Part A History and

Culture
1. Consider the following statements on the
late
Harappan cultures :
I. late Harappan cultures are
The
primarily Chalcolithic in which tools
of stone and copper are used.
II. They do not show metal objects
requiring complicated casting.
III. The Chalcolithic people in the later
Harappan phase lived in villages.
IV. In the late Harappan phase at
Bhagwanpura in Haryana, burnt bricks
were not found.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) I, II and IV .(2) I, II and III
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV

2. Consider the following types of pottery :

I. Black and Red Ware
IL Black Slipped Ware
III. Painted Grey Ware
IV. Red Ware
V. Northern Black Polished Ware ·
Which of the above types of pottery were
associated with the Later Vedic people ?

(1) II, III and IV only

(2) II, III and V only
(3) I, II, III and IV
(4) I II I II, IV and· V
,

Identify the incorrect statement on the

3. contributions of Jainism :
(1) The early Jainas adopted Prakrit to
preach their doctrines.
(2) Their religious literature was written in
Ardhamagadhi.
(3) The early Jainas discarded Sanskrit
language.
ever used Apabhramsa for the
() They"',,ortant works of
Jainism. earliest
 l s

4. Match the following:

List-I
List-II
(Mahajanapada)
(Capital)
A. Avanti I. Ujjain
B. Koshala II. Shravasti
C. Vatsa
III. Kaushambi
D. Anga
IV. Champa

Choose the correct answer using the codes

given below :

A B C D
(1) I II III IV
(2) II I IV III
(3) IV III II I
(4 III IV I II.
l

5. Consider the following art and architectural

forms:

I. Rock-cut elephant at Dhauli in Orissa

II. Yakshi figure from Didarganj near

Patna

III. Great Stupa at Sanchi in Madhya

Pradesh

IV. SO-pillared hall at Kumrahar near

Patna

Which of the above art and architectural forms 4

belong to the Mauryan period ?

(1) II, III and IV

(2) II and III only

(3) I, II, III and IV

(4) I, II and III

6. Consider the following items:
I. Turban
II. Trousers
III. Heavy long coat
IV. Helmet
V. Boots
Which of the items listed above were
introduced by the Shakas and Kushans
from Central Asia ?
.

(1) I, II, III and IV

(2) I, II, III and V
(3) Il, III, IV and V
(4) I, II, III, IV and v

G In the Satavahana's inscriptions, the terms

'Katakas and 'Skandhavaras' mean
(1)
- -,..-
..;:.-.

The tax free villages of Buddhist monks

(2) Military camps and settlements
which served as administrative centres
(3) The areas of rock-cut architecture
(4) The areas of large scale paddy
transplantations

8. Consider the following statements:

I. During the reign of Chandragupta-I, the
Sakas were defeated.
II. Samudragupta's South Indian conquest
did not lead to any permanent
annexation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) Statement I only
(2) Statement II only
(3) Both of them
(4) None of them

9. In the Sangam literature, Vellalars were :

(1) a as who functioned as poets
Bra»hmr
(2) rich peasants who formed the fourth
caste
(3) agricultural labourers who also worked
with animal skins
 ribes who suffered from extreme
(4) fores t t
poverty
'
I I 10. Match the following :
List-I
(Pallavan Ruler)
List-II
(Political event)
A. Sivaskandavarman I. Samudragupta's
invasion
B. Vishnugopa IL Kanchi came
under the
Pallavas
C. Narasimhavarman- III. Defeated by
I Vikramaditya-II
and city of
Kanchi was
captured
D. Nandivarman-II IV. Defeat of
Pulakesin-II
and destruction
ofVatapi city
Choose the correct answer using the
codes given below :
A B C D
(1) I II III IV
(2) II I IV III
(3) IV III II I
(4) III IV I II

1 Which of the following is wrongly

matched with respect to Rashtrakutas ?
(1) Amoghavarsha : the first Kannada
book writer
(2). Dantidurga : the founder of
Rashtrakuta kingdom
(3) Vallabharaja : the contemporary of
· Al-Masudi
(4) Krishna-III: the famous rock-cut temple
of Shiva at Ellora

12. Identify the incorrect statement regarding

the Cholas : .
(1) The Chola Empire was founded by
Parantak.a-1.
(2) Parantaka-I took the title
"Maduraikondavan".
(3) Rajaraja-I conquered the Maldive islands.
(4) Rajendra-I built Gangaikonda
Cholapuram.
 (

13. Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi was built

by:
(1) Iltutmish
(2)
Qutb-ud-din Aibak
(3)
Ala-ud-din Khalji
(4) Ghiyasuddin Tulghl aq

14.
vTh··e Persian t rave 11 er Abdur Razzaq
.
visited
1Jayanagara in the reign of:
(1) Harihara-I
(2) Devaraya-I
(3) Devaraya-II
15. (4) Krishnadevaraya

Match the following :

List-I List-II
(Bhakti Saint) (Area of
the
A. Vallabhacharya movement)

B. Tulsidas I. Uttar Pradesh

IL Gujarat
C. Sri Chaitanya
D. Tukaram III. Bengal
IV. Maharashtra
Choose the correct answer using the codes
given below :
B C D
A
II III IV
(1) I
IV III
(2) II I
III IV
(3) II I
I II
(4) III IV
16. Consider the following statements on Sher
Shah's land revenue administration :
I. Land was classified into three categories
on the basis of produce from the land.
II. Land was measured according to a
uniform system.
III. % of the produce was collected as tax.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) I, II and III
 17. Consider the following Mughal structures :

I. Tomb of Salim Chishti

II. Buland Darwaza

III. Tomb ofHumayuu

IV. Jami Masjid

Which of the above buildings were constructed

during the reign of Akbar ?

( 1) II and III only

(2) II, Ill and IV

(3) I, II and III

(4) I, II, III and IV

18. Match the following :

List-I List-II
(Name of the (Position.of the
Ruler) Ruler)
A. Husain Ali I. One of the Saiyid
Khan brothers
B. Murshid Quli II. The ruler of
Khan Bengal
C. Chin Qilich III. The Nizam of
Khan Hyderabad
IV. The Nawab of.
D. Safdar Jung
Awad

Choose the correct answer using the codes

given
below:

A B C D

(1) I II III IV
•
(2) II I IV III

(3) II I III IV

(4) IV III II I
 ( I

19. Match the foll ow1•

ng'
List-II
List-I . (Event/
(Kakatiya Contribution)
ruler) I. Shifting the
capital from
A. Rudradeva Anamakonda to
Orugallu
(Warangal)
II. Thousand Pillar
Temple was built
B. Ganapatideva III. Malik Kafur's
expedition
C. Rudramadevi IV. Marco Polo's visit
to Coastal
D. Prataparudradeva Andhra
Cgi.hvoeonsebeltohwe : c orrect an aswer using the
code8

A B C D

(1) I (2) n III IV

II I IV III

(3) IV III II I

(4) III IV 1 I

Identify the correct chronology of Later

20.
Mughals:
(1 Bahadur Shah > Farrukh Siyar >
ahandar Shah > Muhammad Shah >
sah Alam-I
( Bahadur Shah > Jahandar Shah.>
Muhammad Shah > Farrukh Siyar ?

shah Alam-I
cg Bahadur Shah > Jahandar Sha ?
plh Siyar > Muhammad Sha??
shah Alam-I
ahandar Shah'>
parrukh Siyar ? _ Shah Alam-II >
(4)
Muhammad Sha"
B%hadur Shah
 ( 1
21. In Shivaji's admt:g,
nistration, Dabir was ;
(1) An officer responsible for intelligence,
Posts and household affairs
(2) The in-charge of justice and charitable
grants

(3) The Correspondent to the king

(4) The Master of Ceremonies and helped
the king in foreign affairs

22. Identify the correct chronology of

establishment of French settlements :
(1) Surat > Pondicherry > Yanam > Mahe >
Karaikal
(2) Pondicherry > Yanam > Mahe >
Karaikal > Surat. '

(3) Surat > Pondicherry > Mahe > Karaikal

> Yanam

(4) Pondicherry > Mahe > Karaikal > Surat

> Yanam ..
·.
23. Consider the following Indian states :
I. Awadh
II. Jhansi
III. Satara
IV. Nagpur
V Sindh
· ve states were annexed by the
W h i c h o f t he a ?""
B r it i s h d u e ,to or Doctrine of
t e pon1c
La pse ?
.
(1) I, II, III and V
(2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) II, III, IV and V
24, ify the wrong ma itching of poets and
d·
Identi +e 18century :
their t languages ;in the
(l) Tayumanavar·· Tamil
(2) Warri· s Punjabi
Shah:.
(3) Kunchan Namb.1 ar •. Malayalam
(4) Dayaram : Marathi
 Consider the following statements on the
contributions of Pandit Ishwar Chandra
Vidyasagar :
I. His great contribution was for the
upliftment of women in India.
II. He organized a
powerful movement for
the enactment of Widow Remarriage
Act.

III. To propagate his social ideas he

published Sambad Kaumudi, a Bengali
weekly newspaper.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and
III
(4) I, II and III·

26. Which of the following statements IS

incorrect on William Bentinck's reforms ?
(1) Introduction of a new land revenue·
system in the North-Western Province.
(2) Abolition of 'Sati'
(3) Eradication of female infanticide
(4) Establishment of universities for the
first time,

27. Consider the following events :

I. Swadeshi Movement

II. Surat Split

III. Lucknow Pact
IV. Home Rule Movement.
Which of the above main events took place
during the extremist phase ?
(1) I, II and III
(2) I and II only
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV
 ( I

Consider the fol .:

ow Ing events :
I. Visit ofS1; mon C . .
ommi ssi on to India
II. Purna Swa
session a) resolution at Lahore

III. Launch of Dandi March

Which of the above .:
during the tenu Bai events took place
re of Lord Irwin ?
(1) IandII.

(2) I and III

(3) II and III

(4) I, II and III

29. Consider the following Revoluti10nar1:

es : I. Bhagat Singh

II. Sachindra Nath Sanyal

III. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee

IV. Ram Prasad Bismil

V. Chandra Shekhar
Azad
Who among the above founded 'Hindustan
Republican Association' in 1924?

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, Ill and IV

(3) II, III, IV and V

(4) I, II, III and IV

80. Which of the following is wrongly matched

regarding 'Praja
Manda1ls?
(1) Vijay Singh Pathik : Rajasthan
Balwant Rai Mehta : Madhya Pradesh
(2)
.,,~wala : Punjab
(3) Sewa Singh Thm
Das
:
Oris
s
(4 ) Sarangacdh uar
 @ S t" :
Part B
'tution, Polity, Social Justice and
t Internati:. om al Re'ellati: ons
Con st

Which of the following statement/statements

91.
is/are valid regarding the office of the 'Whip ?
' -------···----
I. Although not mentioned in the
Constitution of India, the office of
the .

'Whip' has however been incorporated in

...
- .
-
the Rules of· the House by the
'Leaders and Chief Whips of Recognised
Parties and Groups in Parliament
(Facilities) Act, 1998.

II. The role of the Chief Whip of the

government party in the Lok Sabha is
served by the Minister of State for
Parliamentary Affairs.

III. All political parties - whether ruling

or opposition, will have their own Whips
in
the Parliament.

IV. The Chief Whip is not responsible to the

leader of the House but is. responsible
only to the leader of the party that has
appointed him/her to the office of Chief
Whip.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:

(1) I and IV

(2) Only III

(3) II and III

(4) II and IV
 ( l

32. In the context of • . ,

· stinctions existing between
a Public BIII
an a Private Bill, select the
statement/statements that;y. 1; A
' a s/are valis :
t

I. A Private Bill which has been

introduced by a Member of Parliament

sitting in the opposition and which has

been approved by the House will have t

be referred to the law department for
consultation.
II.
A Public Bill is always introduced in the

Parliament by the Minister or a member

of the government party.
III. A Private Bill will not reflect the policy I

of the government but upon its approval

by the House, a Private Bill would have
I
reflected the policy of the government.

IV. Public Bills and Private Bills, regardless

of the differences between them, are
governed by the same general procedure,
and are required to be passed through

the same stages in the House.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below :

( 1) II and III

(2) I, III and IV "

(3) Only I »

(4) Only IV .,
 Whi:c.Jn, of the following State Bill/Bills will
99.
have to be mandatorily reserved for the
president's consideration ?

I. A Bill that proposes to give effect

to certain Directive Principles of

State
Policy.

II. A Bill requiring prior Presidential

sanction but which was however not

obtained under Article 304.

III. A Bill that attracts the provisions of

Article 288.

IV. A Bill seeking to operate a provision

that belongs to one of the Concurrent

List entries, but· which is however

repugnant to any Union law.

,--.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:
.)

(1) I and IV

(2) I, II and IV
(3) Only III .

(4) I and III

34. Consider th
· e following statements
in
connection with t ..d
e office of Comptroller an
Auditor General of India (CA@.

I. CAG can be removed by the President

only in accordance with the procedure
mentioned in the Constitution but this
does not mean that the CAG can be
impeached from office in the same

manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

II. Some public corporations are audited

exclusively by private professional
auditors, and the CAG may have
no
involvement at all.
III . The CAG can conduct legal, regulatory

and propriety audit but not performance

audit.

IV. The Consti· of India has not

tution
specified any criterion for

appo1·tment of CAG.

Which of the above (4)

II and
is/are valid ? IV

(1) I and Ill

(2) Only IV

(3) II and III

statement/statements
 (1€
35. In
n with the (
conn t i
ect o
(GST) 0, "ioods and Services Tax
ouncil,
which o1 ¢
the
statement/stat
ements is/are valid ?

I. The GST Council was established as a

Statutory body, but it was later turned
into a Constitutional federal body by an
amendment of the Constitution.

II. The proceedings of the GST Council will

be invalidated in the eventuality of any
defect in the appointment of a person as
a member of the Council.

III. In the event of any dispute between

more than two states over GST issues,
the GST Council has to refer the matter
to be adjudicated by the Public
Accounts Committee of the Parliament.

TV. The GST Council is required to make

ations to the Centre and the
recom Olend
. the threshold limit of turnover
States on
. goods and services may be
below wlcn
h
exempted from GST.
the codes
answer using
Select the corr'
given below

1I and II
(1)

1and IV
(2

(3)
only IV

orly I
(4)
4
36. Consider th
e following statements with
reference to the EI
ection Commission of India :
«.

I.
The Constitution of India has debarred
the retiring EIes6.
ecton ~.
Commissione
from any further appointment by
the government.

II. In 'Anoop Baranwal Case' (2023), the

Supreme Court has directed the
Government to. treat the Regional
Commissioners on par with the Election
Commissioners .(other than the Chief
Election Commissioner), as far as
removal from office is concerned.

III. Since its inception, the Election

Commission had functioned as a·
multi-member body.

IV. The power of superintendence, direction

and control of elections · to the office· of

Vi.·ce-Pr'esl'dent of India is vested in the

Election Commission.
ove statement/statements
Which of the ab

is/are valid ?

(1) II and III

(2) Only IV

(3) Only II

44) I, II and IV
37.
I the context of Centre -- State Relations,

which of the following statement/statements

are valid?

I. Punchhi Commission had

recommended that the procedure that

is followed for the removal of President
should also be applicable for the
impeachment of Governors as well.

II. The law that is made by the Parliament

with respect to any matter in the State

>
I"
List in relation to the State in which
President's rule is imposed, cannot be

re-enacted by the State Legislature after

the President's rule is ended.

III. The Sarkaria Commission was not the

first to recommend the establishment of

an Inter-State Council.

IV. Only the Lok Sabha can pass a

resolution declaring that it is necessary d

.
1n the national interest that the
. i
Parliament should make laws with
respect to Goods and Services Tax.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

(1) Only III

(2) I and III

(3) II, III and IV

(4) I, III and IV

 gs. Consider e, (2
connection ""following
t
(% •

revenues ,, "ith [[_statements in

I. ·,'ween ts e, 'tribution of tax
,"?
ev
A ,
proceeds
ied OD taxes
'¢""
~ u
and te states :
' Cehlarges that are
r
e4
ticle 2$g Re duties referred to in
Constituu%,""" Article 270 of the
betweeen the ,of India, ' wouldd be
I
'
II. shared Article 26g"re and the
States.
Constitueo, ~""" Article 272 or
the
by same o 1
itIn;dia Cons t ere both repealed
III. Tax on the s.,""al Amendment Act.
levied by t
States. IO
' petroleum crude is
entre but collected by the
IV. The net proceeds f
are falling ~_ tax categories that
onsus%%~;"","tee 2so or ae
of the Consol;a.
O 1
'a, do not form a part
Which of th ated Fund of India.
.i s/are e above st Uatement/statements
valid?
(1) II and IV
(3) Only III (2) Only IV
39. Which of the foll . (4) I and III
• sf . owrng statement/statements
I are correct in relation to the Human Rights
C ommissions in India?
I. The role to undertake functions relating
to human rights in the Union Territory
of Ladakh may be conferred upon a
State Human Rights Commission by the
Central Government.
II. Only 2 persons can be appointed as
members of the National Human Rights
Commission under the category of
possessing knowledge or practical
experience with respect to human rights.
III. The President can remove the
Chairperson of the State Human Rights
Commission on the ground of, proved
misbehaviour. However, the President
has to seek the opinion of the Supreme
Court in this matter.
1V. The National Huma,_Rights
ission is not empowere o 1nqmre
Cintoom m y matter after thhe expi: ry of f two
in1 a a h;h h
sears iron» a»e g t ,";,"!
"","·t
umanti·ng
a tw n
o; rg '8 18
const
viol t iu' itted,
r

ave been comm e,

h
d t answer tl he codes
orreC usi: ng
c
given below 2) III and IV
(1) None (4) I, II and III
(3) Only IV
40. Which of the following statement/statements
can be attributed correctly to the exercise of
Delimitation ?

I. The principle of 'one man, one vote'

reiterates the need fo t,
· or te exercise of
Delimitation.

II. The Government of India can set up a

Delimitation Commission for the
purpose of
delimitation of
Parliamentary
and Assembly
Constituencies in a select few States or
UTs.

III. The Delimitation Commission can only

recommend the re-delimitation of
territorial Parliamentary and Assembly
Constituencies but cannot recommend
on the reservation of seats for the
·

Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

IV. The Nodal Ministry for the Delimitation

Commission of India is the Ministry of
Law and Justice.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below :

(1) I, II and IV
(2) IT and III

(3) Only IV
. ~ .....

.·:
(4) I III and IV
'
I. Consider the
to India's p,
f, ,
ollowing st
atements with regard
(Zs

oreign Pa ;
o /icy:
I.
India's Act E
ast Policy was originally
conceived as
ht an economic initiative but
ad later
extended into political,
strategic and
cultural dimensions.
II.
The 'Connect c
entral Asia Policy' has
been taken ¢
ITorward with the
institti .
utonalization of the 'India-Central
Asia Summ;+
1 mechanism.

III.
Under the 'Security and Growth for
All in the Region' (SAGAR) Policy,
the DRDO initiated the Marine and

Allied Interdisciplinary Training and

Research
Initiative (MAITRI) for the purpose of

establishing long-term collaboration

' with countries in the East Asian region.

IV. India's Think West Policy is an outreach

to the Western Industrialized nations
for strengthening of relations in areas
of

education and defence.

nts are valid ?

Which of the above stateme

(1) I and II

(2) 1, III and IV

(3) II and II
(4) III and IV
 GS/I' '

WTJ/c
• 1 of the following statement/statements
42. best describe the nature of security
c a n
c o n cerns/ In d i
for [ nd ia ?
developmenttss
I. The development of the Hambantota
Development Zone can be seen or viewed
as a policy of containment funded by
Pakistan.
II. India's support in building the
Chabahar port in Iran may serve as a
strategic act to balance
the Chinese-funded Gwadar port in
Yemen.
III. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is
an extension of the Economic and Social
Commission for Asia and the Pacific
(ESCAP) and serves as a platform for
maritime security.
IV. The Malabar Exercise is connected with
the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue
(QSD).
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
(1) OnlyIV (2) II and III
(3) None (4) . All
43. In the context of Central Government
programmes, which one of following
statement/statements is/are incorrect ?
I. The objective of Pradhan
Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday
Yojana (PM-AJAY) is aimed at reducing
poverty of the ST communities by
generating additional employment
opportunities.
II. Under the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi
Maan-dhan Yojana (PM-SYM), monthly
contribution . is payable by the
beneficiary, the State Government and
the Central Government.
III. Under the 'FutureSkills .Prime'
Programme, Centre for Development of
Advanced Computing (C-DAO) is the key
implementing agency.
IV. Mission Karmayogi comprises of eight
key pillars that are intended to create
functional and behavioural competencies
among the civil servants.
Select the answer using the codes given
below ;
(1) I and IV (2) I, II and III
(3) All (4) Only II
 In the contest (2l
«hnich or a» ~"the %~. :
islare vala% "lowing,"""mont or Budget
. aten
I. The App Int/statements
%, "

opr; .
automati t on p;
a i
IL.The p~""Pal eta" cares an
b Ysio n 'y,
ecome , 'ote.o
re-schede. 'effectua Account' has
the lase S of the , after the
ofF%, av of Fe,,,_"get cycle from
uaryy. ary to the first day
III. Amendment.
t n s to eith
;.ax can not be m, er rej¢Jct 3e or reduce a
nance Bil Oved in case of the
IV. The expend;t "7

C :h
onsolidated Rture
p, Charged on the
discussed. 'Hd of India can only be
Select the correct
given below: answer using the_ codes
(1) I and IV
(2) I and III
(3) Only II (0) Only1v

45. In connection with the veto power of the

Indian President, which one of the
following statement/statements is/are valid ?
I. The Indian President possesses
'Suspensive Veto' in the case of Money
Bills but not in the case of Finance Bills.
II. The Indian President can exercise
'Absolute Veto' with respect to the
Government Bills at all times.
The Indian President enjoys 'Pocket
III. ,·, arr;tel whereas the
American Veto' indefinitely • 'ified
Veto'. President possesses Quall
., :. f the veto power in being
IV. The objective _,_ Indian President
is conferred upon t e · of checks and
to ensure a systemthe office tthhe
of
f
balances betwe pie power of the
President and that 0
Parliament. using the codes
t answeT
Select the corre (3) III and
given below : IV
(1) Only III
(2) I, II and IV ()
Only II
 GS/1G/I .
With reference to the Ninth Schedule of
4 the constitution of India, consider the
following statements :
r. It was intended to protect Central and
State laws that are included in it from
judicial review on the ground of
violation of Fundamental rights.
II. The entries included in it are· not
restricted to the subject of land reforms
and abolition of the .zamindari system
alone.
III. Article 31B carries a retrospectiveeffect
but it has ceased to be operative after
the 'LR. Coelho Case' (2007).
IV. Theentries incorporated in it arely
on
done so, by the power of the Central
Government.
Which of the statements given above
are correct ?
(1) II and IV (2) I, II and IV
(3) II, III and IV (4) I and II

The 'Territory of India' and the 'Union

of India' are two. distinct and different
expressions due to which of the following
reason/reasons ?
I. The Union of India' includes just States
and Union Territories while the 'Territory
of India' includes in addition to States
and Union Territories, those territories
that may be acquired by the Government
of India at any future time as well. -
-d

II. The expression 'Union of India' . is

mentioned in the Constitution _ofIndia,
but the expression 'Territory of India' is
not found in the Constitution of India.
III. The First Schedule of the Constitution of
India is with reference to just the 'Union
of India' but not the 'Territory of India'.
IV. The Union Territories are covered by the
expression 'Territory of India' and not by
the expression Union of India'.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(1) Only I (2) Only IV
(3) I and IV (4) I, II and III
%
] With reference to Indian ;%,1;] one of
18 olity, which
the following statements would yo accept as
appropriate ideas referring to 'Equate?

I. The primacy of equality is safeguarded,

defined and enforced by the courts of law

rather than by the Constitution

as
conceptualized by A.V. Di%

II. Article 14 of the Constitution of India

constitutes only the concept of Equality
before the law' but does not mention
the

concept of 'Equal Protection of Laws'.

III . Article 194 and Article 361A of the

Constitution of India are indicative of
the fact that equality in India is
not
absolute.

IV. The theory of equality includes

distinction of menit but not

distinction

on account of hereudliitaary titles or nobility

as propounded bY the Balaji Raghavan
Case (1995).

Select the correct answer

given below :
(1) III and IV using the codes

(2) I and III

(3) II and III

(4) I and IV
49. Which of the following statement/statements
is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental
Duties?
I. Fundamental Duties are confined to just
the citizens of India with the exception
of Article 51A(), which is also applicable
to foreigners that are resident in India.
II. The Verma Committee on Fundamental
Duties of the Citizens (1999) had
recommended the implementation of
the Fundamental Duties irrespective of
the existence of legal provisions.
III. In 'Kesavananda Bharati' Case (1973),
the Supreme Court of India held that
the Fundamental Duties may be usedto
decide the constitutionality of laws
th~t are otherwise ambiguous to
interpret.
IV. The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee
had recommended for penalties_to
be
considered in the eventuality of
non-compliance of any of the
Fundamental Duties.
Select the correct given answer using the codes
below :
(1) Ill and IV '«) I and II
(3) Only IV (4) II and IV
50. With regards to Directive Principles of State
Policy, what is the correct chronological order
in which the following additions/changes were
incorporated into the Constitution of India
through amendments ?
I. The adding of a second aspect relating
to
Article 38.
II. The changing of the subject-matter
of
Article 45.
III. The adding of Article
43B.
IV, The adding of Article
48A.

Select the correct answer using the

codes given below :
(1) I, III, IV, II
(2) IV, I, II, III
(3) IV, II, I, III
(4) I, IV, II, III
 p•
I
Consider the foll i: - \ ,,

sJ • tow ng
The 25 c%, ,_Statements : 51
(1971):i. nsertsedtiatutio na Amendment Act
fi,r, st pr« "OYi·s..:i, on A"tbeil]e 31C, whose
wasneaw.
[" preme co~"""red as ivaa»
arati Case (197," the Keshavananda
II.The Supreme c
Case (198 0) con·osuiart in M;Iinerva Mills
th I
the s Cope of t) ered the e extensi: on of
Article 31C as ~~,,,',
second provision of
III. The Supreme _"lid as well.
ourt in th, M;
C Jase (1980) has ' nerva
(i Mills
importance of • considered the
between Fund armony and balance
Directive Phi~_;'Rental Rights and
IV Th p es.
. . to ethe present ter r
Fundar in .
' retation with respect
p i m e ntal d Di
r inci ples is th e anc rective
s,

Rights i

principle th. ' Same reiteration of

the
the Suprem
D
"s first propounded by
ourt in the Cham:
k orairajan case (1951).
%

apaan
~ch_s/of t?e statement/statements given·
ave is 'are incorrect ?
(1) III and IV . (2) II, III and IV
(3) I, II andIV (4) Only III
52. With reference to the procedure for]
Amendment of the Constitution, consider the
following statements :
I. A private member of the House of the
Parliament can introduce the. Bill
for amendment of the Constitution only
after
the prior permission of the President.
II. Article 368 of the Constitution of India
provides for three types of amendments
• simple majority, special majority
and
ratification of half of the States by a
simple majority.
III. For amendments that require ratification
of half the States by a simple majority, it
is not necessary that all the State
Legislatures must take action on the Bill.
IV. The State Legislatures can pass
a resolution requesting the Parliament
to amend Article 368 in the same manner,
as rt ld be done for the creation
or
ix cou : C il ·
abolition of Legislative Jouncils in the
States. t/stater ents '
 Which of the statement/statements gven
above is/are correct' ,) I, III and IV
(1) II and IV' (4) Only III»
I (3), I and II
i
±
53.
Consia
Bast."Se;
I. T,
°vet,["""wine
mi

e doe, or0,,Const, , '

~
about the
13

bee, , 'Tine ¢ 'Ution:

~"ieo,, "the 1..
II. p,Tes
'hara~,""""atea~"""
anA%
Stets'
't he o ·
At ofP ; 'Onstitutio n
3 08
ently th c r tainent
• te D. @rliament
of th% "
amena Constitg,, under Article
w'it',out Part or
0on of Id;
can
any a
g,
the co,~"""ting a«""; Consutauon
II. Stitution. basic Structure' of
Parliamene. i..

•Const; ''utionS :.
limited
Power to amend the
as i·
°gy al s o
IS
$,
tructure
IV. The g, of
," element of the
the Constitution.
p. ?preme c
adma Prasa
that the m. a"r
,,e has declared
in the 'Kumar
(1992)
state' , date to build a 'welfare
s an element f the h
Structure 'of the c, o 'Basic
e 'onstitution
Wh·ich of the statements .
correct ? given above are

(1) I, ll and III

+(2) II, III and IV
(3) II and III · «
'
+(4) II and IV

Which of the following statement is

correct regarding Parliamentary Privileges ?
(1) Parliamentary Privileges are the
privileges that are enjoyed collectively
by each House of the Parliament, and
not by the Members individually.

(2) Only Members can be punished for

contempt by reprimand and admonition
but not outsiders.
The phrase 'Breach of Privilege' has
(3)
wider implications than the 'Contempt
of the House'.

(4)
The Members cannot be arrested during
the session of Parliament but
this privilege is available only in civil
cases
and not
in
criminal
cases or
preventi
ve
d
e
t
e
n
t
i
o
n
c
a
s
e
6
.
 65, Th e e q u al status of the
k S :b l " s bl ·t·l1 tl1e
E
R · · y iai ha w
"_"ha can be describead by whieh or the
following statement/statements ?
I. Introduction and passage of Money Bills.
II. Consideration of the CAG's report.
III. Initiating the removal of the
Vice-President.
IV. Approval of proclamation of all the
three types of emergencies by the
President.
Select the correct .
:.
gi ven cl answer using the codes
below:
-(D) I, III and Iv
(2) II and IV
«(3) AIL
(4) Only II •

56. Which of the following source/sources ofl

revenue qualifies/qualify for being given to the
Panchayats ?
I. The tax proceeds that are assigned to
the States from the Centre may be again
re-distributed to the Panchayats as
recommended by the Central Finance
Commission.
II. Loans from the State Government.
III. Under Article 243-I of the Constitution
of India, the State Government is
empowered to devolve its own funds to
the Panchayats even in the absence of
the State Finance Commission's
recommendations.
IV. Internal Resource Generation is
facilitated only in the case of
Panchayats situated in Scheduled
Areas as per the Fifth Schedule.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
(1) I, II and III
(2) (3) (4)
II and IV
•
Only II
None
57. Consider th
Reason ( following A
and choose (j,, Sertion (A)
and,57.
e correct4
Assertion (A). Code:
In connect;1on
collection,
b twtl h thoi
" he Panel own resource
aret etter placed th laayats at the village level
I ntermed i q t. n the p 'anchayats at the
l a t e and
th
Reason (R). e District levels.
The
d
Gram p.,
.:
'
'a n chayats
h
omai n where a sj;', ve their own tax
depend only on ta_" other two_tiers
have to
for internal ~~ ls, fees and non-tax revenue
esourcegeneration. •
Code:
(1) Both . (A) and CR) are t rue, and (R)
expllains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does
not explain (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

58. In connection with the lapsing of Bills, which

of the following statement/statements is/are 51
valid ?
I. If the Lok Sabha has passed the Bill, but
if the Bill has still not been discussed in
the Rajya Sabha, then such a Bill does
not lapse.
Ii. A Bill returned by the President for
reconsideration of the Houses will not
lapse. However, the Lok Sabha should
not have been dissolved by the time the
Bill is returned.
III. A Bill that is passed by both the Houses
but pending for President's assent will
not lapse.
IV. A Bill that is pending in the Rajya
Sabha but which has not been passed by
the Lok Sabha will also lapse.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
(1) Only III , (2) I, III and IV
(3) II and IV (4) None
 Which of the follow;
$! ;hare :. 'Ing
statement/statements
1S ncorrect regard;· ]
Commission of India ting the 1aw
I. It is a non-constit :, +,:%,
body. UUutional quasi judicia

II.
?tsne ~f _its functions is to communicate
opmmon to the P» ·id .
relating tc I Tesident on subj ects
g o legal administration.
III. Its reports are not submitted to the
Parliament.
IV. It has no su ..
o motu dec i on power to
undertake research by itself.
Select the answer using the codes given
below: %'

(1) II and III

(2) Only III
(3) All
(4) I, II and IV

60. Which of the following statement/statements

is/are valid with respect to the Preamble of the
Indian Constitution?

I. The term 'democratic' as used in the

Preamble is a mix of British Fabian
Socialism and American Populism.

II. The term 'Republic' in the Preamble

indicates that India has an elected head,
called the Prime Minister.

III. The 'Liberty' expressed in the Preamble

is neither absolute nor qualified.

IV. The term 'Fraternity' as used by the

Preamble, originally denoted the dignity
of the individual only.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
(1) Only I
(2) II and III
(3) Only IV
(4) None •
 . Part c , .., ,
Indian and Andh
ra Prad
Plannin:sh Economy nnd
61. In recent ti1mes
reaffirmed • many lear. '
Eon»s. ;";}?
,sos~i",goes have
statements th or the Indian
the f
s tatemen t s
reason/ can _ llowing
reas e
growth
I.
°
t s
for Indias ".the best
Projected high
. E;trong rPT» vate F;
II penditure (PFok " C onsumption
. Government's
c: api tal shift of f
3
{Ocus from large
expendit
investment ure towards private
III. Increase in d
raffic along with
traffic aIr passenger
volume of
(FMg
Fas~,""" reduction in the
Hoving Consumer Goods

IV. Fading of the El Nino oscillation

and. better Rabi crop prospects
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below : ·
(1) I and IV (2) II and III
(3) I, III and IV (4) Only IV
With regard to the
progress of Digital
62. Payments in India, which of the following
statement/statements is/are valid ?
Promotion of Digital Payments has been
I. transferred from the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology
(MeitY) to the Department of Financial
Services.
a.RUPI is an institution-based voucher
II. management system instead of being
person and purpose specific.
HI. 'Hello! UPI' is an AI voice-enabled
a
payment feature built by consortium of
private sponsored startups recognised DY
the NPCI
• ·on us x aaareE, ""};"i;
remote areas by enabling 0El"

ayments. swer using the cod es

P t an
Select the corre
given below (2) III and IV
(1 I, III and IV (4) I and IV
(3) Only IHI
 t w

• Tourism in India h
service sub-sector. a~~rned out to be a key
statements are va1;4 "h of the following
sector in India?2 regarding the Tourism
I. NID HI is a t l

II.
meant r,
Hospitality a"~"ng
""logy-driven

The Government :vel industry.

services to

India a on as resolved to make

e tr:lli
economy by
international i
gt,"_Usp tourism
' with 100 million
nves t ors
III. The Hotel Occur
rapidly increaPancy Rate has
been rise in
consistent
+, g alongside a
average dail
revenue per available Hy
:.». · 'a1lal le room.
IV. India's Services Pu . '
Index (PMD) a phasing
Managers'
zone. ee in the expanding
n
Select the correct answer us : g th e codes
given : m
() AIF (2) I, II and IV
(3) II, III and IV (4) I and IV

L The Interim Union Budget (FY25) h

proposed initiatives to boost India's G%
%i Energy Sector. Which of the
following proposals are connected with
developing India's Green Energy?
I. Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for
utilizing solar energy project•s
II. To set up .coal gasification and.
liquefaction capacity of 100MT by 2030
III. Optional blending of Compressed Bio
Gas (CBG) in Compressed Natural Gas
, .. (CNG) for transport and Piped Natural
1 .. IV. Gas (PNG) for domestic purposes
Provision of financial assistance
for procurement of biomass
aggregation
machinery .
• Setting up of a payment security system
• for expanding the bio-manufacturing
• Se] system in the counrY
r using the codes
• elect the correct ansWe
given below :
(2) II and IV
'ID) I, II, III and vVV
 dV
40) j, III IV an.
I

(4)
andV'
,h..
65. of the fooll owm: g t
Which.
esc. ri, bed as :hhaving res sIttatem. ent can best be
d
ndia's e xterrr nal sector?Sulted in th he recovery '
I d
(l) . in India'
Mod erati· on
export growth ;, a's merchandis
,,
sh arp declin in , FY ccompanied by?
a24.
line in India's
import gro wt, merchandiS

(2) Increasin g commodit with

escalating global d prices
y
eman d

(3) Increase in merchandise exports a!

isem: po rts followed b by a decline in }
vi

ervices receipts

Growth in output outpacing the

(4)
orl
we ·ld
world trade volume

g6. Consider the following Assertion G ""

Reason () and choose the correct cod°

Assertion (A):
pa reforms directed towards a'simple 5
stem will result in positive product"

gains.

,~~,
Re a s o n (>

~~e
boost GDP growth and
by removing deadweish co"°"
~A~%e distortions in resource alo"

Code'~0 ) and ) are true and (

(1)
(3) (4)

(2)
e}plains:'
~~4 (A) and ) are
true, but does

~a explain
%s true, but 3is
"""

% raise,
bat«9"°
 , Which of the followin
is/are valid & statement/statements
1 regarding th :. 1
Infrastructu e Pi e Nat ona
r 3j;. h i
Peine (NIP) 2
I. NIP includes onl1y :.£
projects but econo mi c infrastructure
°.

projects. not social infrastructure

II. NIP is aimed to £

_projects alo ocus on key greenfield
excluaea r~,"j,e NIP's coverage
Pop6el projects are
III. NIP aims to ofre :.
in India's ;~.Investment opportunities
1n1 astruct
attract investmc _Uure sector, and to
ents into India
IV. India Investment Grid
has ceased « id (G) as a
and
· sted
1nstea
to facilitate the NIP
Invest
facilitating NIP.
Indi
a'
-
is presently
Select the corr·
answer using the codes
ect
given below :
(D) I,IIandIII,
(2) Only III
(3) III and IV• (4)
9
I, II and IV

&. Consider the following Assertion (A) and

Reason (R) and choose the correct code :
Assertion (A) :
Majority of the reported transactions on
e-NAM are intra-mandi instead of inter•
mandi and inter-state.
Reason (R):
The Agricultural Produce and
Livestock Marketing (APLM) Act, 2017
provides for progressive agricultural
marketing reforms that include greater
focus on intra-mandi
transactions.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
explains (A). •
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does
 not explain (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but CR) is true.

69. The gic obj' ecti
Prograstrate
amme ma Pebebcuvexeplaoi+f A Asset Mo loneti zati tin ''

0
(1) An in ; lained as:
iniitii ative
to
a ue oo'
investments ;m privat
lock the valu
u . . .
tilizing public gs.,_'"ctor assets PY
c or ca ·t I
(2) Invol ir
lic cense/lease
@Pa
v m g ar ind fini· te period
n,
government o an asset owned by th° t,

.
publi or a
p ri vate sector AH authority, t?
r entity.

(3) Fasasciltitating a n opportunity

e t o use new fi
owners . I
structures bby y utittill;iz_in'g
capitalfinanfreom?
private sector investors. '
€

mechanism
(4) Offering an alternative
the PPP model.

70. In connection with SEBI,

g1lowing statement/statements is/are valid'
which of "°
; SEBI exempted regulation°
,%frastructure Investment Tr$°
,1Ts) and Muncipal Bonds in or "
pa[litate more efficient infrastruc""°
r~%Reing through the capital marl
, spBI introduced the frame"or""
~inti misted large corpora"es "
~~~aatorily meet 25% of their fina
,~~~#ts through the issuance 0
~~r
requ

1II1.
%bt securii
%%creased the minjmu.""
~~toad investmentjno""" "
corp" ~,%estor responsi b il'i : s i

% n e o u ra6° '
~ ~%ro e»
Bi"""
' ~Lio»r«c,s~"swer using the
cods

$.et ge "
[sen be!""
o»
~.i"""
~an""
~~ o»"
 n1. Consider the following Assertion (A) and
eason () and choose the correct code :
Assertion
(A):

'India Stack' has enabled an online,

paperless and cashless digital access to
various public
and private services. This has reduced the cost
of conducting e-KYG
Reason (R)
•

India Stack consists of two interconnected

layers, and of these, the 'Payment Layer has
reduced the cost of conducting e-KYC.
Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)

explains (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)

does
not explain (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

~ Pick the correct sequence out of the

following sequences with regard to the
present prevailing inflation trends (n
percentages) in India :

(l) Food Inflation > Headline Inflation >

Core Inflation
(2) Headline Inflation > Food Inflation >
Core Inflation -

(3) (Foo d Innflaati1.on = Headline Inflation) ¢

Core Inflation
·'3 4R
.·:·{ - (4) Core Inflati. on
> Food
Inflation
Headline Inflation
 73. WLi: ch of tl
iare
1.
.,""""ow»t.
in cont~.~,,_" en enua t
«a
Cost-pus, _""ion w r, "a , tements
becon;, 'Plato, 'laton?
ng lllore cycle of
ndia. and n milk is

II. The B. Pronounced in

I · 1Ore

arat A
GoverFnment ha Atta :.::
'tiative of the
role in cc ~Played ,, T

m11. gt ""Waining»wit~,_"onsiderable
.
tail Inflate0, on -at inflation in In d i
I n1 a.
has
inthe boa,,_"Considerably increased
. 8n\mg f
increasing of
r- 2024 owing to
commod1t
IV. The Bh Y prices.
arat Dal initi .
extended to ia, ati ve has also been
Select th% 'Include moong dal.
.
gi ven answer using the codes
beloew:correct

(1) II and IV (2) I and III

(3) II, III and IV (4) Only II
I

74. Whichof the following

statement/statement° is/are valid in
connection with Enhance Access and
Service Excellence (EASE)

Reforms ?
ASE Reforms are governed by a board
I. f directors, who are heads of preml"
;ancial Institutions in Ind@
p SE Next programme had.just one(O
II. . ., ,e Common Reforms Agenda
priority e in customer
. ·ng exce llenc
m. i
Del ve""" ,teat enablementis one0"
ervi., C° ith ligi~ceptualized as par
(e four theme°

eAsE ~~.
JllS are 1.
czsna a ""

" f1
pie S" :g the codes
BFC° ~ answer
 orre
select t°
tven be"
only I
() ~I:
co) 1,Ia"
(3)
r %as"
(4 %sad'
 ; Which of the foll¢ ;, ~;gf
f. lowing feature/features is/are
correct regarding Stand-Up India Scheme ?
I. This scheme covers brownfield
enterprises along with
greenfield
enterprises.
II. Non-Individual enterprises are also
eligible to avail the benefit of this
scheme provided certain conditions
are
complied with.
III. :or drawal of Working Capital up to
l0 lakh, the same may be sanctioned
by way of Cash Credit Limit.
IV. Besides Primary Security, the loan
may be secured by a guarantee of
Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for
Stand-Up
India Loans (CGFSIL) as decided by
the banks.
Select the correct
ans given below : wer using code
(1) the s
II and IV
(2) I and III
(3) I, II and III
(4) Only IV
I
I6. Consider the following statements regarding
the RBIs Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) :
I. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
been publishing the RBI-DP! with 2021
as the base year to capture the extent of
digitisation of payments across the
country.
IT. The RBI-DPI consists of 6 broad
parameters that have in turn
sub-parameters.
III. There has been a constant increase
in the RBI-DPI since the time of
'its inception.
IV. 'Consumer Centricity'. is one of the
parameters in the RBI-DPI.
Which of the above
statement/statements is/are valid ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
II and IV
I

'

I
I

a
n
d

I
V

I
I
I

a
n
d

I
V
Only III
77. Whic. o f th e foll 1owm. g stat
h
qualifies/qualify (tement/statemen'
as valid
the banking r i connection wi"
%,_

mechanism in India ?

I. Increasing the c aslh Reserve Ratio

(CRR) will result i· n i• ncreasing credit

creation.
.

Ca.sh Reserve R Rati. o (.C_. RR) applies on!.

II.
to the new d eposi. t . b. . ase while t.

he Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio

(IC} specifically targets the new

borrow8

lending base.

I. .'Tenor Premium' is an import8?'

..
component in the c alculation of : •
Marginal Cost of Funds
.
based Lend '

Rate (MCL

~, Maia1 standing Facility 08-°

. s'. a lollg~teJ'lll policy ·rate and is
used d

gene!
8
~1
"
%er than he
t
'
R°•
, ~~ewer using the cod°

c""
s%1eet the
,ven be"
1aodI'
( (4

2
(3)
01111 Ill)'

only "
,an"
 n8. In the context f I%.
consider ,
u
9 Adia's fight against poverty,
l

the following statements

:
I. Us , : .
like the Global
Multidimensional
overty Index (MPI), the National
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPD
developed by NITI Aayog does not make
use of'Alkire-Foster' (AF) methodology.
II. Jbe.urban population witnessed a
larger ecline in poverty as compared
to the
rural population.
III. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package
(PMGKP) includes the coverage of food
grain entitlements.
IV. The Multidimensional Poverty Index
(MPD) is computed by adding the
incidence of multidimensional poverty
and the intensity of poverty. '
Which of the above statement/statements
is/are valid ?
(1) I and IV
(2) Only III
(3) I and III
(4) None are valid

T9. In connection with the Urban Infrastructure

Development Fund (UIDF), which of the
following statement/statements is/are valid ?
I. The fund will be established through
reserved bonds taken from the G-Sec
market.
II. The fund is to be exclusively.availed by
private agencies to create urban
infrastructure in Tier 2 and Tier 3 _cities.
III. Eligible activities for UIDF shall be
connected to the
1
Missions and
Programmes of the Ministry of Housing
& Urban Affairs (MoHUA).

IV. The fund will be collectively managed by

a cluster of Municipal Cooperative
Banks.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below :
(2) I, II and IV,
(1) Only III,
 (4) II and III
(3) II, III and IV·
80.
Wit
" "eard to ue st~~ (
In dia,
whicl "I Ecosystem in
of
the
"aemenstatements t.%

I.
National Isu ,
Extension Managen%~ Agricultural
(MANAGE)
entre will not be presiding o%,
0%
Selection process of the applications
eat are received under
Startup gri-Business Incubation
II. Programme.

Mentorship Advi. sory, Assistancael, :

.
ili· :e a' nd Growth ( (MAARG) Port
Resilience platform
s an exclusive . one- nein the
1s uiding startups in .
· tended for gm 11' ence (AI)
Ienm"
erging Aritificial Intellig
sector only.

III. rt In Fun d Scheme1

Seed
p dia rovi. fi.nancia
de
Sta uS) to P for c onducting
aims
(SISFS startups
ce to
assistan ,e trials.
f concep
'proof of (FS) for
Funds Schemcontri,~te to
IV.
Fun
Startups
o ~ 1" ~at
rnative nh SEBI.
l
~~sumen ~t Funds
var·1u' s Ate 3d wi;eh the
;et re
(AIF's) re8

wer using the codes

rect ans
the cor
sevle"n ~ow
g' ~1
1an ,

2)
1L, ~so'
~a1V
 11I an
(3)
only l
81. Consider the Fa1
e following Assertion (A) and
Reason (R) d s) •
ant choose the corr ect code :

Assertion
(A):

The Ne
ational Product measures all goods
and services that arise out of economic
activity, wheereas N: :.
ati onal Income is ttlhue
sum of all incomes as a result of the
economic activity. These two are
synonymous.

Reason (R):

The Production of goods and services is the

outcome of the use of capital and labour,

along with the raw materials, and this

automatically generates income.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)

explains (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does

not explain (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
82. Which or e, (4
. ne follow;
is/are ; . Ig state
val i d ment/statements
regard;.
and i Ung the pre ;;
Ssues in ee va l ng scenarios
0 , Connection with
rganisation (wT 5 'the World Trade

I. The 'P.eace Cla

Agree , use' » under the Bali
greement reiterat
natior ates that developing
%

ns must not
. · . exceed the 10% ceiling
1
umit
. for 'u lic Stockholding schemes
initiatives.
II. The 'Green Box' prohibits the use
of direct payments to producers which
are
not linked to production decisions. •
III. The 'Reduction Com
mitments' are
expressed in terms of ~""Total
Aggregate
. {t.
Measurement of Support"
which
' -
:, 5ludes all product-specific support and
1nc.u.
in one
non-product-specific
support
'5°

single figure. ·%>

that would normally be

Any support :
IV. ·Aber is not to be
· the Box',
laced in ·, 'f th1e 1

P 'Blue Box' even 1

d in the
place farmers to limit
mandates
support
productio
using the codes
t answeF
the corTe°
select
b eioW':
g·en

()
m and"'
(3)
1,
n and"'
okis
tad"
3. Consider the followinc
Reason (R), g Assertion (A) and['
and choose the correct code :
Assertion (A):

Coal washing
generati results in increased
1 o effice ;
investm e i ency and reduced
n
n t
washed Costs. However, the use
of coal in India is still limited.
Reason (R):
The limited establishm
may be attribute. lent of coal washeries
washing by ; t
the perception that coal
genera~a," resins the cost of electricity
';
plants · t , would adversely impact
the m erms of 'merit order'
scheduling.
C o de:
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and
()
explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and () are true, but CR)
does
not explain (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is
false.
(4) (A) is false, but () is
true.

Which of the following

statement/statements is/are valid
in·connection with Sustainable Development
Goals (SDGs) ?
I. Achieving Goal 10 will require an entire
reform of the financial system that
promotes equitable pay and decent
work
for young people.
II. NITI Aayog has developed the National
Indicator Framework (NIF) for
facilitating monitoring of SDGs in
India.
III. 'Mission LiFE' aims . to influence
government and industrial policy to
support both sustainable
consumption
and production.
1v. Te concept of
s}??","jzenshin embedded in
 Sustainalle evelopment Goal 4 (SDG
4) is a reference term that
indicates flexible citizenship rights
across countries. for the purpose of
facilitating better labour markets.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below I, II and IV
(2)
(1) AI] . (4) II and IV
(3) Only II
5. Which of the following stat
· statements are valid E
regarding Human Devoellopment, 2
I, Two countries with
the same l »] f
Cross Nati· revel o
ional Income (GNp) ,
but endi Per capita,
neumng with dn
de Ierent human
evelopment outco :.
· mes is indicative of the
importance ofgrowth
II. A count+._ over development.
nry's
· Score on the
Inequality-Adjusted H
Ir 1uman Development
ndex (IHDI) is not th
e same as its
Human Development Index (HDD) even
when there ·
J S no inequality among
people.
•
III. In Gender Development Index (GDD,
I ·•

values below 1 indicate higher

development for women than men.
IV. Planetary Pressures-adjusted Human
.'·.'
Development Index (PHDD) focuses on
''
intergenerational inequality just the
...
same way, as the Inequality-adjusted
Human Development Index (IHDD
focuses on intragenerational inequality.
V. According to the Human Development
Report 2021 - 22, a new
uncertainty complex is emerging, which
comprises of
three new concerns - planetary changes,
+

sweeping social transformations

and polarized societies.
Select the correct answer using the codes

given below :
(1) IV and V
(2) I, III and V
(3) II and III
''
.(4 I, II and IV
g. Which of t e fllo«~;
g st
(49

regarding the 'tements are

valid/E
Inter-,
Government rAndhra p 'entions of the
of Healthcare. Tadesh in the context

I. Telemedr:
cine fa;;
City · ,
A sh, s available in all
Yushman B
arat Health
a
centres (AB-1Hy and Wellness
Cs) to avail specialist
services th ~
ough district hub.
II. The Family Doe p
or 'rogramme has been
planned to
be implemented as a
standalone project without the need to
be integrated with Primary Health
Centres (PHCs).

III. Dr. YSR Aarogyasri Scheme has been

revamped, by increasing the income

limit from 25 lakh to 5 lakh per

annum per family.

IV. 'Aarogya Aasara' Scheme is intended to

post-operative sustenance
provide
with certain eligible
allowance

cons d·t·ons
.1
complied with.
t answer using the codes
Select the correc

given below

(1) Iand IV
(2) II, III and IV
(3) 1II and IV

(4)
1, III and IV
 In connection with transport
87. and
infrastructure in Andhra Pradesh, which of
the following statement/statements is/are
valid ?

I. Andhra Pradesh's first riverine project

has been proposed between Muktyala and
Madipadu on Krishna river.

II. The Bhogapuram Greenfield International

Airport had been started with a corpus

fund that is sourced from National

Investment and Infrastructure Fund

(NIIF).

III. Infrastructure investments In Andhra

Pradesh are strictly implemented only

with reference to strategic investments

like ports and industrial corridors, but not

with reference to community assets.

IV. Rail Over Bridges (ROBs) are being

developecd i. n Andhra Pradesh under the.

Setu Bandhan Scheme.

. using the codes

Select the co rrect answer
given below :

(1) I, II and III

(2) Only IV
e

(3) I and IV

(4) Only II
 w

gs. "hieh of the following statement%statements]%e

are incorrect regain 0a
Pradesh Industrial Pi%. 2op%_%,%

'To achieve a minimum contribution of

?"e by industry in the State (pp

I. To provide end-to-end facilitaon

2 weeks

III.
To envisage ten (10) priorities
accomplishment

IV. To focus on becomi ng.

. a 'Plug and Play
State' for investments

land allotment
V. Ensuring »ceipt
·5

~.

wti.thin a peri. o d · of 2 wee ks upon rec

of application

Selectt the · answer using the codes given

below:

(1) II, II·I an dv

(2) 1, II, III and V

(3) Only V

(4) 11I and IV

89. Which of the following statements are valid
in connection with Andhra Pradesh Green
Hydrogen and Green Ammonia Policy (2023) ?

I. The objective is to target Green Energy

production up to the capacity of 1 MPTA
(Million Tonnes Per Annum) or Green
Ammonia production up to the capacity
of
2·0 MTPA in the next five years.

II. New and Renewable Energy Development

Corporation of A.P. Ltd (NREDCAP)
shall act as a Nodal Agency under this
policy.

III. All the Ports in the State have

infrastructure for storing liquid nitrogen
which can then be utilized for storing
Green Hydrogen for exporting to other
countries.

IV. The Policy prohibits the production of

Green Hydrogen/Green Ammonia by
using Renewable Energy and/or
Biomass from Third-Party/Power
exchange.

Select the correct answer (

given below :
3
(1) II and III
)
(2) I and IV

I
, II and III (4) using the codes

III and IV
0.
Which of the tollowing
fol statement/statements g
is/are valid
regarding the socio-economic
% ,

aI
status of Andhra Pradesh ?

I.
Andhra Pradesh won the Best State
Award of ICAR --National Research'
Center for Banana (NRCB) for export
promotion.

II. Andhra Pradesh GSDP growth rate has!

been registering a decline in recent l'

times owing to repeated lower returns in;

certain sub-sectors of the Service Sector.
,

III. For the FY 2024 -- 25, the Revenue

Deficit is budgeted higher than the ·
Fiscal Deficit in terms of percentage of
Andhra Pradesh GSDP.

IV. The technology used by the Government

of Andhra Pradesh while conducting
resurvey of landholdings is referred to
as 'Continuously Operating Reference

Stations (CORS' technology.

answer using the codes
Select the correct
given below

(1) I and IV

(2) II and II

11, III and IV

(3)

Only II
(4)
 Part D
Geogr aphy
Following are the . t .
vol]cani. c nd rusive ] lane dfiforms 0
f
activity
features: an their characteristic
I. Batholiths Hu
- usually granite'ge mas: {igneous
£:
rocks, the crust.
layers of
: the deeper
II. .u

Phacoliths· La :
a dome-shag, igneous mounds with
II D s Upper surface.
II. ykes : Wall-Ai¢
by solidifyi, PS structures
developed
the- g almost perpendicular
to
e ground. "
IV. int
Sijjs •: The. near c onzontal bodies of
rusve igneous rocks.
Which of the a b ove are correctly matched ?
( 1) I, II and Ill
(2) I,II and IV
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

92. Consider the following statements :

I. Silicon and oxygen are common elements
in all types of feldspar and sodium
.
potassium, calcium, aluminium etc. are '
found in specific feldspar variety.
II. Almost one-fourth of the Earht's crust
is composed of feldspar and quartz.
.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(1) Statement I only
(2) Statement II only
(3) Both of them
(4) None of them

93. Identify the incorrect statement :

(1) Geomorphic processes bring about
changes in the configuration of
surf a c e o f theEarth. the
(2)
·-- ·-
(4)
(3)
Diastrophis
m and
volcanism_
are
endo
genic
geom
orph
ie pr
ocess
es.
The
endogenic
and exogenic
forces cause
physical
stresses and
chemical
actions on
earth
material.
Orogeny is
the
continental
building
p
r
o
c
e
s
s
.
l
94. Soil
rae~"""maton ts
I. rs. s co
Pa ntroll by the following
II. rent mate;-:
"" ri
ToPography
I.
Climate
Iv.
Biological activity
v. m.
4 1me
Which of t
(1) le above are
I, I and I active factors ?
+;

(2) I d
(3) @ncIII only
III and Iv
(4) I. only.
, II, III and IV
95. Match the
foll0w.:Ing·
List-I List-II
(Description
(Clouds
)
)
I. Milky appearance
A. Cirrus
II. Silky appearance
B. Cirrostratus
III. Cauliflower
C. Cirrocumulus structure
IV. Small globular
D. Cumulus masses
Choose the correct given answer using the codes
below:
.A B C D
(1) I II III IV
(2) II I IV III
(3) IV III II I
(4) III IV I II

6. Consider the following statements:

I. Doldrums are the strong winds that
have rapid surface movement.
The prevailing trade wind direction in
II. northern hemisphere is northwest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) Statement I only
(2) Statement II only
(3) Both of them '
(4) None of them
 97. Identify the incorrect statement
0nextra-tropical cyclones :
( 1) These develop in the . .
latitudes. mid and high
(2) They do not have a clear frc
(3) They affect a larg ontal system .
e area a d
the tropical cyclones. comparec to
(4) They can originate over the land ant d sea.

98. Consider the following:

I. Dry winter
season
II. °
N dry season
HI. Dry hot summer
IV. Dry arid very severe winter

fWeahtiuchresofoft @re not the characteristic

hMe eab;_ove
elierranean Climate ?
(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, III and IV

99. Guyot is :
(1) A mountainwith pointed summit
rising from the seafloor that does not
reach the surface of the ocean.
·
· (2) A deep valley sometimes found
cutting across the continental shelves
and slopes.
(3) A flat topped seamount showing the
evidence of gradual subsidence
through
stages.
(4) A low island found in the tropical
oceans
consisting of coral reefs surrounding a
central depression.

100. Consider the following

statements
I. In general, the terrigenous deposits are
derived from the land and are mainly
deposited on the continental shelves.
II, From the shore onwards, there is a
gradual increase in the coarseness of the
terrigenous deposits.
II. The muds, the finest materials, are the
terrigenous deposits.
IV. 'The colouring of the muds depends Upon
their chemical content.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1) I,II and III (2) II, III and
IV (3) I III and IV . (4) 1, II and
IV
' ,
 101. c onsider the f1 , (5
I. Th
state Great Ow ing
· p; 'aements:
forms a ift Valley :
II. Series of1 ' ni East Africa
. Most oft) es.
III. Dese lakes
. Lake Ma are fresh water lakes.
l
the Rii f Valley. s at th le southern end in
IV. the Lake Victo
e R;lift Vaalley,y. the lar 'Sest one, is a part of
Which of the ab 0 v e stateme
(1) are correct ?
I, II and II I - ent
t

C2) II, III and Iv

(3) I, II and IV
(4) I,III and Ii

102. Consider the follo •

wmgcountrie
I· Chile ·
II. Venezuela
Ill. Ecuador
IV. Peru
V. Colombia
Which of th. e above South Amern· can
countn: es h ave a Pacific coastline ?.
(1) I, II, III and IV t

(2) I, II, IV and V ,

(3) I, III, IV and V
(4) I, III and IV only

103. Identify the incorrect statement:

(1) Taiga is the largest land biome in the
world.

(2) This cold biome stretches across the

northern portion of North America,
Europe and Asia.

(3)
Within this biome, there is a narrow
range of temperatures between the
winter and summer seasons.

Precipitation in this biome is moderately

(4)
high throughout the year with snow
occurring during the winter months.
 ( 5
104. Which of the following statements regarding
Himalayas are correct ?

I. Himalayas are geologically young and

structurally fold mountains.
II. They are wide in Kashmir and narrow
in the North-eastern states.

III. The folds of Great

Himalayas are
asymmetrical in nature and their core is
composed of granite.

IV. The longitudinal valleys lying between

Greater and Lesser Himalayas are
known as Duns.

Selectbelow.
given the correct answer using the codes

(1) II, III and Iv

.

(2) I, II and II »,
(3) I, III and IV ; :
:
(4) I, II, Ill and IV '._,-.'. ..i.

--
'

105. Match the following Climhatic. regions of

India according to Koeppen's scheme:
List-I
List-II.
(Type of (Areas
Climate) )
A. Monsoon with I. . West coast of
short dry season India, south of
Goa
B. Monsoon with dry II. Coromandel coast
summer of Tamil Nadu
C. Monsoon with dry III. Most of
winter North-East India
D. Semi-arid Steppe IV. Northwestern
climate Gujarat
Choose the correct answer using the codes
given below :
 A B C D
(1) I II III IV.
(2) II I IV III
(3) III I IV II
(4) III IV I II
 Within India, G. .
largest catch, ''anga river basin has the
te correct
is
~d",[";""ya.
Anter oat, tonowig
ce in the decreasing order :
(1) Indus > B l
r-· ra uuaputra > Godavari >
rshna
I .
(2) Brahmaputra > Ind
. hn us > Godavari
Kr1S a
(3)
Indus > God :
Brahmaputra Vari > Krishna >
(4)
Brahmaputra > Indus > Krishna >
x Godavari

Peaty soils are one o f the major

· . soils of India.
Th ese are found i :
n
(I) the areas of low rainfall with
low
leaching activity. •

(2) the areas of high temperature and

high rainfall with intense leaching.
(3) the areas of heavy rainfall and
high humidity with good vegetation.
c

(4) the areas of semi-arid climate

with salinity.

108. In India, Sholas are :

( 1) Tro pical . forests found in the

. region
Bastar
(2) Tropical evergreen forests of Andaman
& Nicobar islands
. the
(3) Moist deciduous forests 1n
North-eastern states
(4) Temperate forests in the Anaimalai and
Palani hills ·

109. In Andhra Pradesh, Dharwar types of

rocks are found in :
(1) The Krishna basin,
(2) The Godavari delta region
 (3) The Kurnool region
(4) The Chittoor and Nellore region
}•
$"
 {~/ Match the following:
List-I List-II
(Wildlife (Endangered
Sanctuary in Species)
Andhra Pradesh)
A. Coringa I. Great Indian
Bustard
B. Gundla II. Jerdon's Courser
Brahmeswaram
C. Rollapadu III. Saltwater Crocodile
D. Sri IV . Ti ger
Lankamalleswara

Choose the correct answer using the

codes given below :
A B C D

(1) I II III IV

(2) II I IV III

: III I IV II .

III IV. I II

• Match the
following: List-II
(Region)
List-I
(Hunters/
Nomadic I. East Africa
tribes) II. Congo basin
A. Pygmies
III. Borneo
B. Masai
IV. Malaysia
C. Semangs
D. Punan

Choose the correct answer using the codes

given below :
(4)
A B (1) C III IV IV
IV
I II (2) I

II I

(3) III I
D IV III• II
II
 (6
Identify the :
lingui-stic:. diversitycorrect' statement on the
(1) , 'Y of India.
n 1961 census 13r
listed as ma¢j" 1652 languages were
(2) other tongues in India.
Kachchi and s; ~
langua Sindhi are Indo-European
ges. •
(3) A
ustric lan
tribal 8ages are spoken by the
groups in Jharkhand.
(4) Dardi is a Si TE
mo-' etan language.
113.
Match the following :
List-I
List-I
(Slash and
burn (Practising region) ,
agriculture)
A. Ladang I. Central America
B. Milpa II. Indonesia
C. Roca III. Central Africa
D. Masole
IV. Brazil
Choose the correct answer using
the codes
given below :

A B C D
(1) I II III IV
(2) II I IV III €

(3) III I IV II
(4) III IV I II

@ Following are the regions of Iron and Steel

industry in the world :
I
I. The Atlantic coast region : The United
States
II. The Ural region : Russia
III. The Ruhr region : Eastern Europe
IV. The North-eastern and Central parts
The United Kingdom
Which of the above are correctly matched ?
(1) I, II and III

(2) I, II and IV (3)

I, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV
 115. Trans-Siberian Railway runs between the 1
st;atoi
ns i: n Russia from :
( Moscow to Vladivostok
(2) Moscow to Khabarovsk
(3) St. Petersburg to Vladivostok ,
(4) St. Petersburg to Khabarovsk

@· Consider the following states bf India :

I. Punjab

II. Odisha

III. Haryana

IV. Tamil Nadu

Which of the above states have relatively high

level of groundwater utilization?
A

(1) I, II and III

r.·
"·
·-'
(2) I, II and IV o,{=
(3) I, III and IV

(4) I, II, III and IV '

117. Identify the incorrect statement on Wheat

crop cultivation in India :
(1) It is the second most important cereal

crop.
(2) It is a Rabi crop that requires a cool

growing season.
(3) It is chiefly grown in the Ganga-Satluj
plains.
(4) Black soil region of the Deccan is not
suitable for wheat cultivation.·
 ( 6
C onsider the f◄ .ll .

I.
~
O1owing il {
I. . o elds of India:
Digbot
Moran
II.
Kalol
IV.
Naharkatiya
Which of the abo% ,
Assam ? e oil fields are located in

(1) I, II and m1
(2) I, II and IV
(3) I, III and
IV.
(4) I, II, III and Iv

119. In India, most of the jute mills are located in

:
(1) Damodar basin
(2) Subarnarekha basin
(3) Hugli basin.
(4) Brahmaputra basin

120. Consider the following erstwhile districts of

Andhra Pradesh :
I. West Godavari

II. East Godavari

III. Visakhapatnam

IV. Srikakulam
In which of the above districts are coffee
plantations mainly existing in their agency
areas ?
(1) I, II and III

(2) II and III only

(3) 1, III and IV

(4) III and IV only •