Roll No.: a Test Date:| 05-11-2023 C AL WOIA AKASH TEST ‘SERIES ————_——_—_—_ gor ila ta Medical Entrance Exam - 2025 National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) (XI Studying Students) INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES 1. Read each question careful. 2. Its mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to dorkon the ‘appropriate cclein theanswer sheet. 3, Mark should be dark and should completely tthe circle. 4, Rough work must notte done onthe answer sheet. 5. Do not use white-uid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. Nochange inthe answer once markeds allowed. 6. Student cannotuse log lables and calculators orany other material inthe examination hal 7. Before attempting the question papor, student should ensure that the tes! paper contains allpagos and no page s missing. ‘8. Ench correct answor carries four marks. One mark will be deducted fr each incorrect answer from the total score. Bofors handing over the answer sheet to the invigilatr, candidate ‘should chock that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filed and marked corocty Immediately alter the prescribed examination time is over, the ‘answer shoot tobe returned othe iviglator. ‘There aro two secbons in vach subjectie.. Secion-A& Section-B. ‘You hava fo attempt all 38 questions from Section-A & only ‘Ab questions oulot 15 rom Saction-B Note :Itjs compulsory to fil Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answor sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.‘OPICS OF THE TES Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom Cell: The Unit of life, Cell Cycle and Cell division CI Stra! Organisation in Animals: Animal issues ony, BiomoleculesMM : 720 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min. [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer: 7. The number of significant figures in the number SECTION -A 0.000850 « 10°* is, 1. The dimensional formula of u in e" is (where, x is m3 25 distance) @)6 (4)7 (4) (MeLeT9] (2) (MOLT?) 8. Two resistances R: = (100 + 3) and -t SUT Re = (200 + 2) are connected in series. The (leilin olan Sec rrcotatiaof eqoaertessncs ‘area (A), velocity (V) and density (p) are taken as fundamental units, then correct dimensional formula () aopart)a (2) Gooes) 0 of force in terms of A, Vand p is (3) (3005) (4) (300 2) 2 2 9. The radius of a sphere is (5.3 + 0.1) cm. The eve are percentage error in its surface area is (3) Ap (4) AVio 4 tit 3. If P and Q are two physical quantities having (1) 37100 (2) 2x55 100 different dimensional formulae, then which of the - a following quantities can represent a new physical 3) 3.24400 (4) 621.100 ‘quantity? © 3°53 ) 8x53 (1) P-Q (2)P+Q 10. The number of significant zeros present in the (3) 2P- 30 4 P measured value 0.020040, is ee MG (1) Five (2) Two 4. The pair of physical quantities having different (3) One (4) Three dimensions is 11. The value of 30° in radian is (1) Pressure and energy density ae e (2) Torque and work 2 é (3) Momentum and impulse 2 m * (4) Stress and strain 4 Os 5. One nanometre is equal to 12. In an experiment, four quantities a, b,c and d are (1) 10° mm (2) 10% cm measured with percentage errors of 2%. 3%, 1% |) 107 em (4) 10% em and 0.5% respectively. A quantity X is defined as 6. The linear momentum p of a particle is given as a X= ae ‘The maximum percentage error in the function of time t as p= Af + Bt+ C where A, B and cat Gare constants. The dimensions of C are measurement of X will be (1) [MLA T-} (2) ML" T 3} (1) 5% (2) 6% (3) MULT) (4) MLT=] (3) 7% (4) 9% ‘Space for Rough Work Comorate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 01 1-47620456tarts from rest and mo 20. A particle st ; a 13. The velocity ofa particle is given by v= Aw Cos (ot acceleration of 2 mis? Distance traveigy™ m ~ ka) the dimensional formula of kis ‘gn accondils ty (1) (LT) (2) ("7 (1) 16m Go (4) [LoT] 14. te ‘eet ‘of mass 4.237g occupies a volume (2) 9m 1.27 cm®. The density of object to appropriate (3) 7m significant figure is (4) 10m (1) 3.33 gfe? (2) 3.34 giom? 21, Thedsplacementsime graph fortwo pate (3) 3.336 g/cm? (4) 3.2 gic? V, 15. The length and breadth of a rectangular plate are Bis a8 folows. The rato 7* is (where v ng m measured to be 14.5 cm and 4.2 cm respectively. ‘The area of the plate to appropriate significant figure represent instantaneous velocity of A & B) is (1) 60.9 om (2) 60 cme : (3) 61 ome (4) 60.98 cm? E 16. Which among the following is a derived quantity? a (1) Luminous Intensity a (2) Amount of substance (3) Charge ns (4) Electric current 17. Mf in a vernier calliper 10 VSD coincides with (2) B41 MSD, then least count of veer calipers [1 MSD Qin = 1mm) (1) 0.01 mm (2) 0.2mm ()3c4 (3) 0.3mm (4) 0.8mm 72. For a body moving with uniform velocity slong 18. The position ofa particle moving along x-axis is Straight line, the variation of its position (x) with ime given by x = 20 1-4. Then time (t) at which it will (tis best represented by ‘momentarily comes to rest is x x (1)4s 2) 25s (3) 5s (4) 52s 18. IV's the velocity of a body moving along x-axis, (1) ‘ ‘ ‘hen instantaneous acceleration of body is given by : : dv wv ‘ (1) — = (1) a (2) © 3) vou Oe (4) Both (2) and (3) @) ' wf Space for Rough Work Corporate Ofifce: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Deiat 100% 05. Phone: 017-47623456eo) CUT 23, Acceleration-time graph of a particle is given in figure. If it starts the motion at t bok 2) Vat travelled in 1 s will be a) bth a(ms') (3) oe (4) b+ + 28. A particle is thrown with velocity vo in vertically upward direction, then the distance travelled by the 24 Particle in first second of its descent is ; 9 (2) gia | 3 (3) a4 (4) Zero 1 2 ts) 28. The position x of a particle moving along x-axis i 1 varies with time fas x = A sin (wf), where A and o are positive constants. The velocity of a particle 2 varies with time (t) as (yy (2) v=—Acos(at) @)v (4) v= Aa? cos*{ot) tm @ em 30. A particle starts moving from rest along a straight (3) 1m (4) Zero line subjected to uniform acceleration travels 24, Ratio of distance covered by a body to the distance x in frst 4 seconds. The distance travelled magnitude ofits displacement may be by itin next 4 second will be (1) Less than 1 (2) Equal to 1 (1) x (2) 2x (3) Greater than 1 (4) Both (2) and (3) (3) 3x (4) 4x 25, An athlete completes one round of a circular track | 31- A body is falling from height hy it takes 1.732 s to of radius R in 20 s with constant speed. What will be reach the ground. The time it takes to cover the first the magnitude of his displacement at the end of ‘one-third of height is 2 minute 10 second? (1) 05s (2) 0358 (1) Zero (2)2R (3) 1s (4) 12s @) 22k (4) 7xR 32, The position of a body moving in a straight line i i ies with time as x = 3 + 5t, where x is in metre 26, Aparticle moves for 20 s with speed 8 mis and then Ged 7 with speed 5 mis for another 20 s and finally moves. ine) (noscond Tue woloony of te boty with speed 3 mis for the next 20 s. What is the : average speed of particle? (1) 6 ms" @) t1ms* 48 (3) 8ms" (4) 18ms+ (1) Zero @ gm s" 33. Given that v is the speed, ris the radius and g is acceleration due to gravity. Choose among the ® Bn = @ mst tarts relation ft censintea vr v 27. Aball projected vertically upward from the ground is eae Qi at the same height at time ts and fe. The total time : taken by the ball to reach ground is (Neglect air @ Ze v9 resistance]. ¢ ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 011-4762345634. Dimensional analysis gives 38. The: Lea ire (1) No information about valve of dimensionless | straight ne is Chon 8.0 or, whore a ag constants by particle between 2 s and 3 sis Nelleg (2) Information about value of dimensionless = constants 3a, 7B @ $48 Oss 273 (3) Information about value of dimensionless 2 constants only if quantity does not depend upon 3) 30,78 (4) 52, 198 more than three variables. Gg ai 2. a (4) Information about value of dimensionless " of a particle as a function of conatants only f quentty depends only upon | 29: The velocity of time i single variable v 35. Position of a particle moving along a straight line is siven by x= (40 + 27t~ 8) m where tis in seconds. The position of particle when it comes to rest is (1) 27m (2) 30m ts) (3) 94m (4) 54m 22 2 asecTIOns. 36. A scooter accelerates from rest for time ty at constant rate a; and then retards at constant rate a2 ‘The average velocity of the particle during this time for time t2 and eventually comes to rest. The correct interval is. value of 5 will be (1) Zero (2) 25ms* “. (3) 6ms (4) 78ms* 4 ty + ty 2) 4 40. Aball is dropped from a balloon going up at a speed OS Oe of 7 ms“, If the balloon was at height 60 m at the time of dropping the ball, then the time taken by ball @& (a) bth to reach ground is nearly t & (1) 438 (2) 28s 37. An engine of a train, moving with uniform (3) 58s (4) 6s acceleration, passes a signal post with velocity u, its | 41. A ball is thrown vertically upward with velocity of last compartment crosses the same signal post with 120 m 5". If retardation due to air resistance is velocity v. The velocity with which middle point of 2 mis?, then total time taken by ball to reach train passes the signal post is maximum height is (1) 58 2) a @ ies (3) 20s laxv ) o> (4) 158 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: 01147623456,All India Aakash Which of the following variations correctly 42 ‘ represents the object at rest? [Where symbols have | 47~ 4” eauation is given here [P+ | 2 where P their usual meaning) i wy mM i i Pressure, V is volume and 0 is absolute or a temperature. If @ and b are constants then the term t which will have dimensions similar to that of energy is t t @ fa x x “i a (3) (4) (3) (07) (4) Both (2) and (3) 48. Which of the following is not dimensionless? a ni (1) Relative Density 43. Which among the following is a supplementary unit? (2) Universal Gravitational Constant (1) steradian (2) keWvin (3) Refractive Index (3) ampere (4) candela (4) Solid Angle , | 49. Time intervals measured by @ clock gives the 44, The dimensions of af in the equation os following readings: v : 1.255, 1.245, 1.27's, 1.21 sand 1.28 s. Whatis the (ee tree ee ee eee absolute mean error in the observations? (1) MLT"] (2) [M1LST] (1) 0.02 (3) MET (4) IML] (2) 0.05 45. The force due to air resistance is directly (3) 0.06 proportional to velocity. The unit of constant of an proportionality is (4) 04 ; 50. Apassenger train of length 60 m travels at a speed (1) kgs (2) kgs ‘of 80 km/h. Another freight train of length 120 m (3) kgms* (4) kgms? travels at a speed of 30 knv/h. The time taken by the 46. A student measured the diameter of a small steel passenger train to completely cross the freight train ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. when they are moving in the same direction is The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular nearly equal to scale division coincides with 25 divisions above (1) 135 reference level. The correct diameter of ball is 8s (1) 0.521 om (2) 0.525 om @) 188 (3) 0.529 om (4) 0.053 om (4) 20s Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Deli-110008. Phone: 011-4762345651 52. 55, eed [CHEMISTRY] . ) SECTION-A set (3) Statement | is correct but st Which among the following has the highest weight? incorrect. Wi (1) 6.02 * 1023 molecules of H2SO« (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement (2) 0.2.g molecule of Os correct. is (3) 44.8 L CHa (g) at STP 156. Match list | with list II and choose the correct opto, (4) 2 moles of He (g) Listd Lista The volume of CO2 (g) evolved at STP on heating (a) 8g-atoms (i) 3 moles CHsCooy 40 g CaCOs(s) is of hydrogen 4 (1) 8.96 (2) 4.481 (bo) 6g- atoms (ii) 4 moles NHy (3) 13.44L (4) 17.92L of carbon Which of the following pairs does(do) not have the (©) 8g atoms (ii) 2moles CH:OH same number of atoms? (a) 489 Oz and 48g Os (b) 56 g Nz and 17g NHs (©) 16 g CHs and 48 g Os (1) (a) only (2) (a) & (6) only (8) (only (4) (b) and (c) only If the density of 5 M aqueous solution of NaOH is 1.45 g mL-" then molality of the solution will be (1) 4m (2) 35m (3) 3m (4) 45m Given below are two statements Statement I: Both 12 g of carbon and 27 g of Al will have 6.02 x 10% atoms. Statement II: Gram atomic mass of an element contains Avogadro's number of atoms. In the light of above statements choose the correct opt of oxygen (@) 4Q- atoms (jv) 8 moles NHOH of nitrogen (1) (H(i) (OME, (Cv), (BPC) (2) (@H{il), (OCH, (€)-(Wv). (A-CH) 8) (arti, (O)), (OCH), (AO) + (4) Gti, (OY), (CM). (BHO 57. The number of significant figures in 0.00360 is a3 2) 4 (2 @) 5 58. The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a tetra atomic gasis (1) 24 « 102 (2) 6.02 « 107 (3) 24% 108 (4) 36% 10 59, Mass of NaOH that should be added to water ° prepare 250 ml solution of 2M NaOH is (1) Both Statement | and statement II are correct. (1) 309 (2) 409 (2) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect (3) 209 (4) 189 Space for Rough Work TETAS ‘Corporat Je Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: 011-4reaction, 2602 + O2 > 250s. When 1 mole of (1) Both statement | and statement Il are correct 60. Inthe i SOz and t mole of Oz are made to react to (2) Both statement | and statement II are incorrect OTe 3) Statement | is correct (1) 1 mole of SOs will be produced @) — lis but statement II is (2) Allthe oxygen will be consumed rai (3) 0.6 mole of SO2 is remaining (4) seo nt | is incorrect but statement II is (4) 90 x coe — Pees acid is 98% HsS0, | 67 Given below are two statements one is labelled as 61. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric 1204 er by mass and has a density of 1.8 gmL-" Volume of ede (A) end the other is labelled es Reason acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M HzSOs ) solution is Assertion (A): For a multielectron system, energy (1) 222 mL (2) 5.55 mL of 4s orbital is greater than 3d orbital () 7.89 mL. (4) 8.98 mL Reason (R): For multielectron system, an orbital 62, 6.02 10® molecules of urea are present in 100 mL with lower value of (n + 1) has lower energy than the fits solution. The concentration of solution is orbital with higher value of (n + 1). (1) 0.001 M (2) 002m In the light of above statements, choose the most (3) 01M (4) 0.01M appropriate answer from the options given below 63. Mole fraction of solute in 1m aqueous solution is (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (1) 0.0177 (2) 0.177 ‘explanation of (A) (3) 2.33 (4) 03 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 64, Amixture of gases contains Hz and Os in the ratio of correct explanation of (A) 1:2 (whw). The molar ratio of the two gases in the (8) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect ae (4) (A)is incorrect but (R) is correct wast mass 08. Contr towing Stoners 65. When 11.2 litres of He (g) is reacted with 22.4 litres eS ene retionn en of Ce (g), each at STP. The volume of HCI (9) ath formed at STP will be (©) In vacuum, all electromagnetic radiations travel (1) 224 (2) 1.2L at the same speed (8) 44.84 (4) 33.6 (6) Electromagnetic waves require some medium 66. Given below are two statements. tomove Statement I: Two electrons can have the identical The incorrect statement(s) is/are values of three quantum numbers n, | and min an (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (¢) only atom, (8) (b) and (¢) ont 4) Statement I: No two electrons in an atom can have | go ee uansiciowy ah Romy the same set of four quantum numbers, Which orbital notation does not have radial node? In the light of above statements choose the correct (1) n=2,1=0 (2) n=3,1=0 option. @) n=2,1=4 (4) n=3,1=4 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: O11 ATEI345670, n 72, 73, 74, If uncertainties in the measurement of position ane momentum are equal then, uncertainty in measurement of velocity will be a a ft 2m ' * 1 fh 1 fr if 4) aN2e ‘The ratio of the energy of the electron in ground State of hydrogen to the electron in first excited state of Be® is (1) 1:8 (2) 16:1 (3) 2:4 (4) 1:4 ‘The circumference of the 3° Bohr orbit in hydrogen ‘atom is x. The de Broglie wavelength of the electron revolving in this orbit is (1) 3) x x 05 Qs (3) 3x (4) 2 Select the corect statement(s) for (NH)sPO. ‘molecule. (2) Ratio of number of oxygen atoms to number of hydrogen atoms is 1: 3 (b) Ratio of number of cations to number of anions is3:4 (¢) Total number of atoms in one mole of (NHi)3POs is 20. (1) (@) & (b) only (2) (b) & (c) only (3) (2) &(c) only (4) (2), (b) and (c) A compound of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen is {und to contain 40% of carbon, 6.67% of hydrogen and 83.33 % of oxygen. If vapour density of the ‘Compound is 30, then its molecular formula will be 75. 16. 77. 78. 79. The number of protons, Neuttons and electrons : 4©¢q?" ion respectively are a 20, 20, 20 (2) 18,20, 20 (@) 20, 20, 18 (4) 20, 18, 20 Maximum possible electrons in Mn for “icy n+l=4are 8 2) 3 @ 13 (4) 2 The de Broglie wavelength of a ball of mas. 0.2 mg moving with a velocity of 5 m gt 9 [h=6.6 x 10 Js} (1) 6.6 x 10 cm (2) 6.6 10% cm (3) 6.6 x10-%cm (4) 6.6 * 10-8 cm Energy of 2s orbital of which of the given atoms ig minimum? (1) K (2) H (3) Na 4) ui 14 g of NaOH is dissolved in 36 g of HzO, then the mole fractions of NaOH and Hz0 jin the solution respectively are 119 0 Bi ®) 30°20 2 18 120 (3) 20°20 (4) a3 When an electron makes transition from an excited State to ground state of the hydrogen atom gives rise {0 4 spectral lines in visible region. Number of Spectral lines this transition will produce in the infrared region of the spectrum is (1) 3 (2) 2 ee (2) CaHuOe @)6 (8) CatteOs (4) Cettiz05 44 ‘Space for Rough ‘Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower 6. Pusa Road, New Denia 10005. Phone: 011-4 7623456tn which of the following orbital diagrams, Hund Ot iis violated? om (A ef) TUT off) M1) of bla 82. The energy of one mole of photons having frequency 5.01 x 10 Hz is approximately (h=6.6« 10 Js) (1) 180k (2) 200 ks (3) 220kd (4) 160 kd 83. Angular momentum in’3"* Bohr orbit of H-atom is x, then the angular momentum in 2™ excited state of LP ion is (x (2) x x z (ay % @> : (4) a 84, The maximum probability of finding an electron in the dy orbital is (1) Along the y-axis: (2) Along the x-axis (3) Atan angle of 45° from the x and y axes (4) Along the z-axis 85, For Na (Z = 11) set of quantum numbers for last electron could be 87. 89. 90. Es Orbital angular momentum of electron in 3p orbital is (1) Van (2) Ver 3) Vidi (4) Jen The correct order of energy of orbitals for ‘multielectron species is (1) 3d < 4s <5p<6d (2) 4s <3d<5p<6d (3) 3d< 5p <4s< 6d (4) 6d < 5p <4s<3d ‘The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 20 eV and 60 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths ie. 21 and 22 will be [1 and 22 are wavelengths corresponding to E; and Ez respectively] (1) Arde (2) uae (3) Sa1=2he (4) a= ia Mass of CaCOs required to react completely with 400 mL of 1.25 M HCI solution is. (1) 6259 2) 259 (3) 3759 (4) 509 The ratio of radius of the first Bohr orbit of H-atom to the radius of the 4" orbit of Be™ will be (1) 2:3 (2) 3:2 tna eames, @24 (4) 1:4 91. The atomic masses of two elements P and Q are (2) n=3,1=0,m=0, 20 u and 40 u respectively. x gram of P contains b atoms. Then number of atoms present in 2x gram of (3) n=2,1=4,m=0, oe (1) b (2) 2 (4) n=3,122,m=1, @ (4) 3 “Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 011-47623456Chlorophyll, the green-colouring matter of plants responsible for photosynthesis contains 2.68% of Ma by weight. Number of Mg atoms in 2 g of chlorophyll is (1) 1.34 10% 2) 1.78 « 10" (3) 6.02 «10% (4) 2.82 «108 The total number of neutrons present in 7 mg of “C. atoms is (1) 4* 107 Na (2) 3* 103 Na (3) 4% 103 Na (4) 3% 104Na 94. Which among the following concentration terms is temperature dependent? (1) Mole fraction (2) Mass per cent (3) Molality (4) Molarity 95. f Ca(NOs)z sample contains 20 g of nitrogen, then the amount of calcium present in Ca(NOs)2 is (1) 2869 2) 4259 (@) 289 (4) 31.19 96. If50 mL of 0.5 M HaSOs is mixed with 75 mL of 0.25 M HaSOs then resultant concentration of Hons will 98. 5a oF @ EL (ay Sh Res = The ratio ofthe volumes occupied by + moe and 1 mole of O3 at identical conditions of reenact and temperature is me (tet @) 4:2 (3) 2:1 4) 1:3 Which of the following sets of quantum numb ers not possible? : (1) n=4,1= (2) n=3, (3) n=3,1=4,m (4) n=4,1=2,m=0,s be 100. The weight of oxygen required for the complete (1) 01M (2) 07M combustion of 5.6 kg of ethylene (CzHs) is (3) 02M (4) 03M (1) 9kg 97. If the shortest wavelength of H atom in the Lyman (2) 28k9 series is 41 then the longest wavelength in the (3) 19.2kg Balmer series of He* will be (4) 12.8 kg GR O50 SS IOTION sae 101. Presence of which structure in prokaryotes usually makes them resistant against antibiotics? (1) Chromatophore (2) Nucleoid (3) Plasmid (4) Nucleus 102. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. endoplasmic reticulum. [BOTANY] (1) Itdivides the intracellular space into two distinct compartments. Itis a part of the endomembrane system. ‘Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is a major site for lipid synthesis. In prokaryotes, only RER is present but not SER. (2) @) (4) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 011-47623456103.A specialised membranous structure formed by plasma membrane in prokaryotes is (1) Peroxisome (2) Mesosome (3) Spherosome (4) Capsule 404, Select the set of cell organelles which contain RNA. (1) Mitochondria, Ribosomes, Chloroplasts (2) Golgi apparatus, Nucleus, Chloroplasts (3) Mesosomes, Peroxisomes, Nuclei (4) Ribosomes, Lysosomes, Vacuoles 105. Match the following List with List I Lista Lista ‘A, [Sub-metacentric |())_|Has one extremely ‘chromosome short and one very long arm B. |Acrocentric pand q arms are chromosome indistinguishable G.|Telocentrie | (i) | Centromere is slightly chromosome away from the middle | of chromosome D. [Metacentric _|(v) |Ithas terminal [chromosome centromere Choose the correct answer from the options given below. A B c D (1) w wi), (2) (ii) i) Ww @ (3) (w) i) @ @ ai) Ww) 106. A scientist who concluded that the presence of cell wall is a unique character of the plant cell was (1) Matthias Schleiden (2) British Zoologist (3) German Botanist (4) Rudolf Virchow ich to 107. Which surface structure helps bacteria to the rocks in streams and to the host tissues? (1) Cell wall (2) Cilia (3) Fimbriae (4) Flagella 108. What does the polysome consist of? (1) tRNA and Protein (2) Ribosomes and tRNA (3) DNA and Ribosomes (4) Ribosomes and mRNA 109.Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Molecules can pass across the cell membrane both by passive and active transport. Statement Il : In cell membrane, fluidity helps in cell growth, endocytosis, cell division, etc. (1) Only statement | is correct (2) Only statement I! is correct (3) Both statements | and Il are correct (4) Both statements | and Il are incorrect 110. Which cell organelle participates in the formation of secretory vesicles? (1) Mitochondria, (2) Golgi apparatus (8) Lysosomes (4) Vacuoles 111, Select the ribosomal subunits found in bacteria. (1) 608 and 40S (2) 30S and 408 (3) 508 and 30S (4) 60S and 30S 112, Inclusion bodies (1) Are not bound by double membrane system (2) Can store reserve food material only in eukaryotes (3) Do not lie free in cytoplasm (4) Are absent in purple and green photosynthetic bacteria ‘Space for Rough Work Gorporate Office: Kakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: 01 1-47623456ae or Test Series f 113. The organelle which is common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is (1) Also known as power house of the cell (2) Involved in lipid synthesis (3) Composed of nucleic acid and proteins (4) Involved in oxidation of fats 114, Select the incorrect match (1) Cell membrane - Erythrocytes have 52% proteins and 40 % lipids (2) Golgi apparatus— Consists of cristae to increase surface area (3) Mitochondria — Possess single circular DNA and few RNA molecules (4) Chloroplast — Fat-soluble pigments are present 115.1n a transverse section of axoneme of cilium, how many microtubules are observed? (1) 13 29 (3) 27 (4) 20 116. Select the true statement for nucleolus. (1) Its content is continuous with the rest of the cytoplasm. (2) Itis a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis (3) Itis a membrane-bound organelle present in the nucleus (4) Spherical structures present in prokaryotes 1117. The important site of formation of glycoproteins and alycolipids is (1) Vacuole (2) Lysosome (3) Mitochondrion (4) Golgi apparatus 118. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option regarding plasma membrane (A) Head part of the lipids is protected from aqueous environment. cr (B) Phospholipids have non-polar tail of saturated hydrocarbons. (C) Sodium-potassium pump requires energy to transport ions across membrane. (D) The quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of carbohydrate within the overall bilayer. (1) Only statements (A) and (C) are correct (2) Only statements (A) and (D) are correct (3) All statements except (A) are correct (4) Only statements (B) and (C) are correct 119, Proteinaceous filamentous structures of eukaryotic cells which provide mechanical support to the cells is (1) Plasma membrane (2) Cytoskeleton (3) Cell wall (4) Capsule 120.Mark the incorrect statement for the lampbrush chromosomes. (1) They are found in primary oocyte nucle of vertebrates. (2) These are diplotene bivalent chromosomes joined at the certain points. (3) Loops of chromosomes do not participate in transcription. (4) Their main axis is formed by DNA 421, The process of gamete formation does not include (1) Mitosis (2) Fertilisation (8) Cytokinesis (4) Meiosis 4122. At the end of M phase of cell cycle (1) Nuclear envelope around the chromosome disintegrates (2) Chromatids separate {@) Sister chromatids move to opposite poles (4) Cytoplasmic separation occurs ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pus 7 Road. New Delhi-110005. Phone: 011 ATEZSASE‘select the incorrect match from the fol call cycle. (1) Gap 2 phase 128 lowing wert, Doubling of all double membraned structures Centriole duplication Interval between mitosis and DNA synthesis (4) Quiescent stage ~ Cells that exit G; phase 424.The enzyme that is responsible for th variations in daughter cells prod 1 (2) Synthesis phase (3) Gap 1 phase © genetic luced through meiotic division, is active during (1) Metaphase (2) Dipiotene (3) Pachytene (4) Anaphase 1 125.During meiosis, interkinesis is followed by (1) Prophase | (2) Amuch simpler prophase than prophase | (@) The last stage of prophase | (4) The stage preceded by anaphase | 126.At the end of which of the following phases of cell cycle, nuclear envelope disappears? (1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase @) Telophase (4) Prophase 127. Double metaphasic plate is formed during (1) One of the stages of meiosis | (2) Last sub-stage of prophase | (3) Second stage of meiosis I! (4) Second stage of mitosis 128.Match the following columns and choose the correct option. Column | Column t @ Diplotene (i) Coiling of chromatin begins >. Zygotene (ii) Chiasmata become visible © Diakinesis (ii) Nucleolus disappears 4 Leptotene (iv) Synapsis occurs ‘Aakash T a b c é O wi) iy (2) (ii) @ Gi) (vy @ i) Ww Gy @ am © Ww Gi 129. One of the significances of meiosis is (1) Healing and regeneration (2) Growth of multicellular organisms (3) Repairing of wor out cells (4) Introduction of genetic variations 130, For the formation of cell plate in plant cells during cytokinesis, the responsible organelle is (1) Peroxisome (2) Golgi complex (3) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (4) Lysosome 131.Stage where nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear is (1) Anaphase (2) Telophase (3) Prophase (4) Metaphase 132. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement |: Anaphase marks the end of cell division. Statement Il: In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of furrow. (1) Both the statements are correct (2) Both the statements are incorrect (3) Only statement | is correct. (4) Only statement I! is correct 133. syncytium is (1) Anucteus having many chromosomes (2) Acell without nucleus (3) Two cells having a common cell wall (4) A single cell containing large number of nuclei ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Deihi-110005. Phone: 011-47623456134.The best stage to study the morphology of chromosomes is (1) Metaphase (2) Anaphase (@) Telophase (4) Prophase 195. The bivalent of chromosomes is clearly visible as tetrad during which of the folowing stages? (1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene (3) Leptotene (4) Pachytene 8) SECTION-B = 196. The space limited by the inner membrane of the chloroplast is called (1) Stroma (2) Stroma lametta (3) Thylakoid (4) Chlorophyit 137. Read the following statements assertion and reason and choose the correct option, ‘Assertion (A): In plant cells, the concentration of ‘ons is significantly higher in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm, Reason (R): Tonoplast facilitates th fons against the concentration vacuole, (1) Both (A) and (R) are true explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and R are true bi ‘explanation of (A) (3) Only (A) is true but (R) is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false 138. Arrange the followi le transport of gradient in the and (R) is correct ut (R) is not correct ing layers of cell envelope of 139. Choose the incorrect match (1) White blood cells - Amoeboid structure (2) Tracheids = Round and oval (3) Nerve celis - Branched and long (4) Red blood cells — Round and biconcave 140. Which among the following features are true for both mitochondria and chloroplast? ()) Circular dsDNA (ii) Organelles are double membrane bound (ii) Presence of 80S ribosomes (iv) Ability to self duplicate (¥) Can store starch for further metabolism (1) (i, iv)and (v) only (2) All except (ii) (3) (), (i) and (iv) only (4) All except (v) 141. Which layer of cell envelope in prokaryotes prevents them from bursting or collapsing? (1) Capsule (2) Plasma membrane (3) Slime tayer (4) Cell walt 142:Choose the incorrect statement for cilia. (1) They are small structures which work like oars causing movement either the cell or ‘Surrounding fluid (2) The proteinaceous central part of it is called hub, (3) The peripheral doublet bridges. (4) It emerges from the centriole. ts are interconnected by like structure Prokaryotes from outermost to innermost. oo ig P-Plasma membrane, Q-Cell wall R-Glycocalyx | 143 on" Toe ae om alkanes 3 the ()RoPS . —o : (1) Have only 80S type of ribosomes ae > : (2) Can have plasmid along with nucleoid we + (3) Have double membrane-bound organelles )RIQ4p (4) Contain genetic material Space for Rough Work Comorate Ofce: hakash Tower. 8, Pusa Road, New Doni 10005. Phone: 011-47623456a choose te Incorrectly matched pair among the (1) Anton Von — First one to observe a live Leeuwenhoek cell (2) Robert Brown — Given the name chromatin to the materials of the nucleus (3) George Palade - Observed the organelles which are present within other organelles (4) Rudolf Virchow — Modified cell theory 445, Select the set of structures in which microtubules are present? (1) Nucleosome, Chromatin, Nucleus (2) Spindle fibres, Cilia and Centriole (3) Cilia, Chromatin, Peroxisomes (4) Microbody, Spindle fibers, Centrosome 146. Which of the following processes occur during the stage between Meiosis | and Meiosis !!? (a) RNA synthesis (b) DNA synthesis (c) Chromosome duplication (4) Protein synthesis ‘The correct ones are (1) (a), (b), (c) and (4) (3) (b) and (c) only (2) (a) and (a) only (4) (b) and (d) only [ZOOLOGY] ‘SECTION -A 151. The most abundant and widel present in humans is (1) Epithelial tissue ly distributed tissue (2) Connective tissue (4) Neural tissue 147.1f a coll takes 600 minutes to complete cell cycle, approximately, what time would it take to complete karyokinesis and cytokinesis? (1) Nine and half hours. (2) Two hours (3) Half an hour or less (4) One hour 148. The stage of cell cycle in which spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes also characterized by (1) Lying of chromosomes at the equator (2) Uncoiling of chromosomes (3) Synthesis of nuclear membrane (4) Reappearance of nucleolus 4149. For the formation of 120 seeds in an angiospermic plant, the number of meiotic divisions required is (1) 120 (2) 30 (3) 60 (4) 150 4150. Arrange the following events that occur during cell division in correct order and choose the option accordingly. (\) Identity of chromosomes is lost as discrete elements. (1!) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator. (lll) Centrosome radiates out microtubules. (1V)Centromeres split and chromatids separate. (4), IY), (HD, (2) (tity, (H), (IV), (0) (3) @), (Y), (0), (H) (4) catty, (1). (IV) (1) Make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue in our body. (2) Provides protection to the neurons. (3) They have the ability to respond to the stimuli. (3) Muscular tissue s 1 jorrect for '52.Which among the following is not c (4) They are nor-exctable cals neuroglial cells? “Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 017-4762345613, Extracellular matrix of which of the following tissues does not contain collagen fibres? (1) Areolartissue (2) Blood () Adipose tissue (4) Bone 154. Which of the following tissues helps in control and coordination of body organs? (1) Neural tissue (2) Muscular tissue (3) Connective tissue (4) Epithelial tissue 185A six carbon compound with an aldehyde group attached to it among the following is (1) Glycine (2) Glucose @) Ribose (4) Glycerol 156. All ofthe following are polymers, except (1) Nucleic acids (2) Glycogen (8) Proteins (4) Lipids '87-A substituted methane among the folowing is (1) Adenine (2) Starch (3) Alanine (4) Fructose 188. Select the odd one wrt, biomolecules present in acid-soluble pool (1) Amino acids (2) Ribose (3) Nucleotides (4) Polysaccharides, (1) cop (2) Ho (3) NH (4) Cotti206 160.All of the following nitrogenous coy mn Present ina DNA molecule, except ns® T° (1) Guanine (2) Cytosine (3) Uracit ‘Space for Rough Work 161. Exoskeletons of arthropods have (1) Complex polysaccharides (2) Heteropolysaccharides (3) Polynucleotides (4) Glycolipids 162. The blood concentration of glucose in a normal healthy individual is (1) 35-4.0 mmol (2) 4.2- 6.1 mmol (3) 65-7.5 mmol (4) 8.5 - 10 mmol 163. Catalytic activity is lost when the is removed from the enzyme. Select the option to fill the blank correctly, (1) Malonate (2) Co-factor (3) Holoenzyme (4) Inhibitor 164, The pitch of a double stranded B-DNA is (1) 34 (2)34A (3) 404 (4) 0.34 165. The function of ciliated epithelium is (1) To provide protection against chemical stresses (2) Secretion and absorption (3) To move particles or direction (4) To facilitate diffusion acro: 166. Smooth muscle fibres as they Mucus in a specific 8S alveolar membrane fibres differ from skeletal muscle (1) Lack intercalated discs (2) Are branched (3) Are non-striated in appearance (4) Are voluntary in nature (4) Striated, uninu168. The coll junction that helps to stop substances from jeaking across a tissue is (1) Gap junction (2) Tight junction (3) Adhering junction (4) Neuromuscular junction 4e9.Select the incorrect statement about muscular tissue. (1) Smooth muscle fibres are present in the wall of stomach (2) Skeletal muscle fibres are multinucleated and voluntary. (3) The wall of blood vessels has cylindrical shaped voluntary muscle fibres. (4) Muscles of limbs found attached with bones are voluntary in nature. 470. Consider the following reaction xy 6-65x-Y+0=¢ ‘The enzymes catalysing the above reaction belong tothe °X’ category of enzymes. Select the correct option for x’ (1) Hydrolases (2) Ligases (3) Transferases (4) Lyases 171. elect the correct match. = |Duets of salivary] [(1) [Squamous glands | epithelium (2) |Areotar tissue | — | Ligaments _| () [Dense regular |- | Tendons ee | (1) Itis located mainly beneath the skin (2) The cells of this tissue are specialized to store fats. (3) Itis a type of loose connective tissue. (4) Fibroblasts are absent in this tissue. 173, Read the following statements carefully and s the correct option ‘Statement A: The connective tissue fi strength, elasticity and flexibility to the tissue. Statement B: In dense irregular connective tissue. collagen fibres are present in rows between parallel undies of fibres. (1) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) Statement A is incorrect while statement B is correct (3) Only statement B is incorrect (4) Both statements A and B are correct 174, Complete the analogy by selecting the correct elect ibres provide option. Bones : Osteocytes : Chondrocytes (1) Blood (2) Cartlages (3) Tendons (4) Ligaments 175. Which of the following statements is not correct wart. loose connective tissue? (1) It has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semi-fluid ground substance. (2) It serves as a support framework for epithelium. (3) It does not contain macrophages and mast cells. (4) Fibroblasts produce and secrete fibres. 176. Choose the incorrect option w..r.t. bones. (1) Examples of dense irregular connective tissue (2) Provide structural framework to the body (4) |Bones 7 ioe ea oaomre Oe nc of (4) Limb bones serve weight-beering functions ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Deli-110005, Phone: 011-47625456177. Dense connective tissues are grouped into dense regular and dense irregular connective tissue. This categorization is based on (1) Formation of fibres 182, Select an acidic amino acid among the folowing (1) Lysine (2) Palmitic acid (3) Glutamic acid (4) Valine 183. Select the mismatch w.r.t secondary metabolites, (2) Orientation of fibres | Abrin and ricin =| Toxins (3) Number of fibres Morphine and codeine || Alkaloids (4) Striations of fibres aes Pal 4 178. How many functions mentioned in the box below are | Rubbersn ame |e barely Performed by epithelial tissue? _ a _ Diflusion, Secretion, Absorption, Protection (4) [Concanavalin || Plament (1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) Zero 178. Choose the odd one w.rt. nucleosides. (1) Thymidine (2) Guanosine (3) Cytosine (4) Adenosine 160. Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option. Statement A: During a catalysed reaction, ES complex formed is highly reactive. Statement B: The difference in average energy Content of substrate from that of the transition state is called activation energy. (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement B is incorrect (4) Only statement A is incorrect Choose the correct statement. (1) Deoxyribose is a hexose sugar. (2) Fructose is the monomeric unit of chitin. (3) Molecular formula of ribose and fructose is same. (4) Adenine is a substituted purine 181 184.All of the following are aromatic amino acids, except (1) Tyrosine (2) Phenylalanine (3) Serine (4) Tryptophan 185. Read the given statements carefully w.r-. B-DNA. a. The two strands of polynuclectides are antiparallel. b. A.and T of one strand compulsorily base pairs with G and C of other strand respectively. ©. There are two hydrogen bonds between A and G and three between T and C. Select the option with incorrect statement(s) only. (1) (@) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (2), (b) and (c) SECTION-B 186. Al ofthe following are not fatty acids, except (1) Arachidonic acid (2) Adenylic acia (3) Cytidylic acid (4) Uridylic acia ‘Space for Rough Work“a7. Select @ NOM-PFOIBINACEOUS enzyme a following, (1) Nuclease (2) Ribozyme (9) Trypsin (4) Lysozyme 188,Aheteropolymer among the following is (1) Chitin (2) Glycogen (3) Collagen (4) Starch mong the 489.4 triglyceride molecule contains (1) Three fatty acids and one glycerol (2) Two fatty acids and two glycerols (3) Three fatty acids and two glycerols (4) One fatty acid and three glycerols 190.Which of the following representations is correct wart. enzymes? (1) Co-enzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme (2) Holoenzyme = Co-enzyme + Co-factor (3) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Co-enzyme (4) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Co-enzyme 191. Identify the labelled parts of the diagram given below and select the correct option. (1) Ais fibroblast (2) Dis mast cell (3) Bis collagen fibres (4) Cis macrophage 192. The moist surface of buccal cavity and the dry Surface of the skin possesses which of the following type of epithelium? (1) Squamous epithelium (2) Cuboidal epithelium (3) Glandular epithelium (4) Compound epithelium 193. Assertion (A) : Bones have a hard and non-pliable Ground substance. Reason (R): Matrix of bones is rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres. In the light of above statements, select the correct option. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)is true, but (R) is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false 194. Choose the option which includes all the tissues belonging to the same category. (1) Blood, bone and neuroglia (2) Bone, cartilage and Niss's granules (8) Blood, bone and cartilage (4) Cuboidal epithelium, ligament and tendon 195.Select the incorrect statement w.rt. chemical conversions, (1) Potential energy of products in an exothermic reaction is lower than that of substrate. (2) Formation of ES complex is an obligatory step. (3) The intermediate altered structural states between substrate and product are stable. (4) Substrate has to go through a transition state for an exothermic or endothermic reaction ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 017-47623456DE Baad 196.Match column | with column il and choose the correct option. Column 1 ‘Column Il a. |Fallopiantubes |i) | Glandular epithelium b. [Ducts of glands |(i)_ | Squamous epithelium ©. |Airsacs of lungs | (ii) |Ciliated epithelium 4. | Goblet cetis (iv) |Cuboidar epithelium (1) aii), bev), ein, 4) (2) af, BAD, c(t, av) (3) ati), BG), ctv, ai) (4) (iv), bfi), efi), aii) 197. Assertion (A): Nucleotides serve as building blocks of nucleic acids. Reason (R): A nucleotide consists of nucleoside linked to phosphate group by phosphodiester bond. In the light of above statements, select the correct option. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) Is the Correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the Correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)is true, but (R) is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false iz 198, Read the following statements carefully an the correct option. ids are generally water solutye 1 choos Statement I: Statement Il: Lecithin is a simple lipid pre; cell wall of plants. (1) Both statements | and Il are correct SENtin the (2) Both statements | and Il are incorrect (8) Only statement | is incorrect (4) Only statement I! is incorrect 199. ll the following statements are correct, except (1) Arachidonic actd has 20 carbon atoms incl luding the carboxyl carbon. (2) Palmitic acid has 18 carbon atoms excluding carboxyl carbon. (3) Gingelly oll have higher melting point than fats, (4) Inulin is a polymer of fructose. 200. Select the correct statement w.r.t. biomolecules, (1) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked together by glycosidic bonds, (2) GLUT-4 enables glucose transport into cells, (3) Insulin and trypsin are protein hormones secreted by pancreas, (4) Essential oils lke lemon grass oils are primary metabolites a ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: ‘Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dancy 110005. Phone: 011-47623456