Compre Exam Dumps

Q1.
Equivalence partitioning
A. Requires exhaustive testing

B. Focuses on input and output boundaries of a given function
C. Uses an input or output range of values such that one value in the range becomes a test data
D. Is a type of structural technique of testing
The correct choice is C
Q2. Which of the following is NOT a feature of whitebox technique?

A. Tests the program logic
B. Covers control Structures and Sub-Routines
C. Conducted from an user's perspective
D. Eliminates redundant code
The correct choice is C.
Q3. Some more specific reasons for conducting performance testing include:
A. Assessing release readiness

B. Assessing infrastructure adequacy
C. Assessing adequacy of developed software performance
D. Improving the efficiency of performance tuning
E. All of available options
The correct choice is E.
Q4. Performance testing is challenging for all the specified reasons below except
for_______.
A. unrealistic load test because of inaccurate user load data

B. application usage pattern
C. monitoring distributed applications
D. specified non-functional requirements and customer expectations
The correct choice is D.
Q5. Automation testing will always
A. Reduce the testing team size

B. Yield high benefits to client
C. Can easily replace manual testing
D. None of the above
Give the more time to tester to do other activities and reduce the risk involved in project
Q6. There are 4 Cancel buttons on the four corners of a window. Best way to identify these
buttons using an automation tools is by their
A. Physical Name
B. Logical Name
C. Screen co-ordinates
D. Properties
The correct choice is B.
Q7. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Index in RDBMS?
A. Index needs additional disk space to store

B. Index is more useful for INSERT operations
C. Index cannot be created once data is inserted into the tables
D. Index cannot be dropped
The correct choice is A.
Q8. Consider a table Student with the following data
FirstName LastName DateOfBirth Age
------------------------------------------------------------------
George Sand 12-May-1981 23
Robert James 02-Aug-1980 24
John Joseph 05-Apr-1999 28
einith Lee 02-Feb-1947 42
Victoria Lynn 20-May-1978 26
How many rows will the following query fetch?
Select * from Student where FirstName like '_o%' and LastName like '%e%';
A. No rows
B. 1 row
C. 2 rows
D. 3 rows
The correct choice is C.
Q9. The process of creating referentially correct , business intact, cut-down versions of
production data base is known as
A. Database subsetting
B. Database substitution
C. Database masking
D. Database shuffling
The correct choice is A.
Q10. Which of the following falls under the category of personally identifiable
information(PII) ?
A. Financial records
B. Social security numbers
C. Date of birth
D. All the given options
TESTING FUNDAMENTALS
1.Which of the following statements about Verification is TRUE.
ANS: B) Always performed by the testing team only.
2.Equivalance partitioning:
ANS:C) Use a input or output range of value such that one value in the range become test data.
3.Not a Structural techinique::
ANS:D) Boundary value analysis
4.Not a Static technique:
ANS:A) Error Guessing

5.WhiteBOx testing is also Known as:
ANS:A) structural testing
5.which of the following is not a WhiteBox testing?
ANS:C) Conducted from a User’s perspective.
6.which of the following documents is available at the entry of test stratergizing phase.
ANS:A)RTM
7.Which of the following is functional technique?
ANS:A)Boundary value analysis
8.choose the BEST option about the V-model.
ANS: D)All of the choices
9:Both functional and non functional requirments should be captured in the requirement analysis phase:
Ans:A)TRUE
10:Which of the following is not a type of non functional test?
Answer :A)Integration Testing
11:Which of the following is represented in V-Model?
Answer: C)All of the above
12: Testing the users of the s/m to perform final requirement of business verification analysis
Answer: Acceptance Testing
13: Data conversion testing is done to validate the conversion of source data to target data:
Answer:TRUE
14: Correction is difficult in which type of integration:
Answer: Only ii(Big Bang)
15: Testing where we subject the target of the test, to different workloads to determine at what load
the s/m fails or s/m response time degrades:
Answer: C) Load Testing
16: Testing activity performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in interaction b/w integrated
components is:
Answer: Integration testing
17: Beta Testing is:
Answer: A) performed by subset of actual customers.
18: Alpha Testing is:
Answer: B) Performed by the end users outside the development group.
19: In a testing software is evaluated for the easiness with which user can learn and use the application?
Answer: C)Usability Testing
20: Acceptance Testing is:
Answer: B) Black box Testing
21:A device, computer program or s/m can used during s/w verification which behaves or operates like a
given s/m can be provided with a set of control inputs:
Answer: B)Simulator
22:) Which of the following is not an integration strategy:
Answer: A) Design Based

23: Regression testing should be performed:
Answer: For each build of an application and whenever time permits
24: Semi formal reviews facilitated by the author of artifact is:
Answer: Walk Through
25: Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of
the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid
boundaries?
Answer: 10000, 50000, 99999
26: The compressor in an AC is cut off once temperature falls below 18. And then it is turned on when
temperature is more than 22. Identify the equivalence value which belong to the same class?
Answer: 19,21
27:Which of the following is disadvantage of static testing?
Answer: High Skill Levels Required.
28:White box testing helps in:

Answer: A)Eliminates the redundant code
29:Disadvantages of white box testing is:
Answer:C)may not simulate real time situations.
30:Unit testing:
Answer: C)Mostly done by developers.
31:Stubs are dummy s/w components:
Answer:TRUE
32: Nonfunctional s/m testing includes:
Answer: B) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
33.which of the following is not a part of performance testing.
Answer: c) Validating migrated data.
34.Build can be rejected if:
ANSWER: d)All of the choices
35.Test Metrics is:
Answer: Only C is selected (not sure)
36.which testing methods are used by end users who actually test software before they use it.
Answer: A)Beta testing
37.One of the field ona form contains text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to
25.Identify the invalid equivalence class.
Answer : A)17
38. In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The
maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the
exam.
Answer: c) 29,30,31
39.Error Guessing:
Answer:A) Is a technique to design test casesfor testing the requirements which are more prone to
errors.
40.Which activity is performed in the test strategizing phase?

Answer: resource planning and determining roles and responsibilities.
41: Localization Testing:
Answer:D) is a subset of Globalization testing.
42.Install/Uninstall testing:
Answer: D) Done to evaluate the instructions provided in the manual.
43.The correct flow of steps in Defect Life cycle is::

Answer :C) Report Defect -> Check validity of the issue -> Defect Resolution
-> Retest the defect
44.During which phase,testing team studies the requirements from testing point of view?
Answer :B)Requirement Analysis
45.The formula No. of test case executed/execution effort in person hours calculate.
Answer : B) Productivity
46. …..shows the impact of the bug.
Answer : A)Severity
47.Which of the following would NOT normally form part of test plan.
Answer : D) Test types identified
48.White box testing doesnot help to:
Answers : D) Educate end user regarding the product.
49.which of the following is NOT a static testing technique.
Answers :A) Error Guesing.

50.User acceptance testing is the ……type of testing.
Answers :B)Black box testing
51.which of the following statement about verification is not true.
Answers : B)Performed by Testing team
52.In this testing software is evaluated for the easiness with which user can learn and use the
application.
Answers :C)Usability testing
53. ……….is the calender time for which the project will be executed that includes actual effort,holidays
and TAT.
Answer : B) Elapsed time
54. …….are simple programs designed specifically for testing the calls to lower layers.
Answers: B)Drivers
55. ……ensures that internationally localized versions donot have problems unique to locale and
currencry.
Answer :A)Globalization testing.
RDBMS
2.DB compared to file systems:

Answer:A)All a,b,c(Controls the redundancy, Controls the inconsistency, provides the better security)
3.Entity Relationship is all about:
Answer:
4.Exclusive(X) Lock allows another:
Answer:No other lock is allowed on same resource
5.In Infosys content, employees and current loctaions from the perspective of current location have:
Answer: One to Many
6.State whether the following statement is true or false:
3NF relation compared to 1NF and 2NF reduces the redundancy to the maximum extent:
Answer:TRUE
7.Which of the following is a column function:
Answer:MAX
8.Which of the following is true about index in RDBMS
Answer:Index need more additional disk space to store
9.Which of the following statements is true about Primary key in RDBMS?
Answer:One of the candidate key is primary key
10:Which of the following statements is true?
Answer: data stored in db is program independent of accessing the data.
11.Consider a relation R(A,B,C,D) and functional dependencies are
(A,B)-(C,D)
C-A
Find out highest normal value of the relation?
Answer:
12.
FirstName LastName DOB Age
George Sand 12-May-81 23
Robert James 2-Aug-80 24
James Joseph 5-Apr-99 28
einith Lee 2-Feb-47 42
Victoria Lynn 20-May-78 26
How many rows will following query fetch?
Select * from student where firstname like ‘_o%’ and LastName like’%e%’;
Answer: 1 row
13.Consider a table Student Sid varchar2(5),SName varchar2(12),SDob date,Sloc varchar2(30). I have

added 4 records to the table.What will be the O/P of the following query?
Alter table student MODIFY SName varchar2(10);
Answer: Error will be shown as you cannot shrink a field if data is present
14.In one ER diagram, it is shown as M:N binary relationship. How many tables we have to create while
converting it to relational schema?
Answer:2
15.The minimal set of attributes that can identify a row uniquely in a relation is known as:
Answer: Candidate Key
16.The NOT NULL constraint is a _______ level constraint.

Answer: Column
17.Which among the following command will be used to drop only the column SLoc from table
student(Sid,SName,SDob,Sloc)?
Answer: ALTER
18.Which among the following is a DDL statement?
Answer: ALTER
19.Which among the following is also called the storage view?
Answer: Internal Level
20: Which clause in a query restricts row selection?
Answer: WHERE
21:
Cust_Id Acc_No Balance
C1 A1 100
C1 A2 200
C2 A2 500
C2 A1 600
What will be o/p of following query?
Select * from ACCOUNT Order by Cust_Id asc, Acc_No asc;
Answer: Option C
22.CREATE is a _______ statement.
Answer:DDL
23: During the creation of the table, the DB designer chooses one of the Candidate keys to uniquely
identify row in the given table. That key is called:
Answer: Primary Key
24: Examine the description of the MARKS table.subj1 an subj2 indicates the marks obtained by student
in 2 subjects. Table name :MARKS
STD_ID NUMBER(4)
STUDENT_NAME VARCHAR2(30)
SUBJ1 NUMBER(3)
SUBJ2 NUMBER(3)
Examine this select statement based on the MARKS table.
Select subj1+subj2 as total marks FROM marks;
What is the result of above query?
Answer: The query returns sum of subj1 and subj2 as the final output.
25.Higher Normalization adversely affects ______ operation.
Answer: SELECT
26.In DB design, ERD approach is best described as :
Answer: Top Down
27.What are the problems with traditional file system based approach is storing the data?
Answer: (i,ii,iii) (Data Redundancy, Data Inconsistency, Inflexibility of data storage)

28.Which among the following is also called user view?
Answer: External Level
29:Which of the following is a DCL command?
Answer: REVOKE
30:A relation is said to be in second normal form if and only if:
Answer: A)i and ii(It is in 1st NF and No partial dependency exists b/w non-key and key attributes)
31.Consider the table trainee with the following structure:
Trainee_id NUMBER,module_id NUMBER,start_date DATE,end_date DATE.
Identify valid aggregate functions applicable to the table.
Answer: A)only iii and iv (COUNT and MIN)
33.Where should the GROUP BY clause be placed in the SELECT statement?
Answer: A)After the where clause
34: Which of following constraint can be defined only at the column level?
Answer:NOT NULL
35: Which of the following statement is used with a multiple row sub query?
Answer:NOT IN
36: Which of the following is true about DML statements?
Answer : A)Allows to modify data but not structure of the table.

37:Repeated
38: Which of the following is true about Candidate key?
Answer: A)I and iii(A candidate key is a set of one/more attributes that can uniquely identify row in a
given table and candidate keys are identified during design phase.
39:Which of the following statements are true about Views?
Answer:A) only I and ii(A view can be created as read only.
and A view can be created as a join on two or more tables.)
40.During the tramnsfer of money from one account to the other,there are two operations,withdrawal
from one account and deposit into another.Either both of them must happen or neither.
Ans: A)Atomicity
41.When a transaction reads an uncommitted data of other transaction ,this will lead to …………….
Ans: B)Dirty Read
42.A view can can enforce the condition during the insert and update operations by using………..during
the creation of view.
ANS: B) With Check option
43. The EMP table contains these columns :
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25);SALARY NUMBER(6,2):DEPARTMENT_ID NUMBER(6)
You need to display the employee who have not been assigned to any department.
SELECT LAST_NAME, SALARY, DEPARTMENT_ID FROM EMP
WHERE DEPARTMENT_ID =null;
What is true about this statement ?
Ans: C)The operator in the WHERE clause should be changed to display the desired result.
44.C,D
C->E
E->A,F
F->B,D
Ans: Answer unknown
45.Which of the following statements are TRUE about ALTER statement.
Ans: A)Only ii,iii and iv
46.Which of the following clause is used for row selection is SQL queries?
Ans: A) WHERE clause
47.Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of file system?
Ans: B)Data Independence
48.Which of the following statement is TRUE with Respect to ER modeling?
Ans: A) A Weak entity is dependent on another entity to exist.
49.Which of the following transaction property specifies that A transaction should either completely
succeedor completely fail?
Ans:A)Atomicity
50.Data in database is
Ans: D)All of the choices (integrated,Shared,Concurrentr access)
51.Data stored in database is more is more secured compared to data stored in flat files.
Ans:True
52. Data Redundancy is more in lower normalized entites.
Ans:True
53.b,b->c,a->d and if we choose a as primary key .
Ans: B) The relation is in 2nd NF
54.Distributed database system will have
Ans:B) Multiple data sources.
55.In Relational data models,tables are interconnected with .
Ans: B)Foreign Keys
56.Entities must exist physically .Abstract things cannot be entity.
Ans: False
57.In Infosys context employees and IBUs are related to
Ans:B) Many to many relationship
58.In RDBMS Serialization of transcation is done using
Ans: B)Locking
59.Index on columns is more useful for:
Ans: B)Select operations
79.Which of the following is incorrect about TRUNACTE statement?

Ans: A)It can be used to remove data and structure of a table.
80. 47.Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of file system?
Ans: B)Program/Data Independence
81.Which of the Following statement is False.
Ans: Primary key of a table may involve multiple attributes
PERFORMANCE
1.Mark wants to run s steady state test for 2 hours. There is only one class of users and total time of
transaction is 120 seconds. He wants 1200 transaction in 2 hours. how many virtual users does tommy
require for 5% of error margin?
Answer: 21
Steps: 1. One virtual user can complete: 2*60/2 (Converting 2 hrs. into 60 minutes and converting 120
seconds into 2 minutes) =60
Step 2: Total virtual users needed =1200/60=20
Step 3: Error prone=20*1.05=21
2.
John wants to run a one-hour steady state test. There is only one class of users. The users execute:
1.login transaction (30 seconds)
3 browse transaction (10 seconds each)
1 logout transaction (60 seconds). John wants total of 900 users to be run during this period. how many
virtual users does john require for 5% of error margin?
Answer:32
Step1: 1*30+3*10+1*60=120(total transactions)
Step2:60/2=30(Convert 120 seconds into 2 minutes)
Step3: 900/30=30
Step4:30*1.05=31.5=32
3.When you are running as a stress test you observe that cpu utilization is increasing along with the
increase in TPS. What can you conclude from this observation?
Answer: b)System has reached break point
4: Brad received a reqmt from the client mentioning that no of records in db will increase to 1 million
over period of one year. he was asked to execute a test make sure the s/m will work with defined SLA
with these increase transactional data in the db.Brad needs to run which of below test to accomplis h
above?
Answer: Volume testing
5: Some more specific reasons for conducting performance testing include:
Answer: All of available options
6.Performace testing is challenging for all specified reasons below expect for:
Answer: Application Usage Pattern
7.What type of test data is used for performance testing?
Answer:
8:You are a performance center expert and have been assigned to a client that needs to performance
test an application that has not yet been released. how can u obtain information about application
anticipated load?
Answer:
9:What is the deliverable of a Test Requirement Analysis phase of Performance Test Life Cycle?
Answer:
10.Which one of the below does not represent throughput?
Answer: page fault per second
11.Goal of performance testing is to identify:
Answer: Bottlenecks
12: Performance Engineer’s job is to:
Answer:
13: Performance defects can occur at:
Answer:
14: Angelina received peak load transactional volume for crackers website during Diwali season. what
kind of performance testing does she need to execute, if the website should handle load during Diwali?
Answer:
15: Which term defines the end-end measurement of time when 1 or more steps are completed?
Answer:
16. Performance Defects can occurs at.
Answer:
17. Angelina received peak load transactional volume website during Diwali season.
What kind of performance test does she need to execute, if the website should handle load during
Diwali festival time period
Answer:
18. Which term defines the end-to –end measurement of time when one or more steps are complete.
Answer: A) Transaction
19. Load testing emphasis on performance under load while stress emphasizes on ………………………………..
Answer: C) Breaking point
20. Chris is performance Test Engineer and he wants to get involved in Performance Tuning activity.
After which stage in Performance test life cycle, this activity is initiated.
Answer: B) Test Execution
21. Identify the deliverables of ‘Test Result Analysis’ Phase of Performance test life cycle.
Answer: A) Performance test Issues
22. Which Performance test is used to find out the system breaking point?
Answer: D) Stress test
23. Performance testing measures how well the application meets the customer expectation, In terms of
Answer: D) All the given options
24. The testing which determines the characteristics of a product under test when subjected to
workload model and load volumes that repeatedly increases beyond anticipated production for short
period of time is referred as …………..
Answer: A) Stress test

25. What is the deliverables of Test Requirement Analysis Phase of Performance test Life cycle?
Answer: D) Non-functional requirement Document
26. Which one of the below does not represent throughput?
Answer: C) Page Fault per second
27. Identification of the ‘test Stubs development requirement is covered in which phase of test Life Cycle
?
Answer: D) Test Strategy and planning
28. The test team want to test the response time and through put of XYZ application by increasing the
memory capacity in the server. Which testing has to be done to ensure the performance and stability of
the application after the change?
Answer: B) Spike testing
29. Identify the INCORRECT statement on performance testing ?
Answer: C) Requirements are hardline specification
30. Which type of testing does not come under performance testing ?
Answer: D) Transactional testing

31. In which phase of the load test does a performance test expert determines which monitor to use for
the load test?
Answer: C) During the planning and Strategizing phase
32. Identify the incorrect parameters which are measured for performance testing
Answer: D) Pacing
33. Identify the incorrect parameters which are measured for performance testing
Answer: D) Memory /Sec
TEST DATA MANAGEMENT
1.Match the following:
(a)Shuffling- involves random movement of data b/w rows to remove any correlation with remaining
information.
(b)Number Variance- Involves modifying a number value by some random percentage of its real value.
(c)Masking-Replaces certain fields with another character to disguise data content preserve the
formatting.
(d)Gibberish Generation-Involves substituting letters, memos and notes using hand built examples.
Answer: Option C (A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2)
2.Match the following:
(a)Data Integrity – Relates to maintaining integrity of data in test environment.
(b)Data Quality Analysis – Detects inconsistencies to identify target issues

(c)Request Provisioning- Involves a workflow based s/m for requesting test data and mapping with TC.
(d)Data Masking- Relates to maintain integrity of data in Test Environment.
Answer: Option D (A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1)
3.The process of creating referentially correct, business intact, cut down versions of prod DB is known
as:
Answer: Database Sub setting
4: Which of the following falls under the category of PII?
Answer: All of the give options (Financial Records, Social Security Numbers, Date Of Birth)
5: The disclosure controls on the PII collected, stored and shared by organizations are referred to as:
Answer: Data Privacy
6: IBM Optim test data solutions provide:
Answer: All of the choices (Data Growth, Data Privacy, Archiving)
7: Min and Max length of column data is checked in:
Answer: Statistical Analysis
8: Which of the following tools support Data Masking:
Answer:B)GRID and IBM optim
9: A data provisioning system does not:
Answer: Reserving particular test data for specific test scenarios.

10: Zip Code, address, email format are checked in:
Answer: Pattern Analysis
11: Precision constraints like decimal position is checked in:
Answer: Pattern Analysis
12: Gold Copy is term used refer to:
Answer: Creation of sample repository of test data
13: Which is the Infosys solution particularly used to protect the privacy of sensitive data in data
repositories?
Answer:
14: Benefits of sub setting include:
Answer: a and b (Saving of disk space & Faster Comparison of Data)
15: Data Maker from grid does not aid in:
Answer: Masking
16: A leading bank of US wants Infosys to test their solution with live data provided by the bank.
However, one of the requirement is not to leak out the customer service data. Which TDM technique is
most appropriate?
Answer: C)Data Masking
17: A pharmaceutical company having sensitive data wants the data to be visible only with appropriate
key. Which masking method is used here?
Answer: Encryption/Description
18: A retail client of UK wants Infosys to test their solution with live data provided by the client. Some of
the requirements are (1. Prod db must not be used as is,2. disk space saving and faster comparison
required, 3.data to be traceable to requirements in quality center)
Answer: B) Gold Copy
C) Data subsetting
19: which of the following are not considered as benefits of test data setup?
Answer:
20: During which of the following stages, what/when/where for test data generation decided?
Answer:
21: Taking or copying data from production or gold copy area to test environment is known as:
Answer:
22: Test data for testing a finance application dealing with customer credit history can be created along:
Answer:
23: Match the following:
(1): Metadata Analysis: - Talks about column datatype, constraints and nullability.
(2) Statistical Analysis: -Involves check for data duplication
(3) Relationship Analysis: - Involves foreign key and cardinality verification
(4) Pattern Analysis: - involves format verification and precision constraints
Answer: Option D
2.Percentage Reduction in Testing Time is:
Answer: (((Time to execute manually)-(Time to execute automated test scripts))/(Time to execute

manually)) / 100)
3.There are 4 Cancel buttons on the four corners of a window. Best way to identify these buttons using
an automation tools is by their:
Answer: screen co-ordinates

4.Feature of the test management tool that can maintain a history of test artifacts:
Answer: Audit Trail
5.Which of the following cannot be captured using QC?
Answer: Project Plan
6.The default scripting language in QTP is:
Answer: VBScript
7. Expected Value is compared with an actual value in an automation tool using a:
Answer: Checkpoint/Verification Point
8.Stability of an application to automate can be measured by:
Answer: No: of functional defects logged and fixed.
9.At the end of the automated test execution, which of the following would be still pending?
Answer: Defect Analysis
10.Application is ready to retest for bug fixes after:
Answer: Defect Analysis and fixing
11.Scripting Effort will include:
Answer: all of the above(Script development effort,script debugging effort, script verification effort)
12.A Repository is a characteristic of:
Answer: Object based tool
13.Version management is best done using:

Answer: Configuration Management tool
14.__________ comprises of defined set of assumptions, concepts and practices that provide support
for automated s/w testing
Answer: Automation framework
15.The functional automation test script generated by __________ is dependent on screen co-ordinates.
Answer:Bit map based
16.Arrange the following right sequence:
Answer: D)1,4,2,3(Automation Feasibility→Schedule,Estimation,Test Strategy→Automation script

generation and dry run→Automated test script execution)
17.To enable controlled access to test scripts, they should be stored in the designated repository such as
shared drive or test management tool for:
Answer: Version Control
18: An advantage of using Record and amp; playback is:
Answer: Tester need not be an expert in using the programming language.
19.A variable cost in automation would be:
Answer:End user training
20.A line in the script that instructs the automation tool to wait for a certain response from application
before proceeding to the next step is:
Answer: Synchronization Point
21: Different approaches for automation functional testing are:
Answer: All of the above (Record &Playback, Scripting and Framework)

22.Providing the script author and owner, creation and modification date, requirement identifiers that
the script traces back to, the business area that the script supports and number of variables and
parameters for the script in the test script header facilitates the execution, modification and _________
for future testing efforts.
Answer: Maintenance of the script.
23.A functional automation test tool should support
Answer: A)1,2,4(1-Scripting,2-Data Driven Testing,4-Result Comparison and Validation)
24).1)Business Priority;2)C score as per the scorecard are some of the parameters considered while
selecting automatable test cases during the automation feasibility analysis phase:
Answer)True
25)RTM stands for:
Answer: Requirement Traceability matrix
26.Defining the approach, decide on which frame work is to be used and subsequently, estimating the
time and finance needed to complete the same is done in:
Answer: Planning and Design
27.Tool License and add-ins are the entry criteria to:
Answer: Test tools setup
28. Test Scripts are created, debugged and verified in ___________ phase
Answer: Automation Scripting
29.The process by which automated testing tool reports whether expected results are met by the
application when the script is executed.
Answer: Verification
30: Select the WRONG option:

Answer: D) Functional test automation tool (like QTP,RFT ets…) is one stop for managing the test
requirements, test plan , defects
31. I am a logical description of a scenario which a tool utilizes for simulating the test scripts. Who am I?
Answer: Test Script
32. Choose the most appropriate option.test automation tools are classified as.
1) Object based test automation tools.
2) Bitmap based test automation tools.
Answer: C) Both 1 and 2
33. Arrange the following the right sequence
1) Automation Feasibility Analysis

2) Automation Script generation and dry run
3) Automated Test Scripts Execution
4) Schedule, Estimation , Test strategy
Answer: D) 1,4,2,3
34. ……………………….. phase includes defining the approaches, decide on which framework to be used
and subsequently, estimating the time and finance needed to complete the same.
Answer: A) Planning and design
35. 1) ……………… and 2) …………… are the components contributing to the variable cost associated with
automation.
Answer: C) 1) End user training 2) Script Execution

36.A Functional test automation tool should support.
Ans:B)1,2,34
37.Match the functional test automation tool with the scripting language
Tools- Rational Functional Tester(RFT),Quick Test Pro (QTP),Winrunner
Language-TSL,VB Script,Java /VB .Net
Ans:B) Rational Functional Tester(RFT)/ Java /VB .Net,Quick Test Pro (QTP)/ VB Script,Winrunner/TSL
38. Select the right statement about an automation framework

Ans:B) Dedicated version management process is required for the user defined function libraries.
39. ………..is used for the testing a single test script with varying input and response data that comes
from a pre-defined data set .
Ans:Data-driven framework
40.A test management tool can be used to

Ans:A)Schedule and execute the test case(s).
41.Rational Functional Tester is a tool owned by
Ans:B) IBM
42.An advantage of using Record and Playback is
Ans:A)The tester need not be an expert at the programming language.
43.A disadvantage of scripting is
Ans : A) Fine tuning of scripts is difficult

44.The test automation team should come up with the naming standards for the test scripts that include
information
Ans: D) All of the above
45.Planning and design of automation involves:
Ans:D)All the above
46.Expected value is compared with actual value in an automation tool using a
Ans: C)Checkpoints
47. When an automation tool generates test scripts based on the screen co-ordinates on the AUT, it is
classified as
Ans:D)Bitmap based test automation tool
48.Providing the script author and owner,creation and modification date,requirement identifiers that
the script traces back to ,the business area that the script supports, and number of variables and
parametres for the script in the test script header facilitates the execution ,modification and ---------------
For future testing efforts.
Ans:C)Maintenance of the script.
49.One that does not score high for Test automation is.
Ans:D)Random/Ad-hoc test
50.The test automation team needs to verify the working of the tool and its connectivity with the
application to be automated in case.
Ans:A)Customer or development team does the tool setup.
51.Test suite setup is done in
Ans: D) Automation Scripting phase

52. ………. is based on the concept of feeding data into the scripts by utilizing an input file ,called data
sheet.
Ans: B)Data driven framework
53.Most appropriate combination of the entry criteria for first time execution of the automated test
script .
Ans: A)Test data is setup,Test script are available,Automation test tool is availabale.
54.Tool used to store test cases ,result logs abd defect reports .
Ans:B) Test Management
55.Rational Test manager is a product from
Ans:B)IBM
56.Disadvantages of scripting are
Ans:D) All of the above(Programming skills,Higer initial effort,Standards needed)
57.Synchronization time set in tools usually.
Ans:B) Dynamic
58.Repeated
59.Object based test automation tool learns and stores information about a window or object in an
object repository of the tool.
Ans: True
60.Select the Wrong statement about a bitmap based test automation tool.
Ans:D)The test script generated by a bitmap based test automation tool is very Robust
61.Repeated
62. Test management tool helps in
1)Managing requirements,test cases
2)Collating the test cycles results and logs,maintaining version control
Ans:Both 1 and 2
63…………….provides a web based ,integrated system for performing quality assurance across a wide
range of application environments.It is designed to optimize test management requirement and defect
tracking ,regression testing.
Ans:D)Quality Centre
64.The Functional automation test script generated by ………..is dependent on screen co-ordinates
Ans:A)Bitmap based test automation tool
65.Evaluation sub areas like Custom Object recognition,Test Scripting,Advanced scripting,Test script
debugging are covered under.
Ans:C) Functional Evaluation
66.Choose the advantages of Record and playback mode of automation
Ans:B) Tester need not have the knowledge of any programming language or programming concepts for
automating the test scripts.
----------------------------------------IMP …………………………..
1)Error Guessing is what type of testing
Ans: black box testing
2)What type of protocol is TCp/ip
Ans-packet-switch protocol
3)Static testing is done during Coding
Ans:False
4)Before you do Performance Testing do you have to ensure that the Functionally Tested
Ans:True
5)E-R modelling is
Ans:Top-down Approach
6)Which of the Stmt is true regarding a relation in Rdbms
Ans: A Relation Can have many Candidate key but only 1 primary Key
7)Testing can Identify
a)Errors
b)Requirements Conformance
c)Above All
d)None
Ans: I wrote a)
But felt C) could also be correct just check this when u study
8) Correct Format of STLC ...
Ans: Requirements Gathering --> Test Stratezing --> Test Environment Set up --> Test Execution
9)Performance Testing is
Ans: Non-Functional Testing.
10)Acceptance Testing is Done by
Ans: Gathering Requirements
11) Ques realted to Alpha,Beta Testing --when Alpha Testing is Done and When Beta Testing is Done
ans:False
12) Alpha,Beta,Delta are types of Acceptance testing
Ans-True ..I wrote True..but no heard of Delta Testing had Some Doubt
13)Digital Ceritificate is Used
Ans: Authentication.
14)Proxy Server is Used for
Ans: Caching the Data Pages,Filtering
15)Program Logic Driven is done in
Ans:White-Box Testing
Question
________________________________________
A banking application has the specimen signature of the customer displayed in his account information
page. Best technique to validate the signature using an automation tool is
a. Object verification
b. Bitmap verification
c. Data verification
d. None of the above
________________________________________
Sometimes during script execution, the application is closed by the automation tool before capturing
response from the server. Server response varies on various factors. Best way to over come such a
problem is by introducing
a.Wait period
b. Synchronisation point
c. Bitmap verification point
d. Object verification point
________________________________________
The advantage of record and play back test script is
a. Reusability in other test cases
b. Scalability across environments/enhancements
c. Script robustness
d. Ease in test script creation
________________________________________
Which of the following cannot be classified as one time or fixed cost involved in automation?
a.Automation feasibility analysis
b.Test scripting and documentation
c.Tool selection and acquisition
________________________________________
Which of the following is not a test management tool?
a. Test Director
b. Test Partner
c. Rational Test Manager

________________________________________
Memory leaks in an application can be uncovered by performing
a. Data driven testing
b. Endurance testing
c. Volume testing
d. Availability testing
________________________________________
Rate at which a computer or network receives data or requests/sec can be defined as

a.Response time
b. None of the above
c. Throughput
d. Hit Ratio
________________________________________
This test is performed to determine how effectively the system will expand to accommodate an
increasing load and allows planning system capacity improvements.
a. Scalability testing
b. Availability testing
c. Volume testing
d. Load testing
________________________________________
Which of the following is a Windows based tool/utility used to measure system level performance
parameters?
a. iostat
b. vmstat
c. perfmon
________________________________________
Cost of quality is defined as

a. Prevention cost + Defects cost + Failure cost
b. Prevention cost + Appraisal cost + Failure cost
c. Production cost + Defects cost + Failure cost
d. Prevention cost + Review cost + Failure cost
________________________________________
Developer is assigned with a bug which is already logged by a different tester. He must change t he
status of the bug to
a. Rejected
b. Postponed
c. Duplicate
d. Reopen
________________________________________
Following are the documents required for preparing the Test Strategy for an application involving Test
Automation
a. System Design Document, RTM and Automation Feasibility report
b. Environment Setup Document, RTM and Automation Feasibility report
c. Requirements Document, RTM and Automation Feasibility report
________________________________________
Following testing technique would uncover all the defects in a system
a. Code walk through
b. Black box testing
c. White box testing
________________________________________
Following type of dynamic testing is mostly done by developers
a. Integration testing
b. Code Inspection
c. Unit testing
d. User acceptance testing
________________________________________
In the latest build of a net banking application, you are unable to perform any debit or credit
transactions due to system errors. As a tester you would:
a. Log the bugs and proceed with testing
b. Ask the developer to fix the bugs immediately

c. Stop testing as it makes no sense when all financial transactions fail in a banking application and log
defects
________________________________________
In V- Model, System Acceptance Testing is performed based on
a. Requirement Analysis
b. Detail Design
c.Functional specification
d. High Level Design
________________________________________
In which stage of the software development, bug fixing would be most costly?
a. Build
b. Implementation
c. Design
d. Maintenance
________________________________________
RTM is not used for
a. Providing the mapping between test cases to business scenario to business functionality
b. Performing impact analysis where there is change in requirement
c. Defect analysis
d. Prioritization of the tests during crunch times
________________________________________
This test identifies the failure point of the system under extreme pressure
a.Load testing
b. Stress testing
c. Volume testing
d. Endurance testing
________________________________________
A hardware device that is connected to multiple nodes in a network is called
a. Router
b. Switch
c. Port
________________________________________
IP address can be divided at arbitrary boundaries by
a. Sub Netting
b. Subnet Masking
c. Subnet Addressing
Not Sure above answer
____________________________________
TCP/IP protocol works on which layer of OSI?
a. Presentation
b. Session
c. Transport
d. Network
Not sure coz TCp works in Transport and IP works in Network layer
________________________________________
Which class of IP address is used for multi-casting?

a. Class A
b.Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
________________________________________
Which of the following is not a web server?
a. Apache
b. IIS
c. iPlanet
d. Opera – this is a web browser
________________________________________
Identifying a point in a transaction to which you can later roll back can be done using
a. DML Commands
b. DDL Commands
C. DCL Commands
d. TCL Commands
________________________________________
One school (s1, s2, s3) can have many students, but one student (a1, a2, a3) can study in one school
only. This is an example of
a. One to One Relationship
b. One to Many Relationship
c. Many to One Relationship
d. None of the choices
________________________________________
Security privileges are granted on database objects to specific users using
a. DML Commands
b. DDL Commands
c. DCL Commands
d. TCL Commands
________________________________________
.................Data model uses collection of tables, each of which is assigned a unique name, to represent
both data and relationships among those data
a. Hierarchical
b. Network
c. Relational
d. None of these
________________________________________
...............View draws data from multiple tables and presents results as single virtual view
a. Vertical
b. Joined
c. Horizontal
You have identified several test cases in a banking application that are similar in nature, but the only
varying factor is the input amount. What is the best automation framework that would suit this
requirement?
a. Keyword driven
b. Data driven
c. Hybrid
________________________________________
Which of the following is not an activity carried out during Automation feasibility analysis?
a.Identify test cases that cannot be automated due to tool limitations and / or complexity of the
functionality
b. Understanding the System and the environment in which the application has to be installed
c. Analyse if automation is actually possible and benefit in the long run
d. Analyse every framework for their pros and cons

Which of the following is not a test management tool?
a. Test Director
b. Test Partner ----- This is a Automation testing tool
c. Rational Test Manager
________________________________________
Which of the following is not a low scoring (less important) test case for automation?
a.Adhoc test
b.Interface test
c. Data driven test
d. Usability test
________________________________________
Which of the following is not a high scoring (More important) test case for automation?
a. Sanity test
b. Regression test
c. Hot Fix test
d. Data driven test
________________________________________
Which of the following statements is not true for performance engineering?
a. Evaluates the application
b. Addresses the issues in the system
c. Fixes problematic areas in system under test
d. Eliminates issues in the application
________________________________________
Which of the following is the most common protocol supported by all the popular performance testing
tools?
a. XML
b. HTTP
c. HTTPS
d. Winsocket
________________________________________
Which of the following is not an application/DB level performance parameter?
a. Response time
b. Hit Ratio
c. Locks
________________________________________
Which of the following is not a system level performance parameter?
a. CPU Usage
b. Throughput
c. Disk I/O time
d. None
________________________________________
Your friend has sophisticated knowledge of intruding into systems and finding out the vulnerabilities to
gain system access. You would recommend him for:
a. Unit testing
b. Code walk through
c. Compatibility testing
d. Security testing
________________________________________
Which of the following test is performed when data is moved from Oracle to My SQL?
a. Data Conversion Testing
b. Penetration testing
c. Data migration testing
d. Compatibility testing
________________________________________
Which of the following status is most appropriate when the developer is in the process of fixing a bug?
a. Assigned
b. Fixing
c. In-Progress
d. In-Development
________________________________________
Which of the following shows the right sequence for STLC?
a. Requirement Analysis->Test Case Development->Test Strategising->Environment Setup->Test

Execution->Test Cycle Closure
b. Requirement Analysis->Test Strategising->Environment Setup->Test Case Development->Test

c. Requirement Analysis->Test Strategising->Test Case Development->Environment Setup->Test

________________________________________
Which of the following set of documents form the deliverables after test execution
1. Completed RTM with execution status

2. Test cases updated with results
3. Test Metrics
4. Defect report
a. 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
________________________________________
Which of the following is not a basic measure?

a. Effort
b. Schedule
c. Resource
d. Size
Which of the following is an example of white box testing?
a. UAT
b. System Acceptance testing
c. Unit testing
d. Alpha testing
Which of the following is a functional testing technique?
a. Volume testing
b. Stress testing
c. Localization testing
d. Compatibility testing
Which of the following integration strategy needs only stubs?
a. Bottom-up
b. Top-Down
c. Sandwich
d. Up and Down
Which of the following are the development activities as mentioned in V - Model
1. Requirement Analysis
2. Feasibility Analysis
3. Functional Specification
4. Detail design
5. System Specification
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 2, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 4
_____ is not a performance testing tool.
a. QA Load
b. Http Load
c. Open STA
d. Silk Test
PERFORMANCE Testing Questions:
1- Performance Testing is based upon functional testing requirements.
a-true
b-false
ans - true
2- Sanity testing have following advantages (check box option)
a-High skill levels required
b-Capture defects early, so saves
rework cost
c-Checklist-based approach
d-Highest probability of finding
defects
ans - b,c and d
3- what are fixed cost variables (check box option)
a-Execution
b-Pilot project identification effort and Proof of Concept
c-Automated Test infrastructure maintenance cost

d-Hiring skilled resources OR training existing team members\
ans - b adn d
4- Performance testing with multiple scripts
a- Performance testing should not be done on multiple script.
b- perfoemance testing should be done on each and every script with equal load.
d- Performance testing should be done with equal load .
e- None of the option.
ans: not confirm
5-Quality Control means ----??(check box option)
ans (some 4 options where given out of which 2 where related to QC and the other 2 were related to
QA) so read properly the
difference between QC and QA.
6-Automation is least used for which cases

a- Tests that need to be run for every build of the application Sanity check
b- Batch program testing
c- Tests that use multiple data values for the same actions
d- Tests requiring a great deal of precision
ans - b- Batch program testing.
7- Interview stakeholders,Elicit Business objectives and constraints,Study Software requirements and

existing Test process
are done in which phase
a-Requirement Capture
b-Requirement Analysis
c-Both a and b
d-none
ans - a-Requirement Capture.(vice versa can also be asked).
8- In Requirement phase the document that is used is
a- Test Cases
b- Test Scripts
c- Tracibility matris
e- Test Plan
ans - I marked 'c' Tracibility matrix.(confirm it).
9- Playback testing is used to (3 option with check box wher asked i do not remember the option) .
10-Integration Testing with respect to V model
a- High level design
b- Detailed Design / Program Specification
c- Requirement Analysis
d- none.
ans- a- High level design.
11- User Acceptance with respect to V model

a- High level design
b- Detailed Design / Program Specification
c- Requirement Analysis
d- none.
ans - c- Requirement Analysis
12-compatibily testing is realted to differenr users(business/PM)
a- true
b- false
ans - b- false.
13- which of these is included in Performance testing (chech box option)
a- stress testing
b- and 2 more option

14- Sourse code is tested in Static testing
a- true
b- false
ans - b- false.
15- On what basis Automation testing is selected (Read carefully Check box option ).
16-question on error Guessing
17- Question on equivalence testing
18 -Question on Boundry Value Analysis testing
19 - Black Box technique includes
a- equivalence testing
b- error Guessing
c- Boundry Value Analysis
d- all of them
e- none
ans- d-all of them.
20-Integration Testing includes INTRA MODUL INTERFACE, EXTERNAL INTERFACE , INTER MODULE
INTERFACE
a- true
b- false
ans a-true.
21- Integration Testing include white box as well as black box testing
a- true
b- false
ans a-true.
22- What are the bottelneck that can take place in any system (check box option)
a CPU utilization and Network utilization
b Memory utilization and Disk usage
c Operating System limitations
d none.
ans a,b,c
23- Reviews are done in
a- verification
b- validation
24- ___________________ means wheather we are buliding the right product and
__________________ means wheather we bulding
the product right.
a- quality assurance , quality control
b- verification, validation
c- validation , verification
d- none
ans- c- validation , verification
25- Automation is done for which test .(some 4 options where given which were a bit confusing, i do not
remember the options
so read carefully )
26- a) albha - customers
b) beta - developers
a - a is correct
b - b is correct
c - both are correct

d - both are false
ans d- both are false.
27- Arrange them according to the their order
a- Automation Feasibility Analysis
b- Automation Script Generation

c- Planning and Design
d- Test Environment Setup
e- Defect Analysis & Fixing
f- Automated Test Script Execution
ans correct order is a,c,d,b,f,e
28- Program Logic Driven is done in
a- Black box testing
b- white box testing
c- both
d- none
Ans: b-White-Box Testing
29-Performance testing is a :
a- Non-functional
b- functional
c- other type of testing
d- none
ans a - Non-functional
30- suppose there is an defect which is critical but has no priority and other which has priority and not
critical whic
defect should the tester fix first?
a- Critical but no priority
b- Priority but not critical
c- None of them
d- both of them
ans- a- Critical but no priority
31 - Defination of Software Configuration Management (check box option)
RDBMS-QUESTIONS
1- cardinality of relation means whaht?

a- no of rows
b- no of column
d- both
e- none
ans: a- no of rows
2- Select the true statement from the following

a- noramlization is used to optimise insert ,delete and update but not select.
b- Normalozation is Top down approach
c- ----------------------------------
d- ----------------------------------
ans: a- noramlization is used to optimise insert ,delete and update but not select.
3- IF a foreifn key of one table refering to the primary key of the other table then it is called as
a- Domain intrigity
b- entity intrigity
c- self referencing
d- refrencial intrigity
ans: d- refrencial intrigity
4- Time stamping is used to control
a- durability
b- concurrency
c- deadlock
e- logs.
ans: b- concurrency
5- select empno , max(sal),

from employee,
order by empno
having age>25,
group by empno.
a- The above query is perfectly allright
b- The above query will generate error because order by and group by cannot be used together.
c- The above query will generate error because order by and group by are not in order ,group is written
first
and then order by is written at the last.
d- all are false
ans - c- The above query will generate error because order by and group by are not in order ,group is
written first
and then order by is written at the last.

6- when is Where clause and having clause applied ?
a - where clause is applied to select a row and having clause is appliesd to select the group of rows
b- having clause is applied to select a row and where clause is appliesd to select the group of rows
c- ----------------------
d --------------------
ans: a- where clause is applied to select a row and having clause is appliesd to select the group of rows
7- What will not affect the database
a - dropping column
b- droping constraints
c- dropping index
d- none
ans - not sure
8- which statement is true about RDMS
a- many to many realtionship is not possible in rdbms.
b- In the composite primary key one of the primary key can have null values.
c- The primary key is adjacent to the table .
d- all the table should be normalize atleast to 3NF.
ans - not sure

9- what does delete on cascade actually mean.
a -when we delete the table which contain the foreign key then the primary key table also get deleted.
b- when the records in the master table are deleted that contains the primary key the the record in the
child table
contaning the foreign key also get deleted.
c- ---------------------------------
d - -------------------------------
ans : b- when the records in the master table are deleted that contains the primary key the the record in
the child table
contaning the foreign key also get deleted.
10 - questions on normalization to find if they are in 1NF or 2Nf or 3NF..?(almost 2 questions on this)
11- A pool of values from which the values of specific attributes of specific relations are taken
a- dictnory
b- catalog
c- domain
d- none
ans : c- domain
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1-which amoung them is the web server

a - internet explorer.
b - Microsoft sever.
c- microsoft interenet information server
d - none
ans - c- microsoft interenet information server
2- 127.0.0.0 is used as
a- multicast
b- loop back
c- future use
d- none
ans - b- loop back
3- Ip address 216.10.11.10 belongs to which class
a- class A
b- class B
c- class C
d- CLAss E
ans : c- class C
4- In the URL
http://localhost:8080/test/home.html
a host is localhost:80, path is /test/home.ht
b host is localhost, path is /test/home.html,
c host is http://localhost:8080, path is /hom
d host is http://localhost, path is /test/hom
ans : host is localhost, path is /test/home.html, 'localhost' refers to Host name & 'test/home.html'
refers to the
file path. The port number is 8080
5- Firewall is used for( check box option)
a- all traffic entering the organozation passes through the firewall
b- all traffic leaving the organization passes through the firewall
c- it converts the domain name to the ip address.
d- -------------------
ans: a and b
6- proxy servers can be used for
a- packet fitering.
b- and few more options where theri...

7- Domain name server is used
a- to translates domain name into ip address
b- to connect the private network to public network
c------------------------------------------
d-------------------------------------------
ans: a- to translates domain name into ip address
7- one question related to virtual private network with one example was their
8- In tcp/ip messages are divided in
a- data fragments
b- packets
c- both
d- none
ans b- packets.
9-In tcp/ip packets are received in same ored at the destination.
a- true
b- false
ans: b- false
10- the addressing system is class B ,there are subnets to be formed for mumbai, chennai,
pune and mysore ,how many bits will be required
a- 4
b- 2
c- 3
d- 0
ans: b-2
11 What are the active contents on the client side(check box option)
a- java script
b- active x
c- java applets
d- cji
ans: a,b and c.
12- Which technologies are used to create dynamic web pages.
a- cji
b- jsp
c- asp
d- actiev x
ans: a,b and c.
13- 3 tier layer business logic is in what layer
a- network layer
b- transport layre
c- applicfation layer
d- physical layer
ans- c- applicfation layer
14- firewall are placed in which layer
a- network layer
b- transport layre
c- applicfation layer
d- physical layer
ans : a- network layer
15- In public internet which is not used

a- switch
b- router
c- bridge
d- none
ans d- none
16- which is used to join two hetrogenous network
a- gateway
b- bridge
c- router
d- switch
ans : a- gateway
17- which of them is a valid url
a - http://www.infosys.com
b - ftp://121.12.12.23
c - both
d - none
ans : c- both
18 - Symmetric encryption is known as

a- public key encryption
b- private key encryption
c- both
d - none
ans: b- private key encryption
19- _________________ is used for authentication
a- digital certificate
b- public key
c---------
d----------
ans : a- digital certificate
20- what does the error 403 indicate
a- success
b- server side error
c- client side error
d- information message
ans: c- client side error

( Learning Guide 1 )
............................ check involves a minimal set of test cases to ensure basic functionality is tested before
taking the application/ product for further testing
Integration testing
Regression testing
Sanity testing
None of the above.
The primary role of testing is;
To make the system user friendly

Determining whether the system meets specifications as well as business and user needs
To break the system.
Raisings issues
If a defect leads to crashing of the server, the severity of the defect should be
Severity 1- Critical
Severity 2- Major/High
Severity 3- Medium
Severity 4- Low/Trivial
Which of the following is not a “Functional testing”
Sanity Testing
Integration Testing
Alpha Testing
Stress Testing
Which of the following is the right sequence in Testing?
Unit Testing System testing Integration testing User Acceptance testing
Unit Testing Integration testing System testing User Acceptance testing
Unit Testing System testing User Acceptance testing System testing
Unit Testing System testing User Acceptance testing Integration Testing
An orderly progression of testing in which software elements, hardware elements or both are combined
and tested to evaluate their interactions until the entire system has been integrated is
Regression Testing
Integration Testing
Unit Testing
System Testing
Which of the following is not a Black box Testing technique?
Boundary value analysis
Path coverage
Equivalence Portioning
Error Guessing
If a bug has been resolved by the development team and if the QA team finds the resolution as
incorrect, what will the QA team do?
Reopen the defect
Close the defect and open a new one
Report back to the development team keeping the status of the bug as “Closed”
Assign the defect to a new developer

Solutions
Learning Guide 1
Sanity testing
Determining whether the system meets specifications as well as business and user needs
Severity 1- Critical
Stress Testing
Unit Testing Integration testing System testing User Acceptance testing

Integration Testing
Path coverage
Reopen the defect
ANSWERS FOR AET COMPRE – MOCK
**A (ANSWERS) **
<Q>_________ allows for the communication between the scripts and Application under test (AUT)
<C>Object Mapping
<A> GUI Map
<C>Logical Name
<C>All of the above
<Q>Active content refers to
<C> Content which is decided by the author at the time of creation
<A> A piece of executable code which is sent back to the browser, and the code is executed locally on
the client machine
<C> Content is generated on the server on the fly upon a request

<Q>__________ Testing checks for accumulated logs and data files
<C> Stress
<C> Endurance
<A> Volume
<C> None of the above
<Q>A UNIQUE constraint on a column(s) can have

<A> Null values
<C> Cannot have null values
<C> Blank character
<C> Cannot have blank character
<Q>---------- involves analyzing the suitability of various approaches available for testing
<A> Test strategizing
<C> Software Requirement Analysis
<C> Test case development
<C> Software requirements management
<Q>A defined set of assumptions, concepts and practices that provides support for automated software
testing is called
<A> Framework
<C> Automation
<C> Scripting
<C>Testing process
<Q>DNS is used to
<C> Map MAC address to a domain name
<A> Map IP address to a domain name
<C> Map computer name to a domain name

<Q>Checking Data integrity takes place during
<C> Test requirement gathering
<C> Test planning and strategizing
<A> Test script development
<C> Test execution
<Q>Choose the CORRECT pair with respect to compatibility of locking.
<C> ( X,SIX )
<C> ( IS,X )
<A> ( SIX, IS)
<C> (SIX, IX)
<Q>A program edits credit limits within a given range (at least $10000 but less than $15000). Which of
the following is not an equivalence class?
<C> Less than $10000
<C> Equal to $10000 but not as great as $15000

<C> $15000 or greater
<A> None of the above.
<Q>Defect Logging and Tracking should be done
<C> At the end of the cycle only.
<C> Do not answer
<A> After Automated Test Script Execution
<C> Immediately after Automation Feasibility Analysis
<C> After Documentation
<Q>In a web scenario the error code 503 refers to processing error on _______
<C> Web Browser
<A> Web Server
<C> Application Server

<Q>Correlations are identified during the _________ phase of the Performance testing life cycle
<C> Test Execution
<C> Test Planning
<A> Test Script Development
<C> Test Requirements Gathering
<Q>Index is created to
<C> Helps in insert and update operations
<C> To enforce a check constraint
<A> Speeds up the retrieval operations

<C> Helps in saving storage memory
<Q>Alpha, Beta, Delta are forms of Acceptance testing
<C> True
<A> False
<Q>In automation process, life cycle stages do not involve
<C> Automation Feasibility Analysis
<C> Schedule, Estimation, Test strategy
<C> Test environment set-up
<A> Test tool selection
<Q>Packets
<A> Improves throughput
<C> Reduces throughput
<C> Increases delay
<C> Increases time of transmission
<Q>Disk Queue Length is the average number of _________
<C> Read requests queued up for the selected disk
<C> Write requests queued up for the selected disk
<A> Read and Write requests queued up for the selected disk

<Q>Which is FALSE with respect to hierarchical model?
<C> There is one root element at the top
<A> It can implement many to many relationship
<C> IMS is implemented on hierarchical model
<C> Hierarchical model can be referred as parent child relation
<Q>Big-bang approach is used in
<C> Unit Testing
<A> Integration Testing

<C> Security Testing
<C> Performance Testing
<Q>Modularization of test automation is an advantage of
<C> Data driven framework
<C> Keyword driven automation framework
<C> Hybrid test automation framework
<A> Both B and C
<C> Both A and C
<Q>Secure Content types are represented by
<C> MIME
<A> S/MIME
<C> MIME/S
<C> All of the above
<Q>For a well tuned application one would expect the throughput to
<C> Remain constant with load
<A> Increase with load
<C> Decrease with load
<C> Vary randomly with load
<Q>Consider the follwing table structure:
Coulmn Constraint
_______ ___________
EmpId Primary Key
Name Not Null
HireDate Not NUll
Address Not Null
DeptNo Foreign Key Dept(Dept_No)
If a view is created on all columns except DeptNo. Can we insert data into view?
<A> Yes
<C> No
<C> Depends on Department Table
<Q>Effort estimation document should be prepared during
<A> Test Strategizing
<C> Test Case development
<C> Test Execution
<C> Test Cycle closure
<Q>The disadvantage of Framework based automation is
<A> Good scripting knowledge is required
<C> Maintenance of test scripts is difficult
<C> Quality & consistency cannot be predicted
<Q>The issue/issues with a typical web application is/are
<C> Security
<C> Performance
<C> Testing
<A> All the options mentioned here
<Q>Which of the following is not a system level parameter?
<C> Memory
<A> Locks
<C> Disk I/O time

<C> CPU Usage
<Q>Consider following queries:
1.select count(*) from emp;
2.select count(empId) from emp;
<C> Query 1 will always return more number of rows than query 2
<C> Query 2 will always return more number of rows than query 1
<A> Query 1 may return more number of rows than query 2
<C> Result of both queries will be same always
<Q>Loop testing is
<C> Static Testing
<A> White box testing
<C> Black box testing
<C> Walk through
<Q>When an object based automation tool executes a test, it uses the ________ to locate objects in the
screen.
<C> Logical name

<A> Physical description
<C> Image stored in repository
<Q>Which is not a job carried out by an application server in a n-tier web application
<C> Hosting business logic
<C> Thread Pooling
<A> Optimising sql queries
<C> Connection pooling
<Q>Garbage collection is a
<A> Application level parameter
<C> System level parameter
<C> Network level parameter

<Q>What is FALSE regarding 'Truncate' command
<C> It is DDL statement
<C> It deletes all rows in a table but maintains table definition
<A> Its effect can be reversed by issuing rollback command
<Q>Severity of a defect could be
<A> Critical, Major, Minor, Enhancement
<C> High, Medium, Low
<C> New, Assigned, Closed

<Q>Which of the following is not an example of "One-time or fixed costs"?
<C> Automation feasibility analysis
<C> Tool selection and acquisition
<C> Hiring skilled resources or training existing team members
<A> Test script and documentation maintenance cost
<Q>Which of the following is not an activity of a proxy server?
<C> Filtering request
<C> Caching web pages
<C> Both of the choices
<A> None of the choices
<Q>Which of the following is conducted for a single user
<A> Functional testing
<C> Performance Testing
<C> System testing
<C> Regression Testing
<Q>Entity Integrity is established by using which of the following constraints?
<A> Primary Key
<C> Foreign key
<C> Check constraint
<C> Not Null Constraint

<Q>The extent to which access to software or data by unauthorized persons can be controlled
<C> Reliability
<C> Maintainability
<A> Integrity
<C> Interoperability
<Q>WinRunner supports "AOL" browser
<C> True
<A> False
<Q>Which of the following is used to translate domain name to IP addresses

<C> TCP/IP
<C> Subnetting
<C> Only TCP is sufficient
<A> DNS
<Q>Which kind of performance testing checks the application under test for expected load and if it can
take on spikes in the load condition. i.e. increase in rate of transactions & study its impact on the system
resources?
<C> Load testing
<A> Stress testing
<C> Volume testing
<C> Endurance testing<Q>Given a relation R1(a,b,c,d,e,f) and functional dependencies are:
a,b-->c; a,b-->f; c--->d; d--->e; e--->f
What is the primary key of the relation R1?
<C> a
<C> b,c
<A> a,b
<C> d,e
<Q>When faced with a situation where there is one critical but not priority defect and another priority
but non critical defect, which one should the developer fix FIRST?
<C> Critical but not priority defect
<A> Priority but non critical defect

<C> Any one can be fixed
<C> Both should be fixed
<Q>Hard coding of data can be avoided by……………..framework
<C> Data driven
<C> Record & playback
<C> Hybrid
<A> Both a & c
<Q>Which one of the following statements is true with respect to the Transmission Control Protocol?
<C> It is a circuit switched protocol

<A> It is a packet switched protocol
<C> It is neither circuit switched nor packet switched protocol
<Q>The selection of monitor for the performance testing project depends on which factor?
<C> The tool we are currently using for the performance testing
<A> The architecture of the application
<C> Tool’s compatibility with the monitor
<C> User friendliness
<Q>Primary key should be a candidate key with
<C> Maximum number of attributes
<A> Minimum number of attributes
<C> Can be maximum or minimum
<Q>Which of the following is the right sequence in validation processing?
<C> Test Requirement Analysis-> Result reporting -> Environment setup->Test case design
<A> Test Requirement Analysis->Strategizing->Test case Generation->Environment setup
<C> Test Requirement Analysis->Defect Analysis->Strategizing->Result reporting
<C> Test Requirement Analysis->Test case Execution->Test case design->Strategizing
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1: accessibility checking available in QTP TOOL
2. Behavior @ various DB volumes

And : Volumn Testing
3. Can customize the fileds in “Add defect” page in QC
True
4. How will u identify the four buttons which are located in four corners of the screen?
Properties
5. Perfmon supports the below

Parameters such as CPU, Memory and I/O can be monitored in this context
6. Speed of the application implies
Response time
7. “Logs from the Servers (for reengineering projects) “is from which phase
Test Requirements Gathering
8)Active content refers to
A piece of executable code which is sent back to the browser, and the code is executed locally on
the client machine
9) DNS is used to
Map IP address to a domain name
10)Correlations are identified during the _________ phase of the Performance testing life cycle
Test Script Development
11) Index is created to
Speeds up the retrieval operations

12. Which of the following is used to translate domain name to IP addresses
DNS
12. Variables and arrays are used in automation to enhance
Data drivability
13. If the issue reported is not in scope, then developer will change the status to
‘Postponed’
14. If there is a spelling mistake in an application home page in the company logo, it will get a low
severity (impact on application is less) but priority of this is high as client would like to fix this
immediately.
High priopriy but low severity
15. The cost for establishing processes in coq is
Prevention cost
16. A row in a table is called as -------------- in relational database
Tuple
17. A relation is said to be in 3rd normal form if it is in 2nd normal form and
no transitive dependency exists between non key attributes and key attributes
18. Two tables are having rows 50 and 10 respectively. If we do cross join , how many rows the resultant
table will have
500
19. Which is used for connecting multiple networks

Router
21.Which establish a secure communication channel
SSL Handshaking
22. Which method is useful for the clients to check the characteristics of the resource without
downloading it and saving the bandwidth
Head
23. ActiveX[or Java script or Java applet] is what type of Document
Active content
24. one question from Lost update/Incorrect summary/Diry read/Phantom record
25. Something related to “Tuning”,
26. Something related to “Evaluate Query….”,
27 .All packets of data communicated through TCP/IP will arrive in the same order of transmission.
State ---False.
28. During the transfer of money from one account to the other, there are two operations, withdrawal
from one account and deposit into another. Either both of them must happen or neither.
Which Property of transaction states this? Ans: - Atomicity
29. Choose the CORRECT pair with respect to compatibility of locking.
( SIX, IS)
(SIX, IX)
( IS,X )
( X,SIX )
Ans: (SIX, IS)
----------------------------------------------------RDMS----------------------------------
1NF – Ensures atomicity
2NF – No partial dependency between non-key attributes & Key attributes
3NF – No transitive dependency between non-key attributes & Key attributes
2NF - used for Reporting System & 3NF - Online Application
Normalization is Bottom Up approach as it requies one to have knowledge of the columns of a table
(dependency across them)
Master File – stores Static data (Data in database changes rarely)
Transaction file – stores transient data (Data changes frequently)
Disadvantage of traditional file approach:
Data Security
Data redundancy
Data isolation
Data dependent
Lack of flexibility
Concurrent access anomility
Centralized Database – Data located at single point.
Distributed Database- Data distributed across many system, locations.
3 Level of architecture in DBMS
View Level (For end user) – Also called as external Level
Conceptual Level (For DBA) – What data is stored & what is the relationship
Physical Level (For DBM) – How the data is stored
Data Models:
Object based Logical Model – ER model is Object based logical Model
Record Based Logical Model

Hierarchial Data model (One to One relationship AKA parent child relationship)
Network Data model (many to many relationship)
Relational Data model *(Relational data model is Record based logical Model)
Primary key (candidate key to some extent)on any table ensure entity integrity constraint
Primary key should be selected with minimum no. of attributes.

Foreign key of a table ensures referential integrity.
ERD was defined by Peter chen.
Cardinality of Releationship describes type of relationship between two participating entities (eg: one to
one, one to many & so on…) while cardinality of relation is no. of rows in a given relation.
Edgar Codd – originator of SQL
Following checks ensure refrential integrity.
ON DELETE RESTRICT
ON DELTE SET NULL
ON DELETE SET DEFAULT
ON DELETE SET CASCADE
Lock compatibilty (means that if you x on an object you cannot aquire s on same object, see below ‘X’ in
opposite of ‘S’). ((S,S) are compatible locks) x-incompatible & tick is comatible
(to be read same as above)

Bill Inmon - Father of Data Warehousing
---------------------------doubts--------------------------
14) Static testing can be done on sourse codes
a) True
b) false
false(coz static testing just involves reviews)
9) the addressing system is class B ,there are subnets to be formed for mumbai, chennai,
pune and mysore ,how many bits will be required
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
how????????????????????
b) for 4 subnets 00,01,10,11 can address all for cities which involves 2 bits
3)Static testing is done during Coding
Ans:False
4)Before you do Performance Testing do you have to ensure that the Functionally Tested
Ans:True
1)Error Guessing is what type of testing
Ans: black box testing

10)Acceptance Testing is Done by
Ans: Gathering Requirements???????????????
4- Performance testing with multiple scripts
a- Performance testing should not be done on multiple script.
b- perfoemance testing should be done on each and every script with equal load.
d- Performance testing should be done with equal load .
e- None of the option.
ans: a)
8- which statement is true about RDMS???????????????
a- many to many realtionship is not possible in rdbms.
b- In the composite primary key one of the primary key can have null values.
c- The primary key is adjacent to the table .
d- all the table should be normalize atleast to 3NF.
ans – b)In the composite key one of the key can have null values
6- proxy servers can be used for
a- packet fitering.///////////
b- and few more options where theri...
26.Which of following is used for differnet protoclo
a)routers
b)bridges
c)gateways//////////
23.What are the requirement gathe during requirement analysis phase
a)functional/////////
b)non functional//////////
c)UAT/////////////
d)product testing
a,b,c
19.System testing can be a white box or black box dependin on whether you are tesing the modules or
the system
a)true????????????????????????
b)false
true
15.Selecting a data
a)entity
b)domain/////////////
c)dictionary
none of a,b,c is correct
13.Which of the following is correct url
a)hhttp\\www.infosys.com\index.html
b)ftp\\www.infosys.com\index.html
c)both a and b
d)none of the above
both a and b
9.What is good for automation
a)performance testing
b)regression testing///////////
c)usability testing
d)product testing
a,b
10.What is true about HTTP protocol
a)It works on tcp/ip protocol////////////////
b)It is stateful protocol
c)It is a simple request/response protocol//////////
a,c
11.firewall provide
a)Avoid entry and exit of data from public network
b)avoid data entry and exit from intranet
c)avodi downloading of images from and to public network
d)all the above///////////
all the above
4.create unique index abc on emp(mep_name)
this index help in which select operation

a)select * from emp
b)select emp_no,emp_name from emp
c)select emp_name from emp
d)none of the above
none of above
7.which metrics are created during script generation
a)script generation
b)script rework and reviewed
c)error in script
27, which of the following tests are usually least suitable for automation:
a)test for batch program.
b)test involving many simple repetitive steps.
c)tests that uses multiple data values for the same set of action.
d)sanity tests that needs to be run for every build.
31)A pool of values from which specific attributes of specific relation draw their value:
a)catalog
b)superkeys
c)dictionary
d)domain
( Learning Guide 1 )
Understanding the System and the environment in which the application has to be installed is carried
out in ............................ stage of test automation lifecycle
Automation Feasibility Analysis
Test Environment Set up
Automated Test Script Execution
None of the above.
Percentage of reusability of test script is
No. of test cases generated/ Effort spent in person hours
(No of reusable test scripts/ Total no of effort for scripts generation)*100
(No of reusable test scripts/ Total no of test scripts generated)*100
(No. of automated test cases/ Total no of manual test cases)*100

One-time or fixed cost associated with automation is
Test script and documentation maintenance cost
Automated Test infrastructure maintenance cost
Execution cost
Tool selection and acquisition Cost
Which of the following is NOT a “Functional testing Tool”
Silk Test
Test Partner
Load Runner
QTP
Rational Functional Tester 6.1 supports Mozilla 1.4, 1.5, & 1.
True
False
A Checkpoint is a line in the test script that instructs the tool to wait for a certain response from the
application during playback.
True
False
Which of the following is a “Test Management Tool”
WinRunner
Segue
Quality Center
QTP
TestDirector 8.0 supports Red Hat Linux
True
False
Which of the following is NOT captured in TestDirector 8.0
Requirement
Test Plans
Defects
Effort
Automating a test process can make a company to cut down on its staff size
True
False
Solutions
Learning Guide 1
Automation Feasibility Analysis
(No of reusable test scripts/ Total no of test scripts generated)*100

Tool selection and acquisition Cost
Load Runner
True
False
Quality Center
False
Effort
False
Test Papers on Testing Tools (20 Marks)
1. Automation Testing tools are required to
a. So that Testers can be done away with
b.Improve Quality and Reliability.
c. Performance testing can be done with fewer resources.
d. Testing process can be planned and managed effectively.
e. For Bug reporting only.
Ans: 1.(a,b,c) 2.(a,c,d) 3.(b,c,d) 3.(c,d,e)
2. Some of the Manual testing tools are? (Pick more than one)
Watch lists and Debuggers
Dumps
Test Directory
Bugzilla
Check Lists
3. Variables installed in the code that print or display the contents of the variables as the program runs
are called as
1. Numeric content
2. Instruments
3. Numeric Range
4. Check Lists is a
a. Problem analysis tool
b. Quality Control tool
c. Debuggers
5. Selection of the tool has an effect on the following (Pick more than one)
1. Affordability
2. Effectiveness
3. In-depth Testing of the application
4. User demands it.
5. Efficiency
6. Some points which needs to be kept in mind while going in for automation tools are:
a. Choose tools to match the tools’ capabilities.
b. Matching the tool to its intended use
c. Automation should give immediate returns.
d. Evaluate multiple tools before choosing one as most appropriate for your need.
e.Train people before expecting them to be productive.
7. List out any four benefits of using testing tools? (2 marks)
Accelerates release schedules by testing at any point in the development cycle.
Is repeatable and reliable
Reuses tests across platforms
Encourages more thorough testing without straining human testing resources.
Improves the coverage of regression testing

Improves the quality of testing by reducing human error.
Makes tests more maintainable, consistent and thorough.
Provides an organized, detailed test log and audit trail of executed tests.
Greatly increases the number of defects found during testing.
Has greater coverage than manual testing
Can run unattended overnight
More cost effective. Is an excellent return on investment
8. Name any two types of Generic Automated testing tool?

Check lists
Regressive Analyzers
Load/performance test tools
Web test tools
9. Some of the features of Win runner?(Pick more than one) – 2 marks
Checkpoints which notes only the excepted results.
GUI Check points
Database Checkpoints
Does not bother about Database integrity and transaction accuracy.
Rapid Text Wizard
Non-Synchronization tests
Create Data Driven testing
Test the application with Batch processing
10. Win Runner is a
Powerful Debugging Tool.
A GUI functional testing tool.
Testing tool to do functional/Regression testing.
It supports record and play back method.

Ans: a. (1, 2.3) b. (1, 3, 4) c. (1, 3, 4) d. (All of the above) e. (None of the above)
11. Win runner is used to validate business transactions like creating an account, withdrawal of money
etc?
True/False
12. Automation lifecycle starts with
a) Recording-Learning-Edit script-Analyze-Run.
b) Learning-Recording-Edit script-Run script-Analyze result.
c) Analyze-Recording-Edit script-Run script.
13. Can use more than one exception in one test in Win runner?
True/False
True-You can have any number of exceptions in one test script.
Ex: When you are getting internet problems as an unexpected error or even, then you have to handle
this and at the same time, if you are getting an application error in the navigation then you need to
handle that also.
14. What is the difference between GUI Map and GUI File?
Ans: GUI Map contains GUI Map files
Where as GUI Files are
Global GUI Map File
GUI Map File per test
15. An automated test cannot investigate the reasons for, isolate the causes of or explain the impact of
a particular bug.
True or False
16. Automation testing can be used in (Tick the correct ones)
Exploratory testing
Performance testing
Regression testing
Adhoc testing
Load testing
17. Different types of checks in Customer Data base are: (Pick more than one)
a. Case Sensitive
b. Numeric content
c. Numeric Range
d.Case sensitive ignore spaces
18. Describe the types of exceptions:
a. Pop-Up
b. TSL
c. Object
Ans: 1. Only a, 2.Only b, 3.b&c, 4.a, b, c, 5.a&c, 6.None
-------------------------------TESTING------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.Name few of the Black Box testing Techniques?
Equivalence partitioning
Boundary value analysis
Error guessing
Cause graph effect

2.What is Boundary Value Analysis? (Tick)
An effective way to test to exercise for all values in between its natural boundaries.
To test values which include maximum, minimum, just inside boundaries, just outside boundaries.
c. Boundary value analysis is a technique for selection of valid and invalid classes.
3. In Equivalence class?
If an input condition specifies a range, one valid and two invalid equivalence classes are defined.
If an input condition requires a specific value, then one valid and two invalid equivalence classes are
defined.
If an input condition specifies a member of a set, then one valid and one invalid equivalence class are
defined.
If an input condition is Boolean, then one valid and one invalid equivalence class are defined.
4.A field is required to accept amounts of money between Rs.0 and Rs.10. Does this mean up to and
including Rs.10 or Rs.9.99? At the other end can an amount of Rs.0 be acceptable? Is the boundary set at
the Rupees or Paise level?
The analyst decides the boundary values as Rs.0, Rs.0.01, Rs.9.99 and Rs.10.
4.1 What are the Boundary values in this case?
The boundary values in this case are –0.01, 0, 0.01, 9.99,10.00 and 0.01. Any amount in between is in
the same equivalence class as they are all acceptable. Thus 2.48 and 9.98 should behave exactly the
same.
4.2 What are the Equivalence Classes in this case?
One Valid Class is values from 0 to 10
First Invalid Class is values below 0 i.e. Negative amount.
Second Invalid Class is values above 10 i.e. High amounts
5. For a range of values bounded by a and b(Tick)

a. Test a, b, (a+1), (b+1)
b. Test (a-1), a (a+1), (b-1), b, (b+1).
c. Test a, b, (a-1), (b-1)
6.Tests are designed in Black Box to answer the following questions
How are the paths and statements tested?
What classes of input will make good test cases?

Is the system particularly sensitive to certain input values?
How are the boundaries of a data class isolated?
Validity of Loop constructs?
Ans: a. (All of above), b. (2,3,4), c. (1,2,5), d. (1,5), e.(1,4,5)
7. Problems in software can be analyzed by(Tick)
a. State transition testing
b. Error guessing
c. Cause graph effect
d. Partitioning Equivalence classes
8. To design Tests for programs that have many similar, but slightly different control functions is
a. Cause Graph effect
b. Boundary value analysis
c. State Transitions
d. Control structure
9. The Reliability of an application is tested in
Smoke testing
Sanity testing.
C. Reliability comparison testing

10 In Error Guessing
a. Find our errors randomly
b. Testing is based on experience
c. Find out errors before the other testers find out.
d. High probability that there will not be errors.
Test Papers on White Box Testing
1. Condition Coverage is
Executes all statements at least once.
Execute each decision direction at least once.
Execute each decision with all possible outcome at least once
2. Two execution paths are said to be independent
a. If they do not include the same set of nodes and edges.
b.In which all nodes and edges of the graph are included at least once.
c.Set of nodes and directed edges in a flow graph that connects the start node to a terminal node.
3. In White Box testing technique
a. All independent paths are not exercised
b. All internal data structures are exercised to ensure validity.
c. Some of the loops are executed
d. Most of the statements are executed.
4.Decision coverage is to
a. Execute each decision with all possible outcome at least once
b. Execute each decision direction at least once.

c. Executes all statements at least once.
5.What comprises Control Structure Testing?
a. Basis path testing-Graph matrix- flow graph
b. Condition testing-Data flow testing-Loop testing
c. Basis path testing-Condition testing-Data flow testing-Loop testing
6.How can you ensure that every statement in the program is executed at least once during testing?
By control structure testing

By Basis path Testing
By loop testing
7.Name one technique for Basis path testing?
a. Data flow
b. Cyclomatic Complexity
c. Cause Effect Graph matrix
8.How do you compute Cyclomatic complexity?
Cyclomatic complexity can be computed by using any of the following formulae
Number of independent paths
No of regions of flow graph
Edges-Nodes+2
Predicate nodes+1
9. “While” and “If” are simple notations to represent control flow, what are the other notations?
Ans: Until and Case
10. What type of Loop is this? How do you test this?

IWT
---
1.The address used for limited broad casting
a)127.0.0.0
b)135.0.0.0
c)255.255.255.255
d)none of the above
Ans: donno
2.The total number of network classes
a)3
b)4
c)5
d)6
Ans:5
3.DNS is used for
Ans:translate domain names into IP addresses.
4.Features of http protocol
!)Applicat ion Layer protocol built on TCP/ IP
!!)Plain-text protocol (Not Secure)
!!!)Stateful Protocol
Ans:it z check box,only 1 and 2 r corrct
5.The HTTP method used to transmit large amount of data
a)get
b)post
c)head
d)none of the above
Ans:b
6.Common gateway interface z used for
Ans:used technology for building dynamic
web documents.
RDBMS
-----------
1)several questions frm normalization
AB->primary key,C another column
for the table to be in first normal form
a)A->C
b)B->C
c)either A or B
d)None
Ans:c
2)Insert into col-1,col-2 values A,B
Ans:insert values A and B into the corresponding columns and
insert null values to the other columns
3)Delete from A
Ans:delete all rows of the table A
4)The query used to access the same table
a)independent query
b)co related query
c)inner query
d)outer query
Ans: donno
5)Once a t ransact ion completes (commits), the changes made to
database permanent and are available to all the t ransact ions that follow it
a)atomicity
b)consistency
c)isolation
d)durability
Ans:Durability
6)for un normalized table , which one z possible
a)lost update
b)deletion from table
Ans:donno
7)consistency can be implied using
a)locking
b)time stamping
c)lost update
d)dirty read
Ans:locking and time stamping(both a and b)
Testing
-------
1)which should be the product of requirement analysis
a)test strategy
b)test plan
Ans: donno
2)REview comes under
a) verification
b)validation
Ans:a
3)Integration testing is
Ans:white box testing
Integration testing contain

Ans:inte module, inter module, and external module
4)types of integration testing
Ans:incremental and big bang
5)question about system testing
6)Which testing is done to ensure proper behavior of an application after fixes or modifications have
been applied
Ans:regression
7)alpha , beta and delta testing r user acceptance testing
a) true
b)false
to the software or its environment and no additional defects are introduced due to the fix
8)stages involved in automation
study its order

9)Automationn applied to which testings
Ans:study the types of testing where automation z used
10)What r the output of automation ie in test scripts
1)review effort
11)total effort spend on it
111)defects logged and fixed
A)1 and 11
b)11 and 111
c)1 and 111
d)all the above
Ans:donno
11)When we use automation testing
a)Complex and time-consuming tests
b)Tests requiring a great deal of precision
c)Tests involving many simple, repetitive tests
d)Tests involving many data combinations
ans: its a check box, we hav to check the box for the correct answers(manassilayo)masnasilayi :D
1.From a table 'Selects date between 31-jan and 31-mar' and found an entry with 29-feb for a non leap
year.this type of testing is known
a)error guessing
b)equivalent partition
ans:error guessing
2.Integration testing is corresponding to which phase
a)HLD
b)DLD
c)Functional specification
d)requirement gathering
3.system testing is corresponding to functional specification
a)True
b)False
4.Fixed cost of test automation includes(multiple answers)
a)execution cost
b)Automated Test infrastructure maintenance cost
c)Pilot project identification effort and Proof of Concept

d)Time in learning the application/business processes
5.If we specify 'DELETE CASCADE' ,it will
ans:delete related entry from child table also.
6.If we specify 'DELETE RESTRICT',it will
ans:It will prevent deletion from parent table,if there is a related entry in the child table.
7.Order of test automation steps
8.A table is created like sales(p_no,p_name,p_desc) with primary key p_no.
INSERT INTO sales(p_name,p_desc) values("hai","desc") will...........
ans:will not execute successfully

Compre Exam Dumps

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Compre Exam Dumps

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Q1.

A. Requires exhaustive testing

Q2. Which of the following is NOT a feature of whitebox technique?

A. Assessing release readiness

A. unrealistic load test because of inaccurate user load data

A. Reduce the testing team size

Q7. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Index in RDBMS?

A. Index needs additional disk space to store

1.Which of the following statements about Verification is TRUE.

ANS: B) Always performed by the testing team only.

3.Not a Structural techinique::

ANS:D) Boundary value analysis

4.Not a Static technique:

ANS:A) Error Guessing

ANS:A) structural testing

5.which of the following is not a WhiteBox testing?

ANS:C) Conducted from a User’s perspective.

7.Which of the following is functional technique?

ANS:A)Boundary value analysis

8.choose the BEST option about the V-model.

ANS: D)All of the choices

10:Which of the following is not a type of non functional test?

Answer :A)Integration Testing

11:Which of the following is represented in V-Model?

Answer: C)All of the above

Answer: Acceptance Testing

Answer: Only ii(Big Bang)

Answer: C) Load Testing

Answer: Integration testing

17: Beta Testing is:

Answer: A) performed by subset of actual customers.

18: Alpha Testing is:

Answer: B) Performed by the end users outside the development group.

Answer: C)Usability Testing

20: Acceptance Testing is:

Answer: B) Black box Testing

22:) Which of the following is not an integration strategy:

Answer: A) Design Based

Answer: For each build of an application and whenever time permits

24: Semi formal reviews facilitated by the author of artifact is:

Answer: Walk Through

Answer: 10000, 50000, 99999

27:Which of the following is disadvantage of static testing?

Answer: High Skill Levels Required.

28:White box testing helps in:

29:Disadvantages of white box testing is:

Answer:C)may not simulate real time situations.

Answer: C)Mostly done by developers.

31:Stubs are dummy s/w components:

33.which of the following is not a part of performance testing.

Answer: c) Validating migrated data.

34.Build can be rejected if:

ANSWER: d)All of the choices

35.Test Metrics is:

Answer: Only C is selected (not sure)

Answer: A)Beta testing

40.Which activity is performed in the test strategizing phase?

41: Localization Testing:

Answer:D) is a subset of Globalization testing.

Answer: D) Done to evaluate the instructions provided in the manual.

43.The correct flow of steps in Defect Life cycle is::

-> Retest the defect

Answer :B)Requirement Analysis