PWD refused to release the payment to a contractor

unless he gave up his claim for extra rate, amounted to

• 1. fraud
• 2. undue influence
• 3. coercion
• 4. None of the above

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USE CODE PURI80 FOR MAX DISCOUNT

• 3. coercion
 When a person at whose option a contract is voidable
rescinds it, the consequence would be:
• 1. The party seeking recession need not perform and promise
• 2. the party seeking recession must restore the benefits that he has
• obtained under the contract
• 3. Neither (a) nor (b)
• 4. Both (a) and (b)

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USE CODE PURI80 FOR MAX DISCOUNT

• 4. Both (a) and (b)

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‘Consensus ad idem’, means

• 1. contract caused by mistake of one party as to matter of fact

• 2. Both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake
• 3. An agreement upon the same thing in the same sense
• 4. none of the above
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• 3. An agreement upon the same thing in the same sense

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Rescission of contract means

• 1. Minor changes
• 2. Alteration of terms
• 3. Cancellation of contract with the consent of both parties
• 4. All of the above
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• 3. Cancellation of contract with the consent of both parties

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A contract may be discharged

• 1. by performance
• 2. By impossibility of performance
• 3. By Breach
• 4. All of the above
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• 4. All of the above

 If it was not the intention of the parties that
time should be of the essence of the contract,
the effect of delay would be
• 1. the contract does not become voidable
• 2. The affected party does not have the right to reject
• 3. The affected party may sue the other party for any loss caused
• by the delay
• 4. All of the above

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USE CODE PURI80 FOR MAX DISCOUNT

• 4. All of the above

 A contract is made for the import of goods and
the import is thereafter forbidden by a
Government order. It is
• 1. an agreement to do an act impossible in itself
• 2. an agreement which is impossible by subsequent event
• 3. contract of novation
• 4. none of the above

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USE CODE PURI80 FOR MAX DISCOUNT

• 2. an agreement which is impossible by subsequent event

 The parties to the contract agree to substitute the
existing contract with new contract. This is
• 1. alteration
• 2. recession
• 3. novation
• 4. None of the above

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USE CODE PURI80 FOR MAX DISCOUNT

• 3. novation
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After novation
• 1. the parties can fall back upon the old contract
• 2. Damages were to be awarded on the terms of the old contract
• 3. The original is discharged and need not be performed
• 4. none of the above
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• 3. The original is discharged and need not be performed

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An agreement to remain unmarried is

• 1. Unenforceable
• 2. Void
• 3. Voidable
• 4. Valid
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• 2. Void
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Finder of lost goods should .

• 1. Not mix with his own goods
• 2. Take care of the goods
• 3. Trace the true owner
• 4. All of the above
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• 4. All of the above

An agreement becomes a contract when
• 1. These is some consideration for it
• 2. Parties are competent to contract
• 3. Their consent is free and their object is lawful
• 4. All of the above

BY SHIKHA PURI
• 4. All of the above
Which is correct

• 1. proposal + acceptance = promise

• 2. promise + consideration = agreement
• 3. agreement + enforceability = contract
• 4. all the above
• . all the above
Which among the following is enforceable
• 1. If A saves B from drowning and B later promises A a reward
• 2. A finds B’s purse and gives it to him. B promises to give A Rs.50
• 3. A supports B’s infant son. B promises to pay A’s expenses in so
doing
• 4. All of the above
• 4. All of the above
An agreement to do an act impossible is___

(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Voidable
(d) Voidable at the option of the promise
• Answer: Void
The person who gives the guarantee is called the

(a) Principal debtor

(b) Surety
(c) Creditor
(d) All of the above
• Answer: surety
A contract by which one party promises to save the other
from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor
himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is called a
“_________

(a) Contract of Guarantee

(b) Contingent contract.
(c) Contract of Indemnity.
(d) None of these
• Answer:Contract of Indemnity.
In a contract not specifying the time for
performance, the promisor can perform the
contract
• (a) within any time howsoever long it may be
• (b) within the shortest time
• (c) within a reasonable time
• (d) none of the above.
• (c) within a reasonable time
An agreement to remain unmarried is
• (a) valid
• (b) voidable
• (c) void
• (d) unenforceable.
• (c) void
An agreement in connection with horse-
racing under section 30 is
• (a) unlawful
• (b) void
• (c) voidable
• (d) valid.
• (d) valid.
An agreement to refer the dispute to the
arbitrator is valid
• (a) in respect of disputes already arisen
• (b) in respect of disputes which may arise in future
• (c) both (a) & (b)
• (d) neither (a) nor (b)
• (c) both (a) & (b)
An agreement in restraint of trade under
section 27 is
• (a) valid
• (b) voidable
• (c) void
• (d) unenforceable
• (c) void
Competency to Contract means-

Age of the parties

Soundness of mind of the parties
Both (a) and (b)
Intelligence of the parties.

CONTACT ME – shikha.puri@adda247.com
• Both (a) and (b)
A Counter offer is

A rejection of the original offer

An acceptance of the offer
A bargain
An invitation to treat
• A bargain
An agreement is a Voidable Contract when it is

Enforceable
Enforceable by Law at the option of the aggrieved party
Enforceable by both the parties
Not enforceable at all
• Enforceable by Law at the option of the aggrieved party
A Contract creates

Rights in personam
Rights in rem
Only rights and no obligations
Only Obligations and no rights
• Rights in personam
“Consensus –ad –idem” means

General Consensus
Meeting of minds upon the same thing in this same sense
Reaching an agreement
Reaching of contract
• Meeting of minds upon the same thing in this same sense
All illegal agreements are

Void-ab-initio
Valid
Contingent
Enforceable
• Void-ab-initio
If a new contract is substituted in place of an existing contract it
is called –

Alteration
Rescission
Novation
NOTA
• Novation
A finder of lost goods is a –

Bailor
Bailee
True Owner
Thief.
• Bailee
• Principle: Acceptance of the proposal must be the
exact mirror image of the proposal

• Facts: Bellatrix made a proposal to Malfoy to sell a

wardrobe foRs. 8000.Malfoy wants to buy
thewardrobe foRs. 6000.
• Malfoy has accepted the proposal of Bellatrix.
• Malfoy has not accepted the proposal of Bellatrix.
• It is not clear if Malfoy has accepted the proposal of Bellatrix.
• It is not clear whether Bellatrix made a proposal to Malfoy.
• Ans - b
• Principle: Any agreement entered into with a minor who is
below the age of 18 years is acontract tnatcannot be
enforced by law.
• Facts: Mr Potter entered into a contract with Lily, who is
seventeen years of age,to walk his dog every Monday and
Wednesday. Lily did not walk his dog on Wednesday. Is this
contract valid?.
• The agreement is enforceable by law.
• The agreement is not enforceable by law.
• The agreement is enforceable by Lily
• None of the above is true
• The agreement is not enforceable by law.
THANK YOU
When a contract is made for the benefit of the third party with a
legitimate interest in enforcing it, it can be enforced by the third party.

Factual Situation:
A and B were partners in a firm. They had contracted with each other in
the event of the death of one of the partners. The other partner will
indemnify the deceased partner’s spouse for the loss of income. A few
years later, A died, but B did not indemnify A’s wife for the loss of
income as was mentioned in the contract. Can she sue B for the
performance of the contract?
• No. A’s wife was not a party to the contract, and hence she cannot
sue B for the performance of the contract.
• Yes. the contract was entered into for the benefit of the partner’s
spouse, and hence A’s wife can sue B for the performance.
• Yes. since A’s wife was his legal heir, she should sue B.
• No. A’s wife is not a stakeholder nor has an interest in the firm’s
business. Hence she cannot sue
• B.Answer: (b) Yes. the contract was entered into for the benefit of the
partner’s spouse, and hence A’s wife can sue B for the performance.
An agreement made without consideration is void. An agreement made without
consideration will not be void if it is in writing, registered, and made on account of
natural love and affection or peace and harmony.
Factual Situation:
• A and her husband B worked in different cities and lived away from
each other for most of their time. However, B had promised A that he
would pay her Rs. 20,000/- every month so that she could come to
meet him over the weekends. B paid the said. amount to A for the
first few months but faltered on his promise later. Can A enforce the
said promise in a court of law?
• No As A and his wife were living apart from each other, there was no
love and affection between them
• Yes. A made a family settlement by maintenance to his wife, which
will be counted as a consideration to an oral contract made between
husband end wife.
• No. There is no consideration involved.
• No. As there was no consideration involved and A and B had not
registered in writing, the contract was not enforceable.
• Answer: (d) No. As there was no consideration involved and A and B
had not registered in writing, the contract was not enforceable.
Mens rea involves:

• A. crimes of basic intent

• B. crimes WITH NO INTENT
• C. crimes of specific intent
• D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans: D
The jurisdiction to try a person for an
offense depends upon, under the
general principle of criminal law is...

A)Place of commission
of crime, within local
area of such jurisdiction.
B) A place where such
person is found
C) Nationality of the
person
D) None of the above
Place of commission of crime,

within local area of such

jurisdiction.
• Who prepared the
draft of the Indian
Penal Code?
A) Lord Channing
B) Lord Chelmsford
C) Lord Macaulay
D) None of the above
Lord Macaulay
How many kinds of punishment are
provided in Section 53 of the Indian
Penal Code, 1860?
• (a) Six
• (b) Four
• (c) Five
• (d) Seven
• Ans. (c)
• EXPLANATION- Sec 53 of the Indian
Penal Code, 1860 prescribes 5 kinds
of punishments
• Death Penalty.
• Life imprisonment.
• Imprisonment. Rigorous. Simple.
• Forfeiture of property.
• Fine.
In which of the following case, it
was held that the death sentence
should be given in the ‘rarest of
rare cases’?

• (a) R. v. Govinda
• (b) Hussain Ara Khatoon v. State of
Bihar
• (c) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
• (d) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
(d) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
Illegal signifies:

• A. everything which is an offence

• B. everything which is prohibited by
law
• C. everything which furnishes
ground for civil action
• D. all the above.
D. all the above.
The right to private defence
is based on the natural
instinct of:

• A. self-preservation
• B. self-respect
• C. self-sufficiency
• D. self-reliance.
A. self-preservation
Right to private defence
also is available against a:

• A. person of unsound mind

• B. person who does not have
maturity of understanding
• C. both (a) & (b)
• D. neither (a) nor (b).
C. both (a) & (b)
Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary
confinement to be:
• A. one year
• B. two years
• C. three months
• D. six months.
• Ans. C
• In leading case of Kishore
Singh V. State Of Rajasthan it
was held by SC that solitary
confinement is a type of
imprisonment in which there is
complete isolation of prisoner
from the co prisoner and
segregation from outside world
and fellow prisoner
Insanity as a defence means
that a person at the time of
doing an act, by reason of
unsoundness of mind is
incapable of knowing:

• A. the nature of the act

• B. that what he is doing is wrong
• C. that what he is doing is
contrary to law
• D. either (a) or (b) or (c).
D. either (a) or (b) or (c).
• Robbery is dacoity when the minimum number of persons
committing robbery is:
• (a) 10 persons
• (b) 5 persons
• (c) 6 persons
• (d) 4 persons.
• Ans. (b)
When a women was taking bath in her
bathroom, “X” captures the image in
his mobile and upload it on her
facebook page. What offence has
been committed by “X”:

• (a) Sexual assault

• (b) Insulting the modesty of a
woman
• (c) Voyeurism
• (d) Stalking.
(c) Voyeurism
In case same set of facts attracts
a civil suit and also a criminal
trial, what should be done?

A. The civil suit should be stayed

B. The criminal case should be
stayed
C. The civil suit should be
quashed
D. Both should be
simultaneously carried out
Ans: A
The maxim ‘actus non facit
rea nisi mens sit rea’ means:

A. crime has to be coupled with guilty

mind
B. there can be no crime without a
guilty mind
C. crime is the result of guilty mind
D. criminal mind leads to crime.
Ans. B
“A” under the influence of
unsoundness attempt to kill “B”. “B”
in attempting to defend himself
caused grievous hurt to “A”. Here:

(a) “A” is liable for attempt to

murder and “B” is liable for
causing hurt
(b) “A” commits no offence and
“B” is liable for grievous hurt
(c) “B” commits no offence and
“A” is liable for attempt to
murder
(d) Both “A” and “B” are excused
from liability.
Ans. (d)
What should be the age of minor to
constitute the offence of kidnapping:

(a) 16 years
(b) 18 years
(c) below 16 years in case of
male and below 18 years in case
of female
(d) Below 18 years in case of
male and below 21 years in case
of female.
Ans. (c)
A man shall be guilty of the offence of
sexual harassment under section 354A
of Indian Penal Code, 1860, if he
commits:

(i) Physical contact and advances

involving unwelcome and explicit
sexual overtures.
(ii) A demand or request for sexual
favours.
(iii) Showing pornography against the
will of a woman.
(iv) Making sexually coloured remarks.
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
A man is said to commit “rape” if he
penetrates his penis, to any extent,
into the ________ of a woman:

A. Vagina
B. Mouth
C. Urethra or Anus
D. All of the above.
Ans. D
‘X’ & ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on
guard with a spear in hand but did not
hit ‘Z’ at all. Y killed ‘Z’:

A. only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of

Z
B. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for
murder of ‘Z’
C. ‘X’ is not liable as he did not
perform any overt act
D. both (a) & (c).
Ans. B
The maximum ‘ignorantia juris non
excusat’ means:

A. ignorance of law is no excuse

B. ignorance of fact is no excuse
C. ignorance of law is an excuse
D. ignorance of fact is an excuse.
Ans. A
actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea
means?

A. a deed, a material result of

human conduct
B. the intent and act must both
concur to constitute the crime
C. putting to death
D. uncommended manner
Ans. B
The appellant stabbed the deceased in the abdomen.
The deceased was taken promptly to hospital and the
wound was stitched but few days later he died. The
evidence showed that at the time of death the wound
had healed. But due to terramycin injection being
given in excess lungs had become over logged and
caused pneumonia on the question of causation:
A. The appellant can be acquitted
B. The appellant cannot be acquitted
C. The appellant and the doctor both cannot
be acquitted
D. The doctor must be acquitted
Ans. A
Which of the following is the facet of
audi alteram partem?

A. notice of the case to be met

B. good faith
C. opportunity to explain
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
Which of the following is correct for
the aforesaid:

I. The physical aspect of crime is

actus reas.
II. The mental aspect of crime is
mens rea.
III. The motive is the desire to
commit crime
A. I & II are correct but III is not
correct
B. only II & III
C. only II & III
D. all the above.
Ans. D
The maxim ‘de minimus non curat lex’
means:

A. law would not take action on

small & trifling matter
B. law does not ignore any act
which causes the slightest harm
C. law would not take action in
serious matters
D. all the above.
Ans. A
Right to private defence is:

A. available under all

circumstances
B. available where there is time
to have the recourse to the
protection of public authorities
C. available where there is no
time to have recourse to the
protection of public authorities
D. all of the above.
Ans. C
The right to private defence is
available with respect to:

A. harm to body
B. harm to movable property
C. harm to immovable property
D. all the above.
Ans. D
In a case of free fight between two
parties:

A. right of private defence is

available to both the parties
B. right of private defence is
available to individuals against
individual
C. no right of private defence is
available to either party
D. right to private defence is
available only to one party.
Ans. C
In cases of assault with intention of
committing rape, the right of private
defence extends voluntarily:

A. causing any harm including

death
B. causing any harm other than
death
C. causing any harm other than
grievous hurt
D. both (b) & (c).
Ans. A
Damages awarded for tortious liabilities are

• (a) liquidated.
• (b) unliquidated
• .(c) penal.
• (d) none of these
• (b) unliquidated
Defamation by spoken words or gestures is known as
• (a) innuendo.
• (b)slander
• .(c) libel.
• (d) none of these.
• (b)slander
The liability of a master for acts of his servant in law of torts is called

• (a) absolute liability.

• (b) tortious liability.
• (c) vicarious liability.
• (d) none of these.
• (c) vicarious liability.
……….. are words, which appear innocent, but have a latent defamatory
meaning

• (a) Libel
• (b) Slander
• (c) Innuendo
• (d) None of the above
• Ans. c
The act of unlawfully entering into Another’s property constitutes
• (a) Trespass
• (b) Restraint
• (c) BOTH A AND B
• (d)NOTA
• Ans. (a)
‘No fault liability’ means

• (a) liability for damage caused through negligence

• (b) liability for damage caused through fault.
• (c) absolute liability even without any negligence or fault.
• (d) freedom from liability.
• Ans. (c)
Which one of the following is not an example of vicarious liability?

• (A) Liability of the principal for the tort of his agent.

• (B) Liability of partners for each others’ tort.
• (C) Liability of the master for the tort of his servant.
• (D) Liability of the parents for the tort of the children
• Ans . D
In an action for the tort of negligence, what is not required to
be proved by the plaintiff is that

• (A) there is damage

• (B) There is duty to care
• (C) breach of duty owed to some one
• (D) breach of duty owed to the plaintiff.
• Ans . C
• A loud bass beat that can be heard through an apartment wall (from
another apartment) at midnight can be classified as

• a. Nuisance
• b. Trespass
• c. Interference with contractual relational
• D. NOTA
• Ans A
Defamation involves:

• a. using a weapon.
• b. at least 5 people to be present.
• c. a contract.
• d. making false statements about someone.
• Ans-D
Why is defamation a tort?

• a. Individuals have the right to be free from bodily harm.

• b. Individuals have the right to conduct business without interference.
• c. Individuals have the right to own property.
• d. Individuals have the right to enjoy a good reputation.
• Ans- D
Negligence involves:

• a crime
• b. carelessness
• c. assault
• d. trespass
• Ans- B
What is meant by the term ‘actionable per se‘?

• a) Actionable only in the civil courts

• b) A tort of strict liability
• c) Actionable without proof of damage
• d) Actionable at the instance of the injured party only
• Ans- C
The law of contract is different from the law of tort in which way?

• a) It is actionable in both the civil and criminal courts

• b) It generally concerns a relationship between two parties only
• c) Contracts are always written
• d) Tort is made up predominantly of statute law
• Ans- B
What is the primary function of the law of tort?

• a) The punishment of a wrongdoer

• b) The clarification of the human rights of parties
• c) The spreading of losses throughout society
• d) Compensating the claimant
• Ans D
Which of the following best describes the main function of ‘duty of
care’ in negligence?

• a) It ensures that the correct defendant is sued

• b) It ensures that the claimant is always within the time limit for
bringing an action
• c) It ensures that the tort of negligence does not extend too widely
• d) It ensures that the wrongdoer has actually been careless
• Ans C
• Which one of the following interests are not protected by the law
of tort?

• A. Peaceful enjoyment of one’s land

• B. Reputation
• C. Loss of commercial profit due to competition
• D. Physical safety
• C. Loss of commercial profit due to competition
• Which of the following is not an objective of the law of tort?

• A. Compensation
• B. Corrective justice
• C. Deterrence
• D. Imposition of moral blame
• D. Imposition of moral blame
The case of Reylands vs Fletcher has laid down the principle of
• (a) defamation.
• (b) conspiracy.
• (c) strict liability of land owner
• .(d) none of these
• (c) strict liability of land owner
Which of the following principles should be
fulfilled in order to plead the defence of Act of
God?

• • A. There must be working of natural forces

• • B. The occurrence must be extraordinary and not the one which
could have been anticipated
• • C. It must be beyond the control of human kind
• • D. All of the above
D. All of the above
One can protect one’s person or property by
using reasonable force. This is
• • A. Murder
• • B. Private Defence
• • C. Act of God
• • D. None of the above
• B. Private Defence
The exceptions to the rule of strict liability
are?
• • A. Act of God
• • B. Default of the plaintiff
• • C. Common benefit
• • D. All of the above
D. All of the above
The standard of care in negligence cases is
determined by:
• a) The defendant's financial status
• b) b) The plaintiff's age and gender
• c) c) What a reasonable person would have done under similar
circumstances
• d) d) The severity of the harm caused to the plaintiff
c) c) What a reasonable person would have
done under similar circumstances
Battery is different from assault in that:
• a) Battery requires physical contact, while assault does not
• b) b) Assault requires physical contact, while battery does not
• c) c) Both require physical contact and intent to cause harm
• d) d) Both require physical contact and no intent to cause harm
a) Battery requires physical contact, while
assault does not
The principle of remoteness of damage
determines: • a) Whether a duty of care exists
• b) Whether the defendant breached their duty of care • c) The extent
to which the defendant is liable for the consequences of their actions •
d) Whether the plaintiff suffered actual har
What is the legal definition of a "nuisance" in
tort law?
• a) Any harm caused intentionally by one person to another b) A
wrongful act committed by a person causing physical harm to another
c) Interference with a person's use and enjoyment of their land d)
Negligently causing harm to someone
c) Interference with a person's use and
enjoyment of their land
Nuisance can be classified into two main
categories:
• a) Intentional and Unintentional b) Public and Private c) Criminal and
Civil d) Physical and Psychological
b) Public and Private
Which type of nuisance involves the interference
with the public's rights over land or property?
• a) Private Nuisance b) Public Nuisance c) Statutory Nuisance d)
Indirect Nuisanc
b) Public Nuisance
For a claim of nervous shock to succeed, the
plaintiff must prove:
• a) That they have a pre-existing mental health condition b) That they
were physically injured in the same incident c) That the event was
sudden and shocking d) That the defendant intentionally caused the
harm
c) That the event was sudden and shocking
The "primary victim" in a nervous shock claim
refers to:
• a) The person who witnessed the traumatic event b) The person who
caused the accident c) The first person to arrive at the accident scene
d) The person responsible for medical treatment
a) The person who witnessed the traumatic
event
Which of the following is an example of an
"Act of God" defense in tort law?
• a) A car accident caused by a driver's reckless behavior b) A hurricane
causing property damage c) A doctor's negligence during surgery d) A
defamation claim against a journalist
b) A hurricane causing property damage
CONSTITUTION LAW
• Preamble is the part of Constitution. This observation of Supreme
Court was held in the case of:-
• (a) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
• (b) D.K. Basu v. Union of India
• (c) R.S Nayak v. A.R. Antulay
• (d) Keshwanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
(d) Keshwanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
• Sovereignty under the Constitution belongs to:
• (a) The President
• (b) The Parliament
• (c) The People
• (d) The Executant, Judiciary and Legislature
• (c) The People
• . The chairman of drafting committee of the Constitution was:-
• (a) K.M. Munshi
• (b) Sir. A. Krishna Iyer
• (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
• (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
• (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Consider the following statements The Indian
Constitution is –
• 1) unwritten constitution
• 2) written constitution
• 3) largely based on Government of India Act, 1935
• (a) 2 and 1 are correct
• (b) 2 and 3 are correct
• (c) 1 and 2 are correct
• (d) 1 and 3 are correct
• (b) 2 and 3 are correct
• Preamble is known as:
• (a) The Soul of Indian Constitution
• (b) Heart of the constitution
• (c) Heart & Soul of the Constitution
• (d) None of the above
• (a) The Soul of Indian Constitution
• By which of the following Constitutional Amendment
Acts the Right to Education is made a Fundamental
Right?
1. 84th
2.86th
3.81st
4.83rd
• Answer: (b) 86th
• What is the ‘Magna Carta’?
1. A ship
2.The Declaration of Independence of the United States
3.A treaty that established the International Criminal
Court
4.The first English Legal Charter relating to the
fundamental rights of the citizens
• Answer: (d) The first English Legal Charter relating to the
fundamental rights of the citizens
• Who was the first female High Court judge in India?
1. Justice Ruma Pal
2.Justice Leila Seth
3.Justice Aruna Suresh
4.Justice R.P. Desai
• Answer: (b) Justice Leila Seth
• Who appoints the Chief justice of the High Court?
1. President of India in consultation with the Chief justice of
India and the Governor of the State.
2.Chief Justice of India alone
3.Collegium of Supreme Court judges
4.Prime Minister of India in consultation with the Chief
justice of India and the Chief Minister of the State
• Answer: (a) President of India in consultation with the
Chief justice of India and the Governor of the State.
• In which article of the Constitution of India has the provision of
Joint Sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha been
provided?
• A. Article 101
• B. Article 108
• C. Article 133
• D. Article 102
• Answer: B
• In which one of the following cases, has the Supreme Court
observed that judicial review is a basic structure of the
Constitution?
• A. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
• B. S.P. Mittal v. Union of India
• C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
• D. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
• Answer: D
• Which of the following cases is not related to Parliamentary
privileges?
• A. M.S.M. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha
• B. State of Karnataka v. Union of India
• C. Jatish Chandra Ghose v. Harisadhan Mukherjee
• D. State of Tamil Nadu v. K. Shyam Sunder
• Answer: D
• Article 194 guarantees freedom of speech to members in the state
legislatures and grants them immunities provided from time to time
under the law.
• Every proclamation of emergency under Article 352 shall be laid
before each house of Parliament:
• A. Within one month
• B. Within two months
• C. Within six months
• D. Within six weeks Answer: A
• A. Within one month
• Article 352 of Part XVIII of the Constitution includes the national
emergencies,
• Article 356 enlists the state emergencies,
• and Article 360 incorporates the financial emergencies.
• Every proclamation issued under Article 360 shall be:
• A. Laid before each house of the Parliament
• B. Laid only before the Lok Sabha
• C. Mere Proclamation will suffice
• D. All of these
• Answer: A
What is the minimum age for
the eligibility to be a
Presidential candidate?

a) 30
b) 28
c) 21
d) 35
d) 35
Who is regarded as the head

of the Indian state?

a) Prime Minister

b) President

c) Chief Justice of India

d) None of the above

b) President
The executive actions of the
government are carried out
under whose name?

a) Cabinet
b) Prime Minister
c) President
d) Both (b) and (c)
What is the official term of the
President's office?

a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 3 years
4) 4 years
a) 5 years
Which article of the Constitution
empowers the President to
promulgate ordinances?

a) Article 123
b) Article 52
c) Article 25
d) Article 78
a) Article 123
Who appoints the Prime
Minister?

a) Council of Ministers
b) President
c) Majority party
d) Lok Sabha
b) President
Who can be said to be the

leader of the Lok Sabha?

a) President

b) Speaker of Lok Sabha

c) Prime Minister

d) None of the above

c) Prime Minister
Which among the following is
NOT a category of the Council
of Ministers?

a) Cabinet Ministers
b) Ministers of State
c) Minister of the Crown
d) Deputy Ministers
c) Minister of the Crown
What rank does the office of
Vice-President have in the
country?

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
b) Second
What is the minimum age for
qualifying to the post of Vice-
President?

a) 25
b) 35
c) 21
d) 28
b) 35
Who is the ex-officio

chairman of Rajya Sabha?

a) Chief Justice of India

b) Prime Minister

c) President

d) Vice-President
d) Vice-President
Which part of the Constitution
is called the Magna Carta?
•Part IV
•Part III
•Part V
•Part II
Part III
Which part of the Constitution
is called the Magna Carta?
•Part IV
•Part III
•Part V
•Part II
 Which of the following is NOT a
correct statement with respect
to Freedom of speech and
expression in India?
• It is enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
• It is not an absolute right to express one\’s
thoughts freely
• It can not be curtailed by legislation
• It can be suspended in emergency
• It is not an
absolute right to
express one\’s
thoughts freely
Which fundamental rights
cannot be suspended even
during an emergency?
(a) Right to Speech
(b) Right to Religion
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Life and Personal
Liberty
Ans: d
Which of the following Articles of
the Indian Constitution contain
the Right to Religious Freedom?

(a) Articles 25-28

(b) Articles 29-30
(c) Articles 32-35
(d) Articles 23-24
Ans: a
Which of the following Article of
the Indian Constitution
guarantees 'Equality Before the
Law and Equal Protection of Law
within the Territory of India'?

(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 17
(d) 18
Ans: b
Which Article of the Indian
Constitution abolishes
Untouchability?

(a) Article 18
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 14
(d) Article 17
Ans: d
Which of the following is correct
with respect to “Right Against
Exploitation”?

(a) Prohibition of traffic in human

beings and forced labour
(b) Freedom as to payment of
taxes for the promotion of any
particular religion
(c) Protection of interests of
minorities
(d) Equality before the law
Ans: a
In which part of the Indian
Constitution, the Fundamental
Rights are provided?

(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part V
(d) Part IV
(b) Part III
USE CODE PURI80 FOR MAX DISCOUNT
What is the penalty for publishing
images of a person's private parts
without consent, as per IT Act 2000?
• 5 years imprisonment or 5 lakh rupees penalty or
both Life imprisonment
• 3 years imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or
both None of the above

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3 years imprisonment or 2 lakh

rupees penalty or both

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What is the punishment for identity theft in IT

Act?
• Two year imprisonment or 1 lakh rupees penalty or both Three year
imprisonment or 1 lakh rupees penalty or both Three year imprisonment
or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both None of the above

26
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Three year imprisonment or 1 lakh

rupees penalty or both

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What is the penalty for publishing
images of a person's private parts
without consent, as per IT Act 2000?
• 5 years imprisonment or 5 lakh rupees penalty or
both Life imprisonment
• 3 years imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or
both None of the above

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3 years imprisonment or 2 lakh

rupees penalty or both

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Q The first state of India to introduce law on RTI was

A) Tamilnadu
B) U.P
C) Maharashtra
D) Gujrat

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ANS- A TAMILADU

19
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Q The long title of the RTI Act seeks to promote the following qualities in the
working of every public authority:

A) Transparency
B) Punctuality
C) Efficiency
D) Reputation

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ANS-A
TRANSPERANCY

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Which article of the Constitution clearly implies Right to Information?

ARTICLE 19
ARTICLE 15
ARTICLE 29
NONE OF THE ABOVE.

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ANS ARTICLE 19

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THANK YOU