LICENSURE 2020 TELEGRAM GROUP

Test 5......General Paper

1. Oral defamation of a person by speaking unprivileged or false words by which his or her
reputation is damaged is referred to as:
A. Abuse
B. Libel
C. Slander
D. Tort
2. In common law, an assault occurs when the defendant
A. Commits an offence punishable by imprisonment
B. Refuses to come to court when summoned
C. Jumps bail
D. Without privilege or excuse, threatens an unlawful invasion of the plaintiff’s right
to bodily security

3. The Patient's Bill of Rights affects nursing care delivery by requiring which of the following?
A. The right to have someone other than the client make decisions about health care
B. The right to the least-restrictive care available for mental health conditions
C. The right to the lowest-cost care available for medical conditions
D. The right to refuse treatment; the right to make medical decisions; the right to
confidentiality.

4. To be effective in meeting various ethnic needs, the nurse should

A. Act as if he or she is comfortable with the client’s behavior
B. Avoid asking questions about the client’s cultural background.
C. Be aware of clients’ cultural differences
D. Treat all clients alike

5. Which situation is an example of an unintentional tort?

A. Administering a medication that causes client harm
B. Documenting in the chart that the client is incompetent
C. Forcibly restraining the client for a procedure
D. Telling another nurse that the client is gay

6. The nurse is obligated to follow a physician’s order unless:

A. The order is a verbal order
B. The order is illegible
C. The order has not been transcribed
D. The order is an error, violates hospital policy, or would be detrimental to the client.
7. A patient has been admitted to a sixty-bedroom ward. What right may be breached due to this
setting?
A. Right to examine and question his bill
B. Right to information regarding diagnosis, treatment and prognosis.
C. Right to privacy and confidentiality
D. Right to refuse treatment

8. A confused client who fell out of bed because side rails were not used is an example of which
type of liability?
A. Assault
B. Battery
C. Felony
D. Negligence

9. The most important factor in providing nursing care to clients in a specific ethnic group is:
A. Biological variation
B. Communication
C. Environmental control
D. Time orientation

10. Most litigation in the hospital comes from the:

A. Nurse abandoning the clients when going to lunch
B. Nurse documenting blame on the physician when a mistake is made
C. Nurse following an order that is incomplete or incorrect
D. Supervisor watching a new employee check his or her skills level

11. The nurse puts a restraint jacket on a client without the client’s permission and without the
physician’s order. The nurse may be guilty of:
A. Assault
B. Battery
C. Invasion of privacy
D. Negligence

12. The following statements are considered during documentation in nursing EXCEPT…..
A. Approved abbreviations are used
B. Information needs to be factual
C. Sign at the end of documentation
D. The use of correction fluid

13. To respect a client’s personal space and territoriality, the nurse:

A. Avoids the use of touch
B. Explains nursing care and procedures
C. Keeps the curtains pulled around the client’s bed
D. Stands 8 feet away from the bed, if possible
14. Who qualifies to practice nursing in Ghana?
A. The nurse who has completed national service
B. The nurse who has passed the licensed examination
C. The nurse who has registered with the Ghana Registered Nurses and Midwives
Association
D. The nurse who has registered with the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Ghana

15. A patient was rushed to the emergency ward in an unconscious state by relatives. Examination
on patient revealed absent reflexes and the doctor declared the patient clinically dead. This
case was referred to the coroner because patient was:
I. Already dead on arrival
II. Brought in a commercial vehicle
III. In the hospital less than 24 hours
IV. Rushed in by his relatives
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I and IV
D. II and III

16. A topical corticosteroid is prescribed by a physician for a child with atopic dermatitis
(eczema). The nurse instruct the mother on how to apply the cream and tells the mother to :
A. Apply a thick layer of cream to affected areas only.
B. Apply a thin layer of cream and rub it into the area thoroughly.
C. Apply the cream over the entire body.
D. Avoid cleansing the area before application of the cream.

17. A 12 months old child with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is currently
immune-compromised. The nurse determines that the immunization needs of this child
include which of the following?
A. Administering the measles- mumps – rubella vaccine
B. Delaying the administration of the varicella virus vaccine until the child is not
immune-compromised
C. Recommending against any influenza vaccinations
D. Withholding the inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)

18. At what age should the child receive the first dose of the measles, mumps, and rubella
vaccine?
A. 12 months
B. 2 years
C. 22 months
D. 4 years
19. A nurse is taking a blood pressure of a 3 year old child admitted to the hospital for mild
dehydration from vomiting and diarrhea. The nurse obtains a reading of 90/50mmhg. The
nurse documents the blood pressure in the child’s record and interprets the finding as:
 A. A decrease finding based on the age of the child
B. A normal finding
C. An elevated finding
D. Significant, indicating possible fluid volume deficit

20. What is the most appropriate method to use when drawing blood from a child with
hemophilia?
A. Apply heat to the extremity before venipunctures.
B. Prepare to administer platelets.
C. Schedule all labs to be drawn at one time.
D. Use fingure punctures for labs draws.

21. Because of the risk associated with administration of factor viii concentrate, the nurse should
teach the child’s family to recognize and report which of the following?
A. Abdominal distention.
B. Constipation
C. Yellowing of the skin
D. Puffiness around the eyes

22. A clinic nurse in a well-baby clinic is collecting data regarding the motor development of a 15
month old child. Which of the following is the highest level of development that the nurse
would expect to observe in this child?
A. The child builds a tower of two blocks
B. The child puts on simple clothes independently
C. The child turns a doorknob
D. The child unzips a large zipper

23. An infant has been transferred from the ICU to the pediatric unit after undergoing surgery to
correct a heart defect. Which task can the nurse delegate to the licensed practical nurse?
A. Administering oral medications.
B. Obtaining vital signs.
C. Morning hygiene.
D. All of the above.

24. The parents of a 3 year old child with tetralogy of fallot tell the nurse that their child
frequently squats during play. Based on an understanding of tetralogy of fallot, the nurse
recognizes that this is………………….
A. A compensatory mechanism
B. A disinterest in engaging in play
C. A sign of constipation
D. Normal for the child developmental age.
25. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care for a child diagnosed with
secondary hypertension?
A. Managing cholesterol level
B. Treatment of underlying condition
C. Use of diuretics
D. Weight control

26. After a tonsillectomy, a nurse reviews the physician’s postoperative prescriptions. Which of
the following prescriptions does the nurse question?
A. Give clear, cool liquids when awake and alert
B. Give no milk
C. Monitor for bleeding.
D. Suction every two hours

27. A preschooler with a history of cleft palate repair comes to the clinic for a routine well- child
checkup. To determine if this child is experiencing along time effect of cleft palate, a nurse
should ask which of the following questions?
A. Does the child play with an imaginary friend?
B. Has the child had any difficulty swallowing food?
C. *Is the child unresponsive when given directions?
D. Was the child recently treated for pneumonia?

28. A 17 year old client is about to be discharged home with her new born baby, and the nurse
provides information to the client about home safety for children. Which statement by the
client would alert the nurse that further teaching is required regarding home safety?
A. I keep all my pots and pans in my lower cabinets
B. I will not use the microwave oven to heat my baby’s formula
C. I have locks on all my cabinets that contain my cleaning supplies
D. I have a car seat that I will put in the front seat to keep my baby safe

29. To maintain a child’s developmental skills while hospitalized, a nurse would encourage a 1
year old child who was born 2 months earlier than the estimated date of delivery to:
A. Build a tower of three blocks
B. Indicate wants by pointing or grunting
C. Sit independently
D. Walk independently

30. When obtaining a history from parents of a five months old child suspected of having
intussusception, which assessment area would be most important for the nurse to address?
A. Dietary intake during the past 24hours
B. Known allergies
C. Pattern of abdominal pain
 D. Usual pattern of bowel movements

31. What type of surgery is carried out in a patient with compartment syndrome

A. Compartiotomy
B. Mayotomy
C. Fasciotomy
D. Osteotomy
32. For patients with skeletal traction, the main aim of caring for the wound at the skin site is to

prevent?

A. Mal union
B. Non union
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteomyelitis
33. Pick the odd one out

A. Nylon
B. Chromic cutgut
C. Cotton
D. Linen
34. The following are complications of colostomy
A. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
B. Impaired bowel movement
C. Faecal impaction
D. All the above
35. Osteomyelitis is usually caused by

A. Colliform bacilli
B. Spirochaeta pallid
C. Streptococcus haemolyticus
D. staphylococcus
36. The main indication of cardiac massage and resuscitation is:

A. sudden unexpected cessation of the heart beat

B. anoxia
C. hypotension
D. electric shock ANS___________
37. Prostatectomy can be performed by the following approaches except

A. transurethral
B. perineal
C. intrathecal
D. retropubic ANS___________
38. Intramedularly nailing is used in the treatment of

A. fracture of the shaft of the femur

B. fracture of the neck of the femur
C. slipped epiphysis
D. introchanteric fracture of the femur ANS___________
39. Male infertility may be caused by all of the following except

A. perineal hypospadias
B. nephrostomy
C. severe anaemia
D. prostatectomy ANS___________
40. Which of the following is not a method of skin grafting?

A. Thiersch grafting
B. Thick split thickness
C. Pedicle grafting
D. Peterson’s graft ANS___________
41. Myringotomy tubes inserted into the eardrum:

A. Provide a means of instilling into the middle ear

B. Prevent secretions from drainage through the Eustachian tube to the pharyngeal area
C. Equalize the pressure between the middle ear And the external ear
D. Prevent the eutachian tube from opening during swallowing ANS___________
42. One of the most important nursing measures after tonsillectomy is:

A. Observing the patient for frequent swallowing

B. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing
C. Applying warm compresses to the patients neck
D. Palpating the patient’s neck for oedema ANS___________
43. Obstruction of the urinary tract or failure of urinary peristalsis may result in the condition

known as :

A. Pyelonephrosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Hypernehroma ANS___________
44. Mydriatics are used in the treatment of the eye because they:

A. Dilate the pupil

B. Constrict the pupil
C. Are anaesthetic
D. Reduce infection ANS___________
45. A head trauma producing a brief loss of consciousness immediately followed by confusion or

memory loss is termed

A. Cerebral laceration
B. Concussion
C. Contusion
D. Contracoup ANS___________
46. When assessing a client with varicose veins, the nurse should expect the client to experience

A. A positive homans’ sign

B. Cramping sensations in the calf muscle
C. Continuous oedema of the affected extremity
D. Coolness and pallor of the affected extremity
47. One of the processes of good psychiatric nursing is:
A. Putting the restless patient into a cold bath.
B. Meeting the patient’s violence with violence.
C. Ignoring the patient who needs help
D. Interpersonal relationship.
48. A depressive patient is more likely to commit suicide when:

A. He is confused
B. He is very depressed
C. The depression is getting worse.
D. The depression is lifting.

49. Mania-a-potu is a mental state which occurs in

A. Alcoholic syndrome

B. Syphillitic psychosis
C. Manic-depressive psychosis
D. Systematized delusional state.

50. A means of obtaining sexual gratification by looking at sexual organs or others engaged in the
sexual activity is:

A. Frotteurism

B. Exhibitionism
C. Voyeurism
D. Fetishism

51. Pseudo-dementia is also known as:

A. General paralysis of insane (G.P.I)

B. Gansers syndrome
C. Huntingtons chorea
D. Capgras syndrome

52. Which of the following types of schizophrenia is the personality much more preserved?

A. Paranoid schizophrenia

B. Catatonic schizophrenia
C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
D. Simple schizophrenia

53. Which of the following is not a type of psychopath?

A. Aggressive psychopath

B. Depressive psychopath
C. Creative Psychopath
 D. Inadequate psychopath

54. When an idea exists simultaneously with a counter idea. It is called:

A. Negativism

B. Conative disorder
C. Astheria
D. Ambivalence.

55. Ophelia sees a piece of rag on her writing table and screams” its a snake, please help me.
What symptom is this:
A. Phobia
B. Delusion
C. Hallucination
D. Illusion

56. Regina is well educated and beautiful but she cries like a baby when she is frustrated. Which
mental mechanism describes the behaviour.

A. Reppresion

B. Reaction formation
C. Regression
D. Displacement

57. Which of the following is not a mental defence mechanism?

A. Oppresion

B. Intellectuallization
C. Reaction formation
D. Dissociation

58. All the following are psychosomatic disorders except:

A. Epistaxis

B. Peptic ulcer
C. Migraine
D. Bronchial asthma
59. Which of the following diets may not be restricted in a patient taking MAOI drugs.

A. Cheese

B. Rice
C. Chicken
D. Broad beans

60. Anticonvulsants are used in the treatment of epilepsy. Which of the following drugs is an
anticonvulsants:

A. Haloperidol

B. Phenytoin
C. Phenelizine
D. Tolbutamide

61. Which of the following is not true about paranoid state:

A. They are disorders of psychotic depth without demonstrable aetiology.

B. They are characterized by delusions: generally persecutory or grandiose

C. Hallucinations may or may not be present.
D. Intellectual functions may not be present.

62. Attachment of daughter to father with antagonism towards mother is called?

A. Oedipus complex

B. Electra complex
C. Narcissim
D. Compromise formation

63. The regional cold stores can store vaccines up to

A. 2 months
B. 3 Months
C. 4 months
D. 6 months
64. This is a label containing a heat-sensitive material which is place on a vaccine vial to register
cumulative heat exposure over time
A. Freeze watch
B. Thermometer
 C. Vaccine Vial Monitor
D. Vaccine Bottle Monitor
65. Why is it important to give a test dose of Anti-Tetanus and Anti-Snake Sera before the full dose?
A. To detect minor reactions
B. To detect unpleasant and dangerous reactions
C. To hypnotize the client
D. Because they are Live-attenuated vaccines

66. Which one of the following drugs can be given in immunization reactions?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Artesunate Amodiaquine
C. Inj. Adrenaline
D. Inj. Diclofenac

67. It is an ordinary visit made to homes in the catchment area

A. Special visit
B. Selective visit
C. Nomal visit
D. Routine visit

68. The Home Visit Bag is divided into how many compartments?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
69. Old newspaper, soap, towel, apron, pens etc are contents of which compartment of the home visit
bag?
A. The middle pocket
B. The first outer pocket
C. The inner pocket
D. The first inner pocket
70. Primary Health Care aimed at achieving the following objectives by the year 2000
I. To prevent or treat conditions which cause unnecessary ill health, disabilities and death in the
community.
II. To increase community participation as much as possible in the health care delivery.
III. To construct hospitals
IV. To distribute health staff and equipment
A. I & II only
 B. III & IV only
C. I, II & IV
D. I, II, III & IV

71. Traditional Birth Attendant (TBA) belongs to which level of Primary Health Care System?
A. level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
72. The following are problems associated with Primary Health Care except?
A. Peculiar Problems of staff at level A
B. Infrastructure Problem
C. Socio-Economic factors
D. Monopoly
73. CHPS stands for
A. Community-Based Health Planning Services
B. Community-Based Health Planning and Service
C. Community-Based Health Planning and Services
D. Community-Base Health Planning and Services
74. The CHPS Strategy was borrowed from the Community Health and Family Planning Project
(CHFP) which was launched in;
A. 1998
B. 1994
C. 1995
D. 1993
75. The CHPS concept helps to;
Improve the health of the people in the communities.
Bring cost-effective and cost-saving in terms of prevention of diseases.
Improve the moral of health workers and enhances their work potential.
Develop the capacity of health workers at the community level.
A. I & II only
B. II, III & IV only
 C. I, II, III only
D. I, II, III & IV

76. What is an occupational health?

A. This is a system of ensuring physical, social and mental wellbeing of the employees in a
healthy environment.
B. This is a system of ensuring physical, social, mental and general wellbeing of the
employees in a healthy environment.
C. This is a system of ensuring physical, social and mental wellbeing of the employees in an
unhealthy environment.
D. This is a system of ensuring physical, social, mental and psychological wellbeing of the
employees in a healthy environment.
77. Components of occupational health include the following except;
A. Prevention
B. Protection
C. Promotion
D. Rehabilitation
78. Is a science which combines physical and engineering skills at the workplace.
A. Psychosocial factors
B. Biological factors
C. Physical factors
D. Ergonomic factors
79. The size of the female breast is determined by the following factors EXCEPT–
A. Age
B. Hereditary
C. Amount of fatty tissue present in the breast
D. Height

80. Lightening that occurs during the latter part of pregnancy makes the woman to….
A. Laugh well.
B. Walk well.
C. Breathe well.
 D. Stand straight

81. The cessation of ovulation during pregnancy is as a result of………………………..

A. High levels of LH
B. High levels of Relaxin
C. High levels of Oestrogen and progesterone
D. High levels of Oestrogen

82. A woman can sustain various degrees of tears during the second stage of labour. The severest
form is the fourth degree tear. This type of tear includes the following structure as
A. Skin ,fourchette and superficial pelvic floor muscle
B. Skin fourchette, mucous membrane and superficial pelvic floor muscle
C. Mucous membrane superficial pelvic floor muscle deep floor muscle external
anal sphincter
D. Superficial and deep floor muscle of the pelvic floor, external and internal anal
sphincter.

83. In active management of the third stage of labour, the midwife is to preload…… of
syntocinonat the end of first stage.
A. 10mls
B. 10 units
C. 10 mg
D. 10mcg
84. Abortion is the expulsion of the product of conception before the…..week of gestation.
A. 23rd
B. 24th
C. 27th
D. 28th

85. Majority of abortions occur in the……………

A. First trimester
B. Second trimester
C. Mid trimester
D. Late trimester

86. Approximately ……..% of all confirmed pregnancies results in abortion.

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

87. The following are fetal causes of abortion EXCEPT

 A. Chromosomal abnormality
B. Faulty placenta formation
C. Implantation of the blastocyst
D. Malformation of the trophoblast

88. Spontaneous abortion is defined as the ……..loss of product of conception.

A. Biological loss
B. Chemical loss
C. Involuntary loss
D. Voluntary loss

89. In which of the following type of abortion would the pregnancy test be negative and scan
would show irregular gestational sac?
A. Threatened abortion
B. Complete abortion
C. Missed abortion
D. Incomplete abortion
90. The viability of the foetus begins from………weeks of gestation.
A. 23rd
B. 24th
C. 27th
D. 28th

91. The following are complications of abortion EXCEPT….

A. Acute renal failure
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
C. Peritonitis
D. Endometriosis

92. This of the following is not a cause of recurrent abortion.

A. Genetics
B. Hypersecretion of lutienising hormone
C. Hypersecretion of follicle stimulating hormone
D. Infections

93. All the following are mechanical factors of labour EXCEPT…

A. Formation of the fore waters
B. General fluid pressure
C. Rupture of membranes
D. Appearance of show
94. Veracity is the obligation …………….
A. To tell the truth
B. To keep ones promise
C. To keep ones secret
 D. Not to cause harm

95. Which of the following must not be done when receiving a call in the ward
A. Greeting
B. Hanging up
C. Introducing your self
D. Receiving the message

96. The principle of conduct governing one’s relationship with others is referred to as………
A. Ethics
B. Laws
C. Rules
D. statutes
97. The moral premise of nursing practice is embodied in the concept of........................
A. Caring
B. Healing
C. Preventing illness
D. Promoting health

98. Ethics was derived from the Greek word ETHOS which means
A. Moral
B. Quardiance
C. Quidance
D. Right or wrong

99. Respect for the individual autonomy in cooperate the following principle EXCEPT
A. Confidentiality
B. Freedom of choice
C. Privacy
D. Self determination

100. Standards of human conduct established by the government through legislation and

interpreted by courts to protect the rights of citizens is

A. Customs
B. Ethics
C. Laws
D. Values
Sammy(0247693186) wishes you all the
best in your Licensure Exams.
Our God we serve has done it already.