reaction acting on the
body?
(A) mg (B) 5 mg
(C) 2 mg (D) 8 mg
75. A vessel containing water is given a constant acceleration a towards the right, along a straight
horizontal path. Which of the following diagram represents the surface of the liquid
a a a a
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
A
76. A block A of mass 7 kg is placed on a frictionless table. A
thread tied to it passes over a frictionless pulley and carries a
body B of mass 3 kg at the other end. The acceleration of the
system is (given g = 10 ms 2 )
(A) 100 ms2 (B) 3 ms2 B
(C) 10 ms 2 (D) 30 ms 2
77. Metals, except Al and Zn, react with oxygen to from ______ oxides.
(A) Acidic (B) Neutral
(C) Amphoteric (D) Basic
78. Which of the following component of air does not contribute to corrosion?
(A) Oxygen (B) Water vapour
(C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon dioxide
79. Which of the following metal cannot decolourize the blue colour of copper sulphate solution?
(A) Zinc (B) Iron
(C) Silver (D) Magnesium
80. Carbon exists naturally in the form of graphite and diamond. This property is known as
(A) allotropy (B) isomerism
(C) hydrogenation (D) none of these
81. For making jewellery gold is mixed with

(A) Fe (B) Cu
(C) Ag (D) (B) or (C)
82. Which one of the following is not a petroleum product?

(A) bitumen (B) asphalt
(C) paraffin (D) bituminous
83. Which of the following do not react readily with water?

(A) Zinc (B) Sodium
(C) Potassium (D) Copper
84. Match the following appropriately.

Column - A Column – B
i Oxygen P Methane
ii Coke Q Non Metal
iii Natural Gas R Natural Fibre
iv Silk S reducing agent
(A) i-S, ii-R, iii-Q, iv-P (B) i-Q, ii-S, iii-R, iv-P
(C) i-Q, ii-S, iii-P, iv-R (D) i-R, ii-S, iii-Q, iv-P
BIOLOGY – (PART – C)
85. BHC (Benzene hexachloride) is a

(A) weedicide (B) fertiliser
(C) fungicide (D) pesticides
86. Supply of water to crops at appropriate intervals is called
(A) cultivation (B) irrigation
(C) harvesting (D) sowing
87. Which instrument is used for spraying weedicides?
(A) Sprayer (B) Cultivator
(C) Plough (D) Combine
88. Which of the following is not used as food preservatives?

(A) Salt (B) Sugar
(C) Vinegar (D) Methane
89. Vaccines are made up of:
(A) Chemicals (B) Weak microorganisms
(C) Viruses (D) Drugs
90. NPK is an example of

(A) Weedicide (B) Manure
(C) Fertilizer (D) Insecticide
91. Substances that are produced by the body to fight against the invader is
(A) Antibiotic (B) Vaccine
(C) Antibody (D) Antigen
92. The antibiotic penicillin was discovered by
(A) Alexander Fleming (B) Ernst Boris Chain
(C) Robert Hooke (D) Howard Florey
Recommended Time: 40 Minutes for Section – IV
Section – IV
93. A cricket ball of mass 200 gm moving with a speed of 40 m/s is brought to rest by a player in
0.04 s. Then average force applied by the player is
(A) 16 N (B) 100 N
(C) 200 N (D) None of these
94. Consider the situation shown in the figure below and calculate the tension in the string connecting
the 1.0 kg blocks
1.0 kg 1.0 kg
  0.0
0.5 kg
(A) 2.00 N (B) 1.96 N

(C) 1.98 N (D) 2.02 N
95. A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L (L  H / 2) . Cross-sectional area A / 5 is immersed such

that it floats with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface with length L / 4 in the denser liquid as
shown in the fig. The lower density liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure P0 . Then density
D of solid is given by
H/2 d
L 3L/4
H/2 2d
5 4
(A) d (B) d
4 3
d
(C) Ad (D)
5
96. A block of mass m is placed on a wedge. The wedge can be accelerated in four manners marked
as (1), (2), (3) and (4) as shown. If the normal reactions in situation (1), (2), (3) and (4) are N1, N2,
N3 and N4 respectively then :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) N3 > N4 (B) N4 = N3

(C) N4 = N1 (D) N1 = N2
97. Two metal blocks A & B each having some amount of +ve charge are placed on a rough
horizontal table as shown in the figure. If both of them are at rest then the direction of frictional
force acting on A & B is respectively:
(A) Leftwards, Leftwards (B) Leftwards, Rightwards

(C) Rightwards, Rightwards (D) Rightwards, Leftwards
98. Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?

(A) Coal gas is gaseous fuel, obtained by the heating of coal in the presence of air during the
process of coal to get coke.
(B) Coal tar is thick, black liquid having an unpleasant smell.
(C) Coke is a tough and porous black solid substance.
(D) Coke is used in the manufacture of steel.
99. Which oil is used as frother in froth floatation process?

(A) Mustard oil (B) Coconut oil
(C) Olive oil (D) Pine oil
100. When a copper vessel is exposed to moist air for long, it acquires a dull green coating. The
reaction can be represented as
2 Cu  W
 Y  Cu  OH2  Z
X 

Moist air
W, X, Y and Z are respectively
(A) N2, CO2, O2 and CuO (B) H2O, N2, CO2 and O2
(C) H2O, CO2, O2 and CuCO3 (D) H2O, CO2, O2 and CuO
101. Aquaregia is mixture of

(A) 1 volume of conc. HCl and 3 volumes of conc. HNO3
(B) 1 volume of conc. HNO3 and 3 volumes of conc. HCl
(C) Equal volumes of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4.
(D) 1 volume of conc. HNO3 and 3 volumes of conc. H2SO4
102. Which one contains nitrogen?

(A) Water gas (B) Producer gas
(C) Coal gas (D) Biogas
103. Two coins are tossed, find the probability the two heads are obtained
1 2
(A) (B)
4 4
3
(C) (D) 1
4
104. In the figure diagonals of rectangle meet at P.

If AP = 4x + 2 and BP = x + 8, then find x
A D
B C
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 1
105. Two dice are tossed. The probability that the total score is a prime number is:
(A) 5/12 (B) 1/6
(C) 1/2 (D) 7/9
106. In a frequency distribuation, then mid value of a class is 10 and the width of the class is 6.
Find the lower limit of the class.
(A) 5 (B) 2
(C) 7 (D) 9
1 2 3 4 5 31 1
107. If      ........   , the value of x is:
4 6 8 10 12 64 2x
(A) 31 (B) 32
(C) 36 (D) 37
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 108 to 110. Each question has
Single Digit Answer 0 to 9.
108. A body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 3 m/s collides head on with a body of mass 1kg
moving in opposite direction with a velocity 4 m/s. After collision two bodies stick together and
move with a common velocity of K/3 m/s, find the value of K.
109. The pressure of water on the ground floor is 50,000 Pa and at first floor is 10,000 Pa. Find the
height of the first floor (in metre). (Take: density of water = 1000 kg m -3, g = 10 m s-2)
110. A constant retarding force of 40 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with a speed
of 16 m/s. How long does the body take to stop?
CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
111. In the given elements how many of them are semi-metals?

C, Si, P, Ge, As, S, Cl, Sb, Ne
112. In the given elements how many of them are liquids?

Be, Ga, B, Cs, Hg, Ag, Br, O2, He.
113. In the given properties how many belongs to metals:

Ductility, Conductivity, Brittle, Low B.P. and M.P. Lustre, Non-sonorous, Dense, Electropositive
MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
x4 x4
114. If  2 , then find x.
x4 x4
 a  b b  c c  a  a b c 
115. If a  b  c  0, then the value of      is x. Find x
 c a b   b  c c  a a  b 
 
116. 2 2 2......... 

SAMPLE PAPER ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A
5. D 6. C 7. C 8. C
9. D 10. C 11. B 12. C
13. A 14. C 15. C 16. C
17. B 18. D 19. A 20. B
21. C 22. C 23. C 24. B
25. A 26. D 27. D 28. B
29. D 30. C 31. A 32. C
33. B 34. B 35. A 36. D
37. D 38. C 39. C 40. A
41. B 42. A 43. C 44. C
45. B 46. B 47. B 48. B
49. C 50. A 51. D 52. D
53. A 54. D 55. B 56. C
57. D 58. C 59. C 60. B
61. C 62. D 63. A 64. B
65. A 66. C 67. C 68. D
69. B 70. A 71. D 72. C
73. C 74. A 75. C 76. B
77. D 78. C 79. C 80. A
81. D 82. D 83. D 84. C
85. D 86. B 87. A 88. D
89. B 90. C 91. C 92. A
93. C 94. B 95. A 96. A
97. D 98. A 99. D 100. C
101. B 102. B 103. A 104. A
105. A 106. C 107. C 108. 2
109. 4 110. 8 111. 4 112. 4
113. 5 114. 5 115. 9 116. 2
SAMPLE PAPER
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) CODE: 89-1 Maximum Marks: 266
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 45 Minutes on Section-II, 30
Minutes on Section-III and 45 Minutes on Section-IV.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE TEST 1 to 30 +3 0
SECTION – II
SECTION – III
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 95 to 98 +4 –1
SECTION – IV
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 99 to 102 +4 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 103 to 110 +4 –1
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your
rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 110 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________
SAMPLE PAPER-BBE-2023-C-VIII (Paper-1)-AT+S&M-2
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4
1. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
5. Direction : - One of two statements is given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to
consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at a variance from commonly known
facts. You are to decided which of the given conclusion /assumptions, can definitely be drawn
from the given statements.
Statements :
All lawyers are cheats
Some men are lawyers.
Conclusions :
(I) Some men are cheats
(II) All cheats are men.
(A) If only conclusion I follows. (B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows. (D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
6. In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?)
from the given alternatives.
(A) 189 (B) 227

(C) 277 (D) 339
7. Manoj is 7 ranks ahead of Anish in the class of 39 students. If Ashok’s rank is 17th from the last,
then what in Manoj’s rank from the starts ?
(A) 16th (B) 23th
th
(C) 24 (D) 15th
8. What was the day on 2nd January, 1901 ?

(A) Monday (B) Wednesday
(C) Sunday (D) Tuesday
9. In the following question, select the odd letter from the given alternatives.
(A) B (B) N
(C) P (D) W
10. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and balance the given
equation :
6 * 15 * 10 * 3 * 12
(A)  + =  (B) +  =
(C)  + = (D) + – = 
11. In the recent climate conference in Paris, out of 700 men, 500 women, 800 children Present
inside the building premises, 20% of the men, 40% of women and 10% of the children were
Indians. Find the percentage of people who are not Indian ?
(A) 73% (B) 79%
(C) 83% (D) 77%
12. In the question given below, there are few statements followed by few conclusions you have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follow (s) from the given statements.
STATEMENTS :
No train is star
Some stars are man
CONCLUSIONS :-
I) Some men are trains
II) No men is train
III) All men are stars
(A) None follows (B) only I follows
(C) Only either I or II follows (D) only either I or III follows
13. What number will replace the question mark (?)

13, 13, 15, 27, 47, 67, 97, 153, ?
(A) 325 (B) 225
(C) 252 (D) 352
14. There questions are based on the word problems.

Ravi is the brother of Anuj. Sakshi is the sister of Sumit. Anju is the son of Sakshi. How is Ravi
related to Sakshi ?
(A) Nephew (B) Father
(C) Brother (D) Son
15. In the following question, select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.
BJNX:CIOW: :DHPV:?
(A) EGQU (B) ELPV
(C) E I Q W (D) E I O U
16. Six children P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a straight line. T and S have two children between
them. There are three children between Q and U. P is to the left of T, U is to the left of S, R is not
on either extreme ends. Which one of them are on extremes ?
(A) TU (B) QS
(C) SR (D) PQ
17. The heights of A and B are equal. C is shorter than A, D is shorter than E, but taller than B. Who
is tallest of all ?
(A) D (B) C
(C) E (D) B
18. Eight friends L, M , P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting around a circle facing the centre. L is sitting
third to the right of M and L is sitting second to the left of P. R and S are Sitting together and none
of them is nearest neighbor of L. Q is sitting second to the right of S. Then, who, is sitting third to
the left of V ?
(A) Q (B) P
(C) L (D) R
19. In a certain code PAGE is written as ‘3%7@’ SORE is written as 8©9@. How is ‘PEAS’ written in
that code ?
(A) 3 @  8 (B) 3 @ % 9
(C) 3 @ % 8 (D) 3 % @ 8
20. Choose the odd one out from the given alternatives.
(A) 5 : 9 (B) 17 : 19
(C) 83 : 89 (D) 37 : 41
21. In a class the number of boys is 20% more than the number of girls and total students are 33. If 5
more boys join the class, then what will be the ratio of number of boys to number of girls ?
(A) 8 : 5 (B) 23 : 15
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 11 : 6
22. In a row of 16 girls, when Kanika was shifted by two places towards the left. She became 7th form
the left end. What was her earlier position from the right end ?
(A) 7th (B) 9th
th
(C) 8 (D) 10th
23. A series is given with one or more number/letter missing. Choose the correct alternative from the
given ones that will complete the series.
A, D, G, J, M, P, S, V, ?
(A) Y (B) X
(C) B (D) C
24. From the given alternatives select the word. Which cannot be formed using the letters of the
given word.
(A) STEAL (B) SILENT
(C) SINGLE (D) SMILE
25. If it was Saturday on December 17, 1899, what will be the day on December 22, 1901 ?
(A) Friday (B) Saturday
(C) Sunday (D) Monday
26. At 4 hours and 40 minutes, what will be the angle between both hands ?
(A) 120º (B) 130º
(C) 90 (D) 100º
27. Select the missing number from the given responses.

7 56 8
9 63 7
12 ? 5
(A) 17 (B) 25
(C) 60 (D) 119
28. Identify the diagram that correctly represents the relationship among woman, mother and widow
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
29. Select from the alternatives, the box that can be formed by folding the sheet shown in figure (X)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
30. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
31. From the figure, if a is the acceleration F1, F2, F3 a ms 2

 
are three forces acting on a body, then F3
(A) F1  F2  F3  F1 m F2
(B) F1  F2  F3 
(C) F1  F2  F3 
(D) F1 + (F2 + F3) = ma
32. When a body is in equilibrium, its acceleration is

(A) unity (B) positive
(C) negative (D) zero
33. If the weight of the floating body is equal to the buoyant force then body:
(A) sinks (B) rises
(C) floats (D) first floats and then sinks
34. We are not able to cut vegetables from a blunt knife because
(A) the pressure applied by blunt knife is less than the pressure applied by sharp knife
(B) the pressure applied by sharp knife is less than the pressure applied by blunt knife
(C) the force applied by blunt knife is less than the pressure applied by sharp knife
(D) the force applied by sharp knife is less than the pressure applied by blunt knife
35. Air moves from

(A) high pressure to low pressure (B) low pressure to high pressure
(C) high pressure to high pressure (D) low pressure to low pressure
36. Unit of coefficient of friction is:

(A) dyne (B) Newton
2
(C) N /m (D) None of these
37. Two masses of 4 kg and 5 kg are connected by a string passing through a frictionless pulley and
are kept on a frictionless table as shown in the figure. The acceleration of 5 kg mass is
4kg
5kg
(A) 49 m / s 2 (B) 5.44 m / s 2

(C) 19.5 m / s 2 (D) 2.72 m / s 2
38. As we go on hills, the atmospheric pressure

(A) increases (B) remains constant
(C) decreases (D) none of these
39. A piece of cork is lying at the bottom of an empty bucket. Now the bucket is filled with water.
What happens to the cork now?
(A) The cork will rise to the top of water and float
(B) The cork will float in the water but it will be completely inside the water
(C) The cork will stay there at the bottom of the bucket
(D) The cork will dissolve in the water
40. Reaction of magnesium and oxygen produces a compound which is:

(A) insoluble in water (B) a base
(C) an acid (D) inflammable
41. Identify the substance which is tough, porous and black. It is almost a pure form of carbon.
(A) Curd Oil (B) Coke
(C) Coal tar (D) Coal gas
42. Which of the following substance is most malleable?

(A) Sulphur (B) Lead
(C) Graphite (D) Phosphorus
43. The products of destructive distillation of coal is/are

(A) coke (B) coal gas
(C) coal tar (D) all the three
44. Which of the following statements is false?

(A) Carbon is the most malleable metal (B) Copper is a good conductor of electricity
(C) Aluminium is a good conductor of heat (D) Bromine is the only liquid non-metal.
45. Ammonical liquor is a solution of ammonia in

(A) alcohol (B) water
(C) petrol (D) spirit
46. In India, which association advises people on saving petrol or diesel while driving?
(A) Petroleum Conservation Research Association (PCRA)
(B) Coal Conservation Research Association (CCRA)
(C) ECO-driving advice.
(D) Petroleum conservation association (PCA)
47. Brass is an alloy of

(A) Cu & Sn (B) Cu & Zn
(C) Zn & Sn (D) Pb & Sn
48. The fraction of petroleum used as rocket fuel is

(A) petrol (B) diesel
(C) kerosene (D) naphtha
4 5
49. LCM of and is
5 9
4 2
(A) (B)
9 3
1
(C) 20 (D)
45
50. Pipes X and Y can fill a tank in 30 minutes and 60 minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened
simultaneously. After how much time should X be closed so that the tank is filled in 30 minutes?
(A) 15 (B) 16
(C) 17 (D) 18
51. A man covers a certain distance between his house and office on scooter. Having an average
speed of 30 km/hr, he is late by 10 minutes. However with a speed of 40 km/hr, he reaches his
office 5 minutes earlier. Find the distance between his house and office.
(A) 31 km (B) 32 km
(C) 29 km (D) 30 km
D C
52. Sides BA and DC of a quadrilateral ABCD are
produced as shown in figure then a + b is equal to: y a
(A) x  y
(B) x  y
(C) x  2y b
x
(D) None of these
A B
53. How many diagonals are there in a pentagon

(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 10 (D) 3
54. In covering a certain distance, then speeds of A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 4. A takes 30 minutes
more than B to reach the destination. The time taken by A to reach the destination is :
1
(A) 1 hours (B) 2 hours
2
1
(C) 2 hours (D) None of these
2
55. The ratio of ages of A & B before 5 years was 2 : 3. If the sum of ages of A & B at present is 45
years. Find the difference of ages of A & B.
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 4 (D) 5
56. In the following figure, ABCD is a rhombus. If ABC = 68º, then determine ACD.
(A) 56º (B) 58º

(C) 68º (D) 78º
57. In the adjoining figure of rectangle ABCD and CFE = 144º. Find the measure of BEF.
F
B C
144º
30º
A E D
(A) 88º (B) 80º
(C) 86º (D) 84º
58. Consider the following statements about weeding and identify the incorrect one.
(A) Weeding is best done during tilling itself.
(B) Weeding is the process of growing weed.
(C) Weeding is the process of removal of weeds.
(D) Weeding is usually done manually or by using weedicides.
59. Which of the following is not a traditional irrigation method?

(A) Moat (B) Chain pump
(C) Lever system (D) Drip system
60. Which of the following is used to preserve food grains at home?

(A) Spinach leaves (B) Curry leaves
(C) Neem leaves (D) Tulsi leaves
61. What are the advantages of preparing the soil?

(A) Allows roots to penetrate the soil easily. (B) Makes decomposition by microbes easier.
(C) Makes the top soil nutrient rich. (D) All of these
62. Maize grow well during

(A) June (B) January
(C) April (D) September
63. Transplantation of seedling is done in

(A) coffee (B) cocoa
(C) rice (D) mango
64. Compost is a
(A) manure (B) fertiliser
(C) pesticide (D) weedicide
65. The rod shaped bacteria are called

(A) Bacillus (B) Coccus
(C) Vibrio (D) Spirillum
66. Which bacteria helps in settling of curd?

(A) Rhizobium (B) Lactobacillus
(C) Vibriocholarae (D) Bacillus
Recommended Time: 30 Minutes for Section – III
Section – III
67. A book is placed on your study chair at rest. Consider the following forces:
(I) A downward force of gravity
(II) An upward force exerted by the chair
(III) A net downward force exerted by the air
Then, which of the force(s) is/are acting on the book?
(A) Only (I) is correct (B) (I) and (II) both are correct
(C) (I), (II) and (III) are correct (D) none of the above forces
68. Find the limiting force of friction between an iron block and surface, if coefficient of friction
between block and surface is 0.08 and the mass of block is 60 kg (if g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 480 N (B) 48 N
(C) 4.80 N (D) 60 N
69. Three forces starts acting simultaneously on a particle moving with C


velocity v . These forces are represented in magnitude and
direction by the three sides of a triangle ABC (as shown). The
particle will now move with velocity
(A) v remaining unchanged
(B) Less than v B
A
(C) Greater than v
(D) v in the direction of the largest force BC
70. The pressure of sea water is maximum at :

(A) the bottom of the sea (B) the top of the sea
(C) half way the depth of the sea (D) is same everywhere
71. Find normal reaction acting on block 2 kg. 2kg

(A) 2g upward 4 kg
(B) 2g downward
(C) 6g upward
(D) 6g downward
72. Find acceleration of block F = 4 Newton

(A) 1 m s2
2kg
(B) 2 m s 2
(C) 3 m s2 Smooth
2
(D) 4 m s
73. A substance is said to be sonorous if it

(A) Conducts heat (B) Conducts electricity
(C) Conducts water through metal pipes (D) Produces a ringing sound when beaten
74. Which of the following is a non-metal but is lustrous?

(A) Carbon (B) Mercury
(C) Iodine (D) Fluorine
75. Carbogen is a mixture of oxygen with

(A) CO (B) CO2
(C) NO (D) NO2
76. Coke is used as _______ agent

(A) oxidising (B) reducing
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) neither (A) nor (B)
77. Which is the main component of biogas?

(A) Methane (B) Methene
(C) Ethane (D) Ethene
78. Metals like zinc and Aluminium react with Sodium hydroxide to produce which gas.
(A) Hydrogen (B) Hydrogen Sulphide
(C) Oxygen (D) Sulphur dioxide
79. Which of the following is a polyhedron?

(A) cube (B) pyramid
(C) cuboid (D) all of these
80. In a throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total sum of 10?
1 1
(A) (B)
12 4
1 2
(C) (D)
9 9
81. When the diagonals of a parallelogram are perpendicular to each other and diagonals are not
equal then it is called:
(A) square (B) rectangle
(C) rhombus (D) parallelogram
82. In the given figure, ABCD is a rectangle whose diagonals AC and BD intersect at O. If AOB =
32º, then find OCD.
A D
O
32º
B C
(A) 70º (B) 72º
(C) 74º (D) 80º
83. A man completes a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate of 21 km/hr
and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total journey in km.
(A) 220 km (B) 224 km
(C) 228 km (D) 240 km
p
84. Which condition is true for to be rational number ?
q
(A) q = 0 (B) p and q are whole numbers
(C) p and q are integers (D) p cannot be 0
85. Mushroom belongs to

(A) Algae (B) Virus
(C) Fungi (D) None of these
86. Scientist who discovered fermentation is

(A) Alexander Fleming (B) Louis Pasteur
(C) John Mendal (D) Edward Jenner
87. In order to take precautionary steps to control dengue, we must take measures to stop the
breeding of:
(A) Aedes mosquito (B) Fleas
(C) Fire ants (D) Anopheles mosquito
88. Partial sterilization of a product such as milk at a high temperature is known as:
(A) Pasteurization (B) Filtration
(C) Pickling (D) Refrigeration
89. Which of the following is a communicable disease?

(A) Diabetes (B) Chicken pox
(C) Alzheimer's (D) Cancer
90. Select the method(s) of irrigation which can be employed in an uneven land.
(i) Moat
(ii) Sprinkler
(iii) Chain Pump
(iv) Drip System
(A) (ii) and (iv) (B) Only (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (ii)
Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – IV
Section – IV
91. A force of 10 N is acting on a body of mass 20 kg for 10 seconds. Change in its momentum is
(A) 5 kg m/s (B) 200 kg m/s
(C) 100 kg m/s (D) 1000 kg m/s
92. Find the limiting force of friction between an iron block and surface, if coefficient of friction
between block and surface is 0.08 and the mass of block is 60 kg (if g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 480 N (B) 48 N
(C) 4.80 N (D) 60 N
93. The pressure at the bottom of a tank containing a liquid does not depend on
(A) Acceleration due to gravity (B) Height of the liquid column
(C) Area of the bottom surface (D) Nature of the liquid
94. A body is in motion, we can conclude

(A) net unbalanced force must be acting on body
(B) force may be acting on body
(C) net force acting on body must be zero
(D) none of these
95. Coke is used in the manufacture of

(A) Sodium (B) Mercury
(C) Steel (D) Potassium
96. When Zinc reacts with dilute sulphuric acid, a salt is formed with the release of a gas. The gas
produced during this puts off of burning candle with a pop sound. The gas evolved during this
reaction is:
(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen (D) Hydrogen Sulphide
97. When Sulphur reacts with oxygen, the oxide formed is ________ in nature.
(A) Alkaline (B) Neutral
(C) Basic (D) Acidic
98. When MgO is dissolved in water, Mg(OH)2 is obtained. The solution thus obtained is_____ is
nature.
(A) Amphoteric (B) Alkaline
(C) Neutral (D) Acidic
3 5
99. If both a and b be rational numbers then a and b satisfying  a 5  b are
32 5
9 19 19 9
(A) a  ,b (B) a  ,b
11 11 11 11
2 8 10 21
(C) a  , b   (D) a  ,b
11 11 11 11
1
100. The multiplicative inverse of 2 is :
5
11 11
(A)  (B)
5 5
5 5
(C) (D) 
11 11
101. 1+3+5+7+….+37=
(A) 361 (B) 261
(C) 289 (D) 324
3
102. y  6  3 6  3 6  ....... , then y is
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 3 (D) 2
103. Vaccine for small pox is discovered by

(A) Louis Pasteur (B) Alexander Fleming
(C) Edward Jenner (D) John Mendal
104. Amount of nitrogen in the atmosphere is

(A) 58 % (B) 68 %
(C) 78 % (D) 88 %
105. _________ are the agents that act as carriers of a pathogen and spread diseases.
(A) Vectors (B) Microbes
(C) Parasites (D) DNA
106. Which among the following statements is not associated with food preservation?
(A) Prevention of decay or spoilage (B) Decreased shelf life
(C) Air-tight sealing (D) Storage for future use
107. Match the following.

A. Rhizobium i. Antibiotic
B. Lactobacillus ii. Soil fertility
C. Penicillium iii. Vaccine
D. Rabies iv. Milk curdling
A B C D
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i iii ii iv
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) i ii iv iii
108. Assertion (A): Immunity to chickenpox is considered as acquired immunity.

Reason (R): Immunity that is inherited from parents is considered as acquired immunity
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(B) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation for A.
(C) A is true and R is false
(D) A is false and R is true
109. Assertion (A): Yeast can be used commercially to produce alcohol

Reason R: Yeast can perform fermentation
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(B) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation for A.
(C) A is true and R is false
(D) A is false and R is true
110. Which one of the following is not a communicable disease?

(A) Cancer (B) Common cold
(C) Malaria (D) Dengue fever

SAMPLE PAPER ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A
5. A 6. B 7. A 8. B
9. D 10. C 11. B 12. C
13. B 14. D 15. A 16. B
17. C 18. D 19. C 20. A
21. B 22. C 23 A 24. C
25. B 26. D 27. C 28. D
29. D 30 C 31. B 32. D
33. C 34. A 35. A 36. D
37. B 38. C 39. A 40. B
41. B 42. B 43. D 44. A
45. B 46. A 47. B 48. C
49. C 50. A 51. D 52. B
53. A 54. B 55. B 56. A
57. D 58. B 59. D 60. C
61. D 62. A 63. C 64. A
65. A 66. B 67. B 68. B
69. A 70. A 71. A 72. B
73. D 74. C 75. B 76. B
77. A 78. A 79. D 80. A
81. C 82. C 83. B 84. C
85. C 86. B 87. A 88. A
89. B 90. A 91. C 92. B
93. C 94. B 95. C 96. C
97. D 98. B 99. A 100. D
101. A 102. D 103. C 104. C
105. A 106. B 107. C 108. C
109. A 110. A

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FIITJEE Big Bang Edge Test - 2023

for students presently in Class VIII (going to IX) (Paper 2)

OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________

For questions 108 to 116

Recommended Time: 55 Minutes for Section – I

1. Pressure at a point in the liquid is :

3. What is Archimedes’ principle. Choose the most appropriate:

4. Which of the following groups of forces could be in equilibrium?

7. Apparent weight of the body of density (  ) when immersed in a liquid of density ( ) is

9. When a body is in equilibrium, its acceleration is

13. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust.

16. H2 gas is evolved when magnesium reacts with

17. The chemicals that have fruity smell are

18. The correct order of electrical conductivity is

19. Chemical formula of Rust

20. The metal which melts at around room temperature is

21. Chemical composition of galena

23. The most abundant element in the universe is

29. The rational number 0 is

32. The sum of two irrational numbers

36. Which of the following statements is false ?

37. What are the important steps in the preparation of soil?

40. Which of the following disease is spread due to bacteria?

42. ________ is used for the production of alcohol and wine.

44. Which one of the following is not a method of food preservation?

45. Rabi crop is harvested in

46. The status of algae in the aquatic food chain is

Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – II

49. The tension in the spring is

50. Static friction force acting on a body is

51. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a rough surface, F = 6

52. The force-time (F – t) curve of a particle executing +2

53. Sulphide ores are generally concentrated by

54. Which of the following statements is/are Correct?

55. Give the constituent of fluorspar

56. Duralumin is made up of

(A) x = 20º, y = 60º (B) x = 30º, y = 70º

61. What helps in the rise of bread or dosa dough?

62. Grains produced at a large scale can be stored in

63. Dried leaves can be used to ___________

64. The agricultural instrument used for removal of weed is

65. The chemical substances rich in nutrients are called

67. Microorganisms are

68. The disease caused by protozoa is

Recommended Time: 40 Minutes for Section – III

(A) Pan A (B) Pan B

(C) T = R + W (D) R = tan

73. Identify the wrong statement.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

81. For making jewellery gold is mixed with

82. Which one of the following is not a petroleum product?

83. Which of the following do not react readily with water?

84. Match the following appropriately.

85. BHC (Benzene hexachloride) is a

88. Which of the following is not used as food preservatives?

90. NPK is an example of

Recommended Time: 40 Minutes for Section – IV

(A) 2.00 N (B) 1.96 N

95. A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L (L  H / 2) . Cross-sectional area A / 5 is immersed such

(A) N3 > N4 (B) N4 = N3

(A) Leftwards, Leftwards (B) Leftwards, Rightwards