BLOCK 1 Quiz 1 7.

The __________ served as the primary spokes-

entity for the nine (9) PRBs making up the Philippine
1. According to Rule V of PRBoA Resolution No. 05- Technology (i.e. Non-Engineering) Professions.
07, what is the registration fee for initial registration, A. PRBCB
renewal, or request for reinstatement? B. PRBCE
A. P500.00 C. PRBRES
B. P1,000.00 D. PRBoA
C. P1,500.00
D. P2,000.00 8. Under the Mnemonics of PRC given by PRC, what
does P stands for
2. The sum of the total number of hours A. Professionalism and Integrity
accomplished from the entire FOP Total number of B. Patriotism and Integrity
hours shall not be less than the required _______. C. Professionalism and Unity
A. 3,840 hours D. Patriotism and Excellence
B. 3,850 hours
C. 3,860 hours 9. How many years of experience are required for
D. 3,870 hours the members of the PRC?
A. A.8 years
3. The following are qualifications of being a member B. 9 years
of the Professional Regulatory Board except one. C. 5 years
A. Be a citizen and resident of the Philippines. D. 6 years
B. Be a holder of a degree in Bachelor of
Science in Architecture conferred by a 10. It means the act of conceiving, choosing and
school, college or university in the developing the type, disposition, arrangement and
Philippines or abroad that is recognized proportioning of the structural elements of an
and/or accredited by the Commission on architectural work giving due consideration to safety,
Higher Education (CHED). cost-effectiveness, functionality and aesthetics.
C. Has never been convicted of any crime A. Structural Planning
involving moral turpitude. B. Structural Building
D. Be at least 24 years of age. C. Structural Evolution
D. Structural Conceptualization
4. What does PRC stand for?
A. Professional Regulation Commission 11. SPLBE stands for:
B. Philippine Regulation Commission A. Special Professional Licensure Board
C. Philippine Regulatory Commission Examinations
D. Professional Regulatory Commission B. Senior Practice Licensure Board
Examinations
5. In case of a vacancy in the PRBoA, how are C. Specific Partnership Licensure Board
replacements appointed? Examinations
A. By the President of the Philippines D. Selective Performance Licensure Board
B. By the IAPOA through an election Examinations
C. By the PRC Chairman
D. By the Secretary of the DPWH 12. According to Rule II of PRBoA Resolution No.
05-07, what percentage of the owners,
6. In Rule IV of PRBoA Resolution No. 0507, what shareholders, members, incorporators, directors, or
action must a non-registered architectural firm or executive officers of a registered architectural firm
entity take upon receipt of a written notice of non- must be registered and licensed architects?
registration from the Board? A. 50%
A. Continue operating without changes. B. 75%
B. Immediately apply for registration C. 90%
C. File an appeal with the Board. D. 100%
D. Cease engagement in the practice of
architecture.
13. A post-baccalaureate, pre-licensure experience B. ARTICLE II PROFESSIONAL
of 2 years required of a graduate of architecture prior REGULATORY BOARD OF
to taking the licensure examination, consisting of a ARCHITECTURE
variation of experiences in the different phases of C. ARTICLE IV PRACTICE OF
architectural service. ARCHITECTURE
A. Architectural Experience D. ARTICLE V Final Provisions
B. Architectural Specialization
C. Diversified Architectural Experience 18. According to Article III SECTION 15. Rating in
D. Diversified Architectural Specialization the Licensure Examination. - To be qualified as
having passed the licensure examination for
14. It pertains to the existing official national architects, a candidate must obtain a weighted
organization of all architects of the Philippines in general average of _________, with no grade lower
which all registered Filipino architects shall be than fifty percent (50%) in any given subject.
members without prejudice to membership in other A. 60%
voluntary professional associations; B. 70%
A. Continuing Professional Development C. 75%
B. Securities of Exchange D. 80%
C. Commission
D. Integrated and Accredited Professional 19. What action can the Board take against
Organization of Architects architectural firms or entities found violating
the rules and regulations?
15. Which of the following professionals can A. Issue a warning letter.
compose the remaining 25% ownership of B. Offer a grace period for compliance.
architectural firms or entities, as stated in Rule II of C. Suspend or revoke the Certificate of
PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07? Registration
A. Filipino citizens without any professional D. Impose a fine without further consequences.
license
B. Foreign architects 20. What permit is required for foreign architects to
C. Filipino lawyers who are not members of the be allowed to engage in professional architecture
Integrated Bar of the Philippines projects in the Philippines?
D. Filipino allied technical or technological A. Special/Temporary Permit
professionals separately registered and B. Sanitary Permit
licensed by the concerned boards and C. Safety Permit
the Commission. D. Sales Tax Permit

16. Which of the following entities is required to 21. What Article in Republic Act No.9266 contains
renew their registration every three (3) provisions regarding the composition and functions
years? of the Professional Regulatory Board of
A. Individual architects only Architecture?
B. Architectural partnerships only A. ARTICLE III EXAMINATION,
C. Architectural firms, companies, REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE
partnerships, corporations, or B. ARTICLE II PROFESSIONAL
associations REGULATORY BOARD OF
D. Non-registered and non-licensed persons ARCHITECTURE
involved in architectural practice C. ARTICLE IV PRACTICE OF
ARCHITECTURE
17. This article outlines the requirements and D. ARTICLE V Final Provisions
procedures for the examination, registration, and
licensure of architects in the Philippines, detailing 22. What do you call the list that shows the names
the qualifications for applicants, subjects covered by and place of business of all registered
the examination, passing criteria, issuance of professional architects?
professional identification, and the regulatory A. Directory
framework for maintaining and enforcing B. Schedule
professional standards. C. Roster
A. ARTICLE III EXAMINATION, D. Record
REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE
23.CHED shall prepare and promulgate the Identification Card in the manner hereinafter
necessary rules and regulations needed to provided and shall thereafter comply with the
implement the provisions of this Act within how many provisions of this Act.”?
days in accordance to Section 17? A. SECTION 25. Registration of Architects
A. 15 working days Required
B. 30 days B. SECTION 30. Prohibition in the Practice of
C. 60 days Architecture
D. 90 days C. SECTION 26. Vested Rights: Architects
Registered When this Law is Passed.
24.What is the acronym of CPD in Section 28 Article D. SECTION 31. Liability of Representatives of
IV? Non-Registered Persons.
A. Continuing Professional Development
B. Certificate in Professional Development 35. In SECTION 31. Liability of Representatives of
C. Community Planning & Development Non-Registered Persons. It shall be unlawful for
D. Campus Planning Design any person or firm or corporation to seek to avoid
the provisions of this Act by having a
25. FOP stands for: representative or employee seek architectural work
A. Final on Practice in their behalf, unless and until, such persons
B. Finance on Permits have duly qualified and are duly __________,
C. Formality of Performance otherwise, both those represented and
D. Field of Practice representative, the employer and the employee
shall be deemed guilty of violation of this Act.
A. Forbid
True or False B. Registered/licensed
C. Noted
False 26. The licensure exam does not need to be D. First
related to the syllabus of CHED.
False 27. There are 46 professions that have a 36. In SECTION 37. Limitation to the Registration of
PRBo. a Firm, Company, Partnership, Corporation or
True 28. You can file a case to the PRC Association. The practice of ___________ is a
regarding licenses. professional service, admission to which shall be
True 29. PRC has the right to keep a database determined upon the basis of individual personal
on those who took and will take license qualifications.
exams. A. Engineering
True 30. PRBo can inquire for help from other B. Accountancy
institutions regarding filled cases related to C. Architecture
the license. D. Communications
False 31. The law is called the PCR
Modernization Act Dec 50, 2000. 37. What Section in Article IV Practice of
False 32. If one part of the law is not related to the Architecture contains “Persons not registered as an
case the case is still valid. architect shall not claim nor represent either
False 33. The PRBo alone can suspend licenses. services or work as equivalent to those of a duly
qualified registered architect, or that they are
-------------------------------------------------------------------- qualified for any branch or functions of function of
34. What Section in Article IV Practice of architectural practice, even though no form of the
Architecture contains “No person shall practice title "Architect" is used.”
architecture in this country, or engage in preparing A. SECTION 35. Positions in Government
architectural plans, specification or preliminary data Requiring the Services of Registered and
for the erection or alteration of any building located Licensed Architects.
within the boundaries of this country or use the title B. SECTION 27. Reciprocity Requirements.
"Architect," or display or use any title, sign, card, C. SECTION 34. Non-Registered Person
advertisement, or other device to indicate such Shall Not Claim Equivalent Service
person practices or offers to practice architecture, D. SECTION 33. Ownership of Plans,
or is an architect, unless such person shall Specifications and other Contract
have received from the Board a Certificate of Documents.
Registration and be issued a Professional
38. According to the Section 30 Article VI, when such 43. According to Article III Section 14, the
actions are deemed a misdeed, how much will examination shall cover the following subjects
the fine offender may face? except:
A. P20,000.00 A. History and Theory of Architecture;
B. P200,000.00 Principles of Planning and Architectural
C. P2,000,000.00 Practice;
D. P20,000.00 B. Structural Design, Building Materials, and
Architectural Specifications, and Methods of
39. In Section 33 Article IV, What should be duly Construction and Utilities;
signed, stamped or sealed, as instruments of C. Architectural Surveying
service, are the intellectual property and documents D. Architectural Design and Site Planning
of the architect?
A. Drawings and specifications and other 44. In Article III SECTION 24. Re-issuance or
contract documents Replacement of Revoked or Lost Certificates of
B. Blueprints Registration Professional Identification Card or
C. Working Drawing Special and Temporary Permit.- The Board may,
D. All of the above after the expiration of ______ years from the date of
revocation of a Certificate of Registration,
40. In SECTION 35. Positions in Government Professional Identification Card or
Requiring the Services of Registered and Licensed special/temporary permit, and upon application and
Architects. Within _ years from the effectiveness of for reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate
this Act, all existing and proposed positions in the validity of a revoked Certificate of Registration
the local and national government, whether career, and in so doing may, in its discretion, exempt the
permanent, temporary or contractual and applicant from taking another examination.
primarily requiring the services of an architect shall A. 3
be filled only by registered and licensed B. 2
architects. C. 6
A. 2 D. 4
B. 3
C. 4 45. In Article III SECTION 20. Seal, Issuance and
D. 10 Use of Seal, A duly licensed architect shall affix the
seal prescribed by the Board bearing the
41. What Section in Article IV states that only the registrant's name, registration number and title
Architect-of-record is fully responsible for all _______ on all architectural plans, drawings,
architectural plans, specifications, and other specifications and all other contract documents
documents issued under their seal or authorized prepared by or under his/her direct supervision.
signature? A. Architect
A. Section 35 B. Mr./Mrs.
B. Section 34 C. Designer
C. Section 33 D. Engineer
D. Section 32
46. The Architecture Act of 2004 is also known as
42. In Section 13 of Article III, which is not part of the A. Republic Act No. 8293
qualifications of applicant for examination? B. Republic Act No. 9266
A. He/she is a Filipino citizen or a citizen of a C. Republic Act No.545
foreign country D. Republic Act No.3866
B. He/she is of good moral character
C. He/she is a holder of a degree of Bachelor of 47. What official body formulates rules and
Science in Architecture regulations relating to signing and sealing of
D. He/she has been convicted of any drawings, specifications, and other documents
criminal offense involving moral registered by Architects?
turpitude A. Board of Architecture
B. Professional Regulation Commision
C. United Architects of the Philippines
D. Integrated and Accredited Professional
Organization of Architects
48. It is the art, science or profession of planning, B. ARTICLE III: EXAMINATION,
designing and constructing buildings in their totality REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE
taking into account their environment, in C. ARTICLE IV: PRACTICE OF
accordance with the principles of utility, strength and ARCHITECTURE
beauty D. ARTICLE V: FINAL PROVISIONS
A. Architecture
B. Engineering 54. SEC stands for
C. Interior Designing A. Special Exchange Commission
D. HomePlanning B. Security Enforcement Commision
C. Secured Exchange Contract
49. ____________ means a sole proprietorship, a D. Securities of Exchange Commission
partnership or a corporation registered with the
proper government agencies. 55. _____________ means an architect registered
A. House of the President and licensed under this Act, who is directly and
B. LawFirm professionally responsible and liable for the
C. Architectural Firm construction supervision of the project.
D. Hospital
A. Architect-in-charge of construction
50. _______________ means the architect B. Architect-of-record
registered and licensed under this Act, who is C. Consulting Architect
directly and D. Architect-of-construction
professionally responsible for the total design of the
project for the client and who shall assume 56. According to Sec 36 of article IV “It shall be
the civil liability for the plans, specifications and unlawful for any unregistered person to collect a fee
contract documents he/she has signed and for architectural services except: _____
sealed.
A. Architect-in-charge of construction A. as student collecting a fee for his/her own
B. Architect-of-record service
C. 5 B. as an employee
D. Consulting Architect C. As an employee collecting a fee as a
E. Architect-of-construction representative of a Registered Architect.
D. As citizen
51. DTI stands for;
A. Department of Trade and Industry 57. A group of newly licensed architects and their
B. Department of Technology and Innovation friends wanted to put-up an architectural firm. How
C. Department of Trust Fund and Income many percent of the corporation should be owned
D. Department of Tourism Involvement by the Architects?

52.____________ means the architect registered A. atleast seventy-five percent (75%)

and licensed or permitted to practice under this B. At least twenty-five percent (25%)
Act, who is professionally and academically C. At least sixty-five percent (65%)
qualified and with exceptional or recognized D. At least seventy-three percent (73%)
expertise or specialization in any branch of
architecture. 58. Who is responsible for enforcing the IRR of RA
A. Architect-in-charge of construction 9266?
B. Architect-of-record
C. Consulting Architect A. Secretary of Justice
D. Architect-of-construction B. Commission and the Board
C. Architects
D. Contractors
53. Under what article does the “Powers and
Functions of the Board” fall under?
A. ARTICLE II: PROFESSIONAL 59. The SEC 43 of The Architecture Act of 2004
REGULATORY BOARD OF states that :” This Act shall not be construed to
ARCHITECTURE affect or prevent the practice of any other legally
recognized profession.”
 A. True D. 100%
65. Section 21. Effectivity – This Act shall take effect
after days following its publication in the Official
60. According to Sec 37 of the article VI, who can
Gazette or in two (2) newspapers of general
only form among themselves, or together with allied circulation, whichever is earlier.
technical professionals and obtain registration as a
firm, company, partnership, association or a. 15 days
corporation for the practice of architecture?
b. 30 days
A. Registered and licensed Filipino Architect
c. 60 days
B. Newly passed Filipino Architects
d. 90 days
C. Newly Graduate Filipino Architects
D. Filipino Architecture Apprentice
61. It refers to the author or authors of a set of 66. In accordance to Section 14. Authority to Use
architectural plans or specifications who are in Income, the Commission is authorized to use its
charge of their preparation, whether made by them income not exceeding the amount of a year for a
personally or under their immediate supervision period of five (5) years after the effectivity of this Act.
A. Autorship a. P4, 500, 000.00
B. Leadership
C. Board b. P45,000.00
D. Commission c. P45,000,000
62. It means a duly notarized written contract or d. P4,500.00
equivalent public instrument stipulating the scope of
services and guaranteeing compensation of such
services to be rendered by an architect registered
67. How many sections does the Republic Act No.
and licensed under this Act;
8981 has?
A. Commission
a. 19
B. Service Agreement
C. Autorship b. 20
D. Architectural Agreement
c. 21
63. Which of the following is not included in the
scope of practice of architecture? d. 22

A. Physical and planning and the design

B. Construction 68. Section 15. Penalties for Manipulation and Other
C. 7 Practices in the Conductof Professional
D. Restoration or alteration of a building or a Examinations
group of buildings a. Corrupt
E. None of the above
b. Unjustified

64. According to Rule II of PRBoA Resolution No. c. Erroneous

05-07, what percentage of the owners shareholders,
d. Criminal
members, incorporators, directors, or executive
officers of a registered architectural firm must be
registered and licensed architects? 69. Section 20. Repealing Clause – Republic Act.
No. 546, Presidential Decree No. 223, as amended
A. 50%
by , Republic Act No. 5181, and Executive
B. 75%
Order No. 266, Series of 1995 are hereby repealed.
C. 90%
Section 23 (h) of Republic Act No. 7836, Section 4
(m & s). Section 23 of Republic Act No. 7920, and
Section 29 of Republic Act No. 8050, insofar as it
requires completion of the requirements of the
Continuing Professional Education (CPE) as a
condition for the renewal of the license, are hereby
repealed. All other laws, orders, rules and
regulations or resolutions and all parts thereof
inconsistent with the provisions of this Act are
hereby repealed or amended accordingly.
a. Presidential Decree No. 657
b. Presidential Decree No. 656 3
c. Presidential Decree No. 576
d. Presidential Decree No. 765
70. In accordance to Section 18: Transitory
Provisions, the incumbent executive director shall
serve the position of without the need of new
appointment.
a. Assistant Commissioner
b. Chairperson
c. Commissioners
d. Director
71. What section states that, “Any provision of this
Act or the application of such provision to any person
or circumstances is declared invalid or
unconstitutional, the remainder of this Act or
application of such provisions to other persons or
circumstance shall not be affected by such
declaration.”
a. Section 17. Implementing Rules and Regulations
b. Section 18. Transitory Provisions Commissioners
c. Section 19. Separability Clause
d. Section 20. Repealing Clause
72. In accordance to Section 11. Person to Teach
Subjects for Licensure Examination on all
Professions, all subjects for licensure examinations
shall be taught by persons who comply with the other
requirements of what Philippine Government
Agency?
a. DEPED
b. CHED
c. DOF
d. DOLE
73. PRC stands for:
a. Professional Regulation Commission
b. Philippine Regulation Commission
c. Philippine Regulatory Commission
d. Professional Regulatory Commission
74. Under Section 7 of Republic Act 8981, PRC has
a function to administer and conduct the licensure
examinations of the various regulatory boards in
accordance with the rules and regulations
promulgated by the Commission; determine and fix
the places and dates of examinations; use publicly
or privately-owned buildings and facilities for 4
examination purposes; conduct more than one (1)
licensure examination provided the following except:
a. when there are two (2) or more examinations
given in a year, at least one (1) examinations shall
be held on weekdays (Monday to Friday)
b. if only one (1) examination is given in a year, this
shall be held only on weekdays
c. the Commission is also authorized to require the
completion of a refresher
course where the examinee has failed to pass three
(3) times, except as otherwise provided by law
d. none of the above
75. What is the period of validity for the Certificate of
Registration issued to architectural firms or entities,
according to Rule III of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-
07?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
76. In Rule IV of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, what
action must a non-registered architectural firm or
entity take upon receipt of a written notice of non-
registration from the Board?
a. Continue operating without changes.
b. Immediately apply for registration
c. File an appeal with the Board.
d. Cease engagement in the practice of
architecture
77. Under “F” of Section 7 of the Republic Act 8981,
the PRC have the custody of all the records of the
various boards including the following except:
a. Examination papers
b. Minutes of deliberation
c. Examination results
d. Records of failed examinees
78. According to Section 9, (c.) To hear and
investigate cases arising from violations of their
respective laws, the rules and regulations
promulgated thereunder and their Codes of Ethics
and, for this purpose, may issue summons,
subpoena and subpoena duces tecum to alleged
violators and/or witnesses to compel their
attendance in such investigations or hearings:
Provided, That, the decision of the Professional
Regulatory Board shall, unless appealed to the
Commission, become final and executory after from
receipt of notice of judgment or decision.
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
79. Which of the following is not included in the
powers, functions, and responsibilities of the
Commission under Republic Act 8981?
a. To adopt and institute a comprehensive rating
system for universities, colleges, and training
institutes based on the passing ratio and overall
performance of students in board examinations
b. To exercise administrative supervision over the
various professional regulatory boards and its
members
c. To adopt and promulgate such rules and
regulations as may be necessary to effectively
implement policies with respect to the regulation and
practice of the professions;
d. None of the above
80. PRC is required to submit and recommend to the
President of the Philippines the names of
licensed/registered professionals for appointment as
members of the various Professional Regulatory
Boards from among those nominated to fill up
vacancies pursuant to the provisions of Executive
Order No. 496, Series of 1991
a. True
83. Statement 1: Under Section 7 of Republic Act
8981, the PRC has the power to administer,
implement and enforce the regulatory policies of the
national government with respect to the regulation
and licensing of the various professions and
occupations under its jurisdiction including the
enhancement and maintenance of professional and
occupational standards and ethics and the
enforcement of the rules and regulations relative
thereto
Statement 2: They have the power to perform any
and all acts, enter into contracts, make such rules
and regulations and issue such orders and other
administrative issuance as may be necessary in the
execution and implementation of its functions and
the improvement of its services
a. First statement is true; Second statement is False
b. First statement is False; Second statement is True
c. Both statements are True
d. statements are False
84. Under Section 4 of Republic Act 8981, the
President shall appoint the commission for how
many years?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
85. Section 2 entitled “Statement of the Policy” of
Republic Act No. 8981 states that, “The members of
the Professional Regulatory Boards shall receive
compensation equivalent to, at least, two salary
grades lower than the salary grade of the
Commissioners: Provided, That the Chairperson of
the Regulatory Board shall receive a monthly
compensation of two steps higher than the members
of the Board, and: Provided, further, That they shall
be entitled to other allowances and benefits provided
under existing laws”.
b. False
86. Which of the following PRBoA Resolutions call
for the conversion of the Logbook of Diversified
Experience in Architecture as a downloadable form
from the United Architects of the Philippines
website?
a. PRBoA Resolution No. 10 Series of 2021
b. PRBoA Resolution No. 17 Series of 2012
c. PRBoA Resolution No. 12 Series of 2008
d. PRBoA Resolution No. 05 Series of 2010
87. Statement 1: Under Section 7 of Republic Act
8981, PRC has the power to hold in contempt in
erring party or person only upon application with a
court of competent jurisdiction.
Statement 2: They have no power to perform such
other functions and duties as may be necessary to
carry out the provisions of Republic Act 8981, the
various professional regulatory laws, decrees,
executive orders and other administrative issuance.
a. First statement is true; Second statement is
False
b. First statement is False; Second statement is True
c. Both statements are True
d. Both statements are False
88. The PRBoA was fully reconstituted as of March
30, 2007, in full compliance with
a. R.A. No. 545
b. R.A. No. 9266
c. R.A. No. 1581
d. R.A. No. 386
89. Which of the following is not a purpose of the
PRBoA?
a. Suspension of any member of the Board
b. Regulation and Licensing
c. Administration of the Architecture Licensure
Examination
d. Implementation and Enforcement of the Republic
Act No. 9266
90. What section states that “Any law enforcement
agency shall, upon call or request of the Commission
or of any Professional Regulatory Board, render
assistance in enforcing the regulatory law of the
profession including the rules and regulations
promulgated thereunder by prosecuting the violators
thereof in accordance with law and the rules of
court.”
a. Section 10
b. Section 14
c. Section 17
d. Section 12
91. Under Section 3 of the Republic Act No. 8981,
“There is hereby created a three-man commission to
be known as the Professional Regulation
Commission”. This is composed of the following
except:
a. 1 full time chair person
b. 2 full time commissioners 95. Section 9. Powers, Functions and of the Various
Professional Regulatory Boards
c. 1 part time commissioner
a. Regulations
d. Both a and b
b. Occupation
92. Section 10. Compensation of the Members of the c. Responsibilities
Professional Regulatory Boards – The members of
d. Appropriations
the Professional Regulatory Boards shall receive
compensation equivalent to, at least, lower than the
salary grade of the Commissioners: Provided, That
the Chairperson of the Regulatory Board shall
receive a monthly compensation of two steps higher
than the members of the Board, and: Provided,
further, that they shall be entitled to other allowances
and benefits provided under existing laws.
a. one salary grades
b. two salary grades
c. three salary grades
d. four salary grades

93. What action can the Board take against

architectural firms or entities found violating the rules
and regulations?
a. Issue a warning letter.
b. Offer a grace period for compliance.
c. Suspend or revoke the Certificate of
Registration
d. Impose a fine without further consequences.

94. As stated in PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, this

group is responsible for issuing Certificates of
Registration to architectural firms or entities.
a. The Integrated and Accredited Professional
Organization of Architects (IAPOA).
b. The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).
c. The Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC) through the Board.
d. The Department of Trade and Industry (DTI)
BLOCK 1 Quiz 2
1. Who appoints the Director General, Deputies
Director General, Directors, and Assistant
Directors?
A. The President
B. The Secretary of Trade and Industry
C. The Civil Service Law
D. The Office itself
2. Which refers to the document issued by the PRC
signifying that the person named therein has
complied with all the legal and procedural
requirements for such issuance, including, in
appropriate cases, passing the licensure
examination or registration without examination?
A. Certificate of Registration
B. CPD credit unit
C. Professional ID
D. Authorship
3. Why is the CPD Council Secretariat created?
A. To manage the finances of the CPD
Councils.
B. To conduct and deliver CPD programs.
C. To provide technical, administrative, and
operational support to the CPD Councils
and PRBs in implementing CPD
programs.
D. To set the fees for CPD programs.
4. Defined as original intellectual creations in the
literary and artistic domain also referred to work.
A. Works of Government
B. Literary and Artistic Works
C. Derivative Works
D. Pseudonym Works
5. Which of the following is NOT a function, power,
and responsibility of the CPD Council?
A. Evaluate and act on applications for
accreditation of CPD Providers and their
CPD Programs.
B. Develop and evaluate the CPD Programs
and ensure cohesiveness and quality.
C. Conduct researches, studies and
benchmarking for international alignment of
the CPD Programs.
D. Issue operational guidelines, with the
approval of the PRC and the PRB
concerned.
6. According to Sec. 221. Points of Attachment for
Works under Sections 172 and 173. The protection
afforded by this Act to copyrightable works under
Sections 172 and 173 shall apply to:
A. Works of foreign authors who have their
habitual residence in the Philippines
B. Works first published in another country but
also published in the Philippines within sixty
days, irrespective of the nationality or
residence of the authors.
C. Filipino author whose work is first published
outside of the Philippines
D. Audio-visual works the producer of
which has his headquarters or habitual
residence in the Philippines
7. This refers to a body created to promote and
ensure the continuous improvement of
professionals, in accordance with national, regional
and international standards of practice.
A. CPD Council
B. AIPO/Accredited Integrated Professional
Organization
C. Professorial Chair
D. CPD Body
8. The making of one (1) or more copies, temporary
or permanent, in whole or in part, of a work or a
sound recording in any manner or form without
prejudice to the provisions of Section 185 of this Act
(Sec. 41 [E], P.D. No. 49a).
A. Replication
B. Reproduction
C. Recreation
D. Regeneration
9. Deferment for complying to minimum credit units
of an architect due to unforeseen circumstances
should not exceed how many months?
A. 12 months
B. 6 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
10. What is the consequence of not recording an
assignment, license, or other instrument relating to
patents within the specified time frame?
A. It becomes void against any subsequent
purchaser or mortgagee.
B. It remains valid but cannot be enforced in
court.
C. It is automatically extended for another
three months.
D. It is considered as pending until the
recording is completed.
11. The Professional Track is divided into 5 different
major areas which are?
A. Design, Building Technology, Sustainability,
Ethics, Interior Design
B. Design, Building Science, Environment,
Sustainability, Tropical Design
C. Design, Building Science, Practice,
Sustainability and Environment, Others
D. Design, Building Utility, Practice,
Sustainability and Environment, Others
12. The natural person whose name is indicated on
a work in the usual manner as the author shall, in the
absence of proof to the contrary, be presumed to be
the author of the work. This provision shall be
applicable even if the name is a pseudonym, where
the pseudonym leaves no doubt as to the identity of
the author.
A. SEC. 219. Presumption of Ownership.
B. SEC. 219. Presumption of Property,
C. SEC. 219. Presumption of Composition.
D. SEC. 219. Presumption of Authorship.
13. This refers to the creation of scholarly ideas/work
such as technical or professional books, instructional
materials, design and the like.
A. Research
B. Accreditation
C. Authorship
D. Composition
14. How is the second member of the CPD council
selected if there is no national organization of deans
or department chairpersons for the relevant field?
A. The PRC appoints the second member
directly.
B. The PRB concerned chooses the second
member from their existing members.
C. The second member is selected through a
public examination.
D. The PRB submits a list of three qualified
individuals from the academe, and the
PRC designates the second member
from this list.
15. What is a work created by an officer or employee
of the Philippine Government or any of its
subdivisions and instrumentalities, including
government-owned or controlled corporations as
part of his regularly prescribed official duties?
A. Work of the Government of the
Philippines
B. Work of the Administration of the Philippines
C. Work of the Philippine Government
D. Work of the Republic of the Philippines
16. What options are available for registered
professionals working abroad to earn CPD credits?
A. They cannot earn CPD credits while
working abroad
B. They can only earn CPD credits through
accredited providers
C. They can earn CPD credits through both
accredited and non-accredited providers
D. They can earn CPD credits only through
non-accredited providers
17. It means any visible sign designated as such in
the application for registration and capable of
distinguishing the origin or any other common
characteristic, including the quality of goods or
services of different enterprises which use the sign
under the control of the registered owner of the
collective mark.
A. Trade name
B. Trademark
C. Mark
D. Collective Mark
18. What is the consequence of not recording an
assignment, license, or other instrument
relating to patents within the specified time frame?
A. It becomes void against any subsequent
purchaser or mortgagee.
B. It remains valid but cannot be enforced in
court.
C. It is automatically extended for another
three months.
D. It is considered as pending until the
recording is completed.
19. Can CPD credits earned in excess of the
required amount be carried over to the next
compliance period?
A. Yes, without any exceptions
B. Yes, with the exception of credits earned
from doctorate or master’s degree
programs
C. No, they cannot be carried over
D. No, unless approved by the CPD Council
20. This refers to the quality assured national system
for the development, recognition and award of
qualifications at defined levels, based on standards
of knowledge, skills and values, acquired in different
ways and methods by learners and workers.
A. Pathways and Equivalencies
B. Philippine Qualifications Framework
C. ASEAN MRA
D. National Standards for Quality Assurance
21. Which of the following is not under the Sec. 222.
Points of Attachment for Performers.
The provisions of this Act on the protection of
performers shall apply to performers who
are not nationals of the Philippines but whose
performances are:
A. Take place in the Philippines
B. Are incorporated in sound recordings that
are protected under this Act
C. Take place outside of the Philippines
D. Which has not been fixed in sound
recording but are carried by broadcast
qualifying for protection under this Act
22. In Sec. 200. Sale or Lease of Work. - In every
sale or lease of an original work of painting or
sculpture or of the original manuscript of a writer or
composer, subsequent to the first disposition thereof
by the author, the author or his heirs shall have an
inalienable right to participate in the gross proceeds
of the sale or lease to the extent of how many
Percentages?
A. Two percent (2%)
B. Five percent (5%)
C. Ten percent (10%)
D. Twelve percent (12%)
23. During what day of the month should the CPDC
for Architects be mandated to have meetings?
A. 3rd Saturday
B. 2nd Wednesday
C. 2nd Tuesday
D. 3rd Wednesday
TRUE OR FALSE
True 24. According to RA 8293, patents protect
inventions or discoveries, granting the
patent holder exclusive rights to use and
sell the invention for a limited period.
True 25. Under the CPD Act of 2016, the
Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC) is responsible for accrediting CPD
providers and programs.
True 26.infringement is the unauthorized use of
intellectual property.
True 27.Industrial designs, under RA 8293, refer
to the aesthetic or ornamental aspects of
articles, granting their creators exclusive
rights to reproduce and distribute them.
False 28. The CPD Act of 2016 requires
professionals to complete a minimum of
120 CPD units within a two-year cycle, with
at least 30 units earned from accredited
activities, to renew their licenses, while the
remaining 90 units can be obtained through
self-directed learning.
False 29.According to RA 8293, intellectual
property rights are granted indefinitely,
without any limitations on their duration.
False 30.The CPD Act of 2016 allows
professionals to renew their licenses
without completing any CPD units if they
can demonstrate significant contributions to
their field through published works or
patents.
False 31. Under RA 8293, the protection of
intellectual property rights extends to ideas
and concepts themselves, regardless of
their expression in tangible form.
True 32. Failure to comply with CPD
requirements may result in the non-renewal
or suspension of a professional license
under the CPD Act of 2016.
False 33. According to the CPD Act of 2016,
professionals can obtain CPD units by
attending social events and networking
activities relevant to their field, even if they
are not officially accredited by the
Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC).
--------------------------------------------------------------------
1. What is the purpose of CPD for registered and
licensed professionals under the PRC?
a. To increase government revenue.
b. To ensure professionals keep learning and
improving their skills.
c. To create unnecessary bureaucratic hurdles.
d. To restrict professional development.
2. What are some activities or programs through
which professionals can earn CPD credits?
a. Only attending international conferences.
b. Only reading professional journals.
c. Participating in programs initiated by the PRC
and the PRB
d. Attending recreational events.
3. What penalties could professionals face for
fraudulent acts related to CPD?
a. Warning letters only
b. Suspension or revocation of professional
registration
c. Monetary fines
d. No penalties for fraudulent acts
9. What is the timeline for CPD credit requirements
for renewing the Professional Identification Card
(PIC) from July to December 2017?
a. No CPD credits required.
b. 30% of total CPD credits required.
c. 60% of total CPD credits required.
d. 100% of total CPD credits required.

4. Which of the following are NOT included in the

CPD programs? 10. What is the primary role of government
a. Informal Learning agencies and private companies in relation to
b. Non-Formal Learning CPD?
c. Self-directed Learning
a. They have no role in CPD.
d. Interactive Learning
b. They should hinder professional development.
c. They should include CPD in their plans for
5. Who are the people that constitute the CPD developing their employees.
Council? d. They should discourage professionals from
a. Chairman, Secretary, and Members participating in CPD activities.
b. Chairman, First Member, and Second Member
c. Director, Chairman, and Member
d. Director, Chairman, and Secretary 11. What does the "Separability Clause" in Section
17 of R.A. 10912 mean?
6. This refers to learning that has been acquired in a. It ensures professionals separate their personal
addition or alternatively to formal learning, and professional lives.
educational and training arrangements a. Lifelong b. It allows for the removal of invalid parts of
Learning the CPD rules without affecting the rest.
b. Informal Learning c. It ensures professionals separate from their
c. Formal Learning employers.
d. Non-formal Learning d. It allows professionals to separate themselves
from CPD requirements.
7. How many credit units are creditable for Self-
learning and/or Lifelong Learning per compliance
period? 12. What is the purpose of the "Repealing Clause"
a. 45 in Section 18 of R.A. 10912?
b. 17.5 a. To repeal the CPD requirement altogether.
c. 10 b. To ensure old laws are not changed.
d. 25 c. To cancel or change old laws conflicting with
R.A. 10912.
d. To increase bureaucracy.
8. Can overseas architects also participate in any
CPD Program/Activities?
a. Yes but cannot be credited for applying credit 13. When do the rules (IRR) of R.A. 10912 start to
units. apply according to the "Effectivity" section?
b. Yes, through attending programs of a. Immediately upon approval by the CPD Council.
accredited CPD Providers. b. 30 days after publication in the Official Gazette.
c. No since they are not here in the Philippines. c. 15 days after being fully published in the
d. No since they cannot apply for credit units. Official Gazette or in a widely read newspaper
in the Philippines.
d. After one year of publication.
14. Refers to a non-degree post graduate training
program such as externship, residency and
fellowship in specialty and sub-specialty program/s
or diplomates conferred by an organization or
society recognized by the pertinent government
authority.
a. Specified Training
b. Specialization
c. Specialty Training
d. Special Degree
15. Refers to planned and systematic processes
that provide confidence in the design, delivery and
award of qualifications within an education and
training system, and is a component of quality
management that is focused on ensuring that
quality requirements will be fulfilled.
a. Qualified Background
b. Prior Learning
c. Lifelong Learning
d. Quality Assurance
16. Refers to a person’s skills, knowledge and
competencies that have been acquired through
work experience, training, independent study,
volunteer activities and hobbies, that may be
applied for academic credit, as requirement of a
training program or for occupational certification.
a. Prior Learning
b. Lifelong Learning
c. Formal Learning
d. Specialty Training
17. Refer to structured or unstructured learning
initiatives, which make use of the internet and other
web-based Information and Communications
Technology solutions.
a. Online Learning Activities
b. Online Learning
c. Digital Training
d. Digital Learning Activities
18. Refer to what a learner can be expected to
know, understand and/or demonstrate as a result of
a learning experience; LEARNING OUTCOMES
a. Effective Experience
b. Resulting Outcomes
c. Learning Outcomes
d. Learning Turnover
19. 31. The PRBOA Resolution No. 4 Series of
2017 is the Operational Guidelines in the
Implementation of RA 10912 for Architects.
a. True
b. False
20. All architects are required to comply with certain
CPD credit units in a compliance period, how many
years is this compliance period?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 2
d. 6
21. There is no age limit in complying with CPD
credit units.
a. True, as long as you are able you may comply.
b. True, as long as you want to renew your
license.
c. False, senior citizens are not qualified.
d. False, it is a personal decision to comply.
22. You cannot gain CPD credit units by travelling.
a. True
b. False
23. Winning an International Award is equivalent to
a. Full CU for 10 compliance period
b. Full CU for 3 compliance period
c. Full CU for 5 compliance period
d. Full CU for 4 compliance period
24. It is hereby created at the PRC Central and
Regional Offices to provide technical, administrative,
and operational support to the CPD Councils and the
PRBs in the implementation of the CPD Programs.
a. Secretariat
b. First Member
c. Second Member
d. Chairperson
25. Every CPD Council shall be composed of?
a. Chairman and 3 Members
b. Chairperson and 2 members
c. Chairperson and Secretariat
d. President and Chairperson
26. He/She shall exercise general supervision and
control over the staff of CPD Secretariat.
a. Chairperson
b. The First Member
c. Executive President
d. Executive Director
27. The first and second members shall have a term
of office of how many years?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
28. One of the function of the Secretariat is to release
the Certificate of Accreditation ("COA") of qualified
CPD providers, the Certificate of Accreditation of
Program/s ("COAP"), and the Certificate of Credit
Units (CCU) for self-directed and/or lifelong learning.
a. True
b. False
1. What function is NOT mentioned among the
functions of the Intellectual Property Office
according to Section 5?
A. Granting patents
B. Implement human resource development
plans
C. Managing technology transfer
D. Encouraging the use of patent information
2. Which of the following statements accurately
describes the retention and utilization of
funds by the Director General, based on the
provided information?
A. The Director General requires approval from
government agencies to retain and utilize funds
collected by the Office.
B. The retained funds can only be used for
personal expenses of the Director General.
C. The Director General has the autonomy to
use the retained funds for various office
operations without separate approval.
D. The retained amount will be commingled with
the Office's annual budget for operational
expenses.
3. Which of the following accurately describes the
authority of the Director General in
seeking assistance, as outlined in Section 15?
A. The Director General has no authority to seek
assistance from external entities.
B. The Director General can only seek
assistance from government departments.
C. The Director General has the authority to
seek assistance from technical, scientific, or
other qualified officers and employees from
various government entities when
necessary for matters related to the Act's
enforcement.
D. The Director General can seek assistance
only from privately owned corporations.
4. What restrictions are placed on officers and
employees of the Office regarding patents,
utility models, industrial designs, and marks, as per
Section 19?
A. They are authorized from applying or acting
as an attorney or patent agent.
B. They are only allowed to apply for patents
during their employment.
C. They can acquire patents, utility models, or
marks only through purchase.
D. They are prohibited from acquiring
patents, utility models, or marks during their
employment and for one year after leaving
their position, except through
hereditary succession.
5. What constitutes prior art according to Section
24?
A. Only materials made available to the public
in the Philippines before the filing date or priority
date of the application.
B. Everything made available to the public
worldwide after the filing date or priority date of
the application.
C. Everything made available to the public
worldwide before the filing date or priority
date of the application, including earlier
applications filed in the Philippines.
D. Only materials made available to the public
in the Philippines after the filing date or priority
date of the application.
6. Who holds the right to a patent according to
Section 28?
A. Only the inventor.
B. The inventor, their heirs, or assigns.
C. Only the heirs of the inventor.
D. The government.
7. What are the components required for a patent
application according to Section 32?
A. The application must include a request,
description, and necessary drawings, but claims
and an abstract are optional.
B. The application must be in English only, and
it must include a description and necessary
drawings.
C. The application must include a request,
description, necessary drawings, one or
more claims, and an abstract, and it can be
in either Filipino or English.
D. The application must include a request and
an abstract, but description, drawings, and
claims are optional.
8. What elements are required for the filing date of a
patent application according to Section
40?
A. An indication of seeking a patent, applicant
identification, and a description with one or
more claims in Filipino only.
B. An indication of seeking a patent, applicant
identification, and a description with one or
more claims in English only.
C. An indication of seeking a Philippine
patent, applicant identification, and a
description with one or more claims in either
Filipino or English.
D. An indication of seeking a patent, applicant
identification, and a description with one or
more claims in any language.
10. What is the term of a patent according to Section
54?
A. 10 years from the filing date of the
application.
B. 15 years from the filing date of the
application.
C. 20 years from the priority date of the
application.
D. 20 years from the filing date of the
application.
12. The permission granted under Subsection 187.1
shall not extend to the reproduction of
the following except?
A. A compilation of data and other materials
B. A work of architecture in the form of building
or other construction
C. An entire book, or a substantial part thereof,
or of a musical work in graphic form
by reprographic means
D.None of the above
13. Defined by Subsection 171.2 as a work which
has been created by two (2) or more
natural persons at the initiative and under the
direction of another with the understanding
that it will be disclosed by the latter under his own
name and that contributing natural
persons will not be identified.
A. Collective work
B. Collaborative work
C. Partnership work
D. Joint work
14. In Sec. 200. Sale or Lease of Work. - In every
sale or lease of an original work of
painting or sculpture or of the original manuscript of
a writer or composer, subsequent to
the first disposition thereof by the author, the author
or his heirs shall have an inalienable
right to participate in the gross proceeds of the sale
or lease to the extent of how many
percentage?
A. Two percent (2%)
B. Five percent (5%)
C. Ten percent (10%)
D. Twelve percent (12%)
19. What is defined as the natural person who has
created the work?
A. Author
B. Writer
C. Creator
D. Maker
21. What is required before a license can be granted
under Section 95?
A. The petitioner must file a petition with the
Intellectual Property Office.
B. The petitioner must obtain authorization from
the patent owner on any terms.
C. The petitioner must make efforts to obtain
authorization from the patent owner on
reasonable commercial terms but without any
time constraint.
D. The petitioner must make efforts to obtain
authorization from the patent owner on
reasonable commercial terms within a
reasonable period of time, but if
unsuccessful, a license may still be granted.
22. What action can be taken in cases involving
highly technical issues according to Section 64?
a. The case will be automatically heard by a
committee of three.
b. The party filing the motion will decide on the
committee's composition.
c. The Director of Legal Affairs may order a
committee of three to hear and decide the
case.
d. The case will be referred to a regular court for
resolution.
23. Under what circumstances can damages be
recovered for acts of infringement according
to Section 80?
a. Damages can be recovered regardless of the
infringer's knowledge of the patent.
b. Damages can be recovered only if the
infringer knew of the patent before
committing the infringement.
c. Damages can be recovered if the infringer
had reasonable grounds to know of the patent.
d. Damages can be recovered if the infringer
acknowledges the patent in their advertising.
24. What action does the court take if it finds a patent
or any claim to be invalid in an
infringement case according to Section 82?
a. The court may ignore the invalidity and
proceed with the infringement case.
b. The court may suspend the case pending
further review of the patent's validity.
c. The court shall cancel the patent or claim
and notify the Director of Legal Affairs.
d. The court may issue a warning to the patent
holder.
25. What happens if a technology transfer
arrangement does not conform with the provisions of
Sections 87 and 88, according to Section 92?
a. It remains enforceable regardless of non-
conformance.
b. It becomes automatically enforceable without
registration.
c. It becomes automatically unenforceable
unless approved and registered with the
Documentation, Information and
Technology Transfer Bureau.
d. It needs approval from the Director General
of the Intellectual Property Office to be
enforceable.
26. What are the required elements that must be
included in a petition for compulsory
licensing, according to Section 98?
a. Name and address of the petitioner only
b. Name and address of the petitioner,
respondents, and patentee
c. Name and address of the petitioner,
respondents, and patentee, along with the
statutory grounds for compulsory licensing
d. Name and address of the petitioner,
respondents, and patentee, along with the
statutory grounds for compulsory licensing
and the relief prayed for
27. What types of assignments are permissible
under Section 104?
a. Assignment of the entire right, title, or interest
only
b. Assignment of an undivided share only
c. Both assignment of the entire right, title,
or interest and assignment of an undivided
share
d. Assignment limited to a specified territory only
29. What are the rights and limitations of joint owners
of a patent according to Section 107?
a. Joint owners can grant licenses without
consent but must share proceeds equally.
b. Joint owners cannot make, use, or sell the
invention individually.
c. Joint owners can make, use, sell, or
import the invention individually but cannot
grant licenses or assign their rights without
consent.
d. Joint owners have equal rights to grant
licenses without consent

30. Under Section 115, when can two or more
industrial designs be included in the same
application?
a. When they are completely unrelated
b. When they belong to different sub-classes of
the International Classification.
c. When they relate to different sets of articles.
d. When they relate to the same sub-class of
the International Classification or to the
same set or composition of articles.
31. It means any visible sign designated as such in
the application for registration and capable of
distinguishing the origin or any other common
characteristic, including the quality of goods or
services of different enterprises which use the sign
under the control of the registered owner of the
collective mark.
a. Trade name
b. Trademark
c. Mark
d. Collective Mark
32. Under SEC 123, these are the reasons a mark
cannot be registered EXCEPT?
a. Consists of immoral, deceptive or scandalous
matter, or matter.
b. Is identical with a registered mark belonging
to a different proprietor or a mark with an earlier
filing or priority date.
c. Is likely to mislead the public, particularly as
to the nature, quality, characteristics or
geographical origin of the goods or services.
d. None of the above.
33. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for
the application of a trademark registration according
to Section 124.1?
a. A request for registration
b. The appointment of an agent or
representative, if the applicant is not domiciled
in the Philippines
c. Declaration of actual use of the mark
within three years from the filing date
d. Where the applicant claims color as a
distinctive feature of the mark, a statement to
that effect
34. Which of the following statements regarding the
opposition of trademark is FALSE according to SEC
134?
a. Any person who believes that he would be
damaged by the registration of a mark may,
upon payment of the required fee and within
thirty (30) days
b. Opposition shall be in writing and verified by
the oppositor or by any person on his behalf
who knows the facts
c. Copies of certificates of registration of marks
registered in other countries or other supporting
documents shall be filed along with its english
translation if not in english.
d. The director of Legal Affairs may not
extend the time for filing an opposition.
35. A certificate of registration shall remain in for how
many years?
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 8 years
d. 10 years
36. Which of the following statement regarding the
Assignment and Transfer of Application and
REgistration if FALSE under SEC 149?
a. An application for registration of a mark, or its
registration, may be assigned or transferred
with or without the transfer of the business using
the mark
b. Such assignment or transfer shall, however,
be null and void if it is liable to mislead the
public, particularly as regards the nature,
source, manufacturing process, characteristics,
or suitability for their purpose, of the goods or
services to which the mark is applied.
c. Assignments and transfers shall have no
effect against third parties until they are
recorded at the Office.
d. None of the above.
37. Which of the following statements regarding the
limitations to actions for infringement is
FALSE according to SEC 159?
a. A registered mark shall have an effect
against any person who, in good faith,
before the filing date or the priority date, was
using the mark for the purposes of his
business or enterprise
b. Where an infringer who is engaged solely in
the business of printing the mark or other
 infringing materials for others is an innocent
infringer, the owner of the right infringed shall be
entitled as against such infringer only to an
injunction against future printing.
c. Where the infringement complained of is
contained in or is part of paid advertisement the
remedies of the owner of the right infringed as
against the publisher or distributor of such
newspaper, magazine, or other similar
periodical or electronic communication shall be
limited to an injunction against the presentation
of such advertising matter in future issues
d. There shall be no infringement of trademarks
or trade names of imported or sold drugs and
medicines allowed under Section 72.1 of this
Act, as well as imported or sold off-patent drugs
and medicines
38. Which of the following actions constitutes
trademark infringement according to Section 155 of
R.A. No. 166a?
a. Using a reproduction, counterfeit, copy, or
colorable imitation of a registered mark
without consent in connection with the sale,
offering for sale, distribution, or advertising
of goods or services, likely to cause
confusion, mistake, or deception.
b. Reproducing, counterfeiting, copying, or
colorably imitating a registered mark and
applying it to labels, signs, prints, packages,
wrappers, receptacles, or advertisements
intended for use in commerce, causing
confusion, mistake, or deception.
c. Using a trademark that is similar to a
registered mark, but with consent from the
owner, for advertising purposes without causing
confusion, mistake, or deception.
d. Reproducing a registered mark for personal
use without intent to sell or advertise
goods or services, regardless of the likelihood
of confusion, mistake, or deception.
b. The court may impound sales invoices and
other documents evidencing sales during the
pendency of the action upon the complainant's
application.
c. In cases where there is shown actual intent to
mislead the public or defraud the complainant,
the damages may be doubled at the discretion
of the court.
d. The complainant may not be granted
injunction upon proper showing of
trademark infringement.
40. Which of the following actions would NOT be
considered as unfair competition according to
Section 168 of R.A. No. 166a?
a. Giving goods the general appearance of
goods of another manufacturer, likely to
influence purchasers to believe they are from a
different source.
b. Employing means calculated to induce the
false belief that one is offering the services of
another who has already established such
services in the public's mind.
c. Making false statements in the course of
trade that discredit the goods, business, or
services of another.
d. Using a registered trademark without
consent in connection with the sale, offering
for sale, distribution, or advertising of goods
or services, likely to cause confusion,
mistake, or deception.

39. Which of the following statements regarding

actions, damages, and injunction for trademark
infringement is NOT true according to Section 156 of
R.A. No. 166a?
a. The owner of a registered mark may recover
damages based on either the reasonable profit
lost due to infringement, the profit gained by the
infringer, or a reasonable percentage of the
infringer's gross sales or the value of services in
connection with the infringement.
BLOCK 1 GROUP 5 7. Under Book I: Title VI, Future spouses may donate
up to _______ of their present property to each other
1. Under Book I: Title 1, It is referred to as the fitness in their marriage settlements.
to be the subject of legal relations. It is inherent in A. One-half
every natural person and is lost only through death. B. One-third
A. Capacity to Act C. One-fourth
B. Civil Personality D. One-fifth
C. Juridical Capacity
D. Juridical Person 8. It is referred to as the dwelling house where a
person and his family reside, and the land on which
2. What is considered the habitual residence of it is situated.
natural persons for the exercise of civil rights and the A. Family Home
fulfillment of civil obligations? B. Family House
A. Domicile C. Family Dwelling
B. Address D. Family Abode
C. Home
D. Lodging 9. If adultery is committed around conception and it’s
highly improbable the child is the husband’s due to
3. The following is considered as void marriages ethnic reasons, the child is presumed legitimate.
except: A. True
A. Those involving killing of a spouse B. False
B. Incestuous marriages
C. Those without proper authorization 10. According to Book I: Title XIV, Absence can be
D. Marriages contracted under age 13 for declared if _________ pass without news of the
males and females absentee, or five years if someone is managing their
property.
4. Public officials must respect freedom of religion A. Four years
and refrain from questioning the religious beliefs of B. Three years
applicants or their churches when issuing C. Two years
authorizations. D. One years
A. True
B. False 11. The Civil code of the Philippines is also known
as?
5. The petition for legal separation must be filed A. Republic act 386.
within _________ of becoming aware of the cause B. Republic act 368
and within five years of the cause occurring. The trial C. Republic act 863
cannot occur until six months after filing the petition. D. Republic act 638
A. Three months
B. One year 12. Which standard of evidence is sufficient to prove
C. Nine months the act complained of in a separate civil action
D. 2 years brought to demand civil liability arising from a
criminal offense when no criminal proceedings are
6. By default, the wife administers conjugal instituted during the pendency of the civil case?
property, unless otherwise stipulated in the A. Beyond a reasonable doubt
marriage settlement or specified by law B. Clear and convincing evidence
A. True C. Preponderance of evidence
B. False D. Absolute certainty
13. What legal presumption arises when someone
is in actual possession of property under a claim of
ownership, according to Article 433 of the Civil
Code of the Philippines?
A. Conclusive presumption of ownership
B. Rebuttable presumption of ownership
C. Disputable presumption of ownership
D. Absolute presumption of ownership
14. What does Article 437 of the Civil Code of the
Philippines state regarding land ownership?
A. The owner of a parcel of land is only the
owner of its surface.
B. The owner of a parcel of land is the owner
of its surface and everything above it.
C. The owner of a parcel of land is the
owner of its surface and everything
under it.
D. The owner of a parcel of land is not allowed
to construct any works or make plantations
and excavations on it.
15. Which of the following statements is true
regarding a duly registered trademark or
tradename?
A. It is owned by the government bureau or
office where it is registered.
B. It is owned by the person, corporation,
or firm registering the same.
C. It is owned jointly by all parties using the
trademark or tradename.
D. It is owned by the first person who uses it in
commerce.
16. How is the time of possession computed in
order to acquire easements by prescription as
stated in Article 621?
A. In positive easements, from the day the
easement was granted by the owner of the
servient estate.
B. In positive easements, from the day the
owner of the servient estate began to
exercise it.
C. In negative easements, from the day the
easement was granted by the owner of the
servient estate.
D. In negative easements, from the day the
owner of the dominant estate forbade the
act to the owner of the servient estate by
an acknowledged instrument.
17. What obligation does the owner of a piece of land
have regarding defensive works to check waters or
the reconstruction of such works due to a change in
the course of the waters?
A. The owner must make the repairs or
construction himself.
B. The owner must permit others to make
the repairs or construction at their
expense.
C. The owner is not obligated to take any
action.
D. The owner must sell the land to avoid the
obligation
18. What conditions must be met for the owner of the
servient estate to request a change in the
location or manner of an easement, according to
Article 629 of the Civil Code?
A. The owner of the servient estate must
demonstrate inconvenience or obstruction
caused by the easement.
B. The owner of the dominant estate must
initiate the request for change.
C. The owner of the servient estate must offer
an equally convenient alternative at their
expense.
D. Both a and c
19. According to art. 663 when the owner of a
building supported by a party wall desires to
demolish the building, what option does he have
regarding his part-ownership of the wall, and
what cost is he responsible for in this situation?
A. He may demolish the building without any
responsibility for the party wall.
B. He may demolish the building and retain his
part-ownership of the party wall.
C. He may demolish the building and
renounce his part-ownership of the party
wall, bearing the cost of all repairs and
work necessary to prevent any damage
caused to the party
wall by the demolition.
D. He may only demolish the building with the
consent of the other party wall owner.
20. Under Article 677, what conditions must be 25. A type of succession that which results from the
complied with before constructions can be built designation of an heir, made in a will executed in the
or plantings made near fortified places or fortresses? form prescribed by law
A. Compliance with local zoning regulations A. Legitime
B. Approval from the local government B. Testamentary Succession
C. Compliance with special laws, C. Legal/ Intestate Succession
ordinances, and regulations relating to D. Testator
fortified places or Fortresses
D. Payment of a special tax or fee 26. It is a part of the testator's property which he
cannot dispose of because the law has reserved it
21. ___________ and other real rights over property for certain heirs who are, therefore, called
are acquired and transmitted by law, by donation, by compulsory heirs.
estate and intestate succession, and in A. Legitime
consequence of certain contracts, by tradition. They B. Testamentary Succession
may also be acquired by means of prescription. C. Legal/ Intestate Succession
A. Succession D. Testator
B. Ownership
C. Donation 27. It is a type of succession that is determined by
D. Will law in the absence of a valid will.
A. Legitime
22. It is a mode of acquisition by virtue in which the B. Testamentary Succession
property, rights, and obligations to the extent of the C. Legal/ Intestate Succession
value of the inheritance of a person are transmitted D. Testator
through his death to another or others either by his
will or by operation of law. 28. "Decedent" is the general term applied to the
A. Succession person whose property is transmitted through
B. Will succession, whether or not he left a will. If he left a
C. Occupation will, he is also called the ________.
D. Donation A. Legitime
B. Testamentary Succession
23. It is an act whereby a person is permitted, with C. Legal/ Intestate Succession
the formalities prescribed by law, to control to a D. Testator
certain degree the disposition of this estate, to take
effect after his death. 29. What is the type of relationship that is constituted
A. Succession by the series of degrees among ascendants and
B. Will descendants?
C. Occupation A. Generation
D. Donation B. Heir
C. Direct
24. It is an act of liberality whereby a person D. Collateral
disposes gratuitously of a thing or right in favor of
another, who accepts it. 30. What is the type of relationship that is constituted
A. Succession by the series of degrees among persons who are not
B. Will ascendants and descendants, but who come from a
C. Occupation common ancestor?
D. Donation A. Generation
B. Heir
C. Direct
D. Collateral
31. A type of contract created by the court when no 37. __________is a juridical necessity to give, to do,
such official contract exists between the or not to do.
parties and there is a dispute between them. A. Contract
A. Quasi-Delicts B. Prestation
B. Quasi-Contracts C. Obligation
C. Antichresis D. Credit
D. Negotium Gestio
38. It is the alternative dispute resolution mechanism
32. A payment in money or in services in which parties agree to submit their legal disputes
A. Obligation to an arbitrator or panel of arbitrators instead of
B. Usurious Transactions going to court.
C. Prestation A. Arbitration
D. Consignation B. Guaranty
C. Compromise
33. In legal terms, means a contractual provision that D. Insurance
stipulates a specific penalty or consequence in case
of a breach of contract. 39. By the contract of loan, one of the parties delivers
A. Penal Clause to another, either something not consumable so that
B. Liquidated damages the latter may use the same for a certain time and
C. Payment by Cession return it, in which case the contract is called a
D. Condonation _________________?
A. Loan
34. Involves an exchange of promises or B. Lease
performances between parties typically involving an C. Commodatum
exchange of goods, services, or payments. D. Deposit
A. Onerous Contracts
B. Remuneratory Contracts 40. It is a type of security interest where a debtor (the
C. Contracts of Pure Beneficence pledgor) offers an asset or property as collateral to
D. Rescissible Contracts secure a debt or obligation owed to a creditor (the
pledgee).
35. These obligations are not founded on positive A. Pledge
law but on principles of fairness and natural justice. B. Mortgage
While they do not grant a right to enforce their C. Chattel Mortgage
performance through legal action, if the obligor D. Antichresis
voluntarily fulfills them, the recipient is authorized to
retain what has been delivered or rendered.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Unenforceable Contracts
C. Void and Inexistent Contracts
D. Natural Obligations

36. It is a legal principle that prevents a person from

asserting a claim or right that contradicts what they
have previously stated or agreed upon, especially if
others have relied on their previous words or actions.
A. Trusts
B. Estoppel
C. Beneficiary
D. Lease
BLOCK 2 Quiz 1
8. What assistance shall law enforcement agencies
1. How many full-time Commissioners are there in render concerning the regulatory law of a
the Professional Regulation Commission? profession?
A. One A. Administrative support
B. Two B. Financial assistance
C. Three C. Legal assistance
D. Four D. Enforcement assistance

2. What is the penalty for accessories involved in the 9. For how long is the Commission authorized to use
manipulation of professional examinations? its income for the computerization program?
A. Imprisonment ranging from 2 years and one A. 3 years
day to 4 years B. 10 years
B. Fine ranging from P5,000.00 to P19,000.00 C. 5 years
C. Removal from office D. 12 years
D. Both A and B
10. What is the primary purpose of the licensure
3. When do the rules and regulations, Code of examinations for architects?
Ethical Conduct, and Standards of Professional A. To ensure that architects adhere to global
Practice become effective? standards of practice.
A. Immediately upon publication B. To foster professional growth and
B. After 60 days development.
C. After 13 days C. To recognize the importance of
D. After 15 days architects in nation building.
D. To nurture competent and virtuous
4. How many regional offices does the Professional architects.
Regulation Commission have in the Philippines?
A. 6 11. How much is the Commission authorized to use
B. 10 its income for the computerization program
C. 16 annually?
D. 20 A. P50,000,000.00
B. P40,000,000.00
5. Who is responsible for verifying the registration C. P45,000,000.00
status of architects before featuring them in D. P30,000,000.00
publications or broadcasts?
A. The architects themselves 12. Which clause ensures that the guidelines
B. The readers or viewers remain valid even if certain parts are deemed
C. Authors and media personalities unconstitutional or invalid?
D. The government regulatory board A. Effectivity Clause
B. Separability Clause
6.Which laws are repealed by the enactment of the C. Repealing Clause
Modernization Act? D. Compliance Clause
A. Republic Act No. 546 only
B. Presidential Decree No. 223 only 13. They are the architect directly responsible for
C. Republic Act No. 7836 only the total design of a project and liable for plans and
D. Republic Act No. 546, Presidential specifications.
Decree No. 223, Republic Act No. 5181, A. Architecture-in-charge of construction
and others. B. Architect-of-record
C. Consulting Architect
7. Which clause ensures that the guidelines remain D. Site Architect
valid even if certain parts are deemed
unconstitutional or invalid?
A. Effectivity Clause
B. Separability Clause
C. Repealing Clause
D. Compliance Clause
14. The following are the subjects for the
examination. Which of the following is not?
A. History and Theory of Architecture;
Principles of Planning and Architectural
Practice
B. Urban Design and Architectural Interiors
C. Architectural Design and Site Planning
D. Visual Techniques
15. What happens to the remainder of the
Modernization Act if any provision is declared invalid
or unconstitutional?
A. The entire Modernization Act is invalidated.
B. The remainder of the Modernization Act
is not affected by the declaration.
C. The Modernization Act is repealed.
D. New provisions are added to the
Modernization Act.
16. What is the penalty for accessories involved in
the manipulation of professional examinations?
A. Imprisonment ranging from 2 years and one
day to 4 years
B. Fine ranging from P5,000.00 to P19,000.00
C. Removal from office
D. Both a and b
17. To be qualified as having passed the licensure
examination for architects, a candidate must obtain
a weighted general average of ____%, with no grade
lower than ____% in any given subject.
A. 60%, 75%
B. 70%, 50%
C. 75%, 60%
D. none of the above
18. The Board shall submit to the Commission the
ratings obtained by each candidate within ____
calendar days after the examination, unless
extended for just cause.
A. 30
B. 15
C. 31
D. 28
19. What penalty may be imposed on a person who
manipulates licensure examination results?
A. Imprisonment of 3 years
B. Imprisonment of 6 years and one day to
12 years
C. Fine of P10,000.00
D. Both a and c
20. This encompasses planning, design,
supervision, and administration related to building
construction. Architects coordinate processes,
engage in consultations, and prepare detailed
specifications. This practice applies globally,
regardless of residency, and architects may lead
projects individually or within organizations.
A. General Agreement in Architecture
B. General Practice of Architecture
C. General Provision of Architecture
D. General Agreement of Architects
21. The following act/s is/are prohibited in the
practice of architecture.
A. Offering architectural services without being
registered/licensed, or does not hold a
temporary/special permit
B. Using a forged/fake Certificate of
Registration or PRC ID
C. Impersonating a registered and licensed
Architect using his/her name or a different
name
D. All of the above
22. What should a foreign national (allowed to
engage in the practice of architecture in the
Philippines) get in order to avoid and protect
themself against accusations of negligence?
A. Professional Liability Insurance
B. Malpractice Insurance
C. Philhealth ID
D. Both A & B
23.All successful candidates in the examination shall
be required to take an_____ of profession before
any member of the Board, any government official
authorized by the Commission or any person
authorized by law to administer this, prior to entering
upon the practice of the profession.
A. Issuance of Certificates of Registration
B. Professional Identification Card
C. Seal
D. Oath
24. What is the primary duty of the Commission and
the Board concerning the enforcement of this Act?
A. To provide legal advice.
B. To render assistance to law enforcement
agencies.
C. To prosecute violators.
D. To declare unconstitutional clauses.
25. What discrepancy did PRC BOA Resolution No.
01 (S. 2000) acknowledge regarding the
implementation of the requirement for diversified
experience?
A. Lack of mentor information
B. Absence of training period details
C. Insufficient hours rendered documentation
D. All of the above

True or False

False 26. The licensure exam does not need to

be related to the syllabus of CHED.
False 27. There are 46 professions that have a
PRBo.
True 28. You can file a case to the PRC
regarding licenses.
True 29. PRC has the right to keep a database
on those who took and will take license
exams.
True 30. PRBo can inquire for help from other
institutions regarding filled cases related to
the license.
False 31. The law is called the PCR
Modernization Act Dec 50 2000.
False 32. If one part of the law is not related to
the case the case is still valid.
False 33. The PRBo alone can suspend
licenses.
BLOCK 2 Quiz 2
1. Refers to learning activities such as online
training, local/international seminars/non degree
courses, institution/company-sponsored training
programs, and the like, which did not undergo CPD
accreditation but maybe applied for and awarded
CPD units by the respective CPD Council.
A. Formal learning;
B. Non Formal learning;
C. Informal learning;
D. Self-directed learning;
2. The members of the Commission as well as the
chairperson, vice chairperson and members of the
PRBS:
A. are disqualified as an Individual CPD
provider, or as an incorporator, partner or
officer of a Firm Partnership / Corporation
offering CPD programs during their
incumbency. This prohibition extends to
members of their families and relatives
within the fourth degree of consanguinity or
affinity. Further, this disqualification extends
until three years from their separation from
the
B. are qualified as an Individual CPD provider,
or as an incorporator, partner or officer of a
Firm Partnership / Corporation offering CPD
programs during their incumbency.
C. are disqualified as an Individual CPD
provider, or as an incorporator, partner
or officer of a Firm Partnership /
Corporation offering CPD programs
during their incumbency. This
prohibition extends to members of their
families and relatives within the fourth
degreAe of consanguinity or affinity.
Further, this disqualification extends
until one year from their separation from
the service.
D. are disqualified as an Individual CPD
provider, or as an incorporator, partner or
officer of a Firm Partnership / Corporation
offering CPD programs during their
incumbency. This prohibition does not
extends to members of their families and
relatives within the fourth degree of
consanguinity or affinity.
3. The term "intellectual property rights" consists of
the following, except;
A. Patents
B. Graphic Design
C. Layout-Designs (Topographies) of
Integrated Circuits
D. Protection of Undisclosed Information
4. Which Bureau hear and decide opposition to the
application for registration of marks; cancellation of
trademarks; subject to the provisions of Section 64,
cancellation of patents, utility models, and industrial
designs; and petitions for compulsory licensing of
patents;
A. The Bureau of Patents;
B. The Bureau of Trademarks;
C. The Bureau of Legal Affairs;
D. The Documentation, Information and
Technology Transfer Bureau;
5. Refers to the formal or official approval granted to
a person, a program or an organization, upon
meeting essential requirements of achievement
standards, including qualifications or unit(s) of a
qualification, usually for a particular period of time,
as defined by an accrediting agency.
A. Accreditation
B. Continuing Professional Development or
CPD
C. Competence
D. Certificate of Credit Units (“CCU”)
6. Under Section 7.3. “Term of Office”, The Director
General and the Deputies Director General shall
be appointed by the President for a term of five (5)
years and shall be eligible for reappointment only
once: Provided, That the first Director General shall
have a first term of how many years?
A. Five
B. Six
C. Seven
D. Eight
7. According to Section 7. CPD Council. The
chairperson of the CPD Council shall be the member
of the PRB so chosen by the PRB concerned to sit
in the CPD Council and the following functions:
A. The second member shall be the president
or officer of the AIPO/APO duly authorized
by its Board of Governors/Trustees. In the
absence of the AIPO/APO, the PRB
concerned shall submit within ten working
days from notification of such absence, a list
of three recommendees from the national
professional organizations. The PRC shall
designate the first member within thirty days
from receipt of the list.
B. The first member shall be the president or
officer of the national organization of deans
or department chairpersons of schools,
colleges or universities offering the course
requiring the licensure examination. In the
 absence of such organization, the PRB 11. Refers to a status gained after a person has
concerned shall submit, within ten working been assessed to have achieved learning
days from notification of such absence, a list outcomes or competencies in accordance with the
of three recommendees from the academe. standard specified for a qualification title and is
The PRC shall designate the second proven by a document issued by a recognized
member within twenty working days from agency or body.
receipt of the list. A. Professional
C. The CPD Council member sitting as B. Qualification
representative of the APO/AIPO or the C. Quality
academe can participate in the deliberation D. Prior Learning
where the application of the APO/AIPO or
the academe as CPD provider or any of its 12. The implementing rules and regulation (IRR)
CPD program is under evaluation. shall be published by the PRC and the PRBs, in
D. The CPD Council shall hold regular consultation with
meetings once a month on dates to be A. PRCBOA
fixed by them. Special meetings may be B. AIPO/APO
called by the CPD Council Chairperson C. CPD Council
or upon written request of a member of a D. Board Members
CPD Council at least three days prior to
the said meeting 13. Who owns the right to a patent if an invention is
jointly made by two or more persons?
8. In which situation is the importation of a copy of a A. Only the first person who filed the
work permitted without the authorization of the application
copyright owner? B. Each person individually
A. For personal use if copies are C. The person with the most significant
unavailable in the Philippines contribution
B. For educational institutions regardless of D. All of the above
availability
C. For commercial resale purposes 14. What is the renewal period for certificates of
D. For distribution to libraries only registration?
A. Five years
9. A national system for developing, recognizing, B. Ten years
and awarding qualifications based on standards C. Fifteen years
acquired through different methods. D. Twenty years
A. Philippine Qualifications Framework
(PQF) 15. What action can the court take in case of
B. Continuing Professional Development infringement?
(CPD) A. Issue a warning
C. ASEAN Mutual Recognition Arrangement B. Impose a fine
(ASEANMRA) C. Grant an injunction
D. ASEAN Qualifications Reference D. None of the above
Framework (AQRF)
16. This Section is about the Act repealing or
10. What does the term "Bureau" refer to in the modifying all laws, decrees, executive orders, and
context of patent matters? other administrative issuances, or portions of them,
A. The Director of Patents that conflict with its requirements.
B. The Patent examiner A. Effectivity
C. The Bureau of Patents B. Separability
D. The Director General C. Repealing
D. Fraud Relating to CPD

17. Under the CPD Provider Completion Report

(Section 5), the submission of the Completion
Report shall be attached in what Annex?
A. Annex A
B. Annex B
 C. Annex C
D. Annex K
18. According to Section 61.1 of RA 8293, who can
file a petition to cancel a patent in the Philippines?
A. The Director of Legal Affairs of the IPO
B. Anyone with an interest in the patent
C. Only the true inventor
D. Anyone
19. What is NOT a ground for canceling a patent
according to Section 61.1 of RA 8293?
A. The invention is already known to the public
B. The patent description is unclear
C. The invention is useful
D. The invention violates public order or
morality
20. Sustainable Structures, Disaster Resilience,
Green Architecture, and Renewable Energy are
CPD programs that falls under what category?
A. Design
B. Practice
C. Environment and Sustainability
D. Others
21. Which chapter of the Intellectual Property Code
of the Philippines deals with compulsory licensing?
A. Chapter X
B. Chapter XI
C. Chapter XII
D. Chapter XIII
22. Based on the section on trademarks, service
marks, and trade names, what is the consequence
of not filing a declaration of actual use within three
years of a trademark application?
A. The mark will be automatically assigned to a
competitor.
B. The applicant will need to pay a higher
registration fee.
C. The application will be converted into a
utility model application.
D. The registration will be cancelled.
23. Which date is NOT included for the Renewal of
PIC in the transitory period?
A. July – December 2016
B. January – June 2017
C. January – December 2018
D. January 2019 – onwards
TRUE OR FALSE
True 24. According to RA 8293, patents protect
inventions or discoveries, granting the
patent holder exclusive rights to use and
sell the invention for a limited period.
True 25. Under the CPD Act of 2016, the
Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC) is responsible for accrediting CPD
providers and programs.
True 26.infringement is the unauthorized use of
intellectual property.
True 27.Industrial designs, under RA 8293, refer
to the aesthetic or ornamental aspects of
articles, granting their creators exclusive
rights to reproduce and distribute them.
False 28. The CPD Act of 2016 requires
professionals to complete a minimum of
120 CPD units within a two-year cycle, with
at least 30 units earned from accredited
activities, to renew their licenses, while the
remaining 90 units can be obtained through
self-directed learning.
False 29.According to RA 8293, intellectual
property rights are granted indefinitely,
without any limitations on their duration.
False 30.The CPD Act of 2016 allows
professionals to renew their licenses
without completing any CPD units if they
can demonstrate significant contributions to
their field through published works or
patents.
False 31. Under RA 8293, the protection of
intellectual property rights extends to ideas
and concepts themselves, regardless of
their expression in tangible form.false
True 32. Failure to comply with CPD
requirements may result in the non-renewal
or suspension of a professional license
under the CPD Act of 2016.
False 33. According to the CPD Act of 2016,
professionals can obtain CPD units by
attending social events and networking
activities relevant to their field, even if they
are not officially accredited by the
Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC).

BLOCK 2 Group 5
. According to the provided explanation, what does
Republic Act No. 386, known as the
"Civil Code of the Philippines," regulate?
A) Criminal matters
B) Civil relations, rights, and obligations
C) Political activities
D) Economic policies
2. In the context of professional practice, what is
emphasized by Article 19 of the Civil
Code?
A) The importance of confidentiality
B) The need for continuous professional
development
C) The obligation to act with justice and
honesty
D) The necessity of seeking legal advice
3. What does Article 20 of the Civil Code state
regarding individuals who cause harm to
others?
A)They must indemnify the affected party if
the harm was caused
negligently or willfully.
B) They are not held accountable if the harm
was unintentional.
C) They are automatically exempt from any
liability.
D) They can only be held liable if the harm
resulted from intentional actions.
4. According to Article 21 of the Civil Code, what
should professionals consider when
conducting their work?
A) Personal interests
B) Legal regulations only
C) Morals, good customs, and public policy
D) Professional reputation only
5. What is the significance of ethical obligations in
professional practice, as outlined by the
Civil Code?
A) They are not relevant to professional
conduct.
B) They only apply to certain professions.
C) They limit professional autonomy.
D) They ensure accountability and
trustworthiness
6. Under the Civil Code, what standard of care is
expected from professionals?
A) Exceptional skill and care
B) Average skill and care
C) Minimal effort
D) No standard is specified
7. How does the Civil Code address contractual
obligations in professional relationships?
A) By providing exemptions for professionals
B) By emphasizing flexibility in contracts
C) By requiring professionals to fulfill their
contractual duties
D) By prohibiting contracts in professional
settings
8. What role do professionals often play in dispute
resolution, according to the Civil Code?
A) They are prohibited from involvement in
disputes.
B) They facilitate negotiations between
parties.
C) They have no influence on the resolution
process.
D) They act as judges in legal proceedings.
9. What penalty may professionals face for acting
unethically, as per the Civil Code?
A) No penalty is specified
B) Monetary fines only
C) Exemplary damages
D) Suspension of professional license
10. What is the purpose of Article 386 of the Civil
Code, as explained in the introduction?
A) To establish criminal penalties
B) To regulate political activities
C) To provide a legal framework for civil
matters
D) To govern economic policies
11. Article 19 marks the beginning of a chapter in the
Civil Code entitled?
A) Human Relation
B) Human Relations
C) Humans Relation
D) Humans Relations
12. Architects have a role to play in addressing
social and environmental issues through
their work.
A) Honesty and Good Faith
B) Equitable Design
C) Social Responsibility
D) Professionalism and Ethics
13. Architects must accurately present their
qualifications and capabilities, providing truthful
and transparent information to clients and
stakeholders.
 A) Honesty and Good Faith C) Article 1174
B) Equitable Design D) Article 20
C) Social Responsibility
D) Professionalism and Ethics
20. What Article does this belong: Every obligation
14. Architects must act ethically in their interactions whose performance does not depend
with clients, colleagues, and the public, upon a future or uncertain event, or upon a past
and they should prioritize the interests of their event unknown to the parties, is
clients. demandable at once?
A) Honesty and Good Faith A) Article 21
B) Equitable Design B) Article 1173
C) Social Responsibility C) Article 1174
D) Professionalism and Ethics D) None of the Above

15. Architects have a responsibility to design spaces 21. According to Article 1159, what force do
that are just and fair for all users. This obligations arising from contracts have?
includes considering accessibility for people with A) Moral force
disabilities B) Legal force
A) Honesty and Good Faith C) Voluntary force
B) Equitable Design D) Ethical force
C) Social Responsibility
D) Professionalism and Ethics 22. How is an obligation defined in contrast to a
contract?
16. What Article states this: "The creditor has a right A) By meeting of the minds
to the fruits of the thing from the time B) By judicial necessity
the obligation to deliver it arises. However, he shall C) By moral obligations
acquire no real right over it until the D) By contractual duties
same has been delivered to him."?
A) Article 1167 23. What conditions make an obligation binding
B) Article 1160 according to the article?
C) Article 1164 A) Violation of law only
D) Article 1172 B) Violation of morality only
C) Violation of law, morality, or public policy
17. What is the legal situation that arises when D) Violation of tradition only
someone does something for the benefit of
another person without a formal agreement in place? 24. What actions make someone liable for damages
A) Casual Contract according to Article 1170?
B) Adhesion Contract A) Fraud, negligence, or delay
C) Quasi-contract B) Honesty, diligence, and timeliness
D) Unilateral Contract C) Good faith and compliance
D) Contractual disputes only
18. TRUE OR FALSE: "Those who in the
performance of their obligations are guilty of fraud, 25. How is fraud defined in Article 1170?
negligence, or delay, and those who in any manner A) Honest representation
contravene the tenor thereof, are not B) Deceptive representation
liable for damages." C) Concealing information
A) TRUE D) Misleading allegations
B) FALSE
C) SOMETIMES TRUE 26. What behavior constitutes negligence according
D) SOMETIMES FALSE to the article?
A) Behaving prudently
19. It imposes a legal obligation on individuals to B) Exercising due diligence
compensate others for any harm or C) Safeguarding others from harm
damage they cause through their actions. D) Falling below legal standards for
A) Article 1168 safeguarding others
B) Article 19
27. In Article 1173, what does the fault or negligence
of the obligor consist of?
A) Acting in good faith
B) Exceeding the duty's requirements
C) Omitting required diligence
D) Following contractual obligations
28. When does the standard of care become that of
a "good father of a family" according to
Article 1173?
A) When specified by law
B) When not specified by law or contract
C) When specified by the contract
D) When specified by the parties involved
29. What determines the level of diligence required
in performing an obligation according to
Article 1173?
A) The nature of the duty
B) The time and place
C) The people involved
D) All of the above
30. According to the article, what standard should
the level of care correspond to?
A) That of a reasonable person
B) That of a prudent individual
C) That of a professional
D) That of a contractual agreement
31. In what cases can a person be held responsible
for events that could not be foreseen?
A) Only when expressly specified by the law
B) Only when declared by stipulation
C) Both when expressly specified by the law
and when declared by stipulation
D) None of the above
32. What is the condition under which a person is
obliged to pay for damage done?
A) When the damage could have been foreseen
B) When the damage was inevitable
C) When there is fault or negligence involved
D) When the nature of the obligation
necessitates payment
33. According to Article 1174, who is exempted from
responsibility for unforeseen events?
A) Anyone acting under a contractual obligation
B) Anyone acting under a legal obligation
C) No person is exempted
D) Persons who have declared their
assumption of risk
34. What does Article 2176 demand regarding
responsibility for acts or omissions?
A) It demands payment for damages caused by
unforeseen events
B) It demands payment only for one's own acts
or omissions
C) It demands payment for acts or omissions
of persons for whom one is responsible
D) It absolves individuals from responsibility for
any acts or omissions
35. Who is responsible for events that were foreseen
but inevitable?
A) Only the person directly involved
B) Only the person responsible for the obligation
C) Both the person directly involved and the
person responsible for the obligation
D) None of the above
36. What does Article 1174 specify about the
responsibility for unforeseeable events?
A) It imposes strict liability
B) It absolves individuals from any
responsibility
C) It requires assumption of risk
D) It requires payment for damage done
37. Who is demandable for the obligation imposed
by Article 2176 according to Article 1174?
A) Only the person directly involved
B) Only the person responsible for the obligation
C) Both the person directly involved and the
person responsible for the obligation
D) None of the above
38. What is the significance of "nature of the
obligation requires the assumption of risk"?
A) It extends liability to unforeseeable
events
B) It limits liability to foreseeable events
C) It clarifies the type of obligation being
discussed
D) It absolves parties from responsibility
39. What is necessary for a person to be responsible
for damage caused by fault or
negligence?
A) The damage must be inevitable
B) The damage must be unforeseeable
C) There must be fault or negligence
involved
D) None of the above
40. How does Article 1174 define the responsibility
for damage caused by acts or
omissions?
A) It imposes strict liability regardless of fault
B) It requires proof of intent to cause harm
C) It obliges payment for the damage done
D) It absolves individuals from any liability
 7. Which clause ensures that the guidelines remain
BLOCK 3 Quiz 1 valid even if certain parts are deemed
unconstitutional or invalid?
1. A post-baccalaureate, pre-licensure experience of A. Effectivity Clause
2 years required of a graduate of architecture prior B. Separability Clause
to taking the licensure examination, consisting of a C. Repealing Clause
variation of experiences in the different phases of D. Compliance Clause
architectural service.
A. Architectural Experience 8. What assistance shall law enforcement agencies
B. Architectural Specialization render concerning the regulatory law of a
C. Diversified Architectural Experience profession?
D. Diversified Architectural Specialization A. Administrative support
B. Financial assistance
2. What is the penalty for accessories involved in the C. Legal assistance
manipulation of professional examinations? D. Enforcement assistance
A. Imprisonment ranging from 2 years and one
day to 4 years 9. For how long is the Commission authorized to use
B. Fine ranging from P5,000.00 to P19,000.00 its income for the computerization program?
C. Removal from office A. 3 years
D. Both a and b B. 10 years
C. 5 years
3. When do the rules and regulations, Code of D. 12 years
Ethical Conduct, and Standards of Professional
Practice become effective? 10. What is the primary purpose of the licensure
A. Immediately upon publication examinations for architects?
B. After 60 days A. To ensure that architects adhere to global
C. After 13 days standards of practice.
D. After 15 days B. To foster professional growth and
development.
4. How many regional offices does the Professional C. To recognize the importance of
Regulation Commission have in the Philippines? architects in nation building.
A. 6 D. To nurture competent and virtuous
B. 10 architects.
C. 16
D. 20 11. How much is the Commission authorized to use
its income for the computerization program
5. Who is responsible for verifying the registration annually?
status of architects before featuring them in A. P50,000,000.00
publications or broadcasts? B. P40,000,000.00
A. The architects themselves C. P45,000,000.00
B. The readers or viewers D. P30,000,000.00
C. Authors and media personalities
D. The government regulatory board 12. SPLBE stands for:
A. Special Professional Licensure Board
6.Which laws are repealed by the enactment of the Examinations
Modernization Act? B. Senior Practice Licensure Board
A. Republic Act No. 546 only Examinations
B. Presidential Decree No. 223 only C. Specific Partnership Licensure Board
C. Republic Act No. 7836 only Examinations
D. Republic Act No. 546, Presidential D. Selective Performance Licensure Board
Decree No. 223, Republic Act No. 5181, Examinations
and others.
13. It pertains to the existing official national
organization of all architects of the Philippines in
which all registered Filipino architects shall be
members without prejudice to membership in other
voluntary professional associations;
A. Continuing Professional Development
B. Securities of Exchange
C. Commission
D. Integrated and Accredited Professional
Organization of Architects
14. Which of the following entities is required to
renew their registration every three (3) years?
A. Individual architects only
B. Architectural partnerships only
C. Architectural firms, companies,
partnerships, corporations, or
associations
D. Non-registered and non-licensed persons
involved in architectural practice
15. What happens to the remainder of the
Modernization Act if any provision is declared invalid
or unconstitutional?
A. The entire Modernization Act is invalidated.
B. The remainder of the Modernization Act
is not affected by the declaration.
C. The Modernization Act is repealed.
D. New provisions are added to the
Modernization Act.
16. What action can the Board take against
architectural firms or entities found violating
the rules and regulations?
A. Issue a warning letter.
B. Offer a grace period for compliance.
C. Suspend or revoke the Certificate of
Registration
D. Impose a fine without further consequences.
17. What permit is required for foreign architects to
be allowed to engage in professional architecture
projects in the Philippines?
A. Special/Temporary Permit
B. Sanitary Permit
C. Safety Permit
D. Sales Tax Permit
18. What is the acronym of CPD in Section 28 Article
IV?
A. Continuing Professional Development
B. Certificate in Professional Development
C. Community Planning & Development
D. Campus Planning Design
19. FOP stands for:
A. Final on Practice
B. Finance on Permits
C. Formality of Performance
D. Field of Practice
20. The following are qualifications of being a
member of the Professional Regulatory Board
except one.
A. Be a citizen and resident of the Philippines.
B. Be a holder of a degree in Bachelor of
Science in Architecture conferred by a
school, college or university in the
Philippines or abroad that is recognized
and/or accredited by the Commission on
Higher Education (CHED).
C. Has never been convicted of any crime
involving moral turpitude.
D. Be at least 24 years of age.
21.In case of a vacancy in the PRBoA, how are
replacements appointed?
A. By the President of the Philippines
B. By the IAPOA through an election
C. By the PRC Chairman
D. By the Secretary of the DPWH
22. In Rule IV of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, what
action must a non-registered architectural firm or
entity take upon receipt of a written notice of non-
registration from the Board?
A. Continue operating without changes.
B. Immediately apply for registration
C. File an appeal with the Board.
D. Cease engagement in the practice of
architecture.
23.All successful candidates in the examination shall
be required to take an_____ of profession before
any member of the Board, any government official
authorized by the Commission or any person
authorized by law to administer this, prior to entering
upon the practice of the profession.
A. Issuance of Certificates of Registration
B. Professional Identification Card
C. Seal
D. Oath
24. What is the primary duty of the Commission and
the Board concerning the enforcement of this Act?
A. To provide legal advice.
B. To render assistance to law enforcement
agencies.
C. To prosecute violators.
D. To declare unconstitutional clauses.
25. What discrepancy did PRC BOA Resolution No.
01 (S. 2000) acknowledge regarding the
implementation of the requirement for diversified
experience?
A. Lack of mentor information
B. Absence of training period details
C. Insufficient hours rendered documentation
D. All of the above

True or False

False 26. The licensure exam does not need to

be related to the syllabus of CHED.
False 27. There are 46 professions that have a
PRBo.
True 28. You can file a case to the PRC
regarding licenses.
True 29. PRC has the right to keep a database
on those who took and will take license
exams.
True 30. PRBo can inquire for help from other
institutions regarding filled cases related to
the license.
False 31. The law is called the PCR
Modernization Act Dec 50 2000.
False 32. If one part of the law is not related to
the case the case is still valid.
False 33. The PRBo alone can suspend
licenses.
BLOCK 3 Quiz 2
1. What types of cases does the Bureau of Legal
Affairs hear and decide on?
A. Only trademark registration
B. Only patent cancellations
C. Opposition to trademark registration,
cancellation of trademarks, and more
D. Only utility model applications
2. This is an act mandating and strengthening the
continuing professional development program for all
regulated professions, creating the continuing
professional development council, appropriating
funds therefore, and for other related purposes.
A. Republic Act No. 11902
B. Republic Act No. 10912
C. Republic Act No. 1032
D. Republic Act No. 1203
3. What functions shall the Patent and Trademark
Administration Services perform among others?
A. Maintain registers of assignments, merging,
licenses, and bibliographic on patents and
trademarks
B. Collect maintenance fees, issue certified
copies of documents in its custody and
perform similar other activities
C. Hold in custody all the applications filed with
the office, and all patent grants, certificate of
registrations issued by the office, and the
like
D. All of the above
4. The quality assured national system for the
development, recognition, and award of
qualifications at defined levels, based on standards
of knowledge, skills, and values, acquired in different
ways and methods by learners and workers.
A. Pathways and Equivalencies
B. Quality Assurance
C. Qualification
D. Philippine Qualification Framework
5. All matters required to be published under this Act
shall be published in the Office's own publication to
be known as the ______.
A. Watermark
B. Logo of the Office
C. Seal of Office
D. The IPO Gazette
6. The Director General shall exercise the following
powers and functions EXCEPT:
A. Manage and direct all functions and
activities of the Office, including the
promulgation of rules and regulations to
implement the objectives, policies, plans,
programs and projects of the Office.
B. Coordination with other agencies of
government in relation to the
enforcement of intellectual property
rights.
C. Establish policies and standards for the
effective, efficient, and economical
operations of the department in accordance
with government programs.
D. Prioritizing the establishment of fees for the
filing and processing of an application for a
patent, utility model or industrial design or
7. Refers to the card bearing the registration
number, dates of issuance and expiry, duly signed
by the Chairperson of the Commission issued to a
registered professional upon payment of fees.
A. Professional Regulatory Card
B. Professional Identification Card
C. Identification Card
D. Certificate of Registration Card
8. One of the following QUALIFICATION is that the
Director General and the Deputies Director General
must be natural born citizens of the Philippines, and
at least of the age of?
A. 45 years of age
B. 35 years of age
C. 55 years of age
D. 25 years of age
9. Under the Republic Act 8293 The Intellectual
Property Code, what Section contains The Bureau
of Patents?
A. Section 9
B. Section 7
C. Section 5
D. Section 8
10. On the Administrative level; Which aspect of
infrastructure is focused on through the procurement
of facilities/equipment and allocation of working
space?
A. Upgrading of Physical Infrastructure
B. Enhancement of IT infrastructure
C. Improvement of human infrastructure
D. Communication drive
11. The first Director General shall have a first term
of ________ years. Appointment to any vacancy
shall be only for the unexpired term of the
predecessor.
A. Eleven (11) years
B. Eighteen (18) years
C. Seven (7) years
D. Two (2) years
12. The Bureau of Trademarks conduct studies and
research in the field of trademarks in order to assist
the Director General in formulating policies on the?
A. Administration and examination of
trademarks.
B. Administration of fees and Trademarks
C. Administration of tax and revenue
D. Administration of Legal examinations of
transaction
13. In Section 8.2.4 Accreditation of CPD Programs;
When applying for accreditation of a program to the
CPD Council, what information should the CPD
provider indicate for monitoring purposes?
A. The number of participants in the program
B. The location of the program
C. The duration of the program
D. The number of times the program will be
offered
14. Related Rights shall be appealable to the Court
of Appeals in accordance with the Rules of Court;
and those in respect of the decisions of the Director
of Documentation, Information and Technology
Transfer Bureau shall be appealable to the?
A. Secretary of Department of Justice
B. President of the Philippines
C. Secretary of Trade and Industry
D. International Trademark officer
15. What does the “Office” refer to under this Act?
A. Intellectual Understanding
B. Intellectual Property Rights
C. Intellectual Property Bureau
D. Intellectual Property Office
16. Refers to contracts or agreements involving the
transfer of systematic knowledge for the
manufacture of a product, the application of a
process, or rendering of a service including
management contracts; and the transfer,
assignment or licensing of all forms of intellectual
property rights, including licensing of computer
software except computer software developed for
mass market.
A. Intellectual Transfer Arrangements
B. Transfer of Documents Agency
C. Technology Transfer Arrangements
D. Contract and Sales Management
17. What is a Mandatory requirement in the renewal
of the Professional Identification Cards (PICs) of
registered and licensed professionals under the
regulation of the Commission?
A. Continuing Professional Development
(CPD)
B. Professional Examination
C. Work Experience
D. Training Seminars
18. In Section 5. Rule 14. Presumptive Approval:
What happens to CPD programs that are duly
submitted for accreditation if no feedback is received
from the CPD Council after 10 (Ten) working days?
A. They are automatically rejected
B. They are deemed approved
C. They are put on hold indefinitely
D. They are returned to the CPD providers for
revision
19. In which type of agreement is Continuing
Professional Development (CPD) a recognition and
eligibility requirement for professionals intending to
practice in certain countries?
A. Bilateral agreements
B. Unilateral agreements
C. Multilateral agreements
D. Non-agreements
20. This sector conducts studies and research in the
field of patents to assist the Director General in
formulating policies on the administration and
examination of patents.
A. Bureau of Immigration
B. Bureau of Internal Revenue
C. Bureau of Customs
D. Bureau of Patents
21. In Annex “A” on the administrative level; What
is the purpose of establishing the CPD
Accreditation System as part of the enhancement
of IT infrastructure?
A. To provide free CPD courses for
professionals
B. To facilitate online CPD transactions like
filing of applications for accreditation
C. To create a social media platform for
professionals to connect
D. To organize physical CPD events only
22. This sector accepts, review, and decide on
applications for accreditation of collective
management organizations or similar entities
A. Bureau of Copyright and Other Related
Rights
B. Bureau of Trade and Industry
C. Bureau of Treasury
D. Bureau of Finance and Statistics
23. Intellectual Property Rights consist of...?
A. Copyright and Related Rights,
Trademarks and Service Marks,
Geographic Indications, Industrial
Designs
B. Copyright Rights, Trademarks and
Geographic Designs, Industrial Designs
C. Trademarks and Service Marks, Mountain
Range, Circuit Designs
D. Copyright and Related Patents, Services,
Geography, Industrial Work
TRUE OR FALSE
False 28. The CPD Act of 2016 requires
professionals to complete a minimum of
120 CPD units within a two-year cycle, with
at least 30 units earned from accredited
activities, to renew their licenses, while the
remaining 90 units can be obtained through
self-directed learning.
False 29.According to RA 8293, intellectual
property rights are granted indefinitely,
without any limitations on their duration.
False 30.The CPD Act of 2016 allows
professionals to renew their licenses
without completing any CPD units if they
can demonstrate significant contributions to
their field through published works or
patents.
False 31. Under RA 8293, the protection of
intellectual property rights extends to ideas
and concepts themselves, regardless of
their expression in tangible form.
True 32. Failure to comply with CPD
requirements may result in the non-renewal
or suspension of a professional license
under the CPD Act of 2016.
False 33. According to the CPD Act of 2016,
professionals can obtain CPD units by
attending social events and networking
activities relevant to their field, even if they
are not officially accredited by the
Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC).

True 24. According to RA 8293, patents protect

inventions or discoveries, granting the
patent holder exclusive rights to use and
sell the invention for a limited period.
True 25. Under the CPD Act of 2016, the
Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC) is responsible for accrediting CPD
providers and programs.
True 26.infringement is the unauthorized use of
intellectual property.
True 27.Industrial designs, under RA 8293, refer
to the aesthetic or ornamental aspects of
articles, granting their creators exclusive
rights to reproduce and distribute them.
BLOCK 3 Group 5 7. According to Article 1350, in which type of contract
is the cause understood to be the
1. According to Article 1173, what constitutes the
prestation or promise of a thing or service by the
fault or negligence of the obligor?
other party?
a) Failure to disclose facts
a) Onerous contracts
b) Taking improper advantage of power
b) Remuneratory contracts
c) Omission of diligence required by the
c) Pure beneficence contracts
nature of the obligation
d) Voidable contracts
d) Usurious transactions
8. What does Article 1364 state as a reason for the
2. What standard of care is required of a person
courts to order the reformation of an
obligated to give something, as per Article
instrument?
1163?
a) Mutual mistake of the parties
a) Proper diligence of a good father of a
b) Fraudulent action by one party
family
c) Lack of skill or negligence in drafting the
b) Ordinary care
instrument
c) Care of a reasonable person
d) Failure of the instrument to disclose the real
d) Expert care
agreement
3. Under what circumstances are individuals liable
9. According to Article 1371, what is principally
for damages, as stated in Article 1170?
considered to judge the intention of the
a) Fraud, negligence, or undue influence
contracting parties?
b) Delay, negligence, or fraud
a) Written terms of the contract
c) Exaggerations in trade
b) Oral agreements made during negotiation
d) Fraud, negligence, or delay
c) Contemporaneous and subsequent acts
d) Testimony of witnesses
4. The fundamental prerequisites for a contract's
10. Which principle is mentioned in Article 1375
existence, as outlined in Article 1318, are?
regarding the interpretation of words in a
a) Offer, acceptance, and consideration
contract?
b) Consent, object certainty, and cause of
a) Literal interpretation
the obligation
b) Interpretation most in keeping with the
c) Mutual agreement, performance, and
nature and object of the contract
enforcement
c) Interpretation in favor of the party who caused
d) Registration with the court
obscurity
d) Interpretation favoring the party with greater
5. As stated in Article 1315, at what point in the
legal expertise
process do contracts reach a state of perfection
and become legally binding?
11. According to Article 1380, under what
a) By mere consent
circumstances may contracts validly agreed upon be
b) By payment of consideration
rescinded?
c) By signing a written agreement
a) When there has been a mutual mistake of the
d) By performance of all obligations
parties
b) When there has been undue influence by one
6. According to the provisions delineated in Article
party
1338, what specific actions or behaviors are
c) When there has been a failure to express the
`deemed to qualify as constituting fraudulence within
true intention of the parties
the context of the legal framework?
d) When there has been fraud, mistake, or
a) Taking improper advantage of power
undue influence
b) Failure to disclose facts
c) Usual exaggerations in trade
12. What type of contracts are listed in Article 1390
d) Insidious words or machinations inducing
as voidable or annullable, even without
a contract
harm to the contracting parties?
 a) Onerous contracts
b) Gratuitous contracts
c) Rescissible contracts
d) Inadequate contracts
13. According to Article 1723, within what period
must the action for damages due to defects in
construction be brought following the collapse of a
building?
a) Five years
b) Ten years
c) Fifteen years
d) Twenty years
14. What does Liquidated Damages mean?
a) Liquidated damages refer to the
predetermined sum of money agreed upon
by parties in a contract as compensation for
a specific breach of contract.
b) Liquidated damages are funds set aside by a
company for potential losses in case of a
sudden market downturn.
c) Liquidated damages are damages caused by
a spillage of liquid substances during
transportation or handling, resulting in financial
loss.
d) Liquidated damages are penalties imposed
by a court for criminal actions involving the
illegal sale of alcoholic beverages.
15. According to Art. 204, By guaranty a person,
called the_______, binds himself to the
creditor to fulfill the obligation of the principal debtor
in case the latter should fail to do so.
a) guarantee
b) guarantist
c) guarantor
d) guarantinator
16. These shall be liable for damages for the death
of, or injuries suffered by, any person by
reason of the defective condition of roads, streets,
bridges, public buildings, and other public
works under their control or supervision, EXCEPT?
a) Provinces
b) Districts
c) Cities
d) Municipalities
17. In this Article it states that “The same persons
who may enter into a compromise may
submit their controversies to one or more arbitrators
for decision”. What article is it?
a) Art. 2042
b) Art. 2937
c) Art. 2043
d) Art. 2938
18. These two articles governed Article 2171, where
the rights and obligations of the finder of
lost personal property.
a) Articles 619 and 620
b) Articles 613 and 614
c) Articles 719 and 720
d) Articles 713 and 714
19. In legal terms, what do exemplary or corrective
damages serve as, according to Article
2229?
a) Exemplary or corrective damages are
imposed solely for the benefit of the affected
parties.
b) Exemplary or corrective damages are
punitive measures meant to bankrupt the
defendant.
c) Exemplary or corrective damages are
imposed as a form of public deterrence or
education, in addition to other types of
damages like moral, temperate, liquidated,
or compensatory damages.
d) Exemplary or corrective damages are only
applicable in cases involving physical injury or
property damage.
20. According to Art. 2046, how are the appointment
of arbitrators and the procedure for arbitration
governed?
a) They are governed by the provisions of
rules of court promulgated by the Supreme
Court.
b) They are determined solely by the parties
involved in the arbitration.
c) They are subject to the discretion of the
President of the country.
d) They are outlined in the Constitution of the
Philippines.
21. According to Art. 2192, if damages result from a
defect in construction mentioned in Article
1723, who can the third person suffering damages
proceed against?
a) The owner of the property
b) The local government authority
 c) Any third party involved in the construction
process
d) The engineer, architect, or contractor
involved in the construction
22. What defines an aleatory contract according to
Art. 2010?
a) An aleatory contract is one where both parties
agree to perform their obligations
simultaneously, without regard to any uncertain
events.
b) An aleatory contract involves one party
committing to give or do something in
exchange for something the other party will
give or do, dependent on an uncertain event
or one occurring at an indeterminate time.
c) An aleatory contract is characterized by the
exchange of goods or services that are
guaranteed to be of equal value, regardless of
any uncertain events.
d) An aleatory contract pertains exclusively to
agreements involving the sale or transfer of real
estate properties that are subject to
unpredictable market fluctuations.
23. According to Article 2229, what are exemplary or
corrective damages intended for?
a) To compensate for specific financial losses
incurred by a party.
b) To provide an example of proper conduct in a
contractual agreement.
c) To serve as a deterrent and promote the
public good through punishment or
correction.
d) To cover damages resulting from accidents or
unforeseen circumstances.
24. According to Article 2199, what is the term used
to describe compensation for pecuniary
loss that one has duly proved?
a) Punitive damages
b) Nominal damages
c) Liquidated damages
d) Actual or compensatory damages
25. Which statement accurately describes the legal
principle outlined in Art. 2177 of the Civil
Code of the Philippines?
a) Art. 2177 establishes that responsibility for
fault or negligence is synonymous with civil
liability arising from negligence under the Penal
Code.
b) Art. 2177 emphasizes that civil liability arising
from negligence under the Penal Code
overrides any fault or negligence under civil law.
c) Art. 2177 highlights the distinction
between responsibility for fault or
negligence and civil liability under the Penal
Code, while preventing double recovery of
damages for the same act or omission.
d) Art. 2177 stipulates that plaintiffs are entitled
to recover damages twice for the same act or
omission of the defendant, provided they
demonstrate fault or negligence under both civil
and criminal law.
26. Which of the following best describes the legal
concept outlined in Article 2142?
a) Quasi-contracts are formed through mutual
agreement between two parties.
b) Quasi-contracts are established through
unlawful and involuntary actions.
c) Quasi-contracts arise from unilateral acts
to prevent unjust enrichment or benefit
at the expense of another.
d) Quasi-contracts primarily aim to enforce strict
liability in contractual agreements.
27. According to Art. 2176, what is the term used to
describe fault or negligence that causes damage to
another party when there is no pre-existing
contractual relation between them?
a) Contractual liability
b) Exemplary damages
c) Quasi-delict
d) Liquidated damages
28. Article 11 of the Civil Code of the Philippines
provides that “Customs which are contrary to
law, ______ order or ______ policy shall not be
countenanced.”
a) private order or public policy
b) private order or private policy
c) public order or public policy
d) public order or private policy
29. Article __ of the Civil Code of the Philippines
provides that “Judicial decisions applying or
interpreting the laws, or the Constitution shall form a
part of the legal system of the Philippines.”
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
30. What is the legal responsibility of an individual
who intentionally or negligently causes harm
to another person?
a) They shall be exempt from any liability.
b) They shall be entitled to compensation from
the injured party.
c) They shall be subject to criminal charges only.
d) They shall indemnify the injured party for
the damage.
31. According to Article 22 of the Civil Code of the
Philippines, if a person intentionally causes
loss or injury to another in a manner contrary to
morals, good customs, or public policy, they are
exempt from compensating the injured party.
a) True
b) False
32. According to the Civil Code of the Philippines,
what obligation does an individual have if they
intentionally or negligently cause harm to another
person, contrary to law?
a) They are absolved of any responsibility.
b) They must seek forgiveness from the injured
party.
c) They must indemnify the injured party for
the damage.
d) They have the option to negotiate a
settlement with the injured party.
33.In what scenario would a defendant be held liable
for indemnity, even if the damage to
another's property was not caused by their fault or
negligence?
a) If the defendant proves their innocence
beyond doubt.
b) If the plaintiff fails to prove the extent of the
damage.
c) If the defendant derived benefits from the
act or event causing the damage.
d) If the damage occurred due to an
unforeseeable natural disaster.
34. Which of the following statements best reflects
the legal obligation regarding the behavior
towards neighbors and other persons?
a) Individuals are free to disregard the dignity
and privacy of others without consequences.
b) Individuals must respect the dignity,
personality, privacy, and peace of mind of
their neighbors and others, without
exceptions.
c) Individuals are only required to respect the
privacy of their neighbors but not their dignity or
personality.
d) Individuals may disregard the privacy of
others unless it results in a criminal offense.
35.How is civil personality extinguished?
a) By marriage
b) By migration to another country
c) By death
d) By reaching retirement age
36.What are the two categories in which property
can be classified?
a) Universal and particular
b) Public dominion and private ownership
c) Tangible and intangible
d) Real and personal
37.Which of the following are considered property of
public dominion?
a) Personal belongings and household items
b) Buildings and structures owned by individuals
c) Items reserved for personal use
d) Roads, canals, ports, and other
infrastructure constructed by the State, as
well as properties intended for public
service or national development.
38.What presumption does actual possession under
claim of ownership raise, and how must the true
owner proceed to recover the property?
a) It raises a conclusive presumption of
ownership, and the true owner must resort to
judicial process for recovery.
b) It raises a disputable presumption of
ownership, and the true owner must resort
to judicial process for recovery.
c) It raises a rebuttable presumption of
ownership, and the true owner must take
possession forcibly.
 d) It raises no presumption of ownership, and
the true owner must negotiate directly with the
possessor for recovery.

39. Under what circumstances can a person be

deprived of their property, and what action
should the courts take if the requirement is not first
complied with?
a) Property can only be taken by competent
authority for public use and upon payment
of just compensation; if this requirement is
not met, the courts shall protect and
possibly restore the owner to possession.
b) Property can be seized without compensation
if deemed necessary by the authorities; the
courts will not intervene.
c) Property can be taken for public use with or
without compensation as decided by the
government; the courts have no jurisdiction in
such matters.
d) Property can be taken by any individual with
sufficient power and influence; the courts will
not interfere in such matters.

40. who owns the structures built, plants planted, or

crops sown on someone else's land
a) The person who built or planted them
b) The owner of the land
c) The government
d) The person who made the improvements or
repair