1.

In SCFE all statements are true except:

1. Four times common in boys than girls

2. Left hip is affected twice as often as right
3. 78% of patients are adolescents in rapid growth phase
4. Occurs frequently in obese children

2.Ventral hernias are all of the following except:

1. Incisional
2. Diaphragmatic
3. Epigastric?
4. Umbilical

3. Main symptoms of the anal fissure are:

1. Tearing pain with defecation and hematochezia

2. Severe rectal bleeding
3. Diarrhea
4. Prolapse of hemorrhoid

4. In proximal humerus fracture AO classification type A is

1. Unifocal extra articular

2. Intraarticular
3. None of them
4. Bifocal extra articular

5.In AO soft tissue classification IO4 means?

1. Considerable, full thickness contusion, abrasion, extensive open degloving, skin loss
2. Skin breakage from outside in < 5cm, contused edges
3. Skin breakage from outside in > 5 cm, increased contusion, devitalized edges
4. Extensive, closed degloving

6.For the treatment of peptic ulcer disease, the distal stomach is resected in order to:

1. Excise gastrin-producing zone

2. To facilitate gastric emptying

3. Excise the acid-producing zone

4. To remove ulcer

7.The Klein line

1. Improves sensitivity from 40% to almost 70%

2. Improves sensitivity from 40% to almost 80%
3. Improves sensitivity from 40% to almost 90%
4. Improves sensitivity from 30% to almost 70%

8.Which of the following is true regarding cortical screws

1. Lag effect option with partially threaded screws

 2. The threads are spaced farther apart
3. None of them
4. Core diameter is less

9. Everything is true regarding cerebral palsy except

1. Present at birth or shortly thereafter

2. May be congenital or acquired
3. Damage often worsen
4. Non-curable, life long condition

10.ACL grafts can be from the next except one

1. Patellar tendon
2. Allograft
3. Quadriceps tendon
4. Biceps femoris tendon

11. Treatment for hemorrhoids include all of the following except

1. Closed hemorrhoidectomy
2. Hartman’s procedure
3. Rubber band ligation
4. Open hemorrhoidectomy

12. Which test is most sensitive for ACL tear diagnosis

1. Anterior drawer test

2. McMurray test
3. Pivot shift test
4. Lachman test

13. The main etiologic factor of the peptic ulcer disease is:

1. Helicobacter pylori infection

2. Escherichia coli infection
3. Nonsteroid anti-inflamatory medications
4. Smoking

14. In cerebral palsy most common associated condition is

1. Visual impairment
2. Movement disorders
3. Mental/learning disability
4. Seizures

15. Which factor affect the quality of the cartilaginous repair tissue after microfracture of the
chondral defect

1. All of them
2. Joint function must be maintained after surgery
 3. Calcified cartilage layer must be removed
4. 1 to 2mm bridge of bone must be left between penetrations

16.IM nail is a choice of fixation for

1. Most tibia and femur shaft fractures

2. Radius fracture
3. Humeral fracture
4. Fibula fracture

17. Clinical signs of posterior clavicle dislocation?

1. ACJ subluxates
2. Upper limb venous congestion
3. No more contact with CC ligament rupture
4. All of them

18. Hartmann’s procedure refers to:

1. A colon or rectal resection with primary anastomosis

2. Total colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis
3. A colon or rectal resection without an anastomosis in which a colostomy or ileostomy is
created and the distal colon or rectum is left as a blind pouch
4. Total excision of the rectum with the permanent colostomy

19.Monteggia fracture is

1. Fractures of the shaft of the radius with radial ulnar dislocation

2. Fractures of the proximal ulna with radial head dislocation
3. Fracture of the olecranon
4. Fracture of the ulna and the radius

20. In Legg-Calve-Perthe’s disease differential diagnosis are next except one

1. Gaucher disease
2. Pagets disease
3. Sickle cell disease
4. Multiple epyphiseal dysplasia

21.Treatment of the anorectal abscess is:

1. Non operative treatment with intravenous antibiotics

2. Immediate drainage
3. Oral sulfasalazine
4. Oral antibacterial therapy

22. Treatment methods of the anal fissure include all of the following except

1. Calcium channel blockers

2. Botulinum toxin injection
3. Open lateral internal sphincterotomy
 4. Suturing of fissure

23. The golden standard in bone grafting is

1. Synthetic substitute
2. All of them
3. Autograft
4. Allograft

24. Treatment methods used for esophageal achalasia are all of the following except

1. Vagotomy
2. Pneumatic dilation
3. Heller myotomy
4. Botulinum toxin injection

25. Treatment for the mesenteric cysts are all of the following except:

1. Laparascopic excision
2. Open excision
3. Unroofing and drainage
4. Septal bowel resection with the mesentery

26. All of the following types of fistula in ano are classified except:

1. Suprasphincteruc fistula
2. Transsphincteric fistula
3. Extrasphincteric fistula
4. Parasphincteric fistula

27. Coxa vara is found in

1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Tuberculosis
3. Rickets
4. Perthe’s disease

28. Treatment for the pyloric gastric cancer is:

1. Sleeve gastrectomy
2. Distal subtotal gastrectomy
3. Billroth II gastrectomy
4. Tube Gastrostomy

29. The blood supply of meniscus originates from

1. Both of them
2. Lateral genicular artery
3. Medial genicular artery
4. None of them

30. Low anterior resection refers to:

 1. Mesorectum are excised, a low rectal anastomosis is created with a circular stapler
2. Resection of the distal sigmoid colon
3. Total excision of the rectum with a permanent colostomy
4. Excision of hemorrhoids

31. In radial head fracture classification type 2 is

1. Non displaced fracture

2. Comminuted fractures involving the entire head
3. Marginal fracture with displacement
4. Associated with dislocation of the elbow

32. A hernia that cannot be reduced is described as:

1. Intussusception
2. Obstructed
3. Incarcerated
4. Strangulated

33. Treatment options for the rectal prolapse include:

1. Abdominoperineal excision
2. Closed lateral internal sphincterotomy
3. Hartman’s procedure
4. Delorme’s procedure

34. Treatment options for the peptic ulcer disease are all of the following except:

1. PPI+Antibiotics
2. Partial Gastrectomy
3. Total gastrectomy
4. Vagotomy

35. In Osgood Schlater disease according to Wolfrey and Chandler classification, Type 2 is

1. There is additional small fragments of bone adjacent to the anterior and superior aspects
2. None of them
3. Where the tibial tubercle is prominent and irregular
4. Where the tubercle is normal, but there is free bone particles in similar distribution

36.Abdominoperineal resection refers to:

1. A colon or rectal resection with primary anastomosis

2. Total colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis
3. A colon or rectal resection without an anastomosis in which a colostomy or ileostomy is
created and the distal colon or rectum is left as a blind pouch
4. Total excision of the rectum with the permanent colostomy

37.Fracture of clavicle is commonest at

1. Middle 3rd
 2. All of them
3. Lateral 3rd
4. Medial 3rd

38. Surgical treatment of the gastroesophageal reflux disease includes all of the following
procedures except

1. Laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication

2. Heller seromyotomy
3. Posterior partial fundoplication
4. Anterior partial fundoplication

39.In AO classification 33A2 is

1. Tibial shaft simple oblique fracture

2. None of them
3. Humerus shaft simple oblique fracture
4. Femoral shaft simple oblique fracture

40. All are correct regarding skin except one

1. Acts in vitamin C synthesis

2. Is the largest organ
3. Acts in temperature regulation
4. It has protective function

41. Zenker’s diverticulum is treated by the following methods except

1. Diverticuloplexy
2. Diverticulectomy
3. Cricopharyngeal myotomy
4. Radiotherapy

42. In Salter-Harris pediatric fracture classification type one is

1. Fractures involve the physis and then extend through the epiphysis and into the joint
2. None of them
3. Fractures involve the metaphysis, physis and epiphysis
4. Fracture traverse the physis, splitting it longitudinally and separating the epiphysis from
the metaphysis

43. Absolut indication to ORIF are all except

1. Unable to obtain an adequate reduction

2. Non unions
3. Displaced intra-articular fractures
4. Cosmetic consideration

44. The most common cause of non union is

1. Inadequate immobilization
 2. Ischaemia
3. Soft tissue interposition
4. Infection

45. Which statement is not true for the Barrett’s esophagus(BE)?

1. BE is a congenital malformation
2. Histologically, BE appears as intestinal metaplasia
3. BE is a condition in which the esophagus is lined with columnar epithelium, as opposed to
the normal squamous epithelium
4. BE is susceptible to ulceration, bleeding, stricture formation and most important
malignant degeneration

46. Soft tissue close injuries are all except

1. Abrasion
2. Contusion
3. Crush injuries
4. Hematoma

47. Open appendectomy incisions include all of the following except:

1. Lanz
2. Hartman
3. Rocky-Davis
4. McBurney

48. The following statements are true for perforated appendicitis with peritonitis except

1. Needs nonsurgical treatment with broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics

2. Perforated appendicitis is more common in the very young patients (age< 5 years)
3. Perforated appendicitis is more common in the very old patients (age > 65 years)
4. Needs immediate surgery

49. Complications if the Merckel’s diverticulum are all of the following except:

1. Intestinal obstruction
2. Intestinal bleeding
3. Diverticulitis
4. Malignant transformation

50. All of the following statements are true for desmoid of the abdominal wall except:

1. Malignant tumor
2. They have aggressive and infiltrative local behavior
3. They do not develop metastases
4. They have high recurrence rate

51. What is a Pilon fracture?

1. Fracture of proximal part of a shinbone

 2. Fracture of a bottom of femur bone
3. Fracture of proximal part of a femur bone
4. Fracture of a bottom of the shinbone

52. In a femur shaft fracture acceptable alignment of varus/valgus in children <10 years in is

1. >20 o
2. <20 o
3. >15 o
4. <15 o

53. In close injuries, regarding hematoma all are correct except one

1. Large tissue damage than contusion

2. Cells and vessels are damaged in dermis
3. Collection of blood beneath the skin
4. Larger vessels are damaged

54. Rectus abdominis diastasis(or diastasis rect) is:

1. Traumatic rupture of the anterior abdominal wall

2. A ventral hernia
3. Separation of the two rectus abdominis muscle pillars
4. An incisional hernia

55. In cerebral palsy classification, diplegia is

1. Both lower extremities equally involved

2. Both upper extremities equally involved
3. Lower extremities more involved than upper extremities, fine- motor/sensory
abnormalities in upper extremity
4. All extremities are involved, upper more than lower

56. Complications due to repetitive gastroesophageal reflux are all of the following except

1. Barrett’s esophagus
2. Esophagitis
3. Achalasia
4. Stricture

57. Complications of the diverticular disease are all of the following except:

1. Hemorrhage
2. Perforation
3. Metastases
4. Diverticulitis

58. Complications of the peptic ulcer disease are all of the following except

1. Stenosis of the gastric outlet

2. Perforation
 3. Zollinger-Elison syndrome
4. Gastrointestinal bleeding

59. Compartments syndrome (ICP > 40mm/hg) is treated by

1. Fasciotomy
2. Chloride rich fluid
3. Bicarbonate
4. Early aggressive fluid

60. The first diagnostic test in patients with the suspected esophageal disease usually is:

1. 24h pH study
2. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
3. Transesophageal ultrasound
4. 24h manometry

61. Treatment of a ventral hernia includes all of the following except

1. Suture repair
2. Synthesis mesh placement
3. Components separation and tissue plastics
4. Non-surgical treatment

Most reliable method for detecting bony metastases is

1. Radiography
2. MRI
3. CT scan?
4. US

In AO soft tissue classification IO5 means?

1. Considerable, full thickness contusion, abrasion, extensive open degloving, skin loss
2. Skin breakage from outside in < 5cm, contused edges
3. Skin breakage from outside in > 5 cm, increased contusion, devitalized edges
4. Extensive, closed degloving

According to 5th metatarsal fracture classification type III is

1. Styloid process fracture

2. Both of them
3. Meta-diaphyseal junction fracture
4. None of them

Which statement is true regarding Ataxic cerebral palsy

1. Is very rare
2. None of them
3. Is a result of an injury to the developing cerebellum
4. Both of them
By ICRS classification type 3 cartilage lesion is

1. Very severe lesion

2. A severe lesion
3. Almost normal
4. Abnormal

Which statement is true regarding Green Stick Fracture?

1. None of them
2. Caused by a force perpendicular to the bone’s long axis
3. All of them
4. Breaks in bones along only one side of the bone

Dislocations occur most frequently in the

1. Elbow joint
2. Hip joint
3. Shoulder joint
4. Knee joint

In humerus shaft fracture epidemiology by AO type classification the commonest is

1. Type B
2. Type A
3. Type C
4. Type D

Perthes’ disease is

1. A condition of immature hip caused by necrosis of the femoral epiphysis

2. Caused by impaired circulation in the femoral head
3. All of them
4. Commonly seen between the age of 5-12

Thompson’s clinical test is to identify

1. Achilles rupture
2. ACL tear
3. Rotator cuff tear
4. Menisceal injury

All statement is true regarding cartilage except one

1. It is a highly specialized connective tissue in joints

2. It’s made 80% of water
3. It has high capacity for healing and repair
4. Provides smooth lubrication and load transmition

Which complication may arise after supra-condylar fracture

1. Cubitus varus
 2. All are true
3. Median nerve injury
4. Damage to artery

How many types of Galeazzi fracture exists?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

In Denis classification of spinal trauma major injuries are all except

1. Burst
2. Seat belt type
3. Pars interarticularis
4. Compression

In anterior dislocation of hip, the posture of lower limb will be

1. Adduction, externally rotated and extension

2. Abduction, internal rotated and flexion
3. Abduction, externally rotated and extension
4. Adduction, externally rotated and flexion

Anatomical axis of distal femur is

1. 6-7 degrees of valgus

2. 4-5 degrees of valgus
3. 6-7 degrees of varus
4. 4-5 degrees of varus