Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the March 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the
scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘their contribution to individual health’ (line 2–3).
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial explanation.
• how they help / their input / their efforts / what they do (to help) (allow example(s))
• each of us stay well / everyone’s wellbeing / all of our welfare
Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase, e.g. ‘what they have done to advance human wellbeing’.
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘to reflect on the wellbeing of doctors’ (lines 3–4).
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial explanation.
Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase, e.g. ‘pay attention to how fit those looking after our health are’.
Give two ways in which the physical and emotional effects of burnout might affect doctors’ attitudes to their
work.
• demotivated in work
• lower sense of fulfilment
• more detached from their work
• negative attitude towards patients
Identify two ways in which hospitals could make things better for doctors.
• reduce number of patients (in one day) / fewer patients (in one day) / not cram in so many patients
• reduce time worked / more reasonable working hours / provide breaks
Using your own words, explain why some people could think that National Doctors’ Day is not worthwhile.
Award 1 mark for each idea, predominantly in own words, up to a maximum of 3.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
• doctors do not get a day off work / need time off (not a NDD) / not all doctors can have the day off
• do not receive anything worth having / only get lunch as a thank you / lunch with colleagues is like being at work
• does not make any significant difference / achieves nothing / not helpful / paying lip service / only for show / not
really show of gratitude
1(f) According to Text B, what are the attractions and challenges of being an MSF doctor? 15
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own words as far as possible.
Your summary should not be more than 120 words.
Up to 10 marks are available for the content of your answer and up to 5 marks for the quality of your writing.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing).
INDICATIVE READING CONTENT
Candidates may refer to any of the points below:
1 travel abroad
2 can be in conflict situation
3 time to do other job(s) too / only 5 months a year
4 talking about the job (positive/negative) / people’s curiosity / people’s respect / considered a dream job
5 work with incredible (local) people / work with local doctors
6 rewarding / satisfying to make a difference
7 helping without having to get involved in the politics of situations / able to remain impartial but help
8 trying local food / (local) people cooking for them
9 tackling disease
10 logistics
11 accommodation does not always have running water / is not always private / variable standard
12 security an issue
5 9–10 • A very effective response that demonstrates a thorough understanding of the requirements of the
task.
• Demonstrates understanding of a wide range of relevant ideas and is consistently well-focused.
• Points are skilfully selected to demonstrate an overview.
4 7–8 • An effective response that demonstrates a competent understanding of the requirements of the task.
• Demonstrates understanding of a good range of relevant ideas and is mostly focused.
• Points are carefully selected and there is some evidence of an overview.
3 5–6 • A partially effective response that demonstrates a reasonable understanding of the requirements of
the task.
• Demonstrates understanding of ideas with occasional loss of focus.
• Some evidence of selection of relevant ideas but may include excess material.
2 3–4 • A basic response that demonstrates some understanding of the requirements of the task.
• Demonstrates general understanding of some relevant ideas and is sometimes focused.
• There may be some indiscriminate selection of ideas.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a range of well-chosen
vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence of concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate) but there may be
reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in candidates’ scripts must be given marks
that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the
texts.
Note 2: Words underlined in the answers to the questions are required for the full mark(s) to be awarded.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
R1 demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings
R2 demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes
R4 demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers
Item Reading assessment objectives tested Marks for reading assessment objectives
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R2 1
2(a)(iii) R2 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the words underlined: 1
Adam did not recall making an informed, planned choice to become a doctor.
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the words underlined: 1
When he was training, the idea that he would become a doctor gave Adam the motivation to achieve
what he set out to do.
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the words underlined: 1
Once he had completed his training at medical school, Adam was looking forward to applying what he
had learned.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the words underlined: 1
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words underlined: 1
Nights shifts were an unrelenting nightmare. At night, you’re given a paging device affectionately
called a bleep and responsibility for every patient in the hospital. All of them.
unrelenting: continual / no let-up / never ending / merciless / no one cared it was nightmarish for doctors
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words underlined: 1
Nights shifts were an unrelenting nightmare. At night, you’re given a paging device affectionately
called a bleep and responsibility for every patient in the hospital. All of them.
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words underlined: 1
Nights shifts were an unrelenting nightmare. At night, you’re given a paging device affectionately
called a bleep and responsibility for every patient in the hospital. All of them.
responsibility: duty / in charge of (all patients’ health) / their fault if anything went wrong / had to make life
and death decisions
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests it is difficult for Adam dealing with 3
these patients.
It’s a ‘build your own burger’ of symptoms layered on conditions layered on diseases. You’re a one-man,
mobile, essentially untrained A&E department, reviewing an endless stream of worryingly sick patients who,
twelve hours earlier, had an entire team of doctors caring for them. It’s sink or swim – you have to learn to
swim because otherwise a tonne of patients sink with you.
Award 3 marks for an appropriate example with a comprehensive explanation which shows understanding of how the
writer suggests Adam is facing an impossible task
Award 2 marks for an appropriate example and attempt at an explanation which shows some understanding of how the
writer suggests the challenges the patients present
Award 1 mark for an example with an attempt at an explanation which shows awareness of some of the difficulty
involved. The explanation may be partial.
build your own burger: suggests wide range of possible combinations/ selection of various individual conditions .
layered: problems overlaid on top of one another, various problems making each other worse, not just one thing to deal
with.
one-man, mobile, essentially untrained (A& E department) : suggests ill-equipped to deal with so many patients
and so many conditions; there is only one of him, he has to keep moving round to problems and still a student.
endless stream: suggests continuous pressure, will be overwhelmed eventually, impossible to cope /stop the flow.
worryingly sick: suggests very ill, may die, feels pressure to act immediately.
sink or swim: thrown in at the deep end, a question of survival, cliché suggests not the first in this situation.
• Paragraph 2 begins ‘As you might …’ and is about Adam’s progress through training.
• Paragraph 4 begins ‘You turn up …’ and describes the daytime work as a junior doctor in the
hospital.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create effect in these paragraphs. Choose
three examples of words or phrases from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should include
the use of imagery.
Up to 15 marks are available for the content of your answer. Use the Marking Criteria for Question 2(d)
(Table A, Reading)
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and for an understanding of ways in
which the language is effective. Expect responses to provide words / phrases (listed in the mark scheme on page
16) that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of words chosen, bearing in mind that
for the higher bands there should be a range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language
works, and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the analysis that attracts
marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements; simply ignore them.
2(d) The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the selections. Candidates can make
any sensible comment, but only credit those that are relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context
and that have some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit comments on effects
created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar / syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional
to comments on vocabulary.
• day to day work as a junior doctor in the hospital in paragraph 4, beginning ‘You turn up …’
Overview: ridicules futility of the exercise
troops past: move past in a group (slowly), no sense of urgency, as if on an outing or trip and taking in the
scenery, ridiculous and out of place like circus performers / ceremonial parade of soldiers
trail behind: drawn along after them, as if being towed, lack of impetus, little enthusiasm, just taken along, feeling
useless
like a hypnotised duckling: vulnerable creature, naïve, innocent, ungainly, disorientated, being controlled
head cocked to one side in a caring manner: tilted on an angle as if listening with concern, superficial, feigning
interest only
noting down every pronouncement: appearing to pay attention to all that is said by writing notes; mock
reverence, as if formal declaration, words from a higher authority
dozens, sometimes hundreds: numbers are imprecise and multiplying, exaggeration but sense of being so
over-whelmed it seems like there is an impossible number to complete
• Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to choices.
5 13–15 • Wide-ranging discussion of judiciously selected language with some high quality
comments that add meaning and associations to words/phrases in both parts of
the text, and demonstrate the writer’s reasons for using them.
• Tackles imagery with some precision and imagination.
• There is clear evidence that the candidate understands how language works.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why they
are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in candidates’ scripts must be given marks
that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the
texts.
3 This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks): 25
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
Base your letter on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use your own words. Address each of
the three bullet points.
Up to 15 marks are available for the content of your answer and up to 10 marks for the quality of your
writing.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them relevantly, supporting what they
write with details from the text. Look for an appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced
response which covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to why Adam went to medical school, what medical training was like and his hopes
at that time
Annotate A2 for references to the challenges working on the wards as a junior doctor involved and how Adam
felt about the job at the time
Annotate A3 for references to why Adam felt he had to give up and his feelings as he looks back now about the
diaries he wrote at the time
• father was a doctor (det. not an active career decision) [dev. following in father’s footsteps / wanted to make him
proud]
• involved learning every aspect of human body (det. how body can go wrong) [dev. challenging but managed to
do it]
• training took a long time (det. a quarter of his life, 6 years of training) [dev. excited to finish medical school and
get out onto the ward]
• training (largely) theoretical / did not prepare them (det. put knowledge into practice) [dev. felt had wasted his
time]
• wanted to save people (det. like a superhero) [dev. romantic view, liked the image]
A2: The challenges working on the wards as a junior doctor involved and how you felt about the job at the time
• boring ward round(s) (det. every morning) [dev. patronised by senior doctors]
• administrative tasks (det. filling in forms, making phone calls) [dev. frustrating]
• nightmarish night shifts (det. pager, sole responsibility) [dev. felt unsupported]
• extremely long hours (det. all night, extra unpaid hours) [dev. physically demanding]
• complex conditions (det. very sick patients) [dev. easy to get it wrong]
• exhilarated (det. was a doctor) [dev. felt sense of achievement]
A3: Why you felt you had to give up and your feelings as you look back now
• public do not hear the truth (det. public unaware what job entails) [dev. might not have started if he knew the
reality / wants people to know]
• affected relationship(s) (det. impact on personal life) [dev. break up due to work/life conflict]
• mental toll (det. all became too much) [dev. breakdown due to stress]
• naivety / innocence / early optimism (det. new shirt, packed lunch) [dev. like first day at school, sadness now]
• camaraderie / humour (det. stories about patients, atom.kay ) [dev. lost sense of humour as time went on]
• unreasonable expectations (det. being woken from sleep, allowed insufficient sleep) [dev. unsafe, did not get
easier]
Table A, Reading
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the response,
contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some evidence of
basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
2 4–6 • There is some evidence of general understanding of the main ideas, although the
response may be thin or in places lack focus on the text or the question.
• Some brief, straightforward reference to the text is made.
• There may be some reliance on lifting from the text.
• One of the bullets may not be addressed.
• The voice might be inappropriate.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a reproduction of
sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
2 4–3 • There may be some awkwardness of expression and some inconsistency of style.
• Language is too limited to express shades of meaning.
• There is structural weakness and there may be some copying from the text.
• Frequent errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the March 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) Give the example used by the instructor to teach the value of a good 1
opening to an article, according to the text.
• ‘Don’t worry,’ said the stallholder. ‘The snake round your daughter’s neck
is not venomous.’
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Give two ways in which attending the conference changed the writer.
• don’t get to the point / think they need extra padding at the beginning /
include unnecessary material at the start / waffle at the start
• they don’t start with the most interesting portion of the trip / they begin
with a boring part of the trip
Explain why people like to read good travel writing, according to the
text.
1(e) Re-read paragraphs 6 and 7 (‘I should point out … every August.’). 3
Using your own words, explain why people might not accept the
writer’s advice about being a travel writer.
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
1 people hate travel writers / people misunderstand what the job involves /
not considered a real job
2 don’t get opportunity to look around where you want to / over full itinerary
/ packed schedule
3 can’t be relaxed / not present in the moment / always thinking about
work
4 have to balance publication requirements with expectations of host
5 PR professionals move around so can affect your career later
6 difficult to get noticed by publications / takes a long time to get noticed
by publications
7 not paid on time / late payment(s)
8 your story gets changed / editor changes your story
9 miss out on social life / do not get invited to family occasions / family life
carries on without you
10 no routine / no set hours
11 problems with property left unattended / paying rent for unused
accommodation
12 affects life decisions / restricts choices in relation to having pets or
children
13 exhaustion / multiple long-haul flights in a short space of time
14 travel delays / uncomfortable nights in airports (due to delay)
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note : All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R2 1
2(a)(iv) R2 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
Walkers had to collect a specific amount of funding for their trip before
they could be allowed to take part.
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
Charlie also asked people he did not know well to sponsor him.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer 3
suggests his attitude to preparing for the trip.
• (I’d anticipated I’d need) a few jabs: assumed he might need a small
number of vaccines, so is aware of potential danger from disease, but making
light of it / has underestimated; contrast with what was needed suggests
that he had not looked into the detail, he had not done his research
• cheery list of disorders … reeled off ... with more than a little glee:
possible illnesses sound quite worrying, and seem to be building up
quickly, trying to sound unconcerned though less confident now as is
taken aback by the long list, had clearly not expected this; thinks the
doctor is enjoying his discomfort and is now worried / disconcerted
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or
phrases from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices
should include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words
and for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases (listed in the mark scheme on pages
16 and 17) that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of
the analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate
statements; simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections. Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit
those that are relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and
that have some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be
credited. Credit comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices
such as grammar / syntax and punctuation devices. These must be
additional to comments on vocabulary.
2(d) • Charlie’s memories of the trip in paragraph 19, beginning ‘We set 15
off …’.
• white rush (of mountain rivers): fast water, foamy, power, energy
• creaking (across rope bridges): moving slowly and carefully due to harsh
squeaking sound movement creates, evocative of object under strain
• slogging up unfeasible muddy inclines: working hard and with little
chance of success to scale seemingly impossible slippery slopes
• forcing our way through dense jungle tangles: pushing through thick
vegetation, easy to get caught / stopped, determination and physical
exertion
• scenery became bleaker: lacking vegetation now, exposed to the
elements, desolate
• chirruping insects and rustling leaves: musical, light sounds of
smaller creatures and features, nonthreatening
• gasps of breath and laboured footsteps on gravel and rock
provided the soundtrack: signs of physical exertion, film background
music
• marvelled at a diamond-encrusted night sky: romanticised view,
jewelled sky studded with stars; reward for earlier exertions
• framed by towering mountains: as if piece of art or theatre; imposing
challenge of climb, puts them in perspective
• cloaked in rainforest-green velvet: lush greenery of rainforest covers
the mountains; heroic enigmatic figure; luxurious and smooth material
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific
words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are one of the people who trekked with Charlie to Machu Picchu. 25
You have been invited by the charity to speak to a group of people
who are thinking of taking a similar trip.
Base your speech on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to
use your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to what the trip involves and the preparation
required beforehand.
Annotate A2 for references to the different reasons people might have for
choosing to go on a trip like this.
Annotate A3 for references to why trips like this are important to the charity.
3 A1: what the trip involves and the preparation required beforehand 25
• find sponsors / raise set amount (det. only allowed to sponsor
yourself for 25 per cent) [dev. difficult to persuade people / encourages
commitment]
• buy equipment / clothing (det. specialist trekking gear) [dev.
expensive, lots required]
• health considerations (det. vaccines, snakes, malaria tablets, online
health advice) [dev. potentially fatal diseases]
• physical exertion / training for altitude / fitness (det. training plan)
[dev. need to take it seriously / unforgiving terrain / months of preparation
required]
• travel to the departure point / flights (det. Madrid to Cusco via Lima)
[dev. need to factor in time and cost to travel to meeting point; prepare for
boredom]
A2: the different reasons people might have for choosing to go on a trip like
this
• adventure (det. read about it in a magazine) [dev. fashionable idea; may
not be what you expect before you go]
• scenery (det. dense jungle, towering mountains, white-water rivers)
[dev. awe-inspiring; extra-ordinarily beautiful, unspoilt]
• camaraderie (det. life-long friendships formed) [dev. still in touch now
with friends from the trip who might never have met otherwise; never
alone during the challenge / helping others]
• career (det. meet influential people) [dev. use the opportunity to write
about the trip / bragging rights]
• cultural / travel experience (det. ancient ruined city of Machu Picchu)
[dev. contrast with visitors’ usual surroundings and/or lives, see places
you might never have visited otherwise]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in
structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R1 2
1(c) R1 and R2 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(d)(ii) R1 and R5 3
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) Give the two aims of International Tiger Day according to the text. 1
• to raise awareness (about the continued decline in the world’s tiger population)
• to encourage tiger conservation
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘brink of extinction’ (line 3)
Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase (e.g., at a critical point for the survival of
the species’; critically endangered).
• (on the) edge / (on the) cusp / under threat of / in danger of / about to / (very) close
to / almost / extremely high risk of / nearly
• dying out / no longer existing / no more living tigers / loss of the species / wiped off
surface of the earth
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘vowed to act’ (lines 4-5)
Give two reasons why people may be concerned about the population of tigers.
• (over) 95 per cent of tigers lost since the (beginning of) 20th century / speed of loss
/ so many tigers lost in a hundred years / vast majority of tigers gone in a
(relatively) short time
• (only / now just) 3900 now remaining in the wild / small number(s) (still) living in
the wild
• tigers now only found in Asia / only found in one area of the world / only live on one
continent
Identify two factors that have reduced the numbers of tigers in the wild, other
than human behaviour.
Explain how human behaviour has had a negative effect on tiger numbers in the
wild.
Using your own words, explain why some people may consider that capturing or
killing tigers is acceptable.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
• tradition (to hunt them) / continuing centuries’ old practice / has been going on for
hundreds of years
• status symbols / souvenirs / curios / (enjoy) showing off
• make money
• tigers hunt domestic livestock / worried for safety of their livestock / to protect livestock
• retaliation / revenge
1(f) According to Text B, what should we find concerning about tigers being kept in 15
captivity?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own words as far
as possible.
Up to 10 marks are available for the content of your answer and up to 5 marks for
the quality of your writing.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing).
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a range of
well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence of
concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R2 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R2 1
2(b)(ii) R1 1
2(b)(iii) R2 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the words 1
underlined:
The railway station was empty of people when the narrator arrived.
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the words 1
underlined:
The paintings of tigers on the walls of the station attract the interest of people
travelling through.
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the words 1
underlined:
The owner of the guesthouse was slow and unwilling to welcome the narrator.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the words 1
underlined:
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
Next morning, I introduced myself to Fateh, the wildlife warden for the park. He
looked over his luxuriant moustache disbelievingly at me and my camera. No one
came here, he told me, to ‘visit’.
Jolting along dirt tracks, we drove out towards the reserve. Slowly the wilderness
took over. I scanned the thickening forest for wildlife, unaware my tracking skills
would take years to develop.
luxuriant: strong and healthy, bushy, full, rich and well-maintained, long and well-
groomed; ample, extravagant, over-grown, grandiose
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
Jolting: lurching from one bump to the next, (their vehicle was) shaking, vibrating,
bouncing, jarring
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
scanned: looked over the whole thing (quickly), looked carefully, examined, searched
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests his 3
feelings as he learns to track tigers.
My first days felt like shedding one layer of skin and growing into another. As you
track a tiger, the language of the jungle envelopes you in its folds. You’re alert to
the tension in every rustling leaf, in every impression on the ground. Animal
tracks whisper stories of the night. You’re a jungle detective seeking clues of
tigers having padded past.
Award 2 marks for an appropriate example and attempt at an explanation which shows
some understanding of how the writer suggests his feelings as he learns to track tigers.
Award 1 mark for an example with an attempt at an explanation which shows awareness
of his feelings as he learns to track tigers. The explanation may be partial.
• Paragraph 2 begins ‘In those days …’ and is about the town of SM.
• Paragraph 10 begins ‘Visiting research-scientists …’ and is about Noon and
the writer’s feelings about this tiger.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create effect in
these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases from each
paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should include the use of
imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and for an
understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect responses to provide
words / phrases that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of words
chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a range of choices to
demonstrate an understanding of how language works, and that this should include the
ability to explain images. It is the quality of the analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct
marks for inaccurate statements; simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are relevant to
the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have some validity. Alternative
acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit comments on effects created by non-
vocabulary choices such as grammar / syntax and punctuation devices. These must be
additional to comments on vocabulary.
Overview: stark contrast between the past and more recent times; how SM has changed
to become larger, busier and more commercial.
• boasted few motorised vehicles: did not have many cars, buses etc.; old
fashioned reference to ‘motorised vehicles’ as if still relatively unusual and
something to show off about; this town was neither fashionable nor modern
• wasn’t prosperous: not wealthy, not successful in material or monetary terms,
implied contrast with the economic success the town will enjoy in later years
• numerous taxi-jeeps and buses: so many commercial vehicles it was not possible
to count, they are now everywhere, bustling busy nature of the booming town
contrasted with previous quiet backwater
• chattering tourists: talking excitedly, evokes a dynamic and noisy picture of large
groups of visitors
• still figments of shiny future ambition: imagined developments are not yet real,
seemingly unlikely dreams and hopes, apparently unrealistic plans based on dull
reality of that time, romanticised view of what they might achieve, yet the sense that
it came true as town becomes modernised / flashy
• garish hotel chains: lurid, obtrusive brightly coloured hotels owned by big
organisations, suggests profit over sensitivity to area
• yet to sprout: not yet appeared but will appear suddenly, as if organically like
leaves or hair; seeds of success
• mushrooming: hotel buildings increasing rapidly, town is growing upwards and
outwards, uncontrolled and exponential growth
• sleepy town, sprawled untidily: quiet place with little sense of planning or design,
relaxed and unconcerned about image; possible suggestion of a stereotypical
teenager yet to mature
Overview: described as if in love; reliving fond memories, tinged with a sense of loss
and longing.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that communicate less
well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Fateh. Following the release of Val’s book about his experiences at 25
Ranthambore and the work you have both been doing there, you are interviewed
for a national television show.
Write the words of the interview. Base your interview on what you have read in
Text C, but be careful to use your own words. Address each of the three bullets.
Up to 15 marks are available for the content of your answer and up to 10 marks for
the quality of your writing.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them relevantly,
supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an appropriate register for
the genre, and a clear and balanced response which covers the three areas of the
question, is well sequenced, and is in the candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to what Ranthambore offers visitors; what viewers might like
about Ranthambore if they visited and what sort of thing could they do there.
Annotate A2 for references to the various different people and animals associated with
Ranthambore and
how Fateh feels they and he have contributed to Ranthambore’s success.
Annotate A3 for references to how and why SM has changed since 1976.
3 A1: what Ranthambore offers visitors; what viewers might like about Ranthambore
if they visited and what sort of thing could they do there
• tiger reserve (det. wild tigers) [dev. rare opportunity / reassurance of doing good –
protecting tigers]
• wilderness (det. jungle / forest) [dev. may be able to go tracking with an expert /
kept safe by rules / contrast with town or city]
• range of other wildlife (det. deer, boar) [dev. can no longer see vultures / creatures
are in natural habitat]
• lakes (det. several bodies of water, Ranthambore lake) [dev. beautiful views of
sunset / might witness a hunt]
• education (det. secret life of tigers, Val’s explanations, Val’s book) [dev. lectures
(from Val) / results of scientific research]
• films (det. of tiger hunting / following vultures) [dev. amazing footage / may get first-
hand experience of things they have seen on film or TV]
A2: the various different people and animals associated with Ranthambore and
how Fateh feels they and he have contributed to Ranthambore’s success
• local artists (det. painters, created murals) [dev. show of support / drew attention to
the park and its work]
• Val (det. author, photographer, documentary film maker) [dev. commitment to
campaign over time]
• Noon (det. two litters) [dev. beautiful animal / became famous / iconic / part of
breeding programme / no longer living / descendants carry on her legacy]
• scientists (det. research) [dev. credibility for park]
• own contribution (to make Ranthambore most important wildlife destination in the
world) (det. park warden) [dev. worked with Val / teamwork / pride at achievements
over time]
• high profile visitors (det. lots of VIPs) [dev. may be doing it to further their own
career / campaign gathered strength and acceptance]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the response,
contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some evidence of
basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
2 4–6 • There is some evidence of general understanding of the main ideas, although the
response may be thin or in places lack focus on the text or the question.
• Some brief, straightforward reference to the text is made.
• There may be some reliance on lifting from the text.
• One of the bullets may not be addressed.
• The voice might be inappropriate.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a reproduction of
sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
2 3–4 • There may be some awkwardness of expression and some inconsistency of style.
• Language is too limited to express shades of meaning.
• There is structural weakness and there may be some copying from the text.
• Frequent errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar.
Cambridge IGCSE™
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R1 & R2 2
1(c) R1 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(d)(ii) R1 and R5 3
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Give two reasons why people think that male hippos are aggressive.
Explain why, according to some experts, hippos may have changed their
behaviour.
Using your own words, explain why some scientists do not believe that the
behaviour of hippos has changed.
• hippos are likely to have always done it, we just did not know / eating at night
so not spotted
• other ‘herbivores’ are known to eat meat (allow example(s) of cattle and/or
antelope eating meat)
• hippos are equipped to eat meat / no biomechanical limitations / built to take
down prey
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
1(f) According to Text B, what problems can be caused by this kind of ‘hippo’ and 15
how should these problems be tackled?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own words
as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a range
of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence of
concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R2 1
2(b)(ii) R1 1
2(b)(iii) R2 1
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(iii) To pass their licensing examinations, polers would need to show that they 1
were able to meet the needs of a wider variety of visitors.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(iv) One poler passionately and forcefully argued against the suggestion in the 1
book.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
Our poler explained that all fifty members of the OPT were local men. Many
owned their own boat and had learnt their poling skills as children,
catching fish and travelling between villages by water. To preserve the
delicate ecological balance of the delta, fishing was now tightly controlled,
but as poling was more lucrative, few were complaining. When more
polers could afford to convert to fibreglass canoes, fewer mature trees
would need to be cut down.
• preserve: keep (it) safe / protect (from further harm) / maintain / conserve
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
• convert: change (to use) / use (a) different (kind) / switch (to) / cross over (to
using)
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
Susan’s attitude towards hippos:
Travel was through channels made by hippos. These channels were often
clogged with vegetation, so polers had to push hard to get through.
Sometimes a male hippo decided that he didn’t want commuters using
‘his’ channel, rising unexpectedly out of the water, huge mouth gaping and
honking warnings at the traffic. Hippos always had right-of-way and polers
had to be alert. Sometimes they’d spend days opening new channels to
avoid aggressive hippos. There were some terrifying near-misses!
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should include
the use of imagery.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have some
validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
• headed for hippo territory: setting off to area where the animals can be
found, reminiscent of war / campaign
• carried eerily across the still waters: could be heard in the distance, as if
ghostly, could not see the animals, spooky
• skilfully manoeuvred our fleet: (image) navigated the passage for the
group of boats expertly; military precision
• experience guided: (image) the older polers are experts at knowing how
near to get to the hippos, have done this many times before
• shadowy outlines huddled together: (image) indistinct, mysterious shapes,
grouped
• spouting, chuffing and grunting: (image) sounds of spraying water
upwards, release of vapour or air and snorting noises; mechanical monster /
disgruntled / annoyed
• imposing male: large and intimidating beast
• took exception: became annoyed and reacted angrily, suggests being picky
/ over-sensitive
• edging a little too close: moving in small increments only, small margin for
error
• brash young poler: overconfident and showing off, though inexperience
suggested
• to scuttle back hastily into the shelter: racing back in a panic as hippo
reacts, like a small creature or insect
• raucous amusement: laughter is loud and bullish; the other polers are
mocking him and enjoying his scare
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
5 13–15 • Wide-ranging discussion of judiciously selected language with some high quality
comments that add meaning and associations to words/phrases in both parts of
the text, and demonstrate the writer’s reasons for using them.
• Tackles imagery with some precision and imagination.
• There is clear evidence that the candidate understands how language works.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why they
are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Baruti. Weeks after Susan’s arrival, you are giving a speech to a 25
group of local business people to persuade them to support the work of
the OPT.
Base your speech on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing)
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to what exactly the OPT is and what it has achieved
so far.
Annotate A2 for references to what tourists particularly enjoy about trips with the
OPT.
Annotate A3 for references to how the support of local business people might
help the OPT and benefit local people, animals and the wider region.
3 A1: what exactly the OPT is and what it has achieved so far
• Okavango Polers Trust (det. group of 50 polers, business started by Baruti)
[dev. camaraderie and support]
• (many were) boat owners / community-owned (det. visitors book directly with
them) [dev. by-passing larger companies]
• local men (det. learned skills growing up in the area, used to fish) [dev.
offering new career opportunity / entrepreneurial spirit]
• eco-tourism business (det. plan to use solar power, propel boats by hand,
use channels made by hippos) [dev. aware of the threats to the local
environment]
• cleared wasteland (det. site near to Seronga) [dev. will be more convenient
/ will not take time setting up for each visit / making use of local untapped
resource]
• taken booking(s) for two-day safari(s) (det. large group(s)) [dev.
successful first trip(s)]
A2: what tourists particularly enjoy about trips with the OPT
• animals / hippos (det. groups; honking, grunting) [dev. thrill of getting up fairly
close / range of different sounds they make]
• authentic / affordable (det. polers grew up there, travel between villages by
water) [dev. understanding culture]
• camping at night (det. campfire) [dev. romantic, adventurous, opportunity to
reflect]
• organised schedule (det. rest after lunch; shelter from heat, live the way
animals live) [dev. comfort]
• qualities and abilities of the polers (det. genuine, friendly, skilful) [dev.
happy to socialise with guests / willing to share experience and stories /
impressive boat handling]
• natural beauty / water travel (det. water lilies on the river, still water, open
lagoon(s)) [dev. peaceful; soothing]
A3: how the support of local business people might help the OPT and benefit local
people, animals and the wider region.
• allow more polers to replace boats with fibreglass ones (det. more
expensive) [dev. last longer / sponsorship or investment would help OTP to
changeover more quickly and save trees – benefitting the local eco system]
• more tourists (det. broader range) [dev. new customers and opportunities
for the area / boost local economy]
• improve infrastructure / build a permanent camp (det. planned a shower
block) [dev. more comfortable for visitors / business or employment
opportunities for other locals]
• buy equipment (det. buy a truck) [dev. will need more equipment as they
grow – potential for other local businesses]
• positive attitude of local people to hippos (det. usually avoid them) [dev.
hippos seen as an asset to protect rather than a nuisance]
• broadening skill set of local people / transferrable skills (det. English
skills, licences) [dev. expands programme of study / career progression / not
having to rely on volunteers to teach]
• better understanding of hippos in general (det. discussion of published
material) [dev. publicity (for polers/area)]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the response,
contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
2 4–6 • There is some evidence of general understanding of the main ideas, although
the response may be thin or in places lack focus on the text or the question.
• Some brief, straightforward reference to the text is made.
• There may be some reliance on lifting from the text.
• One of the bullets may not be addressed.
• The voice might be inappropriate.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Published
Students did not sit exam papers in the June 2020 series due to the Covid-19 global pandemic.
This mark scheme is published to support teachers and students and should be read together with the
question paper. It shows the requirements of the exam. The answer column of the mark scheme shows the
proposed basis on which Examiners would award marks for this exam. Where appropriate, this column also
provides the most likely acceptable alternative responses expected from students. Examiners usually review
the mark scheme after they have seen student responses and update the mark scheme if appropriate. In the
June series, Examiners were unable to consider the acceptability of alternative responses, as there were no
student responses to consider.
Mark schemes should usually be read together with the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. However,
because students did not sit exam papers, there is no Principal Examiner Report for Teachers for the June
2020 series.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™ and Cambridge International A & AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note 1: All Examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected
approaches in candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant
knowledge and skills demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and
derived from the passage.
Note 2: Words underlined in the answers to the questions are required for the full mark(s) to
be awarded.
1(a) Give three examples of man-made materials humans use more than 1
plastic.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
• incredible / amazing
• (large) amount (of plastic)
Identify two facts about how plastic items are dealt with, which lead to
plastic waste littering the environment.
1(e) Re-read paragraphs 6 and 7, (‘In the meantime ... that long.”’). 3
Using your own words, explain the reasons why the problem of plastic
waste is not being dealt with quickly enough.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be
credited.
1(f) According to Text B, what problems are associated with plastic waste 15
and the way documentary programme makers are presenting the issue?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
The colours of the boats and houses by the harbour were bright and
cheerful.
vibrant (line 3)
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
At the time of the incident, rules about where oil tankers could wash out
their tanks were not as strict as they are now.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
Oil tankers washing out their tanks left huge patches of sea covered
with a film of poisonous oil.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
I turned and walked round the promontory to the eastern side. I’d only
been strolling along the seashore for maybe fifteen minutes, when I
caught sight of the first of them: black, unmoving shapes.
walking leisurely
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
I turned and walked round the promontory to the eastern side. I’d only
been strolling along the seashore for maybe fifteen minutes, when I
caught sight of the first of them: black, unmoving shapes.
noticed
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
I turned and walked round the promontory to the eastern side. I’d only
been strolling along the seashore for maybe fifteen minutes, when I
caught sight of the first of them: black, unmoving shapes.
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
his feelings about what he saw on the beach.
Initially, I was aware of only a few but, as I walked on, they grew in
number, until the whole beach appeared to be covered with black lumps
in a black carpet. Hundreds of oil-drenched penguins lay dead in the
sand. Dead penguins, covered in thick, cloying, suffocating oil and tar.
Each wave that broke piled another grim batch of carcasses on top of
those already there. The sight was dreadful, sickening and depressing.
• Paragraph 9 begins ‘Amid all this ...’ and is about approaching and
capturing the bird.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should
include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and
for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases (listed in the mark scheme on page 12)
that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the
analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements;
simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
2(d) Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
3 Imagine you are a local journalist. Recent events have prompted you to 25
write a magazine article about the need to better safeguard the area.
Base your interview on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to
use your own words. Address each of the three bullets.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to the attractions of the local area and why
people visit
Annotate A2 for references to the problems affecting the area and the likely
impact if things do not improve
Annotate A3 for references to what Tom Michell did and why, and the result
of his actions
3 A2: problems affecting the area and the likely impact if things do not
improve
• few visitors out of season (det. quiet resort) [dev. tourist business in the
area will struggle if visitor numbers are too low]
• pollution from tankers (det. washing out oil tank in the bay) [dev. will
spoil the views and affect ecosystem]
• no/little regulation to protect the environment (det. few/unreliable
reports) [dev. will get worse]
• rubbish on the beach (det. wood, disintegrating nets, plastic bottles)
[dev. tourists will be put off using the beach / cost implications to clear it
up]
• dead penguins (det. washed up on shore, vast numbers] [dev. health
risk, people will avoid the area]
A3: what Tom Michell did and why, and the result of his actions
Published
Students did not sit exam papers in the June 2020 series due to the Covid-19 global pandemic.
This mark scheme is published to support teachers and students and should be read together with the
question paper. It shows the requirements of the exam. The answer column of the mark scheme shows the
proposed basis on which Examiners would award marks for this exam. Where appropriate, this column also
provides the most likely acceptable alternative responses expected from students. Examiners usually review
the mark scheme after they have seen student responses and update the mark scheme if appropriate. In the
June series, Examiners were unable to consider the acceptability of alternative responses, as there were no
student responses to consider.
Mark schemes should usually be read together with the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. However,
because students did not sit exam papers, there is no Principal Examiner Report for Teachers for the June
2020 series.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™ and Cambridge International A & AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note 1: All Examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected
approaches in candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant
knowledge and skills demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and
derived from the passage.
Note 2: Words underlined in the answers to the questions are required for the full mark(s) to
be awarded.
1(a) Give two examples of enemies of real books according to the text. 1
• e-books
• e-readers
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase e.g. sales of traditional books
are rising.
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase e.g. neither side will win so
both carry on.
Give two reasons why the rise in the number of paper books sold was
significant.
• lucrative (categories)
• students have tried both types of textbook (and prefer print)
Explain why reading e-books may be less efficient than reading real
books, according to the text.
Using your own words, explain why people are unlikely to give up real
books altogether in favour of e-books.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be
credited.
1(f) According to Text B, how and why have bookshops had to change to 15
attract more customers?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
how :
• (more) spacious / airy
• improved lighting / well-lit / luminous
• cutting-edge design / contemporary feel
• easy to navigate / interactive map to locate book(s)
• cultural centre(s) / fashionable
• diversified product ranges / increased range of product(s)
• functional space (for business / meetings / conferences)
• targeting younger audience / child-friendly
why:
• (traditional bookstore(s)) considered old fashioned / lost appeal
• inefficiency of layout
• online shopping more convenient / quicker to buy online
• bookshops were not providing good service
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
A lot of the books in the store seem to be from the ancient past.
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
The narrator was looking at the outside edges of the books to check
what they were called.
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
The narrator lost his job when the economy plunged dramatically
downwards.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
sweeping: moved with irresistible force / clearing away everything in its path
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
what the narrator thinks about the burger bun.
The job I’d lost was at the corporate headquarters of a very new,
company. It wrote software to design and bake the perfect burger bun:
smooth crunchy skin, soft interior. It was my first job out of art school. I
started as a designer, making marketing materials to explain and
promote this tasty treat: menus, diagrams and posters for store
windows.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should
include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and
for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases (listed in the mark scheme on page 12)
that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the
analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements;
simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
3 Imagine you are Mr Penumbra. Clay has been working in your store now 25
for over a year and has suggested ways to improve the bookshop and
increase trade. You reflect on your thoughts and Clay’s suggestions in
your journal.
• remember what exactly happened the day you first met Clay and
your impressions of him
• reflect on the shop as it is now – what you like about it
• outline the suggestions Clay has made for how he could help
improve the bookstore
Base your journal entry on what you have read in Text C, but be careful
to use your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to what exactly happened the day Penumbra met
Clay and his impressions of Clay
Annotate A2 for references to what Penumbra likes about the shop now and
his concerns about it
Annotate A3 for references to Clay’s suggestions for how he could help
improve the bookstore and how these might make a difference
A1: what exactly happened the day you first met Clay and your impressions of
him
3 A2: the shop as it is now – what you like about it and your concerns
about it
• quantity of stock (det. packed close) [dev. any book you could think of]
• quality of stock (det. leather, gold-leaf, antiquarian) [dev. valuable,
attractive to collectors]
• atmosphere/character of shop (det. Penumbra’s) [dev. reflects his
interest and characters, personal and unique]
• low tech (det. paper books, wooden desk
• (too) quiet /peaceful (det. old) [dev. likes to be alone to read in shop in
own world / aware needs more customers and needs support]
A3: the suggestions Clay has made for how he could help improve the
bookstore and how these might make a difference
Published
Students did not sit exam papers in the June 2020 series due to the Covid-19 global pandemic.
This mark scheme is published to support teachers and students and should be read together with the
question paper. It shows the requirements of the exam. The answer column of the mark scheme shows the
proposed basis on which Examiners would award marks for this exam. Where appropriate, this column also
provides the most likely acceptable alternative responses expected from students. Examiners usually review
the mark scheme after they have seen student responses and update the mark scheme if appropriate. In the
June series, Examiners were unable to consider the acceptability of alternative responses, as there were no
student responses to consider.
Mark schemes should usually be read together with the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. However,
because students did not sit exam papers, there is no Principal Examiner Report for Teachers for the June
2020 series.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™ and Cambridge International A & AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note 1: All Examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected
approaches in candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant
knowledge and skills demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and
derived from the passage.
Note 2: Words underlined in the answers to the questions are required for the full mark(s) to
be awarded.
1(a) Give two examples of what advertisements say about Erfoo (Earth Food) 1
according to the text.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
• weariness / tiredness
• eating at midday / light meal during day
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Give two examples of reactions which showed that the writer’s friends
and family did not all think that switching to Erfoo was a good idea
1(d)(ii) Explain what the writer did not like about Erfoo when they first tried it. 3
• tastes revolting
• lumpy
• (sounds / feels) like vomiting (backwards)
• feel full but not as if you’ve eaten / not satisfying
1(e) Re-read paragraphs 5, 6 and 7, (‘When lunchtime next rolls around ... 3
banana instead.’). Using your own words, explain why the writer decides
not to continue with Erfoo.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be
credited.
1(f) According to Text B, what are the worries and concerns some people 15
have about the new meal-replacement products now available?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
towering (line 2)
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
Andrei believed that doing the same thing over stopped people being
inventive.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
nearly all
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
Lois’ feelings while at work.
Programmers often slept at the office. Some nights I’d lie there, staring
blankly at the ceiling and the braids of fibre channel ferrying data
around the office. My parents were far away, locked in the frame of a
video-chat window. I had no friends nearby. There was a knot in my
stomach that wouldn’t loosen. I existed in a state of stupor, brain
flaccid, cells gasping. I couldn’t get my turbine spinning.
• staring blankly: not thinking, losing her creativity, lacking emotion like
the other programmers
• braids of fibre channel: complex pattern of wiring around the office,
• high-speed / technologically advanced network of cables, only thing to
look at and all the same
• ferrying data: moving information around constantly, contrasts with the
lethargy she feels, pointless activity as ferrying suggests going back and
forth to same point
• locked in: cannot get to her parents, can only see their image on screen,
suggests she misses contact with her parents in real life
• knot in my stomach: uncomfortable sensation in stomach, suggests
physically unwell, affecting her health
• stupor: as if stunned , unable to act to help herself
• flaccid: hanging limply, loosely, of little use
• gasping: unable to breathe freely, every atom of her being is dying
• turbine spinning: no energy, could get going, loss of vitality is evident
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should
include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and
for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases (listed in the mark scheme on page 12)
that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the
analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements;
simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
dark confident script: hint of intrigue, though reliable and self- assured
character of writer suggested
intrigued me: fascinated, tempted, lured her in exuberant letters:
loud/colourful, enthusiastic compact: small, limited range
curling connectors: strokes / curved lines of the writing linking
information, suggests moving / natural, tendrils
charmed
my life bent off on a different track: affected her future, changed what
lay ahead
Overview:
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
3 Imagine you are Andrei. You have noticed the changes in Lois which 25
have made you reconsider how your business operates and decide to
make some improvements. A few weeks later, you give a speech to
other business owners.
• the nature of your business, what you hope to achieve and how
successful it has been so far
• the concerns you have had about your staff
• the improvements you have made at GD as a result of speaking with
Lois.
Base your speech on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
3 A1: the nature of your business, what you hope to achieve and how
successful it has been so far
• design software (det. robot arms able to wave) [dev. still improving but
voice recognition is going well]
• founded the company himself (det. General Dexterity, lightning bolt
logo) [dev. innovative, continuing to grow]
• large premises (det. formerly a carpark,) [dev. repurposed building
shows bringing economic growth to area / using resources already there
– environmentally sound]
• hi tech (det. large numbers of robots, data, fibre channel in office) [dev.
cutting edge, pushing boundaries]
• aim to replace human labour with robots (det. in factories, for
repetitive tasks) [dev. improve quality of life for workers – no more boring
jobs; reduce costs for factories]
• age (det. young) [dev. often moved away from family and friends,
vulnerable to loneliness]
• are not friendly to each other (det. none greeted Lois warmly) [dev. overly
competitive rather than supportive]
• lack individuality (det. wear same denim) [dev. do not seem to have the
creativity needed for the job]
• work long hours (det. start early, finish past midnight, sleeping in the
office) [dev. stressful to work without a break, less efficient as a result]
• concerned only with money (det. in a hurry to be rich and done) [dev. not
investing emotionally in work or company]
• not eating properly (det. canteen often empty, consuming Slurry) [dev.
causing health issues, lack of energy]
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the
question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation
scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when
these features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme.
The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the
question (however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the
candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks
should not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) Give the three reasons people go bicycle touring, according to paragraph 1
2.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands).Award 1 mark for partial
explanation. Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase.
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands).Award 1 mark for partial
explanation. Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase (e.g. many different
types, large variety).
• wide
• range / selection / variety
Give two reasons why bicycle touring might particularly appeal to people
who want to improve their physical health.
Identify two things you should do when training for your bicycle tour.
Explain why camping rather than staying in hotels during your tour can
slow down your progress.
Using your own words, explain why some people might not want to go on
a bicycle tour.
Award 1 mark for each idea, predominantly in own words, upto a maximum
of 3.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should notbe credited.
1(f) According to Text B, what are the various attractions of cycle touring? 15
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own words
as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading andTable B
Writing).
INDICATIVE READING CONTENT
Candidates may refer to any of the points below:
1 romantic way to travel / romantic image
2 independence / freedom from confines of work
3 see the world / travel the world
4 wild camping / campsites in forest(s) / cosy campsites
5 rest days (in relaxing surroundings) / opportunities to relax (on beach)
6 talking with locals / conversing with local people on range of topics / locals
are welcoming
7 proving what you are capable of / overcoming physical challenge
8 excitement of the unknown / adventure
9 animals you would not see from a car / noticing flowers you might otherwise
miss
10 quaint / small villages
11 other cyclists who help you / camaraderie
12 experiencing the food / unusual food
13 unexpected discoveries (not in the guide book) / roadside shack in the
middle of nowhere
Table A, Reading
2 3–4 • A basic response that demonstrates some understanding of the requirements of the
task.
• Demonstrates general understanding of some relevant ideas and is sometimes
focused.
• There may be some indiscriminate selection of ideas.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a range of
well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence of
concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate)
but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R2 1
2(a)(iv) R2 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
Question Answer
Marks
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
Vivian and Chris met up with their hosts for the evening.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
After more walking / cycling we closed the day making camp by Lake
O’Hara. I’d found a great spot with inspirational views of snowy peaks.
Vivian seemed concerned about wildlife, particularly bears: ‘I’ve been
camping on petrol station forecourts.’
Vivian wasn’t exactly happy but began to erect her tent and unpack. I
did the same, somewhat faster, then cooked us dinner on my trusty
stove. Vivian’s stove was one of the many things she’d thrown away.
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
Question Answer
Marks
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer 3
suggests his thoughts and feelings that evening.
After more walking / cycling we closed the day making camp by Lake
O’Hara. I’d found a great spot with inspirational views of snowy peaks.
Vivian seemed concerned about wildlife, particularly bears: ‘I’ve been
camping on petrol station forecourts.’
Vivian wasn’t exactly happy but began to erect her tent and unpack. I
did the same, somewhat faster, then cooked us dinner on my trusty
stove. Vivian’s stove was one of the many things she’d thrown away.
Question Answer
Marks
2(c) • seemed concerned about wildlife, particularly bears: either does not
understand her concern, or is well aware and thinks it is funny
• Are you serious?: cannot believe this, incredulous tone suggested,
amazed how she has survived
• wasn’t exactly happy: gentle amusement at her discomfort / not
bothered by her feelings
• somewhat faster: feeling superior, finds her lack of speed /experience
endearing and/or amusing
• trusty stove: emphasises self-image as a heroic figure, battling
through; the stove has been with him on his adventures [like a knight’s
horse]
• one of the many things: considers her to have made basic errors;
critical of her decisions
Question Answer
Marks
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words
and for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases (listed in the mark scheme on pages
16 and 17) that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of
the analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate
statements; simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about
the selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Question Answer
Marks
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
Overview: contrast of the excitement of the new landscape compared with the
prairies
• unrelenting, unbending highway: dead straight line of the road
through the prairies, hard going, merciless, no break
• now empty green scenery: lack of interest or feature adds to the
monotony, blandness, reminiscent of a virtual landscape
• mind-numbingly boring: uninteresting and uninspiring, cliché
• finally (we began to) spot trees: as if having been looking out for them,
excitement of some kind of variety at last
• (at first they were) sporadic: few and irregular initially, promise of more
to come
• grouped together, calling themselves forests: gradually more trees,
as if gathering excitedly, sense of a club or gang
• significant achievement: great accomplishment, success, real
mission, sense of reward
• dotted with tempting lakes, ponds and rivers: as if decorated
attractively with water features, inviting and suggesting would like to
explore them
5 13–15 • Wide-ranging discussion of judiciously selected language with some high quality
comments that add meaning and associations to words/phrases in both parts of the
text, and demonstrate the writer’s reasons for using them.
• Tackles imagery with some precision and imagination.
• There is clear evidence that the candidate understands how language works.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that communicate
less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why they are
used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Vivian. Several months after completing your journey you have written 25
a book about the experience. You are interviewed for a television show to
promote your book.
• Can you tell us about the early part of your journey and the kind of
difficulties you faced?
• Part of your journey was travelling with Chris – what benefits and
drawbacks were there for each of you in travelling together?
• You finished your journey alone – why was that? How do you think the
journey changed you?
Base your interview on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullet points. Write about 250 to
350 words.
Up to 15 marks are available for the content of your answer and up to 10 marks
for the quality of your writing.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which covers
the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the candidate’s own
words.
Annotate A1 for references to the early part of Vivian’s journey and the kind of
difficulties faced
Annotate A2 for references to travelling with Chris and the benefits and drawbacks
there were for each of them in travelling together
Annotate A3 for references to how and why continued solo and how whole
experience changed her
3 A1: early part of Vivian’s journey and the kind of difficulties she faced 25
• lacked essentials (det. lost all her food, ran out of water) [dev.careless / unlucky
/ embarrassed looking back / not well prepared]
• (avoided) encounters with wildlife (det. thought she saw a bear, camped on
petrol station forecourts) [dev.frightened / nightmare / paranoid / potentially
dangerous]
• bike problems / bike broke (det. wheel) [dev. had to push it to the visitor centre
/ inexperienced / no idea how to mend it ]
• carrying equipment / jettisoned some equipment (det. threw mirror and stove
away) [dev.made the wrong decisions initially / foolish / struggled to carry all the
necessary equipment]
• slow progress during early stages (det. pushing up hills) [dev.lacked fitness
levels / hard going]
A2: travelling with Chris and the benefits and drawbacks there werefor each of
them in travelling together
• offered assistance at the visitor centre (det. able to fix her bike,shared food)
[dev. kind / meant well / relieved]
• corrected by / learned from Chris (det. wrong gear, never ridden long distance
before) [dev. helpful / grateful / annoying / annoyed / should have learned more
before she set off]
• Chris’ choice of campsites (det. great spot with inspirational views of snowy
peaks) [dev. would not have tried them otherwise]
• slower than him initially (det. he waited for her) [dev. he was no better, just
physically stronger]
• company (det. got on (surprisingly) well, cooked together) [dev.reassuring /
entertaining]
• equipment (det. portable stove, iPhone, booked hosts, shower) [dev. mutually
beneficial / Chris not used to technology]
3 A3: how and why continued solo and how whole experience changed her
• hurt /annoyed (det. said he wanted to cycle separately) [dev.thought they were
friends / teammates / misunderstood Chris / impetuous]
• Chris’ attitude / lack of communication (det. no explanation, not ‘bright’) [dev.
patronising / self-opinionated / overbearing / old-fashioned]
• different views / interests (det. animal collection, Chris wanted to see
beavers/wildlife, she hates slugs,guess-the-animal game) [dev. just humouring
him / own views and interests dominate / found her direction in life]
• fitter and faster (det. she was able to shoot past him) [dev.experience had
grown daily]
• more confident / knew what she wanted to do with her life (det. only knew
about city life previously) [dev.adapted to surroundings / conquered her fears re
wildlife]
• challenge / prove she could do it / independence (det. was not at the start of the
journey when they met) [dev. proud of herself / able to survive / resourceful /
putting into practice what learned]
Table A, Reading
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the response,
contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some evidence of
basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
2 4–6 • There is some evidence of general understanding of the main ideas, although the
response may be thin or in places lack focus on the text or the question.
• Some brief, straightforward reference to the text is made.
• There may be some reliance on lifting from the text.
• One of the bullets may not be addressed.
• The voice might be inappropriate.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
2 3–4 • There may be some awkwardness of expression and some inconsistency of style.
• Language is too limited to express shades of meaning.
• There is structural weakness and there may be some copying from the text.
• Frequent errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R1 2
1(c) R1 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘dominates the region’ (line 3)
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial
explanation.
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘integral part’ (lines 5 and 6)
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial
explanation.
• (Antarctic) ice reflects large amounts of solar radiation away from Earth /
decreases the ability of the Earth’s surface to reflect solar radiation / more
radiation is absorbed
• (loss of ice) affects heat balance / linked to global warming
Identify two reasons why the region is popular for scientific research
from lots of different countries.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be
credited.
1(f) According to Text B, what challenges does Searle face to achieve her 15
goal?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence
of concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R2 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R2 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
The scientists’ observations that the climate of the Earth is changing are
impossible to prove wrong.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer 3
suggests the contrast between the narrator and the Base people living
permanently on the base.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should
include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and
for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases (listed in the mark scheme on pages 14
and 15) that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the
analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements;
simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
• (around us) the world was hardening: water freezing and solidifying,
becoming more hostile
• started as ice flowers, tiny crystal formations: delicate, fragile
patterns in frozen water, beautiful
• creeping carpet of flowers knitted together: gradually being covered
by ice; individual crystals float to the surface, accumulate and bond
together, sense of magical or living force
• soaked by seawater: contrasts with the beauty of initial images,
suggests heavy and cold, deadening effect on emotions
• grey gruel, thickening into porridge: unappetising, gloopy substance,
reminiscent of prison
• temperatures plummeted: became suddenly very cold, breathtaking
drop in temperature
• (porridge-ice) welded itself together like steel grinding: change of
state from liquid to solid is complete, ice is hard and powerful, metallic
sound, industrial
• gathering darkness: long difficult winter ahead, brooding menace
• continent was closing in on itself, locking itself in: imprisoned by
winter, natural process, shutting the rest of the world out
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Simon, Base commander. You are giving a speech for a group 25
of young people to explain to them the opportunities and challenges of
living and working on the base station.
• explain the different kinds of jobs available at Base station and what
activities each job might involve
• outline what they can expect day-to-day life to be like when they first
arrive and once they have settled in
• suggest the challenges and rewards of living and working at the
Antarctic base station.
Base your speech on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B,
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A2 for references to what day-to-day life would be like when they
first arrive and once they have settled in.
3 A1: the different kinds of jobs available at Base station and what activities
each job might involve
• scientists (det. involved in ice-coring team, Xavier, field work, laboratory
work) [dev. ground-breaking research, important lessons to be learned]
• marine biologists (det. diving with seals and orcas, Ben) [dev.
adventurous, brave]
• mechanics / engineers (det. planes, ski equipment, sewage treatment
plant, generators) [dev. keeping the place running]
• pilots / air traffic control (det. transporting scientists to and from field
camps) [dev. incredible views from air, challenge of landing planes safely]
• cooks (det. tinned food) [dev. difficult to get fresh supplies, lots of people
to feed]
A2: what day to day life will be like when they first arrive at Base and once
they have settled in
• field training (det. learning to: abseil into a crevasse, get out and rescue
someone, break our fall with an ice-axe, erect pyramid tents, cook on
camp-stoves, and load a sledge) [dev. out of comfort zone]
• learning (det. lectures) [dev. inspirational, new perspectives, expert
opinion]
• briefings (det. drills, mishaps) [dev. more dangerous in winter, could be
fatal]
• expeditions / group trips (det. collecting water samples) [dev.
contributing to research]
• keeping fit / exercise / (det. walks) [dev. freedom to go off and explore
(until Winter approaches)]
• social life (det. cards, no Wi-Fi) [dev. need to adjust, have to make own
entertainment]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R1 2
1(c) R1 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) Give two examples of primates that have surprised and impressed 1
research scientists according to the text.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial
explanation.
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial
explanation.
Give two reasons why it seems particularly surprising that only human
primates can actually talk.
• (primates) have similar vocal anatomy (to humans) / tongues and larynx
are almost the same (as humans)
• closest primate to humans can make a number of distinct calls /
vocalisations of bonobos evidence early language
Identify the two main tasks Dr Dunn completed to carry out his research.
Using your own words, explain why some people might not accept the
findings of the research.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
1(f) According to Text B, what was Project Nim, what exactly did it involve 15
and what criticisms might people have of the project?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
1 language experiment
2 taught chimp(s) sign language
3 trying to prove not only humans used language / disprove Chomsky / test
language theory
4 unethical / cruel / inappropriate treatment
5 affects both humans and chimp’s emotions (unfairly)
6 chimp sent to join a human family / chimp raised as a human
7 struggled to adapt / did not fit into either the human world or chimp world /
should be in the wild
8 experiment proved nothing / still an unanswered question today /
experiment unsuccessful / only able to use fragments of signs
9 returned to institute / abandoned him
10 treated like a commodity / sold on
11 never met another chimp / should be with other chimps / deprived of
social (chimp) interaction
12 humans projected their feelings onto the chimp / were not able to judge
real effect on him
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence
of concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R2 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R2 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
The writer knew that although the chimps’ day had begun quietly this
could change to a chaotic, noisy situation.
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
The grassy ridge provided a place from which to observe the chimps.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
People thought that chimps were calm, even-tempered animals who did
not eat meat.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
habits: what they usually do, what they normally eat; typical behaviour(s),
routine actions, customary behaviour(s)
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
Jane’s feelings that day.
• Paragraph 6 begins ‘My attention ...’ and is about the rainstorm and
Frodo’s reaction to it.
• Paragraph 7 begins ‘It must have taken ...’ and describes the scene
after the storm has passed.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should
include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and
for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases (listed in the mark scheme on pages 16
and 17) that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the
analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements;
simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Paragraph 6 begins ‘My attention ... ’ and is about the rainstorm and
Frodo’s reaction to it.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
Paragraph 7 begins ‘It must have taken ...’ and describes the scene after
the storm has passed.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
Base your magazine article on what you have read in Text C, but be
careful to use your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B,
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A3 for references to why Jane’s work is important and what she
hopes to achieve
• getting up very early (det. (wakes before) alarm) [dev. keen to get back
to see chimps, long day]
• scientist studying chimps / observing the chimps (det. photos,
notebook) [dev. long term passion / personal investment]
• no time for meals / surviving on limited rations (det. banana, handful
of raisins for lunch) [dev. dedicated / practicalities of carrying more food
supplies]
• tracking / patience / waiting (det. previous evening through to morning,
thirty minutes staying still waiting for them to leave) [dev. sudden
movements might upset chimps / experienced]
• needs to be fit / walks a long way (det. valley, lake, slope, climbing
legs) [dev. tricky moving through different terrains]
• working outside in extreme weather (det. torrential rain, thunder) [dev.
less well-equipped to cope than the chimps]
A2: what Jane has learned about the chimpanzees and their lives
• social structure / live in family groups (det. siblings have names given
to them by Jane) [dev. some similarities with human social structure]
• communication (det. noises to warn) [dev. in early days hard to get
close as if one spotted her the others would soon know]
• use tools (det. trimming blade of grass) [dev. problem solvers, making
life easier for themselves]
• food habits (det. eat leaves but also meat, termites, eat frequently, not
vegetarian) [dev. amazing discovery / people did not realise]
• territorial / aggressive (det. war with neighbouring chimps, grown
accustomed to Jane in their vicinity) [dev. can be brutal / dangerous if she
was in the middle of it / needs to be aware / needed to gain their trust]
• sleep habits (det. nest in trees, rustling of leaves indicates waking) [dev.
protect young]
• travel habits (det. travel in formation, particular routes, follow a leader)
[dev. ordered and organised / move quickly]
A3: why Jane’s work is important and what she hopes to achieve
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) Give the two examples of types of endurance events, other than ultra- 1
marathons, according to the text.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘challenge the limits’ (line 3):
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘mythical beast’ (line 4):
short(er)
involves getting hurt / more dangerous / fire / electric shock
Give two reasons why the writer decided to drop their ‘habitual laziness’ and
take up
running.
Explain why extreme sports are growing in popularity according to the text.
Using your own words, explain why some Ironman competitors might still like
to compete in marathons.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
1(f) According to Text B, why did Jayden Dee want to take part in this particular 15
event?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own words as
far as possible.
Up to 10 marks are available for the content of your answer and up to 5 marks
for the quality of your writing.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing).
Table A, Reading
0 0 No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
The response is well organised.
The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence
of concision.
There may be some lapses in organisation.
The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.
0 0 No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R2 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R2 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
The writer was slightly unsure that it was a good idea to publish their blog entry.
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
Her husband’s training had little effect on the daily life of the family to begin
with.
(Initially it) didn’t really impact (our lives too much) (line 8)
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
Fitting in bike rides to the family’s weekend schedule was perfectly manageable.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
The writer accepted grumpily that they hadn’t changed their mind about Sam
competing in the Ironman.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
June was all about Ironman. Endless weekends with Sam gone until 5pm each
day. After exercise he would need to sleep for an hour or so, thus he was
technically gone for longer. I was desperate for us to go away and have a break
from it.
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
desperate: longing (for) / badly wanted / strongly desired / unable to cope without
having / needed
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests their 3
feelings about Sam’s approach to training for the Ironman event.
There was so much laundry (‘different road conditions’) so much extra food
(‘fuel’) and so much gear (multiple pairs of goggles with different tints ‘because
you never know…’)! Smiling understandingly, Sam assured me the next one will
be cheaper. Next one?
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create effect in
these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases from each
paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should include the use of
imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and for an
understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect responses to provide
words / phrases that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of words
chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a range of choices
to demonstrate an understanding of how language works, and that this should include
the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the analysis that attracts marks. Do not
deduct marks for inaccurate statements; simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are relevant to
the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have some validity.
Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit comments on effects
created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar / syntax and punctuation
devices. These must be additional to comments on vocabulary.
Paragraph 10 begins ‘Because it’s there …’ and is about the writer’s reactions to
other people’s views.
2(d) Paragraph 12 begins ‘Having said all that …’ and is about the writer’s feelings at 15
the end of the race.
emerge god-like from the water: dramatic and powerful exit from the water, suggests
strength and conquering hero; achieved more than a mere ‘mortal’, transformed, in
awe of him
power past us: forceful, full of strength and energy even at the end of the race
rocket (down the finishing chute) : incredible speed, as if fuelled / propelled
head held high: looking up towards finish, pleasure in his own achievement, boosted
self-esteem
utterly incredible: amazing, unbelievable
intoxicating: dizzying, takes over senses, addicted
rare pinnacles of perfection: few instances, particularly special and memorable
moment of achievement, reminiscent of arriving at the highest point of a mountain,
unlikely to be replicated
epic journey: the shared experience of training and the race had been really hard and
long for the whole family, heroic adventure, amazing tale coming to its successful
conclusion
And next year? Well yes, it’s my turn … : time for the focus to be on her, would do
the whole thing again, acknowledges a shift in perspective, more balanced
conclusions and a sense of more of their story to come / defiant / determined
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to choices.
5 13–15 Wide-ranging discussion of judiciously selected language with some high quality
comments that add meaning and associations to words/phrases in both parts of
the text, and demonstrate the writer’s reasons for using them.
Tackles imagery with some precision and imagination.
There is clear evidence that the candidate understands how language works.
2 4–6 The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why they are
used.
Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Sam. After completing the race you are interviewed for a podcast about 25
your experience and the advice you would offer to anyone thinking of entering an
Ironman.
How exactly do you need to prepare for a challenge like Ironman and why is
each aspect of that preparation important?
How do you think preparing for Ironman affected other areas of your life and
what advice would you offer anyone considering entering an Ironman for the
first time?
What were the rewards of completing an Ironman for you and your family?
Base your interview on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use your
own words. Address each of the three bullets.
Up to 15 marks are available for the content of your answer and up to 10 marks for
the quality of your writing.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them relevantly,
supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an appropriate register for
the genre, and a clear and balanced response which covers the three areas of the
question, is well sequenced, and is in the candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to how exactly you need to prepare for a challenge like
Ironman and why each aspect of that preparation.
Annotate A2 for references to how Sam thinks preparing for Ironman affected other
areas of his life and what advice he would offer anyone considering entering an Ironman
for the first time.
Annotate A3 for references to the rewards of completing an Ironman for Sam and his
family.
3 A1: How exactly do you need to prepare for a challenge like Ironman and why is
each aspect of that preparation important?
dedicating time to training (det. started January, six months before event) [dev.
there is a lot to do, need time to make progress]
get a coach (det. expert) [dev. help avoid costly mistakes of an amateur]
plan targets (det. monthly training plans) [dev. build up strength and fitness / reason
it gets progressively harder / help to remain focused]
bike rides (det. 1-3 hour rides initially) [dev. significant part of the race / don’t want
to fail at one or more of the disciplines]
swims (det. visits to local pool / own pool) [dev. need to ensure you are practising
the other disciplines not just the easiest / could be difficult if no water resource easily
accessible locally]
kit (det. special goggles) [dev. keep you safe / want to look good ]
focus on health (det. food as fuel, sleep for an hour) [dev. recovering / for energy]
A2: How do you think preparing for Ironman affected other areas of your life and
what advice would you offer anyone considering entering an Ironman for the first
time?
holidays / excursions (det. no camping for the kids; no family hiking) [dev. sacrifice
you have to make]
relationship with wife (det. fed up, initially bonding experience) [dev. try to build in
training together for as long as you can / annoying having to justify / unfair on her]
problems at work / negative reactions of others (det. less than supportive
business partner, others questioning decision) [dev. difficult to balance everything /
talk through (potential) issues]
restricted social life / limited leisure time (det. no time at weekends, not being
able to say yes to invitations) [dev. don’t be put off]
family / relationship with children / responsibilities as a parent (det. childcare,
tears from son after he had gone) [dev. plan for extra help in advance / wasn’t aware
of the effect on them]
finance (det. cost of all the extras) [dev. be realistic / consider whether you really
need as much / budget in advance]
A3: What were the rewards of completing an Ironman for you and your family?
excitement of the finish (det. crowd) [dev. lifted by the sense of occasion, special
memory to cherish]
own sense of achievement (det. head held high) [dev. feeling mentally stronger /
more powerful mentally / belief in self / all worth it ]
proud reaction of family (det. children cheering him on) [dev. team effort / bonding
as a family]
inspiration for others (det. wife planning to enter next year) [dev. role model for
children]
publicity (for the travel company / personal) (det. interview / podcast / articles)
[dev. may offer new/increased opportunities, proving doubters wrong / buoyed by the
articles]
5 13–15 The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
A wide range of ideas is applied.
There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
All three bullets are well covered.
A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
A good range of ideas is evident.
Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
All three bullets are covered.
An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R2 2
1(c) R1 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(d)(ii) R1 and R5 3
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) What piece of equipment is used to move a kayak through the water 1
according to the text?
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘buoyant vessel’ (line 2):
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘pragmatic way’ (line 6):
Give the two examples of ‘open water’ that can be explored in a kayak
according to the text.
additional challenge
access remote areas (of beauty)
Explain why sit-on-top kayaks may not be suitable for some paddlers
according to the text.
Using your own words, explain why some people might think that
kayaking is better for the environment than other forms of water-based
transport.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
does not pollute the water / does not pump out gases / does not burn fuel
silent / no traffic noise
animals have time to get out of the way / slow speed of kayak makes
animals safer
(some) kayakers are responsible / allows user to remove water to protect
marine species
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
0 0 No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
The response is well organised.
The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence
of concision.
There may be some lapses in organisation.
The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.
0 0 No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R2 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R2 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
The towns in southern Alaska were spread out at different points a long
way away from each other.
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
Audrey would go on paddling trips when she could manage to find any
time for a holiday.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
She knew before setting off that her kayak was in a good enough
condition to sail on the sea.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
arrived: turned up / was delivered / came (in the post) / reached (her)
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
other boats might be better suited to the planned journey.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should
include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and
for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases that carry connotations additional to
general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the
analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements;
simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
[Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.]
2 4–6 The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are a journalist writing for a teenage magazine some years after the 25
events described in the text. You decide to write a feature article about
Audrey Sutherland and her first attempt to paddle Alaska.
Base your article on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullets.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
A2: preparations she made for this first Alaskan journey and why these
preparations were necessary
planning the route (det. notches on pencil, consulting map, advanced
booking of cabins) [dev. measure distances / consider risks / ensure good
exploring opportunities]
mailing gear to friends (det. camping equipment) [dev. too much to carry
on plane but basic as can be mailed out, well-organised /resourceful]
resupply boxes (det. dried food, incredulous postmasters) [dev. make
sure can stock up on the route, can’t rely on shops in remote towns, need
particular (high energy / easily prepared) food]
(choice of) boat (det. patching, light enough to carry) [dev. needs to be
watertight / has seen better days / attention to detail as can’t leave
potential leak, familiar, trusts it]
order wet weather gear (det. yellow and waterproof / water resistant)
[dev. essential protection to help keep warmer and drier (little/no
protection from the boat)]
A3: why she wanted to paddle Alaska and the various rewards of that trip
natural scenery / landscape (det. secluded beaches, hidden inlets,
coves, islets, hot springs, watching the sunsets / sunrises) [dev. discover
beauty of the region]
morale building / mental health (det. unsure of what to do with life) [dev.
chance to relax / reset, confidence to go further and do more]
history (det. old cabins, famous voyages) [dev. adventure]
animals (det. whales, otters) [dev. chance to get up close in the water]
physical challenge (det. wanting to get fitter) [dev. satisfying to survive
harsh conditions, sense of achievement; proving others wrong, being the
first to succeed in such a small boat]
local delicacies (det. found in the wild) [dev. can only be sourced there]
fame / publicity (det. magazine article about her) [dev. inspiring others to
change their lives]
5 13–15 The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
A wide range of ideas is applied.
There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
All three bullets are well covered.
A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
A good range of ideas is evident.
Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
All three bullets are covered.
An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R2 2
1(c) R1 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(d)(ii) R1 and R5 3
1(e) R1 and R2 3
R1, R2 and R5 10
1(f)
W2, W3 and W5 5
Total 30
1(a) How many species of snakes are venomous, according to the text? 1
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘significantly wound’ (line 3)
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘pose little threat’ (line 7)
Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase e.g. won’t harm easily
protect(ive)
regulate body temperature
reduce friction (as the snake moves) / make locomotion easier
Identify two features of a snake’s anatomy that make eating their prey
easier once they have caught it.
Explain the different ways snakes are able to locate food, according to
the text.
Using your own words, explain why some people might not know or be
surprised to discover that some snakes are critically endangered.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
0 0 No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
The response is well organised.
The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate),
using a range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
0 0 No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R2 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
As the writer arrived in the forest, there was unexpected, heavy rainfall.
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
Access to both online services and mobile signals was sporadic and
unreliable.
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
There were steps down to the camp site to provide an easier path down
for visitors not used to walking in the rainforest.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
Ah! My brimming heart and soothed soul enjoyed restful sleep in the
tent that first night. Bonfires and loud music are prohibited to avoid any
disturbance to animals and hygienic common bathrooms (with hot-
water facilities) were appreciated.
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
his feelings the first time he saw a snake in the wild.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should
include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and
for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases that carry connotations additional to
general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the
analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements;
simply ignore them.
2(d) The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Overview: sense of awe, being taken over by the impact on the senses.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
2 4–6 The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain
why they are used.
Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific
words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are a guide at Kalinga Centre for Rainforest Ecology KCRE and 25
have been invited to speak to students in a city school to persuade
them of the importance of the work KCRE does.
what the area has to offer to visitors and why people might enjoy
visiting
what facilities KCRE provides for its visitors and how you ensure
that visitors remain safe
what the aims of KCRE and its founder are, what you hope to
achieve by welcoming visitors and why that’s important for the
future.
Base your talk on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullets.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references what the area has to offer to visitors and why
people might enjoy visiting
Annotate A2 for references to what facilities KCRE provides for its visitors
and how KCRE ensures that visitors remain safe
Annotate A3 for references to the aims of KCRE and its founder, what
KCRE hopes to achieve by welcoming visitors and why that’s important for
the future
3 A1: what the area has to offer to visitors and why people might enjoy
visiting
A2: what facilities KCRE provides for its visitors and how you ensure
that visitors remain safe
solar power (det. told to bring fully charged batteries for cameras and
torches) [dev. can get very dark at night / avoids accidents at night]
steps (det. three flights, rocky) [dev. to make the descent easier for
beginners]
provide socks (det. anti-leech) [dev. not popular but essential piece of
kit]
guide(s) (det. meet in the dining hall, briefings and discussions) [dev.
ensures no one gets lost]
rules (det. take care of own belongings, no handling wildlife) [dev. need
to be aware of their responsibilities / avoids bites and stings]
hygienic facilities / standards (det. hot water, washing up facilities,
(organic) waste disposal bins) [dev. avoid attracting vermin / guard
against infections or disease / importance of recycling]
A3: what the aims of KCRE and its founder are, what you hope to
achieve by welcoming visitors and why that’s important for the future.
5 13–15 The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
A wide range of ideas is applied.
There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
All three bullets are well covered.
A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
A good range of ideas is evident.
Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense
of purpose.
All three bullets are covered.
An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or
a reproduction of sections of the original.
Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
Cambridge IGCSE™
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘reputation as an expert’ (line 3):
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘different perspective’ (line 4):
(help them to) make a significant change / (personal) change in their life
(encourage them to) concentrate on opportunities / not focus on
problems
Using your own words, explain why this expert does not consider that
the speakers they have met are motivational.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
1(f) According to Text B, what were the writer’s reasons for giving up 15
motivational speaking?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
0 0 No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
0 0 No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R2 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R2 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
Anna’s journey through New Zealand took her from one end of the
country to the other.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(ii) Anna was going to run the whole way with absolutely no help or 1
assistance.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(iii) Anna did think about buying a GPS to help her find her way. 1
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(iv) Kevin felt that lots of the people attempting it were not at all ready to 1
deal with the challenges of the trail.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
‘It just comes down to a choice about how you live your life,’ I
shrugged. ‘I’m a ‘‘work-it-out -when-I-get-there’’ kind of person.’
This was perhaps the reason why I’d failed to read even 10 per cent of
the trail notes before setting out. And possibly why a perceptive work
colleague had introduced me to Kevin who would meet me at the
airport.
Local expert Kevin had quizzed me about sections of the trail. Mostly
my responses were: ‘Umm, I’m not too sure on that particular bit.’
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer 3
suggests her attitude during the interview.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or
phrases from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices
should include the use of imagery.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
Paragraph 12 begins ‘No, I’d no idea ...’ and is about the natural
landscape Anna encountered on the trail.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
R1 demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings
R2 demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes
R3 analyse evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Anna. After completing your run successfully you return to the 25
UK and are asked to give a motivational speech to young people.
Base your speech on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to
use your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
A2: preparation for the challenge and what Anna wished she had done or
realised
reading trail notes (det. only read 10% of notes) [dev. should have been
better prepared / wished paid more attention / worked out ok / need to
know where to go when markers peter out]
differences between trails in NZ and Europe (det. forests, mountains)
[dev. not used to this terrain / no idea beforehand]
maps / compass (det. old fashioned navigation techniques/ no GPS)
[dev. may have been foolhardy / romanticised idea]
safety arrangements (det. spot tracker) [dev. useful / necessary /
sensible precaution]
practised more with backpack (det. over-estimated speed she could
travel carrying all her gear) [dev. backpack slowed her down / should
have made other arrangements for picking up supplies]
started the other end of the trail (det began at Stirling point) [dev. less
time to acclimatize / more challenging route from the outset]
A3: highlights of the whole experience, what Anna gained and why she
would recommend her audience to take on challenges.
radio interview (det. Southland FM’s Invercargill studio, meeting radio
host Rach) [dev. enjoyed fame and attention / new cultural experience]
discovery / adventure (det. wild, beauty of landscape) [dev. taking
some risks can be worth it / pushing yourself is important]
confidence / sense of achievement (det. own ‘Olympic’ achievement)
[dev. able to work through problems faced / overcome problems in own
life / positive mindset brings success]
support from others (det. support from friends, family, work
colleagues) [dev. gained their respect / inspiring others]
learned from Kevin (det. local expert, new friend) [dev. pleased she
met him / grateful for his advice]
1 1–3 The response is either very general, with little reference to the
text, or a reproduction of sections of the original.
Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the
text.
Cambridge IGCSE™
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) Give two qualities that are required to work a winter season at a ski resort, 1
according to the text.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: ‘staff quit’ (line 5): 2
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial explanation.
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: ‘variety of positions’ (line 2
7):
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial explanation.
Give two reasons why it might be difficult to ensure that you put in your
application in time.
Identify the two main decisions you will need to make before applying for a job in
a ski resort.
Explain the specific features of powder snow that make it the best snow to ride.
Using your own words, explain why some people might decide not to apply
through a recruitment organisation.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
1(f) According to Text B, what are the advantages and disadvantages of taking a 15
seasonal job?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own words as far
as possible. Your summary should not be more than 120 words.
Up to 10 marks are available for the content of your answer and up to 5 marks for
the quality of your writing.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing).
INDICATIVE READING CONTENT
Candidates may refer to any of the points below:
0 0 No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with concision.
The response is well organised.
The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence of
concision.
There may be some lapses in organisation.
The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.
0 0 No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R2 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R2 1
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
The writer felt that the training presentation had been designed to
emphasise that the least attractive job on the resort was being a liftie.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(iii) The writer struggled to walk, almost falling, as he arrived back at his 1
accommodation.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
overlooked: fail(ed) to notice / (cho(o)se to) ignore / do not punish / tacitly allow /
do not acknowledge
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
avoided: kept away from / did not go near / stay off / steered clear of
2 4–6 The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why they
are used.
Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are a journalist writing an article about the job of a ski-lift attendant 25
(liftie) as part of a series on interesting seasonal jobs for young people.
Base your article on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing)
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
A2: what being a liftie involves and what might appeal to young people about this
job
crewing the ski lift (det. allocated a lift station, tiny booth, testing the
equipment, helping guests on and off, early mornings, lifts work all day) [dev.
responsible for safe operation of that station]
• knowing how a lift works (det. need to fix the lift if something goes wrong)
[dev. skills develop with experience rather than training]
• working with a partner (det. cover for each other, colder being the person at
the top) [dev. need to be able to manage the job alone, work together to
enable fun]
• chance to snowboard at work (det. quick-laps tolerated by boss) [dev. extra
bonus, not really part of the job description]
• dealing with emergencies (det. radio, assisting guests) [dev. adventure /
variety]
• amazing sights (det. beautiful ice ‘sculptures’ of chair lifts) [dev. unexpected,
appreciating the power of nature / life-changing experience]
3 A3: what someone might find challenging about working as a liftie and advice for
any young person considering applying for any job at this resort
weather (det. clearing ice from chairs in morning is hard work, very cold,
storms, strong winds, get freezing despite wearing layers) [dev. can be
extreme at times / not unusual to be stranded / can be miserable / need to be
physically strong]
• training (det. brief, few details explained beforehand, no hands-on or
practical training) [dev. expected to learn on the job and get on with it / can
feel completely out of depth]
• understanding the jargon: (det. ‘quick-laps’, ‘Back country’, ‘The base’)
[dev. feeling excluded / cool when you get it though / do some research
before]
• supervisor(s) (det. Boss) [dev. expect you to do as you are told, does not
encourage you to ask questions / Boss not phased or empathetic about
dangerous situations]
• consider whether inside or outside (det. might prefer life as an indoor
employee, cleaner inside) [dev. not just about the job but about where you do
it, indoor jobs have an easier life]
• accommodation (det. inside jobs get free onsite lodging, lifties competing
with backpackers for cheaper accommodation) [dev. can be difficult to find
reasonable priced accommodation locally / start looking early]
5 13–15 The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
A wide range of ideas is applied.
There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the response,
contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
All three bullets are well covered.
A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some evidence
of basic evaluation or analysis.
A good range of ideas is evident.
Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be consistent.
There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
All three bullets are covered.
An appropriate voice is used.
2 4–6 There is some evidence of general understanding of the main ideas, although
the response may be thin or in places lack focus on the text or the question.
Some brief, straightforward reference to the text is made.
There may be some reliance on lifting from the text.
One of the bullets may not be addressed.
The voice might be inappropriate.
1 1–3 The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Cambridge IGCSE™
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected
approaches in candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant
knowledge and skills demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and
derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 and R2 2
1(b)(ii) R1 2
1(c) R1 and R2 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) Give two uses of ships and boats apart from sports, leisure or fishing, 1
according to the text.
transporting cargo
defence / defense
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial
explanation.
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial
explanation.
Identify the two facilities on yachts that make them suitable for longer trips.
kitchen / galley
sleeping quarters
Using your own words, explain why some people might consider the cost of
boats to be justifiable.
1(f) According to Text B, what are the problems with air travel and what can 15
reasonably be done to help solve them?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own words as far
as possible.
Up to 10 marks are available for the content of your answer and up to 5 marks
for the quality of your writing.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing).
0 0 No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
The response is well organised.
The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
0 0 No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected
approaches in candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant
knowledge and skills demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and
derived from the texts.
Note 2: Words underlined in the answers to the questions are required for the full mark(s) to
be awarded.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R2 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
After a vacation in Ilhabela, Andy and Abi were going to make last minute
alterations to the yacht.
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
Andy and Abi felt nauseous almost all the time they were on board the boat
crossing the Atlantic.
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
Josephine was not a new yacht and had already been owned and used by
someone else when Andy bought her.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
After the storm, they saw the wreckage of a yacht like theirs on the sand.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
Sailing across the Atlantic wasn’t like a road trip though (Dael’s observation).
There’s nowhere to pull over when you’re tired. Getting to Rio entailed
crossing one of the planet’s loneliest stretches of ocean. Josephine still had
no autopilot and no radio to communicate with anyone on land. Someone
would have to be on deck at the wheel every minute, night and day. We could
expect to be sun-roasted, swamped by rogue waves and smacked by wayward
flying-fish.
Days before leaving, I sat up late at night talking with Torries, a friend from
work. I confessed to being terrified.
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests his
attitude to the coast near Ilhabela.
The coast just north of Ilhabela is punctuated by pretty, tranquil coves. Abi and
I were looking forward to a week of snorkelling and generally lounging about.
But first, Dael pointed out, a storm was coming. The channel between Ilhabela
and the mainland is long and thin. Hills on both sides provide the perfect
funnel for the strong winds that develop over the South Atlantic. The water is
also very shallow, conducive to close, steep waves.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create effect
in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases from each
paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should include the use of
imagery.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 2(d) (Table A, Reading) Notes on task.
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and for an
understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect responses to
provide words / phrases (listed in the mark scheme on pages 15 and 16) that carry
connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of words
chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a range of choices
to demonstrate an understanding of how language works, and that this should
include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the analysis that attracts
marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements; simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections. Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that
are relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have some
validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit comments on
effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar / syntax and
punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on vocabulary.
Paragraph 7 begins ‘We left Cape Town …’ and is about the first part of the
journey, crossing the Atlantic.
Overview: powerful and magical experience of the boat sailing with ease and
spectacular, natural beauty of the sea
stiff breeze that whipped: strong wind with some force, urging them on
glittering swells: sparkling waves, suggestion of fullness and power, beauty,
jewels
dazzling fragments of crystal: so bright they are difficult to look at; smashed
into pieces by the force of the driving wind, destruction enhances the beauty
though suggestion of danger, potentially sharp
leaping and dancing on our bow wave in celebration: swimming with jumps
and turns as if performing spontaneously or choreographed for their benefit;
reflecting writer’s sense of freedom
guiding the yacht: navigating, at the helm; suggestion of wisdom, in control
thundered over the ocean: moving at speed over the sea, immense power to
be dominating the ocean, conquering hero
etched itself forever into my memory: as if engraved, will never forget it; vivid,
permanent, changed irrevocably by the experience
flying over the crests of the waves: boat is moving so fast it seems to have
left the water and be travelling in the air higher than the peaks of the waves;
freedom
soaring down the valleys like an eagle: extending the flying metaphor as the
boat goes down the other side of the wave as if a bird of prey swooping;
majestic, in control, wild
exultant sense of liberation was absolute: triumphantly happy and completely
free; unshakable optimism of the moment
Paragraph 9 begins ‘We went to bed early …’ and describes events during the
storm in IIhabela.
Overview: brave fight of the boat against the ferocity and brutality of the storm
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to choices.
2 4–6 The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific
words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected
approaches in candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant
knowledge and skills demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and
derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Dael. Having decided to stay on with Abi and Andy longer than 25
planned to help them as they begin to sail around South America, you write a
letter to a friend at home.
Base your letter on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use your
own words.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which covers
the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the candidate’s own
words.
Annotate A1 for references to where Dael has been for the past couple of months
and what have been the positive highlights of the journey for him so far
Annotate A2 for references to how suited and prepared Andy, Abi and Josephine
were to undertake such a journey
Annotate A3 for references to what Andy and Abi were hoping to achieve and what
he thinks they will have learned by the end of their South American trip.
A1: where you have been for the past couple of months and what have been
the positive highlights of the journey for you so far
crossing the Atlantic (det. Cape Town to Rio) [dev. made it across
successfully without major mishap]
coast near Ilhabela (det. where Abi’s mother lived, picturesque, pretty coves)
[dev. social visit]
dolphins (det. pod swimming alongside boat, trying to touch them) [dev.
fascinating creatures]
travelling at night (det. moonlight) [dev. beautiful seascape]
holiday (det. snorkelling and lounging about) [dev. Dael was not looking
forward to it initially]
A2: how suited and prepared Andy, Abi and Josephine were to undertake
such a journey
unprofessional / trip was poorly planned (det. say a month, maybe three
days, eventually bump into northern Brazil) [dev. basic sense of route at best /
over-simplifying it / sensible (or not) to stop off at Ilhabela / were not up to the
challenge / rookies]
attitude (det. seeing it as a road trip) [dev. not understanding the differences
between the modes of transport / underestimating the challenge and risk]
given up former life (det. no income, no home) [dev. former work colleagues
supportive / lack of finance could be a problem]
nerves (det. Andy admitted to Torries he was terrified) [dev. perhaps putting on
a brave face / trying to play down his fears in front of Dael and/or Abi]
second-hand boat (det. 23-year-old engine, Josephine) [dev. needed some
work / relatively old, unsafe boat]
equipment (det. no autopilot, no radio, supplies run out) [dev. would need to
update this for the longer journey around South America / too much work for
someone to be on board all the time]
A3: what Andy and Abi were hoping to achieve and what you think they will
have learned by the end of their South American trip.
5 13–15 The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
A wide range of ideas is applied.
There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
All three bullets are well covered.
A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
A good range of ideas is evident.
Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
All three bullets are covered.
An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2020 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R1 2
1(c) R1 and R2 2
1(d)(ii) R1 and R5 3
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘thriving cities’ (line 3)
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘ancient structures’ (line 5)
Give two reasons why it might be assumed that the giants worked
hard.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
1(f) According to Text B, why are the existing theories about how the 15
Crooked Forest was formed unlikely to be correct?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
1 area affected too small for tank damage / would expect a broader area
to be impacted by big tanks
2 other trees nearby unaffected by tanks / area is surrounded by straight
trees on all sides making tanks unlikely
3 uniform curvature rather than haphazard damage from tanks
4 tanks would have flattened the trees completely / trees wouldn’t have
survived tanks
5 (genetic mutation) would have impacted on whole tree / only the base
affected
6 locals enjoy fooling visitors with their ‘anecdotes’ about supernatural /
alien activity
7 speculation boosts tourism / hotel business
8 gravity pulls downwards not sideways
9 solid trunks suggest healthy / strong and sturdy (wouldn’t be weighed
down by snow / affected by genetic mutation / not affected by gravity)
10 (vast number(s) of) vertical pines around the area / trees around
unaffected by snowfall
11 perfect circle suggests that a natural cause is unlikely / grove is
protected from harsh weather (by circle of trees)
12 sculpted trees / marker trees usually found in isolation, not in a grove
13 sculpted trees / marker trees not usually found in Europe
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate),
using a range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches
in candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Note 2: Words underlined in the answers to the questions are required for the full mark(s) to be
awarded.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R2 1
2(a)(iii) R2 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
Manoel had not expected the deer to have such speed and
sprightliness.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
allow alternative whole phrase: ‘worked hard to keep their spirits up’ (line
3)
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
Camp was pitched and the party was resting, when confused
shouting and crashing in the bush brought them to their feet. Manoel
burst into view. ‘We’ve found it!’ Manoel cried. ‘We’ve found the way
up!’
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
Camp was pitched and the party was resting, when confused
shouting and crashing in the bush brought them to their feet. Manoel
burst into view. ‘We’ve found it!’ Manoel cried. ‘We’ve found the way
up!’
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
Camp was pitched and the party was resting, when confused
shouting and crashing in the bush brought them to their feet. Manoel
burst into view. ‘We’ve found it!’ Manoel cried. ‘We’ve found the way
up!’
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer 3
suggests the feelings of the leader, Raposo, when the adventurers
enter the cleft.
Clusters of rock crystals and frothy masses of quartz gave the wide-
eyed leader the feeling of having entered a fairyland, and, in the dim
light filtering down through the tangled mass of creepers overhead,
his anticipation of a wondrous citadel on the other side was palpable.
Notes on task
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the
number of words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands
there should be a range of choices to demonstrate an understanding
of how language works, and that this should include the ability to
explain images. It is the quality of the analysis that attracts marks.
Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements; simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say
about the selections. Candidates can make any sensible comment,
but only credit those that are relevant to the correct meanings of the
words in the context and that have some validity. Alternative
acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit comments on
effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar / syntax
and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Overview: suggests the huge promise of riches that are within the
adventurers’ grasp and their excitement.
• how the adventurers pitch camp and then try to ascend the
mountain in daylight in paragraph 4, beginning ‘Night had
fallen …’
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked
to choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain
why they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific
words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches
in candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Jose. A day later you write an entry in your journal, in which 25
you:
• describe where you have been and what you have seen in the
final stages of your adventure
• explain how you have felt during the recent days about the
expedition and your leader, Raposo
• describe what has happened since you saw the broken remains
of the human settlement.
Base your journal entry on what you have read in Text C, but be
careful to use your own words. Address each of the three bullets.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop
them relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look
for an appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced
response which covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced,
and is in the candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to where Jose has been and what he has
seen.
Annotate A2 for references to his feelings in recent days and his feelings
about Raposo.
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense
of purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or
a reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2020 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R1 2
1(c) R1 and R2 2
1(d)(ii) R1 and R5 3
1(e) R1 and R2 3
R1,R2 and R5 10
1(f)
W2, W3 and W5 5
Total 30
1(a) Give two examples of animals that have been culled, according to the 1
text.
• deer
• grey squirrel
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase, e.g. what they need to do in
the circumstances.
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Credit alternatives explaining the whole phrase, e.g. lots of deer / lots of
them / (too) many / numerous / multitude(s) / quantities.
Give two reasons why people might be against cutting down trees.
• (little regard for) natural progression (of wildlife and the environment) /
interfering with natural progression
Using your own words, explain why birds like blue tits and
nightingales are not usually found in dense woodland areas.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
These birds are not usually found in dense woodland areas because:
1(f) According to Text B, what makes the cherry blossom season in Japan 15
so popular?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
1 joyous occasion for the nation / time of national happiness / all the
Japanese people come together
2 opportunity to party / celebrations
3 abundance of flowers / explosion of blossom
4 attractive blossom / soft pink flowers
5 break from work / get out of the office
6 festival food / eating outdoors / picnics
7 decorations / lanterns / lights
8 pink things to buy / sell cherry-blossom-themed things
9 long tradition / have celebrated it for over 1000 years
10 arts inspired by blossom – songs, music, art, poetry, film(s)
11 marker of time passing / reflect (on family, friends) / reminisce
12 antidote to industrial growth / brightens dull cities / distracts from
environmental concerns
13 brief / only last 2 weeks / once a year
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate),
using a range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Note 2: Words underlined in the answers to the questions are required for the full mark(s) to be
awarded.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R2 1
2(a)(iii) R2 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
(we hear the) ‘roar’ (before we reach it) (line 6) / (the) ‘crash’ (of falls)
(line 14)
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
Some of the group bravely and willingly cross the river without
footwear.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
groan: emit low creaking sound(s), make deep slow sounds, moaning,
sound(s) suggesting pain or discomfort
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
shaded: protected from the sun (light) / trees block light / covered (with
vegetation)
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer 3
suggests what the jungle coffee was like.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or
phrases from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices
should include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the
number of words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands
there should be a range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of
how language works, and that this should include the ability to explain
images. It is the quality of the analysis that attracts marks. Do not
deduct marks for inaccurate statements; simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say
about the selections. Candidates can make any sensible comment,
but only credit those that are relevant to the correct meanings of the
words in the context and that have some validity. Alternative
acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit comments on effects
created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar / syntax and
punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Overview: Maria’s ability to entertain the group and the sheer pleasure of
the pool after the challenge of getting to it.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain
why they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific
words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Maria. You are interviewed for a television programme about 25
people with interesting jobs. The interviewer asks you the following
three questions only:
Base your interview on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to
use your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop
them relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look
for an appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced
response which covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced,
and is in the candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to what the clients particularly enjoy about the
jungle trip.
Annotate A2 for references to the skills/qualities needed to be a good
jungle guide.
Annotate A3 for references to how clients should prepare themselves for a
jungle trip.
3 A1: what the clients particularly enjoy about the jungle trip 25
• walking the trail (det. twisting, quiet and remote, amongst very tall
trees, mud and rock formations ) [dev. contrast with city / not used to
walking barefoot]
• interesting architecture (det. temple, wood-plank homes) [dev.
contrast to simplicity of homes, faded grandeur of temple, escape
modern world]
• different animals (det. anteater, howler monkeys, crocodiles, beetle)
[dev. educational, thrill of (potential) close encounter(s)]
• variety of water features (det. waterfall, boat trip, fording river,
lagoon, blue green pool) [dev. relaxing / impressive / beautiful]
• adventure (det. camping in wild / spending time in the jungle) [dev. risk
is real, contrast to their usual lives/location; challenge, exotic]
• food and drink (det. vegetable tacos, jungle coffee) [dev. different from
their usual food, (more) natural]
A2: the skills and qualities that make for a good guide
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense
of purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or
a reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2020 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R1 2
1(c) R1 and R5 2
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) Give two examples of the ways in which the Sun and Moon have been 1
viewed, according to paragraph 2.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
• consider / cast light (on) / mirror / think carefully about / looking back
(on) / compare / comment on
• amusingly / jokingly / in a funny way / mocking
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Give two reasons why space travel became more likely in the twentieth
century.
• can go past the planets of the solar system / can travel into deep(est)
space
• no need for (risk to) human(s) / robotic
• exploring where humans might go next
• cheaper (alternative to sending humans)
Using your own words, explain why there is a good chance that
humans will land on Mars in the twenty-first century.
• people want first-hand experience (of life on Mars) / the will is there to
visit Mars
• private and / or public funding (available)
• overcame the moon challenge / went to Moon in twentieth Century /
already been to the Moon
• seen as the challenge of the twenty-first century / sense of history being
created
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
1(f) According to Text B, what were the challenges that Sacha Dench 15
experienced during her journey?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
Challenges
1 length of the journey (7000 km)
2 trying to think like a swan
3 really cold / no heating on the paramotor
4 unstable vehicle / flimsy paramotor
5 challenging attitudes towards swans / children taught to shoot birds at a
young age / ignorance about swans
6 had to avoid disturbing other migratory birds / potential collision (with
birds)
7 time in hospital / injury during take-off
8 losing tagged swan / swan died
9 foul weather / bad weather
10 becoming too attached to the swans
11 flying low (over Taiga forest) / (no) safe landing spots (in Taiga)
12 crossing English Channel / missing home
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Note 2: Words underlined in the answers to the questions are required for the full mark(s) to be
awarded.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
R1 demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings
R2 demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes
R4 demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers.
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R2 1
2(a)(iii) R2 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
(We sat there for a long time) brooding (line 29) / (We were both) depressed
(line 30)
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
Our weight was at the root of our whole problem. ‘We’ll have to
downsize,’ I said. ‘We’ll have to jettison some of our luggage.’
root: at bottom of / source (of) / centre (of) / cause (of) / reason / start
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
Our weight was at the root of our whole problem. ‘We’ll have to
downsize,’ I said. ‘We’ll have to jettison some of our luggage.’
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
Our weight was at the root of our whole problem. ‘We’ll have to
downsize,’ I said. ‘We’ll have to jettison some of our luggage.’
jettison: discard / offload / leave behind / ditch / give up / lose / throw away /
get rid of
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
the feelings of the men about camping out in the open on this particular
night.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should
include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and
for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases (listed in the mark scheme on page 16)
that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the
analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements;
simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections. Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those
that are relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that
have some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited.
Credit comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as
grammar / syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to
comments on vocabulary.
• What the men see while driving in the evening in paragraph 14,
beginning ‘Easier in our minds …’
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 Imagine you are Helmuth from Text C. Straight after the evening that 25
you and Max pitch camp, you write a letter to your mother.
Base your letter on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullets.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
3 A1: the most enjoyable parts of the journey so far for Helmuth and why
they were enjoyable
• driving down past sea level (det. car gliding through gorges of Judaea
/ setting off through desert) [dev. no idea of problems ahead, novel
experience of being below sea level]
• adventure / exotic travel (det. different languages) [dev. contrast with
home]
• first view of Dead Sea (det. leaden expanse) [dev. heard so much
about it / lived up to its name, imposing]
• floating in the Dead Sea (det. like a cork) [dev. Max tried reading a
newspaper]
• Max’s discomfort (det. Helmuth laughs at him asking to go faster)
[dev. thinks serves Max right for showing off, drove more slowly on
purpose]
• (camping) out at night (det. breezes, stars) [dev. refreshing,
exhilarating]
• birds (det. storks) [dev. beautiful / magical, hoped all would go well]
A2: the challenges Helmuth and Max faced and how they overcame
these challenges
• terrain after crossing bridge (det. stony and steep track, 1200m in
mountains, bumpy roads) [dev. contrast with earlier part]
• weather / heat during the day (det. hot asphalt, fierce sun, waited for
evening to drive) [dev. uncomfortable, aware of need to avoid illness]
• car problems (det. engine laboured, radiator overheating, springs
groaning) [dev. not suitable]
• slow progress / long day (det. over 23 000 km to go, did not camp
until 11 o’clock) [dev. kept driving until late]
• not being able to speak their minds (det. brooding, nodding silently)
[dev. would spoil the atmosphere]
• too much luggage (det. packed lovingly by Helmuth’s mother) [dev.
reluctantly agree, Helmuth’s reactions]
A3: the problems Helmuth foresees for the rest of the trip and how
he/they might have been better prepared for them
• do not make it to Baghdad / car breaks down (det. big map of Asia)
[dev. easy to get lost, remote area(s), inevitable]
• storage of luggage / leaving the luggage is problematic (det. boxes
of it) [dev. expensive, difficult]
• argument(s) between them (det. recriminations) [dev. abandoning the
whole trip, anticipate emotional strain]
• camera (det. Max’s camera) [dev. using it too much / needed a better
one]
• communication / people you meet (det. local photographer, road
sign) [dev. translation problems, unknown intentions, bring a dictionary]
• novelty wearing off (det. camping outside, driving, brochure
description) [dev. sharing the driving more equally, hotel instead,
chauffeur, other form of travel, false optimism]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense
of purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in
structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2021 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 and R2 2
1(b)(ii) R1 2
1(c) R1 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) Give two things that the writer is doing before the rain begins, according 1
to the text.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial
explanation.
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Award 2 marks for full explanation (both strands). Award 1 mark for partial
explanation.
• the sound of the rain is very loud / rain is too noisy / difficult to hear
because of rain / rain slamming into the roof
• (the people are) strangers
• (the people are) worried about the effects of the rain / focused on the rain /
hoping rain will end soon
Identify two problems with the road during the rainy season.
Explain why life is difficult for the people of the region during the rainy
season.
Using your own words, explain why the hot period is a happier time for the
people of the region.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
• there is more food / food can be shared with visitors
• people can travel (to visit) / relatives can visit
• (adults) share stories / able to socialize
• they are no longer kept in their houses / safe to go out again / children can
play outside
1(f) According to Text B, what did the residents of this community feel and do 15
during the most recent severe winter?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own words
as far as possible. Your summary should not be more than 120 words.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
INDICATIVE READING CONTENT
Candidates may refer to any of the points below:
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence
of concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R2 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R1 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
The speaker hoped that his movements were a method of creating a little
breeze.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
(the) vast empty spaces (on either side of me) / (the) plain(s)
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
the eating-place owner’s feelings on hearing that the speaker wants a cold
drink.
‘No! You mustn’t drink much. You may pass out.’ The café owner threw up
her hands at the sight of me, then turned, alarmed, to shout at a couple of
well-dressed gentlemen eating at a table in the corner.
• ‘No! You mustn’t drink too much. You may pass out’: dramatic
intervention, exclamation mark suggests urgency and short declarative
sentences indicate her certainty that she is right / her fear for him
• ‘threw up her hands (at the sight of me)’: quickly raises her arms above
her head as a sign of dismay / disbelief, exaggerated stylised action (threw
her hands up in horror) as she has seen it all before / exasperated /
annoyed
• turned, alarmed, to shout: conveys her extreme worry / fear / the state of
the narrator, as if a warning bell has gone off, the sense of an emergency
situation; she wants to alert the gentlemen quickly / convey the seriousness
of the situation
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should
include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and
for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases that carry connotations additional to
general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works, and
that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the
analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements;
simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have some
validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
2(d) • Paragraph 11 begins ‘The first mouthful …’ and is about how the
eating-place owner and her husband look after the speaker and drive
him to the city.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are the eating-place owner. You are interviewed for an article about 25
tourist safety in the region. The interviewer asks you the following three
questions only:
Base your interview on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullets.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to what tourists need to know about the region.
Annotate A2 for references to effects of extreme thirst and how these can be
managed.
Annotate A3 for references to what can be done locally to make the region
safer.
A2 What effects can extreme thirst have on people and how should this be
managed
• physical effects (det. trouble breathing; thirst; unmoving and silent
labourers, lose voice) [dev. no energy even to speak / potentially fatal]
• mental effects (det. fantasies of water) [dev. could lose sense of direction /
place / unaware or only partially aware of activity around]
• desire to drink too much (det. can pass out, too hot for sudden drinking)
[dev. need to prevent anyone drinking too much]
• need for rest (det. indoors) [dev. temperature is cooler]
• gradual reduction of temperature / rehydration needs to be slow (det.
sip ice cube) [dev. slower hydration safest ]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2021 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R1 2
1(c) R1 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) Give two examples of early types of bicycle, according to the text. 1
• stridewalker / laufmaschine
• boneshaker / velocipede
• penny-farthing
• safety bicycle
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Give two reasons why people may not have wanted to ride on the
Velocipede.
• big wheel at front / little wheel at back / wheels were different sizes
• wheels now made of steel / wheels were not made of wood / used steel
Explain why the Safety Bicycle was very popular in the 1890s.
Using your own words, explain why you think the bicycle was voted
the most significant innovation in technology.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be
credited.
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence
of concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R2 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R2 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same 1
idea as the words underlined:
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same 1
idea as the words underlined:
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same 1
idea as the words underlined:
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same 1
idea as the words underlined:
Sonny plans to record the entire bicycle ride on his mobile phone.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer 3
suggests the father’s experiences and feelings as he starts the sharp
incline on the hill.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words
and for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective.
Expect responses to provide words / phrases that carry connotations
additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number
of words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should
be a range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language
works, and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the
quality of the analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for
inaccurate statements; simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about
the selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that
are relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that
have some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be
credited. Credit comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices
such as grammar / syntax and punctuation devices. These must be
additional to comments on vocabulary.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
Overview: The incline up the hill is becoming more and more off-putting
and difficult for the father, everything is colluding against him.
• (steep road ahead) meanders lazily (through the trees): winds and
wanders; as if in no hurry to help cyclists reach the summit, difficulty of
hill climb lengthened by bends; lack of purpose is ironic contrast to his
stress and straining
• not a kindly flat section in sight: no stretch of unsloping, smooth
road to allow him to rest his legs; relentless, cruel incline, no hope of
improvement / working against him
• mocking gravelly promise (of worse to come): the tarmac / stony
road ahead looks harsher and more difficult; laughing at him;
tormenting him; trying to persuade him to give up
• unforgiving gradient (for as far as the eye can see): difficult, very
challenging incline; no end to it / no mercy; daunting nature of
challenge, demoralising
• wisps of warm exhaust fumes tickling (my nostrils): small puffs of
fumes from the car irritating his nose; make his ride even more difficult
/ (people in the car) teasing him
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Sonny. Your father and the rest of the family have watched 25
the video you made to record his fiftieth birthday bicycle ride. After
the family have watched the video, you write your journal entry in
which you:
• describe your father’s plans and preparations for his birthday and
how you felt about them
• explain the hardships and challenges your father faced on the
journey up the hill and your thoughts as you watched him cycling
• describe your father’s reactions as he watched the finished
birthday video of the whole ride.
Base your journal entry on what you have read in Text C, but be
careful to use your own words. Address each of the three bullet
points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop
them relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look
for an appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced
response which covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced,
and is in the candidate’s own words.
3 A1: plans and preparations for his birthday and how Sonny felt about
them
• (planned an) adventure (det. 21 kilometres bike ride, Dad’s gift to
himself, 50th) [dev. felt he was getting old and needed to prove he
could still ride / offended by comment about his age]
• digging out the bicycle (det. dusty old machine, boneshaker) [dev.
been in the shed for a long time / looked dangerous]
• repairs to bike (det. oil and grease, new chain) [dev. should have got it
checked out professionally]
• practised outside house (det. sailing along on flat road) [dev. showing
off / inadequate training for cycling up a
hill / false sense of capabilities]
• support arranged (det. asked Rob to accompany him) [dev. Rob not fit
enough (or keen) to cycle himself / car (might be) useful (in emergency)
/ not much help to drive alongside]
• (at first) felt Dad’s plan was hilarious / entertaining (det. making
‘official birthday video’) [dev. wants to keep evidence / didn’t think Dad
would do it / plans to make the soundtrack amusing]
A2: hardships and challenges Dad faced on the journey and Sonny’s
thoughts as he watched Dad cycling
• fitness / physical strength required: (det. tension in thighs,
perspiration) [dev. needed to work more on personal fitness
beforehand / might have taken on too much / could see effort in his
face ]
• drinking water: (det. drinking from a water bottle) [dev. extreme thirst /
have to ration water / run(s) low on water / unsuitable bottle]
• difficult terrain: (det. 10% gradient, notorious forest climb, gravelly)
[dev. even the car is struggling to get up the hill / concerned Dad is
struggling with the climb]
• controlling breathing: (det. panting, exhaust fumes irritate nostrils)
[dev. needed mental strength to succeed / worried Dad might need
(medical) help]
• brave to wear that clothing / embarrassment (det. lycra) [dev. too
old to wear lycra / Dad wanted to look the part]
• pride / admiration (det. ‘Come on, Dad. You can do it.’) [dev. wanted
him to succeed / impressed with how focused he was / new lease of life
after 50 / trying to make him feel better]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2021 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 2
1(b)(ii) R1 2
1(c) R1 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) Give three reasons why the narrator decides to sit down on the way up the 1
mountain, according to the text.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
1(c) Re-read paragraph 2 (‘The aurora occurs … rewarding than the other.’). 2
Give two circumstances in which you would be unlikely to see the aurora
very clearly.
• daylight / daytime / wrong time of day / when the sun is shining / when the sun
is out
• cloudy / sky not clear / presence of clouds
Identify two things the narrator needed to do in order to see the aurora.
• give up sleep / to find a good place for spectating / camp on a high ridge
• hike for a few hours
• stay out of his tent / lie down outside
Explain why it was better for the narrator to put his camera away.
• aching arms
• live in the moment / enjoy the experience in real time
• camera wasn’t adequate for capturing the (incredible) experience
Using your own words, explain the effects of seeing the aurora on the
narrator.
• lost for words / can’t describe it / can’t find the words to describe
• altered perspective on life / realises own insignificance / humans in the system
/ enormity of the world
• bond with people on the ridge that night / enjoyed the shared experience (of
watching the aurora)
• wider comfort of being part of human race / feels bond to other humans in
general
1(f) According to Text B, what particular factors were important to the writer in 15
becoming a successful ‘decorative’ artist and what does she find rewarding
about this work?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own words as
far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing).
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence
of concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R2 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R2 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
The narrator was taking greater interest in the surrounding area because it
was night-time.
paying more attention (to) (line 15) / observing the world (around me/him) more
carefully (line 28)
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
(the) rising (moon) (line 16) / (as it) crept up (into the sky) (line 18)
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as the 1
words underlined:
(I felt the) warmth radiating (from the engine of) (line 19)
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
I turned into a quiet and deserted residential street, from which I could hear
the low hum of the distant main road. A train rushed past. I stopped to listen
to its receding sound, and then followed along in its wake, feeling energised.
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
I turned into a quiet and deserted residential street, from which I could hear
the low hum of the distant main road. A train rushed past. I stopped to listen
to its receding sound, and then followed along in its wake, feeling energised.
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the words 1
underlined:
I turned into a quiet and deserted residential street, from which I could hear
the low hum of the distant main road. A train rushed past. I stopped to listen
to its receding sound, and then followed along in its wake, feeling energised.
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests the 3
feelings of the other photographer.
A fellow enthusiast hurried past. He nodded quickly and smiled: ‘Just over
there. Amazing colours behind the trees. I think you’ll catch them.’ He
scurried ahead. I could see he too was following the train-line. He seemed
preoccupied. I hoped I would catch up with him later.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create effect
in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases from each
paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should include the use of
imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and for
an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect responses to
provide words / phrases that carry connotations additional to general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of words
chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a range of
choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works, and that this
should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the analysis that
attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements; simply ignore
them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have some
validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit comments
on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar / syntax and
punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on vocabulary.
• all full moons make their appearance: once sun has set moonlight arrives;
performance, entrance
• majestic ascension: moving upwards as if some royal being; slow, steady,
worthy of great respect and admiration
• gigantic, orange globe: huge, brightly coloured sphere; planetary, another
world
• sits contentedly on the horizon: apparently unmoving, satisfied, occupying
the place where the sky meets land; suggests regal appearance (the horizon
as a throne), benevolent
• like a celestial pumpkin: heavenly large circular shape; something that has
grown, organic, part of the harvest, spiritual versus ordinary vegetable is a
slightly humorous image
• earned its name: famous, well known, has been around for long enough to
build a reputation, working alongside the farmers
• glowing cast: radiance allows famers to carry on working, suggests solid
round shape, divine benevolence, protection
Overview: suggests the contrast in the light between the town and countryside,
and the mystery/eeriness of what is ahead
• darkness at the edge of the town was distinct: noticeable lack of light
outside the town, creates an outline or border, suggests on the brink of
something
• (came to a) sharp halt: suddenly ceased, as if marking the very pronounced
difference between the town and the countryside, the two do not blend or
merge, different territory, militaristic overtones
• abrupt blackness: sudden, unexpected and complete absence of light;
possibility of what there is to explore ahead once eyes are accustomed to the
change
• empty field: completely deserted expanse of land; solitary, calm, blank
canvas
• (clouds) drifted swiftly: floating past, surprisingly quickly; light and effortless
movements, peacefulness, elegance
• fat round moon: large size; very visible and prominent in the sky, cartoon-
like representation; jolly, benevolent presence
• hand’s breadth (above the horizon): has only moved a small distance into
the sky; perspective of human on the earth – distance appears less than it is,
as if you could touch it
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific
words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Alastair, the photographer. You give a speech to a group of local 25
photography students encouraging them to take up night-time photography.
In your speech you should:
• explain why the photographs you take at night-time can be better than
the ones you take in the day
• describe how to prepare for going out to do night-time photography
• suggest why going out to take night-time photographs can be such a
special experience.
Base your speech on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use your
own words. Address each of the three bullets.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B, Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the candidate’s
own words.
Annotate A1 for references to why the photographs you take at night-time can be
better than the ones you take in the day
Annotate A3 for references to why going out to take night-time photographs can
be such a special experience
3 A1: Why night-time photographs can be better than those taken in the day 25
• Light of the moon (det. harvest moon, glowing cast, celestial pumpkin,
amazing colours) [dev. varies according to the season / beautiful]
• Effects of artificial light / light in town (det. streetlights) [dev. starker
contrast with the countryside around / more dramatic / gritty images / spooky
pictures]
• Fewer distractions (det. streets are empty, very few people are around) [dev.
better able to concentrate on the work]
• See things you couldn’t see during the day (det. silhouettes of trees,
rooftops, chimneys) [dev. more unusual pictures / surprising / can show things
fewer people will have seen]
• Takes a long time to take a photograph at night (det. observe world more
carefully) [dev. more considered work / better quality]
A2: How you should prepare for going out to do night-time photography
• Keep ideas simple (det. easy plan) [dev. fewer complications mean fewer
things can go wrong]
• Route (det. start in town, follow railway line into countryside) [dev. follow a
fixed landmark of some sort / ensure have checked timetables for trains / allow
sufficient time (to be able to stop off and take pictures)]
• Extra equipment / essential equipment (det. tripod, torch) [dev. own safety /
own comfort]
• Special camera (det. long exposure camera, manually focus) [dev. practice
using it / needs skill and experience to get it right / ensure clarity]
• Warm clothing (det. cool air) [dev. might spend significant amounts of time
standing still]
A3: Why going out to take night-time photographs can be such a special
experience
• Exciting (det. adventure / different world) [dev. you don’t know what you might
chance upon]
• Meet others with similar interests / develop interest (det. fellow
enthusiasts) [dev. competition to get the best picture / camaraderie / sense of
satisfaction]
• Enjoy the moment (det. savour and record the night, standing still and
observing the world around you) [dev. unspoilt / authentic / calming]
• Senses adapt (det. other senses take over after dark, eyes adjust) [dev.
primal / instinctive]
• Natural beauty of the night (det. constellations, sky) [dev. contemplating
insignificance of humans / realising your place in the scheme of things]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Cambridge IGCSE™
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is
given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to
your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions
or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 & R2 2
1(b)(ii) R1 & R2 2
1(c) R1 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(d)(ii) R1 and R5 3
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) Who taught the narrator the recipe for making rice, according to the 1
text?
• father / dad
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘sure and quick’ (line 3):
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘tiny imperfections’ (line 3):
Give two reasons why the father’s work in preparing the rice could
have been time consuming.
• repeatedly rinsed and drained the rice / (needed to) repeat some actions
/ did (rinse) action(s) (over and over) again
• he had to do everything by hand / used feeling / no measuring cup(s) / no
instructions
1(d)(i) Re-read paragraphs 3, 4 and 5 (‘I still dream … say to the table.’). 2
Identify two main ways in which the father’s appearance made him look
out of place in his professional kitchen.
1(d)(ii) Re-read paragraphs 3, 4 and 5 (‘I still dream ... say to the table.’). 3
• could not get the motions right / was not gentle enough in movements /
spilt water / made a mess
• the rice was (a) mushy (gruel)
• there were (small hard) lumps in it
Using your own words, explain how the father’s actions while at the
table could be seen as kind towards his daughter.
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
Table A, Reading
2 3–4 • A basic response that demonstrates some understanding of the requirements of the
task.
• Demonstrates general understanding of some relevant ideas and is sometimes
focused.
• There may be some indiscriminate selection of ideas.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a range of
well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence of
concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R2 1
2(a)(iv) R2 1
2(b)(i) R2 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
Hua would be cooking the rice and the pak choi as late as possible.
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
Hua knew that she was unable to give customers much choice in meal
options.
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
Hua hoped that people attending the local theatre would be regular
customers.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
Yes, this room was definitely on the list for modernisation. While the
weather was warm, outdoor dining was preferable.
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer 3
suggests the characters and feelings of either or both Mr and Mrs
Kato.
Mr and Mrs Kato, new arrivals, looked into the dining room. Both wore
gentle smiles. Mrs Kato waved a delicate hand in the direction of the
garden and a waft of expensive perfume floated towards Hua. Mr Kato
lowered his eyes before informing Hua ‘The colour of those bushes is
divine. We saw them as we were parking. May we dine out there?’
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or
phrases from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices
should include the use of imagery.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Overview: direct contrast to the garden; oppressive and old fashioned, very
unwelcoming
problematic: something she knows she needs to solve / correct; troubling
and challenging.
imposing (dark-oak tables and matching chairs): grand but overbearing,
heavy, dominate the room, hint of malevolence
narrow tunnels: aisles are tight and not easy to negotiate, closed-in,
claustrophobic, unpleasant to work in, making life difficult
heavily embossed, ancient (red wallpaper): very old and thick/patterned,
been there a long time, oppressive
sneered cruelly: mocked / laughed maliciously, makes the dining room
seem hostile and unwelcoming as if it does not want visitors in there,
working against her
(ticked in) ponderous reminder of its most venerable status: slow / heavy
ticking, important / established feature of the room / dominant, as if it’s
demanding something of her
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
5 13–15 • Wide-ranging discussion of judiciously selected language with some high quality
comments that add meaning and associations to words/phrases in both parts of the
text, and demonstrate the writer’s reasons for using them.
• Tackles imagery with some precision and imagination.
• There is clear evidence that the candidate understands how language works.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why they are
used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Hua, the owner of the inn. The next day you write a letter to 25
your father back home telling him about your new business venture. In
your letter you should:
• describe the inn and what you think will appeal to guests
• describe the guests that you met on the first day and what you felt
about them
• explain what plans you have for developing the business in the
future and how you hope to accomplish these plans?
Base your letter on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to key features of the inn and its surroundings
Annotate A2 for references to the new customers on the first day
Annotate A3 for references to Hua’s future plans for developing the
business
3 A1: Information about the inn and what will appeal to guests
3 A3: Plans for future development and how they will be accomplished
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the response,
contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some evidence
of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
2 4–6 • There is some evidence of general understanding of the main ideas, although
the response may be thin or in places lack focus on the text or the question.
• Some brief, straightforward reference to the text is made.
• There may be some reliance on lifting from the text.
• One of the bullets may not be addressed.
• The voice might be inappropriate.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
2 3–4 • There may be some awkwardness of expression and some inconsistency of style.
• Language is too limited to express shades of meaning.
• There is structural weakness and there may be some copying from the text.
• Frequent errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar.
Cambridge IGCSE™
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 & R2 2
1(b)(ii) R1 & R2 2
1(c) R1 2
1(d)(i) R1 and R5 2
1(d)(ii) R1 and R5 3
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) Give two pieces of evidence that humans possess an urge to dance, 1
according to the text.
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘uncomplicated happiness’ (line 6):
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘pent-up emotions’ (line 7):
1(d)(i) Re-read paragraphs 5 and 6 (‘Another big draw those who don’t.’). 2
Identify two reasons why people are drawn to dancing.
1(d)(ii) Re-read paragraphs 5 and 6 (‘Another big draw … those who don’t.’). 3
Using your own words, explain why some people might not want to
take up dancing as a career.
• low wages
• long hours / spend a long-time practising
• (high) risk of hurting themselves / must do extra exercises before and
after workout to reduce risk of injury
• may have to give up working unexpectedly / retire from work very early
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
2 3–4 • A basic response that demonstrates some understanding of the requirements of the
task.
• Demonstrates general understanding of some relevant ideas and is sometimes
focused.
• There may be some indiscriminate selection of ideas.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence of
concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R2 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R2 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
Grandma thinks that she shouldn’t cause trouble between her son and
daughter-in-law.
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(a)(iii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
Veda’s plans for a future career are not ones that her mother would
consider worthy.
2(a)(iv) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
All my life Ma’s dreamt I’ll do well at science and mathematics so that I
could end up being what she wanted to be: an engineer. All my life I’ve
been waiting for her to appreciate my compulsion to do the one thing I
excel at: dance.
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer 3
suggests the dance teacher’s happiness at Veda’s performance.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or
phrases from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices
should include the use of imagery.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of
the analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate
statements; simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Steps came to you early. Speech came late: noticeable comparison and
contrast for grandmother; suggests area of talent in movement; sounds like
Grandma is using a saying, words of wisdom, destined to be a dancer
heave myself: haul herself up, determination and motivation, strength
restricting (bars): depriving her of her freedom; frustration at being held
captive
(my) prison-like cot: baby’s bed should be a place of protection and
innocence, but hers makes her feel enclosed and unable to break out; desire
for freedom
(my limbs) urgently craving (release): intensely desiring, needing; has been
locked up, desperate
shape thoughts with my fingers: construct, form; crafting, something
beautiful
shape themselves effortlessly (into the hand symbols): ease of
expression through movement, without having to think about it; repetition of
shape to reinforce talent for dance; externalising of internal thought process
(words) stumbled (in my throat): tripped; could not form themselves
properly; clumsy
losing their way (before reaching my lips): speech still undeveloped;
unable to find the right way forward.
(my hands spoke my first sentences) like lotus buds blossoming: early
expression through hands; bloomed like beautiful flowers; natural vehicle for her
to communicate
2(d) Paragraph 12 begins ‘I leap and land … ’ and is about Veda practising 15
for her dance competition while her teacher taps the beat.
Overview: Veda is at her most happy and confident. Her whole body is
engaged with the dance as she pursues and conquers the music; contrast
with the mood of paragraph 9.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Veda. It is a few months later and you have started studying at 25
your new dance school. You write a letter home to your parents,
reflecting on your past experiences.
Base your letter on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A2 for references to how the adults reacted to her dancing and how
this made her feel
Annotate A3 for references to the conversation she had with her parents
after she had won
A2: How the adults reacted to her dancing and how this made her feel
A3: Her thoughts about the conversation she had with her parents after
she had told them she had won
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the response,
contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some evidence
of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
2 4–6 • There is some evidence of general understanding of the main ideas, although
the response may be thin or in places lack focus on the text or the question.
• Some brief, straightforward reference to the text is made.
• There may be some reliance on lifting from the text.
• One of the bullets may not be addressed.
• The voice might be inappropriate.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
2 3–4 • There may be some awkwardness of expression and some inconsistency of style.
• Language is too limited to express shades of meaning.
• There is structural weakness and there may be some copying from the text.
• Frequent errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar.
Cambridge IGCSE™
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 & R2 2
1(b)(ii) R1 & R2 2
1(c) R2 2
1(e) R1 and R2 3
W2, W3 and W5 5
Total 30
1(a) How large do scientists think a giant squid can be, according to the 1
text?
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘elusive monsters’ (line 3)
Allow ‘rare’.
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
‘apparently clamped’ (line 5)
Give two reasons why the giant squid’s actions in pulling the boat and
blocking the rudder might have caused alarm.
1(e) Re-read paragraph 10 (‘Giant squid live deep ... a year ago.’). 3
Using your own words, explain why humans do not know much about
giant squid.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
• live at the bottom of the sea / live where humans can’t (easily) go
• have been very few sightings / few opportunities to observe them / rare
for one to be seen / only (about) 250 sightings
• (most) squid are found dead / can’t study their behaviour
• corpses were often damaged / can’t study their anatomy
1(f) According to Text B, what are the arguments against swimming with 15
dolphins and what are responsible tour operators doing to improve the
situation?
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
INDICATIVE READING CONTENT
Candidates may refer to any of the points below:
2 3–4 • A basic response that demonstrates some understanding of the requirements of the
task.
• Demonstrates general understanding of some relevant ideas and is sometimes
focused.
• There may be some indiscriminate selection of ideas.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a range of
well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence of
concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R2 1
2(a)(iv) R2 1
2(b)(i) R1 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
2(c) R2 and R4 3
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
In the beginning, Ocean Hotel had been a base for studying marine life.
originally (line 6)
For parts 2i to 2iv, accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the
question stem with the correct answer.
2(a)(ii) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea 1
as the words underlined:
For parts 2i to 2iv, accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the
question stem with the correct answer.
For parts 2i to 2iv, accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the
question stem with the correct answer.
2(a)(iv) Ocean King, costume removed, was now dressed in a dark blue scuba 1
suit
For parts 2i to 2iv, accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the
question stem with the correct answer.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
In its vicinity were coral reefs. My heart raced at this thought: I knew
this would be our next trip away. As I pointed out to Eloise on the
phone, she had chosen our last getaway – a sojourn in a sedate hotel
where we’d reclined in comfortable chairs in the gardens, and she’d
taken photographs of distant rolling hills.
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer 3
suggests the narrator Jenny’s feelings during the day and evening.
I passed the rest of my day diving happily, while Eloise sat on a sea wall,
staring out across the ocean. In the evening, I took an energising freshwater
shower, streamed marine conservation documentaries, played animated
board games with a taciturn Eloise and feasted on both our pizzas,
delivered with a regal bow by Ocean King.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or
phrases from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices
should include the use of imagery.
Notes on task
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words
and for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases that carry connotations additional to
general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of
the analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate
statements; simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what good responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
2(d) • Jenny’s scuba diving experience in the lagoon next to Ocean hotel 15
in paragraph 10, beginning ‘Almost immediately …’
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
5 13–15 • Wide-ranging discussion of judiciously selected language with some high quality
comments that add meaning and associations to words/phrases in both parts of the
text, and demonstrate the writer’s reasons for using them.
• Tackles imagery with some precision and imagination.
• There is clear evidence that the candidate understands how language works.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why they are
used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Eloise. After you arrive home from your stay at Ocean Hotel, you write 25
an entry in your journal about your experience.
Base your journal entry on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which covers the
three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the candidate’s own words.
3 A1 Eloise’s feelings about Jenny’s plans to stay at Ocean Hotel and why she
felt like this
• Eloise’s holiday preferences (det. quiet hotel, garden, views, photography)
[dev. enjoys quiet life / horrified at the thought of change / (dislikes) too much
adventure]
• Jenny’s preferences for holiday (det. bored last time, found this place online)
[dev. very different interests / fascinated by sea life / energetic]
• underwater hotel (det. former marine research station) [dev. terrified of deep
water / potentially claustrophobic / absurd idea]
• scuba diving (det. out of practice, Jenny has spare equipment) [dev. worried /
gave up scuba diving for a reason / no choice of activities for the daytime]
• Jenny’s turn (det. usually take it in turns to choose where to go) [dev. felt
obliged to go along with Jenny’s wishes]
• induction (det. rules regarding cameras and face cream) [dev. likes to take
photographs / no face cream is the last straw / frustrated]
A3 Eloise’s feelings now and her thoughts on how to approach Jenny about
their next trip away
• feelings now she is home / leaving (det. hadn’t enjoyed any of the trip,
already buckled her fins) [dev. exhausted through lack of sleep / relieved to be
home / hungry / sorry she didn’t make more effort - it was only one night / keen
to leave]
• feelings about Jenny looking back (det. laughed about face cream, woke
her up) [dev. inconsiderate / uncompromising / insensitive / selfish / realising
unfair to Jenny last time]
• compromise / go on separate holidays (det. have been taking turns) [dev.
somewhere with a mixture of relaxing scenery and exhilarating activity]
• she will plan any future trip(s) herself (det. Eloise’s turn to choose) [dev.
better food menu / more open air]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the response,
contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some evidence
of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
2 4–6 • There is some evidence of general understanding of the main ideas, although
the response may be thin or in places lack focus on the text or the question.
• Some brief, straightforward reference to the text is made.
• There may be some reliance on lifting from the text.
• One of the bullets may not be addressed.
• The voice might be inappropriate.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
2 3–4 • There may be some awkwardness of expression and some inconsistency of style.
• Language is too limited to express shades of meaning.
• There is structural weakness and there may be some copying from the text.
• Frequent errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar.
Cambridge IGCSE™
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
ANNOTATION
partially Y Y Y Y Y
^
effective
DEV development Y
explanation/m Y
EXP
eaning
overview or Y Y
organisation (effective (overview)
O
organisation/
overview)
LM lifted material Y Y
REP repetition Y Y Y
summative Y Y Y
comment Reading Reading Reading
-
Writing Writing
-
-
viewed – Y Y Y
-
including blank
SEEN
-
and additional
pages
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 & R2 2
1(b)(ii) R1 & R2 2
1(c) R1 2
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) How have humans always felt about being able to fly, according to 1
paragraph 1?
• fascinated (by)
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
• (very) old / bygone / past / early / from a long time ago / historical
• civilisations / peoples / communities / ways of living / populations /
traditions / heritage / customs
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Give two reasons why some humans created wings for themselves.
• to escape (imprisonment)
• to find out how birds fly
1(d)(i) Reread paragraphs 3 and 4 (‘Artist and inventor … trying this out.’). 2
Identify the two ways in which da Vinci’s flying machines were designed
to work.
• flapping wings (to lift off the ground and move forwards)
• operated by a (prone) person using their arms and legs / using muscle
power
1(d)(ii) Re-read paragraphs 3 and 4 (‘Artist and inventor … trying this out,’). 3
• may not wish to sit for long periods / do not want to be seated for many
hours / find it uncomfortable on long-haul flights
• not interesting way to travel / may wish to watch the route
• environmental concerns
• (high) cost / (too) expensive
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence
of concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R1 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R2 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
Edgar took big, confident steps while escorting Jeswin to the place they
would be working together that day.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(ii) Jeswin realised at once that the members of the family approaching could 1
be in need of help.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(iii) 1
Jeswin felt happy that his job was mostly going well.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(iv) Jeswin believed that the older man was not guilty of trying to steal from 1
the other man.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
Jeswin wriggled to detach himself from Edgar’s large hand. He had been
attached (in a more figurative sense) today to Edgar to learn his job:
making sure that the passengers had the documents they needed to fly,
showing them where to take their luggage and giving helpful and
friendly advice.
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
Edgar’s thoughts and feelings at that time.
‘I’ve got a report to write for the boss tonight!’ huffed Edgar. ‘Apparently
she doesn’t know what our job involves. Hah!’
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should
include the use of imagery.
(Table A, Reading)
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works, and
that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the
analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements;
simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have some
validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Overview: contrast between Edgar's familiarity with and resentment about his
job and their workplace and Jeswin's feelings of being quite overwhelmed by
the newness and unexpectedness of it.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific
words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Edgar. That night you write the report that your boss has asked 25
for about the work the ‘Meet and Greet’ team do. In your report you
should:
Base your speech on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use
your own words. Address each of the three bullet points.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
3 A1: what the role of meeting and greeting passengers involves at present
• waiting in departure concourse (det. arrive when empty, near check-in
desks) [dev. arrive before passengers / customer care starts from the first
moment the passengers arrive / key role often overlooked]
• welcoming passengers (det. courteous, friendly) [dev. ensuring
passengers enjoy their flight experience / representing the company /
upholding company’s positive reputation]
• documents (det. make sure correct, identity documents) [dev. can be
done quite quickly if you are experienced / helps to avoid errors later]
• luggage (det. check it was packed by passengers / not been out of sight /
show passengers where to take it, report unattended luggage) [dev.
potentially serious if others have tampered with it / potential safety
concern]
• giving information (det, helpful / constructive) [dev. answering people’s
questions / putting people's minds at rest]
A2: potential problems for both ‘Meet and Greet’ staff and passengers
• security (det. dealing with incidents; suspected ‘thief’) [dev. some
situations can get tricky / need to intervene where there are disputes /
misunderstanding]
• passenger queues (det. many roped off lines before the check-in desk,
wait in the concourse) [dev. long wait / tiresome]
• confusing environment / procedures for passengers (det. wander
uncertainly around) [dev. have to ask for help / dissatisfied customers]
• trolleys (det. unsteady, luggage keeps falling off) [dev. adds to passenger
discomfort / potentially dangerous to children]
• staff working conditions (det. too much to focus on, fifteen minutes for
lunch, has to write report after work) [dev. might try to hurry the job / not
doing the job thoroughly leads to low morale / difficult to maintain
standards / overwhelming]
• supervision of new staff (det. Jeswin is not as fast) [dev. difficult to offer
help/monitor/ support in challenging situations; not all new staff adapt to
dealing with difficult situations as well as Jeswin did]
3 A3: how the experiences of both passengers and ‘Meet and Greet’ staff could
be improved
• passengers with particular needs (det. elderly man, unsteady on feet,
passengers for whom standing is uncomfortable) [dev. make seating
available / open up a fast-track check-in for elderly disabled passengers
/staff to identify passengers who might need help on arrival]
• passengers with families (det. small children) [dev. dedicated area /
allocate staff to support them]
• better equipment (det. trolleys do not wheel well) [dev. buy new trolleys /
repair trolleys / security cameras / scanners for documents]
• appoint more staff / allocate specific roles (det. on check in desk, just
two on duty in Meet and Greet team) [dev. improve customer experience /
relieve stress for staff / allow longer breaks]
• staff training / development (det. new / long serving employees) [dev.
more focused training before requiring them to work / improve employee
performance / not everyone will cope as well as Jeswin]
• simplify routes through the airport (det. currently a labyrinth) [dev.
clearer signage / remove some of the ropes]
• provide (a range of) information beforehand (det. different
destinations) [dev. help prepare passengers in advance / other ways to
give information such as videos, apps and leaflets]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense
of purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar
Cambridge IGCSE™
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
ANNOTATION
^ partially effective Y Y Y Y Y
DEV development Y
EXP explanation/ Y
meaning
O overview or Y Y
organisation (effective (overview)
organisation /
overview)
LM lifted material Y Y
REP repetition Y Y Y
summative Y Y Y
- comment Reading Reading Reading
- Writing Writing
-
SEEN
- viewed – Y Y Y
- including blank
and additional
pages
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 and R2 2
1(b)(ii) R1 and R2 2
1(c) R1 2
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
• situated (at the) / positioned (in the) / (can be) found (in) / placed
• centre / middle / core
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
1(c) Re-read paragraph 2 (‘Mountain River Cave … he’d found the cave 2
entrance.’). Give two reasons why Ho Khanh might have felt wary about
investigating Mountain River Cave further.
• dark
• sounds of water / strange noises / strange gurgle of a river
• clouds
1(d)(i) Re-read paragraphs 3 and 4 (‘The cave was ... millions of years.’). 2
Identify two reasons why a member of the public might be unable to visit
the cave.
1(d)(ii) Re-read paragraphs 3 and 4 (‘The cave was … millions of years.’). Give 3
the evidence that Mountain River Cave has existed for a very long time.
• own ecosystem / own weather system / jungles and rivers have formed /
microorganisms have formed
• huge size of the stalagmite(s) / (80 m) tall stalagmite(s)
• fossils
1(e) Re-read paragraph 5 (‘To reach Mountain River Cave ... Mountain River Cave 3
entrance.'). Using your own words, explain why the journey to Mountain
River Cave might be seen as difficult.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using
a range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R2 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R2 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(ii) Shaima thought about a time in the future when she might be able to 1
attend a live excavation.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(iii) Shaima did not know what was happening in the garden. 1
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
• remaining: still present / still there / last pieces of / left over / residual / left
behind
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
Rohaan’s feelings when he first sees the cave entrance.
He looked at what was left of the rock face. A gaping hole stared
defiantly back at him, as if inviting a stand-off. Rohaan dropped his eyes
to break the gaze and received an immense surprise. Half a metre from
the base was the floor of a cave entrance. It was surely inviting him to
look inside.
Paragraph 5 begins ‘In the garden ...’ and is about how Rohaan becomes
momentarily covered by ivy when it suddenly comes loose from the
rock.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific
words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Shaima. A year after Rohaan discovered the cave in your 25
garden, you have written a book about the experience and what has
happened since then. You are interviewed for a television show to
promote your book.
Base your interview on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to
use your own words.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A1 for references to what Rohaan was doing at first in the garden
and how he discovered the cave.
Annotate A2 for references to what made him realise that his discovery was
significant.
Annotate A3 for references to how the discovery affected your plans for the
garden and how your lives have changed since then.
3 A1: what Rohaan was doing at first in the garden and how he discovered the cave
• business project (det. starting a building company, RS Building Works,
garden office to work in and meet clients) [dev. (little) experience as a
builder / named after the two of them]
• garden clearance / creating space (det. removing ivy) [dev. Shaima
agreed with the sacrifice of the garden for business purposes / hoped the
sacrifice would be worth it]
• overhanging rock (det. natural wall, 3 metres) [dev. needs to be
moved / wanted to use it]
• accident (det. ivy came away quickly, roots suddenly collapsed, toppled
over backwards) [dev. (relieved) not seriously injured / glad she hadn't
witnessed it]
• discovery (det. gaping hole, cave entrance) [dev. anticipation / unexpected
/ excitement]
A2: what made him realise that his discovery was significant
• ancient (det. age-old musty scent, air had dry ash-like taste) [dev. been
undiscovered for a very long time / historically significant]
• darkness (det. suffocating blackness) [dev. had to get a torch / needed a
torch because he wanted to explore]
• path leading underground (det. gentle slope, loose stones, ended
suddenly) [dev. constructed by humans / evidence of movement of living
creature(s)]
• cavern (det. 10 m drop/height) [dev. incredible to think this is underneath the
garden]
• animal bones (det. some unrecognisable species, possibly extinct, deer
antlers) [dev. realised they could be of scientific interest]
A3: how the discovery affected your plans for the garden and how your lives
have changed since then
• archaeology (det. student on a college course, assignment) [dev.
opportunity for a real dig / make use of her studies / fulfil her dream of a
dig]
• garden (det. ivy used to attract bees and butterflies) [dev. wanted to keep
wildlife / garden she once enjoyed is now taken over by people with an
interest in the cave / security measures]
• Rohaan's business (det. new project) [dev. abandoned RS Building
works / found a different office location]
• financial position (det. no money previously) [dev. new money-making
schemes related to cave discovery]
• sharing experience (det. book, surprising experience) [dev. public
interest]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense
of purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
Cambridge IGCSE™
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however, the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
ANNOTATION
^ partially effective Y Y Y Y Y
DEV development Y
EXP explanation/meanin Y
g
O overview or Y Y
organisation (effective (overview)
organisation /
overview)
LM lifted material Y Y
REP repetition Y Y Y
summative Y Y Y
- comment Reading Reading Reading
- Writing Writing
-
-
SEEN viewed – including Y Y Y
- blank and additional
pages
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 1
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R5 (25 marks):
and Question 1(f) only tests writing assessment objectives W2, W3 and W5 (5 marks):
1(a) R5 1
1(b)(i) R1 and R2 2
1(b)(ii) R1 and R2 2
1(c) R1 2
1(e) R1 and R2 3
Total 30
1(a) Give the name of the object used by a person to play the violin, 1
according to paragraph 1 (‘The violin ... f-shaped soundholes.’).
Award 1 mark.
• bow
1(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
1(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the text means by: 2
Give two reasons why violin makers might want to pay close attention
when designing the scroll of the violin.
1(d)(i) Re-read paragraphs 3 and 4 (‘Just about anyone ... something they 2
love.’).
• playing in an orchestra
• giving music lessons
• playing at special event(s) / wedding(s)
• opening a music shop / music related business
1(e) Re-read paragraph 5 (‘Violinists usually need … for its own sake.’). 3
Using your own words, explain what the writer believes makes some
violinists better than others.
Answers which are entirely in the words of the text should not be credited.
You must use continuous writing (not note form) and use your own
words as far as possible.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 1(f) (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing).
Table A, Reading
0 0 • No creditable content.
Table B, Writing
3 4–5 • A relevant response that is expressed clearly, fluently and mostly with
concision.
• The response is well organised.
• The response is in the candidate’s own words (where appropriate), using a
range of well-chosen vocabulary which clarifies meaning.
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are mostly accurate.
2 3–2 • A relevant response that is generally expressed clearly, with some evidence
of concision.
• There may be some lapses in organisation.
• The response is mainly expressed in the candidate’s own words (where
appropriate) but there may be reliance on the words of the text.
• Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar which do not impede
communication.
0 0 • No creditable content.
Note 1: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 2
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R4 (25 marks):
2(a)(i) R2 1
2(a)(ii) R1 1
2(a)(iii) R1 1
2(a)(iv) R1 1
2(b)(i) R2 1
2(b)(ii) R2 1
2(b)(iii) R1 1
Total 25
2(a)(i) Identify a word or phrase from the text which suggests the same idea as 1
the words underlined:
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(iii) The man who'd found the violin had tried to locate its owner but his 1
efforts had been in vain.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(a)(iv) A woman in the audience appeared to be trying very hard to look at the 1
violin Seth was playing.
Accept cloze responses that repeat all / some of the question stem with the
correct answer.
2(b)(i) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(ii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(b)(iii) Using your own words, explain what the writer means by each of the 1
words underlined:
2(c) Use one example from the text below to explain how the writer suggests 3
Seth's experiences and feelings when he plays the violin.
Violin in hand, Seth stopped four strings with his fingers, and drew the
bow over them with one rapid sweep. He’d produced a rich chord. He
was surprised by how strong the sound was. He raised his bow again
and the violin replied enchantingly.
Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create
effect in these paragraphs. Choose three examples of words or phrases
from each paragraph to support your answer. Your choices should
include the use of imagery.
This question is marked for the ability to select powerful or unusual words and
for an understanding of ways in which the language is effective. Expect
responses to provide words / phrases that carry connotations additional to
general meaning.
Mark holistically for the overall quality of the response, not for the number of
words chosen, bearing in mind that for the higher bands there should be a
range of choices to demonstrate an understanding of how language works,
and that this should include the ability to explain images. It is the quality of the
analysis that attracts marks. Do not deduct marks for inaccurate statements;
simply ignore them.
The following notes are a guide to what responses might say about the
selections.
Candidates can make any sensible comment, but only credit those that are
relevant to the correct meanings of the words in the context and that have
some validity. Alternative acceptable explanations should be credited. Credit
comments on effects created by non-vocabulary choices such as grammar /
syntax and punctuation devices. These must be additional to comments on
vocabulary.
Paragraph 3 begins ‘Partially concealed ...’ and is about the violin that
Seth sees in the back of the shop.
Overview: The violin is at once a humorous and a powerful figure that seems
to have a strong influence over Seth.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
Paragraph 11 begins ‘The arrival of the audience ...’ and is about the
activity in the concert hall before the concert begins.
Only credit comments on stylistic effect where these are explicitly linked to
choices.
2 4–6 • The response provides a mixture of appropriate choices and words that
communicate less well.
• The response may correctly identify linguistic devices but not explain why
they are used.
• Explanations may be few, general, slight or only partially effective.
• They may repeat the language of the original or do not refer to specific
words.
Note: All examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated. Nonetheless, the content must be clearly related to and derived from the texts.
Question 3
This question tests reading assessment objectives R1, R2 and R3 (15 marks):
and writing assessment objectives W1, W2, W3, W4 and W5 (10 marks):
3 You are Seth. Sylvia has told you that her parents are happy for you to 25
contact them. When you get home that night, you write a letter to
Sylvia’s parents. In the letter you:
• explain the circumstances under which you came across the violin
• describe your thoughts and feelings about the violin at the time of
discovering it and since the time of discovering it
• consider ideas about what should happen to the violin now.
Base your letter on what you have read in Text C but be careful to use
your own words.
Use the Marking Criteria for Question 3 (Table A, Reading and Table B
Writing)
Notes on task
Candidates should select ideas from the text (see below) and develop them
relevantly, supporting what they write with details from the text. Look for an
appropriate register for the genre, and a clear and balanced response which
covers the three areas of the question, is well sequenced, and is in the
candidate’s own words.
Annotate A2 for references to Seth’s thoughts and feelings about the violin at
the time of discovering it and since the time of discovering it
Annotate A3 for references to ideas about what should happen to the violin
now.
• travelling orchestra (det. arrived in the town) [dev. visits different places]
• occupying time (det. few hours to spare, helps him to focus later on)
[dev. relaxing, better performance later]
• looking around the locality (det. roaming the streets, learning about the
people who might attend) [dev. feels he can personalise his
performances / communicate better through his music]
• music shop (det. looking in shop window(s), stopped outside small
music store) [dev. naturally drawn to such places]
• found the violin (det. centre of a display at the back of the shop, been
there for a month) [dev. wouldn’t have known the violin was there if had
not gone into shop / lucky / treasure]
A2: thoughts and feelings about the violin when he discovered it and
since then
• appearance (det. attractive, quirky, small and round) [dev. never seen
anything like it before / powerful presence / aura]
• tries it out (det. rich chord / enchanting / teased him) [dev. satisfied /
knew he had to buy it]
• story (det. local had found it, tried to find out who it belonged to, forgot
about it) [dev. mystery]
• plays it in the concert hall (det. playing solo, magnificent instrument,
irrational decision) [dev. lived up to expectations / better than his old
violin]
• Sylvia in audience (det. straining to see) [dev. stands out / surprise at
Sylvia’s reaction]
• returned to the family (det. mother 'devastated' when lost it, father’s
face) [dev. huge sentimental value / rightful owners / buy it from him / will
have one made for himself by the same maker]
• Seth should keep it / borrow it (det. bought it for a fair price) [dev. too
good an instrument to not be played anymore / does not want to part with
it / pay the family for it]
• donated (to the local orchestra) [det. parents attend concerts to support
local orchestra) [dev. family could come to see it played]
• solve the mystery of its disappearance (det. disappeared about five
years ago) [dev. local man might be able to tell parents how he came
across it / need shopkeeper’s help to track down the person who found it /
refunded]
• find a compromise / consider what the violin might want (det.
commanding presence) [dev. violin will choose / meeting to discuss what
should happen / family should give their view]
5 13–15 • The response reveals a thorough evaluation and analysis of the text.
• Developed ideas are sustained and well related to the text.
• A wide range of ideas is applied.
• There is supporting detail throughout, which is well integrated into the
response, contributing to a strong sense of purpose and approach.
• All three bullets are well covered.
• A consistent and convincing voice is used.
4 10–12 • The response demonstrates a competent reading of the text with some
evidence of basic evaluation or analysis.
• A good range of ideas is evident.
• Some ideas are developed but the ability to sustain them may not be
consistent.
• There is frequent, helpful supporting detail, contributing to a clear sense of
purpose.
• All three bullets are covered.
• An appropriate voice is used.
1 1–3 • The response is either very general, with little reference to the text, or a
reproduction of sections of the original.
• Content is either insubstantial or unselective.
• There is little realisation of the need to modify material from the text.
3 5–6 • Language is clear but comparatively plain and/or factual, expressing little
opinion.
• Ideas are rarely extended, but explanations are adequate.
• Some sections are quite well sequenced but there may be flaws in structure.
• Minor, but more frequent, errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar