5th April-Full Syllabus Mock Test by Garima Mam

Title
MOCK TEST-1 [NEET-

2024]-5th April
BOTANY
A suitable vector for gene cloning in higher organism is :-

(1) Baculovirus
(2) Retrovirus
(3) Salmonella typhimurium
(4) Neurospora crass
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2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens contains a large plasmid, which
induces tumour in the plants it is termed as :-
(1) Ti plasmid
(2) Ri plasmid
(3) Recombinant plasmid
(4) Shine Dalgarno sequence

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3. The bioreactor shown in the diagram is:
1. Sparged stirred tank type

2. Airlift type
3. Simple stirred tank type
4. Fluidized bed type

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4. Ground tissue do not involve –
(1) Protoxylem
(2) Medullary rays
(3) Cortex
(4) Pith

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5. Match the following columns and select the correct option

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6.
Photosynthesis is an important process for life on earth
because
(1) It is the primary source of all food on earth
(2) It is responsible for the release the of oxygen
(3) It is the only natural process responsible for the
utilisation of sunlight
(4) All of the above

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7. Where is ATP synthesised in glycolysis?
(1) When 1, 3 di PGA is changed into 3PGA
(2) When glucose is converted into
glucose-6-phosphate
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) When, 1, 6 diphosphate is broken in
triose phosphate

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8. In aerobic respiration removal 3 molecules
of CO2 occurs in
(1) Matrix of the mitochondria
(2) Inner membrane of the mitochondria
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Anywhere in the mitochondria

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9. Fruits can be left on the tree longer, so as to
increase the market period. This is due to the
function of
(1) Delay senescence by auxin
(2) Delay senescence by CH2 − CH2
(3) Delay senescence by cytokinin
(4) Delay senescence by GA

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10. Name the process when dedifferentiated cells
again loss the ability to divide and get mature?
(1) Cell-enlargement
(2) Redifferentiation
(3) Dedifferentiation
(4) Differentiation

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11. Structural lipids of cell membrane are
(1) Simple lipid
(2) Chromolipids
(3) Steroid
(4) Phospholipids

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12. Quantasomes are present in
(1) Chloroplast
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Golgi body
(4) Lysosome

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13.
The chemical substances found most abundantly on the
middle lamella are released into the phragmoplast
by
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Spindle fragments
(4) Interzonal fibres

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14. According to widely accepted ‘fluid mosaic model’ cell
membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids and integral proteins
can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been
modified in several respects. In this regard, which of the
following statement is incorrect?
(1) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the lipid bilayer
(2) Proteins can remain confined within certain domains of the
membrane
(3) Proteins can also undergo flip-flip movements in the lipid
bilayer
(4) Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid
bilayer
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15. The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates
its genome, synthesizes the other constituents of
the cell and eventually divides into two daughter
cells is termed as
(1) Cell division
(2) Cell cycle
(3) Cell growth
(4) Cell duplication

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16. In animal cell has, cytokinesis involves
(1) The separation of sister chromatids
(2) The contraction of the contractile ring of
micro filament
(3) Depolymerization of kinetochore
microtubules
(4) A protein kinase that phosphorylates other
enzymes

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17. Which is correct for meiotic metaphase-I?
(1) Bivalents are arranged at equator
(2) Univalents are arranged at equator
(3) Non-homologous chromosomes forms pair
(4) Spindle fibres are attached at chromomere

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18.
Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between
(1) Non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes

(2) Sister chromatids of the homologous chromosome
(3) Chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes
(4) The genes those are completely linked

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19.
The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is
comparable to which part of the seed in other
monocotyledons?
(1) Cotyledon
(2) Endosperm
(3) Aleurone layer
(4) Plumule

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20.
Colchicum autumnale belongs to
(1) Solanaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Malvaceae

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21. Sclereids are present in
(A) Fruit wall of nuts

(B) Pulp of guava, pear and sapota
(C) Seed coat of legume
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A, B and C

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22.
Which of the following divisions of fungi

includes club fungi?
A. Ascomycota
B. Zygomycota
C. Deuteromycota
D. Basidiomycota

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The protoxylem and metaxylem in the stem lies
23.
towards
(1) The pith and root centre, respectively
(2) The periphery and root centre, respectively
(3) The root centre and periphery of organ,
respectively
(4) The pith and periphery of organ, respectively

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24. Central part of root occupied by parenchymatous (thin or thick
walled) cells is called
(1) Pith
(2) Endodermis
(3) Pericycle
(4) Meristem

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25.
If a colour-blind man marries a woman
who is ho- mozygous for normal colour
vision, the probability of their son being
colour-blind is
(a) 0
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.75
(d) 1.
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26.
A group of interconnected genera is called a
(1) Family
(2) Class
(3) Phylum
(4) Order

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27.
True regeneration is found in
(1) Amoeba
(2) Hydra
(3) Planaria
(4) Bacteria

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28.
According to five kingdom classification bacteria belong to
(1) Protista
(2) Monera
(3) Plantae
(4) Archaea

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29. Which of the following is a free living nitrogen fixing
bacterium present in the soil?
(1) Nitrosomonas
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Azotobacter
(4) Pseudomonas

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30.
Which one is not the feature of Cycas?
(1) Unbranched stem
(2) Pinnate leaves
(3) The male or female cones may be borne on the
different tree
(4) Archegonia is absent

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31. The members of brown algae (class-Phaeophyceae)
have gelatinous coating outside the, cellulosic cell wall
called
(1) Algin
(2) Glycoalgin starch
(3) Polyalginate
(4) Polyolefin

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32.
Mutations, which alter nucleotide sequence within a gene
are
(1) Frameshift mutation
(2) Base pair substitutions
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

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33. The F1 generation has all tall, and F2 ratio is 3 : 1, it
proves
(1) Law of dominance
(2) Independent assortment
(3) Law of segregation
(4) linkage

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34. Mendel’s law were true for situation in which
(1) Alleles are affected by their environment
(2) Alleles shows complete dominance
(3) Alleles of a gene alter the effect of a different gene
(4) A given character is determined by more than one
gene

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35. Blood group-O has
(1) No antibodies
(2) No antigens
(3) a or b antibodies
(4) A and B antigens

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36. There are 42 chromosomes in the root cells of wheat. How
many chromosomes would the synergid cell have?
(1) 7
(2) 14
(3) 21
(4) 28

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37. What do Okazaki fragments form?
(1) leading strand
(2) lagging strand
(3) non-sense strand
(4) senseful strand

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38. Who gave the wobble hypothesis?
(1) F.H.C. Crick
(2) Nirenberg
(3) Holley
(4) Khorana

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39. Name one pair of the following terms or names that has
the same meaning?
(1) Gene pool-genome
(2) Codon-gene
(3) Cistron-triplet
(4) DNA fingerprinting – DNA profiling

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40. Mycorrhizal represents an intimate mutualistic
relationship between
(1) Fungi and stem of higher plants
(2) Fungi and roots of higher plants
(3) Fungi and leaves of higher plants
(4) Fungi and leaflets of higher plants

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41. If in a pond there are 20 lotus plants of last year and
through reproduction 8 new plants are added. Then
the birth rate is
(1) 0.8 offspring per lotus per year

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42. Microbes that breakdown the complex organic matter
into simple substances like carbon, nitrogen, water,
etc., are
(1) Producers
(2) Decomposers
(3) Consumers
(4) Symbionts

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43.
Which one of the following is no used for
construction of ecological pyramids?
(1) Dry weight
(2) Number of individuals
(3) Rate of energy flow
(4) Fresh weight

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44.
Which of the following is a correct statement?
A. IUDs suppress gametogenesis

B. IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
C. IUDs are generally inserted by by the user herself
D. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus

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45.
An endemic species is the one
(1) That has been introduced to a new geographic
area
(2) That is found in many different geographic area
(3) That is found only on islands
(4) That is found naturally in just one geographic
area

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46.
A person with the sex chromosomes XXY suffers from (a) Down’s
syndrome (b) Klinefelter’s syndrome (c) Turner’s syndrome (d)
Gynandromorphism

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47.
A sewage treatment process, in which a portion of
the decomposer bacteria present in the waste is
recycled into the beginning of the process, is called
(1) Cyclic treatment
(2) Primary treatment
(3) Activated sludge treatment
(4) Tertiary treatment

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48.
The dough used for making bread is fermented by
(1) Bacteria
(2) Virus
(3) Prions
(4) Yeast

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49.
Isogamous condition with non-flagellated
gametes is found in:
(1) Spirogyra
(2) Volvox
(3) Fucus
(4) Chlamydomonas

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50.
Sporopollenin is chemically
(1) Homopolysaccharide
(2) Fatty substance
(3) Protein
(4) Heteropolysaccharide

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BZOOLOGY
51. Which is not correct about secondary sexual characters of female

(1) Development of mammary gland
2) Presence of pubic hair
3) Low pitched voice
4) Menarche

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52.
Proteases and RNAses are
A. Protein synthesis and RNA degrading enzymes

B. Protein synthesizing and RNA synthesising enzymes
C. Protein degrading and RNA synthesising enzymes
D. None of these

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53. Which of the following is responsible for division of fertilized egg: -
1)Centrioles of ovum
2) Distal centriole of sperm
3) Karyomeres
4) Proximal centriole of sperm

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54.
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-i.v, D-iii

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55.
The hemoglobin of a human foetus

(1) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that
of an adult
(2) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that
of an adult
(3) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that
of an adult
(4) has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
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56. Assertion: The lungs are situated in thoracic chamber
which is anatomically an air-tight chamber.
Reason: Such an arrangement is essential to avoid any
change in pulmonary volume.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason

is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
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57. Assertion: Type ‘O’ blood group individuals are called
‘universal donors’.
Reason: RBCs of ‘O’ blood group consists both ‘A’ and ‘B’
surface antigens.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is

the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
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58.
Ventricular systole occurs
(1) After the auricular/atrial systole
(2) When tricuspid and bicuspid valve closes
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

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59.
Which of the following matches correctly?
(1) Inferior vena cava − Receives deoxygenated blood
from the head and body
(2) Superior vena cava − Receives deoxygenated
blood from the lower body and organs
(3) Pulmonary artery − Carries deoxygenated blood to
the lungs
(4) Hepatic artery − Carries deoxygenated blood to the
gut
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60. In which of the following regions of a nephron,
does maximum reabsorption of useful
substances takes place?
(1) Henle’s loop
(2) Glomerulus
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule
(4) Distal convoluted tubule

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61.
Urea cycle is also called
(1) Kreb’s cycle
(2) Henselet cycle
(3) Kreb-Henselet cycle
(4) Dark reaction

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62. Percentage of electrolytes and water reabsorbed by
PCT is
(1) 60-70
(2) 70-80
(3) 80-90
(4) 90-95

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63. Our vertebral column is formed by the
(1) 26 serially arranged units called vertebrae

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64. The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged
strenuous physical work, is caused by
(1) a decrease in the supply of oxygen
(2) minor wear and tear of muscle fibers
(3) the deletion of glucose
(4) the accumulation of lactic acid

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65. Visceral muscles are also called
(1) Smooth muscles
(2) Non-striated muscles
(3) Involuntary muscles
(4) All of these

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66.
One of the examples of the action of the
autonomous nervous system is
(1) Knee-jerk response
(2) Pupillary reflex
(3) Swallowing of food
(4) Peristalsis of the intestines

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The nervous tissue forms the nervous
67.
system in animals. Which of the
following is correct about its origin?
(1) Mesodermal
(2) Ectodermal
(3) Endodermal
(4) None of these

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68.
Which part of the human brain is largest?
(1) Cerebellum
(2) Thalamus
(3) Cerebrum
(4) Medulla oblongata

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69.
The thyroid gland is composed of
(1) Follicles
(2) Stromal tissue
(3) Trachea
(4) Both (1) and (2)

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70.
Which one of the following endocrine glands functions as
a biological clock and a neurosecretory transducer?
(1) Adrenal gland
(2) Thyroid gland
(3) Pineal gland
(4) Thymus gland

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71. An adenohypophysis hormone, which is
regulated by feedback mechanism is
(1) Oxytocin
(2) TSH
(3) Vasopressin
(4) Cortisone

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72. For nucleic acids, the building block is a
(1) Nucleotide
(2) Nucleoside
(3) Polynucleotide
(4) Sugar

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73.
Cleavage start in
1) Fallopian tube
2) Uterus
3) Vagina
4) None

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74.
Link between glycolysis, Krebs’ cycle and
β-oxidation of fatty acid or carbohydrate and fat
metabolism is
(a) oxaloacetic acid
(b) succinic acid
(c) citric acid
(d) acetyl CoA

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75. Connecting link between chordates and non
chordates is
(1) Peripatus
(2) Balanoglossus
(3) Sphenodon
(4) Tachyglossus

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76.
Canal system is present in phylum
(1) Annelida
(2) Porifera
(3) Acanthocephala
(4) Echinodermata

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77.
Which of the following is not an insect?
(1) Locust
(2) Lepisma
(3) Termites
(4) Spider

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78.
Which tissue is present in the lining of small intestine?
(1) Epithelial tissue
(2) Connective tissue
(3) Nervous tissue
(4) Muscular tissue

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79.
Myoglobin is present in
(1) All muscle fibres
(2) White muscle fibres only
(3) Red muscle fibres only
(4) Both (2) and (3)

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80.
Male gametes are flagellated in

(a) Ectocarpus
(b) Polysiphonia
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Anabaena.

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81. Sexually reproducing multicellular animals start their development from –
1) Gastrula
2) Morula
3) Unicellular zygote
4) Ova

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82.
Summer sleep and winter sleep of frog is known as
(1)Hibernation
(2) aestivation
(3) hibernation and aestivation
(4) aestivation and hibernation

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83. Which one of the following is related with genetic
engineering?
(1) Plasmids
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Mutations
(4) Ribosomes

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84. Enzyme that is used in PCR technology is
(1) Ligase
(2) Polymerase
(3) Helicase
(4) Reverse transcriptase

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85. Genetic diagnosis by DNA testing:
(1) Detects only mutant and normal alleles
(2) Can be done only on eggs or sperms
(3) Involves hybridization to ribosomal RNA
(4) Utilizes restriction enzymes and a
polymorphic site

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86. Statins are produced by:
A. Bacteria
B. Yeast
C. Protozoan
D. Virus

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87.
Which of the following companies started selling humulin in 1983?
(1) Baxter international
(2) Eli Lilly
(3) Roche
(4) Bayer healthcare

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88. More advancement in genetic engineering is due to
(1) Restriction endonuclease
(2) Reverse transcriptase
(3) Protease
(4) Zymase

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89.
The female structures that corresponds
(homologous) to the scrotum of the male are
(1) Labia Minora
(2) Labia majora
(3) Clitoris
(4) Urethral folds

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90.
Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine

gland after ovulation
(1) Graafian follicle
(2) Stroma
(3) Germinal epithelium
(4) Vitelline membrane

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91.
Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading
from
(1) Testicular lobules to rete testis
(2) Rete testes to vas deferens
(3) Vas deferens to epididymis
(4) Epididymis to urethra

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92.
MTP is of much risk in the phase of the pregnancy
(1) 2nd trimester
(2) 1st trimester
(3) 1st week
(4) 2nd week

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93. Which of the following cannot be detected in
developing foetus by amniocentesis?
(1) Sex of the foetus
(2) Down syndrome
(3) Jaundice
(4) Klinefelter syndrome

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94.
If the rate of addition of new members
increases with respect to the individual host of
the same population, then the graph obtained
has:
(1) Declined growth
(2) Exponential growth
(3) Zero population growth
(4) None of these

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95.
What did Miller obtained from his experiment?
(1) Amino acid
(2) Organic compounds
(3) Peptide
(4) All of these

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96.
A study of fossils in different sedimentary
layers indicates
(1) Physiological period in which they
existed
(2) Geological period in which they existed
(3) Conditions in which they were living
(4) All of the above

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97. Development of similar adaptive functional structural
features in an unrelated group of organism is called
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Adaptive convergence
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Evolution

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98.
Acquired immunity is due to
(1) Physiological and inflammatory barriers
(2) Lymphocytes
(3) Erythrocytes
(4) NK-cells

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99.
The human immune system consists of
(1) Lymphoid organs
(2) Immune cells
(3) Antibodies
(4) All of these

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100.
AIDS day is
(1) 1 May
(2) 1 December
(3) 1 June
(4) 1 January

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22) D
46) B
25) A
74) D
80) A

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Title

MOCK TEST-1 [NEET-

A suitable vector for gene cloning in higher organism is :-

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1. Sparged stirred tank type

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(1) Non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes

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(A) Fruit wall of nuts

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Which of the following divisions of fungi

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A. IUDs suppress gametogenesis

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51. Which is not correct about secondary sexual characters of female

3) Low pitched voice

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A. Protein synthesis and RNA degrading enzymes

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(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii