Sardar Patel Institute of Public Administration (SPIPA)_WT10_06_03_2024

UPSC Prelims Training Program-2024

General Studies Paper – II

Max Marks: 200 Marks Date: 06/03/2024
Exam Name: WEEKLY TEST–10 Time: 02.30 to 04.30

SEAT NO.:

INSTRUCTIONS

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PTO
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II
Directions (Q.Nos. 1-4) Read the
following passage and answer the
question that follows. Your answers to
these questions should be based on the
passage only.
Passage 1
Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth
as a thick brown or black liquid with a
strong smell. It is a complex mixture of
many different substances, each with its
own individual qualities. Most of them are
combinations of hydrogen and carbon in
varying proportions. Such hydrocarbons
are also found in other forms such as
bitumen, asphalt and natural gas. Mineral
oil originates from the carcasses of tiny
animals and from plants that live in the
sea. Over millions of years, these dead
creatures form large deposits under the
sea-bed; and ocean currents cover them
with a blanket of sand and silt. As this
mineral hardens, it becomes sedimentary
rock and effectively shuts out the oxygen,
so preventing the complete decomposition
of the marine deposits underneath. The
layers of sedimentary rock become thicker
and heavier. Their pressure produces heat,
which transforms the tiny carcasses into
crude oil in a process that is still going on
today.
1. Mineral oil deposits under the sea do
not get completely decomposed because
they
(a) are constantly washed by the ocean
currents.
(b) become rock and prevent oxygen
from entering them.
(c) contain a mixture of hydrogen and
carbon.
(d) are carcasses of organisms lying in
saline conditions.
Passage 2
It is often forgotten that globalization is not
only about policies on international
economic relationships and transactions,
but has equally to do with domestic
policies of a nation. Policy changes
necessitated by meeting the internationally
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DATE: 06/03/2024
set conditions (by WTO etc.) of free trade
and investment flows obviously affect
domestic producers and investors. But the
basic philosophy underlying globalization
emphasizes absolute freedom to markets to
determine prices and production and
distribution patterns, and view government
interventions as processes that create
distortions and bring in inefficiency. Thus,
public enterprises have to be privatized
through disinvestments and sales; sectors
and activities hitherto reserved for the
public sector have to be opened to the
private sector. This logic extends to the
social services like education and health.
Any restrictions on the adjustments in
workforce by way of retrenchment of
workers should also be removed and exit
should be made easier by removing any
restrictions on closures. Employment and
wages should be governed by free play of
market forces, as any measure to regulate
them can discourage investment and also
create inefficiency in production. Above all,
in line with the overall philosophy of
reduction in the role of the State, fiscal
reforms should be undertaken to have
generally low levels of taxation and
government expenditure should be kept to
the minimum to abide by the principle of
fiscal prudence. All these are policy actions
on the domestic front and are not directly
related to the core items of the
globalization agenda, namely free
international flow of goods and finance.
2. According to the passage, under the
globalization, government interventions
are viewed as processes leading to
(a) distortions and inefficiency in the
economy.
(b) optimum use of resources.
(c) more profitability to industries.
(d) free play of market forces with regard
to industries.
3. According to the passage, the basic
philosophy of globalization is to
(a) give absolute freedom to producers to
determine prices and production.
(b) give freedom to producers to evolve
distribution patterns.
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II DATE: 06/03/2024

(c) give absolute freedom to markets to II. 40% of the smaller number is equal to
determine prices, production and 30% of the bigger number.
employment. III. The ratio between half of the bigger
(d) give freedom to producers to import number and one-third of the smaller
and export. number is 2: 1.
(a) I and II only
4. According to the passage, which of the (b) Any two of the three
following is/are necessary for ensuring (c) All I, II and III
(d) I and either II or III
globalization?
1. Privatization of public enterprises 8. A watch which gains uniformly is 2
2. Expansionary policy of public minutes low at 12:00 noon on Monday
expenditure and is 4 min. 48 sec fast at 2p.m. on
3. Free play of market forces to the following Monday. When was it
determine wages and employment correct?
4. Privatization of social services like (a) 2 p.m. on Tuesday
education and health (b) 2 p.m. on Wednesday
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 3 p.m. on Thursday
given below: (d) 1 p.m. on Friday

(a) 1only (b) 2 and 3 only Directions (Q. 9-10): A cube is coloured red
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 on one face, green on the opposite face,
yellow on another face and blue on a face
5. Which of the following does not fit in the adjacent to the yellow face. The other two
series? faces are left uncoloured. It is then cut into
125 smaller cubes of equal size.
-1, 5, 20, 59, 119, 209, 335
(a) 20 (b) 59 9. How many cubes are uncoloured on all
(c) 119 (d) 209
the faces?
6. A machine P can print one lakh books (a) 64 (b) 48
in 9 hours, machine Q can print the (c) 36 (d) None of these
same number of books in 10 hours
while machine R can print them in 15 10. How many cubes have at least two
hours. All the machines are started at 9 coloured faces?
a.m. while machine P is closed at 11 (a) 23 (b) 21
a.m. and the remaining two machines (c) 18 (d) None of these
complete the work. What time will the
work be finished? 11. There are 50 boxes and 50 persons.
(a) 12:30 p.m. (b) 2 :20 p.m. Person 1 keeps 1 marble in every box.
(c) 1:20 p.m. (d) 1 :40 p.m. Person 2 keeps 2 marbles in every 2nd
box, person 3 keeps 3 marbles in every
Directions (Questions 7) : The question third box. This process goes on till
followed by three statements. You have person 50 keeps 50 marbles in the 50th
to study the question and the box. Find the total number of marbles
statements and decide which of the kept in the 50th box.
statement(s) is/are necessary to answer (a) 78 (b) 93
the given question. (c) 168 (d) None of these

7. What will be the sum of two numbers? Directions (Q.Nos. 12-16) Read the
I. Among the two numbers,
1
of the following passage and answer the
3
1 question that follows. Your answers to
bigger number is less than of the
2 these questions should be based on the
smaller number by 1. passage only.

3
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II
Passage 1
The rural poor across the world, including
India, have contributed little to human-
induced climate change, yet they are on
the frontline in coping with its effects.
Farmers can no longer rely on historical
averages for rainfall and temperature, and
the more frequent and extreme weather
events, such as droughts and floods, can
spell disaster. And there are new threats,
such as sea level rise and the impact of
melting glaciers on water supply. How
significant are small farms? As many as
two billion people worldwide depend on
them for their food and livelihood. Small-
holder farmers in India produce 41 percent
of the country's food grains, and other food
items that contribute to local and national
food security.
12. What is the most logical and rational
corollary to the above passage?
(a) Supporting small farmers is an
important part of any agenda
regarding environmentally
sustainable development.
(b) Poor countries have little role to play
in the mitigation of global warming.
(c) Due to a large number of farmer
households, India will not have food
security problem in the foreseeable
future.
(d) small-holder farmers in India can
ensure food security.
Passage 2
In general, religious traditions stress our
duty to god, or to some universal ethical
principle. Our duties to one another derive
from these. The religious concept of rights
is primarily derived from our relationship
to this divinity or principle and the
implication it has on our other
relationships. This correspondence
between rights and duties is critical to any
further understanding of justice. But, for
justice to be practiced; viture, rights and
duties cannot remain formal abstractions.
They must be grounded in a community
(common unity) bound together by a sense
of common union (communion). Even as a
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DATE: 06/03/2024
personal virtue, this solidarity is essential
to the practice and understanding of
justice.
13. With reference to the passage, the
following assumptions have been made:
1. Human relationships are derived
from their religious traditions
2. Human beings can be duty bound
only if they believe in god
3. Religious traditions are essential to
practice and understand justice
Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Passage 3
Today's developing economies use much
less energy per capita than developed
countries such as the United States did at
similar incomes, showing the potential for
lower-carbon growth. Adaptation and
mitigation need to be integrated into a
climate-smart development strategy that
increases resilience, reduces the threat of
further global warming, and improves
development outcomes. Adaptation and
mitigation measures can advance
development, and prosperity can raise
incomes and foster better institutions. A
healthier population living in better built
houses and with access to bank loans and
social security is better equipped to deal
with a changing climate and its
consequences. Advancing robust, resilient
development policies that promote
adaptation is needed today because
changes in the climate, already begun, will
increase even in the short term.
The spread of economic prosperity has
always been intertwined with adaptation to
changing ecological conditions. But as
growth has altered the environment and as
environmental changes has accelerated,
sustaining growth and adaptability
demands greater capacity to understand
our environment, generate new adaptive
technologies and practices, and diffuse
them widely. As economic historians have
explained, much of humankind's creative
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II DATE: 06/03/2024

potential has been directed at adapting to 3. Switching over from monoculture

the changing world. But adaptation cannot practices to mixed farming. 4.
cope with all the impacts related to climate Less demand for goods and services.
change, especially as larger changes unfold
in the long term. Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
Countries cannot grow out of harm's way (a) Only 1 (b) 2, 3 and 4
fast enough to match the changing climate. (c) 1 and 4 (d) None of these
And some growth strategies, whether
driven by the government or the market, 16. Which of the following condition(s)
can also add to vulnerability - particularly is/are necessary for sustainable
if they overexploit natural resources. economic growth?
Under the Soviet development plan, 1. Spreading of economic prosperity
irrigated cotton cultivation expanded in more.
water-stressed Central Asia and led to the 2. Popularizing/spreading of adaptive
near disappearance of the Aral Sea, technologies widely. 3.
threatening the livelihoods of fisherman, Investing on research in adaptation
herders and farmers. And clearing and mitigation technologies.
mangroves the natural coastal buffers Select the correct answer using the codes
against storm surges to make way for give below
intensive farming or housing development, (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
increases the physical vulnerability of (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
coastal settlements, whether in Guinea or
17. At a farm. there are hens, cows and
in Louisiana.
bullocks, and the keepers to look after
14. Which of the following conditions of them. There are 69 heads less than
growth can add to vulnerability? legs; the number of cows and hens is
the same, cows are twice of bullocks
1. When the growth occurs due to and there is one keeper per ten birds
excessive exploitation of mineral and cattle. The total number of hens
resources and forests. plus cows and bullocks, and their
2. When the growth brings about a keepers does not exceed 50. How many
change in humankind's creative cows are there?
potential. (a) 16 (b) 18
3. When the growth is envisaged only (c) 12 (d) None of these
for providing houses and social
security to the people. 18. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A
4. When the growth occurs due to says to B, "If you give me 3 cards, you
emphasis on farming only. will have as many as I have at this
moment while if D takes 5 cards from
Select the correct answer using the codes you, he will have as many as E has." A
given below and C together have twice as many
(a) Only 1 (b) 2, 3 and 4 cards as E has. B and D together also
(c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these have the same number of cards as A
and C taken together. If together they
15. What does low-carbon growth imply in have 150 cards, how many cards has C
the present context? got?
1. More emphasis on the use of (a) 28 (b) 29
renewable sources of energy. (c) 31 (d) 35
2. Less emphasis on manufacturing
sector and more emphasis on Directions (Questions 19): Study the
agricultural sector. information given below to answer these
questions:
5
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II DATE: 06/03/2024

A is the father of two children B and D, his monthly interest income was Rs.
who are of different sexes. C is B's spouse. 2000 from both post office and bank,
E is of the same sex as D. then the difference of his deposits in the
B and C have two children: F, who is of the post office and in the bank was :
same sex as B, and G, who is of the same (a) Rs. 40,000 (b) Rs. 50,000
sex as C. E's mother H, who is married to (c) Rs. 60,000 (d) Nil
L, is the sister of D's mother, M. E and
E's spouse I, have two children J and K, 24. If p=99 then, the value of p (p² + 3p + 3)
who are of the same sex as I. is:
No person has married more than once (a) 989898 (b) 989891
and no children have been born out of (c) 999999 (d) 998889
wedlock. The only restrictions on marriage
are that marriage to a sibling, to a direct 25. In a certain code language, ROUTINE is
descendant, or to more than one person at written as VMRGFLI. How will
the same time are forbidden. CRUELTY be written in that code
language?
19. According to the rules, D can marry (a) VOCVZRL (b) VPCVZRL
(a) F or J only (b) J or K only (c) VPVCZRL (d) None of these
(c) F, J or K (d) None of these
Directions(Q26-28): Study the following
20. A man builds a circular pool of radius 7 information carefully and answer the
m inside a circular garden of radius 24 questions given below: There are eight
m. In order to compensate the area lost persons L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S in a
due to the construction of pool , he family. They are sitting around a circular
extends the radius by ' r ' m while table facing the centre. Among them there
keeping the garden still circular , so are three Editors, two CAs, two IAS
that the area of the garden remains the Officers and one IPS Officers. Each person
same . The value of r ( in m ) is : has only one occupation. There are three
(a) 1 (b) √7 married couples in the family and no
(c) 7/2 (d) None of these unmarried female. Three generations are
there in the family.
21.
1
of a pole is coloured red,
1
white,
1 O has two children. R and S are children of
10 20 30
1 1 1 P and N respectively.
blue, black, violet, yellow and the Q is wife of O and mother of M and L. N is
40 50 60
rest is green. If the length of the green a female but not the wife of L.
portion of the pole is 12.08 m, then the R, a grandson of O, sits exactly between N
length of the pole is: and L and only P sits between M and Q.
(a) 16 m (b) 18.6 m Only one person sits between N and M but
(c) 18 m (d) 20.6 m he is not S.
M is not an immediate neighbour of R, who
22. A large cube is formed from the material is not opposite O.
obtained by melting three smaller cubes M does not sit opposite any female and he
of 3, 4 and 5 cm side. What is the ratio sits second to left of N
of the total surface areas of the smaller One of the sons of O sits on the immediate
cubes and the large cube? left of 0.
(a) 2:1 (b) 3:2 The person who is on the immediate left of
(c) 25: 18 (d) 27:20 R and the person who is on the immediate
right of M are not Editors. The
23. 23. Mr. Dutta desired to deposit his immediate neighbours of P are neither a
retirement benefit of Rs. 3 lacks partly CA nor an Editor.
to a post office and partly to a bank at S is a IPS Officers.
10% and 6% interests respectively. If

6
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II
26. Which of the following statements is/are
true?
(a) L, son of O, sits second to the right of
the person who is an IAS.
(b) M is an IAS and sits opposite S.
(c) O is a CA who sits on the immediate
right of his son, who is an IAS.
(d) Q sits opposite the child of L.
27. Who among the following sits opposite
N?
(a) Son of L
(b) The one who is grandmother of R and
sits third to the right of her
daughter-in-law
(c) The one who sits on the immediate
right of R's father
(d) The one who sits second to the left of
S's father
28. Who among the following sits between
L's father and L's son?
(a) The one who is the wife of L
(b) The one who is the mother of S and
the daughter-in-law of O
(c) R's mother and L's wife
(d) The one who sits opposite his
brother-in-law
Direction (Q-29) In the following questions,
assuming the given statements to be true,
find which of the two conclusions I and II
given them is/are definitely true.
29. Statements: N>D ≥F>J, E<L ≤G<S<P<F,
G>W
Conclusions: I. W< J II. W≥ J
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Either I or II true
(d) Neither I nor II is true
30. There are three dice each of them
having faces with a number from 1 to 6.
These dices are rolled. Find the number
of possible way outcomes such that at
least one of the dice shows the number
6.
(a) 36 (b) 91
(c) 84 (d) None of these
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DATE: 06/03/2024
Directions (Q.Nos. 31-35) Read the
following passage and answer the
question that follows. Your answers to
these questions should be based on the
passage only.
Passage 1
It is essential that we mitigate the
emissions of greenhouse gases and thus
avoid some of the worst impacts of climate
change that would take place in coming
years and decades. Mitigation would
require a major shift in the way we
produce and consume energy. A shift
away from overwhelming dependence on
fossil fuels is now long overdue, but
unfortunately, technological development
has been slow and inadequate largely
because government policies have not
promoted investments in research and
development, myopically as a result of
relatively low prices of oil. It is now,
therefore, imperative for a country like
India treating the opportunity of
harnessing renewable energy on a large
scale as a national imperative. This
country is extremely well endowed with
solar, wind and biomass sources of energy.
Where we have lagged, unfortunately, is in
our ability to develop and to create
technological solutions for harnessing
these resources.
One particular trajectory for carrying out
stringent mitigation of greenhouse gas
emissions assessed by the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) clearly shows the need for
ensuring that global emissions of
greenhouse gases peak no later than 2015
and reduce rapidly thereafter. The cost
associated with such a trajectory is truly
modest and would amount, in the
estimation of IPCC, to not more than 3
percent of the global GDP in 2030. In other
words, the level of prosperity that the
world would have reached without
mitigation would at worst be postponed by
a few months or a year at the most. This is
clearly not a very high price to pay for
protecting hundreds of millions of people
from the worst risks associated with
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II
climate change. Any such effort, however,
would require lifestyles to change
appropriately also. Mitigation of
greenhouse gas emissions is not a mere
technological fix, and clearly requires
changes in lifestyles and transformation of
a country's economic structure, whereby
effective reduction in emissions is brought
about, such as through the consumption
of much lower quantities of animal protein.
The Food and Agriculture Organization
(FAO) has determined that the emissions
from the livestock sector amount to 18
percent of the total. The reduction of
emissions from this source is entirely in
the hands of human beings, who have
never questioned the impacts that their
dietary habits of consuming more and
more animal protein are bringing about.
Mitigation overall has huge co-benefits,
such as lower air pollution and health
benefits, higher energy security and
greater employment.
31. According to the passage, which of the
following would help in the mitigation of
greenhouse gases?
1. Reducing the consumption of meat
2. Rapid economic liberalization
3. Reducingthe consumerism
4. Modern management practices of
livestock
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
32. Why do we continue to depend on the
fossil fuels heavily?
1. Inadequate technological
development
2. Inadequate funds for research and
development
3. Inadequate availability of alternative
sources of energy
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
33. According to the passage, how does the
mitigation of greenhouse gases help us?
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DATE: 06/03/2024
1. Reduces expenditure on public health
2. Reduces dependence on livestock
3. Reduces energy requirements
4. Reduces rate of global climate change
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1and 4 only
Passage 2
A number of empirical studies find that
farmers are risk-averse, though only
moderately in many cases. There is also
evidence to show that farmers' risk
aversion results in cropping patterns and
input use designed to reduce risk rather
than to maximize income. Farmers adopt a
number of strategies to manage and cope
with agricultural risks. These include
practices like crop and field diversification,
non-farm employment, storage of stocks
and strategic migration of family members.
There are also institutions ranging from
share tenancy to kinship, extended family
and informal credit agencies. One major
obstacle to risk sharing by farmers is that
the same type of risks can affect a large
number of farmers in the region. Empirical
studies show that the traditional methods
are not adequate. Hence, there is a need
for policy interventions, especially
measures that cut across geographical
regions.
Policies may aim at tackling agricultural
risks directly or indirectly. Examples of
risk-specific policies are crop insurance,
price stabilization and the development of
varieties resistant to pests and diseases.
Policies which affect risk indirectly are
irrigation, subsidized credit and access to
information. No single risk-specific policy
is sufficient to reduce risk and is without
side-effects, whereas policies not specific to
risk influence the general situation and
affect risks only indirectly. Crop insurance,
as a policy measure to tackle agricultural
risk directly, deserves careful
consideration in the Indian context and in
many other developing countries because
the majority of farmers depend on rain-fed
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II
agriculture and in many areas yield
variability is the predominant cause of
their income instability.
34. The need for policy intervention to
mitigate risks in agriculture is because
(a) farmers are extremely risk-averse
(b) farmers do not know how to mitigate
risks
(c) the methods adopted by farmers and
existing risk sharing institutions are
not adequate
(d) majority of farmers depend on rain-
fed agriculture
35. Which of the following observations
emerges from the above passage?
(a) One can identify a single policy that
can reduce risk without any side-
effect.
(b) No single risk-specific policy is
sufficient to reduce agricultural risk
(c) Policies which affect risk indirectly
can eliminate it
(d) Government's policy intervention can
mitigate agricultural risk completely
36. Two vessels A and B contain milk and
water mixed in the ratio 8 : 5 and 5 : 2
respectively. The ratio in which these
two mixtures be mixed to get a new
3
mixture containing 69 % milk is:
13
(a) 3:5 (b) 5 : 2
(c)5:7 (d) 2:7
37. A, B, C walk 1 km in 5 minutes, 8
minutes and 10 minutes respectively . C
starts walking from a point, at a certain
time, B starts from the same point 1
minutes later and A starts from the
same point 2 minutes later than C.
Then A meets B and C after
5 arrived. He thought that he was the first
(a) min, 2 min
3
(b) 1 min, 2 min
(c) 2 min, 3 min
4
(d) min, 3 min
3
38. 8 men and 6 women can complete a
piece of work in 21 days. How many
days will it take for 12 men and 9
women to complete the same work?
A. 6 men can complete the work in 42
days.
B. 7 women can complete the work in
63 days.
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DATE: 06/03/2024
C. The amount of work done by a
woman is four- sevenths of the work
done by a man in one day.
(a) Any two of them
(b) Any of them
(c) Only C
(d) No need of any information
39. The sum of the series (1 + 0.6 +0.06 +
0.006 + 0.0006 + ....) is
2 1
(a) 1 (b) 1
3
1
3
2
(c) 2 (d) 2
3 3
40. There are 78 games in total in a
competition. Many teams took part in
the competition and each of them must
play one with the other teams. In total
how many teams took part in the
competition?
(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 16 (d) None of these
Directions(Q-41): A number series is given
in the following questions. A number is
given after the series followed by (1), (2),
(3), (4), (5) and (6). First you have to
understand how the series is formed and
then starting with that number you have to
complete the second series. Now answer
the given questions.
41. 2 3 2 15 44 245 1434
3 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6)
What will come in place of (3)?
(a) 16 (b) 21
(c) 24 (d) None of these
42. A bowl of sweets was placed on a table
to be distributed among three brothers -
Rajan, Sajal and Karan. Rajan arrived
first and ate what he thought was his
share of sweets and left. Then, Sajal
one to arrive and ate the number of
sweets, he thought was his share and
left. Lastly, Karan arrived. He again
thought he was the first one to arrive
and he took what he thought was his
share. If 16 sweets are left in the bowl
finally, how many sweets did the bowl
contain initially?
(a) 27 (b) 36
(c) 48 (d) 54
43. The smallest whole number that is to be
multiplied with 59535 to make a perfect
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II
square number is x. The sum of digits of
x is
(a) 9 (b) 7
(c) 6 (d) 5
Directions (Q-44) : The question followed
by three statements. You have to study the
question and the statements and decide
which of the statement(s) is/are necessary
to answer the given question.
44. How much did Rohit get as profit at the
year-end in the business done by Nitin,
Rohit and Kunal ?
1. Kunal invested Rs. 8000 for nine
months, his profit was 3/2 times
that of Rohit's and his investment
was four times that of Nitin.
2. Nitin and Rohit invested for one
year in the proportion 1 : 2
respectively.
3. The three together got Rs. 1000 as
profit at the year end.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I and III
(c) Question cannot be answered even
with the information in all the three
statements.
(d) All I, II and III
1 Passage 2
45. If the average of x and (x≠0) is M,
𝑥
1
then the average of x² and is:
𝑥²
(a) 1 - M² (b) 1-2M
(c) 2M² - 1 (d) 2M² + 1
Directions (Q.Nos. 46-49) Read the
following passage and answer the
question that follows. Your answers to
these questions should be based on the
passage only.
Passage 1
Governments may have to take steps
which would otherwise be an infringement
on the Fundamental Rights of individuals,
such as acquiring a person's land against
his will, or refusing permission for putting
up a building, but the larger public
interest for which these are done must be
authorised by the people (Parliament).
Discretionary powers to the administration
can be done away with. It is becoming
more and more difficult to keep this power
within limits as the government has many
number of tasks to perform. Where
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DATE: 06/03/2024
discretion has to be used, there must be
rules and safeguards to prevent misuse of
that power. Systems have to be devised
which minimise, if not prevent, the abuse
of discretionary power. Government work
must be conducted within a framework of
recognised rules and principles and
decisions should be similar and
predictable.
46. Which among the following is the most
logical assumption that can be made
from the above passage?
(a) Government should always be given
wide discretionary power in all
matters of administration
(b) The supremacy of rules and
safeguards should prevail as opposed
to the influence of exclusive
discretion of authority
(c) Parliamentary democracy is possible
only if the government has wider
discretionary power
(d) None of the above statements is a
logical assumption that can be made
from this passage
An innovative India will be inclusive as well
as technologically advanced, improving the
lives of all Indians. Innovation and R&D
can mitigate increases in social inequality
and relieve the pressures created by rapid
urbanisation. The growing divergence in
productivity between agriculture and
knowledge-intensive manufacturing and
services threatens to increase income
inequality. By encouraging India's R&D
labs and universities to focus on the needs
of poor people and by improving the ability
of informal firms to absorb knowledge, an
innovation and research agenda can
counter this effect. Inclusive innovation
can lower the costs of goods and services
and create income-earning opportunities
for the poor people.
47. Which among the following is the most
logical and rational assumption that
can be made from the above passage?
(a) Innovation and R&D is the only way
to reduce rural to urban migration
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II
(b) Every rapidly growing country needs
to minimise the divergence between
productivity in agricultural and other
sectors
(c) Inclusive innovation and R&D can
help create an egalitarian society
(d) Rapid urbanisation takes place only
when a country's economic growth is
rapid
Passage 3
India's educational system is modelled on
the mass education system that developed
in the 19th century in Europe and later
spread around the world. The goal of the
system is to condition children as 'good'
citizens and productive workers. This
suited the industrial age that needed the
constant supply of a compliant workforce
with a narrow set of capabilities. Our
educational institutes resemble factories
with bells, uniforms and batch-processing
of learners, designed to get learners to
conform. But, from an economic point of
view, the environment today is very
different. It is a complex, volatile and
globally interconnected world.
48. With reference to the above passage, the
following assumptions have been made:
1. India continues to be a developing
country essentially due to its faulty
education system.
2. Today's learners need to acquire new-
age skill-sets.
3. A good number of Indians go to some
developed countries for education
because the educational systems there
are a perfect reflection of the societies in
which they function.
Which of the above assumptions is/are
valid?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Passage 4
The concept of 'creative society' refers to a
phase of development of a society in which
a large number of potential contradictions
become articulate and active. This is most
evident when oppressed social groups get
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DATE: 06/03/2024
politically mobilised and demand their
rights. The upsurge of the peasants and
tribals, the movements for regional
autonomy and self-determination, the
environmental movements, and the
women's movements in the developing
countries are signs of emergence of
creative society in contemporary times. The
forms of social movements and their
intensity may vary from country to country
and place to place within a country. But
the very presence of movements for social
transformation in various spheres of a
society indicates the emergence of a
creative society in a country.
49. What does the author imply by "creative
society"?
1. A society where diverse art forms and
literary writings seek incentive.
2. A society where social inequalities
are accepted as the norm.
3. A society where a large number of
contradictions are recognised.
4. A society where the exploited and the
oppressed groups grow conscious of
their human rights and upliftment.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
50. Find out how many distinct three digit
numbers can be formed using the digits
1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 such that the digits
are in ascending order.
(a) 56 (b) 84
(c) 112 (d) 336
51. A boat takes 16 hours to go upstream
from M to N and back downstream from
N to M on a river. What is the speed of
boat in still water. Which of the
following information is/are
sufficient/necessary?
A. The distance between M and N is 55
km.
B. The boat takes 6 hours less to go
downstream than to go upstream.
C. The speed of the current is 3 km/hr.
(a) Only A and B together are sufficient
(b) Only A and C together are sufficient
(c) Any two of them are sufficient
(d) All together are sufficient
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II DATE: 06/03/2024

52. The ratio between the present ages of C. The sum of the two numbers is 486.
the son and his father is 1 : 3. Find the (a) Only A and B are sufficient
present age of the father. Which of the (b) Only B and C are sufficient.
following information is/are (c) Any two of them are sufficient
sufficient/necessary?
(d) A and Either B or C are sufficient
A. Difference between the present ages
of the mother and her son is 22
58. The price of an article was increased by
years.
r%. Later the new price was decreased
B. Difference between the present ages by r%. If the latest price was Rs.1, then
of the father and his son is 26 years. the original price was:
C. The present age of mother is 4 years (a)Rs. 1 (b)Rs.
1−r2
100
less than thrice the present age of 100 10000
(c) Rs. (d) Rs.
her son. 1−r2 10000−r2

(a) Only A and C together are sufficient Direction(Q.59-60) : Read the following
(b) Either B alone or A and C together data to answer the questions that follow :
are sufficient In a class of 106 students , each student
(c) Any two of them are sufficient studies at least one of the three subjects
(d) None of these English , Hindi and Gujarati . 48 of them
study English, 51 Hindi and 53 Gujarati.
53. The sum of the first 20 terms of the 16 study English and Hindi, 17 study
1 1 1
series + + + …… is English and Gujarati and 18 study Hindi
5×6 6×7 7×8
(a) 0.16 (b) 1.6 and Gujarati.
(c) 0.016 (d) None of these
59. The number of students who study
54. Rohan and Mohan are working on an more than one subjects is
Assignment. Rohan takes 6 hours to (a) 39 (b) 41
type 32 pages on a computer, while (c) 40 (d) 42
Mohan takes 5 hours to type 40 pages.
How much time will they take working 60. The number of students who study
together on two different computers to exactly one subject is
type an assignment of 110 pages? (a) 50 (b) 55
(a) 7 hrs. 30 min. (b) 8 hrs. (c) 65 (d) None of these
(c) 8 hrs. 15 min. (d) 8 hrs. 25 min.
Directions (Q.Nos. 61-64) Read the
55. A sells an article to B making a profit of following passage and answer the
1
of his outlay. B sells it to C, gaining question that follows. Your answers to
5
20%. If C sells it for Rs.600 and incurs these questions should be based on the
1
a loss of of his outlay, the cost price passage only.
6
of article for A is
(a)Rs.800 (b)Rs.600 Passage 1
(c)Rs.720 (d)Rs.500
Historically, the biggest challenge to world
56. In how many ways can 21 books on agriculture has been to achieve a balance
English and 19 books on Gujarati be between demand for and supply of food. At
placed in a row on a shelf so that two the level of individual countries, the
books on Gujarati may not be together?
demand-supply balance can be a critical
(a) 1860 (b) 1540
(c) 1920 (d) 3672 policy issue for a closed economy,
especially if it is a populous economy and
57. The LCM of two numbers is 2079. To its domestic agriculture is not growing
find the two numbers, which of the sufficiently enough to ensure food
following informations is/are sufficient supplies, on an enduring basis, it is not so
/necessary? much and not always, of a constraint for
A. The HCF of the two numbers is 27.
an open and growing economy, which has
B. The difference of the two numbers is
108. adequate exchange surpluses to buy food

12
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II
abroad. For the world as a whole, supply-
demand balance is always an inescapable
prerequisite for warding off hunger and
starvation. However, global availability of
adequate supply does not necessarily
mean that food would automatically move
from countries of surplus to countries of
deficit if the latter lack in purchasing
power. The uneven distribution of hunger,
starvation, under or malnourishment, etc
at the world-level, thus owes itself to the
presence of empty-pocket hungry mouths,
overwhelmingly confined to the
underdeveloped economies. In as much as
'a two-square meal' is of elemental
significance to basic human existence, the
issue of worldwide supply of food has been
gaining significance, in recent times, both
because the quantum and the composition
of demand has been undergoing big
changes, and because, in recent years, the
capabilities of individual countries to
generate uninterrupted chain of food
supplies have come under strain. Food
production, marketing and prices,
especially price-affordability by the poor in
the developing world, have become global
issues that need global thinking and global
solutions.
61. According to the above passage, which
of the following are the fundamental
solutions for the world food security
problem?
1. Setting up more agro-based industries.
2. Improving the price affordability by the
poor.
3. Regulating the conditions of
marketing.
4. Providing food subsidy to one and all.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
62. According to the above passage, the
biggest challenge to world agriculture is
(a) to find sufficient land for agriculture
and to expand food processing
industries
(b) to eradicate hunger in
underdeveloped countries
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DATE: 06/03/2024
(c) to achieve a balance between the
production of food and non-food
items
(d) to achieve a balance between
demand for and supply of food
63. According to the above passage, which
of the following helps/help in reducing
hunger and starvation in the developing
economies?
1. Balancing demand and supply of
food.
2. Increasing imports of food.
3. Increasing purchasing power of the
poor.
4. Changing the food consumption
patterns and practices.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Passage 2
Open defecation is disastrous when
practised in very densely populated areas,
where it is impossible to keep away human
faeces from crops, wells, food and
children's hands. Ground water is also
contaminated by open defecation. Many
ingested germs and worms spread
diseases. They prevent the body from
absorbing calories and nutrients. Nearly,
one-half of India's children remain
malnourished.
Lakhs of them die from preventable
conditions. Diarrhoea leaves Indians'
bodies smaller on average than those of
people in some poorer countries where
people eat fewer calories. Underweight
mothers produce stunted babies prone to
sickness, who may fail to develop their full
cognitive potential. The germs released into
environment harm rich and poor alike,
even those who use latrines.
64. Which among the following is the most
critical inference that can be made from
the above passage?
(a) The Central and State Governments
in India do not have enough
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II
resources to afford a latrine for each
household
(b) Open defecation is the most
important public health problem of
India
(c) Open defecation reduces the human
capital of India's workforce
(d) Open defecation is a public health
problem in all developing countries
65. Sejal starts walking from her office and
walks 150 m towards the south, then
she turns right and walks 80 m, and
then she turns left and walks 60 m. She
finally turns left and walks 280 m to
reach a bank. Now, how far and which
direction is starting point from ending
point?
(a) 290m South-East
(b) 410m North-West
(c) 410m South-East
(d) None of these
Directions for (Q.66): Each question is
followed by two statements. A and B.
Answer each questions using the following
instructions:
66. What is the interval between the 6th
stroke of one clock and the 8th stroke of
another?
A. The two clocks begin to strike
together.
B. One completes its strokes in 33
seconds and the other in 12
seconds.
(a) if the questions can be answered by
using one of the statements alone,
but cannot be answered using the
other statement alone.
(b) if the question can be answered by
using either statement alone.
(c) if the question can be answered by
using both statements together, but
cannot be answered using either
statement alone.
(d) if the question cannot be answered
even by using both statements
together.
Directions (Q-67-69): Study the following
information and answer the given
questions.
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DATE: 06/03/2024
C, D, E, F, W, X, Y and Z have to attend a
wedding in January, April, September and
December of the same year. In each month
the wedding on is either the 11th or on
24th of the month. Not more than two of
the given people have to attend a wedding
in the same month. No two person attend a
wedding together.
W has to attend a wedding on 11th of the
month which has only 30 days. Only three
people have to attend a wedding between
W and Y. C and Y have to attend a wedding
neither on the same date nor in the same
month. C does not have to attend a
wedding in April. Only two people have to
attend a wedding between C and F. X and
F have to attend a wedding on the same
date. D has to attend a wedding before X.
Only one person has to attend a wedding
between D and E. Less than four people
have to attend a wedding between E and Z.
67. How many people have to attend a
wedding between F and Z?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) More than three (d) None
68. If all the people are made to attend the
wedding in alphabetical order starting
from 11th January and ending on 24th
December, then the schedule of how
many people will remain unchanged?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) None
69. As per the given arrangement, three of
the following four are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which of the
following does not belong to the group?
(a) Z (b) Y
(c) F (d) W
70. A mixed doubles tennis game is to be
played between two teams (each team
consists of one male and one female).
There are four married couples. No team
is to consist of a husband and his wife.
What is the maximum number of games
that can be played?
(a) 120 (b) 48
(c) 42 (d) None of these
71. A person ordered 4 shirts of brand A
and some shirts of brand B. The price of
one shirt of brand A was twice that of
SPIPA WEEKLY TEST_10- GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- II DATE: 06/03/2024

brand B. When the order was executed, 76. If 3 is subtracted from the middle digit
it was found that the numbers of the of each of the following numbers and
two brands has been inter- changed. then the positions of the digits are
This increased the bill by 40%. The ratio reversed, which of the following will be
of the number of brand A shirts to that the last digit of the middle number after
of brand B shirts in the original order they are arranged in descending order?
was
(a) 1:3 (b) 2:3 589, 362, 554, 371, 442
(c) 1:4 (d) 1:2 (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
72. Two trains P and Q leave Ahmedabad
for Delhi at 9:00 am and 9:40 am, 77. How many Sunday are there between 1-
respectively and travel at 120 km/h and 1-2001 to 31-12-2020?
140 km/h, respectively. How many (a) 1040 (b) 1042
kilometres from Delhi will the two trains (c) 1043 (d) None of these
meet?
(a) 630 km (b) 560 km 78. Which of the following numbers will
(c) 770 km (d) Data inadequate completely divide (6425 - 1)?
(a) 32 (b) 9
73. Let N be the greatest number that will (c) 65 (d) None of these
divide 1305, 4665 and 6905 leaving the
same remainder in each case. Then, 79. At his usual rowing rate, Rajan can
sum of the digits in N is: travel 12 miles downstream in a certain
(a) 4 (b) 5 river in 6 hours less than it takes him to
(c) 6 (d) 8 travel the same distance upstream. But
if he could double his usual rowing rate
74. Statements: All cups are glasses. for his 24-mile round trip, the
downstream 12 miles would then take
Some glasses are bowls. only one hour less than the upstream
No bowl is a plate. 12mile. What is the speed of the current
Conclusions: I. Some cups are bowls. in miles per hour?
II. No cup is bowls. (a) 1
1
(b) 1
2
3 3
III. All bowls are cups 1 2
possible (c)2 (d)2
3 3
IV. Some glasses are not
plate 80. An item costing Rs. 3000 is sold at a
certain discount. Find the rate of
(a) Only either I or II follows discount offered. which of the following
(b) Only either I or II follows and III informations is/are sufficient
follows /necessary?
(c) Only either I or II follows and IV
follows I. The profit earned after discount is 5%.
(d) None of these II. Had the discount rate been doubled,
the seller incurs a loss of 15%.
75. How many even numbers of four digits III. The item is marked at a price 25%
more than 3000 can be formed with the above the cost price.
digits 0,1,2,3,4,5,6 ,repetition of digits (a) Only I and II are sufficient
is not allowed? (b) Only II and III are sufficient
(c) All I, II and III are sufficient
(a) 280 (b) 320 (d) Any two of the three are sufficient
(c) 480 (d) None of these

* Best Wishes *
* SPIPA, Ahmedabad *

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Sardar Patel Institute of Public Administration (SPIPA)_WT10_06_03_2024

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