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UBND HUYỆN PHÚC THỌ ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Năm học: 2020 – 2021


Môn: Tiếng Anh
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 150 phút (Không kể giao đề)
(Đề thi có 06 trang) (Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này và không được
sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu nào)
Điểm của bài thi Họ tên và chữ ký Số phách
Bằng số Bằng chữ Giám khảo số 1 Giám khảo số 2
……….…… ……………………… …………………………… ………….………………
A. LISTENING (2.5 pts)
I. You will hear someone talking to a group of students about a visit to an arts centre.
Listen and tick A, B or C for each question (1.25 pts).
1. There are still tickets for………….
A. The piano concert B. Twelfth night C. Spider and Rose
2. The coach will leave at 3.30 because………..
A. they don’t want to miss the show B. They want free time at the Arts centre
C. It’s a long journey to the Arts centre
3. You have to pay to see…………
A. the Russian ballet exhibition B. the Scottish jewellery
C. the South American photographs
4. You can buy clothes…………
A. on the first floor B. in the souvenir shop C. close to the Arts centre
5. Everyone should get back on the coach at ……….
A. 10.10 B. 10.15 C. 10.20
Your answers: 1. .............. 2. ............. 3. ............. 4. ............. 5. ...........
II. You will hear some information about an air museum. Listen and complete each
question with ONE number or word (1.25 pts).

Air Museum
Museum has : 140 planes
Museum is near village of (6)………………..
From village, get bus number: (7)………………...
Summer opening time:10 a.m to (8)…………….pm
Price of family ticket: £ (9)………………...
Day for plane trips: (10)…………………

Your answers 6. ..................................... 7. ....................................


8. ....................................... 9. .................................... 10. .....................................
B. PHONETICS (2.0 pts)
I. Choose one word of which the underlined part is pronounced differently from others
(1.0 pt)
11. A. village B. passage C. teenage D. message
12. A. question B. nation C. capture D. nature
13. A. chapter B. chemist C. christmas D. character
14. A. wandered B. embroidered C. raised D. laughed
Your answers: 11. ................ 12. ................ 13. ................ 14. ................

Đề thi HSG lớp 9 môn Tiếng Anh, năm học 2020-2021 Trang 1/6
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is placed differently from the others’. (1.0 pt)
15. A. authenticity B. cooperative C. metropolitan D. multicultural
16. A. fabulous B. skyscraper C. pottery D. determine
17. A. lantern B. downtown C. drawback D. custom
18. A. gather B. listen C. publish D. supply
Your answers: 15. ................ 16. ................ 17. ................ 18. ................
C. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (4.5 pts)
I. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences (2.5 pts)
19. That was a ................................ ceremony.
A. prepared-well B. prepare-well C. well-prepared D. well-prepare
20. The more important an exam is, ……………………...
A. the more you’ll get nervous B. the more nervous will you get
C. the most nervous you’ll be D. the more nervous you’ll get
21. She remembered …………………….……the gas before going out.
A. turn on B. turning on C. turn off D. turning off
22. Are you used ………………………to the left in England, Nam?
A. to drive B. to driving C. to be driven D. to drove
23. When I came in, the lesson ....................................
A. was teaching B. was taught C. was being taught D. taught
24. He climbed up the tree …………….… to pick the apples before the wind blew them off.
A. in order B. so that C. so D. for
25. I ……………… very well with my brother now, we never have any arguments.
A. go on B. carry on C. get on D. put on
26. I suppose you have change for 2 pounds, ………………?
A. do you B. don’t you C. do I D. did I
27. ………………….…tell me the way to the Museum of Fine Arts?
A. Excuse me, can you B. Sorry, but could you
C. Excuse me, should you D. Hey, do you think you can
28. It is raining dogs and cats outside. Don’t go out.
A. hardly B. slightly C. heavily D. slowly
Your 19. ............... 20. ............... 21. ............... 22. ............... 23. ...............
answers: 24. ............... 25. ............... 26. ............... 27. ................ 28. ..............
II. Complete the sentences with a suitable preposition (1.0 pts)
29. We should use cloth bags instead (29) plastic ones when going shopping.
30. I am going to the airport to see my sister (30). She’s leaving for Paris.
31. China is (31) far the most populated country in the world.
32. Do you think we can live (32) selling silk scarves as souvenirs?
Your answers 29……………. 30………… 31…………… 32…………….
. … .
III. Supply the appropriate form of the words in the brackets (1.0 pts)
33. On the Tet holiday, many Hanoians go to Dong Ho village to buy folk (33). (paint)
34. I do my shopping in the (34) shops, not in the city center. (neighbour)
35. The outdoor food markets in Hanoi are fun and (35). (afford)
36. Son Tung is (36) as a singer than as a musician. (know)
Your 33…………………………………. 34…………………………………..
answers 35..................................................... 36......................................................
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C. READING (6.5 pts)
I. Choose the best word (A,B,C or D) that best fits each space in the passage (2.0 pts)
The Vietnamese are now to be polite, hospitable and sensitive. They have a casual
and friendly (37). They regard friendship as being very important throughout one’s life.
They are always open to visit from friends. Drop-in visits are welcome. The Vietnamese are
very (38) to their family.
When they (39) you a gift, the Vietnamese will usually speak lightly about it. Even
though it is an expensive gift, they may pretend it is of no great monetary value.
(40) 4,000 years of civilization, the Vietnamese are proud people who like to recite to
a myth that they are descendants of an angel and a dragon.
If you happen to be in their homes at meal time, the Vietnamese will probably (41)
you to sit down and share whatever food is (42). Let them know that you enjoy their food is
one way to successfully (43) a better relationship with them.
When they invite you to their homes for a meal, celebration, or special occasion,
some (44) - usually food, fruits, chocolate or liquors – should be offered to the host’s
family.
37. A. manner B. feature C. culture D. tradition
38. A. closed B. closing C. close D. being closed
39. A. sell B. carry C. send D. offer
40. A. Of B. With C. At D. In
41. A. take B. require C. speak D. invite
42. A. available B. present C. good D. delicious
43. A. setting B. building C. taking D. being
44. A. offers B. invitations C. gifts D. situations
37. .................. 38. .................. 39. .................. 40. ..................
Your answers
41. .................. 42. .................. 43. .................. 44. ..................
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D (1.25 pts)
Saving the Environment: One Home at a Time
Pollution can be seen not only throughout the world, but also in our own homes. It
comes from household chemicals, the amount of water people use and the waste people
produce and throw away. What can be done to stop this pollution? Surprisingly, a person
can help save the environment by doing simple things.
First, we need to recycle, which allows products to be used over and over again.
Recycling can also reduce the number of trees cut down to produce paper products. It takes
very little effort. It is not hard to place plastic and glass bottles, aluminum cans and paper in
a bin. Anyone can do it.
Second, we need to watch the amount of water used at home. It can be conserved by
taking short showers instead of baths, repairing leaky faucets, using the dishwasher or
washing machine only when fully loaded, or simply turning the faucet off while brushing
your teeth.
Third, we need to reduce waste. We need to recycle whenever possible, but should
also try to use this waste effectively. For example, grass clippings and food scraps can be
made into compost for plants. The average person produces 4.3 pounds of waste every day,
but we can reduce that amount by recycling and reusing.

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If we do our part in our own homes, we can help keep the planet from becoming
more polluted.
45. Pollution is caused from the following sources EXCEPT ………………. .
A. water in rivers B. water from households
C. wastes D. house chemicals
46. Recycling can help us ………………….
A. never cut down trees B. produce more paper products
C. place garbage bins easily D. use products again and again
47. In order to save water, we shouldn’t ………………..
A. fully use the washing machine
B. repair leaky faucets
C. take short showers instead of baths
D. turn the faucet off while brushing your teeth
48. Recycling helps to reduce waste because …………………….
A. plants need to develop B. waste can be recycled and reused
C. a person can do it in his home D. an average man produces compost for plants
49. The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to ………………….
A. cutting down B. the number C. recycling D. effort
Your answers 45. .............. 46. .............. 47. .............. 48. .............. 49. ..............
III. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph (2.0 pts)
Most people think of computers are very mordern inventions, products of our new
technological age. But actually, the idea for computer (50) worked out over two centuries ago
by a man called Charles Babbage. Babbage was born (51) 1791 and grew up to be a brilliant
mathematician. He drew up plans for several calculating machines (52) he called "engines".
But despite the fact that he (53) building some of these, he never finishedany of them. Over
the years people have argued (54) his machines would ever work. Recently, however, the
science Museum in London has finished building (55) engine based on of Babbage's designs.
(56) has taken 6 years to complete and more (57) four thousand parts have been specially
made. Whether it works or not, the machine will be on show at special exhibition in the
science Museum to remind people of Babbage's work.
Your 50. ....................... 51. ....................... 52. ....................... 53. ....................
answers 54. ...................... 55. ....................... 56. ....................... 57. ....................
IV. Read the following text, then choose the best phrase from A-G to fill in each of the
gaps. Write your answers in the numbered table. There is an example (0) at the
beginning. (1.25 pts)
A. Choose your author B. If necessary, be brutal
C. You don’t have to finish every book D. You can read wherever you are
E. Change your free time F. The importance of reading
0) Nobody would argue that reading books is a bad thing. We may feel that Arnold
Bennett was going slightly over the top when he said that the man who does not read books
is merely not born. He can’t see, he can’t hear, he can’t feel, in any full sense. He can only
eat his dinner but more often than not, we would agree, reading a book is normally better
than watching television. So, most of us would really quite like to read.
58) A recent government survey of what we actually do revealed that the average
woman spends the equivalent of only five days a year reading ( the average man four days),
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compared to 56 days watching television. Cutting down on time spent in front of the box
should give you some spare hours, and if you are male you’re even luckier. The same
survey also discovered that the average man spends 17 days a year ‘doing nothing at all’.
59) If you examine your day for reading opportunities, you will discover lots of free
time. Standing at the dentist’s waiting room, queuing up for things: the occasional 10-20
minutes here and there quickly add up. But the time will fly if you always have your book
with you.
60) Books are there to be read. You can generally buy classics for £1, so don’t be
overprotective with them. Read in the bath (in the shower may not be such a good idea). I
once found myself with 75 pages of a Dickens novel left to read, and a plane to catch.
Rather than spend a two-week holiday lumbered with a 900-page book I pulled the last 100
pages out and took them with me.
61) There are 106,000 books published in Britain every year. The best of seven
centuries worth of literature is published in paperback. There has to be something you
would like. Identifying it may take time. Be guided by what you have enjoyed in the past
and branch out from there: Roald Dahl ? Then try R. L Stine. Stephen King ? Then try Clive
Barker. Agatha Christie? Then try Patricia Highsmith or Ruth Rendell.
62) If you are not particularly enjoying a book, you are guaranteed to find 143 other
things to do instead of reading. Consequently, it will take months to finish and put you off
picking up another. When you find this happening, stop reading this book and start another
immediately.
Your answers 0) F 58. ............ 59. ............ 60. ............ 61. ............ 62. ............
D. WRITING (4.5 pts)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning to the first (1.25 pts)
63. I am thinking with pleasure about the weekend trip.
- I am…………………………………………………………………………………….
64. Is this the first time you have tried this kind of food?
- Have……………………………………………………………………………………
65. “If I were you, I would visit a craft village”. Mai said to me
- Mai ……………………………………………………………………………………
66. In Singapore, you order the food and they cook it right before you.
- In Singapore, the………………………………………………………………………
67. She hasn’t met Tim for 2 months.
- The last time ………….………………………………………………………………
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence
using the word given. Do not change the word given (1.25 pt)
68. Although the traffic was heavy, I arrived early enough for the meeting. (ON)
- In spite……………………………………..………………. time for the meeting.
69. Sarah got on well with her colleagues at her school (RELATIONSHIP)
- Sarah………………………………………………… her colleagues at her school.
70. Ann said that she was willing to work late. (MIND)
- Ann said that she………………………………………………………late.

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71. It’s a pity I can’t go to the game next Saturday. (WISH)
- I wish………………………………………………………………Saturday.
72. As soon as he arrived at the airport, he called home. (THAN)
- No sooner…………………………………………………..………home.
III. 73 – 80 (2.0 pts) In 120-150 words, write a paragraph about the negative effects of
tourism on your country.
Notes: Don’t show any personal information in your writing (your name; your school …..)
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The end
UBND HUYỆN PHÚC THỌ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Đề thi HSG lớp 9 môn Tiếng Anh, năm học 2020-2021 Trang 6/6
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9
NĂM HỌC: 2020 – 2021
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

0,25 pt for each correct answer

A. LISTENING (2.5 pts)


I. You will hear someone talking to a group of students about a visit to an arts centre.
Listen and tick A, B or C for each question (1.25 pts).
Answers: 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C

II. You will hear some information about an air museum. Listen and complete each question with
ONE number or word (1.25 pts).
Answers: 6. Cherford 7. 51
8. 7.15 9. 18 10. Sunday(s)

B. PHONETICS (2.0 pts)


I. Choose one word of which the underlined part is pronounced differently from others
(1.0 pt)
Answers:: 11. C 12. B 13. A 14. D

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is placed differently from the others’. (1.0 pt)
Answers: 15. B 16. D 17. B 18. D

C. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (4.5 pts)


I. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences (2.5 pts)
Answers: 19. C 20. D 21.D 22. B 23. C
24. A 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. C

II. Complete the sentences with a suitable preposition (1.0 pts)


Answers: 29. 30 31 32
of off by on

III. Supply the appropriate form of the words in the brackets (1.0 pts)
Answers: 33 34 35 36
paintings neighbourhood/ affordable better-known
neighborhood

C. READING (6.5 pts)


I. Choose the best word (A,B,C or D) that best fits each space in the passage (2.0 pts)
37. A 38. C 39. D 40. B
Answers:
41. D 42. A 43. B 44. C

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D (1.25 pts)
Answers: 45. A 46. D 47. A 48. B 49. C
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III. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph (2.0
pts)
50. was 51. in 52. which 53. started/
Answers: began
54. if/ whether 55. an/ one 56. It 57. than

IV. Read the following text, then choose the best phrase from A-G to fill in each of the gaps. Write
your answers in the numbered table. There is an example at the beginning. (1.25 pts)
Answers: 58. E 59. D 60. B 61. A 62. C

III. Writing.(4.5 pts)


I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning to the first (1.25 pts)
63. I am looking forward to the weekend trip.
64. Have you tried this kind of food before?
65. Mai advised me to visit a craft village.
66. In Singapore, the food is ordered and cooked right before you.
67. The last time she met Tim was 2 months ago.
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence
using the word given. Do not change the word given (1.25 pt)
68…… of the heavy traffic, I arrived on
69. …. had a good relationship with
70. …. didn't mind working
71. …. I could go the the game next
72. …. had he arrived at the airport than he called
III. 73-80 (2.0 pts) In 120-150 words, write a paragraph about the negative effects of
tourism on your country.
The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:
- Content: (50% of the total mark)
- Organization and presentation: (20% of the total mark)
- Language: (20% of the total mark)
- Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: (10% of the total mark)

The end

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