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ĐỀ MINH HỌA THPT 1 2023 – MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. amounted


Question 2: A. course B. courtesy C. resource D. force

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: D. provide
A. focus B. injure C. offer

Question 4: A. counterpart B. obedience C. aggressive D. tradition

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: As soon as the teacher came in, she ________ John why he _______ to class the previous
day.
A. asked/didn’t go B. had asked/hadn’t gone
C. will have asked/hasn’t gone D. asked/hadn’t gone
Question 6 I picked up some holiday brochures ______around the table at the travel agency.
A. lain B. lying C. lied D. were lying

Question 7: _______ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the United
Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 8: Can you tell me who is responsible __________ checking passports?
A. at B. with C. for D. of
Question 9: If it hadn't been for the storm, the farmers _________ a great harvest last year.
A. would have B. would have had C. had had D. should have
Question 10: It would be nice to work with _________ people who accept new ideas.
A. pig-headed B. open-minded C. strong-willed D. single-handed
Question 11: Carl suggested _________ to the gym for a good workout.
A. to go B. going C. to have gone D. having gone
Question 12: ________ you practise speaking English, the more fluent your English becomes..
A. The better than B. The more than C. The more D. More than

Question 13: Descriptive analysis of language merely reflects ______used without concern for the social
prestige of these structures.
A. how grammar structures and vocabulary is B. which are grammar structures and vocabulary

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 1
C. how grammar structures and vocabulary are D. it is how grammar structures and vocabulary are
Question 14: Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in
_______ 1920s.
A. the B. a C. 0 D. an
Question 15: Against all the _______, he won the national song contest and became quite well-known.
A. successes B. failures C. chances D. odds
Question 16: With a good _________ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was assigned the task
of oral interpretation for the visiting American delegation.
A. insight B. view C. command D. proficiency
Question 17: His achievements were partly due to the ________ of his wife.
A. assist B. assistant C. assistance D. assisted
Question 18: Despite the initial _________ result, they decided to go on with the proposed scheme.
A. courage B. courageous C. discouraged D. discouraging
Question 19: No salt is allowed, _________________?
A. is it B. isn’t it C. did it D. didn’t it
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20: All the condition seemed optimal: the congenial company, the wonderful weather, the
historic venue.
A. hospitable B. difficult C. advanced D. complex
Question 21: If you’re travelling through a tunnel and your vehicle stops working, a team will be sent
out to you immediately.
A. breaks down B. passes away C. gives up D. dozes off
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Mary and I had been such close friends at primary school. However, she and I had not hit it
off, perhaps because we were both timid.
A. progressing slowly B. becoming friends immediately

C. staying close D. disliking each other


Question 23: My kids only have a faint memory of our hometown as they have lived away from it for
too long.
A. clear B. obscure C. envious D. vague
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

A part-time job is generally considered to be employment that is less than 40 hours of work per
week. Some employers consider between 32 and 40 hours of work per week to be full-time, (24) ____
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 2
part-time jobs are usually classified as anything less than 40 hours. Working on a part-time schedule has
many perks and provides the optimal flexibility needed by some individuals. For example, parents (25)
____ young children, students, and people who have out-of-work (26) _______ often find that part-time
work is their only option. Others work in part-time jobs because they are unable to find full-time positions
– and working part-time is better for them than not working at all. In some situations, part-time
employees can earn as much as full-time employees on an hourly basis, but most employers do not offer
(27) ____ such as health insurance, vacation time, and paid holidays to their parttime employees.

There are many pros and cons to working part-time and there are also several specific industries
that are known to have many part-time positions available. You should (28) ____ the factors before
deciding if a part-time or a full-time position will work better for your specific situation.
Question 24: A. because B. since C. furthermore D. but
Question 25: A. with B. without C. for D. among
Question 26: A. responsibly B. responsibilities C. responsible D. response
Question 27: A. profits B. benefits C. earnings D. rights
Question 28: A. think B. consider C. regard D. believe

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29: The new (A) exhibition centre in our town has (B) attracted many visitors because of (C)
their unique (D) collections of visual arts.

Question 30: (A) With his important (B) contribution, Albert Einstein (C) considered one of the
greatest (D) physicists of all time.

Question 31: (A) Companies spend (B) millions of dollars on (C) advertisings and (D) commercials
trying to persuade the public to buy their products

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all close
relationships it has had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between 1775 and 1783 the
US fought a war to become independent. The US fought the British again in the War of 1812.

In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other country, and
their foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World War II, Britain and the US
supported each other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is usually the first country to come
forward and it is sometimes called “the 51st state of the union”.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 3
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared political
interests. An important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two countries are very similar.
They share the same language and enjoy each other’s literature, films and television. Many Americans
have British ancestors, or relatives still living in Britain. The US government and political system are
based on Britain’s, and there are many Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the
Atlantic. In Britain, some people are worried about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy
of its current power.
The special relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was Prime Minister in
Britain and Ronald Reagan was President of the US.

Question 32: What is the passage mainly about?


A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.
B. The close relationship between Britain and the US
C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars
D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars
Question 33: The phrase “come forward” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .
A. be willing to help B. be able to help C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to
help
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the special relationship between
Britain and the US?
A. The people of the two countries are similar.
B. Many Americans have British ancestors.
C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.
D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries
Question 36: Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ______.
A. foreign policies B. power C. political interest D. language
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of
other members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has
hogged the limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation
, Henry stirs up no envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him. The dog,
who first arrived six months ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and encouraged
more students to focus on their academic achievement.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 4
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming
about being able to interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he
falls behind, that opportunity will be denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps
that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff meetings, has also had a calming effect on them.

It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed
buying a school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively
affect children's conduct," says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets
has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after
surgery or illness and have a calming influence on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a
handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible problems."

Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school
for children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie
Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for
three years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons.
Children at the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their anxiety about
mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him,"
says Johnston.

Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human


interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional
love and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris
Woodhead, the former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a
positive learning environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a
bit of a publicity stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry
remains as popular as ever.
Question 37: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants B. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons
C. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend
Question 38: The word " adulation " in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unrealistic expectation B. deserved attention
C. considerable controversy D. excessive admiration
Question 39: The phrase "a handful " in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is ______
A. difficult to control B. inclined to disagree
C. reluctant to explore D. impossible to understand
Question 40: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet?
A. A stronger tendency to misbehave B. A greater desire to influence others

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 5
C. Long-term changes in conduct D. Better recovery from illness
Question 41: The word " one " in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. a craze B. a Mulberry staff member C. a primary school D. a school dog
Question 42: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by Muskoka
at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy
B. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students
C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
D. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes

Question 43: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in paragraph 5?
A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
B. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting.
C. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 44: My father is the most handsome man I have ever known.
A. I have never known a more handsome man than my father.
B. My father is not as handsome as the men I have ever known.
C. I have ever known such a handsome man. It’s my father.
D. No man in the world is as handsome as my father.
Question 45: “Nowhere can I find a kind man like you”, she said to him.
A. She said that she could find a kind man like him anywhere.
B. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like you.
C. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like him.
D. She said to him that nowhere she could find a kind man like him.
Question 46: It is a pity he was late for the job interview.
A. I think he mustn't have been late for the job interview.
B. I hear he hasn't been late for the job interview.
C. I remember he wasn't late for the job interview.
D. I wish he hadn't been late for the job interview.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes the following
exchanges.
Question 47: - "May I speak to Dr. Thomas, please?"
- "____________________. "

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 6
A. I'm sorry, he's seeing a patient at the moment.
B. Yes, you may and he will connect you later.
C. That's fine, but I don't think he's working now.
D. No, you can't as he must be free in a few minutes.
Question 48: – Jack: “John, you look terrible! What’s wrong with you?”
- John: “_________”
A. Thanks for your question. B. I was so sick yesterday.
C. The weather will be better. D. You must be wrong, too.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: David loves Hannah. That’s why he bought tickets for her live show last week.
A. David loves Hannah so much that he bought tickets for her live show last week.
B. Although David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
C. David loves Hannah too much to buy tickets for her live show last week.
D. Much as David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
Question 50: You did not tell her the truth. It was wrong of you.
A. You must have told her the truth.
B. You should have told her the truth.
C. You may have told her the truth.
D. You could have told her the truth.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 7
ĐỀ MINH HỌA THPT 2 2023 – MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 8
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 9
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 10
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 11
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 12
ĐỀ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. grammar B. damage C. mammal D. drama
Question 2. A. switch B. stomach C. match D. catch
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. nervous B. active C. patient D. aware
Question 4. A. candidate B. holiday C. experience D. tourism
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
Question 5. Tommy is on the way to his friend's birthday party, carrying a gift box ____ colourful paper.
A. were wrapped B. having wrapped C. wrapped D. wrapping
Question 6. Monkeys are_______learners than elephants.
A. faster B. very fast C. more faster D. more fast
Question 7. Richard will look for a job __________.
A. after he had passed his exams B. before he passed his exams
C. while he was passing his exams D. as soon as he passes his exams
Question 8. His choice of future career is quite similar______mine.
A. at B. with C. for D. to
Question 9. Your sister seldom cooks meals,___________?
A. did she B. didn’t she C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 10. My brother has been playing piano since he was a small child.
A. the B. a C. no article D. an
Question 11. Due to lacking ___________, they couldn’t open a new shop as scheduled.
A. interest rates B. expenses C. shares D. funds
Question 12. He’s a widower who _______ three children.
A. takes after B. makes off C. cuts down D. brings up
Question 13. Tom hopes __________a solution soon.
A. to find B. finding C. find D. found
Question 14. He’s really got the bit between his ______ so that he can pass the exam with flying colours.
A. neck B. eyes C. teeth D. hands
Question 15. When I returned from work, my dad _______ with his childhood friends.
A. have played B. was playing C. will be playing D. is playing
Question 16. He _______ sorry and we became friends again.
A. paid B. called C. talked D. said

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 13
Question 17: The river ________ with toxic waste from local factories for a long time.
A. pollutes B. has been polluted C. are being polluted D. is polluting
Question 18. You should ask for Henry’s advice; he is very _______ about gardening.
A. know B. knowledge C. knowledgeable D. knowledgeably
Question 19: They haven't found a cure for the disease yet, but they are on the ________ track.
A. right B. exact C. correct D. precise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Mary is talking to Linda over the phone.
- Mary: "Thank you for helping me prepare for the party."
- Linda: " ________ "
A. My pleasure B. The meal was out of this world
C. I'm afraid not D. Of course not
Question 21: Tom and Susan are talking about their plan to help disadvantaged children.
Tom: "Why don't we send them some textbooks and warm clothes?"
Susan: " ________ "
A. No, they are not available. B. You should agree with us.
C. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! D. I'm sorry to hear that.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Hieu is writing an email to apply for the position of Sales Director.
A. situation B. job C. fund D. partner
Question 23. Taking a year out to travel can broaden your experience and teach you new skills.
A. limit B. produce C. interest D. increase
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. It’s very difficult to talk to our new classmate; she’s such a cold fish.
A. a pleasant person B. a person who is allergic to fish
C. a person who enjoy eating fish D. an unfriendly person
Question 25. The company should allow flexible working hours so that its employees can avoid traffic
congestion.
A. careful B. dangerous C. fixed D. changeable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26. It’s not a good idea for us to swim in this lake.
A. We can swim in this lake. B. We must swim in this lake.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 14
C. We shouldn’t swim in this lake. D. We wouldn’t swim in this lake.
Question 27. He began to drive a motorbike last year.
A. He hasn’t driven a motorbike since last year.
B. He used to drive a motorbike last year.
C. He got used to driving a motorbike last year.
D. He has driven a motorbike since last year.
Question 28: "Did you pay for the tickets, Laura?", Peter asked.
A. Peter asked Laura if she paid for the tickets.
B. Peter asked Laura if she had paid for the tickets.
C. Peter asked Laura if she was paid for the tickets.
D. Peter asked Laura if she would pay for the tickets.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Some animals are in danger of extinction as humans are hunting it for meat.
A B C D
Question 30. There is a heavy storm hitting our village last Sunday evening.
A B C D
Question 31. It is not advisory to make travel arrangements during this time when the Covid-19
A B
pandemic is still spreading at an unprecedented rate.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: I filled my glass. Then I noticed that it was broken.
A. No sooner had I noticed that my glass was broken than I filled it.
B. Not until I filled my glass did I notice that it was broken.
C. Only when I filled my glass had I noticed that it was broken.
D. Hardly had I filled my glass then I noticed that it was broken.
Question 33: They cannot continue the work. They are too tired.
A. If they are not too tired, they can continue the work.
B. If they hadn't been too tired, they could continue the work.
C. If they hadn't been too tired, they could have continued the work.
D. If they were not too tired, they could continue the work.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 15
WHAT IS HAPPINESS?
People have been asking this question for centuries, but only recently have scientists and
psychologists joined the debate. Apparently, our genes play a big part in how happy we feel. And while
money and material possessions can (34) _______ our spirits for a short time, it seems the real key to
happiness is life experiences. Buying new clothes or the latest electronic device may make us feel on top
of the world for a short time, but after a while, the feeling starts to fade. We get used to seeing our (35)
_______ and our happiness loses its shine.
What's more, we tend to compare ourselves to (36) _______ and if we see someone with a better or
newer version of what we've bought, it can leave us down in the dumps. Life experiences, on the other
hand, are more satisfying and bring more lasting happiness. Apart from the enjoyment of the actual
experience, they give us memories (37) _______ we keep our whole lifetime. Life experiences bring us
closer to people, too. (38) _______ the next time you're tempted to spend money on material possessions,
try saving the cash for a life experience instead. As you look back on your life, you'll be grateful.
Question 34. A. climb B. increase C. lift D. soar
Question 35. A. backgrounds B. possessions C. abilities D. emotions
Question 36. A. others B. each C. a little D. almost
Question 37. A. where B. what C. whose D. that
Question 38. A. So B. But C. Therefore D. Furthermore
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 42.
Many universities around the world are proud to have long histories and strong traditions. However,
very few universities can claim to be among the oldest in the world.
Nalanda University, in Bihar, India, was established around 600 BC. It was most likely the world's
first university. In the past, scholars came from Europe, China, and all over India to learn about science,
medicine, the Buddhist religion, and other subjects. The university is in ruins now, but at one time it was
an impressive school with temples, classrooms, libraries, and dormitories.
According to the Guinness Book of World Records, the University of AI-Karaouine in Fes, Morocco,
is the oldest surviving university in the world. It was probably founded in 859 and became a famous
place to study natural sciences. The first university in Europe is definitely the University of Bologna, in
Italy. It was one of the few universities in Europe that were not influenced by religion. Professors were
forbidden from teaching outside the university, and so students came from all over Europe to study with
its famous teachers.
Question 39. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Students at the most famous universities B. The world’s oldest universities
C. Subjects that are taught at universities D. Foreign students at ancient universities

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 16
Question 40. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. religion B. medicine D. science D. university
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, Nalanda University _______.
A. was the first university in the world
B. only taught science subjects
C. was destroyed
D. invited scholars from different countries to teach
Question 42. The word founded in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. damaged B. created C. recovered D. renamed
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The University of AI-Karaouine still exists in the modern world.
B. Teachers at Bologna University weren’t allowed to teach outside.
C. Natural science subjects aren’t taught at the University of AI-Karaouine.
D. Students could learn religion at the University of Nalanda.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Los Angeles dancer, Brian Perez, was eating out with his friends one evening when suddenly
everyone went quiet. To his horror, he saw that the reason for this was that people were checking their
phones. Realising he had to do something to stop this, Brian made a rather daring suggestion. What if
they all put their gadgets in a pile in the middle of the table until they had finished the meal? If anyone
picked up their phone, that person would have to pay the whole bill. And so, it is said, the game of 'phone
stacking' was bom.
The necessity for action like this highlights a major problem in today's society: our inability to
disconnect from technology. But while Brian's idea deals with the obsession in a social context, measures
also need to be taken at home. Some people drop their smartphones into a box the moment they arrive
home, which gives them the chance to interact with the people they live with. The fact that the phone
cannot be heard - it is on silent - nor seen - the flashing lights are hidden by the box - means that they are
no longer tempted to use it.
A less drastic solution is to ban electronic devices at certain times of day when the whole family is
likely to be together, for example at meal times. This can be hard for everyone, from teenagers desperate
to text friends to parents unable to switch off from work. On a normal day, however, dinner takes less
than an hour, and the benefits of exchanging opinions and anecdotes with the rest of the family certainly
makes up for the time spent offline.
Taking a break from technology is one thing, but knowing when to turn off a device is another. Time
seems to stand still in the virtual world, and before you know it, you find that it is three o'clock in the

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 17
morning. This is where a digital curfew comes in handy, a set time when all devices must be put away.
Evenings without technology are usually nice and peaceful and make a more agreeable end to the day.
And then it's time for bed. One of the best ways of ensuring you can sleep at night is to ban electronic
devices altogether from the bedroom. Lying next to a machine bursting with information is far from
relaxing, and the sounds it emits during the night can easily wake you up. With technology out of the
room, a line has been drawn between daytime and sleep time, which enables us to switch off ourselves
and drift off to sleep.
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Too Much Dependence on Technology: Time for Change!
B. Getting Rid of Your Mobiles: For Better or Worse?
C. Shocking News: Technology Shapes Our Mind!
D. Addiction to Technology: Storm in a Teacup
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, Brian Perez was shocked to find that _______.
A. people were willing to remove all their gadgets
B. the prices for food were too expensive
C. people were glued to their phones
D. everyone seemed quiet by nature
Question 46. The word highlights in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. tackles B. expects C. proposes D. emphasizes
Question 47. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. fact B. phone C. light D. box
Question 48. The word drastic in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by _______.
A. simple B. effective C. important D. severe
Question 49. Which of the following statements is true, according to the passage?
A. People choose not to use their phones at home so that they can talk to other members.
B. Meal times are the most suitable for the whole family to use phones together.
C. Teenagers can find it easier to turn off their phones compared to their parents.
D. Brian’s idea is not new in terms of making people less dependent on technology.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Having a conversation at dinner definitely strengthens the bonds among family members.
B. Using electronic gadgets at bedtime is likely to deprive yourself of having a good sleep.
C. People are more pleasant to talk with when they use technology in the evenings.
D. The line between daytime and sleep time has become increasingly blurred.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 18
ĐỀ 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. fame B. baby C. many D. plane
Question 2. A. theory B. therefore C. neither D. weather
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. approve B. perform C. finish D. believe
Question 4. A. assignment B. library C. paragraph D. sympathy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
Question 5. The painting ______ by the artist captures the beauty of the landscape.
A. paints B. painting C. painted D. is painting
Question 6. Bao Yen sings________than this singer.
A. well B. bad C. better D. more good
Question 7. She will find a bunch of flowers in front of her house _______.
A. once she opened the door B. after she had opened the door
C. as soon as she opened the door D. when she opens the door
Question 8. My laptop keeps shutting down randomly. There must be something wrong_________it.
A. from B. of C. at D. with
Question 9. The library is very quiet, _______?
A. wasn’t it B. isn’t it C. has it D. is it
Question 10. In most social situations, informality is appreciated.

A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 11. The local clubs are making every _______ to interest more young people.
A. volunteer B. effort C. donation D. fund
Question 12. The firefighters arrived at the scene just in time to _______ the fire.
A. call back B. stand up C. count on D. put out
Question 13. I’m sure you’ll have no difficulty_________ the exam.
A. pass B. to pass C. passed D. passing
Question 14. He just ran round like a headless _______ when he tried to work on too many projects but
ended up not achieving anything.
A. snake B. horse C. chicken D. duck
Question 15. Laura _______ her bedroom when she found her missing diary.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 19
A. cleans B. has cleaned C. was cleaning D. is cleaning
Question 16. High schools across the country should _____ hands to address the problem of
cyberbullying.
A. hold B. shake C. lend D. join
Question 17. All the figures and calculations________carefully before you hand in the report.
A. should check B. should be checking
C. should be checked D. should have been checked
Question 18. Parents should be _______ of their children’s decisions on future career.
A. support B. supporting C. supportively D. supportive
Question 19. Candidates applying for this position must have a master’s _______ in science.
A. diploma B. degree C. licence D. certificate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Tim and David are at the zoo.
- Tim: “Can I touch the monkey?”
- David: “_______. It warns ‘No touching animals.”
A. I’m quite sure about that B. I don’t think you’re right
C. Of course you can D. I’m afraid not
Question 21. Hoa is talking to Nam at her birthday party.
- Hoa: “Thanks for the bag. I’ve been looking for it for months.”
- Nam: “_______”
A. I like your bag. B. You can say that again.
C. I’m glad you like it. D. Thank you for looking for it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Her reputation as a top actress was damaged when she was caught causing an accident.
A. fame B. interest C. blame D. support
Question 23. With an increasing number of people vaccinated against coronavirus, another wave of
infection can be prevented.
A. built B. opened C. explored D. stopped
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Thomas was like a bear with a sore head when he wasn’t chosen for the football team.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 20
A. totally disappointed B. in a bad mood
C. in an angry state D. extremely delighted
Question 25. The heavy storm that hit the city last night caused serious damage to property estimated at
$5 million.
A. extreme B. slight C. slow D. quick
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26. Passengers are not permitted to use their mobile phones during the flight.
A. Passengers needn’t use their mobile phones during the flight.
B. Passengers mustn’t use their mobile phones during the flight.
C. Passengers shouldn’t use their mobile phones during the flight.
D. Passengers wouldn’t use their mobile phones during the flight.
Question 27. Tony started working as a volunteer in 2010.
A. Tony hasn’t been working as a volunteer since 2010.
B. Tony didn’t get used to working as a volunteer in 2010.
C. Tony used to work as a volunteer in 2010.
D. Tony has worked as a volunteer since 2010.
Question 28. He said: “What time will you get up tomorrow morning, Melda?”
A. He asked Melda what time would she get up tomorrow morning?
B. He asked Melda what time she will get up tomorrow morning.
C. He asked Melda what time she would get up tomorrow morning.
D. He asks Melda what time she would get up tomorrow morning.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Thanks to the municipal authority’s endeavours to combat crime, the city’s incident
A B C
of juvenile delinquency has been falling.
D
Question 30. Tiana forgets to bring her notebook to the biology class yesterday morning.
A B C D
Question 31. Her laptop crashed ten minutes ago and she still hasn’t been able to turn them on.
A B C D

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 21
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 32. She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
Question 33. Harry had packed his luggage. After that, he loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
A. Packing his luggage, Harry loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
B. Only after Harry had packed his luggage, did he load it into the car and set off for the airport.
C. No sooner had Harry packed his luggage when he loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
D. Not until had Harry packed his luggage did he load it into the car and set off for the airport
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
COPING WITH TRAFFIC
Many large cities around the world have struggled to keep up with the increase in traffic in recent
times. Densely populated areas, growing car ownership, as well as narrow roads brought for much lower
volumes of traffic all (34) _______ to this. In 1975, Singapore decided to introduce a congestion charge -
a (35) _______ paid by drivers entering the most traffic-heavy zones of the city. London introduced a
congestion charge in 2003.
Public opinion was initially opposed to the idea, (36) _______ people soon became more supportive of
the scheme. Despite this, its first decade brought mixed success, and the (37) _______ of cars in the city
fell by only 10%. However, the scheme proved massively profitable, (38) _______ allowed the city
council to invest in other measures aimed at improving traffic conditions in London. These included cycle
lanes, pedestrianized areas and better road surfaces.
(Adapted from Oxford Exam Trainer by Helen Weale)
Question 34. A. result B. cause C. induce D. contribute
Question 35. A. fine B. fee C. pension D. wage
Question 36. A. or B. but C. so D. and
Question 37. A. number B. amount C. other D. little
Question 38. A. that B. whose C. who D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 42.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 22
Have you ever felt that there aren’t enough hours in the day? These days we have to do our jobs, look
after our homes, save energy to help the environment, and do exercise to stay healthy! Like many of us,
Alex Gadsden never had enough time. He ran a business and a home and needed to lose weight. So he
decided to do something about it. He invented the cycle washer. The 29-year-old now starts each day with
a 45-minute cycle ride. He not only feels healthier but he saves on his energy bills and does the washing
too.
He said, “It gives the user a good workout. I’ve only used it for two weeks but I’ve already noticed a
difference.” “I tend to get up at around six-thirty now and get straight on the cycle washer. I keep it in the
garden, so it’s nice to get out in the fresh air. Afterwards, I feel full of energy. Then I generally have
breakfast and a shower and I really feel ready to start the day.” The green washing machine uses 25 litres
of water a wash, and takes enough clothes to fill a carrier bag. He normally cycles for 25 minutes to wash
the clothes, and then for another 20 minutes to dry them. And it doesn’t use any electricity, of course.
Mr Gadsden, the boss of a cleaning company, believes his machine could become very popular. With
an invention which cleans your clothes, keeps you fit and reduces your electricity bill, he may well be
right.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Alex Tilbury et al.)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The importance of daily exercise B. Ways to do the washing properly
C. Cycling makes you healthier D. A fascinating invention
Question 40. The word ran in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. moved B. allowed C. managed D. changed
Question 41. According to paragraph 1, what does Alex Gadsden achieve with the invention of the cycle
washer?
A. His electricity bills are reduced. B. He puts on weight.
C. He helps his wife with the washing-up. D. He becomes more involved in recycling.
Question 42. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. difference B. the cycle washer C. the fresh air D. workout
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Alex Gadsden is positive about the success of the cycle washer.
B. The cycle washer can help you to remain strong and healthy.
C. It doesn’t require any electricity to run the cycle washer.
D. Alex’s machine isn’t effective in terms of cleaning the clothes.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 23
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Most parents want their sons and daughters to have equal chances of success when they grow up.
Today, equality of the sexes is largely mandated by public policy and law. However, old- fashioned
ideas and a lot of prejudice are still part of our culture and present challenging questions for parents.
Gender stereotypes are rigid ideas about how boys and girls should behave. We all know what these
stereotypes are: A "feminine" girls should be insecure, accommodating and a little illogical in her
thinking. A "masculine" boy should be strong, unemotional, aggressive, and competitive. How are
children exposed to these stereotypes? According to the researchers David and Myra Sadker of the
American University of Washington, D.C., boys and girls are often treated differently in the classroom.
They found out that when boys speak, teachers usually offer constructive comments, when girls speech,
teachers tend to focus on the behavior. It's more important how the girls act rather than what they say.
The emphasis on differences begins at birth and continues throughout childhood. For example, few
people would give pink baby's clothes to a boy or a blue blanket to a girl. Later, many of us give girls
dolls and miniature kitchenware, while boys receive action figures and construction sets. There's nothing
wrong with that. The problem arises when certain activities are deemed appropriate for one sex but not
the other. According to Heather J. Nicholson, Ph.D., director of the National Resource Center for Girls,
Inc., this kind of practice prevents boys and girls from acquiring important skills for their future lives.
"The fact is," says Nicholson, "that society functions as a kind of sorting machine regarding gender.
In a recent survey, fifty-eight percent of eighth-grade girls but only six percent of boys earned money
caring for younger children. On the other hand, twenty-seven percent of boys but only three percent of
girls earned money doing lawn work". If we are serious about educating a generation to be good
workers and parents, we need to eliminate such stereotypes as those mentioned previously.
Gender stereotypes inevitably are passed to our children. However, by becoming aware of the
messages our children receive, we can help them develop ways to overcome these incorrect ideas. To
counteract these ideas, parents can look for ways to challenge and support their children, and to
encourage confidence in ways that go beyond what society's fixed ideas about differences of sext are.
Question 44: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Deep-seated stereotypes about genders and their effects.
B. Different prejudice about how girls and boys should behave and be treated.
C. The role of culture in the behavior of different genders.
D. The influence of education and society on gender stereotypes.
Question 45: According to the second passage, David and Myra Sadker of the American University of
Washington, DC found that_____.
A. schoolboys and schoolgirls are treated equally in the classroom.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 24
B. teachers often concentrate on boys' behavior and girls' manners.
C. boys are commented usefully whereas girls are paid attention to behavior.
D. girls are taught to be insecure, accommodating and illogical while boys are strong, unemotional,
aggressive, and competitive.
Question 46: What does the word "that" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The differences between boys and girls begin at birth and continue throughout childhood.
B. People often give pink clothes to a boy and a blue blanket to a girl.
C. Many people give girls dolls and miniature kitchen and boys receive action figures and construction
sets when they were born.
D. People give different genders of children distinct kinds of presents or clothes.
Question 47: The word "deemed" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___.
A. celebrated B. supposed C. designed D. established
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is UNTRUE about gender stereotypes?
A. Male and female children are expected to behave the same as what adults think they should.
B. The distinctions in treatment to boys and girls commence when they were given birth.
C. Its beneficial for children to practice fundamental skills if they are treated unequally quite early.
D. Children are differently treated not only at homes but also at schools.
Question 49: The result of a recent survey showed that the number of girls at the age of eight paid for
babysitting was .
A. 58% B. 27% C. 6% D. 3%
Question 50: The word "counteract" in the last paragraph could be best replaced by ________.
A. promote B. frustrate C. encourage D. inspire

ĐỀ 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. thoughtful B. threaten C. therefore D. thin
Question 2. A. idiot B. idea C. idol D. ideal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. conceal B. contain C. conserve D. conquer
Question 4. A. inflation B. maximum C. applicant D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The conference _______ by non-governmental organizations was about globalization.
A. plans B. planning C. planned D. is planning
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 25
Question 6. He arrived _______ than anyone else, so he had to wait more than an hour.
A. earlier B. more early C. early D. earliest
Question 7. As soon as he _______ dinner, he will take the children for a walk to a nearby playground.
A. finishes B. will finish C. had finished D. finished
Question 8. Police said the thieves were obviously well acquainted _______ the alarm system at the
department store.
A. with B. to C. of D. in
Question 9. His parents don't approve of what he does, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 10. Air pollution is getting more and more serious in ______ big cities such as Hanoi and
Beijing.
A. the B. a C. an D. x
Question 11. Yesterday the naval authorities _______ the reports in Friday’s newspapers that they had
exploded three bombs near an unknown submarine.
A. published B. confirmed C. re-stated D. agreed
Question 12. She had been depressed all day but she started to______after she heard that she was
promoted.
A. turn up B. cheer up C. take up D. break up
Question 13. In the sustainable agriculture, farmers try _______ the use of chemicals and fertilizers.
A. to limit B. limiting C. limited D. limit
Question 14. It’s a good idea in theory, but it’s going to be hard to put in into ________.
A. practice B. trial C. test D. examination
Question 15. Yesterday I _______ in the park when I saw Dick playing football.
A. was walking B. is walking C. has walked D. has been walking
Question 16. Laura had a blazing _______ with Eddie and stormed out of the house.
A. word B. row C. gossip D. chat
Question 17. The trees _______ more and more in our countryside next year.
A. will plant B. will be planted C. are planted D. plant
Question 18. To many children, playing computer games is a form of _______.
A. relax B. relaxingly C. relaxation D. relaxed
Question 19. An important rule in Tim's family is that they have to pay _______ visits to their
grandparents in the countryside.
A. customary B. normal C. usual D. regular
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 26
Question 20. Sue and Anne are talking about their future plans.
- Sue: “I am not interested in the idea of taking a gap year and going backpacking in Nepal.”
- Anne: “Well, _______.”
A. I am B. help yourself C. neither do I D. that’s life
Question 21. Jack and Peter are talking about their plan for this weekend.
- Jack: “Why don’t we visit the imperial citadel this weekend?”
- Peter: “_______.”
A. To learn more about its history B. That’s a great idea
C. Because it is very old D. I couldn’t agree with you more
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The ASEAN Foreign Ministers had candid and fruitful discussions on ASEAN's priorities
for the year ahead, as well as deep exchanges on regional and international developments.
A. frank B. personal C. insincere D. dishonest
Question 23. They are always optimistic although they don’t have a penny to their name.
A. are very poor B. are very rich C. are very mean D. are very healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24. We can never feel fulfilled by following someone else's dreams: independent living is the
only way to find true satisfaction.
A. amused B. frightened C. satisfied D. tired
Question 25. The sun is a powerful energy source, and this energy source can be harnessed by installing
solar panels.
A. depleted B. exploited C. devastated D. expressed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26. It isn’t necessary for us to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We should discuss this matter in great detail. B. We might discuss this matter in great detail.
C. We needn’t discuss this matter in great detail. D. We mustn’t discuss this matter in great detail.
Question 27. The last time I talked to Rose was three years ago.
A. I didn't talk to Rose three years ago. B. I have talked to Rose for three years.
C. I haven't talked to Rose for three years. D. I hadn't talked to Rose for three years.
Question 28. “Why didn’t you send me the brochure?” Mr. William asked the agent.
A. Mr. William asked the agent why she didn’t send him the brochure.
B. Mr. William asked the agent to send him the brochure.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 27
C. Mr. William asked the agent not to send him the brochure.
D. Mr. William asked the agent why she had not sent him the brochure.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29. It will require a collectable effort from the government, providers, and the media to meet
our goals.
A. collectable B. effort C. government D. media
Question 30. Her last book is published in many languages 5 years ago.
A. last B. is C. published D. years
Question 31. ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as providing
opportunities for their members.
A. economic growth B. their C. providing D. aims at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. He was tired this morning. He stayed up late to watch a football match last night.
A. He wouldn't be tired this morning if he had stayed up late to watch a football match last night.
B. He wouldn't have been tired this morning if he hadn’t stayed up late to watch a football match last
night.
C. If he didn't stay up late to watch a football match last night, he wouldn't be tired this morning
D. He would have been tired this morning if he had stayed up late to watch a football match last night.
Question 33. James started working. He then realized that his decision had not been a good one.
A. No sooner had James begun his new job than he knew his decision was wrong.
B. Had James not begun his new job, he would have gone looking for a better one.
C. Since James did not like his new job, he began looking for a better one.
D. Just before James took up his new post, he realized that he was not suited for it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each the numbered blanks.
TESTING GAMES
How lucky can you be? Twelve-year-old Eloise Noakes has got the best job in the world – (34)
_______ out new games. A leading company held a competition to find young testers and Eloise was
selected to test games (35) _______ are about to be launched onto the market. Each week she is given a
different game to play before recording her thoughts on a form designed by the company. As the
company director said, “What better way to find out about games than to put them in the hands of the
customers who will make most use of them?” Eloise is (36) _______ with her new job but she also takes
it very seriously. She is allowed to keep the games after testing them. (37) _______, she has decided

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 28
instead to give them away to children less fortunate than herself. “I’ve got (38) _______ of games and
some children don’t have any,” she explained.
Question 34. A. doing B. trying C. carrying D. finding
Question 35. A. whom B. whose C. which D. who
Question 36. A. amused B. proud C. thankful D. delighted
Question 37. A. However B. Although C. Otherwise D. Moreover
Question 38. A. many B. plenty C. several D. much
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Ostriches
Ostriches are the largest and heaviest birds on earth. They can grow to be as tall as 9 feet and can
weigh as much as 250 pounds. Even though they have wings, they cannot fly. Instead, ostriches have
long, powerful legs that help them to run very fast when they feel threatened. Ostriches use their wings
to move themselves forward and to help them change direction.
Ostriches are native to Africa, where they still live in desert areas and dry, open grasslands called
savannahs. Ostriches can also be found in zoos all over the world. Humans have domesticated ostriches,
so now ostriches live on farms in over a dozen countries, including the United States, China, India, Japan,
Brazil and Costa Rica. They are raised for their meat, skin, and feathers.
Ostriches like to live in small groups called herds. The male ostrich is called a rooster; the female, a
hen. Baby ostriches are called chicks. The female ostrich lays the eggs, but both the male and the female
take turns sitting on the eggs to keep them warm.
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. the male and female ostriches B. all about eggs of ostriches
C. distribution and habitat of ostriches D. facts about ostriches and their habits
Question 40. The word “threatened” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. stolen B. consumed C. saved D. endangered
Question 41. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. male B. eggs C. ostriches D. female
Question 42. According to the passage, ostriches use their wings to _______.
A. fly faster than most other birds B. move forward and change direction
C. keep their eggs warm in the nest D. scare potential predators away
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as the purpose of raising
ostriches?
A. meat B. skin C. medicine D. feather

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 29
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is
changing the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and
their goals of reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however,
the movement is growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also, they
reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is to provide an
alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to produce electricity
from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no they cost and with no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut
electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To reduce
the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so that the
building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.
One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most environmentally
responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had to consider two
things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to lessen the negative
environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled materials, and the energy use
has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent, compared with other buildings of the same
size.
In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed according to
green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was once the site of army
housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30 percent less energy than
conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting systems, are also equipped with solar
panels.
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400
families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase,
entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy
these ideas in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and
governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green
buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run.
Question 44. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Successful green building projects all over the world
B. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 30
C. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
D. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
Question 45. The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means _______.
A. devices that monitor changes in temperature
B. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays
C. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption
D. panels that convert solar energy into electricity
Question 46. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings?
A. Improving living conditions B. Proving more economical eventually
C. Being friendly to the environment D. Increasing work productivity
Question 47. According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were initially
considered unrealistic presumably because _______.
A. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time
B. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
C. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then
D. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century
Question 48. According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is
TRUE?
A. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens
B. They have only been built in technologically developed countries
C. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world
D. They are more economical and produce no pollution
Question 49. The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. green builders B. recycled materials C. rays of the sun D. solar panels
Question 50. The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means _______.
A. being inspected B. being certified C. being notified D. being launched

ĐỀ 4

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. hide B. pick C. shine D. like
Question 2. A. cheap B. child C. chemist D. chair
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. effort B. actor C. perform D. area

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 31
Question 4. A. disappear B. recommend C. entertain D. fortunate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. The wealthy man________by three masked men has been safely rescued.
A. be kidnapped B. kidnapping C. kidnapped D. was kidnapped
Question 6. I lost the match because I was playing very badly. It was even________than the last game.
A. more badly B. badly C. worst D. worse
Question 7. _______, she will buy her parents a new TV.
A. When she receives her salary B. Once she received her salary
C. Until she received her salary D. After she had received her salary
Question 8. Finally, very few people agree________the construction of a local library for children.
A. on B. at C. with D. to
Question 9. She has recently bought a new car, _______?
A. hasn’t she B. didn’t she C. did she D. has she
Question 10. I have left my book in _________kitchen and I would like you to get it for me.
A. the B. a C. ∅ D. an
Question 11. Environmental groups try to stop farmers from using harmful on their crops.
A. economy B. Agriculture C. investments D. chemicals
Question 12. Luckily, they successfully _______ the fire and saved all of the children.
A. took out B. put out C. took off D. put off
Question 13. Although he knew very little about linguitics, he pretended________an expert in the field.
A. to be B. be C. being D. been
Question 14. When hearing the news, Tom tried his best to keep a _______ on his surprise.
A. hat B. roof C. hood D. lid
Question 15. Ngoc _______ in the kitchen when she saw a mouse.
A. is cooking B. has cooked C. was cooking D. cooks
Question 16: The jury______her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. paid B. gave C. made D. said
Question 17. Every day, Peter’s mother drives him to school. However, today, he___to school by his
father.
A. was taken B. is being taken C. is taking D. took
Question 18. The drug under examination has shown some___________results when given to
volunteers in some countries.
A. impressed B. impresses C. impressive D. impression
Question 19. After a period of probation, you’ll be offered a written _______ of employment.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 32
A. contract B. certificate C. degree D. licence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges
Question 20: - Mai: "How fashionable a pair of trainers you have!”
- Nam: "_________________."
A. Do you want to know where I bought them?
B. Thanks for your compliment.
C. I know it's fashionable.
D. Yes, of course.
Question 21: Hanh: “It's very generous of you to offer to pay!”
Quan: “_________________.”
A. I'm glad you like it. B. Thanks a million.
C. That was the least I could do. D. You can say that again.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them look younger.
A. improve B. maximize C. worsen D. enrich
Question 23: I think we cannot purchase this device this time as it costs an arm and a leg.
A. is cheap B. is painful C. is confusing D. is expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The new air conditioner was installed yesterday.
A. inspected thoroughly B. put in position
C. well repaired D. delivered to the customer
Question 25: We were pretty disappointed with the quality of the food.
A. highly B. rather C. extremely D. very
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 26: It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
A.You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B.You have to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
C.You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D.You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
Question 27: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 33
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 28: Tom said: “Why do you keep staring at me, Janet?”
A. Tom asked Janet why did she keep staring at him.
B. Tom asked Janet why she keeps staring at him.
C. Tom asked Janet why she had kept staring at him.
D. Tom asked Janet why she kept staring at him.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.

Question 29. She has disappeared three days ago, and they are still looking for her now.

A. has disappeared B. and C. are still D. for her

Question 30. Ozone has his origin in a number of sources, a prime one being the automobile engine.

A. his B. prime C. being D. the

Question 31. It is said that these good life skills will make young people become more confidential.

A. is said B. these C. become D. confidential


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 32: He is short-sighted. Therefore, he has to wear the glasses.
A. If he isn’t short-sighted, he won’t have to wear the glasses.
B. If he hadn’t been short-sighted, he wouldn’t have had to wear the glasses,
C. If he weren’t short-sighted, he wouldn’t have to wear the glasses.
D. Should he not be short-sighted, he won’t have to wear the glasses.
Question 33: Mike became a father. He felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
A. Were Mike to become a father himself, he would feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his
parents.
B. Only after Mike had become a father himself did he feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his
parents.
C. Had Mike become a father himself, he would have felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his
parents.
D. Not until he felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents did Mike become a father himself.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 -38
I was an MBA student in the USA and I lived in the university’s coed dormitory. In my culture,
usually, if a woman talks to a man, it is a sign of romantic interest. (34)_______, in the first few days of
school, I found it strange that so many women were talking to me and I was under the impression that
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 34
some women on my dormitory floor were interested in me. To (35) _____ their politeness, I would buy
them flowers or offer small gifts, as is done in my country. However, I was quite surprised to see that
these same women now seemed (36) _______ around me. One was even quite offended and told me to
leave her alone. Eventually I talked to the residence adviser on my floor to see what I was doing wrong,
and he explained to me the way men and women usually interact in the USA. I was quite relieved to hear
that (37) _____ was wrong with me, but rather with the way I was interpreting my conversations with
women. Even though I did not find the love of my life while I was in the USA, I still made many good
female friends afterwards (38) _______I still maintain contact.
Question 34: A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Otherwise
Question 35: A. pay B. show C. return D. give
Question 36: A. uncomfortable B. amazing C. exciting D. surprising
Question 37: A. nothing B. something C. anything D. everything
Question 38: A. whom B. to whom C. who D. with whom
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39- 43
Vietnam’s population is ageing quickly. In 2017, more than 10 per cent of the population will be
60 and older, and in 15-20 years the elderly will account for one third of the total population. This raises
concerns about healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly at a time when Vietnam is focusing on
economic integration and requires a large labor force. So far two solutions have been proposed: to loosen
the two-child policy and to increase the retirement age to 58 for women and 62 for men. By ending the
two-child policy the government expects to make up for the ageing population within the next 20 years.
But its effect could be creating an uncontrollable boom in the Vietnamese population. When the
government loosened the two-child policy in 2015 in a trial period, in the first 6 months of 2016 the third
child birth rate increased remarkably by 7.5 per cent
Raising the retirement age has been proposed by the Ministry of Labor pending parliamentary
evaluation in May 2017. While the policy is beneficial in utilizing the work experience of the elderly
while creating savings in the pension budget, it also means fewer job prospects and promotion
opportunities for younger generations. It is also not in the interest of all the elderly, especially the 70 per
cent of Vietnam's labor force working in manual labor-intensive sectors such as agriculture,
manufacturing and construction where working above the age of 50 can be dangerous and unproductive.
Despite these drawbacks, raising the retirement age is still considered by policymakers as one of the key
solutions to the ageing population problem in Vietnam. However, these are only temporary solutions.
Question 39: The best title for this passage could be ________.
A. Vietnam struggling with ageing population B. Stopping the two-child policy in Vietnam
C. Raising the retirement age in Vietnam D. How to solve the aging population in Vietnam
Question 40: Which statement is probably TRUE according to the information in the paragraph 1?

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 35
A. In 2017, the elderly take up for one third of the total population, this leads to more concerns about
healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly.
B. In 2015, the two-child policy has been officially tightened and succeeded.
C. The government would promote families to have two children to compensate for the ageing
population within the next 20 years.
D. In the next 15-17 years, Vietnam's economy will need a large labor force to integrate with global
economy.
Question 41: The word “its" in paragraph 1 refers to ________?
A. two-Child policy B. aging population C. retirement age D. economic integration
Question 42: In the 2nd paragraph, the writer suggests that ________.
A. The Ministry of Labor has applied raising the retirement age in May 2017.
B. Raising the retirement age can reduce job opportunities for younger generations.
C. The elderly whose age is 50 would be dangerous if they continued to work
D. Raising the retirement age and stopping two-child policy can be considered as long-term and effective
solutions.
Question 43: The word "temporary" in paragraph 2 means ________.
A. constant B. permanent C. short-term D. long-term
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39- 43
Volunteering offers many of the same social benefits, with the added bonus of helping others
and developing useful skills to put on your CV. Plus, students are in a unique position to help, suggests
Tom Fox. "They can take their enthusiasm and excitement for opportunities and share their passions,
subject knowledge and experience with people." The idea of giving up time for nothing might seem
impractical at first, especially once the pressures of study and coursework or exams begin to mount up.
However, Michelle Wright, CEO of charity support organization Cause4, suggests seeing volunteering
as a two-way street. "I think it is fine for undergraduates to approach volunteering as a symbiotic
relationship which doing good is just one part of the motivation for reaching personal and professional
goals."
Katerina Rudiger, head of skills and policy campaigns at the Chartered Institute of Personnel
and Development (CIPD), says: "Volunteering can be a valuable way of gaining that experience, as
well as building confidence, broadening your horizons, becoming a better team player and developing
those all- important 'employability skills' such as communication and decision making." Amanda
Haig, graduate HR manager, agrees that volunteering can help your employment prospects.
"Volunteering can demonstrate positive personality traits and skill sets, such as proactivity, and
teamwork," she says.
A positive side-effect of volunteering is improving your time at university by getting involved
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 36
in the local community. Leaving the student bubble can make your time as an undergraduate much
more varied. At Bath Spa University, more than 1,000 students volunteered over the past year, doing
everything from working on local environmental projects to helping in schools or assisting the elderly.
”Quite often there can be a divide between students and permanent residents," says students' union
president Amy Dawson, "but if students invest a little time now, they will be giving something back to
the local community and will reap the benefits in the future."
“You might also find that volunteering helps your studies if you choose the right program. At
Lancaster, volunteering is linked into academic modules in some cases", explains Fox. "This has
multiple wins. Students get to apply their learning in the classroom and share their interests with
children in local schools or community organizations, while schools gain skilled students with a
passion for a subject that enthuses their pupils."
Question 44: What is the most suitable title for this reading?
A. Volunteering at university
B. Volunteering helps employment prospects
C. Students should take part in extracurricular activities to put it on CV
D. The virtues of volunteering
Question 45: Which of the following information is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1?
A. Many social benefits are provided by volunteering.
B. Students are likely to be enthusiastic for chances and share their interests with people.
C. Volunteering might increase the pressures of study and coursework or exam.
D. Michelle Wright recommends seeing volunteering as a two-way street.
Question 46: The word “gaining” in paragraph 2 can be replaced by____________.
A. getting B. making C. lacking D. taking
Question 47: Personality traits and skill sets include____________.
A. communication and decision – making B. proactivity and collaboration
C. proactivity and confidence D. passions, subject knowledge and experience.
Question 48: What does the word “side-effect” mean?
A. additional result that you did not expect or want
B. an extra good result
C. another side of a street
D. a two-way street
Question 49: What does the word "they" refer to in paragraph 3?
A. projects B. residents C. students D. benefits
Question 50: Which of the following most accurately reflects Fox’s explanation in the last paragraph?
A. Students at universities must join at least one activity in volunteer campaign at local schools.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 37
B. Students at universities should join as many activities in volunteer campaign at local schools as
possible.
C. Students at universities who join volunteer work will gain a lot of purposes for the community only.
D. Students at universities who join volunteer work will gain a lot of purposes for not only themselves
but also the community.

ĐỀ 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Câu 1: Tim and Peter met each other on the pavement last week.
Tim: “Do you want me to help you with those suitcases?”
Peter: “________________”
A. No, those aren’t mine. B. Of course, not for me.
C. No, I can manage them myself. D. No, I can’t help you now.
Câu 2: Daisy is in a restaurant near her house.
Waiter: May I take your order now, sir?
Daisy: “________________”
A. Yes, I’d like some fish and chips. B. Sure, it’s delicious.
C. Ok, here is my bill. D. Thanks, I’ve really had enough.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Câu 3: A. clutter B. fortune C. hunting D. humble
Câu 4: A. maintained B. confined C. absorbed D. protected
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 5: Turtle enclosures save baby turtles from natural predators like birds, crabs, and lizards.
A. savers B. protectors C. survivors D. hunters
Câu 6: Looking at the weather, I think we made a wise decision not to go to the coast this weekend.
A. wrong B. right C. sensible D. difficult
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Câu 7: Joe is not here with us. He will know how to fix this technical issue.
A. If only Joe were here with us to help fix this technical issue.
B. Provided that Joe is here with us, he won’t know how to fix this technical issue.
C. Joe will know how to fix this technical issue even if he is not here with us.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 38
D. We wish Joe had been here with us and fix this technical issue.
Câu 8: He started working in the World Bank. That was right after he had graduated from university.
A. No sooner had he graduated from university than he started working in the World Bank.
B. No sooner had he started working in the World Bank than he graduated from university.
C. Hardly had he started working in the World Bank when he graduated from university.
D. If you had lent me the dictionary last night, I could have translated the article today.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 9: It was her performances in American idol that gained her an international reputation as a soprano.
A. damaged B. enjoyed C. enhanced D. earned
Câu 10: The lawyer promised that he would leave no stone unturned in trying to find more evidence to
help Jake's case.
A. always change his ideas B. do everything possible
C. keep any stone he found D. throw all the stones away
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Câu 11: After the flash flood, all the drains were overflowing _____ storm water.
A. from B. with C. for D. by
Câu 12: The ideas ______ in this essay are not particularly original.
A. are discussed B. discussing C. discussed D. which are discussing
Câu 13: Some of his proposals would not so much control the product as attach a few _____ to the
proposed system.
A. things bright as a button B. hitches wagon to a star
C. golden handshakes D. bells and whistles
Câu 14: Today, many serious childhood diseases _____ by early immunization.
A. can be prevented B. be prevented C. can prevent D. are preventing
Câu 15: The volunteer team _____ students with various visual, hearing, physical and cognitive
impairments every two months to give them both financial and spiritual support.
A. call on B. call off C. call out D. call back
Câu 16: John lost the _____ bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him.
A. new beautiful blue Japanese B. beautiful blue Japanese new
C. Japanese beautiful new blue D. beautiful new blue Japanese
Câu 17: Some teenagers just simply run ______ to their parents’ expectations as a way to express their
identity.
A. contrary B. against C. opposite D. counter
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 39
Câu 18: The larger the area of forest is destroyed, _____.
A. the most frequently natural disasters occur B. the more frequently are natural disasters
C. the most frequent natural disasters are D. the more frequently natural disasters occur
Câu 19: Fitzgerald is eager to _____ Martin's record of three successive world titles.
A. copy B. emulate C. produce D. imitate
Câu 20: Native species ______ a part of a given biological landscape since they adapted to the local
environment.
A. are B. have been C. is D. has been
Câu 21: You have a ticket to the water puppetry, _____?
A. do you B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. have you
Câu 22: Oprah Winfrey has been an important role model for black American women, breaking down
many invisible _____.
A. barriers B. trends C. gaps D. races
Câu 23: The writer and poet _____ to preside over this meeting.
A. are going B. is going C. have been going D. is to going
Câu 24: His visit to Korea was delayed _____ his illness.
A. although B. because of C. because D. in spite of
Câu 25: We couldn't hear anything because of the _____ noise of the drums the next-door neighbours
were playing.
A. deafness B. deafen C. deafening D. deaf
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 26: A. costume B. surface C. symptom D. unique
Câu 27: A. romantic B. popular C. nutrition D. financial
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 28 to 32.
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world’s universities, came
from very inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims
landed at Plymouth. Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period
were more than 100 graduates of England’s prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these
universities graduates in the New Word were determined that their sons would have the same educational
opportunities that they themselves had had. Because of this support in the colony for an institution of
higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of
1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 40
called Newetowne which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the
present-day university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of
Charlestown, died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to
the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court
named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the bequest may
not have been large, particularly by today’s standard, but it was more than the General Court had found it
necessary to appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in
addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of four
students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching
staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.
(Source: https://www.examenglish.com/TOEFL/TOEFL_reading1.htm&ved)
Câu 28: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. Where he was buried. B. How much he bequeathed to Harvard.
C. Where he came from. D. What he died of.
Câu 29: The passage indicates that Harvard is __________.
A. one of the oldest universities in the world
B. one of the oldest universities in America
C. the oldest university in the world
D. the oldest university in America
Câu 30: The word fledgling in the third paragraph could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. flying B. newborn C. winged D. established
Câu 31: The pronoun they in the second paragraph refers to __________.
A. Oxford and Cambridge universities B. university graduates
C. educational opportunities D. sons
Câu 32: The main idea of this passage is that __________.
A. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts
B. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities.
C. what is today a great university started out small
D. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 33 to 39.
How long will a baby born today live? 100 years? 120 years? Scientists are studying genes that
could mean long life for us all.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 41
There are already many, many people who have passed the landmark age of 100. In fact, there are
now so many healthy, elderly people that there’s a name for them: the wellderly. These are people over
the age of eighty who have no major illnesses, such as high blood pressure, heart disease or diabetes.
There are many scientific studies of communities where healthy old age is typical. These include
places like Calabria in southern Italy and the island of Okinawa in Japan. In Calabria, the small village of
Molochio has about 2,000 inhabitants. And of these, there are at least eight people over a hundred years
old. When researchers ask people like this the secret of their long life, the answer is almost always about
food and is almost always the same: ‘I eat a lot of fruit and vegetables.’ ‘I eat a little bit of everything.’ ‘ I
neither smoke nor drink.’
In the past, scientists looked at things such as diet and lifestyle for an explanation of long life,
these days they are also looking at genetics. Researcher Eric Topol says that there must be genes that
explain why people are protected from the effects of aging process. The new research into long life did
scrutinize groups of people who have a genetic connection. One interesting group lives in Ecuador. In
one area of the country there are a number of people with the same genetic condition. It’s called Laron
syndrome. These people don’t grow very tall – just over one metre. But Laron syndrome also give them
protection against cancer and diabetes. As a result, they live longer than other people in their families.
Meanwhile, on the Hawaiian island of Oahu, there’s another group of long-lived men, Japanese-
Americans. They have a similar gene to the Laron syndrome group.
Back in Calabria, researchers constructed the family trees of the 100-year-old people. They looked
at family information from the 19th century to today. It is concluded that there are genetic factors that
give health benefits to the men. This is a surprising result because generally in Europe, women live longer
than men. So what really makes people live longer? It seems likely that it is an interaction of genes, the
environment and probably a third factor – luck.
(Adapted from https://www.ngllife.com/long-and-healthy-life-0)
Câu 33: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. In the past, more people lived to a healthy old age.
B. We will all live to at least 100 years.
C. More European men live to a healthy old age than women.
D. Different factors lead to a healthy old age.
Câu 34: Who are the wellderly?
A. They are healthy young people. B. They are old people with health problems.
C. They are healthy old people. D. They are young people with health problems.
Câu 35: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. How To Live More Than 100 Years?
B. The Secrets of A Long And Healthy Life
C. Human Lifespan Is Determined by Genetics
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 42
D. Tips To Increase Life Expectancy
Câu 36: The word scrutinize in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inspect B. weigh C. peruse D. discover
Câu 37: Which of the following is NOT true about the Laron syndrome?
A. It is the result of a genetic condition.
B. This syndrome is a health problem for groups of people in Ecuador and Hawaii.
C. People diagnosed with this syndrome are prone to diabetes.
D. Ecuadorians having Laron syndrome are approximately one metre tall.
Câu 38: According to paragraph 3, __________.
A. scientists have conducted many studies of places where healthy old age is normal
B. scientists have been investigating places where most people live to be a hundred
C. scientists have been studying places where there is no healthy old person
D. scientists have been studying places where only one healthy old person lives
Câu 39: The word they in paragraph 4 refers to_______.
A. scientists B. diet and lifestyle C. things D. explanations
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 40 to 44.
Why is culture important and how does it answer the question "What is cultural identity?"?
Culture is the underlying foundation of traditions and beliefs that help a person relate to the world around
them. It is the basis for any superstitions they may have. It is the aversion to (40) ______ types of meat,
or which days you can work on. Culture gives us a definite starting point when beginning to search for
our roots. Knowing (41) _______ a person comes from will help to define how they look at their family
obligations as well as how they celebrate important milestones in life.
As a person has given up their cultural identity, they can (42) ________ identify themselves with the
things that were (43) ______ the most important things in their lives. They lose direction. As time (44)
_______ by and they continue to forget about their past and their natural traditions, their identity becomes
less and less pronounced.
Câu 40: A. typical B. especial C. special D. specific
Câu 41: A. how B. when C. where D. by which
Câu 42: A. no more B. any more C. no longer D. any longer
Câu 43: A. once B. at once C. for once D. one time
Câu 44: A. goes B. flies C. passes D. walks
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Câu 45: My brother started studying French three years ago.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 43
A. My brother hasn’t studied French for three years.
B. My brother studied French for three years ago.
C. My brother studies French for three years.
D. My brother has studied French for three years.
Câu 46: It was wrong of you not to ask your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job.
A. You must have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job.
B. You had to have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job.
C. You should have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job.
D. You might have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job.
Câu 47: “I am going away tomorrow, mom.”, the son said.
A. The son told his mom that he was going away the next day.
B. The son asked his mom if he was going away tomorrow.
C. The son said that he was going away the next day, mom.
D. The son said his mom he was going away the next day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Câu 48: The nutritionist told him to avoid eating lots of carbohydrates, focus on having more protein-rich
foods and green vegetables, and drinking at least eight glasses of water a day.
A. foods B. drinking C. avoid eating D. focus on having
Câu 49: Heavy storms usually cause powerful cuts in hundreds of homes.
A. heavy B. cuts C. homes D. powerful
Câu 50: The United States come top of the list of countries ranked by economic performances.
A. the list B. economic C. come D. ranked

ĐỀ 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. chair B. change C. chick D. chef
Question 2. A. course B. court C. source D. tough

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. focus B. damage C. offer D. provide
Question 4. A. difference B. neighborhood C. membership D. impression
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. This boy, ______ a medal for his bravery, had rescued two people from drowning.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 44
A. was awarded B. awarded C. awarding D. was awarding
Question 6. Information and technology is ______ than it was ten years ago.
A. advanced B. most advanced C. the most advanced D. more advanced
Question 7. My elder brother will join the army _____.
A. after he had finished grade 12 B. when he has finished grade 12
C. before he finished grade 12 D. until he will finish grade 12
Question 8. Every student has to cope ______ a difficult situation at some point.
A. into B. with C. on D. at
Question 9. Your sister has won the scholarship to Oxford University, ______?
A. hasn’t she B. has she C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 10. His parents wanted to give him _____ special present on his birthday.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 11. The opening ______ of the movie was filmed in New York City several years ago.
A. image B. sight C. scene D. view
Question 12. I miss my grandmother so much when I ______ on my childhood.
A. look back B. take up C. turn into D. give off
Question 13: He promises ______ the book back to the library at the weekend.
A. to give B. give C. to giving D. giving
Question 14: He was out of his ______ in the advanced class, so he moved to the intermediate class.
A. height B. width C. depth D. size
Question 15: When the guests arrived yesterday afternoon, the girl ______ the house.
A. was tidying B. is tidying C. tidies D. will tidy
Question 16: She ______ a great contribution to the success of her athletic team in the 31 st SEA Games.
A. did B. took C. made D. gave
Question 17: Due to her contribution to the company, she hopes that she ______ from finance director
to chief executive.
A. will be promoted B. promoted C. has promoted D. will promote
Question 18: She is not very ______ when she has to speak in public.
A. confidently B. confide C. confidence D. confident

Question 19: The Prime Minister managed to ______ any tricky questions asked by the interviewers.
A. shirk B. duck C. dodge D. evade
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges .
Question 20: Mary is talking to Anne about her new dress.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 45
Mary: “Your dress is so beautiful!” – Anne: “______”
A. Thank you. I’m glad you like it. B. Sorry to hear that.
C. Never mind. D. That’s a good idea.
Question 21: Thomas and Peter are talking about the artificial intelligent.
Thomas: “AI assistants can greatly improve workplace productivity and efficiency.”
Peter: “______. They may lead to a loss of human connection.”
A. I can say that again B. You’re right but I don’t care
C. You’re absolutely true D. I don’t think so
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22: All of us agree that our attempt to preserve the natural life is best for ourselves, our
children, and our nation.
A. complain B. destroy C. protect D. develop
Question 23: Everything should be set out in black and white so that there will be no room for
misunderstanding.
A. undoubtedly B. obviously C. unclearly D. successfully
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.

Question 24: The children were delighted that there were enough cookies for each of them to have two.
A. anxious B. serious C. happy D. disappointed
Question 25: When you’re feeling down, try going for a walk or listening to some upbeat music to
boost your mood.
A. improve B. detect C. reduce D. spoil
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26: It is necessary for you to make the thorough revision before the final exam.
A. You need make the thorough revision before the final exam.
B. You may make the thorough revision before the final exam.
C. You mustn’t make the thorough revision before the final exam.
D. You couldn’t make the thorough revision before the final exam.
Question 27: He last played football for the national team two years ago.
A. He didn’t play football for the national team two years ago.
B. He has played football for the national team for two years.
C. He has two years to play football for the national team.
D. He hasn’t played football for the national team for two years.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 46
Question 28: “Do you want to buy this new comic book,” David asked.
A. David asked if I had wanted to buy that new comic book.
B. David asked if I wanted to buy that new comic book.
C. David asked if I want to buy this new comic book.
D. David asked do I want to buy this new comic book.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29: The secretary had to check her email continuously to see if she missed the important
A B C D
messages.
Question 30: Ollie thinks he looks really trendy after he changes his hairstyle.
A B C D
Question 31: The jacket really suited Rachel, but unfortunately, they didn’t fit her due to the wrong size.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: She didn’t read the reference books. She couldn’t do all the exercises in the test.
A. If she read the reference books, she could do all the exercises in the test.
B. If she had read the reference books, she could have done all the exercises in the test.
C. If she read the reference books, she could have done all the exercises in the test.
D. Had she not read the reference books, she could have done all the exercises in the test.
Question 33: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
B. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
C. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
D. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Sometimes it is hard to know that we can do as individuals to help protect the environment. We
carefully sort out trash for recycling, we (34) ______ as little water as we can and use low-energy light
bulbs. We even campaign for the use of renewable energy and try to make others aware of the problems
we face. (35) ______ then we read about the rising tides in the oceans and (36) ______ types of animals
dying out, and it all begins to look a bit hopeless. The truth is, however, that every small action (37)
______ we take makes a difference and that if we make it clear to our governments and the businesses we
buy things from that we are (38) ______ concerned about environmental issues, the necessary changes
might happen at an increasing rate.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 47
Question 34: A. supply B. purify C. conserve D. consume
Question 35: A. Therefore B. Although C. But D. Moreover
Question 36: A. much B. few C. many D. little
Question 37: A. which B. who C. when D. whom
Question 38: A. greatly B. fully C. largely D. mostly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Movie studios and recording companies are in a constant fight against piracy. The Internet is the
worst culprit. People often upload or watch pirated material, especially on video-sharing sites. The
companies try to shut down these sites. They even sue the people using this material. Still, it has been of
little use thus far. There are just too many people and websites with pirated materials. As well, these
methods are making the studios and companies unpopular with the public. People are starting to see these
companies as greedy. However, a new kind of software may change the nature of this fight.
Amazingly, it is advertising software that is making a difference. This new software can actually
analyze videos on the Internet. When it finds a pirated video clip, it doesn’t report it. Instead, it just puts
an ad at the bottom of the video. This is an ad for the original source of the material. For example, it could
show a link to the website of the studio or recording company. Or, it could show an ad for a product that
the company owns. In this way, each pirated copy would actually help make money for the original
company. If you can’t beat them, join them!
Question 39: What is the main idea of this reading?
A. How to download pirated materials B. A new way to fight piracy
C. Why using pirated material is wrong D. Companies with a new vision
Question 40: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is TRUE as a thing to change the nature
of the fight?
A. a new kind of software B. a video-sharing site
C. the studios and companies D. a pirated video clip
Question 41: The word pirated in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. permitted B. ensured C. unauthorized D. published
Question 42: The word They in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. people B. companies C. video-sharing sites D. materials
Question 43: According to the passage, the software helps the movie studios and recording companies
make money by ______?
A. helping them catch people using pirated material
B. making the pirated material not useful anymore
C. using the pirated material to promote the companies
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 48
D. putting an advertisement at the bottom of the video
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
With endless photo sharing apps and online platforms enabling teenagers to publicise their lives,
it’s no wonder that some young people start to question their own experiences and body image, and start
to feel inadequate. In fact, some of these sites have been associated with poor mental health, bullying,
lack of sleep and depression, and are considered dangerous by many health professionals. However, since
we live in a world of fake news and distorted truths, it’s not surprising that much of what is shared on
these profiles by celebrities, influencers and normal people is also very often manipulated. Here we
reveal some of the scary truths of online photo sharing.
We all know the feeling: we upload our latest holiday snaps, a photo with our best mates or a
carefully planned out selfie, then wait to see just how many likes it will get. The more likes, the better we
feel. But some people seem to get away more than anyone else. It could be that they have a lot of friends
or alternatively, they could have subscribed to one of many free services that promise unlimited likes.
They are usually free, all you have to do in return is a simple social action, such as sharing their website
on your page, or completing an online survey. Repeating the action leads to more likes; and if that’s not
enough, you can buy more.
There are similar ways to accumulate followers, although you usually have to pay for them.
Influencers are often guilty of doing this. These people are usually paid in relation to the size of their
audience, so more followers results in higher fees. There are ways to identify suspicious accounts and
accounts that follow a lot of people, but have now followers of their own. Then there’s the issue of the
photos themselves which tend to blue reality with fantasy. Many people feel the need to add the hashtag
“no filter” to photos that have not been enhanced in some way, and yet those that don’t feature filters are
also often not what they seem. This leads many people to believe others are living the perfect life, and
feel inadequate in comparison.
So what can be done? Firstly, don’t take the information you find on these platforms too seriously.
Much of what you see has been staged and edited. Experts are encouraging social media sites to make all
information about likes and followers private, or even disable these functions. They are also campaigning
for signals where images have been airbrushed. Alternatively, you could deactivate your social media
accounts, although that is admittedly a little too drastic, even for me.
Question 44: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Fake News on Social Media B. Fake News and Poor Health
C. Scary Truths of Social Media D. Ways to Increase Followers
Question 45: The word celebrities in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. famous people B. web designers C. followers D. teenagers

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 49
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, in order to have more likes, some people ______.
A. could have taken out some subscription to one of free services promising unlimited likes
B. are reminded to have their latest holiday snaps uploaded on the social media to gain more likes
C. should plan their selfie as carefully as possible after uploading it on the social media
D. need to share the online surveys on their page to attract more influencers to the website
Question 47: The word They in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. services B. likes C. friends D. actions
Question 48:The word accumulate in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. gradually increase B. sharply increase C. stay remained D. dramatically decrease
Question 49: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Many influencers usually get more money if they have more followers on their page.
B. Many people feel that the hashtag “no filter” is meaningless when it is added to the photos.
C. Influencers only need to do the actions again and again and then they will get more likes.
D. Many of the photos that you can see online show a perfect image of the real life.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. What can be found on the online platforms is sometimes not completely believable.
B. Social media sites have been encouraged to increase access to private information.
C. Airbrushed images are thought to be useless to avoid the negative aspect of photo sharing.
D. Most people including the writer like the deactivated accounts despite the drastic changes.

ĐỀ 7

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. child B. chef C. cheese D. chance
Question 2: A. soon B. flood C. pool D. fool
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. reply B. appear C. protect D. order
Question 4: A. difficult B. fantastic C. generous D. negative
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
Question 5: Many of the pictures from outer space are presently on display in the public library.
A. having sent B. sent C. sending D. were sent
Question 6: Detective books are ____________than science fiction ones.
A. more interesting B. interestingly C. interestinger D. interesting
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 50
Question 7: The educational seminar will begin ______.
A. when all the teachers were arriving B. as soon as all the teachers arrive
C. by the time all the teachers arrived D. after all the teachers had arrived
Question 8: People are not aware ___ the problem of overpopulation.
A. for B. of C. at D. in
Question 9: She loves him very much,______?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 10: It was______ best film I had ever read.
A. the B. an C. a D. no article
Question 11: During rush hours, the traffic is usually________ and cars are closing up behind each
other.
A. light B. heavy C. substantial D. enormous
Question 12 We had to ______ the family holiday until next month because of the expensive airfare.
A. call off B. turn down C. put back D. take off
Question 13: Although she was tired, she agreed _____________-me a hand with the clean up.
A. giving B. gave C. to give D. given
Question 14 So Emma actually manages to juggle two small children and a full-time job, does she? Well,
I take my ________ off to her.
A. pants B. shirt C. shoes D. hat
Question 15: We______for going home when it began to rain.
A. were preparing B. are preparing C. will be preparing D. have prepared
Question 16: I found the information for the project in the encyclopedia but I couldn’t give_____ and
verse on it.
A. chapter B. unit C. poem D. extract
Question 17: : Daisy hopes her essay on the generation gap ______ a high score by her teacher.
A. gives B. will give C. was giving D. will be given
Question 18: The little girl laughed __________when her mother told her a funny story.
A. happy B. happiness C. unhappy D. happily
Question 19: Last year the business went_______ up after sales continued to fall.
A. stomach B. tummy C. belly D. gut
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tung: “Your shoes are terrific, Tuan. The colour quite suits you.”
Tuan: “______”
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 51
A. Really? B. Do you like them?
C. You must be kidding. My shirt is nice, isn’t it? D. I’m glad you like them.
Question 21: Mike and Lien, two lecturers, are talking about ChatGPT.
- Mike: “I think ChatGPT should be banned at school.”
- Lien: “______. With the right approach, it can be an effective teaching tool.”
A. That’s for sure B. I don’t think so C. You’re right D. It’s true
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We have to husband our resources to make sure we make it through these hard times.
A. spend B. manage C. use up D. marry
Question 23: He’s a little slow on the uptake. As a result, he needs to record what the teacher said at
school and listen for several times at time.
A. hear things easily B. hard of hearing
C. understand things easily D. understand things with difficulty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Laura spotted many careless grammatical mistakes with her essay after having it looked at
by her teammate.
A. avoided B. noticed C. made D. expressed
Question 25: Online reading is thought to prevent us from obtaining a real insight into the contents we
are reading.
A. attitude B. experience C. understanding D. status
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is compulsory for Lisa to come home before curfew.
A. Lisa needn’t come home before curfew. B. Lisa shouldn’t come home before curfew.
C. Lisa must come home before curfew. D. Lisa may come home before curfew.
Question 27: I haven't gone to the cinema for ten years.
A. It's ten years I haven't gone to the cinema.
B. I last went to the cinema ten years ago.
C. It was ten years ago I went to the cinema.
D. The last time I went to the cinema was ten years.
Question 28: “ Why don't you have your room repainted?" said Viet to Nam.
A. Viet suggested that Nam should have his room repainted.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 52
B. Viet suggested having Nam's room repainted.
C. Viet asked Nam why you didn't have your room repainted.
D. Viet wanted to know why Nam doesn't have his room repainted.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: The tanginess of the wine compliments the meatiness of the dish perfectly .
A B C D
Question 30: When she will go to university next year, her mother will buy her a new house.
A B C D
Question 31: Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn't continue without her.
A. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.
B. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.
C. If she hadn't contributed positively, we couldn't have continued with the project.
D. Provided her contribution wouldn't come, we couldn't continue with the project.
Question 33: Hanna had just been crowned in a beauty contest. The images of her hitting her classmate
were leaked on the Internet.
A. Had the images of her hitting her classmate not been leaked on the Internet, Hanna would have been
crowned in a beauty contest.
B. No sooner had Hanna been crowned in a beauty contest than the images of her hitting her classmate
were leaked on the Internet.
C. Only after the images of her hitting her classmate had been leaked on the Internet was Hanna crowned
in the beauty contest.
D. Not until the images of her hitting her classmate had been leaked on the Internet was Hanna crowned
in the beauty contest.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Technology: The New Addiction?
The average child (34) ______ enters junior high school is usually very familiar with electronic
devices and spends a lot of time on iPads or tablets whenever they get the chance. A new survey seems to
confirm how addictive modern technology can be for young people, with over 50 percent admitting that

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 53
they use their devices too much. Nearly half of the parents in the survey also said they believed their
children showed signs of being addicted and a similar number said their children always (35) ______ to
the screen had been the cause of disputes.
(36) ______, it does not only affect children, as addiction to technology can happen to anyone. Some
are even calling it the new 21st century addiction. Even though Internet addiction is considered a public
health threat in (37) ______ countries, it is not yet a recognised disorder in the United States. The big
question for parents and educators is therefore how to (38) ______ youngsters’ gadget uses in order to
prevent addiction.
Question 34: A. whom B. who C. which D. where
Question 35: A. stuck B. glued C. attached D. hooked
Question 36: A. Therefore B. Otherwise C. However D. Although
Question 37: A. much B. every C. other D. another
Question 38: A. enhance B. manage C. access D. accept
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Ever since 1932, Black Friday has signaled the beginning of the Christmas shopping season in the
United States. This shopping extravaganza follows Thanksgiving, on the fourth Thursday of November,
and comes just before ‘Cyber Monday’.
Use of the name ‘Black Friday’ was first recorded as coming from Philadelphia, where it was used to
describe heavy, disruptive vehicle and pedestrian traffic the day after Thanksgiving. Apparently, loads of
people would go into town on the Friday after Turkey Day, before the yearly Army/Navy football game
on Saturday; stores would take advantage of all the extra business by promoting big sales.
As ‘Black Friday’ became more popular in the early eighties, one “explanation” for the event became
that this day represented the point in the year when retailers begin to make a profit, going from being "in
the red" (meaning to be in debt) to "in the black" (meaning to be free of debt).
Black Friday is not an official holiday in the United States, but in some states government employees
are given the day off. Schools and non-retail employees are normally given Thanksgiving Thursday and
Black Friday as public holidays. Most major retailers offer promotional sales with big discounts, and it
has been the busiest shopping day every year since 2005. In 2014, sales revenues for Black Friday
reached a whopping $11.6 billion, falling slightly to $10.4 in 2015. In 2013, overall spending from
Thanksgiving Thursday up to Cyber Monday topped $56 billion!
Question 39: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. The origin of Black Friday.
B. Black Friday is a public holiday.
C. Black Friday signals the start of the Easter season.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 54
D. Black Friday comes before Thanksgiving.
Question 40: What does the word “retailers” most closely mean?
A. A person, shop, or business that sells goods to the public
B. A person, shop, or business that sells goods to the big company only
C. A person, shop, or business that sells many kinds of goods
D. Someone who owns a store or website
Question 41: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ____________
A. Thanksgiving B. Black Friday C. Christmas D. Philadelphia
Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage ?
A. Black Friday is a very busy day.
B. They cannot make big profit by promoting big sales
C. The term “Black Friday” was first recorded in Philadelphia.
D. Black Friday hasn’t been so popular nowadays.
Question 43: Which sentence is incorrect?
A. In 2014, sales revenues for Black Friday reached more than $12 billion.
B. In 2014, sales revenues for Black Friday reached $11.6 billion.
C. In 2014, sales revenues for Black Friday reached less than $12 billion.
D. In 2015, sales revenues for Black Friday fell slightly to $10.4 .
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
In the US, the number of stay-at-home dads nearly doubled from 1989 to 2012. But many people still
find men becoming a full-time caregiver relatively odd. This caused men who make this choice to feel
like the odd ones out. Even in cultures where fathers are expected to be more involved than in the past,
they are still expected to be the breadwinners of the family.
The ideal father is expected to be more engaged in his children’s day-to-day lives than in the past, says
Brendan Churchill, a senior lecturer in sociology at Australia's University of Melbourne. Even so, “the
male breadwinner model lingers. It is reinforced daily in our culture and it also persists in our social
policy frameworks, even though there’s been lots of change - our reference point is still that family of
four with a male breadwinner.” he says. This cultural belief that fathers should ‘protect and provide’ can
plant an insidious narrative in the heads of stay-at-home dads, even those who feel that they’re best suited
to contributing to their families in their role as the primary caregiver.
The idea of the male breadwinner does harm to men and fathers, because it prevents them from being
engaged or involved,” says Churchill. Some fathers have tried to tap into networks of dads, either in their
friendship groups or online. But the results have been mixed. In London, Cameron and his wife did a
prenatal course with several other couples. After the course finished, the chat group for the mums stayed
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 55
active. The dads’ group did not. He did stay in touch with one of the fathers, he says, particularly by
bonding over something not baby-related: they support the same football team.
Despite the challenges, many stay-at-home dads say they wouldn’t want it any other way. Breaking
down stereotypes around stay-at-home dads isn’t just good for fathers who in that role. It’s something that
can be empowering and liberating for all fathers.
Question 44: Which of the following can be the title for the passage?
A. Breaking Down Stereotypes: A Story of a Non-working Father
B. Fewer Stay-at-home Dads, Fewer Problems?
C. The Stigma of The Stay-at-home-dad
D. Changing Society’s Attitudes towards Stay-at-home Fathers
Question 45: The word “reinforced” in paragraph 2 can be replaced by ______.
A. bolstered B. instilled C. established D. reflected
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, the male breadwinner model ______.
A. has discouraged many fathers from fulfilling their role as the primary caregiver
B. helps a lot of fathers to get more involved in their children’s everyday lives
C. reflects an idea that the father should be the one who earns money in the family.
D. has made considerable modifications to the social policy frameworks
Question 47: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. breadwinner B. harm C. idea D. position
Question 48: The word “tap into” in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. gaining access to B. becoming familiar with
C. making use of D. approving of
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Men who make up their mind to stop working and stay at home can feel like being isolated.
B. Fathers are deterred from being engaged or involved due to the idea of the male breadwinner.
C. Becoming stay-at-home dads can give all fathers a sense of empowerment and liberation.
D. Stay-at-home fathers are still regarded by lots of people as being quite eccentric.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Stay-at-home dads will by all means be welcomed by the society in the foreseeable future.
B. Cameron does not like the father he bonded with in the prenatal course he did with his wife.
C. Enormous attempts have been made to break down stereotypes around stay-at-home dads.
D. Many fathers do not feel regretful about their decision to be a stay-at-home dad.
ĐỀ 8

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 56
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. though B. these C. there D. breath
Question 2: A. hide B. pick C. shine D. like
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other primary stress in each of
the following questions.
Question 3: A. detect B. conclude C. instruct D. contact
Question 4: A. meaningful B. suitable C. attentive D. courteous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
Question 5: I really like all the characters in his last film,______ on a true story about a group of
university students in his hometown.
A. is based B. basing C. based D. is basing
Question 6: The food at the new restaurant is______ than the old one.
A. delicious B. more delicious C. the most delicious D. most delicious
Question 7: ______, they will buy a new house in the countryside.
A. When my parents retired B. As soon as my parents retires
C. After my parents had retired D. Since my parents retired
Question 8: Many workers are still unaware ______the importance of following safety producers.
A. of B. about C. with D. in
Question 9: She usually spends every afternoon after school on the phone with her friends, ______?
A. doesn't she B. does she C. won't she D. isn't she
Question 10: _____women who set up the first women's refuges in the UK in the 1970s changed the
world.
A. The B. A C. An D. Ø
Question 11: Environmental groups try to stop farmers from using harmful______ on their crops.
A. economy B. agriculture C. investments D. chemicals
Question 12: Luckily, they successfully______the fire and saved all of the children.
A. took out B. put out C. took off D. put off
Question 13: After leaving for school, my younger sister decided ______abroad.
A. to work B. working C. work D. to working
Question 14: Martin is called the teacher's pet by his classmates because he is taken under his teacher's
______.
A. hands B. arms C. wings D. legs
Question 15: Laura______ her bedroom when she found her missing diary.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 57
A. cleans B. has cleaned C. was cleaning D. is cleaning
Question 16: We ______ full use of the fine weather and had a day out.
A. took B. created C. did D. made
Question 17: Linda ______a new tablet on her birthday last week.
A. was given B. was giving C. gives D. has given
Question 18: Parents should be ______ of their children's decisions on future career.
A. support B. supporting C. supportively D. supportive
Question 19: Candidates applying for this position must have a master's ______ in science.
A. diploma B. degree C. licence D. certificate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Hieu is talking to Nam after his test.
- Hieu: "My first test was not as good as I expected."
- Nam: " ______”
A. Good Heavens! B. Never mind, better job next time!
C. That’s brilliant enough! D. It's okay. Don't worry.
Question 21: Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: "Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum."
- Kate: "______. It is an essential life skill."
A. Oh, that's a problem B. I can't agree with you more
C. Not at all D. You can make it
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Doing voluntary work is a rewarding experience.
A. beneficial B. worthwhile C. worthless D. satisfying
Question 23: We didn't make plans in advance; we just did everything on the spur of the moment.
A. rapidly B. intentionally C. slowly D. suddenly
Mark the letter A. B. C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The bank robbers were arrested by the police after 3 days.
A. hit B. caught C. avoided D. offered
Question 25: The maintenance of these old castles must cost a lot of money.
A. building B. foundation C. destruction D. preservation

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 58
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It's a good idea for you to practice speaking English every day.
A. You must practice speaking English every day.
B. You should practice speaking English every day.
C. You can practice speaking English every day.
D. You will practice speaking English every day.
Question 27: The last time I updated my Facebook status was 3 months ago.
A. I haven't updated my Facebook status for 3 months.
B. I have 3 months to update my Facebook status.
C. I started updating my Facebook status 3 months ago.
D. I have updated my Facebook status for 3 months.
Question 28: "What have you done to your hair?" she said to her son.
A. She asked her son what to do to his hair.
B. She wanted her son to know what he had done to his hair.
C. She wanted to know what did her son do to his hair.
D. She asked her son what he had done to his hair.
Mark the letter A. B. C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Farmers are concerned that their food-bearing plants may be subjective to the rigours
A B C
of a harsh winter.
D
Question 30: The final football match is postponed last Saturday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A B C D
Question 31: The FBI is seeking a 49-year-old man for their alleged involvement in a US$3 billion
A B C
money laundering scheme.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: His English is not good. He can't apply for the job as a interpretter.
A. If his English were good, he could apply for the job as a interpretter.
B. If his English had been good, he couldn't have applied for the job as a interpretter.
C. He wishes his English weren't good so that he could apply for the job as a interpretter.
D. Provided that his English is good, he can't apply for the job as a interpretter.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 59
Question 33: I noticed that I'd seen her before only after she turned up at the meeting.
A. Only after she turned up at the meeting did I notice that I'd seen her before.
B. No sooner had I noticed that I'd seen her before than she turned up at the meeting.
C. Only after did I notice that I'd seen her before she turned up at the meeting.
D. Only after I noticed that I'd seen her before did she turn up at the meeting.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
COPING WITH TRAFFIC
Many large cities around the world have struggled to keep up with the increase in traffic in recent
times. Densely populated areas, growing car ownership, as well as narrow roads brought for much lower
volumes of traffic all (34)______ to this. In 1975, Singapore decided to introduce a congestion charge a
(35)______ paid by drivers entering the most traffic-heavy zones of the city. London introduced a
congestion charge in 2003.
Public opinion was initially opposed to the idea, (36)______ people soon became more supportive
of the scheme. Despite this, its first decade brought mixed success, and the number of cars in the city fell
by only 10%. However, the scheme proved massively profitable, (37) ______allowed the city council to
invest in (38) _______ measures aimed at improving traffic conditions in London. These included cycle
lanes, pedestrianized areas and better road surfaces.
(Adapted from Oxford Exam Trainer by Helen Weale)
Question 34: A. result B. cause C. induce D. contribute
Question 35: A. fine B. fee C. pension D. wage
Question 36: A. or B. but C. so D. and
Question 37: A. that B. whose C. who D. which
Question 38: A. number B. amount C. other D. little
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Is synchronized swimming really a sport? Despite the doubt of many people, synchronized
swimming is one of the most underrated but most difficult sports, and it certainly deserves to be in the
Olympic Games. Olympic synchronized swimmers train for as long as eight hours a day, for six days a
week- much longer than most other Olympic sports. The athletes are not just in the water the whole time,
they spend hours stretching, doing Pilates, strength conditioning, diligently training, lifting weights,
performing ballet, and even dancing and doing gymnastics. Because of this, synchronized swimmers are
some of the strongest and skillful athletes to compete in the modern Olympic Games.
Synchronized swimmers must perform many movements and positions called figures while
managing their breathing and coordination with the swimmers around them. To increase their lung
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 60
capacity, often times synchronized swimmers will do exercises called "unders" during practices. They
will swim a 25- meter lap underwater, repeating this exercise over and over until they're beyond
exhausted. This exercise is completely necessary for synchronized swimmers to master, because more
than half of a routine is performed underwater.
Although synchronized swimming is a very graceful and beautiful sport, there can be some dangers.
The synchronized swimmers can't touch the bottom of the pool in a routine, or they'll be disqualified.
They must continuously move their legs in circular movements, like an egg-beater. Because synchronized
swimming is a contact sport and the swimmer's kicks are so powerful, swimmers may get hit by other
competitors' legs, causing concussions or knocking off nose clips, which is an essential piece of
equipment. Since it's fairly common for a nose clip to get knocked off, many times swimmers will swim
with a couple extras.
(Adapted from https://swimswam.com/)
Question 39: What is the best tittle of the passage?
A. History of synchronized swimming B. Synchronized swimming competition
C. The requirement of synchronized swimming D. Synchronized swimming
Question 40: The word "skillful" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. experienced B. healthy C. clever D. accomplished

Question 41: As mentioned in the passage, what do swimmers have to pay attention in order to have a
successful performance?
A. They have to remember every movement to complete them at the same time with others.
B. They have to practice "unders" exercises whenever they perform this sport.
C. They have to control their breath while harmoniously performing with other swimmers.
D. They have to swim a 25-meter lap underwater to manage their breathing.
Question 42: According to the passage, the followings are true about what synchronized swimmers
have to do EXCEPT ______________.
A. swim a 25-meter lap underwater
B. run around the fool before swimming
C. perform ballet and do gymnastics
D. keep their legs moving in their performance
Question 43: What does the word "their" in the second paragraph refer to?
A. synchronized swimmers B. figures
C. positions D. movements
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 61
question.
The Globe
Shakespeare's Globe Theatre is a popular topic for people interested in theater and history.
However, the Globe Theatre as we know it today is not the same building that was used originally. In
fact, the Globe was situated in many different places during its long history.
When the rental agreement on the original location ended, one of the actors bought a theater called
the Blackfriars, which was located in another part of town. However, many complaints from neighbors
and the town council led to the creation of a petition that requested that the acting group move their
company out of town. Upset with this news, the actors returned to the original theater, took most of it
apart, and then moved the materials across the Thames River to Bankside, where they proceeded to
construct the next version of the Globe.
This endeavor, though, did not go so smoothly. The owner of the original Globe Theatre, who had
rented it to the actors, took the acting group to court. He wanted the actors to pay for the damage they had
done to his building. In the end, however, the actors won the case and continued to construct their
"newly- acquired" theater. Later, the actors split their plays between the original theater and the new
Globe.
In 1643, the original Globe Theatre burned to the ground. How did this happen? Historians
believe that a cannon that was shot during a performance of the play Henry Vill started a large fire. Yet,
the Globe Theatre still survived. A new Globe was later completed on the same site before Shakespeare's
death. However, it was shut down by the Puritans in 1642 and later destroyed during the English Civil
War of 1643.
In May of 1997, Queen Elizabeth II officially opened a newly constructed version of the Globe
with a production of Henry V. This is the Globe Theatre that people visit today. The queen wanted the
new theater to be much like the old one. The new model is very similar to the original theater. For
instance, it is also a three-story building. Also, it has seating for 1,500 people. It also has an area called
the "yard" on the lower level. In its first season, the theater attracted 210,000 people.
(Adapted from "Developing Skills for the TOEFL iBT intermediate")
Question 44: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The history of the Globe Theatre B. The renovation of the Globe Theare
C. The construction of the Globe Theare D. Acting at the Globe Theare
Question 45: The word "proceeded" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______.
A. continued B. began C. marched D. hurried
Question 46: The word "acquired" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced with which of the following?
A. stolen B. bought C. discovered D. obtained
Question 47: According to the passage, what is TRUE of the original Globe Theatre?
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 62
A. It was not popular at first. B. It had three levels.
C. It was in downtown London. D. The tickets were not very expensive.
Question 48: What is NOT mentioned in the passage about the Globe Theatre?
A. There was controversy surrounding the Globe when it was first in operation.
B. The new version of the Globe is much like the Globe as it was hundreds of years ago.
C. All visitors to the new Globe will find the theater accommodating and pleasurable.
D. Theater-goers should understand that the Globe is not like other modern theaters.
Question 49: Based on the information in paragraph 4, what can be inferred about the Puritans?
A. They loved Shakespeare. B. They lived in America.
C. They did not like plays. D. They wore black clothes.
Question 50: The word "its" in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. the season B. the program C. the theater D. the play

ĐỀ 9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. sun B. sure C. seen D. sort
Question 2: A. coach B. goat C. toad D. broad
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. reduce B. impress C. control D. finish
Question 4: A. proposal B. challenging C. arrangement D. relation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The most magnificent feature of Taj Mahal______is the central dome.
A. noticed B. being noticed C. to notice D. noticing
Question 6: There is nothing ______going on a trip.
A. exciting than B. more exciting than C. exciting D. the most exciting
Question 7: ______to the party, everyone had left.
A. By the time Bill had gone B. After Bill will go
C. When Bill goes D. By the time Bill went
Question 8: Hoa missed a few months of school because of illness and found it difficult to keep
______with her classmates.
A. on B. off C. down D. up
Question 9: The situation of COVID-19 worldwide is still serious, __________?

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 63
A. isn’t it B. is it C. doesn't it D. does it
Question 10: By and large, it is thought that there are benefits to having ______ credit card.
A. an B. the C. a D. no article
Question 11: From the top of the cathedral tower there are some spectacular ____ of the surrounding
countryside.
A. sights B. sites C. views D. scenery
Question 12: He drives so quickly that I am afraid that one day he will ____ someone crossing the street.
A. run across B. turn over C. crash down D. knock down
Question 13: Even when arrested, he denied _______ cut down that tree.
A. has B. having C. to have D. have had
Question 14: His comment about his friend’s handicap was below the ____ , which made her very upset.
A. collar B. stomach C. sleeve D. belt
Question 15: When the boss walked into the office, the secretary ____ at her desk quickly typing a
report.
A. is sitting B. has been sitting C. sits D. was sitting
Question 16: Andrew has_________ greater contribution to the company since he was promoted.
A. went B. put C. made D. got
Question 17: Ted _______ by a bee while he was sitting in the garden.
A. is stinging B. was stung C. stings D. was stinging
Question 18: You have to be aware of the damage humans are doing to quicken the ______of wildlife.
A. extinction B. extinct C. extinctive D. extinctively
Question 19: The spotlight in the showbiz is ______ to those who cannot tolerate the pressure from the
general and the press.
A. permanent B. vague C. bitter D. ephemeral
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Denis has just bought me the suit that he likes very much
- Kevin: “You look very smart in that suit, Denis!” - Denis: “_________.”
A. My pleasure! B. I can’t agree more.
C. Thanks, I bought it at Mike’s. D. Don’t mention it!
Question 21: Tom and Jim are meeting after a long time.
- Tom: “How have you been recently?” - Jim: “_________.”
A. I have just finished my work. B. Pretty busy, I think.
C. There’s nothing to say. D. I’m feeling bored.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 64
Question 22: His jokes were so boring that most people completely switched off.
A. stopped off B. paid attention C. left it off D. didn't pay attention
Question 23: She got bent out of shape over the new dress code at work.
A. annoyed at B. content with C. amazed at D. acquainted with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most effective study
habit.
A. organized B. delayed C. encouraged D. proposed
Question 25: Some operations may have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.
A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It’s very likely that the company will accept his application.
A. The company should accept his application. B. The company might accept his application.
C. The company must accept his application. D. The company needs to accept his application.
Question 27: She began to play the piano three years ago.
A. She stops playing the piano now.
B. It was three years when she began to play the piano.
C. She has played the piano since three years.
D. She has played the piano for three years.
Question 28: “Where can I buy a phone card in this city?” he asked.
A. He asked me where could he buy a phone card in that city.
B. He asked me where he could buy a phone card in that city.
C. He asked me where he could buy a phone card in this city.
D. He asked me where he can buy a phone card in that city.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: The thick layer of global warming gases keeps more heat from the sun, which has
A B C
serious affection on the earth temperature.
D
Question 30: I lose my pink pastel purse when I was waiting for a taxi.
A B C D
Question 31: Landscape architects founded his own organisation in 1899, the American Society
A B C D
of Landscape Architects.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 65
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
C. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
D. If only Marie turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 33: I just got downstairs. The phone stopped ringing immediately.
A. No sooner had the phone stopped ringing than I got downstairs
B. Rarely had the phone stopped ringing than I got downstairs.
C. Hardly had I got downstairs when the phone stopped ringing
D. Scarcely had I just got downstairs when the phone stopped ringing immediately.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
In ancient times, the most important examinations were spoken, not written. In the schools of ancient
Greece and Rome, testing usually consisted of saying poetry aloud or giving speeches. In the European
universities of the Middle Ages, students who were working for advanced (34) _______ had to discuss
questions in their field of study with people who had made a special study of the subject. This custom
exists today as part of the process of testing candidates for the doctor's degree.
Generally, (35) _______, modern examinations are written. The written examination, (36) _______ all
students are tested on the same question, was probably not known until the nineteenth century. Perhaps it
came into existence with the great increase in population and the development of modern industry.
Two types of test are commonly used in modern schools. The first type is sometimes (37) _______ an
“objective” test. It is intended to deal with facts, not personal opinions. For a clearer picture of what the
student knowns, most teachers use (38) _______ kind of examination in addition to objective test. They
use “essay” tests, which require students to write long answers to board and general questions.
Question 34: A. licenses B. qualifications C. departments D. degrees
Question 35: A. nevertheless B. therefore C. however D. while
Question 36: A. which B. where C. that D. whom
Question 37: A. called B. said C. spoken D. made
Question 38: A. each other B. others C. other D. another
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Milpa Alta is famous for a traditional meal every Christmas, called La Rejunta. The meal is part of
the Christmas celebrations and it feeds huge numbers of people. The cooks make about sixty thousand
tamales. They also make about fifteen thousand litres of hot chocolate. The meal is one of the activities
for people who go on a walk to the cave of El Señor de Chalma.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 66
Every year, the organisers of the meal change. This year, Virginia Meza Torres and her husband
Fermín Lara Jiménez are the organisers, or majordomos. They waited for 14 years to do this. Lots of
people want to organise the meal because it’s a very important tradition. They put their names on a list. At
the moment, the list has names for every year until 2046.
The preparation for the meal takes a whole year. At the start of the year, men collect wood from
the forest. They store it near the home of the majordomos so that it will be dry and ready to use. The
farmers in the area grow the ingredients for the meal, such as corn, meat and vegetables. Everything is
natural; there’s no ready-made food.
Tradition is very important to the people of Milpa Alta, and one of the most important activities is
eating together. One woman, Josefina García Jiménez, says that sitting together at the table shows love to
your family. Everybody stays at the table after the meal finishes and they talk, tell stories and laugh
together.
Question 39. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. a special tradition B. a town in Mexico
C. farmers in Milpa Alta D. hot chocolate
Question 40. At La Rejunta ______ .
A. there's food but no drink. B. there's food and drink.
C. there's drink but no food. D. there isn’t food and drink.
Question 41: The word “celebrations” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. parades B. preparations C. ceremonies D. activities
Question 42. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. the organisers this year B. tamales and majordomos
C. people and their names D. the cooks and activities
Question 43. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Eating together is a tradition in Milpa Alta.
B. Josefina García Jiménez says her family loves her cooking.
C. Josefina García Jiménez’s family only eats together at Christmas.
D. Everybody leaves from the table after the meal finishes
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50
Scientists are studying genes that could mean long life for us all. There are now so many healthy
elderly people that there's a name for them: the wellderly. These are people over the age of eighty who
have no major illnesses, such as high blood pressure, heart disease or diabetes.
There are many scientific studies of communities where a healthy old age is typical. These
include places like Calabria in southern Italy and the island of Okinawa in Japan. In Calabria, the small
village of Molochio has a population of about 2,000. And of these 2,000 people, there are at least eight
people over a hundred years old.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 67
In the past, scientists looked at things such as diet and lifestyle for an explanation of long life. But
these days they are also looking at genetic factors. Researcher Eric Topol says that there are probably
genes that protect people from the effects of the ageing process. The new research into long life
investigates groups of people who have a genetic connection. One interesting group lives in Ecuador. In
one area of the country there are a number of people with the same genetic condition. It's called Laron
syndrome. On the other side of the world, on the Hawaiian island of Oahu, there's another group of long-
lived men. They are Japanese-Americans but they have a similar gene to the Laron syndrome group.
In Calabria, researchers constructed the family trees of the 100-year-old people. They looked at
family information from the 19th century to today. They think that there are genetic factors that give
health benefits to the men. This is interesting because generally, in Europe, women live longer than men.
So what really makes people live longer? Probably, it's a combination of genes, the environment
and one more thing – luck.
Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss to understand long life?
A. people's lifestyles and where they live
B. genetic factors and environmental factors
C. people’s diet and what kind of activities they do
D. where a healthy old age is typical
Question 45: What do some people from Ecuador and Okinawa have in common?
A. They have diabetes. B. They have a genetic syndrome.
C. They live long, healthy lives. D. They don’t suffer from heart disease or diabetes.
Question 46: According to paragraph 1, the word 'wellderly' is closest in meaning to ______.
A. healthy people B. over 100 years old.
C. over 80 years old. D. elderly people with health problems.
Question 47: The word “These” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Scientific studies B. Communities C. People D. Researchers
Question 48: In can be inferred from the passage that______ .
A. some places have an unusual number of very old people.
B. Italy and Japan are very healthy places to live.
C. people who live in small villages live longer.
D. people with Laron syndrome develop their height faster
Question 49: The word “investigates” in paragraph 3 can be replaced by _______.
A. examines B. divides C. captures D. operates
Question 50: Laron syndrome ______.
A. is linked with weight B. is a problem for people with diabetes.
C. is only found in Ecuador and Hawaii. D. is the result of a genetic condition.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 68
ĐỀ 10

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. three B. throw C. thank D. then
Question 2: A. hike B. win C. tide D. child
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. agree B. borrow C. await D. prepare
Question 4: A. guarantee B. recommend C. represent D. illustrate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
Question 5: At present, any spacecraft _____ from the Earth would be far too slow to reach another star
system within one human lifetime.
A. launching B. were launched C. were launching D. launched
Question 6: Rolls Royce cars are _______ than Toyota ones.
A. expensive B. the most expensive C. more expensive D. most expensive
Question 7: I will come and see you ______.
A. before I leave for America. B. before I had left for America.
C. until I left for America. D. when I shall leave for America.
Question 8: Regrettably, the popularity of this lake with tourists has made us worried_____ its pollution.
A. with B. about C. of D. for
Question 9: They are building a new high way around the city, ______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 10: Our planned visit to ____ United States fell through because we were unable to get the
visas.
A. а B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 11: It has been 2 days since the explosion and everyone is hoping that the death ____ will stop
increasing.
A. scope B. range C. scale D. toll
Question 12: Coach Park Hang-Seo’s contract ______ at the end of January 2023, but the team couldn’t
win the AFF Cup title as a parting gift for Park.
A. called off B. broke down C. run out D. gave back
Question 13: My parents decided ______ a taxi because it was late.
A. take B. taking C. to take D. took
Question 14: For those living below the poverty ______, it is a choice between going to work and risk
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 69
being infected with COVID-19 or stay home and lose their already measly income.
A. outline B. edge C. border D. line
Question 15: When I came into the office, my boss ______ for me.
A. was waiting B. waited C. has been waiting D. is waiting
Question 16: Scientists at Cambridge University ____ some major contributions to simplifying this
theory.
A. caused B. led C. brought D. made
Question 17: A lot of young people without employment _______ at the job market tomorrow.
A. will be interviewed B. have interviewed C. interviewed D. were interviewed
Question 18: In 2023, artificial ______ experts expect to see a wave of new products, apps and services
powered by the tech behind ChatGPT.
A. intelligent B. intelligible C. intelligently D. intelligence
Question 19: Removing one's footwear before entering a home or a temple before worship _______a
sign of respect, humility, and submissiveness
A. infers B. refers C. denotes D. deduces
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Peter is talking to Mary on the phone.
- Peter: “Thank you very much for helping me with that project”.
- Mary: “______.”
A. It’s my pleasure. B. Of course, not. C. No, it hasn’t. D. It was out of this world.
Question 21: John is talking to Daisy about the benefits of COVID 19-vaccines.
- John: “COVID 19-vaccines are effective and can lower our risk of getting infected.”
- Daisy: “______. They also help prevent our serious illness if we do get COVID-19.”
A. Oh, that's a problem. B. I don't quite agree with you.
C. That's a good idea. D. I completely agree with you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: As a referee, every decision you make must never be biased in order to ensure that a match
is fair.
A. disinterested B. cold-blooded C. passionless D. unfeeling
Question 23: The teacher scolded the young boy after she found the bag of chips that he was eating on
the sly under the table.
A. frankly B. sincerely C. openly D. noisily
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 70
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Through the years they have made significant contributions to species conservation.
A. protest B. induction C. preservation D. production
Question 25: Over-tourism is still an outstanding problem that needs to be addressed.
A. sensational B. unrivaled C. unresolved D. fantastic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: Passengers are not allowed to walk on the line.
A. Passengers should walk on the line B. Passengers mustn't walk on the line.
C. Passengers may walk on the line D. Passengers needn't walk on the line.
Question 27: He last visited London three years ago.
A. He hasn’t visited London for three years. B. He has been in London for three years.
C. He was in London for three years. D. He didn’t visit London three years ago.
Question 28: "What is the name of your latest album?", Tom asked Helen.
A. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album is.
B. Tom asked Helen what was the name of her latest album.
C. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album would be.
D. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album was.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: They would show the enormous difference between flammable and inflammable materials.
A B C D

Question 30: She borrows a lot of English books from the school library last week.
A B C D
Question 31: The plants that you planted two days ago will die if you don’t water it everyday.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: He really wants to help his parents with household chores. Yet, he doesn’t have enough
time.
A. Provided that he has enough time, he can’t help his parents with household chores.
B. If he had had enough time, he couldn’t have helped his parents with household chores.
C. If he had enough time, he could help his parents with household chores.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 71
D. If only he had had enough time, he couldn’t have helped his parents with household chores.
Question 33: He washes his hands with soap. He also keeps safe distance from others to prevent
infectious diseases.
A. Had he washed his hands with soap, he would keep safe distance from others to prevent infectious diseases
B. Only when he washes his hands with soap does he keep safe distance from others to prevent infectious diseases
C. No sooner had he washed his hands with soap than he kept safe distance from others to prevent infectious
diseases.
D. Not only does he wash his hands with soap but he also keeps safe distance from others to prevent infectious
diseases.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
How to Apologize to a Child
“We tell children, ‘Go apologize to your brother,’ but they can learn more by experiencing you
apologizing to them,” says Jeremy Ruckstaetter, a professor of counseling at Covenant Theological
Seminary in St. Louis, Mo. When Ruckstaetter started researching apologies in graduate school, he found
perplexingly (34) ____ studies focusing on apologies from parents to children. For his doctoral
dissertation, he surveyed 327 parents and found that those (35) ____ regularly apologized to their
children reported stronger attachment bonds.
Apologizing is hard. “It can feel like death,” Ruckstaetter says. If you’ve hurt a child with your
words or actions, don’t (36) ___ the resulting distress. Embrace guilt, a feeling that contains within it a
(37) ____ of wrongdoing that can prompt prosocial behavior. “Move into your guilt and say, “I was
wrong”, Ruckstaetter says. Notice if your response feels more like shame, which often results in
withdrawal rather than apology. Shame might manifest as internal dialogue that says, “I’m bad,” or “I’m
unworthy,” (38) ____ guilt tends to arise with more specificity: “I feel bad for saying those mean things.”
(Adapted from https://www.nytimes.com)
Question 34: A. few B. each C. little D. another
Question 35: A. who B. whom C. where D. which
Question 36: A. realize B. appreciate C. ignore D. urge
Question 37: A. recognition B. illness C. confusion D. embarrassment
Question 38: A. therefore B. whereas C. and D. so
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Smoking is one of the biggest causes of death and illness in the UK. Every year around 78,000
people in the UK die from smoking and many more live with smoking-related illnesses. It increases your
risk of developing more than 50 serious health conditions. Some may be fatal, and others can cause

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 72
irreversible long-term damage to your health. You can become ill if you smoke yourself or if people
around you smoke (passive smoking). Smoking causes around 7 out of every 10 cases of lung cancer
(70%). It also causes cancer in many other parts of the body, including the throat or voice box (larynx).
Moreover, smoking damages your heart and your blood circulation, increasing your risk of developing
conditions such as coronary heart disease and heart attack. Breathing in secondhand smoke, also known
as passive smoking, increases your risk of getting the same health conditions as smokers. For example, if
you have never smoked but you have a spouse who smokes, your risk of developing lung cancer increases
by about a quarter. Babies and children are particularly vulnerable to the effects of secondhand smoke. A
child who’s exposed to passive smoke is at increased risk of developing chest infection, meningitis,
persistent cough and, if they have asthma, their symptoms will get worse.
(Adapted from www.nhs.uk)
Question 39: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Smoking is very harmful to health. B. Smoking is common in the UK.
C. Men smoke more than women. D. Secondhand smoke has bad effects on children.
Question 40: What of the following has the closest meaning to the word “irreversible”?
A. unrecoverable B. accessible C. dispensable D. understandable
Question 41: The word “they” in the passage refers to ______.
A. effects B. babies and children C. health conditions D. symptoms
Question 42: What health conditions does smoking cause?
A. cancer B. heart attack C. coronary heart disease D. All of them
Question 43: What following disease a child exposed to passive smoke is NOT at increased risk of?
A. meningitis B. persistent cough C. chest infection D. diarrhea
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Many stories about recovery from burnout - a type of chronic stress which leaves people
physically and emotionally exhausted - are very similar: the affected person realizes the problem and
starts to overhaul their lifestyle: in just a short period of time, they may quit their job, move to another
country, or end a relationship. Then, they successfully recover. However, according to Stela Salminen, a
doctoral candidate at the University of Jyvaskyla, Finland, this is not always the case.
Dramatic life changes might be beneficial for some people, but in her own research Salminen has
found one factor which truly unites those who recover: realising that they are in control. For a small study
in 2015, she interviewed 12 burnout sufferers. Researchers assessed participants to determine the severity
of their burnout at the time of the study and seven months later. Their scores were then compared to what
they said to look for patterns. The analysis revealed that those who recovered successfully experienced a
revelation that they are in charge of their own wellbeing.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 73
Salminen explains that if burnout sufferers believe that they can influence their environment, they
usually take the necessary steps to reverse the factors which got them there in the first place. This might
include things like improving sleep habits, since this is one of the best ways to reset when you're stressed,
or drawing clear lines between work and non-work time. "People who have a sense of agency take steps
in the workplace, make changes in their families; they take care of themselves, and they're more aware of
their own limitations," she says.
One way to achieve this feeling of self-control is to attend slightly scary sounding "burnout
rehabilitation programmes". These can come in many different forms - such as luxury retreats and basic
online courses - but broadly they involve some kind of cognitive therapy to help people re-frame their
experiences in a more productive way. Another is to gain control of another aspect of your life, such as by
taking up a creative hobby or exercising more often. The late famous painting instructor Bob Ross often
emphasised this, advising viewers that "If you don’t like it, change it. It’s your world."
Another important predictor of recovery from burnout is a healthy life. "Family relationships,
one's overall health - these tend to influence people who have gone through burnout and are on the path to
recovery," says Salminen. "Finding emotional support seems to be the first step towards recovery," says
Salminen. "It can come from many different places - occupational health care like a psychologist, it can
be support from family members, or support from colleagues." By validating your experiences, these
people can help to improve your motivation and how you see yourself, and regardless of what happens in
your journey to recovery, this can only be good.
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. How To Tell Whether You Are Getting Rid Of Burnout Or Not?
B. Studies That Prove Recovering From Burnout Is Not Always The Same
C. Does Burnout Recovery Always Require Radical Life Changes?
D. How The Feeling Of Having Control Helps People Deal With Burnout
Question 45: The word "overhaul" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. absolutely ruin B. completely change C. carefully reconsider D. slowly adjust

Question 46: The word "validating" in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by ____.
A. disregarding B. authorising C. acknowledging D. empowering
Question 47: The word "those" in paragraph 4 refers to ____.
A. researchers B. participants C. scores D. patterns
Question 48: What do we learn about "burnout rehabilitation programmes" in paragraph 4?
A. They most often come in the form of basic online courses that are inexpensive.
B. Expensive ones like those involving luxury retreats are the most effective.
C. Despite varying forms, they all include one common type of cognitive therapy.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 74
D. They help people look at their experiences in a more productive manner.
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The true factor that all stories of burnout recovery involve is the sense of having control.
B. Many improve their sleeping habits to avoid burnout since this is the most effective way to reset.
C. The frequency of exercising is one of the aspects of a person's life that can be controlled.
D. When people recover from burnout, paying attention to mental health seems to be the first step.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The 12 burnout sufferers in Salminen’s 2015 study all successfully recovered.
B. Unclear lines between work and non-work time may be a factor contributing to burnout.
C. Many people have benefited from the advice of the popular painting instructor Bob Ross.
D. One's physical health has no effect on their journey to recovering from burnout.

ĐỀ 11
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. both B. tenth C. myth D. with
Question 2: A. comb B. come C. some D. month
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. visit B. appear C. promise D. finish
Question 4: A. condition B. funeral C. musician D. decision
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Scholars believe that there are still relics ______ under the tomb and awaiting to be
excavated.
A. are burying B. buried C. burying D. are buried
Question 6: The rooms in the front ______ noisier than those in the back.
A. are more B. are little C. are very D. are much
Question 7: I will have tidied up the bedroom _______ home tomorrow.
A. after my parents had arrived B. before my parents will arrive
C. as soon as my parents arrived D. by the time my parents arrive
Question 8: He is responsible ______ recruiting and training new staff.
A. to B. for C. about D. of
Question 9: Your sister used to visit you quite often, ______ ?
A. didn't she B. doesn't she C. wouldn't she D. hadn't she

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 75
Question 10: After a long journey, I was looking forward to sleeping in _______ comfortable bed.
A. an B. some C. the D. a
Question 11: The plaster on the walls has been removed to expose the original ______ underneath.
A. bricks B. pipes C. bars D. tiles
Question 12: I'm searching for websites offering career advice so that I can ______ a plan.
A. come up against B. come up with C. draw up with D. come across with
Question 13: We avoided _______ through the city during the rush hour.
A. drive B. driving C. to drive D. drove
Question 14: Take the next left, then first right, and just follow your ______ until you see the stadium on
your left.
A. nose B. eye C. head D. foot
Question 15: I ______ to the radio when Helen phoned.
A. was listening B. listened C. will listen D. listen
Question 16: The talks failed to ______ any progress toward a settlement.
A. ask B. make C. let D. call
Question 17: Lionel Messi ______ as one of the best football players of all times.
A. regards B. is regarded C. has regarded D. regard
Question 18: Any new company is seen as an invader in an already ______ market.
A. compete B. competition C. competitive D. competitively
Question 19: I think he feels a lot of ______ towards his father, who treated him very badly as a child.
A. wonder B. server C. shelter D. anger
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tom is talking to his friend, Susan.
- Tom: "How about going to the cinema tonight?
- Susan: "______ ."
A. You’re welcome B. I feel very bored
C. I don't agree, I'm afraid D. That sounds great
Question 21 : Jenifer and John were talking about their study at school.
- Jenifer: "I thought your English skill was a lot better, John."
- John: "______."
A. No, thanks. I think I can do it. B. You've got to be kidding. I thought it was still bad.
C. Thank you. I'd love to. D. Yes, please. Just a little.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 76
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Only a minority of people support these new laws so they will not be passed.
A. lack B. majority C. shortage D. redundancy
Question 23: What makes the problem worse is that Howard and Tina are not on the same wavelength
about how to deal with it.
A. behave in the same way B. share their opinions
C. want the same wave D. have their length in common
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24: There are many TV commercials distracting viewers from watching their favorite films.
A. economics B. businesses C. contests D. advertisements
Question 25: They may refuse to negotiate with terrorists who were accused of inhumanity in the
treatment of the hostages.
A. justice B. equality C. kindness D. cruelty
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26: Perhaps Susan knows the name of every kid in the school.
A. Susan needn't know the name of every kid in the school.
B. Susan may know the name of every kid in the school.
C. Susan should know the name of every kid in the school.
D. Susan mustn't know the name of every kid in the school.
Question 27: The last time she saw her elder sister was in 2019.
A. She didn't see her elder sister from 2019.
B. She has seen her elder sister since 2019.
C. It was not until 2019 that she saw her elder sister.
D. She hasn't seen her elder sister since 2019.
Question 28: “I'm sorry I gave you the wrong number”, said Paul to Susan.
A. Paul apologized to Susan for having given the wrong number.
B. Paul denied giving Susan the wrong number.
C. Paul thanked to Susan for giving the wrong number.
D. Paul accused Susan of having given him the wrong number.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 29: A £100 award has been offered for the return of the necklace.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 77
A. award B. has been offered C. for D. the
Question 30: Last month, I go back to my hometown to visit my grandparents.
A. Last B. go C. hometown D. grandparents.
Question 31: You can remember those words easily if you write it down in your notebook.
A. those B. easily C. write D. it
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
Question 32: He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.
A. If it weren't for his wife's help, he couldn't have finished his book.
B. If only he had been able to finish his book.
C. If his wife hadn't helped him, he couldn't have finished his book.
D. But for his wife's help, he couldn't finish his book.
Question 33: Yuri Gagarin made a successful space flight in 1961. Human's uncertainties about universe
were enlightened only then.
A. Hardly had Yuri Gagarin made a successful space flight in 1961, human's uncertainties about
universe were enlightened.
B. Without human's uncertainties about universe, Yuri Gagarin wouldn't have made a successful space
flight in 1961.
C. Not until human's uncertainties about universe were enlightened did Yuri Gagarin make a
successful space flight in 1961.
D. Only after Yuri Gagarin had made a successful space flight in 1961 were human's uncertainties
about universe enlightened.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
In a world of plenty, where enough food is produced to feed everyone on the planet, hunger should
be a thing of the past. However, conflict, climate change, disasters, inequality and – (34) ______ recently
– the COVID-19 pandemic mean one in nine people globally is still going to bed hungry and famine
looms for millions.
Powered by the passion, dedication and professionalism of almost 21,000 staff worldwide, the World
Food Programme (WFP) works in over 120 countries and territories to bring life-saving food to people
displaced by conflict (35) ______ made destitute by disasters, and help individuals and communities find
life-changing solutions to the multiple challenges they (36) ______ in building better futures.
We work to enhance nutrition in women and children, support smallholder farmers in improving
productivity and (37) ______ losses, help countries and communities prepare for and cope with climate-
related shocks, and boost human capital through school feeding programmes.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 78
In conflict situations, we bring relief to exhausted populations and use food assistance to build
pathways to peace and stability – work for (38) ___ WFP was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020.
Question 34: A. many B. much C. other D. most
Question 35: A. and B. since C. because D. for
Question 36: A. send B. face C. prove D. owe
Question 37: A. reducing B. distributing C. committing D. reminding
Question 38: A. that B. who C. which D. why
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 39 to 43.
There are over 3,000 species of mosquitoes in almost every country around the world, with roughly
200 species in the U.S. alone. Unfortunately, these flying pests can carry malaria, West Nile virus,
dengue, yellow fever, Zika virus, and more. This danger to humans occurs when mosquitoes ingest the
disease, carry it in their bloodstream and then transfer it to the next person they bite.
It’s a common misconception that mosquitoes suck blood for food. Mosquitoes ingest blood to
nourish their bodies so they can lay and hatch healthy eggs. Mosquitoes can lay 100 eggs at a time, so
populations of this pest can get out of control quickly. When eliminating mosquitoes, it’s key to use
multiple methods, to kill mosquitoes at every stage of the life cycle.
It’s also important to note that repelling and killing mosquitoes aren’t the same thing. Repelling
mosquitoes will keep them away from you by making you less attractive to them. They’re attracted to the
carbon dioxide from our breath and elements of our sweat. Mosquitoes are also attracted to standing
water, laying eggs in areas such as birdbaths, damp potting soil, standing water in kitchens, puddles, and
more.
Killing mosquitoes may seem like a tempting option, but it’s not always in our—or the
environment’s - best interest. That’s because mosquitoes can become resistant to pesticides, making them
harder to kill over time. Try natural methods first if your infestation is minor, or turn to the pros if you’re
dealing with serious mosquito problems.
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Dangers of Mosquitoes B. Mosquitoes and West Nile Virus
C. Our Breath and Sweat D. How Pesticides Kill Mosquitoes
Question 40: According to the passage, mosquitoes ______.
A. include 3,000 species in the U.S. alone B. suck blood to nourish their bodies
C. don’t lay eggs in birdbaths D. can be killed easily with pesticides
Question 41: The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. bodies B. healthy eggs C. mosquitoes D. populations
Question 42: The word infestation in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 79
A. distribution B. definition C. location D. destruction
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Mosquitoes carry disease in their bloodstream.
B. Multiple methods should be used to eliminate mosquitoes.
C. There is little difference between repelling and killing mosquitoes.
D. Professional methods must be used for serious mosquito problems.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Food security means having, at all times, both physical and economic access to sufficient food to
meet dietary needs for a productive and healthy life. A family is food secure when its members do not
live in hunger or fear of hunger. Food insecurity is often rooted in poverty and has long-term impacts on
the ability of families, communities and countries to develop and prosper. Prolonged undernourishment
stunts growth, slows cognitive development and increases susceptibility to illness.
Today, more than 800 million people across the globe go to bed hungry every night, most of them
smallholder farmers who depend on agriculture to make a living and feed their families. Despite an
explosion in the growth of urban slums over the last decade, nearly 75 percent of poor people in
developing countries live in rural areas. Growth in the agriculture sector - from farm to fork - has been
shown to be at least twice as effective in reducing poverty as growth in other sectors.
Investing in these smallholder farmers - many of whom are women - and the food systems that
nourish them is more important than ever. In order to feed a population expected to grow to 9 billion
people by 2050, the world will have to double its current food production. Given scarcity of natural
resources and other challenges, the world will need to be more efficient in how it meets this demand. To
ensure that people have sufficient food, aligning short-term assistance with a long-term development
strategy can help countries feed their own people.
By addressing acute need as well as the root causes of hunger, poverty and malnutrition, USAID is
strengthening prosperity and security while demonstrating American generosity around the world.
USAID’s programs draw on America’s strength in agriculture and bring benefits back to America as well.
For example, USAID’s research investments have helped farmers abroad and in the United States protect
their harvests from pests and disease.
The enactment of the Global Food Security Act of 2016 and the Global Food Security
Reauthorization Act of 2018 solidified the U.S. Government’s continued, bipartisan commitment to
reducing hunger, malnutrition and poverty around the world.
Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Living in Hunger or Fear of Hunger B. Growth in the agriculture sector
C. USAID’s research investments D. What is Food Security?

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 80
Question 45: The word insecurity in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. charity B. possibility C. uncertainty D. quantity
Question 46: According to paragraph 1, food security ______.
A. is to meet dietary needs for a productive and healthy life
B. means living in hunger or fear of hunger
C. is often rooted in poverty and has long-term impacts
D. increases susceptibility to illness
Question 47: The word them in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. smallholder farmers B. many C. women D. food systems
Question 48: The word acute in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. intense B. arctic C. severe D. scarce
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Prolonged undernourishment slows cognitive development.
B. Depending on agriculture to make a living is not secure.
C. It need to be more efficient in meeting demand of food.
D. USAID has helped farmers abroad harvest their product.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Food security is crucial, and many solutions have to be applied to secure it.
B. We must be more effective in reducing poverty as growth.
C. A long-term development strategy can help reduce harvest time.
D. The Global Food Security Act of 2016 allows the US to help other countries.
ĐỀ 12
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences.
Question 1. A. charm B. march C. bunch D. scheme
Question 2. A. turn B. hurt C. urge D. jump
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. happen B. punish C. enrich D. limit
Question 4. A. establish B. inhabit C. imprison D. hesitate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
Question 5. The death toll, ______ over 50,000, has made Turkey, Syria earthquakes the most
lethal in the countries’ modern history.
A. reached B. reaching C. was reaching D. was reached
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 81
Question 6. With climate change, there are now ______ than ever before.
A. extreme weather events B. the most extreme weather events
C. as many extreme weather events D. more extreme weather events
Question 7. You make wine by leaving grape juice to ferment ______.
A. after all the sugar had turned to alcohol
B. when all the sugar turned to alcohol
C. until all the sugar has turned to alcohol
D. by the time until all the sugar will turn to alcohol
Question 8. Girls are sometimes discouraged ______ studying subjects like engineering and physics.
A. from B. by C. at D. against
Question 9. Miller is a quiet and reliable man, ______?
A. wasn’t he B. is he C. isn’t he D. doesn’t he
Question 10. This time last year, we were sitting on a grass field, with ______ stars twinkling overhead.
A. an B. the C. a D. no article
Question 11. _____ pollution occurs when toxic substances contaminate such bodies of water as streams,
rivers, lakes.
A. Noise B. Air C. Soil D. Water
Question 12. It is a fine tradition in Viet Nam for children to ______ the elderly.
A. look up to B. take part in C. catch up with D. look down on
Question 13. Everyone should be careful with their words to avoid ______ other people’s feelings.
A. hurt B. to hurt C. hurting D. to hurting
Question 14. Don’t worry so much. We will see that the children come to no ______.
A. loss B. damage C. harm D. injury
Question 15. While they ______ in the forest, a storm suddenly struck.
A. are camping B. camped C. camp D. were camping
Question 16. We are ______ all the preparations for the upcoming university entrance exam.
A. making B. doing C. creating D. causing
Question 17. In response to the Covid-19 pandemic, many activities ______ by non-governmental
organizations to help the victims.
A. will organise B. were organised C. organised D. were organising
Question 18. The Equal Pay Act requires that men and women in the same workplace be given ______
pay for the same work
A. equalise B. equality C. equal D. equally
Question 19. Do you spend ______ time with your youngsters at teatime, read to them, play with them?
A. characteristic B. attribute C. property D. quality
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 82
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. A teacher is making comments on a student’s writing skill.
The teacher: “You essay writing has been much better.”
The student: "______"
A. Pardon? B. I couldn’t agree more.
C. Thanks. It’s really encouraging. D. Never mind.
Question 21. Nancy and James are preparing for the presentation.
Nancy: “I think we should add a video to our presentation.”
James: “______. It will make the presentation much more interesting.”
A. I’m afraid so B. That’s nonsense C. I disagree D. Absolutely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the questions.
Question 22. The leaflet has been produced with the aim of raising public awareness of the disease.
A. foster B. reduce C. build D. develop
Question 23. The children are looking forwards to the excursion so much that they are having ants in
their pants.
A. unable to wait B. very bored C. very excited D. bitten by ants
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Becoming a donor is a simple process, but many people remain reluctant.
A. courageous B. eager C. decisive D. unwilling
Question 25. There is a place in San Francisco, Lefty’s, which supplies practically everything for left-
handed people.
A. almost B. quite C. theoretical D. effective
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 26. It is advisable to write a career objective at the start of your resume.
A. You mustn’t write a career objective at the start of your resume.
B. You may write a career objective at the start of your resume.
C. You should write a career objective at the start of your resume.
D. You needn’t write a career objective at the start of your resume.
Question 27. She last took time off work two months ago.
A. She took time off work for two months.
B. She hasn’t taken time off work for two months.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 83
C. She didn’t take time off work two months ago.
D. She has taken time off work for two months.
Question 28. “Where do you get the money to keep two houses?” said Tony to Sophie.
A. Tony asked Sophie where does she get the money to keep two houses.
B. Tony asked Sophie where she gets the money to keep two houses.
C. Tony asked Sophie where she got the money to keep two houses.
D. Tony asked Sophie where did she get the money to keep two houses.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The presence of strangers made her feel inhabited, and too embarrassed to say what she
wanted.
A. presence B. strangers C. inhabited D. embarrassed
Correction: inhibited
Question 30. A new branch of the shop has been opened in the near future.
A. A B. of C. has been opened D. near
Question 31. When the floodwater had receded, people began to move back into his homes.
A. When B. had receded C. to move D. his
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following sentences.
Question 32. She followed her doctor’s advice. She recovered from the operation quickly.
A. Supposing that she had followed her doctor’s advice, she wouldn’t have recovered from the operation
so quickly.
B. If she hadn’t followed her doctor’s advice, she would have recovered from the operation so quickly.
C. If only she hadn’t followed her doctor’s advice, she would have recovered from the operation so
quickly.
D. If she hadn’t followed her doctor’s advice, she wouldn’t have recovered from the operation so quickly.
Question 33. Climate change is impacting human health. It has a significant impact on ecosystems and
organisms.
A. Not only is climate change impacting human health, it has a significant impact on ecosystems and
organisms as well.
B. Only because climate change is impacting human health does it have a significant impact on
ecosystems and organisms.
C. Not until climate change is impacting human health does it have a significant impact on ecosystems
and organisms.
D. Only if climate change is impacting human health does it have a significant impact on ecosystems and

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 84
organisms.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Getting enough good quality sleep __(34)_ an essential role in your health and wellbeing
throughout your life. When you sleep, your body rests, conserving energy and decreasing blood pressure,
heart rate, breathing and body temperature. At the same time, your brain remains active, laying down
memory, restoring daytime mental functioning and carrying out processes __(35)__ lead to physical
growth.
How much sleep you need changes during your lifetime, with babies needing a lot more than
adults. Teenagers needs lots of sleep, women's sleep patterns change throughout their lives and older
adults sleep less soundly. Sleep needs also ____(36)____ between people.
Lack of sleep can make you grumpy, impatient and less tolerant. ____(37)____, it can make you
feel more stressed out and less able to cope with things. Sleep is linked to your mental health – if you’re
not getting enough sleep, you’re more likely to feel depressed and anxious.
Lack of sleep also makes it difficult to make decisions and remember things. This can affect your
productivity at work, ability to drive or carry out ____(38)____ tasks.
Adapted from https://www.healthnavigator.org.nz
Question 34. A. defines B. stresses C. plays D. casts
Question 35. A. what B. that C. who D. whom
Question 36. A. change B. alter C. vary D. adjust
Question 37. A. Though B. However C. Nevertheless D. Besides
Question 38. A. other B. another C. few D. little
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
You may already know that British people share their love for tea and the British Royal family.
However, there are many things you have yet to learn about British culture, customs, and traditions.
Although British people have a reputation for acting cold towards others, surprisingly, they like
kisses on the cheek as a form of greeting. When greeting a good friend or family member in the UK, you
do not simply shake their hand. If you are not a close friend or family member, the physical touch is
perceived as odd, and a handshake or a smile can go a long way.
Brits are very strict when it comes to being punctual. If you are late once in the UK, you will
likely not be late again. The British consider being late disrespectful and rude, especially at private dinner
parties or someone’s home. If you cannot arrive on time at some place or event, make sure you let the
host know beforehand.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 85
British people love to follow the rules, especially when it comes to waiting in a queue, whether at
the supermarket or the cinema. Those who dare and jump the queue will most likely be called out. If you
do jump the queue for whatever reason, be prepared to get yelled at or even kick you out of the queue
altogether.
Adapted from https://www.studying-in-uk.org
Question 39. Which of the following can be the best tittle for the passage?
A. The British Social Etiquette
B. Love for Tea and the British Royal Family
C. The British Cold Manners
D. Some Musts When You Are in Britain
Question 40. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. customs B. traditions C. British people D. family members
Question 41. The word “perceived” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. prevented B. considered C. notified D. translated
Question 42. According to the passage, if you are not a close friend or family member, ______.
A. physical touch is encouraged
B. you should avoid physical touch
C. kissing on the cheek is an acceptable form of greeting
D. shaking hands is not advisable
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. British people share their love for tea and the British Royal family
B. Being late is considered to be disrespectful and rude in Britain
C. Jumping the queue for whatever reason is unacceptable
D. If you cannot arrive on time, remember to say sorry to the host when you arrive.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Global fresh water demand will outstrip supply by 40% by 2030, say experts. The world is facing
an imminent water crisis, with demand expected to outstrip the supply of fresh water by 40% by the end
of this decade, experts have said on the eve of a crucial UN water summit.
Governments must urgently stop subsidising the extraction and overuse of water through
misdirected agricultural subsidies, and industries from mining to manufacturing must be made to overhaul
their wasteful practices, according to a landmark report on the economics of water.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 86
Nations must start to manage water as a global common good, because most countries are highly
dependent on their neighbours for water supplies, and overuse, pollution and the climate crisis threaten
water supplies globally, the report’s authors say.
Johan Rockstrom, a lead author of the report, told the Guardian the world’s neglect of water
resources was leading to disaster. “The scientific evidence is that we have a water crisis. We are
misusing water, polluting water, and changing the whole global hydrological cycle, through what we are
doing to the climate. It’s a triple crisis.”
The report marks the first time the global water system has been scrutinised comprehensively and
its value to countries – and the risks to their prosperity if water is neglected – laid out in clear terms. Like
with the Stern review of the economics of the climate crisis in 2006 and the Dasgupta review of the
economics of biodiversity in 2021, the report authors hope to highlight the crisis in a way
that policymakers and economists can recognise.
Many governments still do not realise how interdependent they are when it comes to water,
according to Rockstrom. Most countries depend for about half of their water supply on the evaporation of
water from neighbouring countries – known as “green” water because it is held in soils and delivered
from transpiration in forests and other ecosystems, when plants take up water from the soil and release
vapour into the air from their leaves.
Question 44. Which of the following can be the best tittle for the passage?
A. The Overuse of Water in Agriculture and Industry
B. Irresponsibility of Many Governments in Water Conservation
C. Measures to Manage Fresh Water
D. A Report on Water Crisis
Question 45. In paragraph 2, the word “their” refers to _______.
A. governments’ B. industries’ C. experts’ D. crisises’
Question 46. The word “neglect” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. achievement B. praise C. obedience D. disrespect
Question 47. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. By 2030, global fresh water supply will be greater than human demand by 40%.
B. Government should stop agricultural subsidies as soon as possible if water is overused.
C. It’s time nations considered water a global common good.
D. “Green” water is held in soils and delivered from transpiration in forests and other ecosystems

Question 48. According to paragraph 5, _______.


A. the risks to the prosperity of countries are insignificant if water is neglected
B. the report authors hope to force policymakers to prevent people from wasting water

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 87
C. the report marks the first time the global water system and its values are fully clarified
D. the aims of the report is different from that of two other reviews in 2006 and 2021.
Question 49. The word “take up” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. disperse B. absorb C. emit D. devour
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. Agriculture is the sector that uses water most.
C. Many governments are unaware of their roles in water management.
D. Before the report by Johan Rockstrom, global fresh water has never been paid attention.
ĐỀ 12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. needed B. stopped C. provided D. naked
Question 2: A. teach B. break C. deal D. clean
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. notify B. advocate C. influence D. interfere
Question 4: A. royal B. unique C. remote D. extreme
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: I’d like to pay some money into my bank account.
A. withdraw some money from B. put some money into
C. give some money out D. leave some money aside
Question 6: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to
study.
A. made room for B. put in charge of C. got in touch with D. lost control of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: One of the main goals of WHO is conducting research on medical development and health
care.
A. going by B. giving away C. carrying out D. looking up

Question 8: Because their birthdays occurred in the same month, they shared a birthday party.
A. did B. spared C. merited D. experienced together
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 88
Question 9: Mary: “It’s a nice day today. Let’s play a game of tennis. - Linda: _____________
A. Will we not play? B. Why do I have to play it?
C. Why not? D. Shall I make a cup of tea?
Question 10: John is talking to his wife, Mary.
- John: “Put the kettle on, will you?” - Mary: “ _____________ ”
A. Yes, but I am busy. B. I’ll have a go.
C. Not at all. Go ahead. D. Your wish is my command.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: One of the most difficult decisions young adults face is what to do for a(n) ____________.
A. work B. lifestyle C. living D. existence
Question 12: Is Helen _____________ the hotel reservations for us?
A. being made B. to be making C. to be made D. going to make
Question 13: I think it’s safer to go on a package ____________ than make my own travel arrangements.
A. travel B. journey C. cruise D. holiday
Question 14: The minimum _____________ for the post was a degree in education.
A. requiring B. required C. require D. requirement
Question 15: “I wouldn’t buy that dress if I were you; it isn’t in _____________ - “You’re right, it
probably doesn’t suit me either.”
A. fashion B. mode C. style D. trend
Question 16: I’m not completely _____________ with the way the hairdresser styled my hair.
A. satisfied B. satisfying C. satisfyingly D. satisfaction
Question 17: Peter _____________ a book when I saw him.
A. is reading B. has been reading C. read D. was reading
Question 18: My car isn’t _________ . It’s always letting me down.
A. believable B. reliable C. colorable D. conceivable
Question 19: The lecture was so boring that John could hardly keep himself _____________ asleep.
A. of falling B. to falling C. from falling D. in falling
Question 20: He can borrow this CD _____________ he gives it back to me by Thursday.
A. unless B. in case C. as long D. provided
Question 21: This book provides students _________ useful tips that help them to pass the coming exam.
A. at B. about C. for D. with
Question 22: The team had been trying to win the competition for years. Last year they finally_______
A. carried away B. carried it on C. brought it off D. brought it on
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 89
Education and Employment
All men should study, we have to study to (23) _______ our knowledge and develop our
intelligence. An uneducated man can only utilize his (24) _______ strength to work and live.
An educated man, without this strength, still has the faculty of his intelligent brain and good reflection.
This intelligence and thought enable him to help his physical strength to act more quickly and cleverly.
In a same profession or work, the educated man differs from the uneducated considerably. Therefore,
intellectual workers have to study, this is a matter of course but (25) ______ workers must also
(26) _____ an education.
In civilized countries compulsory education has been applied. Man must spend seven or eight
years studying. From ploughmen to labourers in these nations, no one is (27) _____________ to read a
book or a paper fluently.
Question 23: A. last B. stretch C. enlarge D. increase
Question 24: A. body B. power C. labour D. brain
Question 25: A. simple B. easy C. hard D. manual
Question 26: A. learn B. study C. acquire D. know
Question 27: A. able B. unable C. not D. never
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the
dominant language of international communication, English as we know it today emerged around 1350,
after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion
of
1066, Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even
as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began
to spread around the globe as a result of explorati on, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and
missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts
of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of
international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in
English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of
technology, advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than
700million
English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number
of non-native users than any other language in the world.
Question 28: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of non-native users of English.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 90
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for science and technology.
Question 29: In the first paragraph, the word “emerged” is closest in meaning to
A. appeared B. hailed C. frequented D. engaged
Question 30: In the first paragraph, the word “elements” is closest in meaning to
A. declaration B. features C. curiosities D. customs
Question 31: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England? _____________
A. In 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600
Question 32: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English
around the world EXCEPT _____________ .
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries D. colonization
Question 33: In the second paragraph, the word “stored” is closest in meaning to _____________ .
A. bought B. saved C. spent D. valued
Question 34: According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in
the world today ?
A. a quarter million B. half a million C. 350 million D. 700 million
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both
their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in Streaming
pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad
effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the
bottom of the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only
one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full,
not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed
ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning.
In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the
opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope
with the personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate,
to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers.
Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes they work on individual tasks and assignments,
they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate.
We
encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 91
effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it does not matter what age the child is. We
expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this
goal.
Question 35: The phrase “held back” in paragraph 1 means _____________ .
A. forced to study in lower classes
B. made to remain in the same classes
C. prevented from advancing
D. made to lag behind
Question 36: The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of the pupils’
_____________ .
A. learning ability and communicative skills
B. intellectual abilities
C. personal and social skills
D. total personality
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers.
B. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others.
C. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities.
D. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability.
Question 38: Which of the following statements can best summarize the main idea of the passage?
A. The aim of the education is to find out how to teach the bright and not -so-bright pupils
B. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class
C. Children, in general, develop at different rates
D. Bright children do benefit from mixed- ability teaching
Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they arc streamed into classes of different intellectual abilities
B. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full
C. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work
D. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability class
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed ability teaching?
A. Formal class teaching is the important way to give pupils essential skills such as those to be used in
the library.
B. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development
C. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class
D. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own
Question 41: According to the passage, “streaming pupils" _____________ .

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 92
A. will help the pupils learn best
B. is quite discouraging
C. is the act of putting pupils into class according to their academic abilities
D. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
Question 42: According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because ____________.
A. its aim at developing the children’s total personality
B. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems
C. formal class teaching is appropriate
D. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43: People think that increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases will
inevitably lead to global warming.
A. Global warming is thought to result in increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
B. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases is thought to be responsible for global
warming.
C. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases is attributed to global warming.
D. Global warming is blamed for increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
Question 44: John no longer drinks a lot.
A. John rarely drank a lot
B. John used to drink a lot.
C. John didn’t use to drink a lot.
D. John now drinks a lot.
Question 45: ‘Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,’ the doctor told me.
A. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
B. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
C. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
D. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: Some people (A) believe that humans will (B) never (C) use away all the (D) natural
resources of our Earth.
Question 47: Amelia Earhart, the first woman (A) to fly solo across (B) the Atlantic, disappeared (C) on
June 1937 while (D) attempting to fly around the world.
Question 48: (A) Owing to their superior skill, (B) highly competitive athletes (C) have been known to
win contests and break records even (D) when suffered from injuries, physical disorders, and infections.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 93
Mark the letter A, B, Q, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I strongly disapproved of your behavior. However, I will help you this time.
A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
B. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
C. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.
D. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.
Question 50: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
ĐỀ 13
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. prepared B. organized C. impressed D. involved
Question 2: A. surround B. source C. account D. plough
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
C. diverse D. namely
Question 3: A. justice B. leading

Question 4: A. applicant B. investment C. commercial D. domestic


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Research suggests that children are more resilient than adults when it comes to getting over
an illness.
A. becoming much stronger B. becoming healthy again
C. making a slow recovery D. making a quick recovery
Question 6: Blue is an old hand at such compositions and has never had any trouble with them.
A. relaxed about B. reserved about C. uninterested in D. inexperienced in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: Not only is summer sea ice shrinking rapidly in the Arctic, but so is the average thickness of
sea ice.
A. getting larger B. getting better C. getting smaller D. getting thicker
Question 8: What most prevents women from reaching the boardroom, say bosses and headhunters, is

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 94
lack of hands-on experience of a firm’s core business.
A. significant B. practical C. available D. tested
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Carol is wearing a new dress and Helen loves it.
- Helen: “ _____________ ” - Carol: “Thanks. I’m glad you like it. My sister gave it to me yesterday.”
A. What a fashionable dress you are wearing!
B. Oh! I don’t like your fashionable dress.
C. I think you have a fashionable dress.
D. Your fashionable must be expensive.
Question 10: Nam and Mai are talking about their plan for the weekend.
- Nam: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this weekend?” - Mai: “ _____________ ”
A. You’re welcome! B. That would be great!
C. I don’t agree. I’m afraid D. I feel very bored.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: You should _____________ more attention to what your teacher explains.
A. make B. get C. set D. pay
Question 12: The Foreign Ministries of Vietnam and Mexico agreed _____________ measures to boost
the bilateral cooperation between the two nations.
A. to take B. taking C. to be taken D. being taken
Question 13: There are no easy ways to learn a foreign language, _____________ ?
A. are they B. are there C. aren’t they D. aren’t there
Question 14: You look exhausted. You _____________ in the garden all day.
A. must have worked B. must be working
C. can’t have worked D. must have been working
Question 15: The more _____________ you look, the better you will feel.
A. confident B. confide C. confidently D. confidence
Question 16: In 1973, when the tigers appeared to be facing _____________ , the World Wide Fund for
_____________ and the Indian Government agreed to set up “Operation Tiger”.
A. extinct/ Nature B. extinction/ Nature C. extinction/ Natural D. extinct/ Naturalists
Question 17: After six months of convalescence in a nursing home, Tim is finally on the _____________
A. mend B. go C. run D. top
Question 18: Most children enjoy _____________ with their parents and siblings.
A. played B. play C. to play D. playing
Question 19: Police have not revealed the _____________ details of the case.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 95
A. total B. whole C. overall D. full
Question 20: It’s too late; you shouldn’t go. Don’t worry! We can _____________ for a night.
A. put you up B. put you through C. put you away D. put you aside
Question 21: We should make full use _______ the Internet as it is an endless source of information.
A. of B. in C. with D. from
Question 22: The manager _____________ his temper with the employees and shouted at them.
A. had B. lost C. took D. kept
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
You may have heard that tomatoes and processed tomato product like tomato sauce and canned
tomatoes protect (23) _____ some types of cancer. The cancer-preventing properties of tomato products
have been (24)_____ to lycopene. It is a bright red pigment found in tomatoes and other red fruits and is
the cause of their red color. Unlike other fruits and vegetables, where nutritional content such as vitamin
C is diminished upon cooking, processing of tomatoes increases the concentration of lycopene.
Lycopene in tomato paste is four times (25) ______in fresh tomatoes. This is because lycopene is
insoluble in water and is tightly bound to vegetable fiber. Thus, (26) ________ tomato products such as
pasteurized tomato juice, so up, sauce, and ketchup contain the highest concentrations of lycopene.
Cooking and crushing tomatoes as in the canning process and serving in oil-rich dishes such as spaghetti
sauce or pizza (27) _________ increase assimilation from the digestive tract into the bloodstream.
Lycopene is a fat-soluble substance, so the oil is said to help absorption to a great extent.
Question 23: A. out B. off C. against D. away
Question 24: A. pressed B. responsible C. attributed D. original
Question 25: A. much more B. as much as C. as many as D. further than
Question 26: A. fresh B. processed C. contained D. raw
Question 27: A. largely B. chiefly C. mainly D. greatly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Music therapy is using music to help people with a variety of problems. For example, it can help
people with communication and speech problems speak better. It can help people with memory problems
remember things from their past. Music therapy can also help people manage stress and be more relaxed.
It can even make people with bad pain feel better.
In music therapy, a music therapist works with one person alone or with small groups. The
therapist
meets with the person and does tests to find out what the problem is and what the person can do with
music. Then the therapist decides what kind of music therapy to use. Some people sing, and others might
compose music, but a person doesn’t need to know about music to be helped by music therapy. There are

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 96
options such as listening to music and dancing to music. Research shows that these activities are good for
the body and for the mind.
Homes that take care of elderly people often have music therapy programs. The programs help the
elderly be more energetic and also help with memory problems. Some hospitals have music therapy for
patients who are in a lot of pain. Music can affect a part of the brain that reduces pain.
Trevor Gibbons is one example of a person who was helped by music therapy. In 2000, he was
putting in windows on the fourth floor of a building when he fell. He was in the hospital for over a year.
He was in a lot of pain, and he couldn’t talk. He went from the hospital to a rehabilitation center that has a
music therapy program, and a music therapist worked with him for several years. He could sing more
easily than he could talk. Trevor says that music also helped him manage loneliness, sadness, and pain
after he was
hurt. Music and the music therapist inspired him, and he has written and sung many songs. He has even
recorded CDs and performed at Lincoln Center in New York.
Question 28: Which is the main idea of the passage?
A. the history of music therapy B. the life of a music therapist
C. other uses of music D. music for the elderly
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, music can be helpful for all of the following people EXCEPT
_________.
A. people with good stress management
B. people with communication and speech problems
C. people with bad pain
D. people with memory problems
Question 30: According to the passage, the kind of music therapy is chosen by _____________ .
A. the composer B. the patient C. the therapist D. the singer
Question 31: The word “energetic” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____________ .
A. rich in money B. short of breath C. full of life D. lack of energy
Question 32: It is stated in the passage that _____________.
A. listening and dancing to music are not included in music therapy
B. homes for the aged don’t have music therapy programs
C. in music therapy some people sing or even compose music
D. Trevor Gibbons hurt himself when he fell off the fifth floor
Question 33: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that a rehabilitation center is _____________.
A. a center for victims of natural disasters
B. a center for people to recover from injuries
C. a center for poor or homeless people
D. a center for disabled or disadvantaged children

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 97
Question 34: Which of the following statements is TRUE about music therapy?
A. Trevor Gibbons was not helped by music therapy.
B. A music therapist always works with one person each time.
C. A person must know about music to be helped by music therapy.
D. Music can reduce pain by affecting a part of the brain.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global wanning.
Scientists have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers
blooming earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they
live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate towards the poles and up mountainsides
towards
higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too
warm. In many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or
farmland blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems,
such as those found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new
habitats is not possible. For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already
threatened by dwindling sea ice but have nowhere farther north to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have
estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of
further warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and
animals. Some species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, may not be able to
adjust quickly enough and may disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global
warming.
Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead to the death
of the coral. Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to
widespread bleaching and death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere enters the ocean and increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses
ocean ecosystems.
Question 35: Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers to ________
A. bloom earlier B. lose color C. die instantly D. become lighter
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move ______
A. south-eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
B. north-westwards and up mountainsides toward higher elevations

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 98
C. towards the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
D. towards the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
Question 37: It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees
_____________
A. water supply would decrease by 50 percent
B. the sea level would rise by 20 centimeters
C. 20 to 50 percent of species could become extinct
D. half of the earth’s surface would be flooded
Question 38: According to the passage, if some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer
temperatures, ________.
A. they may be endangered
B. they can begin to develop.
C. they will certainly need water
D. they move to tropical forests.
Question 39: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 most probably means _____________ .
A. very large B. easily damaged C. rather strong D. pretty hard
Question 40: The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates _____________ .
A. the water absorption of coral reefs
B. the quick growth of marine mammals.
C. the blooming phase of sea weeds
D. the slow death of coral reefs.
Question 41: The level of acidity in the ocean is increased by _____________ .
A. the rising amount of carbon dioxide entering the ocean
B. the decrease of acidity of the pole waters
C. the extinction of species in coastal areas.
D. the loss of acidity in the atmosphere around the earth
Question 42: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles
B. Effects of global warming on animals and plants
C. Global warming and possible solutions
D. Global warming and species migration
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43: People say that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.
A. He is said to have won a lot of money on the Vietlott.
B. He was said that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 99
C. He is said to win a lot of money on the Vietlott.
D. He won a lot of money on the Vietlott as people said.
Question 44: I have never played golf before.
A. It is the first time 1 had played golf.
B. This is the first time I have ever played golf.
C. It is the last time I played golf.
D. I used to play golf but I gave it up already.
Question 45: “Sorry, we’re late. It took us ages to look for a parking place," said John.
A. John finally found a parking place after a long time searching even though they were late.
B. John said that he was late because he had spent a lot of time finding a parking place.
C. John said sorry for being late because he had to try his best to look for a parking place.
D. John apologized for being late because it took them much time to find a parking place.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: The measures (A) have contributed to the effort to preserve biodiversity and (B) put an end
to the (C) illegally use and trafficking of wildlife (D) across the country.
Question 47: The maps, together with a statement (A) asking for (B) approval for the 1 /5000 planning of
Thu Thiem New Urban Area, (C) was submitted to the central Government (D) at that time.
Question 48: The music video, titled “Run now”, (A) was uploaded (B) in the world's (C) biggest video
sharing site at 12:00 am, (D) and quickly fielded one million views at 12:18 am.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems.
C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problems.
D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.
Question 50: He didn’t hurry. Therefore, he missed the plane.
A. Had he hurried, he could have caught the plane.
B. Had he hurried, he might catch the plane.
C. If he hurried, he wouldn’t miss the plane.
D. He didn’t miss the plane because he hurried

ĐỀ 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 100
C. environment D. immigrant
Question 1: A. hydro B. lifestyle

Question 2: A. developed B. addicted C. influenced D. distinguished


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. gorgeous B. suggest C. purchase D. beauty
B. advantage C. advertise
Question 4: A. adventure D. adverbial

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: “Don’t be such a pessimist. I’m sure you’ll soon get over it. Cheer up!”
A. hobbyist B. optimist C. activist D. feminist
Question 6: “Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the bus. “
A. turn down B. slow down C. look up D. put forward
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: Technological changes have rendered many traditional skills obsolete.
A. outdated B. impractical C. unappreciated D. undeveloped
Question 8: By being thrifty and shopping wisely housewives in the city can feed an entire family on as
little as 500,000 VND a week.
A. luxurious B. economical C. sensible D. miserable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Henry is talking to his mother.
- Henry: “I’ve passed my driving test.” ~ His mother: _____________ ”
A. Congratulations! B. That’s a good idea. C. That’s too bad. D. All right.
Question 10: Two friends Diana and Tim are talking with each other about their shopping.
- Diana: “Look at this catalog, Tim. I think I want to get this red blouse.” - Tim: “ _____________ ”
A. No, thank you. B. That’s a long way to go, dear.
C. Don’t you have one like this in blue? D. I’ll go myself, then.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: Despite their normal cylindrical form, some of the documents __________ on silk that were
found at Mawangdui, an archaeological site in southeastern China, were folded into rectangles.
A. wrote B. written C. were written D. be written
Question 12: I am sure your sister will lend you a sympathetic _____________ when you explain the

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 101
situation to her.
A. eye B. ear C. arm D. finger
Question 13: Mr. Mike is certainly a _____________ writer; he has written a lot of books this year.
A. prolific B. fruitful C. fertile D. successful
Question 14: We were quite impressed by the _____________ students who came up with the answer to
our question almost instantly.
A. absent-minded B. big-headed C. quick-witted D. bad-tempered
Question 15: I do not think there is a real ______ between men and women at home as well as in our
society.
A. attitude B. equality C. value D. measurement
Question 16: I didn’t see the red light at the crossroads. Otherwise, I _____________ my car.
A. stopped B. had stopped C. would have stopped D. would stop
Question 17: Tim asked Sally _____________ English so far.
A. how long was she learning
B. how long she has been learning
C. she had been learning how long
D. how long she had been learning
Question 18: The incident happening last week left him _____________ confused and hurt.
A. feel B. felt C. feeling D. to feeling
Question 19: “We gave them the money yesterday, but we haven’t received a receipt yet, __________ ?”
she asked her husband.
A. didn’t we B. have we C. did we D. haven’t we
Question 20: You and your big mouth! It was supposed to be a secret. You _____________ her!
A. shouldn’t have told B. mightn’t have told
C. mustn’t have told D. couldn’t have told
Question 21: If I had a typewriter now, I _____________ this report by myself.
A. would have type B. will type C. would type D. typed
Question 22: A completely new situation will _____ when the examination system comes into existence.
A. arouse B. rise C. raise D. arise
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Shopping centers have become a (23)___ ____ more than just places to shop and look for
bargains. They are places of entertainment where people meet and have fun. Some modem shopping
centers are so big they can take days to (24) ____ properly. For example, the Cehavir Shopping and
Entertainment Centre in Istanbul covers 420,000 square meters and is considered to be the largest
shopping center in Europe. It has around 350 shops and 50 restaurants to choose from. And if you fancy
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 102
(25) _________ your friends in the evening, there are 12 cinemas, a bowling alley and even a roller
coaster ride. Another huge shopping center is the Mall of the Emirates in Dubai. As (26) __________ as
around 700 shops and restaurants, you can go to Magic Planet, which is a mini theme park, or watch a
film in one of the fourteen cinemas. And if that isn’t enough, (27) _________ about visiting Ski-Dubai,
the world-famous indoor ski slope? Some people want to have a more cultural experience. This is easy at
the Mall of the Emirates. There is a Community Theatre and an Arts Centre on the second floor of the
building with a theatre, art galleries, a music school and a library.

Question 23: A. much B. lot C. few D. many


Question 24: A. invent B. explore C. find D. search
Question 25: A. meet B. to be met C. to meet D. meeting
Question 26: A. soon B. long C. well D. good
Question 27: A. how B. where C. when D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a
place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city.
What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits.

One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide-a key pollutant-and emit oxygen, which
humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon
dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have
long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and
asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like
trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much ot these building materials, cities are usually
warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island
Effect.

Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being
used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities
could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of
green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof,
human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are
very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone
can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.

Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but
without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 103
the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save
people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which
can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick
and
concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can
also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop
gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.

Question 28: Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the
following word groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
Question 29: Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that _____________ .
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
Question 30: Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main
difference between parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
Question 31: The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except_
A. increased space for private relaxation
B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers
D. improved air quality
Question 32: According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they
_____________ .
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect
B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land
D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
Question 33: The author’s tone in the passage is best described as _____________
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D.
argumentative
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 104
Question 34: It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that
_____________
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education.
Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The
distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no
bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a
tractor. It
includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning.
The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio,
from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite
often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little
is known of other religions. People are engaged in education in infancy. Education, then, is a very broad,
inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that
should be an integral part of one’s entire life.

Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little
from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same
time,
take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on.
The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the
workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subjects being taught. For
example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about
political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are
definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling

Question 35: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _____________


A. seats B. boundaries C. similar textbooks D. slices of reality
Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.
B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences.
You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 105
C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.
D. The best school teach a wide variety of subjects.
Question 37: The word “chance” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____________
A. passive B. lively C. unplanned D. usual
Question 38: What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their
education to go to school” in paragraph 1 ?
A. Summer school makes the school year too long.
B. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.
C. All of people’s life is an education.
D. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.
Question 39: The phrase “For example” in paragraph 3, introduces a sentence that gives examples of
_________
A. similar textbooks
B. the workings of a government
C. the boundaries of the subjects
D. the results of schooling
Question 40: The passage supports which of the following conclusions?
A. Education involves many years of professional training.
B. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
C. Education systems need to be radically reformed.
D. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.
Question 41: The passage is organized by _____________
A. giving examples of different kinds of schools
B. narrating a story about excellent teacher
C. listing and discussing several educational problems
D. contrasting the meanings of two related words
Question 42: The writer seems to agree that _____________
A. Education is not as important as schooling
B. Schooling is more important than education
C. Education is more influential than schooling
D. Schooling is unlimited and more informal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43: John said, “You’d better not lend them any money, Daisy.”
A. John asked Daisy if she had lent them any money.
B. John commanded Daisy not to lend them any money.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 106
C. John advised Daisy not to lend them any money.
D. John ordered Daisy not to lend them any money.
Question 44: “Get out of my car or I’ll call the police!” Jane shouted to the strange man.
A. Jane politely told the man she would call the police if he didn't leave her car.
B. Jane plainly said that she would call the police.
C. Jane threatened to call the police if the man didn't leave her car,
D. Jane informed the strange man that she would call the police.
Question 45: We started working here three years ago.
A. We have worked here for three years.
B. We worked here for three years.
C. We will work here for three years.
D. We have no longer worked here for three years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: Dogs (A) that are (B) trained to lead (C) the blind must be (D) loyalty, intelligent and calm.
Question 47: I enjoy (A) reading the article (B) that you (C) told me about (D) it yesterday.
Question 48: (A) Having served lunch, the (B) medical staff (C) continued to (D) discuss the problems.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He was very powerful. Nevertheless, he failed to do anything to save his son's life.
A. Powerful as he might be, he could do nothing to save his son’s life.
B. He failed to do anything to save his son’s life in spite of the fact that he had no power.
C. In order to save his son’s life, he had great power to do anything he could.
D. The failure in saving his son’s life was due to his being very powerful.
Question 50: The buses began to pull out. Most of them were full of passengers.
A. The buses, most of which were full of passengers, began to pull out.
B. The buses, most of them were full of passengers, began to pull out.
C. The passengers, most of them were full of, began to pull out the buses.
D. The passengers, most of whom were full of the buses, began to pull out.

You don’t really need English to buy goods, but it will decide where you buy them – Ms. PA 107

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