‫كلية الملكة نور الفنية للطيران المدني‬

Aircraft maintenance engineering

Question bank

Prepared by

engineer Khaled al fawaeer

Captain Raed IqtAit

1- Which of the following is 1 Amp?.
a- 1000 mA.
b- 1000 kA.
c- 1000 μA.
d- 100PA

2- The term that describes the combined resistive forces in an AC circuit is.
a- resistance.
b- impedance.
b- total resistance.
c- reactance

3- Ohm's law states that:.

a- e.m.f. = current divided by resistance.
b- current = e.m.f. divided by resistance.
c- resistance = current divided by e.m.f.
d- power= current divided by voltage

4- In conventional current flow, what is Fleming's right hand rule used for?.
a- Generators.
b- Motors.
c- Inductors.
d- capacitors

5- An electric current is a flow of.

a- electrons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area.
b- electrons from a negatively charged area to a positively charged area.
c- protons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area.
d- protons from a negatively charged area to appositively charged area.
6- Kirchhoff's law states.
a- the algebraic sum of all the currents leaving a series of components will be
Infinity
b- the algebraic sum of the potential differences in any loop must be equal to
zero as: ΣV = 0.
c- the algebraic sum of all the currents entering or leaving a series of components
will in negative value
d- None of the above

7- The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating current is called:

a- inductive reactance.
b- impedance.
c- reluctance.
d- capacitive reactance

8- XL is the symbol of.

a- inductive reactance.
b- capacitive reactance.
c- impedance.
d- resistance

9- Using Ohm's law.

a- current is directly proportional to the resistance.
b- current is directly proportional to the EMF.
c- resistance is directly proportional to EMF.
d- current is inversly proportional to EMF.
10-Kirchhoff’s law is applicable to.

a- parallel networks.
b- series networks.
c- closed loop networks.
d- open loop networks.

11-Thermocouple harnesses are made from the same materials as the

thermocouple

a- mini junctions are not formed.

b- the resistance is not increased beyond limits.
c- they will not corrode.
d- they will corrode.

12-A piezoelectric device generates electricity through.

a- friction.
b- light.
c- pressure.
d- Thermal

13-The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the conductor in the
field

a- 0.3 V.
b- 7.5 V.
c- 30 V.
d- 15V.
 14-A 20 cell battery with each cell having an internal resistance of 0.1 ohms is
charged

a- 0.5 volts.
b- 10.5 volts.
c- 0.005 volts.
d- 10 volts

15- A battery rated at 40 Ah will supply 200 mA for.

a- 200 hours.
b- 20 hours.
c- 5 hours
d- 25 hours

16-When checking the SG of the electrolyte in a lead acid battery, you should.

a- check any cell because they will all be the same.

b- check only the no. 1 cell because it is the master cell.
c- check all cells because they may be different.
d- check two cells because they may be different.

17-Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel-

cadmium

a- A high internal resistance condition.

b- High current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity.
c- Excessive current draw from the battery.
d- low current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity.
18-The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the conductor in
the field.

a- 0.3 V.
b- 7.5 V. `
c- 30 V.
d- 15V.

19-The maximum output voltage from a basic single loop generator is when the
loop is

a- rotating anti-clockwise relative to the direction of the magnetic flux.

b- cutting maximum lines of magnetic flux.
c- at 45o to the magnetic flux.
d- at 90o to the magnetic flux.

20-A 20 cell battery with each cell having an internal resistance of 0.1 ohms is
charged

a- 0.5 volts.
b- 10.5 volts.
c- 0.005 volts.
d- 10 volts

21-When checking the SG of the electrolyte in a lead acid battery, you should.

a- check any cell because they will all be the same.

b- check only the no. 1 cell because it is the master cell.
c- check all cells because they may be different.
d- check two cells because they may be different.
23-What part of a battery is covered in hydrogen during polarization?.

a- Anode.
b- Both the anode and the cathode.
c- Cathode.
d- diode

24-Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel-

cadmium

a- A high internal resistance condition.

b- High current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its
capacity.
c- Excessive current draw from the battery.
d- low current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity.

25-If the voltage across a resistor is doubled.

a- the current is doubled.

b- the current is halved.
c- the resistance is halved.
d- the current is tripled.

26-The voltage in a series circuit.

a- is different in each component.

b- is the same in each component.
c- is less than it would be in a parallel circuit.
d- is doubled in each component
27-Two resistors are connected in series and have an e.m.f. of V volts across
them. If

a- V2 = V1 + V.
b- V1 = V2 + V.
c- V = V1 + V2.
d- V= V2 - V1

28-When drilling stainless steel, use a.

a- drill ground to 120 °, slow cutting speed.

b- drill ground to 90 °, fast cutting speed.
c- drill ground to 90 °, slow cutting speed.
d- drill ground to 80 °, slow cutting speed.

29-How is a material galvanized?.

a- Sprayed with nickel solution.

b- Packed in a drum containing zinc dust and heated.
c- Dipped in a bath of molten zinc.
d- Dipped in a bath of molten tin

30-What temperature would steel be tempered at?.

a- At the annealing temperature.

b- Above the annealing temperature.
c- At any temperature
d- Below the annealing temperature.
31-The addition of chromium to steel will produce.

a- toughness.
b- hardness.
c- ductility.
d- softness

32-Chromium added to plain carbon steel.

a- increases it's resistance to corrosion.

b- turns it into a non-ferrous alloy.
c- makes the metal softer.
d- makes the metal more brittle.

33-Medium carbon steels have a carbon content of.

a-0.3 - 0.5 %.
b- 0.5 - 0.8 %.
c- 0.8 - 1.05 %.
d- 2.3 - 4.5 %.

34-A ferrous metal contains.

a- aluminum.
b- copper
c- magnesium.
d- iron.
35-Austenitic stainless steels are

a- magnetic.
b- non-magnetic.
c- hardened by heat treatment.
d- soften by heat treatment

36-Tempering steel gives.

a- Greater brittleness.
b- Greater hardness.
c- Relief of internal stress after hardening.
d- Greater weakness

37-Nitriding is.

a- Tempering.
b- Anodizing.
c- Case hardening
d- A ferrous of metal

38-With respect to ferrous metals which of the following is true?

a- Iron is not any element of ferrous metals.

b- Iron is a main element and most ferrous metal are magnetic
c- Iron is a main element and ferrous metals are not magnetic.
d- Iron is auxiliary element.
39-The formation of steel depends upon.

a- The formation of pearlite into austenite

b- The formation of austenite into pearlite.
c- The presence of pearlite in the structure
d- The formation of sulphate into austenite

40-How is residual magnetism removed after an NDT examination?.

a- EMI.
b- EMC.
c- Degaussing.
d- Earthing

41-When normalizing, the material is.

a- Quenched immediately.
b- Left to cool in room temperature
c- Cooled slowly
d- Cooling by liquid Left to cool in room temperature

42-Exhaust systems are usually made from stainless steel which is

susceptible to.
a- Surface corrosion.
b- Filiform corrosion
c- Intergranular corrosion.
d- Wax crayon
 43-If a steel component is operated below the fatigue limit. The fatigue life is.

a- Finite.
b- Infinite.
c- Depend on its proof stress
d- For limiting period

44- A low carbon steel would normally be case hardened using.

a- The Nitriding process

b- Flame or induction hardening.
c- Pack or gas carburizing
d- Splitting & lengthen

45- After a product has been manufactured and all heat treatment has been
carried out the stress remaining if any is termed as.
a- Residual stress.
b- Working stress.
c- Applied stress.
d- Time stress

46- When a low carbon steel bolt is stretched beyond its elastic limit without
breaking, it will:
a- Deform temporarily
b- Become more ductile.
c- Deform permanently.
d- Become elastic.
47- 1% Nickel, 1% Carbon, steel is widely used for.
a- Exhaust valves
b- Ball and roller bearings.
c- High tensile steel bolts.
d- High tensile steel washer

48- During a Rockwell Hardness test, what dimension is measured?.

a- The diameter of the indent
b- The depth of the indent.
c- The diameter and depth of the indent
d- The outer diminution only.

49- In the tensile strength test.

a- The material is pulled to limit of elasticity
b- The material is pulled to until it breaks
c- The material is pulled until it reaches its UTS
d- The material is pulled until it have crack.

50- The ability of mild steel to accept more load after the yield point is reached is
due to.
a- Necking.
b- Strain hardening.
c- Plasticisation
d- Flexibility.

51- What is a fusible material?

a- The ability of two dissimilar metals to melt together
b- The ability of a metal to melt.
c- The ability of a metal to be welded
d- The ability of a metal to be harder.
52- Brittleness is.
a- The property to resist wear
b- The property to resist corrosion
c- The property to resist deformation
d- The property to not deform before cracking

53- Young's Modulus is a measure of.

a- strain.
b- stress.
c- stiffness.
d- Melting.

54- Hooke's law states that, within the elastic region, elastic strain is.
a- Directly proportional to stress.
b- Indirectly proportional to stress
c- Directly opposite to stress
d- Indirectly proportional to Stiffness.

55- The value of stress for a given material can be derived by.
a- Cross sectional area / Load.
b- Load X Cross sectional area
c- Load / Cross sectional area.
d- Load X length.

56- Adhesives containing phenol-formaldehyde, to cure, requires.

a- Room temperature.
b- High temperature.
c- Low temperature
d- Cold temperature
57- Two parts of the adhesive process are.
a- Wetting and gripping
b- Spreading and setting
c- Wetting and setting
d- Wetting and warming

58- What material would be used where a high temperature application is

required, e.g. a firewall?
a- Aramid (Kevlar) fibers
b- Carbon/graphite fibers
c- Ceramic fibers
d- Cobalt fibers
59- Over extended honeycomb can bend in which direction?
a- In all directions
b- Across the ribbon
c- Fixed in the ribbon
d- Along the ribbon

60- Fibre weave strength is greatest in the direction of the

a- Weft
b- Warp.
c- Bias
d- Angele

61- Which of these core materials will be used in the making of a composite
material flat panel?
a- Hexagonal core.
b- Rectangular core.
c- Flexible core
d- Circular core
62- Which of the following could best be manufactured from Perspex panel?
a- A passenger window
b- A radome
c- A cockpit windscreen
d- A passenger sitting.

63- Kevlar and Nomex are types of.

a- Glass fiber composite
b- Advanced composite
c- Aluminum alloy
d- Carbon/graphite fibers

64- Sound is best absorbed by a material which is.

a- Dense
b- Soft and porous
c- Hard.
d- Middle hard.

65- The maximum tensile strength of fibre reinforced plastic is achieved using.
a- Fibres uniformly distributed at 45 degrees to each other
b- Chopped strand mat
c- Unidirectional fibres.
d- Fibres uniformly distributed at 15 degrees to each other.

66- A thermoplastic can be

a- Heated and formed only once
b- Is not affected by even low temperatures
c- Can be reheated and reformed more than once.
d- Heated and formed in cold.
67- Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern
aircraft because this type of construction.
a- May be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the inner core material with
thermoplastic resin
b- Is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion
resistant
c- Has a high strength to weight ratio
d- Has a low strength to weight ratio .

68- The classification of high tensile strength fibreglass used in aircraft

structures is.
a- G-glass.
b- E-glass
c- S-glass
d- A-glass.

69- Which is the identifying characteristic of acrylic plastics?

a- Acetone will soften the plastic, but will not change its color.
b- Has a yellowish tint when viewed from the edge.
c- Has a reddish tint when viewed from the edge.
d- Zinc chloride will have no effect.

70- The classification for fiberglass reinforcement material that is high resistivity
and the most common is:
a- E-glass
b- S-glass
c- G-glass.
d- A-glass
71- Which of the following is susceptible to the ingress of moisture?
a- Kevlar.
b- Carbon fibre.
c- Glass fibre
d- Plastic fiber

72- What tests are done on adhesive joints?

a- Shear and peel
b- Impact and peel
c- Impact and shear
d- Impact and past.

73- What is the effect of heat on a cold cure resin?

a- No effect on pot life
b- Decrease pot life
c- Increase pot life.
d- Impact and shear.

74- If you increase the amount of catalyst in a resin mixture

a- The material will become stronger
b- The material will become weaker
c- The material will be melt
d- The pot life will be decreased

75- What two components of a three part polyester resin are dangerous to mix
together directly?
a- Accelerator and free catalyst
b- Catalyst and resin
c- Accelerator and resin
d- Accelerator and glass
76- An air driven router is used to remove honeycomb material for repairs.
a- When one outer skin is installing .
b- To stainless steel honeycomb only.
c- When both outer skins are damaged.
d- When one outer skin is damaged.

77- Where would you use a Templestick?.

a- For the boundary marking of a composite repair.
b- To indicate temperature when a repaired composite item is cured with heat
lamps.
c- As a temporary repair in a glass fibre internal.
d- As a temporary repair in a glass fibre external.

78- What do you do if you forget to add hardener to a composite repair?

a- Add hardener at the edges and it will cure.
b- It will cure eventually anyway.
c- Remove all resin and start again.
d- It will be without effect.

79- When using a backing former on a composite repair you need to use.
a- A vacuum bag.
b- Cellophane
c- Breather cloth.
d- Synthetic material.

80- During vacuum bag lay-up the vacuum gauge is placed where?
a- Next to the vacuum port.
b- Under the vacuum port .
c- Over the repair.
d- Opposite side to the vacuum port.
81- Maximum repair dimensions for use of microballoons is.
a- 10mm.
b- 20mm
c- 30mm.
d- 0mm.

82- In an autoclave what would you cover the repair in?

a- High temp nylon
b- Polypropylenes.
c- Polythene.
d- Cellophane.

83- In an autoclave, to apply pressure.

a- A vacuum bag is used.
b- Weights are used
c- Clamps are used.
d- Breather cloth

84- Honeycomb for repair can be removed with.

a- A drill
b- Locally manufactured concave knife
c- A router.
d- Soft cutter A router.

85- Thermosetting adhesive, during their curing cycle give off

a- Static radiation
b- Heat.
c- Carbon monoxide
d- Stable effect
86- When drilling a carbon fibre reinforced plastic use.
a- A steel drill and carbarundum powder
b- A tungsten drill with a pointed tip.
c- A tungsten carbide drill.
d- A steel drill and wax.

87- When laying up a glass fibre repair, the extra layer of fibre is.
a- sacrificial layer for sanding.
b- For extra strength
c- For shrinkage
d- All of the above

88- When the temperature increases on a hot bond repair is paused it is known
as.
a- Arrest point
b- Ramping down
c- Ramping up
d- Saturation point.

89- The maximum length of time a component is held in stores is known as the.
a- Package life.
b- Storage life
c- Shelf life.
d- Holding life.

90- Hot bond composite pane has a crack. When it reaches the ribbon it will.
a- Carry on along the ribbon
b- Have no effect on its direction
c- Be with soled way
d- Stop.
91- What is the separation of an aramid panel layers described as?.
a- Delaminating.
b- Debonding.
c- Detachmen
d- Pulling .

92- Which product is a serious health hazard when handling?

a- Ceramic.
b- Asbestos.
c- Glass fibre
d- Plastic.

93- Aircraft transparent plastics are cleaned using.

a- Warm soapy water,
b- rinsed and dried
c- Paraffin and soft cotton pad.
d- Clean dry soft leather.

94- Which methods can be used to inspect fiberglass/honeycomb structures for

entrapped water?
a- Acoustic emission and X-ray.
b- X-ray and back-lighting
c- Acoustic emission and back-lighting
d- Acoustic emission and visual seen.
95- What reference tool is used to determine how the fibre is to be oriented for a
particular ply or fabric?
a- Bias clock
b- Weft clock.
c- Warp clock
d- Twist clock

96- What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to
absorb excess resin during curing called
a- Breather
b- Bleeder.
c- Release.
d- Cutting.

97- When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually acceptable for
machining composite laminates?
a- Water soluble oil.
b- Water only.
c- Water displacing oil
d- Oil liquid

98- Fiberglass laminate damage not exceeding the first layer or ply can be
repaired by.
a- Filling with putty consisting of compatible resin and clean, short glass fibres.
b- Sanding the damaged are until aerodynamically smooth
c- Trimming the rough edges and sealing with paint.
d- A and B.
99- With what would you check the bonded joints of a wooden aircraft structure?
a- A feeler gauge
b- A plastic strip.
c- A screwdriver
d- Bias clock.

100- The defects not allowed at all on wooden structures are.

a- Mineral streaks
b- Pitch pockets.
c- Sharp edges
d- Checks, shakes and splits.

101- The basic structure of an aircraft made of wood can be

a- Monocoque.
b- Non-monocoque.
c- Painted structure.
d- Non-monocoque, monocoque, semi-monocoque.

102- Except where specified by the manufacturer, a wooden spar may be

spliced.
a- no point
b- At any point except under the wing attachment fittings
c- At any point
d- At limited space.

103- Replacement of a wooden spar is

a- Only permitted by the manufacturer
b- A minor repair
c- A major repair
d- By engineer.
104- A crack is found in a wooden spar, you.
a- Must replace the spar section.
b- Might be able to repair the spar
c- Must replace the entire spar
d- Leave until time to replace.

105- Wood sealants used on wooden aircraft structures are for.

a- Helping to prevent wood cracking
b- Improving aerodynamic efficiency.
c- Reducing the requirement for sanding
d- Complete the shape

106- A splayed patch repair may be used on plywood damage which does not
exceed.
a- 20 times the skin thickness
b- 15 times the skin thickness
c- 10 times the skin thickness
d- 25 times the skin thickness

107- The standard wood type for aircraft wood structures is

a- Spruce.
b- Douglas fir.
c- Pine.
d- Any wood type.

108- Compression wood.

a- Is a hard-wood.
b- Should be rejected
c- Is preferred because of its superior strength qualities
d- Treatment with care.
109- From the following list of metals, which is most cathodic?
a- Nickel.
b- Magnesium
c- Stainless steel
d- copper

110- Intergrannular corrosion is caused by.

a- improperly assembled components.
b- improper heat treatment
c- dissimilar metal contact
d- lectrons transfer.

111- Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result of.

a- contact between two unlike metal
b- excessive anodization
c- improper heat treatment
d- the wrong quenching agent

112- Corrosion may be regarded as the destruction of metal by.

a- Excessive anodization
b- Hydroelectric action.
c- Electromechanical action.
d- Electrochemical action.

113- Exfoliation corrosion is sometimes referred to as.

a- layer corrosion
b- filiform corrosion
c- sub-surface corrosion
d- surface corrosion
114- When dissimilar metals are brought together, or the same metal in different
states, one metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which will
suffer from corrosion?.
a- Both will corrode equally
b- The cathode
c- The anode
d- None of them will corrode.

115- Which of these is a common cause of corrosion?.

a- Water in fuel
b- Spilled battery acid
c- Untreated metal
d- coated metal

116- Chemical attack is a direct result of.

a- intergranular corrosion
b- cathodic & anodic changes in the material
c- filiform corrosion
d- oxidation

117- Galvanic corrosion is caused by

a- incorrect heat treatments or incorrect alloying
b- cyclic stressing and a decrease in cross sectional area.
c- the joining of 2 dissimilar metals
d- metal under continuous loading.
 118- Corrosion control begins at the
a- production stage
b- manufacturing stage
c- design stage
d- after production stage.

119- Multi-start threads ;

a- increase the lead and decrease the pitch.
b- increase the lead without increasing the pitch
c- increase the lead and the pitch
d- the lead and the pitch same size.

120- Colour identification of an aluminium rivet is:

a- black
b- violet
c- green.
d- white

121- For a wire insert thread repair, the hole is tapped using:
a- the same size
b- a special tap supplied with the kit
c- the next size up
d- smaller size.

122- An (AN) steel bolt is identified by what marking on the head?.

a- dash
b- 14E.
c- An 'x'
d- a raised ring on the head.
123- A blind fastener described as external sleeve and internally threaded would
be.
a- a cherry lock
b- a rivnut
c- a jo bolt.
d- steel bolt .

124- What is meant by the term Pitch Ratio?

a- The area of contact between the two sheets of metal when joining by rivets
b- The distance between the hole and the edge of the material
c- The distance between two holes
d- The distance of rivet head

125- The length of solid rivets is in graduations of:

a- 1/16 inch
b- 1/8 inch
c- 1/4 inch
d- 1/32 inch

126- If a sheet of aluminium alloy of 0.032 and 0.064 is to be joined together the
rivet should be:
a- 0.032 plus 2D
b- 0.096 plus 1.5 D
c- 0.064 plus 1D
d- 0.164 plus 1D
127- Countersunk rivets have two angles of countersink, these are.
a- 100 - 115 degrees
b- 125 - 135 degrees
c- 100 -160 degrees
d- 70 -90 degrees.

128- What material is suitable for riveting steel?.

a- Aluminium alloy
b- Monel
c- Copper
d- Mild Steel

129- Most rivets used in aircraft construction have

a- a raised dot
b- dimples.
c- smooth heads without markings
d- a raised dash

130- The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivets are :

a- 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch long
b- 1/2 inch in diameter and 4/32 inch long
c- 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long
d- 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long.

131- How are flexible hoses categorised?.

a- By maximum pressure
b- By diameter
c- By length out
d- side thickness.
132- What are the rigid pipes on gas turbine engines made from?
a- Stainless steel
b- Aluminium alloy
c- Copper
d- chromium

133- How would you test a hydraulic hose?.

a- Pressure test 2.0 * working pressure
b- Pressure test 0.5 * working pressure
c- Pressure test 1.0 * working pressure
d- Pressure test 1.5 * working pressure

134- A pipe carrying lubricant would be identified by the colour.

a- white
b- yellow
c- white and yellow
d- green .

135- Which material is a hydraulic fluid hose made from?.

a- Rubber
b- Butyl
c- Teflon
d- Neoprene.

136- MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid O-rings are identified with a

a- blue dot.
b- yellow dot
c- yellow and white dot
d- red dot
137- An aircraft pipe has a number stamped on it. It is the:
a- fluid it is carrying
b- aircraft system
c- serial number
d- pipe size

138- A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation
because, when under pressure, it:
a- expands in length and contracts in diameter
b- contracts in length and expands in diameter
c- expands in length and diameter
d- contracts in length and contracts in diameter.

139- Flexible lines must be fitted with a slack

a- of 5 - 8 % of the length
b- of at least 10 - 12 % of the length
c- of at least 20 % of the length
d- to allow maximum flexing during operation

140- Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in size

a- outside diameter
b- inside diameter
c- wall thickness
d- wall thickness and inside diameter

141- What load are spring hooks subjected to?

a- Bending
b- Tension
c- Compressive
d- torsion
142- A spring should be inspected for correct
a- length, strength and squareness
b- width, strength and squareness
c- width, length and strength
d- width and length only

143- A journal load is:

a- Compression.
b- radial.
c- axial.
d- axial and radial

144- What kind of bearing is used in a landing system?.

a- Needle roller bearing
b- Tapered roller bearing
c- Caged ball bearing
d- journal bearing

145- Loads on tapered roller bearings are:

a- thrust only
b- radial only
c- axial.
d- radial and thrust

146- Thrust bearings take.

a- radial loads
b- journal loads
c- side loads.
d- axial loads
147- How are changes in direction of a control cable accomplished?
a- Bellcranks.
b- Fairleads
c- Pulleys.
d- hooks

148- A flight control cable is replaced if:

a- single wires are blended together
b- the protective fluid coating is missing
c- a wire is 20% worn
d- twisted strands

149- The large diameter on a bevel gear is called the.

a- foot
b- toe.
c- heel.
d- edge

150- Compared with the spur gears, spiral gears have.

a- have mechanical advantages.
b- less stress concentration on gears.
c- more wear resistance.
d- more teeth

151- If a pulley shows signs of wear on one side.

a- the cable is too tightly tensed.
b- the pulley is too large for the cable.
c- the cable is misaligned
d- the cable is slack
152- A 7x7 cable has seven strands each of.
a- fourteen wires.
b- seven wires.
c- one wire.
d- Fourty nine wire

153- Pulleys are manufactured from.

a- brass and phenolic resin
b- tungum and high tensile steel
c- stainless steel and nylon
d- aluminum alloy b

154- A cable tension regulator will be installed in a flying control system to.
a- prevent vibration
b- automatically compensate for low cable tension caused by worn cables
c- compensate for rapid movement of the controls by taking up the slack
d- allow for variations in temperature which will vary the cable tension

155- Aircraft flying control cables are normally classified by the.

a- circumference of the cable and overall length
b- number of strands it contains and the number of wires in each strand
c- minimum breaking load or the diameter in inches
d- the materials it is made from.

156- A dry powder extinguisher is coloured.

a- green.
b- red
c- black
d- blue.
 157- You are involved with a fire caused by titanium swarf. What type of
extinguishant should you use to deal with the fire?
a- Dry asbestos wool and chalk powder.
b- CO2.
c- Chemical foam.
d- Water

158- The minimum 'no smoking' zone around an aircraft when refuelling is.
a- 15m.
b- 10m
c- 6m
d- 20m

159- In an oxygen system, if the pressure drops to 500 PSI, it

a- causes anoxia.
b- begins to overheat
c- blocks the oxygen system regulator.
d- system will be serviced automatically

160- Neither oil nor grease should be used as a lubricant on couplings or

pipelines carrying
a- Oxygen
b- Kerosene.
c- Nitrogen.
d- MEK.
161- How many strokes per minute are used on a hacksaw when cutting thick
metal?
a- 20
b- 30
c- 65
d- 55

162- To drill a 1/4 inch hole in titanium, the correct starting procedure would be.
a- to centre drill.
b- to centre punch.
c- to drill 1/4 inch hole direct
d- to drill 1/8 inch hole direct

163- The difference between high and low limits of a size for a dimension is
known as the
a- ALLOWANCE
b- deviation.
c- tolerance.
d- fit.

164- Rubber components should be stored:

a- in warm and humid conditions
b- in a well lit room
c- in a cool dark area
d- in a special solution
165- When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle
of
a- 140° and turn at a low speed
b- 90° and turn at a low speed
c- 90° and turn at a high speed
d- 118° and turn at a high speed

166- When degreasing aluminium alloys, and no trichloroethylene is available, a

suitable alternative is
a- dilute sulphuric acid
b- M.E.K
c- white spirit and naphtha
d- kerosene

167- How should a scraper be finally sharpened?.

a- By draw filing
b- On a grindstone
c- On an oil-stone
d- on a sand paper

168- How much material should be allowed for reaming?

a- 0.001 in
b- 0.003 in
c- 0.010 in
d- same size
169- Water Lines are:
a- front to rear measurements on the fuselage.
b- vertical measurements on the fuselage
c- left and right measurements on the fuselage
d- vertical measurements on the wing

170- 2 microns is
a- 0.002 mm
b- 0.002 inch
c- 0.000 002 inch
d- 0.02 mm

171- The edge or surface of a part from which dimensions are measured from is
called the.
a- water line
b- reference plane
c- buttock line
d- datum

172- Who is responsible for ensuring that weight and balance instrumentation is
serviceable before use?.
a- An engineer holding a license in the instrument category.
b- The manufacturer of the equipment
c- The person responsible for carrying out the weight and balance procedure
d- any technician in the station
173- Calibration of aircraft hydrostatic weighing equipment is:
a- carried out every time before an aircraft is weighed and adjusted by operator
b- not required
c- done twice a year
d- done once a year

174- A rivet shaver is used to.

a- mill the head flush
b- mill the tail after cutting
c- mill the tail after setting
d- shave the edges of the rivet

175- A drill and wire gauge has holes numbered

a- 10 to 60
b- 1 to 80
c- 1 to 50
d- 1 to 100

176- The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer is.

a- 0.0001 inches
b- 0.050 inches
c- 0.025 inches
d- 0.001 inches

177- The Vernier scale on an English caliper is divided into.

a- 50 equal divisions
b- 40 equal divisions
c- 25 equal divisions
d- 20 equal divisions
178- The thimble of a metric micrometer is divided into
a- 50 equal divisions
b- 40 equal divisions
c- 25 equal divisions
d- 1000 equal divisions

179- Die Nuts are used to

a- form internal threads
b- form external threads
c- clean up damaged external threads
d- clean up damaged internal threads

180- A Dial Test Indicator may be used for

a- checking a round bar for bow
b- checking dimensions to within 0.125''
c- checking any known depth
d- checking the thickness.

181- Hammers are classified by:

a- shape of head and length of shaft
b- weight and length of shaft.
c- weight and type of head
d- weight of head

182- When riveting, the distance from the edge to the rivet (land) should not be
less than.
a- 1D
b- 2D
c- 3D
d- 4D.
183- The strength of a riveted joint compared to that of the original metal is.
a- 75%.
b- 100%.
c- 125%
d- 150%

184- A repair has a double riveted joint. The shear strength would be.
a- 150%.
b- 125%
c- 100%.
d- 75%.
185- The standard minimum rivet row spacing is.
a- 1/4 D
b- 3 D
c- 4 D
d- 2 D

186- What is the normal spacing between rivets?

a- 2 D
b- 4 D
c- 3 D
d- 1 D

187- Backlash is a type of wear associated with:

a- gears
b- rivets
c- bearings.
d- cables
188- Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of.
a- CO2
b- Air
c- Nitrogen.
d- helium.

189- Active load control uses:

a- elevator and aileron
b- aileron and spoiler
c- elevator and stab
d- elevator and flaps

190- Prior to aluminium alloy bonding we use:

a- alkaline etch
b- acid etch
c- solvent wipe
d- soap and water.

191- Before soldering stainless steel it must be

a- greased
b- pickled
c- cleaned with emery cloth
d- sand papered.

192- Insufficient heat used in soldering will cause:

a- the joint to oxidize
b- a high resistance joint potential
c- contamination of the joint
d- metal joint brittleness.
193- A flux is used in soldering to:
a- to dissolve oxides
b- etch the metals surface for more adhesion
c- to prevent solder spikes
d- prevent sags

194- Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations?.

a- To increase heat conductivity
b- To prevent overheating of the base metal
c- To chemically clean the base metal of oxide film
d- to prevent solder spikes.

195- What elements is solder made from?.

a- Tin, lead and copper
b- Tin and lead only
c- Tin, lead and silver
d- lead and silver only

196- General purpose solders are graded by:

a- a colour coding a
b- letter coding
c- a numerical coding
d- a mark coding

197- A dry joint in soldering is most likely to be caused by:

a- A flux not used
b- components not hot enough
c- wrong solder used
d- contamination of the joint
198- The shielding gases generally used in the Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding
of aluminium consist of:
a- nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen
b- mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
c- helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon
d- a mixture halon and carbon dioxide.

199- Hich items listed below is the most important consideration when selecting
a welding rod?.
a- Thickness of the metal to be welded only
b- Type of torch
c- Type and thickness of the metal to be welded
d- Type of the metal to be welded.

200- The primary reason for using flux when welding aluminium is to
a- promote better fusion of the base metal at a lower temperature
b- prevent oxides from forming ahead of the weld
c- increase the heat for welding
d- prevent molten metal from flowing too widely

201- The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be.

a- oxidizing.
b- carbonising.
c- neutral.
d- no heat
202- When making a small soldered electrical connection, using flux-cored
solder.
a- The connection should be heated first and then solder applied.
b- The soldering iron and solder should be applied simultaneously to the
connection.
c- the soldering iron should be loaded with solder and then applied to the
connection.
d- Carbon should added to give more heat

203- The operational temperature of soldering irons is:

a- at any temperature
b- just above the melting point of solder.
c- below the melting point of the base metal.
d- 60°C above the melting point of solder

204- The type of flux to be used when soft soldering on aircraft is.
a- active.
b- non-active.
c- either active or non-active
d- very important to activate flux

205- What solder should be used to solder aluminium?.

a- silver solder
b- wire flux cored solder.
c- 90% tin and 10% zinc.
d- D.T.D. 685 lead-silver-tin solder
206- On completion of soldering a non-activated flux.
a- must be cleaned with alkaline
b- must be cleaned off with an acid solution need
c- not be cleaned off.
d- must be cleaned off with a selected solvent.

207- Solder can be used to join.

a- some dissimilar metals.
b- only copper based metals.
c- similar metals only.
d- iron only

208- What action is taken when soldering flux residue may have lodged in deep
crevices of an assembly?
a- It must be immersed in a weak solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsed
thoroughly in running water.
b- It must be immersed in a weak solution of phosphoric acid and rinsed in
water.
c- It must be thoroughly rinsed with a weak solution of sulphuric acid and washed in
cold water.
d- It must be thoroughly rinsed with a salted water and washed in pure water.

209- A phosphate based flux paste is for soldering.

a- aluminium.
b- brass.
c- stainless steel.
d- silver
210- The soldering method where molten solder is pumped from the bottom of a
bath through a slot so that a stationary wave of solder appears on the surface
is known as the.
a- rotary bath method.
b- stationary wave method.
c- rotary wave bath method.
d- standing wave bath method.

211- Solders are available in two forms

a- stick solder with a rosin core and solder in a wire form having a rosin core.
b- Solder in a wire form needing a separate flux and stick solder needing no flux at
all.
c- stick solder needing a separate flux and solder in wire form having a rosin
core.
d- stick solder needing no flux and solder in wire form having a rosin core.

212- High temperature solder is used where the operating temperature is high. It
is an alloy of.
a- lead / copper / antimony.
b- tin / zinc / antimony / silver
c- tin / lead / antimony / silver.
d- tin / copper / antimony / silver.

213- A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the
working face has been
a- fluxed.
b- polished.
c- tinned.
d- cleaned
214- Soft solder is suited for joints, which are.
a- subjected to fatigue.
b- subjected to strong forces
c- subjected to small forces.
d- dose not supject to force

215- Silver solder melts within the range.

a- 400°C - 550°C.
b- 200°C - 400°C.
c- 600°C - 850°C.
d- 100°C - 300°C.

216- The term 'dry joint' is usually applied to.

a- a metal being lightly heated.
b- a defect associated with a soldered joint.
c- a water tight joint.
d- bad weld

217- The materials most commonly soldered in soft soldering are.

a- brass and mild steel.
b- stainless steel and titanium.
c- aluminium and lead.
d- aluminium and magnesium.

218- What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminium?

a- Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod.
b- Removes dirt, grease, and oil.
c- Remove slags
d- Minimises or prevents oxidation.
219- What is a good weld?
a- Build up by 1/8 inch in the middle of the weld.
b- An oxide coating on the base metals.
c- Sides sloping to the base metals.
d- Build up by 1/2 inch in the middle of the weld

220- Filing or grinding a weld bead.

a- may be necessary to avoid adding excess weight or to achieve uniform material
thickness.
b- may be performed to achieve a smoother surface.
c- increase the strength of the joint.
d- reduces the strength of the joint.

221- After welding you would normalise to

a- remove oxidation from the welded joint.
b- remove carbon build up from the welded joint.
c- release the stresses from the material.
d- increase the stresses from the material.
222- The flux used during brazing is a mixture of water and
a- zinc chloride.
b- hydrochloric acid.
c- potasium nitrat
d- borax powder.

223- Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is important,
therefore, when welding aluminium to use a.
a- solvent.
b- filler.
c- flux.
d- Oil.
224- When inspecting a butt-welded joint by visual means
a- the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal
b- the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base
metal.
c- look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead
d- the penetration should be 75 percent of the thickness of the base metal.

225- What is undesirable in a good weld?.

a- oxides mixed in with the filler material.
b- fusing the edges of materials to be joined.
c- 100% penetration by filler material.
d- 80% penetration by filler material.

226- Which statement best describes magnesium welding?

a- Magnesium can be welded to other metals.
b- Filler rod should be nickel-steel.
c- Filler rod should be the same composition as base metal.
d- Filler rod should be aluminum as base metal.

227- Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations?

a- To chemically clean the base metal of oxide film.
b- To prevent overheating of the base metal.
c- To increase heat conductivity.
d- to allow the base metal to be oxidized

228- Welding over brazed or soldered joints is.

a- not permitted.
b- permissible for mild steel.
c- permissible for most metals or alloys that are not heat treated.
d- permissible for soft metals.
229- A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the
working face has been
a- luxed.
b- polished.
c- cleaned
d- tinned.

230- What method of repair is recommended for a steel tube longeron dented at
a cluster?
a- Welded split sleeve.
b- \Welded outer sleeve.
c- Welded patch plate.
d- Welded after brazing.

231- In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip opening
determines the
a- amount of heat applied to the work.
b- temperature of the flame.
c- melting point of the filler metal.
d- shape of flame

232- Why should a carburizing flame be avoided when welding steel?

a- It removes the carbon content.
b- It hardens the surface.
c- A cold weld will result.
d- it will not be enough to melt filler rod
233- The most important consideration(s) when selecting welding rod is
a- current setting or flame temperature.
b- material compatibility.
c- ambient conditions.
d- thickness of the rod

234- A very thin and pointed tip on a soldering copper is undesirable because it
will:
a- transfer too much heat to the work.
b- have a tendency to overheat and become brittle.
c- cool too rapidly.
d- will not give enough heat

235- Filing or grinding a weld bead

a- may be performed to achieve a smoother surface.
b- reduces the strength of the joint.
c- may be necessary to avoid adding excess weight or to achieve uniform
material thickness.
d- give strength and good shape

236- Cylinders used to transport and store acetylene

a- are pressure tested to 3,000 PSI.
b- are pressure tested to 3,00 PSI.
c- are green in color.
d- contain acetone.
237- A welding torch backfire may be caused by
a- a loose tip.
b- using too much acetylene.
c- a tip temperature that is too cool.
d- a tip temperature that is too hot.

238- Where should the flux be applied when oxyacetylene welding ?

a- Painted only on the surface to be welded.
b- Painted on the surface to be welded and applied to the welding rod.
c- Applied only to the welding rod.
d- no need for flux when using oxyacetylene

239- Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made of:

a- seamless aluminum.
b- steel.
c- bronze.
d- composite materials

240- In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is used to.
a- lower the temperature required to properly fuse the metal
b- prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle
c- concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its dissipation
d- increase temperature of the heat

241- Hydraulic pressure can be restored by

a- compressing the air charge in an accumulator
b- the use of a pressure/heat exchanger
c- compressing the fluid in a reservoir.
d- using bleed air to pressurize
242- What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?.
a- Yellow
b- blue
c- Green
d- Red

243- Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?.

a- In the pressure line
b- In the suction line
c- In the case drain
d- In the returned line

244- Hydraulic systems normally operate at

a- 1800 PSI.
b- 3000 PSI
c- 300 PSI.
d- 6000 PSI.

245- When flushing hydraulic systems

a- flush with methylated spirit
b- flush with any hydraulic oil
c- flush with same hydraulic oil.
d- flush with alcohol

246- When replacing a flexible pipe

a- do a bonding check
b- tighten only hand tight
c- use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting
d- pressurized test to check for leakage
247- A constant delivery pump has its output varied with
a- regulators.
b- gears
c- servo pressure
d- pistons

248- A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents :

a- pump cavitation
b- reverse flow
c- overpressure
d- cut off flow in leakage

249- A duplex seal consist of:

a- a square section rubber ring within a steel washer
b- a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber
c- square section inner ring
d- a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings.

250- What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?.

a- Variable swashplate pump
b- Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter
c- Hydraulic oil accumulator
d- Reservoir, pump, check valve, actuator

251- A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action

when a service is selected is.
a- accumulator.
b- engine driven pump
c- selector.
d- relief valve
252- A shuttle valve is used for.
a- preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack
b- maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails.
c- change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure
d- to divert pressure from pressure line to return line

253- Restrictor valves in an hydraulic system are used to:

a- restrict the rate of pressure build up
b- control the rate of system operation
c- limit the maximum pressure
d- build up pressure to sufficient gage

254- Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from

a- a tap into a convenient return line
b- a stack pipe higher than the normal level
c- the bottom of the reservoir
d- the pressure line before the unloading valve,

255- Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems.

a- are only ever used in an emergency
b- store fluid under pressure
c- provide additional fluid if leaks occur
d- act as hand pump to deliver fluied

256- A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of.

a- natural rubber
b- synthetic rubber
c- butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon
d- natural leather
257- A thermal relief valve:
a- senses fluid temperature change
b- senses fluid pressure
c- provides cooling for the fluid
d- cool the system temperature

258- Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?.

a- Butyl Rubber
b- Synthetic Rubber
c- Natural Rubber
d- Natural leather

259- To enable an hydraulic system to operate two components requiring

different pressures
a- a pressure reducing valve is used
b- a pressure regulating valve is used
c- a pressure relief valve is used.
d- orifice check valve.

260- A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system.

a- is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected
positions.
b- is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture.
c- is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete
and the accumulator charged with fluid.
d- allow fluied flow to one direction only
261- Hydraulic pressure can be restored by.
a- compressing the air charge in an accumulator.
b- the use of a pressure/heat exchanger
c- compressing the fluid in a reservoir
d- pressurized resorvoier .

262- A maintainer valve in an hydraulic system will.

a- allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply
b- dampen pressure inputs.
c- maintain a high pressure to all systems
d- prevent pressure to buildup

263- What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak

a- Fluid loss.
b- Increase in fluid pressure.
c- Increase in fluid temperature.
d- decrease in fluid temperature

264- What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?.

a- Increase acidity.
b- Increase viscosity.
c- Increase alkalinity.
d- decrease viscosity

265- How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?.

a- Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection.
b- Energised Open.
c- Energized for redusing pressure
d- Energised Closed for fail-safe.
266- Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in.
a- acidity.
b- alkalinity.
c- viscosity.
d- flammability

267- How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?.

a- By pressurising.
b- Vent Reservoir to atmosphere.
c- Pass over a tray.
d- by unloading the pressure

268- A normal hydraulic system will:

a- show pressure and source of hydraulics.
b- show fluid temperature and quantity
c- illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready.
d- show fluid temperature and flow
269- A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in
system when no services are being used?
a- Pressure relief valve.
b- Return line back to pump.
c- ACOV.
d- Accumulator

270- When replenishing a hydraulic system.

a- use any hydraulic fluid.
b- use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer.
c- All hydraulic fluids are the same
d- use the same/correct hydraulic fluid.
271- How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?
a- Vent to atmosphere.
b- Pass through a restriction.
c- Pass over a tray.
d- By increasing the fluid flow

272- A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is.

a- energised to the run position.
b- used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure.
c- select the direction of fluid flow
d- de-energised to start the pump.

273- A constant delivery pump has its output varied with.

a- gears.
b- regulators.
c- servo pressure.
d- Actuators

274- A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts.
a- Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Valve Block.
b- Swash Plate & Valve Block.
c- Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Cylinder Block
d- Swash Plate & Cylinder Block.

275- An hydraulic closed system is one where.

a- pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times.
b- there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required.
c- most of the major components of the system are included in a self-contained unit
d- all selector vaves installed parallel
276- If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be.
a- rapid depressurisation of system.
b- pump cavitation.
c- actuators sensitivity
d- rapid fluctuations of instruments.

277- A marker number on a pipe indicates.

a- the thickness of the wall on the pipe
b- the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run.
c- the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe.
d- type of aircraft

278- "One reason for fitting an accumulator in an hydraulic system is

a- minimize the possibility of pump cavitation
b- absorb pressure surges.
c- relieve excess pressure.
d- increase the fluid temperature.

279- A thermal relief valve is fitted to an hydraulic system to.

a- prevent a leak back of pressure.
b- prevent excess temperature
c- minimize the possibility of pump cavitation
d- relieve excess pressure.

280- The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation

of.
a- landing gear and doors.
b- safety switches.
c- brake anti-skid units.
d- nose wheel steering
281- The purpose of a non-return valve is to.
a- direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator.
b- restrict the movement of components.
c- isolate one component from another.
d- reduce the fluid pressure

282- A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial air pressure of 1000 PSI.
When the hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is reached, the air pressure
is.
a- 4000 PSI.
b- 3000 PSI.
c- 1000 PSI.
d- 2000 PSI.

283- During a leak test of an hydraulic system, system pressure.

a- is not important.
b- must be minimum working.
c- must be at maximum.
d- pressure not important

284- Pressure relay valves are fitted.

a- before a pressure gauge.
b- before a pressure sequence valve.
c- before a pressure relief valve.
d- at return line
285- Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator.
a- the reservoir must be checked for correct level.
b- the fluid pressure must be released.
c- all air must be bled from the system.
d- operate the system

286- In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to use.

a- only the specified fluid.
b- any type of fluid is suitable
c- any fluid of the same specific gravity.
d- any hydraulic fluid available.

287- The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery

type are an.
a- accumulator and automatic cut-out valve
b- accumulator and shuttle valve.
c- accumulator and relay valve.
d- accumulator and sequence valve.

288- An automatic cut-out valve will:

a- limit pump wear.
b- prevent the hydraulic lock forming.
c- increase pressure as needed
d- raise fluid boiling point.
289- A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system.
a- to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator
b- relieve excessive pressure to return
c- to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system
failure.
d- to increase pressure in the system

290- The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation, is a
flexible hose under pressure.
a- expands in length and diameter
b- contracts in length and diameter
c- contracts in length and expands in diameter
d- contracts in diameter and expands in length

291- A fuel cross feed valve is usually in.

a- the closed position
b- the open position
c- its last position
d- always open

292- Fuel systems that are interconnected must have

a- separate venting for each tank
b- no airspace
c- air spaces interconnected
d- no vents
293- Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by.
a- bolts.
b- contact adhesive
c- press type rivets
d- piano wire

294- A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out
with.
a- tanks completely full
b- tanks completely empty
c- tanks empty apart from unusable fuel
d- tanks empty apart from take off fuel

295- After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at
a- tank outlet
b- engine inlet.
c- tank shut-off valve point
d- drainage valve

296- Fuel tanks interconnected must have

a- vents to allow over fueling
b- protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system
c- tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet
d- all fuel tanks inter connected and fed together at same time

297- Pressure refueling is carried out at.

a- 20 PSI
b- 40 PSI.
c- 15 PSI.
d- 5 PSI.
298- Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from:
a- tank to tank
b- left tank to right tank
c- any tank to any engine
d- aft tank to forward tank

299- When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel
tanks should.
a- have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out
b- be full.
c- be empty
d- be dried

300- Integral fuel booster pumps

a- require ram air cooling
b- lets the fuel do cooling
c- require no cooling
d- air-conditioning lines pass through fuel tanks,

301- The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is:

a- ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently
b- to ensure that all available fuel can be used
c- to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing
microbiological contamination
d- to account all fuel quantity in the tank
302- How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?.
a- By a fuel boost pump
b- By suction from the engine driven fuel pump
c- By a gravity feed pump
d- suction by engine

303- A fuel tank suction valve will open when

a- the booster pump fails
b- both the engine driven and booster pump fail
c- the engine driven pump fails
d- when fuel tank pressure build up

304- Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on

a- low pressure systems.
b- high pressure systems.
c- air or vapor systems.
d- fuel tank

305- A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated.

a- by internal cooling.
b- by air.
c- by heat exchanger
d- by the fuel.
306- Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the.
a- 28 V DC bus.
b- 115 V AC.
c- battery.
d- mechanicaly
307- When refueling.
a- the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full
b- it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank.
c- it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank.
d- fuel truck gage indicate quantity needed

308- When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment.

a- it is added to the fuel and burnt
b- it is applied dry and left.
c- it is applied wet and flushed out.
d- it is applied when clean the tank only

309- Microbial growth is.

a- red dots.
b- brown black slime.
c- green sludge.
d- no color

310- In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place.

a- below the fungal colonies.
b- the top of the tank.
c- the bottom 2 inches of the tank.
d- at the tanks sides

311- If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made
to.
a- shut off fuel before structural damage.
b- provide overflow facility to dump fuel.
c- stop engine from using tank during transfer.
d- fill the tank under full limit
312- In a fuel system with interconnected vents.
a- an expansion space is not required.
b- The expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity.
c- the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity.
d- the expansion space must be 40% of the tank capacity.

313- When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to.
a- automatic reversion.
b- mechanical reversion.
c- hard reversion.
d- soft reversion.

314- What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is

used?.
a- Depends on altitude.
b- Increases.
c- Depend on its proof stress
d- Decreases.

315- When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel
tanks should.
a- have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out
b- be full.
c- be empty.
d- filled with oil
316- In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light indicates.
a- pump failure.
b- the tank does not pressurise.
c- ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail.
d- leak in tank

317- To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank.

a- the tank should be filled as full as possible.
b- the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible.
c- the filler cap should be left open.
d- fuel filter prevent water interring the tank

318- To protect the center tank fuselage area from a vapor builds up.
a- ram air is circulated around the tank.
b- a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted
c- cabin air is bled around the tank
d- cabin air is bled inside the tank

319- When a fuel jettison valve is in transit, the magnetic indicator would
show.
a- amber and in line.
b- green and cross line.
c- amber and cross line.
d- green and in line.
320- When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction, which of
the following is most prone to leaks?
a- Rigid.
b- Integral.
c- Flexible.
d- pressurized

321- On removal of a fuel tank booster pump, fuel is observed running out of the
boost pump canister, this could be caused by.
a- the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated.
b- fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed.
c- fuel leaking past the inlet screens.
d- high temperature of fuel

322- A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on.
a- fuel tank vent pipes.
b- fuel jettison system.
c- the APU fuel feed.
d- fuel tank drain valve

323- Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation
the linen bag should be wetted with.
a- Water.
b- Methylated Spirit.
c- Kerosene.
d- Gasoline
324- The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they.
a- are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain.
b- use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of
weight.
c- are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel.
d- Increase the expansion space of the tank capacity.

325- On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using

a- a parallel system.
b- the same system for each engine.
c- a separate system for each engine.
d- a separate fuel tank for each engine.

326- Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished

a- through a common manifold and outlet in each wing.
b- by gravity flow into the outboard wing tanks and overboard through a common
outlet in each wing.
c- through individual outlets for each tank.
d- through a separate manifold and common outlet in each wing.

327- The primary purpose of an aircraft's fuel jettison system is

a- lower landing weight.
b- balanced fuel load.
c- reduced fire hazard.
d- removing the air from the system
328- Which of the following is employed to maintain lateral stability when
jettisoning fuel?
a- Cross feed system.
b- Two separate independent systems.
c- fuel quantity doesn’t affect the balancing
d- Two interconnected systems.

329- Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jettison systems by

a- boost pumps.
b- gravity.
c- gravity and engine-driven fuel pumps.
d- drain valve

330- What is the primary purpose of the cross feed system?

a- To allow the feeding of any engine from any tank.
b- To allow the feeding of fuel from one tank for defueling.
c- To provide automatic refueling of a tank to any desired level.
d- To permit the fuel jettisoning for both tanks

331- Fuel system components must be bonded and grounded in order to:
a- drain off static charges.
b- prevent stray currents.
c- retard galvanic corrosion.
d- for strengthening the structure drain off static charges.
332- What flight safety-related advantage does a pressure fueling system provide?
a- Keeps the aircraft within weight and balance limitations.
b- Reduces the chances for fuel contamination.
c- Reduces the time required for fueling.
d- prevent fuel volatility
333- Aircraft pressure fueling systems instructional procedures are normally
placarded on the
a- fuel control panel access door.
b- lower wing surface adjacent to the access door.
c- aircraft ground connection point.
d- beside the fuel quantity gauge

334- Pressure fueling of aircraft is usually accomplished through

a- pressure connections on individual fuel tanks.
b- at least one single point connection.
c- individual fuel tank over wing and/or fuselage access points.
d- None of the above

335- Which of the following may be used for the repair of fuel leaks on most
integral fuel tanks?
a- Welding and resealing.
b- Brazing and resealing.
c- Riveting and resealing.
d- Riveting only

336- What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel tank before welding?
a- Purge the tank with air.
b- Flush the inside of the tank with clean water.
c- Steam clean the tank interior.
d- flush with cold water
337- Which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank?
a- Helium or argon.
b- Carbon dioxide.
c- Carbon monoxide.
d- Oxygen

338- Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest point in the fuel system?
a- It traps any small amount of water that may be present in the fuel system.
b- It provides a drain for residual fuel.
c- It filters and traps all micro-organisms that may be present in the fuel system.
d- it is easy for removing and installation the strainer

339- The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane-type fuel pump is to

a- equalize fuel pressure at all speeds.
b- vary fuel pressure according to throttle setting.
c- compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.
d- to increase pressure in the system

340- The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would indicate
a- too much fuel pressure.
b- excessive airflow across the venture.
c- clogged fuel nozzle.
d- high pressure fuel in the system

341- What should be used to inert an integral fuel tank before attempting
repairs?
a- CO(2).
b- Water.
c- Steam.
d- Nitrogen
342- Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water contamination than aviation
gasoline?
a- Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline.
b- Jet fuel is lighter than gasoline; therefore, water is more easily suspended.
c- Condensation is greater because of the higher volatility of jet fuels.
d- it has low freezing temperature than gasoline

343- The probe of a capacitance-type fuel level gauge is essentially a

a- float-actuated variable capacitor.
b- capacitor with fuel and air acting as one plate.
c- capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric.
d- resistance with fuel quantity prop

344- The rocket is a non-air breathing engine, this means

a- It does not use oxygen to support combustion, It depends on nitrogen
b- Do not use the oxygen from the atmosphere but rather the air that enters the
composition of the fuel
c- it does not use atmospheric air to support combustion but carries its own
oxidiser and fuel in solid or liquid form.
d- None of the above

345- The combustion process leads to a step increase in temperature, whereas

the pressure:
a- remains virtually constant.
b- Increase
c- Decrease
d- there is no relation between pressure and temp.
346- In case the exhaust gas is used for generating the propulsive force the
exhaust section is called
a- a nozzle (or jet pipe)
b- a tail pipe (or exhaust pipe).
c- exhaust cone t
d- he Recovery area

347- in turbojet engines the function of the air intake section

a- to increase the air pressure and decrease air temperature
b- to increase the air temperature and decrease air pressure
c- is to deliver a smooth and uniform stream of air to the compressor inlet.
d- Convert heat energy to mechanical energy

348- The turbofan can crudely be regarded as a mixture of a

a- turbojet and a turboshaft.
b- turboshaft and a turboprop.
c- turbojet and a turboprop.
d- None of the above.

349- Instead of the mixed/unmixed classifications, turbofan engines are also

referred as being either
a- Single duct or multi ducts
b- shroud duct or non-shroud duct
c- short ducted or long ducted.
d- Long ducted and non-ducted
350- Define the horsepower
a- The power required for lifting 75 kilograms 1 meter in 1 second’.
b- It is the rate of doing work compared with a mechanical horse
c- It is the required force to doing work compared with a mechanical horse
d- The amount of a specified power to do a specified job

351- the capacity to do work is the definition of

a- Energy
b- power
c- force
d- torque

352- The principle difference between at propeller and a turbojet engine is

a- The amount of thrust
b- how the thrust (F or T) is produced
c- the amount of the exhaust gas temperature
d- the cooling and pressurizing systems

353- what is the diffuser section?

a- it is a system of stationary convergent ducts which are designed to convert the
kinetic energy of the airstream, into potential energy.
b- it is a system of stationary convergent ducts which are designed to convert the
potential energy of the airstream, into kinetic energy.
c- it is a system of stationary divergent ducts which are designed to convert
the kinetic energy of the airstream, into potential energy.
d- The place where air and fuel mixed and burned
354- What is meant by this statement (Aviation gas turbine engines are open-
cycled)
a- fresh gas is drawn into the compressor and the products are exhausted
from the turbine and not reused.
b- fresh gas is drawn into the compressor and the products are drive the turbine
and then reused.
c- fresh gas is drawn into the compressor and the products are exhausted from the
turbine and then reused.
d- the power lose is zero

355- The real atmosphere is far away from the ISA because of:
a- the hot temperatures at the poles and the ISA is an average taken at 5-degree
latitude.
b- the cold temperatures at the poles and the ISA is an average taken at 45-
degree latitude.
c- the hot temperatures at the poles and the ISA is an average taken at 45-degree
latitude.
d- the hot temperatures at the poles and the ISA is an average taken at 54-degree
latitude.

356- From 20km to 32km above sea level temp rises by 0,3ºC per
a- 1,00 ft.
b- 1,0000 ft.
c- 1,000 ft.
d- 100000 feet
357- if the jet nozzle is choked, it can be stated that there are two types of
energy in the tailpipe which are:
a- energy of flow (forward ) and energy from internal pressure (in all directions).
b- energy of flow (rearward ) and energy from internal pressure (forward directions).
c- energy of flow (rearward) and energy from internal pressure (in all
directions).
d- energy of flow (forward) and energy from internal pressure (rearward directions).

358- The three most important factors affecting internal efficiency are:
a- Turbine inlet temperature and turbine outlet temperature and Component
efficiencies of compressor and turbine
b- Turbine inlet temperature and engine pressure ratio (EPR) and Component
efficiencies of compressor and turbine
c- Turbine inlet temperature and Compressor ratio and Component efficiencies
of compressor and turbine
d- Turbine inlet Pressure and Compressor ratio and Component efficiencies of
compressor and turbine

359- The amount of thrust a given engine can produce is affected by:
a- environmental, design, and operational factors.
b- environmental, Torque factor , and operational factors.
c- design, Torque factor , and operational factors.
d- design, Temperature factor , and operational factors.
360- Therefore, increasing aircraft speed causes two opposing trends to occur:
a- decrease in thrust due to the reduction in air mass acceleration and
increase in thrust due to ram effect
b- increase in thrust due to the reduction in air mass acceleration and decrease in
thrust due to ram effect
c- increase in thrust due to the reduction in air mass acceleration and increase in
thrust due to ram effect
d- There is no relation between air mass acceleration and ram effect

361- The air entrance of flight inlet duct is normally considered to be :

a- a part of the engine , and not a part of the airframe.
b- A part of a compressor
c- a part of the airframe, and not a part of the engine.
d- Inlet guide vans housing

362- while the engine is running on a stationary aircraft, the pressure at the
inlet of the compressor is below ambient pressure. This is because:
a- the engine compressor is increasing the velocity of the airflow through the
intake.
b- the engine compressor is increasing the pressure of the airflow just in the
compressor .
c- the engine compressor is increasing the pressure of the airflow just in the
compressor outlet .
d- The deference of pressure between the engine (cold and hot section)

363- in Supersonic intakes the airflow is always:

a- supersonic downstream of the shockwave.
b- subsonic downstream of the shockwave.
c- transonic downstream of the shockwave.
d- Transonic downstream the chock wave
364- the type of intake produces a series of mild shock waves without
excessively reducing the intake efficiency Known as
a- bulck intake
b- block intake
c- plug intake
d- Bulk intake

365- In practice:
a- about half of the pressure rise occurs in the impeller and the other half in
the diffuser.
b- about Three-quarters of the pressure rise occurs in the impeller and One quarter
in the diffuser.
c- about One quarter of the pressure rise occurs in the impeller and Three-quarters
in the diffuser.
d- about twice of the pressure rise occurs in the impeller and the other half in the
diffuser.

366- the variable stator vanes ensures that the airflow is directed onto the
following stage of rotor blades at:
a- Proper amount
b- an acceptable angle.
c- an acceptable pressure.

367- The compression ratio of a single stage centrifugal compressor can be in

the range:
a- 5:1 to 6
b- 5 to 6 :1.
c- 1: 5 to 6.
d- 15:16:01
368- Fan blades, each of them have
a- a dovetail base
b- fir tree root
c- Solid root
d- Welded root a

369- Vibration is created by dynamic forces that are generated by rotating

components that may be affected by;
a- Excessive clearances, Imbalance, or Rubbing contacts.
b- Improper f.c.u operation and uncontrolled airflow
c- Improper f.c.u operation and uncontrolled gas flow
d- Over boosting

370- combustion in the gas turbine engine occurs at:

a- a constant temperature
b- a constant volume
c- a constant pressure.
d- Constant cycle

371- The can annular combustion chamber differs from multiple combustion
chamber system because:
a- it does not have individual air casings for each of the flame tubes.
b- it does not have propagation tube
c- it does not have flame tube
d- It has an igniter plug for each fuel nozzle
372- One of the disadvantage of the multiple can combustors is:
a- Difficult to manufacturing
b- Difficult to maintenance
c- Large and heavy.
d- Excessive fuel consumption

373- A smooth burning coupled with ability to remain alight over a large range
of air/fuel ratios and air mass flow is a definition of
a- Ignition system efficiency
b- Proper fuel air mixing
c- Combustion stability
d- Compression stability

374- In turbine section if the cooling air flows through the hollow nozzle vanes
and rotor blades this method known:
a- Impingement cooling
b- Convection cooling
c- Film cooling
d- Malfunction cooling.

375- In Axial flow turbines the efficiency of a turbine blade

a- increases proportional, as its rotational speed increases
b- increases proportional, as its rotational speed Decreases
c- The efficiency of the turbine blade is not affected by the speed of its rotation
d- increases proportionally, as thermal heat efficiency increases
376- The turbine section converting the kinetic energy in the gas stream into
a- mechanical energy
b- Potential energy
c- heat energy
d- Kinetic energy

377- The nozzle guide vanes and at the rotor blades cooled by which method
a- Convection cooling
b- Film cooling
c- Impingement cooling
d- booth film and Impingement cooling

378- On a jet engine what is the main task of the exhaust systems
a- To expel the exhaust gases away from the engine
b- To expel exhaust gases away from the aircraft
c- to accelerate the airflow from the turbine to efficiently make thrust
d- To give the gases ample opportunity to cool and slow down before leaving to the
atmosphere

379- Tail Pipe or Jet Pipe

a- has no significant effect on the gas flow, but extends the exhaust system
clear of the aircraft structure.
b- serve as straightener vanes to remove swirl from the gasses.
c- increasing the velocity of the exhaust gases before they are discharged to
atmosphere
d- To give the gases ample opportunity to cool and slow down before leaving to the
atmosphere
380- In a low bypass engine, the bypass flow is mixed:
a- At the exhaust nozzle
b- aft of the last stage of turbine.
c- Exhaust Duct
d- in compressor section

381- To achieve optimum thrust for a given mass, the exhaust gases
a- must expand completely in the exhaust nozzle.
b- Pressure must be reaches to the highest value before it leaves the exhaust
nozzle
c- Temperature must be reaches to the lowest value before it leaves the exhaust
nozzle
d- must cool and slow down before leaving to the atmosphere

382- Ball bearings are designed for

a- Radial load only
b- radial or thrust loads or a combination of both
c- Thrust load only
d- absorbing vibration

383- Thrust bearings:

a- are designed only for retaining axial forces; radial forces cannot be
retained.
b- are designed only for retaining radial forces; axial forces cannot be retained.
c- are designed for booth retaining axial forces and radial forces .
d- for absorbing vibration
384- The brush seal is not generally used to seal bearing chambers because
a- the oil pressure coming from the pump is greater than its carrying capacity
b- the oil temperature coming from the pump is larger than its carrying capacity and
may damage it
c- broken bristles could contaminate the oil supplied to the bearings, and lead to
failures.
d- broken carbon contaminate the oil supplied to the bearings, and lead to failures.

385- Viscosity:
a- It is a measure of the internal resistance of a fluid to deform under shear stress.
b- It is commonly perceived as “thickness” or resistance to flow.
c- booth A&B are true
d- None of the above

386- Jet-B, Turbo fuel 5, JP-4 and JP-5

a- These fuels are a blend of approximately 70% kerosene and 30% gasoline and
described as a wide-cut fuel.
b- These fuels are a blend of approximately 30% kerosene and 70% gasoline and
described as a wide-cut fuel.
c- These fuels are a blend of approximately 10% kerosene and 90% gasoline and
described as a wide-cut fuel.
d- These fuels are a blend of approximately 90% kerosene and 10% gasoline and
described as a wide-cut fuel.

387- Ethylene Glycol Monomethyl Ether (EGME)

a- is widely used as an anti-icing additive and is also a biocide.
b- is widely used as an anti- corrosion
c- is widely used as an anti- oxidation
d- seldom used as an anti- oxidation
388- The term thermal stability describes
a- the resistance of the oil to decomposition of the oil compounds at high
temperatures.
b- the lowest temperature at which it can form an ignitable mixture with air.
c- the lowest temperature at which it can form an ice crystal .
d- the highest temperature at which it can form an ignitable mixture with air.

389- Extreme Pressure Additives would be added to an oil which is used in an

engine where there are:
a- heavily loaded gear trains.
b- lightly loaded gear trains.
c- all kinds of loaded gear trains.
d- None of the above

390- The principle contaminants which could be inadvertently introduced into a

lubricating system are:
a- metallic chips
b- carbon residue
c- moisture and other fluids.
d- Rust

391- Metal De-activators used to:

a- Suppresses the catalytic effect which some metals, particularly copper, have
on fuel oxidation.
b- Protects the metals in the fuel system, and may improve the fuels lubricating
properties.
c- Prevent the formation of gum deposits on fuel system components caused by
oxidation of the fuel in storage
d- contamination suspensor
392- In a hot-tank lubrication system:
a- the oil cooler is in the scavenged subsystem, and the pressure scavenged oil is
not cooled before it is returned to the tank.
b- the oil cooler is in the pressure subsystem, and the scavenged oil is not
cooled before it is returned to the tank.
c- The oil tank heated by a compressor bleed air
d- there is no oil cooler.

393- The AMM will prescribe time limits to replenish the oil system:
a- typically not before 30-minutes after shut-down and not longer than 1 hour.
b- typically not before 20-minutes after shut-down and not longer than 1 hour.
c- typically not before 10-minutes after shut-down and not longer than 1 hour.
d- typically not after 10-minutes after shut-down and not longer than 1 hour.

394- The bearings in a gas turbine engines are lubricated in one of the following
ways:
a- Spray jet/pressure fed Splash oil and Metered oil Film Lubrication
b- only spray jet/pressure fed Splash oil
c- only metered oil Film Lubrication
d- Splash and submerge ways

395- ΔP indication can either be a mechanical pop out indicator or an electrical

signal connected to a warning system in the cockpit in case of:
a- High oil temperature
b- blockage or cold starting to prevent flow limiting within the oil filter.
c- high oil pressure
d- blockage or hot starting to prevent flow limiting within the oil filter.
396- Some larger engines have a secondary air-oil cooler that is activated
under:
a- normal operation
b- low power conditions.
c- high power conditions.
d- hot start condition

397- Rich blowout occurs when:

a- the amount of oxygen in the air supply is insufficient to support combustion
and when the mixture is cooled below the combustion temperature by the
excess fuel.
b- Excessive fuel blow out of the combustion chamber
c- Excessive fuel blow out of the exhaust section
d- Excessive fuel blow out of the turbine section

398- Fuel Flow Transmitter Provides signals of engine to the flight deck
instrument about:
a- fuel flow only.
b- fuel flow and fuel used.
c- fuel used only.
d- remains fuel only

399- The usual method of varying the fuel flow to the spray nozzles is by
adjusting the output of the:
a- Nozzle outlet
b- Pressurizing and dump valve
c- HP fuel pump.
d- fuel boost pump outlet
400- On the turbo-propeller engine:
a- the fuel and propeller systems are coordinated to produce the appropriate
fuel/RPM combination.
b- just the fuel system produces the appropriate fuel/RPM combination.
c- The propeller pitch change mechanism has a control over fuel system to produces
the appropriate fuel/RPM combination.
d- non of the above is true.

401- What are the main signals that sent to the FCU to maintain the correct
air/fuel ratio of 15:1 under any running/flying conditions.
a- Engine RPM, Inlet Pressure, Compressor Discharge Pressure, Burner
Can Pressure, Inlet Temperature.
b- Engine RPM, Inlet Pressure, Compressor Discharge Pressure, Burner Can
Pressure, Burner Can Temperature.
c- Engine RPM, Compressor Discharge Pressure, Burner Can Pressure, Burner
Can Temperature.
d- Only the engine RPM

402- In FADEC- type Fuel Control System the abbreviation FADEC means
a- Full Authority Digital Electronic Control
b- Full Authority Digital Engine Control
c- Full Automatic Digital Electronic Control
d- Full Authority Detecting Engine Control ,
403- normally engine started and shut down carried out by the use of a HP fuel
shut-off valve cock but not the LP fuel cock because:
a- the LP fuel cock installed aft of the HP fuel shut-off valve
b- the LP fuel cock installed aft of the FCU
c- the LP fuel cock provided by the airframe manufacturer to isolate the
engine from the aircrafts fuel system not for engine shutdown
d- the LP fuel cock used on thrust reversing operation only

404- In hydro-mechanically operated flow control units (FCUs), the method of

control is to use:
a- servo fuel as a hydraulic fluid to vary fuel flow
b- Pneumatic source to vary fuel flow
c- Mechanical source to vary fuel flow
d- Electrical power (source) to vary fuel flow

405- The pressure control system is a typical fuel control system as fitted to
a- a turbo- jet engine
b- a turbo - shaft engine
c- a turbo-propeller engine
d- turbo- fan engine

406- An engine requirement of a bleed air for:

a- Internal Engine Cooling , Active Clearance Control and Hot Air Anti Icing
b- Internal and external Engine Cooling
c- Internal Engine Cooling , Active Clearance Control and Hot Air De – Icing
d- Reduces the compressor load only
407- A designs of blades and vanes have been developed which direct the
cooling air at 90o to the internal surface of the blade or van, .this type of
cooling known
a- Convection Cooling
b- Impingement Cooling
c- Film Cooling
d- Fastest cooling

408- What type of seal Consist of a set of teeth bearing upon a honeycomb
lining.
a- Abraidable Lined Labyrinth Seal
b- Thread Type Seal
c- Ring Type Seal
d- Carton seal

409- The thrust produced by any gas turbine engine depends upon the following
two things:-
a- The volume of air drawn into the engine and the increase in speed of that air
b- The mass of air drawn into the engine and the increase in speed of that
mass of air
c- The mass of air drawn into the engine and the increase in volume of that mass
of air
d- Fuel type and engine design

410- Reheat Jet Pipe - The jet pipe on an engine with reheat is:
a- a smaller diameter and built of materials that reward ordinary jet tubes
b- a smaller diameter and built of materials stronger than normal jet pipe
c- wider and constructed from stronger materials than a normal jet pipe.
d- a wider and constructed from lighter materials than a normal jet pipe.
411- To prevent Compressor Delivery Pressure entering the water injection
system components.
a- a non-return valve must be fitted in the water delivery pipe
b- a non-return valve must be fitted in the water delivery distributor
c- a non-return valve must be fitted in the water delivery pump
d- a non-return valve must be fitted in the water delivery cooler

412- Hot Shot Ignition in reheat system means:

a- The streak of flame initiated in the combustion chamber ignites the fuel/air
mixture in the reheat jet pipe.
b- a separated ignition system ignites the fuel/air mixture in the reheat jet pipe.
c- the mian ignition system suplyes a high voltage to the after burner igniteres to
ignites the fuel/air mixture in the reheat jet pipe.
d- The after burner reaches the chock wave condition

413- what is the prime purpose of Methanol

a- anti-freeze not increase in fuel for burning.
b- Anti-corrosion not increase in fuel for burning.
c- Extra fuel for burning.
d- only as anti ignitable.

414- The single shaft engine is a:

a- turboprop engine in which the propeller reduction gears are driven by the same
shaft which drives the compressor for the free turbine.
b- turboprop engine in which the propeller reduction gears are single or One-way
rotation gear box.
c- turboprop engine in which the propeller reduction gears are driven by the
same shaft which drives the compressor for the gas generator.
d- turboprop engine in which the propeller reduction gears are driven by the same
shaft which drives the compressor for the power turbine.
415- In turbo prop FADEC Control System:
a- The power control system changes the manual inputs from the two pilots,
into an electrical or an electronic output signal
b- The power control system changes the manual inputs from the over speed PCU
, into an electrical or an electronic output signal
c- The power control system changes the electrical or an electronic inputs from the
PCU, into a mechanical movement
d- The FADEC system not used at turbo prop engines

416- Planetary gears Advantages:

a- High torque output, low reverse reaction and all parts rotate centrally 60
degrees from center axis
b- High torque output, low backlash and all parts rotate concentrically
around center axis
c- High torque output, low reverse reaction and all parts rotate centrally 60
degrees from center axis
d- High torque output, low reverse reaction and all parts rotate centrally 90
degrees from center axis

417- in turbo prop engines how much of the energy produced in the gas
generator section is absorbed by the gas generator’s turbine to drive the
compressor?
a- 80%
b- 60%
c- 20%
d- 40%
418- When the flight control gust lock lever, labeled “CONT LOCK” is at the on
position:
a- the power lever can be moved to the MAX position.
b- the power lever can be moved to the MAX forward and MAX revers position.
c- the power lever cannot be moved to the MAX position.
d- There is no relation between power lever and the gust lock lever

419- What is the purpose of the freewheel unit?

a- to allow the rotor to drive the engine and prevent the engine from driving the
rotor.
b- to allow the engine to drive the gearbox and prevent the rotor from driving
the engine.
c- to allow the engine to drive the gearbox and allow the rotor to driving the
engine also.
d- to allow the engine to drive the gearbox and also allow the rotor to driving the
engine in auto rotation condition.

420- the turbo-shaft engine control system has an additional job to do that is
not shared by its turbojet and turbofan counterparts that job is:
a- it must control the speed of the tail rotor.
b- it must control the speed of main rotor.
c- it must control the speed of the free turbine.
d- it must control the speed of the gear box.
421- define the turbo shaft engine:
a- A gas turbine engine that delivers power through a shaft to operate
something other than a propeller
b- A gas turbine engine that delivers power through a shaft to a propeller
c- A gas turbine engine that delivers power through a reduction gear to a propeller
d- A gas turbine engine that delivers power through a shaft to operate something
like a propeller

422- The difference between the Roller freewheel unit used on the Aerospatiale
Gazelle and the sprag unit is that
a- Roller freewheel unit used for radial or thrust loads
b- Rollers are used rather than sprags.
c- Roller freewheel unit used to support radial loads only
d- sprags are used rather than rollers.

423- in turbo shaft engine the engine output drive is transmitted to the aircraft
main gearbox by a:
a- Muff or Sleeve coupling
b- Split Muff coupling
c- flanged coupling,
d- Splined shaft
424- the Beeper System used on most turbo shaft engine to set the Free Turbine
Governor datum, Because of:
a- the governor does not fully compensate for load changes on the main
rotor
b- The Governor is not concerned with the changes in load on the main rotor
c- The controller loses its control completely when any load changes occur on the
main rotor
d- The controller loses its control slightly when any load changes occur on the
main rotor

425- In FADEC Fuel Control of a turbo shaft engine, the HMU provides for gas
generator control in the areas of:
a- acceleration limiting, stall and flame out protection gas generator speed
limiting rapid response to power demands, and VG actuation.
b- just at normal operation trims the ECU
c- hot start condition
d- acceleration limiting, stall and flame out protection.

426- what is the function of Turbo-shaft Engine Fuel Controls?

a- It adjusts the engine fuel flow to provide the desired power regardless of
exceeding the RPM and TIT limitations of the engine.
b- It adjusts the engine fuel flow to provide the desired power without exceeding
the RPM but it hasn't control on TIT limitations of the engine.
c- It adjusts the engine fuel flow to provide the desired power without
exceeding the RPM and TIT limitations of the engine.
d- None of the above
427- later models of APU the inlet air is directed into the load compressor as
well as into the power section compressor so:
a- The load - compressor now satisfies all pneumatic loading requirements
without extracting any air from the power section.
b- The load - compressor now satisfies all pneumatic loading while the power
section or the high-pressure compressor for all electrical loading
c- The load - compressor now satisfies all electrical loading while the power
section or the high-pressure compressor for all pneumatic loading
d- The load - compressor now satisfies all pneumatic loading while the power
section or the high-pressure compressor for all hydraulic sources

428- In APU the electrical generator driven by:

a- The load compressor
b- power section compressor
c- pneumatic source
d- hydraulic sources

429- what is the prime function of a bleed air shut-off valve?

a- it is pneumatically operated valve, prevents a load compressor surge, by
discharging the excess of air in the exhaust.
b- it is electrically operated valve, prevents a load compressor surge, by
discharging the excess of air in the exhaust.
c- it is pneumatically operated valve, lets or stops the bleed air flow to the
pneumatic system.
d- it is fail safe valve to shutdown the bleed air when the engine suspected to over
torque condition
430- The APU Fuel Control Unit (FCU) supplies the fuel quantity which is
necessary for the APU operation, It also supplies the necessary fuel to:
a- Variable exhaust nozzle actuator
b- operates the IGV and the SURGE CONTROL VALVE actuators.
c- operate the IGV and the SURGE CONTROL VALVE and variable exhaust
nozzle actuators.
d- the Maine engine.

431- accessory drive gearbox is the FWD APU module. 2

a- It is connected directly to the high-pressure compressor module,
b- It is connected directly to the output shaft
c- It is connected directly to the load compressor module,
d- It is connected directly to the power takeoff shaft

432- In Wing Pylon Mounted Engine (Turbo-fan) the front mount is designed
with a failsafe feature and transmits
a- vertical, side and thrust loads to the aircraft pylon.
b- vertical and thrust loads to the aircraft pylon.
c- vertical and side loads to the aircraft pylon.
d- only the vertical load

433- The high-pressure cock

a- In a two-path system is controlled separately from the throttle, in a
single path system they are combined.
b- In a single-path system is controlled separately from the throttle, in a two -
path system they are combined.
c- In a two-path system or single path system is controlled separately from the
throttle.
d- Not used in aerospace vehicle flight
434- The engine deteriorated will be apparent in terms of:
a- Too little N2 (or N3) margins, too little EGT-margin and too high Foil pressure .
b- Too little N2 (or N3) margins, too little EGT-margin and too high Fuel
Flow.
c- Too little N2 (or N3) margins, too little EGT-margin and too high oil temperature
.
d- Too little N2 (or N3) margins, too high EGT-margin and too high Fuel Flow.

435- Mechanical wear trend can be sampled by monitoring and recording:

a- Oil consumption rate and oil pressure.
b- Vibration level,oil consumption rate and oil analysis results
c- Vibration level, oil consumption rate and oil pressure
d- oil consumption rate and high oil pressure and temperature

436- a preventative maintenance program that involves giving components pre-

established “lives” either in hours, calendar time or in operational cycles is:
a- Hard time maintenance program
b- On-condition maintenance program
c- Half time maintenance program
d- Contrary to all of the above, it is a non programed maintenance

437- Borescope holes are typically provided to give access to the engine:
a- compressors Section only
b- compressors, combustion chamber and the turbines.
c- turbines section only.
d- air intake section only
438- A large-scale deformation of the original contour of a part, usually caused
by the pressure or impact from a foreign object known as a:
a- Flaking
b- Galling
c- Buckling
d- creeping

439- The type of protection applied to an engine depends on:

a- how long it is expected to be out of service, if it is installed in an aircraft
and if it can be turned.
b- if the engine consider to be serviceable or not
c- the engine total hours
d- The aircraft total hours

440- Oil Circulation during Storage (Motoring Method)

a- This may be used on an engine which is installed either in the aircraft or in an
engine stand.
b- This should be used on all installed engines where it is convenient to turn
the engine using the normal starting system.
c- This is used when the engine cannot be turned.
d- Not preferred by most engine manufacturers
441- Under normal operating conditions the interior parts of an engine are
protected against corrosion by:
a- the continuous application of lubricating oil and operating temperatures
are sufficient to dispel any moisture which may tend to form.
b- adding 25% of corrosion preventive agent in oil tank because Continuous
lubrication and temperature operating is not enough
c- adding 35% of corrosion preventive agent in oil tank because Continuous
lubrication and temperature operating is not enough
d- adding 45% of corrosion preventive agent in oil tank because Continuous
lubrication and temperature operating is not enough

442- the (MVP) abbreviation means:

a- Material vapor proof
b- moisture vapor proof
c- Minimum vapor proof
d- medium vapor proof

443- If the engines have been removed from aircraft for storage and because the
fuel used in turbine engines usually contains a small quantity of water:
a- All the fuel should therefore be removed and replaced with an approved
inhibiting oil.
b- All the fuel should therefore be removed and drained
c- All the fuel should therefore be mixed with an approved inhibiting oi
d- All the fuel should therefore be removed and the fuel lines should not be
covered for a few days to be vented and evaporated to the air
444- Oil should be Circulated during Storage so there are three general methods
to do that which are:
a- Motoring, method pressurerig method and gravity method
b- pressurerig method and gravity method
c- Motoring and gravity method
d- Motoring, method pressurerig method and (scavenging) method Motoring,
method

445- Oil Circulation during Storage Gravity Method

a- This is used when the engine uninstalled at aircraft
b- This is used when the engine cannot be turned.
c- This is used when the engine running
d- This is used when the engine seized.

446- In case of storing uninstalled engines, appropriate entries must be made in

the engine log book giving particulars of:
a- Allowable storage time
b- Purpose of storage
c- inhibiting procedures or periodic ground running.
d- All of the above.

447- On an axial flow, dual compressor forward fan engine, the fan turns the
same speed as the:
a- Low pressure turbine.
b- High pressure compressor
c- Forward turbine wheel.
d- Forward turbine exhausts
448- A turbo jet engine gives.
a- Large acceleration to a small mass of air.
b- Large acceleration to a large weight of air.
c- Small acceleration to a large mass of air.
d- Large acceleration to a large pressure of air.

449- The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold
section and the hot section
a- The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine sections
b- The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust.
c- The hot section includes the combustor, turbine, and exhaust.
d- The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and coil.

450- A jet engine derives its thrust by.

a- Drawing air into the compressor.
b- Impingement of the propelling gases on the outside air
c- Reaction of the propelling gases
d- Less air into the compressor

451- Which of the following might be used to identify turbine discharge

pressure?
a- Pt7
b- Pt2
c- Tt7
d- Tt2.
452- In a free turbine.
a- There is a clutch between compressor and power output shaft.
b- There is a direct drive with a free-wheel unit.
c- There is no mechanical connection with the compressor.
d- There is a governor with a free-wheel unit.

453- Bernoulli's Theorem states that at any point in a flow of gas.

a- The static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal.
b- The static pressure is less than the dynamic pressure.
c- The static pressure is Higher than the dynamic pressure.
d- The total energy remains constant

454- The working fluid of a gas turbine engine is.

a- Gasoline.
b- Kerosene.
c- Air.
d- Fuel

455- Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine propulsion?

a- Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large amount of acceleration to
a smaller mass of air.
b- In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the exhaust gas energy
is extracted by turbines to drive the propeller and compressor with the rest
providing exhaust thrust.
c- Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively minimum amount of
acceleration to a smaller mass of air.
d- An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of
acceleration to a large mass of air.
456- As subsonic air flows through a convergent nozzle the velocity.
a- Decreases.
b- Increases.
c- Remains constant
d- More drag.

457- In a twin spool compressor system, the first stage turbine drives them.
a- N2 compressor.
b- N1 and N2 compressors.
c- N1 compressor.
d- N1 and N2 compressors equal.

458- At what point in an axial flow turbojet engine will the highest gas pressures
occur?
a- At the compressor outlet
b- At the turbine entrance.
c- Within the burner section.
d- Within the air inlet .

459- Which of the following units are generally used to measure aircraft noise?
a- Effective perceived noise decibels (E P N d B).
b- Decibels (dB).
c- Sound pressure
d- High burner section.

460- The diffuser section is located between.

a- The burner section and the turbine section.
b- Station No. 7 and station No. 8.
c- The compressor section and the burner section.
d- Station No. 8 and station No. 9.
461- If the LP shaft shears.
a- Compressor in low level
b- Compressor over speed occurs.
c- Compressor under speed occurs.
d- Turbine runaway occurs.

462- The term Pt7 means.

a- Pressure and temperature at station No. 7.
b- The total pressure at station No. 7.
c- The total inlet pressure.
d- The total inlet outlet pressure.

463- What section provides proper mixing of the fuel and efficient burning of the
gases?
a- Diffuser section and combustion section.
b- Combustion section and compressor section.
c- Combustion section only.
d- Turbine section. Combustion section only.

464- Of the following, which engine type would most likely have a noise
suppression unit installed?
a- Turboprop.
b- Turbojet.
c- Turboshaft.
d- Gas turbine
465- The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle.
a- Decreases.
b- Increases.
c- Increases.
d- Is directly proportional to the temperature

466- The symbol for designating the speed of a LP compressor in a twin spool
engine is.
a- N.
b- NG.
c- N1.
d- N2

467- A turbojet engine is smoother running than a piston engine because.

a- The lubrication is better.
b- It runs at a lower temperature.
c- It has no reciprocating parts.
d- The cooling is better.

468- A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?

a- Compressor, diffuser, and stator.
b- Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
c- Turbine, combustion, and stator.
d- Turbine, combustion, and rotor.

469- When a volume of air is compressed.

a- Heat is gained.
b- No heat is lost or gained.
c- Heat is lost
d- Heat is radiation
470- The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle.
a- Increases.
b- Remains constant.
c- Decreases.
d- none of the above

471- In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle located?

a- Exhaust.
b- Turbine.
c- Combustion.
d- Compressor.

472- Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia, states:.
a- To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
b- Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration.
c- Everybody persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line,
unless acted upon by some outside force.
d- Force is inversely to the product of mass and acceleration

473- A high bypass engine results in.

a- Overall slower airflow and greater propulsive efficiency.
b- Overall faster airflow.
c- Greater propulsive efficiency.
d- Overall lower airflow.

474- The Brayton cycle is known as the constant.

a- Temperature cycle.
b- Mass cycle.
c- Pressure cycle.
d- Retain cycle.
475- In a choked nozzle, velocity increases, and.
a- Density decreases.
b- Pressure decreases.
c- Density increases.
d- Pressure increases.

476- Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level temperature
is
a- 29°C.
b- 59°F.
c- 59°C.
d- 69°C.

477- Standard sea level pressure is.

a- 29.92 inches Hg
b- 29.29 inches Hg.
c- 29.00 inches Hg.
d- 30.00 inches Hg

478- The highest pressure in a gas turbine is.

a- At the nozzle exit.
b- At the burner exit.
c- Just after the last compressor stage but before the burner.
d- At the inlet

479- The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle.

a- Remains constant.
b- Increases.
c- Decreases.
d- Cover by housing.
480- A turboprop engine derives its thrust by.
a- Impingement of the prop-wash on the outside air.
b- Reaction of the prop-wash.
c- Reaction of the propulsion gases.
d- Reaction of the exhaust gases.
481- Adiabatic compression is.
a- An isothermal process.
b- One where there is an increase in kinetic energy.
c- One where there is no loss or gain of heat.
d- One where there is an less in kinetic energy.

482- In a ducted fan engine, the fan is driven by the.

a- Turbine.
b- Air passing over the compressor.
c- Accessory gearbox.
d- Exhaust

483- modular constructed gas turbine engine means that.

a- All engines have a specific component layout.
b- The engine is constructed by the vertical assembly technique.
c- Its major components can be removed and replaced without disturbing the
rest of the engine
d- All engines have complex component layout.

484- On a gas turbine engine, what is the fan driven by?

a- I P turbine
b- LP turbine
c- H P turbine
d- N1 compressor
485- Which law relates to the kinetic, pressure, and potential energy in a fluid
flow?
a- Bernoulli's theorem.
b- Newton's laws.
c- Charles's law
d- Ohms law.

486- The density of gas may be expressed as.

a- Volume / weight.
b- Weight / volume.
c- Pressure / volume.
d- Volume / mass.

487- A divergent duct will cause subsonic flow to decrease in.

a- Velocity, increase pressure.
b- Velocity, pressure remains constant
c- Pressure, increase velocity.
d- Pressure, decrees velocity.

488- The Brayton cycle is.

a- The name given to the intermittent cycling of an electrical de-icing system.
b- The continuous combustion cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine
c- The constant velocity cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.
d- The high velocity cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.

489- The purpose of a diffuser is to.

a- Increase the kinetic energy of the air.
b- Induce a swirl to the air prior to combustion.
c- Increase the static pressure of the air.
d- Decrease the kinetic energy of the air.
490- On a triple spool engine, the first stage of turbines drive.
a- The LP compressor
b- The HP compressor
c- The I P compressor
d- None of the above

491- Ram effect is.

a- The increase of dynamic pressure at the face of the compress.
b- Conversion of static pressure to kinetic pressure at the face of the compressor
c- Conversion of kinetic energy to pressure energy at the face of the
compressor
d- Conversion of high pressure to low pressure at the face of the compressor.

492- In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system with a free power
turbine, Nf would be an indication of.
a- Turbine thrust indication
b- First stage compressor speed.
c- Second stage compressor speed.
d- Free power turbine speed.

493- The 'core engine' or 'gas generator' is made up of the following

components:
a- Inlet, compressor, combustion chamber, turbine, exhaust.
b- Turbine, combustion chamber, compressor.
c- Compressor, turbine, exhaust, propelling nozzle.
d- Outlet, compressor, combustion chamber
494- The principle of jet propulsion is.
a- The calorific value of fuel burnt is equal to aircraft.
b- The interaction of fluids and gases.
c- Every action has an equal and opposite reaction.
d- The interaction of pressure and gases.

495- Boyle's law states that, at constant temperature, if a gas is compressed.

a- Its absolute pressure is proportional to its volume.
b- Its absolute temperature is proportional to its volume.
c- Its absolute pressure is inversely proportional to its volume.
d- Its absolute pressure is inversely to its volume.

496- Ram effect' due to aircraft forward speed will cause the efficiency of the
engine to.
a- Remain constant.
b- Decrease.
c- Reaches saturation
d- Increase.

497- Some turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped with two spool or split
compressors. When these engines are operated at high altitudes, the:
a- Low pressure rotor will increase in speed as the compressor load
decreases in the lower density air.
b- Low pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the compressor load decreases in
the lower density air.
c- Throttle must be retarded to prevent over speeding of the high pressure rotor
due to the lower density air.
d- High pressure rotor will increase in speed as the compressor load icreases in
the lower density air.
498- Ram effect' due to aircraft forward speed will cause the thrust of the engine
to.
a- Remain constant
b- Decrease.
c- Increase.
d- none of the above.

499- At what stage in a gas turbine engine are gas pressures the greatest?
a- Compressor outlet.
b- Turbine outlet.
c- Compressor inlet.
d- Compressor release

500- The highest heat to metal contact in a jet engine is the.

a- Burner cans.
b- Turbine inlet guide vanes.
c- Turbine blades.
d- Turbine outlet.

501- Which compressor type gives the greatest advantages for both starting
flexibility and improved high altitude performance?
a- Single spool, axial flow
b- Dual stage, centrifugal flow.
c- Split spool, axial flow
d- Double spool, axial flow.
502- Thrust.
a- Increases with high temperature
b- Increases with low temperature
c- Decreases with low temperature
d- Increases with high pressure

503- How does engine thrust vary with temperature?

a- increase in temperature gives greater thrust because of low friction in
compressors
b- Low temperatures give low thrust.
c- Low temperature gives greater mass flow and therefore greater thrust.
d- Low pressure gives low thrust.

504- A method of comparing engine efficiencies is by comparing.

a- Fuel consumption
b- Thrust to weight ratio
c- Fuel controlling
d- Specific fuel consumption

505- The point of maximum velocity in the engine is in the.

a- Exhaust exit nozzle
b- Combustion chamber
c- Nozzle guide vanes
d- Inlet nozzle

506- With the aircraft stationary, propulsive efficiency.

a- Depends on RPM.
b- Is minimum
c- Is maximum
d- Is constant
507- What effect does high atmospheric humidity have on the operation of a jet
engine?
a- Decreases compressor and turbine RPM.
b- Decreases engine pressure ratio.
c- Has little or no effect
d- Increases engine pressure ratio.

508- Power is adjusted in a gas turbine engine by.

a- Increasing fuel flow
b- Increasing air and fuel flow
c- Increasing airflow to the combustion chamber
d- Decreasing fuel flow

509- Flat Rated thrust is defined as.

a- The thrust at the ambient temperature point above which thrust drops
below 100%.
b- That power achieved at idle RPM
c- That power achieved at maximum EGT.
d- That power achieved at minimum EGT

510- Propeller torque is analogous to.

a- Engine RPM
b- Shaft horsepower
c- Propeller RPM.
d- Combustion chamber
511- The total power in a turboprop engine is the.
a- SHP.
b- BHP
c- E S HP
d- I SHP

512- With an increase in forward speed, the engine thrust.

a- Decreases slightly but recover due to ram effect.
b- Increases.
c- Decreases.
d- High slightly.

513- The main factor considered when designing an engine is.

a- Maximum fuel consumption
b- Maximum turbine temperature
c- Maximum tip speed
d- Minimum tip speed
514- Thrust will:
a- Increase at high temperatures
b- Decrease at low temperatures
c- Increase at low temperatures
d- Constant at low temperatures

515- Ram pressure recovery will generally take effect at aircraft speeds of.
a- Mach 1
b- Mach 0.1 - 0.2.
c- Only when the aircraft is stationary with engines running.
d- Mach 2.
516- As the air is passed through the turbine, due to the convergent shape
formed between adjacent blades.
a- Pressure decreases, velocity increases, temperature increases
b- Pressure increases, velocity increases, temperature constant
c- Pressure decreases, velocity increases, temperature decreases
d- Pressure decreases, velocity fixed, temperature fixed.

517- The hottest component in a gas turbine engine is.

a- The nozzle guide vanes.
b- The turbines
c- The combustion chambers
d- The exhaust.

518- The basic equation for thrust is.

a- Thrust = force X acceleration
b- Thrust = mass X velocity.
c- Thrust = mass X acceleration
d- Thrust = velocity X acceleration
519- The term Pb means.
a- Burner pressure measured at the diffuser case.
b- Burner pressure measured at the NGV.
c- Burner pressure measured at exhaust
d- Burner pressure measured at the combustion chamber

520- Which of the following is not an engine rating?

a- Maximum Continuous
b- Idle.
c- Maximum Take Off.
d- A and B.
521- Ram Recovery' is a measure of.
a- Intake efficiency
b- Net thrust
c- Forward air speed.
d- Outlet efficiency

522- With increasing ram effect.

a- Turbine temperatures decreases
b- Propulsive efficiency decreases
c- Propulsive efficiency increases
d- None of the above

523- Full reverse power is approximately.

a- 95% of forward thrust
b- 75% of forward thrust
c- 50% of forward thrust
d- 60% of forward thrust.

524- The efficiency of a gas turbine would be greatest at.

a- Cold temperatures
b- Low pressure
c- Hot temperatures
d- High pressure.

525- In a gas turbine engine, turbine section.

a- Temperature decreases along with pressure and velocity.
b- Velocity decreases and pressure increases.
c- Temperature increases along with pressure and velocity.
d- Velocity increases and pressure decreases
526- Through turbine rotor blades, the pressure.
a- Increases, temperature increases, velocity decreases.
b- Decreases, temperature and velocity decreases
c- Remains constant, temperature increases
d- Decreases, velocity and temperature decreases

527- Temperature of the mass airflow through a Gas Turbine Engine.

a- Increases from the inlet, through the compressor and the diffuser into the
burner and decreases through the turbine into the exhaust.
b- Increases from the inlet, through the compressor and remains constant through
the diffuser and increases at the burner, and decreases through the turbine into
the exhaust.
c- Remains constant at the inlet, increases from the compressor and the diffuser
into the burner, and decreases through the turbine into the exhaust.
d- Remains constant at the inlet, decreases from the compressor and the diffuser
into the burner, and increases through the turbine into the exhaust.

528- If an electrical de-icing system is operating, thrust will.

a- Decrease
b- Remain constant
c- Increase.
d- Out of operation

529- A bell mouth compressor inlet is used on.

a- Helicopters.
b- Supersonic aircraft.
c- Aircraft with low ground clearance
d- Civil aircraft.
530- A pitot intake is divergent from front to rear because it.
a- Reduces ram compression
b- Produces the maximum amount of ram compression
c- Speeds up the air before it hits the compressor face.
d- Speeds down the air before it hits the compressor face.

531- The term 'Ram Ratio' in regard to air intakes is the relationship between.
a- Ambient pressure and ambient temperature.
b- Ambient temperature and compressor inlet temperature.
c- Ambient pressure and compressor inlet pressure
d- Ambient temperature and compressor outlet temperature.

532- Intake air turbulence.

a- Decreases the efficiency of the compressor.
b- Increases the efficiency of the compressor.
c- Has little effect on the efficiency of the compressor.
d- Has little effect on the efficiency of the injection.

533- The vortex dissipators installed on some turbine-powered aircraft to

prevent engine FOD utilize.
a- Variable geometry inlet ducts.
b- Variable inlet guide vanes (IGV) and/or variable first stage fan blades
c- A stream of engine bleed air blown toward the ground ahead of the
engine.
d- Variable geometry outlet ducts.
534- The inlet door of a variable geometry intake at supersonic speeds will be.
a- Closed.
b- Open.
c- Mid-Position
d- Top-Position

535- Anti-icing for a turboprop is achieved by.

a- Beed air supply from compressor.
b- Electric bonded heater mats.
c- Hot oil supply from lubrication system.
d- Beed air supply from exhaust.

536- The variable inlet guide vanes are operated.

a- By fuel pressure.
b- Electrically from cockpit.
c- Using N1 fan speed.
d- Outlet pressure.

537- If an inlet is choked then the velocity.

a- Increases and pressure decreases.
b- Increases and pressure increases.
c- Decreases and pressure increases.
d- Constant and pressure constant

538- A well designed intake will take advantage of forward speed by.
a- Converting kinetic energy into pressure energy.
b- Converting velocity energy into kinetic energy.
c- Converting pressure energy of the air into kinetic energy.
d- Converting potential energy of the air into kinetic energy
539- What type of intake is one that decreases gradually in area and then increases?
a- Convergent.
b- Convergent / Divergent
c- Divergent.
d- none of the above

540- Intakes are designed to.

a- Decrease the intake air pressure
b- Decelerate the free air stream flow.
c- Accelerate the free air stream flow.
d- Maintain the free air stream flow

541- A bypass engine LP compressor.

a- Supplies less air than is required for combusti15.4 Compressor
b- Supplies more air than is required for combustion
c- Supplies only the required quantity for combustion
d- None of the above
542- What are the two main functional components in a centrifugal compressor?.
a- Bucket and expander
b- Impeller and diffuser
c- Turbine and compressor
d- Open as required.

543- A bypass ratio of 5:1 indicates that the bypass flow is.
a- Equal to 1/5 of the hot stream
b- Five times the hot stream
c- Five times the cold stream
d- Equal to 5/1 of the hot stream
544- The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor.
a- Direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the proper angle.
b- Convert kinetic energy onto velocity energy
c- Convert pressure energy onto velocity energy
d- Convert velocity energy into pressure energy.

545- hat unit in a gas turbine engine aid in stabilisation of the compressor during
low thrust engine operations?
a- Bleed air valves
b- Stator vanes
c- Inlet guide vanes
d- Outlet guide vanes

546- What purpose do the diffuser vanes of a centrifugal compressor serve?

a- To convert pressure energy into kinetic energy.
b- To increase the air velocity
c- To convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
d- Converting potential energy of the air into kinetic energy

547- High speed propellers are designed to.

a- Rotate at high RPM
b- Operate at high forward speeds
c- Operate at supersonic tip speeds
d- Operate at fixed tip speeds

548- The optimum angle for a fixed pitch propeller is

a- 15 degrees
b- 2 - 4 degrees
c- 6 - 10 degrees
d- 8 - 12 degrees
549- A left handed propeller is one that.
a- Rotates clockwise when viewed from the rear.
b- Rotates clockwise when viewed from the front
c- Is fitted to an engine on the left side of the aircraft
d- Is fitted to an engine on the right side of the aircraft

550- Forces acting on a propeller are

a- Centrifugal, twisting, and bending
b- Torque, thrust and centrifugal
c- Torsion, tension and thrust
d- Torque, thrust and drag.
551- The blade angle at the root is.
a- Less than the tip
b- Same from tip to root
c- Greater than the tip
d- Less than the thrust.

552- What force on a propeller blade turns the blades to a fine pitch?
a- ATM.
b- Torque.
c- CTM.
d- Vibration

553- The purpose of propeller twist is.

a- Coarsen the blade angle at the root.
b- To maintain blade angle along the blade.
c- To increase blade angle along the blade
d- To maintain Angle of Attack at the same value along the blade
554- Blade angle is taken from the chord and
a- Propeller shaft.
b- Relative airflow
c- Plane of rotation
d- Propeller fan

555- CTM will:

a- Try to bend the blade away from the engine
b- Turn the blade about the lateral axis
c- Cause the tips to rotate at supersonic speeds.
d- Try to attract the blade away from the engine.

556- When in reverse pitch, CTM will tend to move the propeller blades towards
a- A positive pitch
b- A position depending on rpm
c- A negative pitch
d- Propeller shaft.

557- If the blade angle is increased.

a- The pitch becomes finer.
b- The pitch becomes coarser.
c- Lateral stability decreases.
d- The pitch becomes expanded.

558- As a propeller blade moves through the air, forces are produced, which are
known as.
a- Lift and torque.
b- Lift and drag.
c- Thrust and torque.
d- Drag and lift.
559- Propeller efficiency is.
a- The ratio of output speed to input propeller speed.
b- The ratio of the work applied to the geometric pitch to useful work on the
C.S.U.
c- The ratio of the useful work done by the propeller to work done by the
engine on the propeller
d- The ratio of rotor speed to fan propeller speed.

560- Geometric Pitch is the distance moved.

a- In one revolution
b- In one revolution when slip is maximum.
c- In one revolution when slip is minimum.
d- in one revolution without slip

561- As propeller rotation speed increases the centrifugal turning moment on the
blades will.
a- Increase.
b- Decrease.
c- Remain constant through R.P.M range.
d- Change through R.P.M range.

562- Propeller blade angle.

a- Is constant along the blade length.
b- Decreases from root to tip.
c- Increases from root to tip.
d- Remain constant through R.P.M range.
563- Effective pitch is.
a- Distance moved in one revolution.
b- Geometric pitch plus slip.
c- Pitch measured at the master station.
d- Geometric pitch divided by slip.

564- Windmilling causes.

a- Propeller under speeding.
b- Maximum propeller drag.
c- Centrifugal Twisting Moment.
d- Minimum propeller drag.
565- Torque acts.
a- In the same direction as the plane of rotation.
b- At right angles to the plane of rotation.
c- In opposition to the direction of rotation.
d- At lift angles to the plane of rotation.

566- The purpose of blade twist is to.

a- Reduce angle of attack at the blade root.
b- To ensure that tip speed does not go faster than Mach 1.
c- Increase angle of attack at the blade root.
d- To even out thrust distribution across the propeller.

567- The velocity of the slipstream behind the aircraft in relation to the ambient
air is.
a- Less.
b- Greater.
c- Equal.
d- In safe operation
568- High speed aero foils are employed at.
a- The master station.
b- The tips.
c- The root.
d- The combustion

569- The chord line of a propeller is.

a- A line joining the leading and trailing edges.
b- A line joining the tip to the root of the blade.
c- A line joining the tips of the blades.
d- A line joining the slots of the blades.
570- The plane of rotation is defined as.
a- The plane in which thrust force acts.
b- The plane in which the propeller rotates.
c- The angle at which the blade strikes the airflow.
d- At right angles to the plane of rotation

571- Thrust bending force on a propeller blade.

a- Intensifies the centrifugal forces to some degrees.
b- Can be used in propeller design to reduce some operation stress.
c- Tends to bend the propeller blade forward at the tip.
d- Tends to bend the propeller blade down.

572- The primary purpose of propeller is to.

a- Change engine horsepower to thrust.
b- Provide static and dynamic stability to aircraft.
c- Create lift on the fixed aero foils of an aircraft.
d- Change engine horsepower to drag.
573- The primary purpose of a feathering propeller is to.
a- Prevent further engine damage when an engine fails in flight.
b- Prevent propeller damage when an engine fails in flight.
c- Eliminate the drag created by a windmilling propeller when an engine fails
in flight.
d- Prevent further engine start when an engine fails in flight.

574- A conventional turboprop torque meter uses.

a- Hydraulic oil as the pressure medium.
b- Coiled spring levers as the pressure medium.
c- Engine oil as the pressure high.
d- Engine oil as the pressure medium.
575- Metal at the tip and along the leading edge of a wooden propeller is.
a- For balancing.
b- For protection
c- For Anti-icing.
d- Prevent vibration.

576- Blade cuffs are fitted to the root of the blades.

a- To increase the strength of the blade.
b- To increase thrust
c- To increase flow of cooling air into the engine nacelle.
d- To increase drag.

577- Torque sensing is used to.

a- Reduce drag
b- Reduce drag following engine shutdown
c- Synchronise blade angle
d- To increase thrust.
578- The minimum percentage seating on a propeller rear cone should be.
a- 90%.
b- 70%.
c- 95%.
d- 100%

579- The propeller is 'feathered' when the blades are at.

a- 0° to plane of rotation.
b- 20° to plane of rotation.
c- 90° to plane of rotation.
d- 30° to plane of rotation.

580- On which type of turbo-propeller would you expect to find a parking brake?
a- Compounded twin spool.
b- Direct coupled twin spool.
c- In plane rotation
d- Free turbine.

581- A propeller is centralised on the propeller shaft by.

a- The front and rear cones.
b- The front git seal.
c- The rear pre-load shims.
d- The rear pre-nuzzle.

582- Reduction gearing allows the.

a- Blade tips to operate below the speed of sound.
b- Blade tips to operate above the speed of sound
c- Blade tips to rotate slower than the root of the propeller blade
d- Blade tips to rotate rear than the root of the propeller blade.
583- When fitting a propeller to a tapered shaft.
a- Locate the master spline.
b- Ensure the master spline and blade alignment are in accordance with the MM.
c- Ensure fully seated.
d- Ensure fully pressure

584- What is the purpose of small holes at the tip of wooden propellers?
a- Drainage.
b- Balancing.
c- Pivot points used during manufacture.
d- All answers are correct.
585- The thrust face of a propeller blade is the.
a- root to which the gear segment is fitted.
b- blade face or flat side.
c- blade back or curved side.
d- blade back or concave side.

586- A turbo-prop engine.

a- Uses an epicyclic reduction gear system.
b- Uses a spur gear reduction system.
c- Does not require a reduction gear system due to the prop shaft being driven
from the low speed compressor
d- Uses a speed driver reduction system.

587- Total power of a turbo-prop engine is measured in.

a- Equivalent Shaft Horsepower (ESHP).
b- Shaft Horsepower (SHP).
c- Brake Horsepower (BHP).
d- Maximum Shaft Horsepower (ESHP).
588- The disadvantage of using reverse pitch on a turbo-propeller engine is.
a- Exhaust gas ingestion , high gas temperature and debris ingestion.
b- Debris ingestion
c- High gas temperature
d- Cold gas temperature

589- When the power lever on a turbo prop engine is moved from ground idle to
flight fine the fuel flow increases and the blade angle.
a- Increases.
b- Decreases.
c- Remains the same.
d- No thrust.

590- How is the blade station measured?

a- In inches from the center of the hub.
b- In inches from the tip.
c- As a percentage of blade length from the tip.
d- In degree from the tip.

591- The oil used in the torquemeter system is.

a- DTD 5 8 5.
b- engine oil pressure boosted by a pump driven off the reduction gear.
c- PCU oil pressure.
d- DTD 50
592- Which type of turboprop engine is practically free from surge and requires
low power for starting?
a- Compound twin spool.
b- Directly coupled
c- One using a centrifugal compressor.
d- All of the above.

593- The purpose of using reverse pitch propellers is to.

a- Provide aerodynamic breaking.
b- Allow aircraft to taxi backwards.
c- Reverse the direction of rotation of the propeller.
d- Allow aircraft to taxi forward.

594- A two position prop uses.

a- High pitch for takeoff and low pitch for cruise.
b- Low pitch for takeoff and climb and high pitch for cruise
c- High pitch for takeoff, low pitch for climb and descent and high pitch for cruise.
d- Low pitch for takeoff and low pitch for cruise.

595- A propeller operating in the Beta range is operating between.

a- Flight Idle and Ground Idle.
b- Coarse and flight fine pitch.
c- Maximum reverse pitch and Flight idle pitch.
d- Minimum reverse pitch and Flight idle pitch.

596- The pressure face of a propeller is.

a- The flat face.
b- The leading edge
c- The camber face.
d- The takeoff edge.
597- In blade station numbering the stations nearest the hub are.
a- Datum.
b- Highest.
c- Lowest.
d- The same .

598- A propeller mounted forward of the engine is known as.

a- Hydromatic propeller.
b- A tractor propeller
c- A pusher propeller.
d- A motor propeller

599- Contra-rotating propellers are.

a- Two propellers on the same shaft on one engine-each revolving in a
different direction
b- Propellers geared to rotate in the opposite direction to the engine.
c- Propellers on a twin engine aircraft revolving in opposite directions.
d- None of the above.

600- The term spinner is applied to.

a- A propeller tip vortex.
b- A streamline covering over the propeller hub.
c- An acrobatic maneuvers.
d- A streamline covering over the propeller nuzzle.
601- Turbo-prop engines require a slightly higher viscosity oil than a turbo-jet
engine due to.
a- Lower engine rpm.
b- Higher engine rpm.
c- Reduction gear and propeller pitch change mechanism.
d- Constant engine rpm.

602- Variable pitch propellers are used because they are.

a- Reduce vibration and noise.
b- Have peak efficiency over a greater speed range.
c- More economical
d- High in cost.

603- The condition lever normally has the following settings.

a- Normal, beta-range and reverse range.
b- Cut-off, idle and high idle.
c- Rich, lean and cut-off.
d- Normal, beta-range and forward range.

604- What is the ground clearance for a Tricycle Geared Aircraft?

a- 7 inches.
b- 9 inches.
c- 1 inch.
d- 3 inch.
605- In a variable pitch propeller system, a decrease in propeller RPM will alter
the angle of attack on the blade to.
a- Increase angle of attack.
b- Decrease angle of attack.
c- Increase negative torque
d- Increase stall

606- To achieve reverse pitch the blade angle must be.

a- More than 17°.
b- Less than 0°.
c- More than 90°.
d- More than 80°.
607- Centrifugal latches are fitted to lock the propeller.
a- In the feathered position.
b- In the rotation position.
c- In the fine pitch position.
d- When stationary.

608- the limits for blade angle are controlled by pitch stops on the.
a- Propeller shaft.
b- Blade root.
c- Cylinder.
d- Propeller cam.

609- The purpose of fine pitch stop is to.

a- Maintain constant speed in flight.
b- Prevent the propeller moving below flight fine pitch in flight.
c- Maintain maximum RPM at takeoff.
d- Maintain constant pressure in flight.
610- Which best describes a Variable Pitch propeller?
a- The blade angles can be changed in flight.
b- Its blade angles are set with an automatic system with which the pilot has no
input
c- Its blade angles can only be set on the ground.
d- The blade angles can be hold in flight.

611- The primary purpose of the front and rear cones for propellers that are
installed on splined shafts is to.
a- Prevent metal-to-metal contact between the propeller and the splined shaft.
b- Reduce stresses between the splines of the propeller and the splines of the
shaft.
c- Position the propeller hub on the splined shaft.
d- Past metal-to-metal contact between the propeller and the splined shaft.

612- The constant-speed control unit is also called a.

a- Propeller pitch control.
b- Accumulator.
c- Governor.
d- Drive cam.

613- When the compressive force on a speeder spring is reduced, the propeller
blades will.
a- Remain fixed.
b- Fine off.
c- Change.
d- Coarsen.
614- When in the beta range, the propeller pitch is controlled.
a- Directly from the power lever.
b- Indirectly from the power lever.
c- Directly from the pitch change mechanism to the PCU.
d- Directly from the rotor.

615- On an under speed condition the blades are turned to.

a- Fine.
b- Feather.
c- Coarse.
d- Accumulator.

616- In a hydromantic propeller with counterweights, what is used to make the

propeller move to fine pitch?
a- A T M.
b- Engine oil.
c- Centrifugal force acting on the counterweight
d- Lever.

617- If governor flywheel overcomes the speeder spring, it indicates.

a- Underspeed.
b- Overspeed.
c- Onspeed
d- Overload.

618- If force is applied to the speeder spring, what will happen?

a- Blade angle is frozen in last known position
b- Blade angle coarsen.
c- Blade angle finer
d- Blade angle higher.
619- When the flyweights fly outwards in a PCU, this is known as.
a- On speed.
b- Overspeed.
c- low power settings with higher than normal pitch setting for ground maneuvers
d- High power settings with low pitch setting for ground maneuvers.

620- In an on speed condition, oil in the tube.

a- Remains constant
b- Flows in the tubes
c- Flows out of the tubes
d- Flows in the slots.

621- On a reversing propeller moving to the maximum reversing angle, the propeller
goes.
a- From fine pitch through plane of rotation, course reverse then fine reverse
b- From course pitch through plane of rotation course, fine reverse then course
reverse.
c- From fine pitch through plane of rotation, fine reverse then course revers
d- From fine pitch through plane of thrust, course reverse then fine reverse.

622- If pressure is increased on the speeder spring, rpm increases. What

happens to the blade angle?
a- Remains unchanged.
b- Increases.
c- Overloaded.
d- Decreases.
623- In a prop with counterweights, what is used to make it move to fine pitch?
a- ATM.
b- Centrifugal force acting on the counterweight
c- Governor oil pressure.
d- RPM

624- If a propeller is in fine pitch and then moves to feather it will pass through.
a- Flight fine only.
b- Reverse.
c- Coarse.
d- Oil tank.

625- A 'double' acting propeller has.

a- Nitrogen or air on one side of piston
b- Oil pressure on one side of piston
c- Oil pressure on two sides of piston.
d- Oil pressure on deep of piston.

626- During normal propeller operation, oil pressure for the governor is provided
by.
a- A pump in the governor
b- A variable volume pump.
c- The engine driven pump.
d- According to the need.

627- The hydromantic variable pitch propeller is operated on the principle of.
a- Aventuri or 'u' tube with mercury.
b- An electrical motor moving a gear segment.
c- Oil pressure moving a piston.
d- Air pressure
628- The constant speed unit (C.S.U.) governor works on the principle of.
a- selection through a gearbox
b- Centrifugal twisting moments
c- Oil pressure moving
d- Spring pressure acting against centrifugal force

629- The purpose of the pitch change cams is to.

a- Convert rotary motion to linear motion.
b- Prevent windmilling
c- Keep rotary motion
d- Convert linear motion to rotary motion.

630- The gear type pump in a C.S.U. or P.C.U.

a- Lubricates the entire propeller system.
b- Boosts engine oil system pressure
c- Assist the governor valve to move.
d- Assist the governor valve to closed.

631- When an engine fails.

a- The propeller is feathered using an electrical feathering pump.
b- The propeller is feathered using the propeller governor pump.
c- The propeller is feathered using counterweights
d- The propeller is feathered using the centrifugal pump.

632- The purpose of an accumulator in a single acting propeller system is to.

a- To port oil to the coarse pitch oil line to assist in feathering the propeller
b- Accelerate the unfeathering process.
c- Provide back up to the governor pump.
d- Provide pressure to the governor pump.
633- A propeller control Unit hydraulic system is supplied with oil from the.
a- Engine lubrication oil tank.
b- Aircraft hydraulic System.
c- PCU oil tank.
d- Splashing pump.

634- Oil for the feathering system is taken from.

a- A separate feathering oil tank.
b- A feathering reserve in the engine oil tank.
c- The engine lubrication system
d- A combined feathering oil tank.

635- An overspeed condition causes governor spring pressure to be.

a- The same as centrifugal force.
b- More than centrifugal force.
c- Less than centrifugal force.
d- None of the above.

636- When the engine is running, the CSU is sensing.

a- Propeller tip speed.
b- Propeller blade angle.
c- Propeller pressure
d- Engine RPM.
637- If governor weight spring pressure is reduced.
a- Governor weights will pivot inwards raising the governor valve allowing the
blades to move to a coarser pitch.
b- Governor weights will spring outwards raising the governor valve allowing the
blades to move to a finer pitch.
c- Governor weights will spring outwards raising the governor valve allowing
the blades to move to a coarser pitch.
d- Governor weights will spring towards raising the governor valve allowing the
blades to move to top.

638- When governor spring load is less than governor weights, the CSU is in.
a- Overspeed.
b- Underspeed.
c- On constant
d- Without thrust

639- How is a propeller controlled in a large aircraft?

a- By engine power lever.
b- By varying the engine RPM except for feathering and reversing.
c- Independently of the engine.
d- Operate stand by.

640- Manually feathering a hydromechanical propeller means to.

a- Block governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the propeller.
b- Port governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the propeller.
c- Block governor oil pressure from the cylinder of the propeller.
d- Allow governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the propeller.
641- How is the oil pressure delivery on a hydromantic propeller normally
stopped after the blades have reached their full-feathered position?.
a- Stop lugs in the teeth of the rotating cam.
b- Electric cut-out pressure switch.
c- Pulling out the feathering push-button.
d- Centrifugal switch

642- Counterweights on constant-speed propellers are generally used to.

a- Increase blade angle.
b- Decrease blade angle.
c- Unfeather the propeller.
d- Match engine rpm.

643- A constant speed propeller provides maximum efficiency by.

a- Increasing the lift coefficient of the blades.
b- Adjusting blade angle for most conditions encountered during flight.
c- Increasing blade pitch as the aircraft speed increases.
d- Decreasing the lift coefficient of the blades.
644- Synchrophasing reduces vibration by the use of.
a- Pulse probes and a single synchrophase unit.
b- Tachometers and correction motors.
c- Coordinating the rpm of each engine.
d- Coordinating the rotor of each engine.

645- Synchronising is carried out to.

a- Match propeller tip speed.
b- Match engine rpm.
c- Match blade phase angle difference.
d- Match engine pressure.
646- The synchronisation governor monitors.
a- RPM.
b- propeller tip speeds.
c- thrust tip speeds.
d- A T M.