SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC NINH VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI - ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022
(Đề thi đề xuất) Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10
(Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)

* Ghi chú: - Đề thi gồm 14 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng từ điển. Giám thị coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1. Complete the notes below. For questions 1-5, write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)
The Official Guide to IELTS Test 3

First name: Harry

Last name: 1. ______
Date of Birth: Day: 11th; Month: December, Year: 2. ______
Type of Membership: 3. ______
Activities: Badminton and 4. ______
Payment details: Total: £450
To be paid 5. ______

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. You will hear an interview in which a deep-sea map-maker called Sally Gordon and a marine biologist
called Mark Tomkins are talking about making maps of the ocean floor. For questions 11-15, decide whether
the statement is TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). (10 points)
Cambridge English Advanced 3_Test 1

6. Sally felt excited at the prospect of making further discoveries when she had completed her first
mapping expedition.
7. Mark compares the ocean floor to the planets to emphasize how it is overexploited.
8. Sally feel optimistic about attitudes towards deep-sea exploration.
9. When talking about the territorial ambitions of some island nations, Mark reveals his concern about
the potential consequences.
10. Sally and Mark predict that future developments in deep-sea exploration result in a change in human
behaviour.
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. You will hear part of an interview with the astronaut Charles Duke, who is talking about his trip to
the moon. For questions 6-10, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
(10 points)
https://engexam.info/cae-listening-practice-tests-printfriendly/

11. How did Charles feel about space travel as a boy?

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A. He thought it was unlikely to happen
B. He regarded it as more than science fiction
C. He was fascinated by the idea of it
D. He showed no particular interest in it

12. What did Charles consider to be the hardest part of the training?
A. feeling trapped in the heavy spacesuit
B. endlessly practising the lunar surface landing
C. constantly being afraid of making a mistake
D. being unable to move his arms and hands

13. What was Charles’s reaction when he first found out he was going to the moon?
A. He realised he had to be cautious
B. He felt proud to be given the opportunity
C. He tried to control his excitement
D. He reflected on his chances of survival.

14. What feature of the moon made the greatest impact on Charles?
A. the brightness of the moon
B. the vastness of the sky
C. the loneliness of the place
D. the absence of any stars

15 What does Charles feel was the most memorable part of his mission?
A. nearly falling into a crater
B. walking on the moon’s surface
C. seeing things never seen before
D. holding a piece of the moon

Your answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. You will hear part of a scientific television programme for young people in which the speaker explains
what meteors' are. For questions 16-25, complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for
each answer. (20 points)
Successful FCE Practice Tests – Test 8

'Meteors' is another name for 16. _______________

To help explain meteors, planet Earth is compared to a 17.__________
You can think of meteors as a group of 18.____________
In reality, meteors are very small chunks of 19.________________
The circular path the Earth travels around the Sun is called its 20.__________________
When Earth comes close to a meteor, the meteor is pulled 21.______________by gravity.
A meteor travels very fast - a hundred times faster than 22._______________
Due to the speed it travels through the air, the meteor becomes 23._________________
Because of the heat, the meteor becomes less hard, 24._________________ and then burns.
We are lucky that most meteors burn up and never 25._____________________

Your answers:

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 16. 21.
17. 22.
18. 23.
19. 24.
20. 25.

SECTION B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)

1. The way the film eventually got made _____ , like the story itself, a certain ring of destiny to it.
A. looks B. has C. indicates D. feels
2. The investigation was instigated ______ the Prime Minister.
A. on the part of B. consequence of C. subsequent to D. at the behest of
3. Do not read in such dim light; it will _________ your eyesight.
A.impair B. dwindle C. decrease D. contract
4. Did you see Jonathan this morning? He looked like ________. It must have been quite a party last night.
A. a wet blanket B. a dead duck C. death warmed up D. a bear with a sore head
5. The thick fog ____ out any possibility of our plane taking off before morning.
A. ruled B. struck C. stamped D. crossed
6. Everybody was busy with the spring cleaning, except Stanley, who always refused to pull his _________.
A. socks B. weight C. fingers D. share
7. “Don’t look so worried! You should take the boss’s remarks with a ______ of salt.”
A. teaspoon B. pinch C. grain D. dose
8. The party was already _________ by the time we arrived. Everyone was singing and dancing.
A. in full swing B. up in the air C. over the moon D. under the cloud
9. It was so embarrassing. We were in the middle of a crowded restaurant when they suddenly had a
____________ row.
A. blazing B. heated C. stormy D. smouldering
10. The young rookie scored over 20 goals in his first year, taking the whole league by __________.
A. force B. example C. storm D. assault
11. David’s hardworking when supervised; left to his own ______, he becomes lazy.
A. means B. instruments C. tools D. devices
12. The vote on the anti-bullying policy was ______ and it will be put into effect immediately.
A. unanimous B. united C. undoubted D. undivided
13. The sports complex is likely to become a ______ after the championships are over.
A. white elephant B. wild goose C. fat cat D. black sheep
14. The installation of CCTVs across the city will hopefully act as a strong ______ to anyone tempted to
commit vandalism.
A. constraint B restriction C deterrent D boundary
15. _______ martial arts he now has considerably more free time to dedicate to his new business venture.
A Dropping B. Dropped C. Having dropped D. Having been dropped
16. He went to great lengths to_______ the details of the intricate plans to his co-workers.
A. take in B. spell out C. stand up D. measure out
17. In the end, we decided to ____ the bill for the party.
A. head B. leg C. arm D. foot
18. Mary is rumored to be pregnant _____ Jay’s child.
A. to B. by C. with D. within
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19. Exercise can be classified as active or passive with the former _____ effort and the latter the use of
machines or training assistants.
A. involves physical B. physics is involved C. involving physical D. physically involved
20. Jackson needs to put limits to his _____ otherwise, nothing will ever be good enough for him.
A. introspection B. procrastination C. diligence D. perfectionism

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 points)
21. They are composed of algae and fungi which ____________ to satisfy the needs of the lichens.
(UNITY)
22. His behaviour in his father's presence caused his ____________ and his sister ended up inheriting the
whole family fortune. (INHERIT)
23. The ____________ of any manned mission to the planets will be increased if a secure fuel supply can be
found beforehand. (SURVIVAL)
24. There was a heavy ______ yesterday afternoon which completely ruined the church Garden Party.
(POUR)
25. A strong Scots background and thirty years at Carlyle Rural School had made her an expert
____________. (DISCIPLINE)
26. There was a distinct danger that the second day of the trail was going to be a/an ________ disaster.
(MITIGATE)
27. When going trekking, I tend to stagger along in silence, ____________ of energy being my main priority.
(CONSERVE)
28. When we finally reached our camp, I was overcome by relief and ______________joy. I might have missed
a lot, but I had reached my destination. (ADULTERATE)
29. I was well-aware of the ______________ of my eyes-to-the-ground climbing technique. (ABSURD)
30. His visit to De Gaulle may or may not lay_____________for a Franco-American rapprochement. (GROUND)
Your answers:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answers in the box
provided. (10 points)
31. I was always being ticked______ for messy work.
32. They're tearing ______ these old houses to build a new office block.
33. The novelist draws heavily ______her personal experiences.
34. The hotel's restaurant facilities are second ______ none.
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35. How did you come_____ these tickets? I've been trying to get some for ages.
36. Jean didn't expect to come up ______ such difficulties.
37. He's sometimes bad tempered but he's a good fellow ______ heart.
38. The boy froze in horror as the dog advanced ______him.
39. The teacher sat down and glared______ the class.
40. Hard work usually pays off______ the long run.

Your answers:
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

36. 37. 38 39. 40.

C. READING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)

Gap years are quite common in many parts of the world and most young people, upon leaving high school,
feel (1)____ to one. It's plain to see how the idea would be (2)______; taking a year off from studies to travel the
world and consider your future sound like bliss. Adverts for gap years contain (3)_____ , that read ‘The best year
of my life' and ‘Total adventure, Totally rewarding', and offer the newly (4 ______ student the opportunity to
learn more about themselves while learning about the world.
Of course, a gap year shouldn't be (5)________ as just a time to party, and as attractive as it may sound, one
must not get (6) ______ in by that notion. One way to make the most of this time is to get involved (7) some
inspiring voluntary work abroad. There is more than a (8)_______ of truth in the idea that (9)_______ in a new
culture will teach you more about yourself than any classroom ever would. It will allow you to reach a level of
emotional (10)______ that will stay with you for a lifetime.
1. A permitted B. entitled C. designated D. allowed
2 A teasing B. touting C. tempting D. taunting
3. A editions B. billboards C. jingles D. captions
4. A emancipated B. liberated c. independent D. sovereign
5. A dismissed B. denied C. denounced D. dissuaded
6. A pulled B. sucked C. forced D. swept
7. A in B. on C. at D. about
8. A mark B. grade C. degree D. notch
9. A immersion B. diversion C. compulsion D. emersion
10. A wisdom B. ripeness C. adulthood D. maturity

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2. Read the following passage and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)

Although there are many strains of antibiotic bacteria now present in hospital wards, antibiotics have effectively
served (11)______ original purpose over the course of the past eighty years. They have been able to treat the
infections of countless individuals and saved millions of lives.

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Antibiotics have changed the way in (12)______ many common diseases are viewed. (13)______ infected with
bacterial pneumonia, for instance, is no longer considered fatal. Rather, it is viewed as a mundane infection which
can be cured (14)______ a simple course of antibiotics. The number of antibiotics available for use has also
affected their impact (15)______ society. Even if one antibiotic is ineffective (16)______ treating a disease, there
are, for most common infections, a host of (17)______ drugs that can be used to effectively cure the disease.
The development of antibiotics over the past eighty years has changed the relationship between humans and
disease. Antibiotics have given humans the power to fight back effectively (18)______ microorganisms in a way
that (19)______ have been considered impossible just a century (20)_____.

Your answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
Successful FCE Tests – Test 7
The 20th century was a time of remarkable change. In less than 100 years, the population went from around 2
billion to close to 6; almost treble the number of people living in the world today as did ten or so decades ago.
Not only have our numbers exploded, but our lives have become more intertwined than ever. For most of
human history, different communities which existed lived in their own very small worlds inside of a bigger
world they knew little about. The only world that mattered was the one you could see in your immediate
surroundings. Compared with today, when even the poorest parts of sub-Saharan Africa can boast 43 television
sets per thousand people. The world view is no longer limited to the horizon; it stretches across the planet. The
global village is here. Now, let's see how it came about.

The lessons of two world wars in quick succession signalled the dawning of a new age. Statesmen and women
saw that the way forward lay in bringing the world closer. World War Three was to be avoided at all costs. It
was believed that by making nations more interdependent, the risk of conflict would be lessened as it would be
in nobody's interest to go to war.

That desire to see the nations of the world united gave birth to the United Nations (U.N.). The idea was to share
power, responsibility and decision-making for world affairs equally between all members of the new global
village, so it is the nearest thing we have ever had to a world government. The U.N. brings together officials
from 185 member states to preserve world peace and prevent conflict, but the dream never quite became a
reality as this body has very little 'real' power - it just does a lot of talking. Not long after the U.N. was founded,
Europe started to play with the idea of uniting its own continent. After all, it was internal conflict being the
main cause of both world wars.

Line 21--- Then, in 1957, the idea took shape; it started as the European Coal and Steel Community with six
member states. Today, we know it as the European Union (E.U.)- 27 countries, called member states, united in
one large free trade area and committed to supporting each other to make Europe a safer, more secure and more
prosperous place. 15 of those members have gone a step further and created a single currency. The system is
hardly perfect, but at least the members are working together and not trying to destroy each other anymore.

But, for all the political movement that took place, there was a revolution more powerful, yet more simple, that
changed the world - and that was the dawn of the information age. First the television brought people from
opposite sides of the globe into contact; then the Internet makes the world our living room. Technology was
the most powerful tool for uniting people in the last century, and the first to create a truly global community.
Now we can communicate with people from different 'tribes' in an instant; debate with, learn from, understand,

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chat with them. But for all the change, have we made the world any better? There's still a huge gap between the
richest and the poorest nations and misunderstanding and conflict. We may be closer and live in a global
village; but there's still a lot more to do.

21 .The number of people living in the world ______

A. has almost trebled since a decade ago.
B. has more than trebled in just under 100 years.
C. has risen to more than 6 million.
D. rose tremendously during the twentieth century.

22. What does the writer mean by saying communities used to live in worlds inside of a bigger world?
A. In the past people knew little about faraway places.
B. In the past people only cared about themselves.
C. Most people didn't travel very much in the past.
D. Most people cared about what was happening in the bigger world.

23. What changed after the experience of two world wars?

A. Politicians felt determined to prevent another world war.
B. Information technology brought the world closer together.
C. Nobody was interested in conflict anymore.
D. Nations wanted to become more independent.

24. What is suggested about the United Nations?

A. It keeps the world peaceful and conflict-free.
B. It will become a global government.
C. It doesn't have a lot of meaningful influence.
D. It is controlled by a few big powers.

25. What does the phrase 'took shape' mean in the context of paragraph 4, line 21?
A. succeeded
B. developed
C. concluded
D. changed

26. The E.U. is now comprised of ______

A. 6 member states.
B. 15 member states.
C. 27 member states.
D. 15 member and 27 associate states.

27. The arrival of new technology and the information age _______
A. seemed unimportant compared to the political changes taking place.
B. had a strong impact on the opposite side of the globe.
C. brought people together in a way that politicians could not.
D. saw people use the internet a lot in their living rooms.

28. What does the writer's tone in the final paragraph suggest?
A. He is satisfied with what has been achieved.
B. He is critical and pessimistic about the future.

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C. He is confused and upset.
D. He is realistic about the situation.

29. What does the author mean by “the Internet makes the world our living room”?
A. people can access huge sources of information thanks to the Internet
B. people can enjoy the convenience brought about by the Internet
C. people can watch a lot of TV shows thanks to Internet connection
D. people can purchase furnitures for their homes on the Internet

30. What is the best title for the passage?

A. How the U.N. and E.U. came into being
B. A century of significant changes
C. Technology is the foundation for growth
D. The problem of overpopulation

Your answers:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Part 4: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
https://mini-ielts.com/
One misguided legacy is that intelligence suffers if children are bilingual. Research examined whether
bilinguals were ahead or behind monolinguals on IQ tests. From the 1920s to the 1960s, research using IQ tests
showed bilinguals were mentally confused as two languages in the brain disrupted effective thinking, and having
one well-developed language was superior to having two half-developed languages.
The idea that bilinguals may have a lower IQ still exists, particularly monolinguals. However, this early
research was misconceived. First, it often gave bilinguals IQ tests in their weaker language – usually English.
Had bilinguals been tested in other languages, the result may have differed. Second, bilinguals tended to come
from impoverished New York or rural Welsh backgrounds. Monolinguals tended to come from middle class,
urban families. Working class bilinguals were often compared with middle class monolinguals, so the results were
somehow due to social class differences than language ones.
The most recent research from Canada, the US and Wales suggests that bilinguals are equal to monolinguals
on IQ tests. When having two well-developed languages, balanced bilinguals show a slight superiority in IQ tests
compared with their counterparts, demonstrating psychological wisdom. Take, for example, a child who can
operate in either language who is likely to be ahead on IQ tests, compared with similar (same gender, social class
and age) monolinguals. Far from making people mentally confused, bilingualism is now associated with a mild
degree of intellectual superiority.
However, IQ tests probably do not measure intelligence, but a fragment of its broad concept. IQ tests are
simply paper and pencil tests where only “right and wrong” answers are allowed. Many questions need answering.
Are intelligent people those who obtain a high score? Do the only intelligent people belong to high IQ
organisations such as MENSA? Is there social, musical, military, marketing, motoring, political intelligence?
Defining what constitutes intelligent behaviour requires a personal value judgement as to what type of behaviour,
and what kind of person is of more worth.
The current state of psychological wisdom about bilinguals is that, where two languages are well-developed,
bilinguals have thinking advantages over monolinguals. To illustrate, when a child is asked a simple question:
How many uses can you think when offered a brick? Some children give two or three answers: building walls or

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a house. Another child pours out ideas continuously: blocking up a rabbit hole, breaking a window, using as a
bird bath, as a plumb line, as an abstract sculpture in an art exhibition.
Global research shows that bilinguals are more fluent, flexible, original and elaborate to open-ended questions.
The person who thinks of a few answers is a convergent thinker. They converge onto conventional answers.
People who think of different uses for unusual items (e.g. a brick, tin can, cardboard box) are divergent thinkers
who like a variety of answers and are imaginative and fluent in thinking.
“Balanced" bilinguals may have temporary and occasionally permanent advantages over monolinguals:
increased sensitivity to communication, speedier movement through the stages of cognitive development, and
being less fixated on the sounds of words and more centred on the meaning of words. Such ability tends to be a
temporary competitive edge for bilinguals around the ages from four to six, which means an initial head start in
learning to read and to think about language.
For questions 31-36, choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below.

List of Headings
i No single definition of intelligence
ii Faulty testing, wrong conclusion
iii Welsh research supports IQ testing
iv Beware: inadequate for selling intelligence
v International research supports bilingualism
vi Current thought on the advantage bilinguals have
vii Early beliefs regarding bilingualism
viii Monolinguals ahead of their bilingual peers
ix Exemplifying the bilingual advantage
Example: Paragraph A: vii
31. Paragraph B
32. Paragraph C
33. Paragraph D
34. Paragraph E
35. Paragraph F
36. Paragraph G
For questions 37-40, do the following statements agree with the information given?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
37 Balanced bilinguals have more permanent than temporary advantages over monolinguals.
38 Often bilinguals concentrate more on the way a word sounds than on its meaning.
39 Monolinguals learn to speak at a younger age than bilinguals.
40 Bilinguals just starting school might pick up certain skills faster than monolinguals.

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Your answers:
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

D. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1. Provided below is a table demonstrating information about the subway systems in six cities.
In about ____ words, summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. (20 points)

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Part 2. Essay writing. (30 points)
Write an essay of about 250 words to express your opinion on the following topic:
Parents should get punishment in some ways if their children break the law.
Do you agree with this opinion?
Use your own knowledge and experience to support your arguments with examples and relevant evidence.

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(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm)

14 | P a g e
 SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC NINH ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI - ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
(Đề thi đề xuất) NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10
(Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)

A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1. Complete the notes below. For questions 1-5, write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS
AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)

1.Symonds/ SYMONDS 2. 1996 3. fulltime/ 4. swimming 5. monthly

full-time

Transcripts with highlighted keys

A: Hi - can I help you?
B: Hello - yes, um, is your club taking on new members at the moment?
A: Oh yes - we're always interested in taking on new members. Just give me a moment and I'll get an
application form. Right-here we are. So - let's start with your name.
B: It's Harry
A: OK - and your sumame?
B: It's Symonds.
A: Is that like Simon with an 's'?
B: No, um, it's S-Y-M-O-N-D-S. Most people find it rather difficult to spell.
A: I see - it has a silent D. I guess a lot of people miss that. Now let me see - can you tell me when
you were born?
B: Yes certainly - the 11th of December.
A: Thanks - and the year?
B: 1996.
A: OK good. Now - are you thinking of becoming a full-time member?
B: Er, probably not. What kind of memberships do you have?
A: Well, we also have off-peak membership which is between 9 and 12 in the morning and 2 and 5
in the afternoon and then we do have a weekend membership.
B: So a weekend membership is just Saturday and Sunday?
A: Yes, that's right.
B: OK - well that's not going to work for me. It looks like I'll have to be full-time. I'm afraid off-peak
membership won't do as I'm not free at those times and I don't just want to be restricted to weekends.
A: I'll make a note of that. Right - we have several facilities at the club including a gym, a swimming
pool, tennis and squash courts. What activities are you planning on doing?
B: Well, do you have badminton?
A: Yes we do.
B: And table tennis?
A: I'm afraid not - well not at the moment anyway.
B: Oh - OK. Well I'm also very keen on swimming so I'm glad you have a pool. I'll certainly be
doing a lot of that.
A: OK - I've got that. Will you be using the gym?
B: No - I'm not interested in that.
A: OK. So just let me work out what the cost will be ... Yes - that comes to £450 for the year. You
can choose to pay annually for the full year or monthly. It's up to you.
B: Oh, I'd prefer to pay regularly in small amounts, rather than have a large amount to pay in one go,
if that's OK?
A: Sure - that's fine. Right, I've got the most important details for now.

Part 2. You will hear an interview in which a deep-sea map-maker called Sally Gordon and a marine
biologist called Mark Tomkins are talking about making maps of the ocean floor. For questions 11-
15, decide whether the statement is TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). (10 points)

6. T 7. F 8. F 9. T 10. T

Transcripts with highlighted keys

Interviewer: Tonight we're talking to map-maker Sally Gordon, and marine biologist Mark Tomkins,
about making maps of the ocean floor. Sally, how did you get started on your career? Tell us about
your first expedition.
Sally: As a recent graduate, I was fortunate to receive a full-paid internship aboard an exploration
vessel to participate in sonar mapping. I was delighted to be selected, but I was extremely nervous
about living at sea for three weeks. Fortunately, everyone was really friendly and helpiul to me as the
new kid on board. On my very first mapping expedition, we collected some data which really
changed the way that they thought about geology in that area, and from then on I was completely
hooked, and inspired by the thought of repeating the success. Now a lot of my shipmates call me the
Mapping Queen! → 11. T
Interviewer: Mark, how far have we progressed in terms of researching the ocean floor?
Mark: Here's a troubling fact: most of us know more about planets than we do about the depths of the
ocean. And yet with volcanoes, deep valleys, mountain peaks and vast plains, the landscape of the
ocean floor is as varied and magnificent as it is on the surface of some astronomical body. Ninety-
five percent of the ocean floor remains unexpired - which is nothing compared to how small a part of
space we have reached, of course. But mapping the ocean floor is very technologically challenging
and is progressing much more slowly than space exploration. → 12. F
Interviewer: Sally, I know you were wanting to make a point about public attitudes towards deep-sea
exploration.
Sally: Yes ... thanks. I do think it's challenging to get the public engaged about deep-sea exploration.
I think you can get people excited about some parts of marine science. People love to see footage of
coral reefs, for example. These are bright, well-lit portions of the ocean, but really just its skin. But
the depths are so far removed from people physically, so it's a case of out of sight and out of mind, I
suppose, which is a shame and so unnecessary. → 13. F
Interviewer: Here's a question for both of you. Where does the funding for these projects come from?
Mark: The government tunding has tended to dry up in recent years, and a lot of corporations have
really taken up some of the slack. Our project is financed by Alison insurance. It's a very interesting
model for ocean science because it's like instead of sponsoring a football team, you're sponsoring a
very important scientific mission that really can make a difference - and people notice that.
Sally: Tt's an interesting development. I think corporates are starting to see the opportunity here for
getting massive brand exposure in an area that there aren't too many competitors. And i don't think a
government funded project could've worked at the speed that we've been working at.
Interviewer: There are a lot of mineral resources under the sea. Mark, aren't some nations -
particularly island nations - rushing in to exploit this?
Mark: Some are. Though, of course, without knowing the shape of the ocean floor, we'll never realise
the economic viability of these resources. Some island nations have been trying to extend their
territorial sea claims further under one interpretation of maritime law. I think who owns these
resources is a huge
issue, and particularly who might be responsible for any damage done to the ocean if these resources
are mined - who would be liable. → 14. T
Interviewer: With all the new technology, our knowledge of the oceans is increasing. Where do you
both see this leading?
Sally: More awareness leads to more engagement and - I hope – more responsibility. People would
be seeing landscapes everywhere, as gorgeous as the Himalayas or the Grand Canyon, and they'd be
seeing them for the first time because these are places that no human had ever seen before. We've
already witnessed this with photos of galaxies coming back from the latest space probes.
Mark: I think the only reason we haven't seen these places is we haven't had the will to go find them,
It'll make people think before they're careless about pollution, or eating seafood unsustainably,
because they'd really know how beautiful the ocean is, and that it's not just a big dumping ground.
It's our planet, not some distant galaxy we're talking about here after all. → 15. T.

Part 3: You will hear part of an interview with the astronaut Charles Duke, who is talking about
his trip to the moon. For questions 6-10, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best
according to what you hear. (10 points)
11. D 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. D

Transcripts with highlighted keys

Interviewer: My guest today is Charles Duke, one of the few people to have walked on the moon as
part of an Apollo mission. Charles, welcome to the studio. Have you always been hooked on space
travel?
Charles: Quite frankly, as a kid, it'd never entered my head. There wasn't even a space program when
I was young . . . so there weren't any astronauts.
Interviewer: What about science fiction films at the cinema?
Charles: I'd seen them, of course I used to wonder what space travel might be like — but it was never
what you might describe as a fascination — if you follow me. -> 6. D
Interviewer: So, how did it all come about?
Charles: It was at the Naval Academy. . .
Interviewer: Not in the Air Force?
Charles: No, but I was a navy pilot. I had fallen in love with planes and nothing else would do. And
that gave me the opportunity to start — to get selected for the astronaut program.
Interviewer: Presumably by then they were talking about putting rockets into space?
Charles: Absolutely.
Interviewer: And how did you find the training?
Charles: I suppose the lunar surface training in the spacesuit was physically demanding in a way.
Interviewer: Quite uncomfortable, I imagine.
Charles: It's not what you might expect. Once the spacesuits get inflated, it gets very rigid. You had
to fight to bend your arms and move your fingers inside the gloves.
Interviewer: And how long did you spend inside it?
Charles: Around four to five hours. But actually, the most challenging part was worrying about how
to handle the simulator because we needed to know how to land and then take off on the moon. → 7.
B
Interviewer: I don't think I could have coped with that!
Charles: I’m not sure I did. But if you did something wrong, you were in trouble and we often spent
eight hours a day trying to learn what to do!
Interviewer: So how did you feel when you first heard that you were actually going to the moon?
Charles: I suppose you're expecting me to say 'exhilarated'. But I knew there were lots of ‘ifs' — it
would happen if they didn't cancel the program, if I didn't get sick and so on. So I stopped doing all
the dangerous sports I was involved in.
Interviewer: So you knew you had one chance and if you blew it, you wouldn't get another?
Charles: That just about sums it up! → 8. A
Interviewer: And when you eventually got there, what impact did it have on you? Landing on the
moon, I mean!
Charles: When we saw the moon for the first time from about 1500 meters, we recognized the
landmarks but, as we got closer, we saw that the spot we were going to land on was very rough —
big rocks and craters —and we panicked a bit. And the more we tried to maneuver and the closer we
got, the more moon dust we blew out.
Interviewer: But you landed safely?
Charles: Eventually, yes. We were six hours late. So when we touched down, we erupted in
enthusiasm. We shook hands and hugged each other.
Interviewer: Not an easy feat in spacesuits.
Charles: [laughs] No, indeed. But after that . . . we had to rest for a certain period . . .
we got outside for the very first time.
Interviewer: You must have been terrified.
Charles: We had no sense of fear about stepping off the ladder onto the moon. We just jumped off
and started bouncing around like lambs in a field in springtime.
Interviewer: And when you saw the lunar landscape, did it live up to expectations?
Charles: What struck me most, apart from its awesome attraction, was its desolation. The sky was jet
black. You felt as if you could reach out and touch it. There were no stars and the sun was shining all
the time. →9. C
Interviewer: And what went through your mind at that moment?
Charles: The fact that it was so untouched. The fact that nobody had ever been to that particular spot
before. It was simply breathtaking.
Interviewer: And do you have a favorite memory of the mission?
Charles: Definitely. It was the thing that we did during the last moonwalk. We were about 6
kilometers or so from the base, and on the edge of a big crater, 100 meters deep. We had to be
careful as we walked along the ridge because one slip would have been dangerous. Suddenly we saw
this huge rock. It was a long way off, and there are no people or cars to judge distances or give you
any sense of scale.
Interviewer: But you managed to get down to it?
Charles: Eventually. It was enormous. The biggest rock anybody had ever touched on the moon. I
had a hammer and I hit a chunk of it — and it came off in my hand — a piece the size of a small
melon. → 10. D
Interviewer: A different kind of souvenir! So do you think we should go back? What's the reason for
investing all this time and money in the space race anyway?
Charles: Oh, it's the prime place for a scientific base…

Part 4. You will hear part of a scientific television programme for young people in which the speaker
explains what meteors' are For questions 16-25, complete the notes below which summarise what
the speaker says. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (20 points)
16. shooting stars 21. downwards
17. car 22. a jet plane
18. insects 23. hotter and hotter
19. iron 24. melts
20. orbit 25. reach the ground
Transcripts with highlighted keys
Presenter: Even if you have never watched the sky at night, you probably know what you would see
if you did. The view is best on a night with no moon. You stare upwards into the inky blackness over
which are scattered millions of tiny points of light. These, of course, are the stars. Then just as you're
beginning to get bored with this unchanging scene, a tiny white streak of light shoots across the sky.
It's going too fast to be a plane. Then two seconds later you see another one. What you are
witnessing is the beginning of a shower of meteors or shooting stars. To understand what is
happening, it helps us to imagine a car driving
fast along the road. In a way, our planet Earth is like that car. As it is racing along, it comes towards
a large group of insects all flying together just above the road.

Now, not all the insects are hit by the car, but several of them crash into the car's windscreen with an
unpleasant noise. In many ways, the meteors are similar to the swarm of insects, although they aren't
really animals. In fact, meteors are mostly tiny pieces of iron that look like little stones.
In a similar way, the Earth is not really moving along a road. But it does follow the same circular
route around the sun once every year. This enormous circular path is called the Earth's ‘orbit'. All the
other planets are in orbits like this as well. Now, there are small groups of those stones waiting in
certain places along the Earth's route around the sun. Some of them are fixed in one orbit while
others are moving around the sun in their own orbits. Once every year, the Earth's circular path
around the sun takes us through some of these groups of little rocks.

Now, when the earth approaches one of these stones, it is pulled downwards towards our planet by a
strong force called gravity. And when the meteor starts to rush towards the ground, a shooting star is
born. Normally, as shooting stars fall, they are travelling at speeds of 10 kilometres every second.
This is about a hundred times faster than a jet plane. However, before the meteor can reach the Earth,
it must
go through the air around it - the atmosphere. Now, because it is going through the air so fast, the
shooting star starts to become hotter and hotter and the air around it gets very hot too. This is a bit
like the head of a match rubbing along the side of a matchbox. Now, very soon the outside of this
piece of iron gets very hot indeed and, as a result, it gets soft and melts and then starts to burn. So, as
this hot little rock rushes through the atmosphere, it leaves a tail of hot burning metal and flames
behind it. This is the bright streak we can see from the ground - 100 kilometres below. Yes, you see,
fortunately for us, most meteors are so small that they have completely burned up long before they
could ever reach the ground - which is just as well because, otherwise, we would need to carry rather
stronger umbrellas!

SECTION B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (50 points)

Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)

1. B 5. A 9. A 13.A 17. D
2. D 6. B 10. C 14. C 18.C
3. A 7. B 11. D 15. C 19. C
4. C 8. A 12. A 16. B 20. D

Part 2. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces
provided below. (10 points)

21. unite 22. disinheritance 23. survivability 24. downpour 25. disciplinarian
 26. unmitigated 27. conservation 28. unadulterated 29. absurdity 30. groundwork

Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answers in
the box provided. (10 points)

31. off 32.down 33.on/ upon 34.to 35. by

36.against 37.at 38.on/ towards 39.at 40. in

C. READING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)

1.B 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.A

6.B 7.A 8.C 9.A 10.D

Part 2. Read the following passage and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers
in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)

11. their 12.which 13. being 14. with 15. on

16.at 17.other 18.against 19. would 20.ago

Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the following questions.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)

21. A 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. C

26. D 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. B

Part 4: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the following questions.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)

31. ii 32. vi 33. iv 34. i 35. ix 36. v 37. F 38. F 39. NG 40. T

D. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1. Provided below is a table demonstrating data about subway systems in six cities. In at least
____ words, summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. (20 points)
1. Completion (02 points): The report covers the table and has a clear structure of three parts:
Introduction, Overview and Body.

2. Content (10 points)

- The report MUST cover the following points:
• Introduce the table (01 point) and state the general and striking features (05 points).
• Describe main features with relevant data from both charts and make relevant comparisons (05
points).
- The report MUST NOT contain personal opinions.
(A penalty of 01 point to 02 points will be given to personal opinions found in the answer.)
3. Organisation (02 points)
- Ideas are well organised.
- The report is sensibly divided into paragraphs.
4. Punctuation and spelling (01 point)
The report should demonstrate the correct use of spelling and punctuations.

5. Language use (05 points)

The report should:
- Demonstrate a wide variety of lexical and grammatical structures.
- Make correct use of words (verb tenses, word forms, voice, etc.).

Sample answer:
The table indicates clear differences between several major metro systems of the world in terms of
age, scale and annual carrying capacity.

Overall, the more recently established metro systems are considerably shorter than the older ones.
All six metro systems differ tremendously in annual payloads.

Completed in 1863, the London underground is the oldest of the metro systems listed and also the
longest, extending for 1,100 kiliometres. Likewise, the second oldest system being built in 1890 is
also the second longest with approximately 594 kilometres in length. In stark contrast, the Kyoto and
Los Angeles subway systems — established in 1890 and 2001 respectively - are far shorter. The
former covers a mere 11 kilometres and the latter just 14 kilometres.

With regard to yearly carrying capacity, the Tokyo metro is equipped to carry the largest number of
passengers, at 1,434 milion, followed by the Paris metro being capable of having 850 million
passengers aboard. The systems with the smallest capacities are those of Kyoto and Washington DC,
transporting just 11 million and 70 million people per year, respectively.

Part 2. Essay writing. (30 points)

Write an essay of about 250 words to express your opinion on the following topic:
Parents should get punishment in some ways if their children break the law.
Do you agree with this opinion?
Use your own knowledge and experience to support your arguments with examples and relevant
evidence.

The mark given to part 3 is based on the following scheme:

1. Content (10 points)
- ALL requirements of the task are sufficiently addressed.
- Ideas are adequately supported and elaborated with relevant and reliable explanations, examples,
evidence, personal experience, etc.

2. Organisation and Presentation (08 points)

- Ideas are well organised and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
- The essay is well-structured:
• The introduction is presented with a clear thesis statement.
• The body paragraphs are written with unity, coherence and cohesion. Each body paragraph
must have a topic sentence and supporting details and examples where necessary.
• The conclusion summarises the main points and offers personal opinions on the issue.
3. Language (09 points)
- Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students.
- Good use and control of grammatical structures.
- Use of vocabulary must not create confusion for readers.

4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling (03 points)

- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
- Legible handwriting.