ice All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2024 TEST - 4 (Code-A) Co Alll India Aakash T Test Date : 24/12/2023 ANSWERS 1. (1) a. (4) at. (2) 121. (1) 161. (3) 2 @) 42, (2) 82. (3) 122. (2) 162. (2) 3. @) 43. (3) 83. (2) 123. (3) 163. (3) 4 (1) 44. (1) 84. (2) 124. (3) 4164. (1) 5. 2) 45. (3) 85. (2) 125. (4) 165. (3) 6. @) 46. (2) 86. (2) 128. (1) 166. (4) 7 @) 47. (4) 87. (2) 127. (4) 167. (1) 8. 2) 48. (3) 88. (4) 128. (2) 168. (1) 8. @) 49. (1) 89. (1) 129. (2) 169. (4) 10. (4) 50. (2) 90. (3) 130. (2) 170. (3) 11. 4) 51. (2) st. (1) 131. (4) 171. (1) 12. (2) 52. (1) 92. (4) 132. (1) 172. (1) 13. @) 53. (1) 93. (1) 133. (3) 173. (3) 14. (3) 54. (3) 94. (3) 134. (1) 174. (4) 16. (2) 55. (2) 95. (3) 135. (4) 175. (1) 16. (1) 56. (4) 96. (4) 136. (2) 176. (3) 17. (2) 57. (4) 97. (3) 197. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 58. (4) 98. (4) 138. (1) 178. (3) 19. (1) 59. (3) 99. (3) 139. (3) 179. (3) 20. (1) 60. (1) 4100. (3) 140. (3) 180. (1) 21. 3) 61. (4) 101. (3) 141. (2) 181. (1) 22. (2) 62. (2) 4102. (2) 142. (4) 182, (2) 23. (1) 63. (2) 4103. (1) 143. (2) 183. (3) 24, (1) 64. (3) 104. (3) 144. (3) 184. (4) 25. (3) 65. (3) 108. (3) 145. (4) 185. (3) 26. (1) 66. (4) 4108. (3) 148. (3) 186. (4) 27. (a) 67. (3) 4107. (4) 147. (1) 187. (1) 28. 3) 68. (1) 4108. (2) 148. (3) 188. (2) 29. (3) 69. (4) 109. (2) 149. (4) 189. (3) 30. (1) 70. (1) 110. (4) 150. (3) 190. (1) 31. 3) 71. @) 111. (a) 151. (2) 191. (3) 32. (1) 72. (3) 112. (2) 182. (1) 192. (1) 33. 3) 73. (1) 113. (3) 183. (2) 193. (3) 34. (4) 7. (t) 114. (3) 154. (3) 194. (1) 35. 3) 75. (2) 115. (3) 185. (3) 195. (1) 36. (3) 75. (4) 116. (4) 186. (2) 196. (4) 37. (1) 7. @) 117. (4) 187. (3) 197. (3) 38. (3) 78. (4) 118. (4) 188. (4) 198. (1) 39. 3) 79. (2) 119. (4) 159. (4) 199. (4) 40. (3) 80. (3) 120. (2) 160. (1) 200. (2) Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456All India Aakash Test Series for NEE1 Ty Ss To feo) [PHYSICS] SECTION-A 6 Answer (3) Answer (1) Hint: Use Boctean algebra fine Use Te =— Ke = FE sol = A+B= A+B 7. Answer (3) Sol: As we know, TE=- 186 eV TE=-27.2eV 3,6 eV 2. Answer (3) nh Hint: Use L = 2 rm Sol: L 2 since the angular momenta depend only upon the principal quantum number hence angular momenta would be same. 3. Answer (3) Hint: Use E--12S ey ni Sol: > AE=-151413.6= +1209 ev => Initial principal quantum number = 3 Final principal quantum number 3hoh 2n 2n a 4 drome he Hint: AE =— a = 1024.79 A 5. Answer (2) Hint: Use Boolean Algebra Sol.: The given truth table in the question belongs to NAND gate. Hence Y = AB 10. 1" Hint: Use Bohr's quantization principle BP ato, n= % 2n Op nh 2ar 2ar= = Qar= n= i= mv ‘Answer (2) Hint & Sol.: Max. number of spectral lines = A(a=t) 2 ‘Answer (2) Hint: AE = = 5000 A, Answer (4) Hint: Ultraviolet have higher frequency than infrared Sol.: Increasing frequency will increase maximum kinetic of energy of photoelectron. Answer (4) Hint and Sol.: Wavelength of incident light should be lower than threshold wavelength. Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ieee (Hints & Solutions) 12. Answer (2) he h : Use E= he Hint: Use E=5° and h= 5 _ 8x10%eV © 3x10% mis = 0.02 eV sim 13. Answer (2) Hint: Number of photon emitted per second . Power Energy of one photon sol: p= Me nhe _ 10” «6.63% 10- 3x10" P 66.30x10" = 310-9 m 14. Answer (3) Hint: = mur 2 Kee? mv? _ Kee’ sol: ™ =A 2_ Kee. _ [Kee® mr mr b= m= m |e Vm = Ler 15. Answer (2) Hint: Conservation of linear momentum Sol.: Conservation of linear momentum mv = (2m) v A (pefore cll av (Before collision) 2 ft li s = 2 ener cotsin) = sel 16. 17 18. 19, 20. 24 22. CU Answer (1) Hint: Decreasing the distance will increase the intensity Sol: Increasing intensity will generate more electron per second, which will increase current, Answer (2) 3492 Hint and Sol.: a0 = 1.5 *102 =15 mA Answer (3) Hint and Sol.: Heavy nuclides have more number of neutron than proton and for lighter nuclei the Answer (1) iy 4 5R_5 iy 3R 9627 ‘Answer (1) Hint and Sol: PE is maximum at infinity and KE is maximum in n =1 orbit Answer (3) he Hint, aE = PE " x Sol: Answer (2) Hint: Use conservation of mechanical energy ‘equation 2kze? mv? Sol. 2 dxZe Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-4762345623. 24. CSET Answer (1) : tint Ke =~ 1 = 382" gy Sol.: KE = 13.62 eV= 13.6 eV pe z Answer (1) nh vane = 2n Sol.: For L= n=4 26. 2. ® Maximum wavelength will be emitted for n= 4 ton = 3 transition Answer (3) Hint: Both have same linear momentum Ky * 2m,* ‘Answer (1) Hint: BE = amo? Sol. ‘Am = [6Mo+ 7My—_Me] ‘Answer (4) Hint: Properties of nuclear force Sol.: The attractive force between two nucleons is strong nuclear force. Am = mass defect, 28, 29, 30. 3t 32 33, Ss To feo) Answer (3) Hint and Sol: For fusion, the light nuclei must have sufficient initial energy to overcome the coulomb potential barrier so fusion requires very high temperatures. ‘Answer (3) Hint: In a decay mass number reduces by 4 and atomic number decreases by 2 and in decay the ‘atomic number increases by 1 164, 172 Sol ‘gg X alter 2a decay = 5-°Y after 4 fr decay itbecomes ‘+z vy" 69 Answer (1) Hint and Sol.: In case of B* decay, atomic number is decreased by 1 So, reaction is (NY clap" ‘Answer (3) Hint: BE(Products) - BE (Reactants) = AE Sol.: AE = 60 (8.2 MeV) + 40 (8.0 MeV) — 100 (7.2 Mev) = (492 + 320-720) MeV = 92 MeV Answer (1) Hint and sol.: E, = AAs the electron moves away from nucleus the energy of electron decreases, so the difference between energy level decreases. ‘Answer (3) Hint: Both diodes are forward biased Sol. 2k aov eK aKa 2k 5 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-4762345634. 36. 36. (Hints & Solutions) 2a A ave tho 8 Vaa= {2x 90v= 10 Iss ial Answer (4) Hint: The Zener is in breakdown state Sol: tha t , 1 av a 4x0 ama = 20V-12V_ 4 1kO Ie=5mA P= Vele= 12x 5 mW =60mW Answer (3) Hint: Use Boolean Algebra Sol: Y=(A+B)B = AB+BB= AB =AsB SECTION-B Answer (3) Hint: Use formula = R| +. an (2) 37. 38, 39. CU From eq. (1) & eq, (2) 36, 7 5 14a oueB 20 Answer (1) Hint: Use photoelectric equation 1 Sol.: Amv’ 2 ht 60 w hf — 40 (i) From (i) and (i) visa ‘Answer (3) z Here n= ,2=3 £=-136 ev ‘Answer (3) Hint: fe = ale= Ble Sol.: Vi~ lsRe=0 yo tov Ry 500K. l= = 2x10 1OV-25k/c=0 10 gs to= 210 A= 4 mA 25 ™ aces 4mA___ 4000 lp” 4mA+20»A 4020 = 0.9950 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456RU eee 40. 41. 42. 43, 44 45. 46. Answer (3) Hint: Use Einstein photoelectric equation (KE)nax = hv — 6 Sol: (KE)rae = (KE)nac= 6 480V Answer (4) Hint and Sol: In mtype semiconductors currents mainly due to electrons as they are majority charge carriers and semiconductor is entirely neutral ‘Answer (2) Hint and Sol: LED is used in forward biased alone and photodiode is used in reverse biased only In LED electrical energy is converted into light ‘energy and in photodiode light energy is converted into electric current, Answer (3) Hint and Sol: Vp—Vo = 0.4 mA (15k) +0.2V 6Vv+02V 62Vv ‘Answer (1) Hint: LED is forward biased he a> hy he? he 4 =12 Sol.: AE Answer (3) Hint: Use de Broglie wavelength formula de Jing ——— = Be. [Amex2e _ 95 Y mxe ‘Answer (2) Hint: Nuclear radius R 0 x (A) 47. 48, 49, 50, feo) (125) gx( 125) (64) 4ax8 4 R,=4. = 6 fermi Answer (4) Hint: 2 Sole: da ‘Answer (3) Hint: Energy of 3° orbit Es and energy of 1* orbit E1=—13.6 eV Sol.: Energy of photon release (AE) = 13.6 -1.51 = 12.08 eV > use photoelectric equation Ve = Energy of incident photon — Work function Vs= 12.08 1.08 1 ‘Answer (1) Hint: v= No o°* (2) Sol: After 2 mean ite, ime = {= Gy) Ratio= © No Answer (2) Hint: Energy required for removing last electron from Lis 2136 sev Sol.: Energy required for removing first electron is = 756 eV Energy required to remove second electron (Gy 13.6 eV =122.4.eV Energy required to remove last two electron (75.6 + 122.4) eV = 198 eV51 52. 53, 54. 56. Ceo) CU [CHEMISTRY] SECTION-A sol: Answer (2) + Electron donating group present at para Hint: position decreases acidic strength coon coon + -NO» is electron withdrawing group while 5 = 5 “CH, -OCH are electron donating group +The correct order of acidic strength So coon om 00H & cooH COOH SEM, | 6666 56. Answer (4) 6 Hint: Benzene diazonium chloride is a salt. Sol: The salt generally dissolves in water, Benzene diazonium chloride is soluble in water. Answer (1) ‘Answer (1) Hint: Amylose is water soluble component of starch Sol: + Amylose and amylopectin are components of starch. two + Amylose is water soluble component which constitutes about 15-20% of starch. + Amylopectin is insoluble in water and constitutes about 80-85% of starch. ‘Answer (3) Hint: The amino acid which cannot be synthesised in the body and must be obtained through diet, are known as essential amino acids. Sol. acids. Histidine and valine are essential amino ‘Answer (2) Hint: Electron withdrawing group present at para position to the COOH group increases acidity of the compound. 87, 58. Hint: Chromic acid oxidises acetophenone to benzoie acid Hint: Carboxylic acids are associated with each other by intermolecular hydrogen bonding, Sol. Sol: ‘COOH OQ SS say Answer (4) + Simple aliphatic carboxylic acids having Up to four carbon atoms are miscible in water due to the formation of hydrogen bonds with water. + Carboxylic acids are higher boiling liquids than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular masses. This is due to more extensive association of carboxylic acid molecules through intermolecular hydrogen bonding. ‘Answer (4) Hint: Electron withdrawing group attached with ring at para position electrophilicity at carbonyl carbon of -COOCHs ‘group benzene increases Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456RU eee Sol.: NO» has strong electron withdrawing nature hence electrophilcity of carbonyl coock, carbon is maximum in and hydrolysis is fastest No, ‘among the given options oon Sd egen om : oO fe ; + SC Sos C08 + chor 59. Answer (3) Hint: Carboxylic acid is converted to acid chloride (on reaction with thiony| chloride. Sol ° ° soc, K WA ee NK, atte a) 60. Answer (1) one Hint: Isocyanide is a foul-smeling compound Sol: + Primary amine on reaction with chloroform and ethanolic KOH gives isocyanide which is a foul-smelling compound. NH, Ne mene oer : z |sopropylamine A 61. Answer (4) Hint: Guanine is a purine base Sol: + Adenine and Guanine are purine bases + Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil are pyrimidine bases 62, 63, 64, 65. 66. To feo) Answer (2) Hint: Methanal is gas at room temperature Sol.: Due to dipole-dipole interaction, the boiling Point of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons and ether of comparable molecular mass. ‘Answer (2) Hint: “gr 2 Non Sol SS eee ‘Answer (3) Hint: Electron withdrawing groups increase the acidity and decrease the pKs values of the acids. Sol.:-| effect order CN > -F >-CeHs + Acidic strength order: (vy> (> Gi) > Gi + pKa value order: ii) > Gi) > > Ww) Answer (3) Hint: Ketal is formed on the reaction of ketone with, ‘excess of monohydrie alcohol in presence of dry Ho as Answer ge, Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456er. 68, Ceo) sol o ee fy . " ‘ _ ee Answer (3) . Hint: Lone pair present on sp? hybridised nitrogen is most easily available for protonation. t NH. S S + Between | 2) and lone pair on ne Z nitrogen in aniline is delocalised and is least available for protonation. + In pytidine (CO the lone pair on nitrogen is present on sp? hybridized nitrogen hence it is less available for ft H Answer (1) Hint: In disaccharides, if the reducing groups of monosaccharides 6. aldehydic or ketonic groups: fare bonded then they will not given positive Tollens' test and are called non-reducing sugars. Sol: CHOH - OH HOHC 4 4 4 HO H WL» CHOH HOH OHH u=D-glcose D-fructose Sucrose 69, 70, m All India Aakash Test Series for NEE ma In sucrose, the reducing groups of glucose and fructose are Involved in glycosidic bond formation hence will not reduce Tollens' reagent. Answer (4) Hint: Benzenesulphony! chloride is called Hinsberg's reagent Sol: + Hinsberg's reagent (CeHsSO2Cl) on reaction with primary amine gives a product which dissolves in aqueous alkali + Hinsberg's reagent (CsHsSO:Cl) on reaction with secondary amine gives a product which does not dissolve in aqueous alkali + Hinsberg's reagent (CxHsSO2C!) does not react with tertiary amine. Answer (1) Hint: Deficiency of vitamin K causes increased blood clotting time Sol Vitamin Deficiency diseases Thiamine Loss of appetite Pyridoxine Convulsions Ascorbic acid _| Bleeding gums Vitamin K Increased blood clotting time ‘Answer (2) Hint: Compounds containing CH,—G.— group or ° CH, - CH - group give positive iodoform test I OH Sol: CH,CHOH"® [HCHO] CHI, = Hoo ween ° 1 Ph-C-Ph—“™ 5 No characteristic change (benzophenone) Acetophenone! § __\ Ph-C-CH Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456eae 72. 73, 74, Ty seatore| 2 etanal, (crscH0) crt ci 9° Butanone 0 CH, - CH ~CH.- CH, OH Sec-butanol [> ~OH- cH 4) ave oH postive iodotorm test Answer (3) Hint: Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction with the anion formed by phtvaimise. we be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis because ary! halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide. Answer (1) Hint: Sugar moiety present in DNA is p-D- deoxyribose ° HOH,C 2 OH Sol: HOH,C OH HOW Hw H # H HOW OH H (OH OH [D-2-deoxyribose B-D-ibose (Sugar moiety (Sugar moiety in DNA) in RNA) Answer (1) Hint: Lactose is commonly known as milk sugar Sol. CH,OH CH,OH 0. HOA, OH Va 0. H\OH HAG OH HA, H OH H OH f-D-Galactose {-D-Glucose 7, 76, Ss To feo) Answer (2) Hint: Serine contains -OH group Sol.: Glutamine is ° Hn-Coch, cH, ~GH-COOH Nee ‘Answer (4) Hint: Aldehydes having two a-hydrogen atoms undergo aldol condensation reaction giving «, B unsaturated carbonyl compounds. Sol.: aint aeccrcH0 cH -cH0 STE 7. 78. CHOH-CH-CH= CH-CHO + cH, CH= CH CHO « ® Answer (2) Hint: CH, CH (OCrOHCL), Oo a oO Ho te Sol.: In this reaction, toluene is oxidised to benzaldehyde. This is called Etard reaction cHe ‘Answer (4) Hint: Compound 8 is a methyl ketone Sol. KON_,CH,-CH, CN @ + Oly - Ch - cl nog CH, CH, -C~CH ro" $@ (CH, - CH, - C- CH, Q i eo (CH: CH COONa + CHls + Ketones do not reduce Fehting's solution + Carboxylic acid on reaction with NaHCOs liberates CO2, ‘Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456ieee 79. 80. 81 82. (Hints & Solution: ‘Answer (2) Hint: The given reaction is called Clemmensen reduction Sol. + The carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones is reduced to CHe group on treatment with zinc-amalgam and concentrated HCl. Answer (3) Hint: Carboxyl group is deactivating in nature, Sol + Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel Crafts reaction because the carboxyl group is deactivating and the catalyst AICh [Lewis acid] gots bonded to the carboxyl group. on goad Oa ee ‘m-Bromobenzoic acic (Major) Answer (2) Hint: Arene diazonium fluoroborate on heating yields aryl fluoride Sol. F ee NE, a No, 8) cur Answer (3) Hint & So: NO, zest HON 9, NaH (O>n "{O) Hydrazobenzene 83, 84, 85, 86, Answer (2) Hint: In Hell-Volhard Zelinsky reaction, halogen — carbon bond is formed Sol: HO oO CO.HCI ee, ‘Anhyd. AIcL/Guct Galterman-Koch reaction ‘Answer (2) Po, Hint: ATP. ent Sol: 20. NH, 22 ,. My . Aon (osnciHc, 3 (ho \ercHo ‘Answer (2) Hint, For isomeric amines, more is the intermolecular hydrogen bonding more is the boiting points. Sol: Intermolecular hydrogen bonding association is more in primary amines than in secondary amines as there are two hydrogen ‘atoms available for hydrogen bond formation in it. Tertiary amines do not have intermolecular ‘association due to the absence of hydrogen atom available for hydrogen bond formation. Therefore, the order of boiling points for isomeric amines is a follows: Primary > Secondary > Tertiary + Gii)> > O SECTION -B Answer (2) Hint: NaBH; does not reduce ester Sol: ° °. ro} ° Ho. oN Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005: Phone :071-47623456RU eee 87. Answer (2) Hint: Jones reagent is CrOs — H»SO« Sol.: Jones reagent (CrO2 - H:SO«) oxidises primary alcohol to carboxylic acid (CHs-CH2CH2-OH 92-489 scHscH,COOH 88. Answer (4) Hint: Aldehydes are more reactive than ketone towards nucleophilic addition reaction Sol: + Electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon of aliphatic aldehyde is more than aromatic aldehyde hence aliphatic aldehydes react faster than aromatic aldehyde. + Ketones are less reactive than aromatic aldehydes because of more steric hindrance in tetrahedral intermediate due to the CN addition. 89. Answer (1) whe Sol. a C00 90. Answer (3) Hint and Sol.: Steroid hormones are produced by adrenal cortex and gonads. These play very important role in the functions of the body. 91. Answer (1) Hint: Glucose when heated with Hl gives hexane Sol.: Despite having the aldehyde group, glucose does not give Schiff test and it does not from the hydrogensulphite addition product with NaHSOs, 92. Answer (4) Hint & Sol.: Lone pair present on nitrogen of aniline binds with Lewis acid (AICI) due to this, nitrogen of aniline acquires positive charge and hence acts as a strong deactivating group for further reaction. 93, 94, 95, feo) Answer (1) Hint: Nitriles on reduction with sodium amalgam in ethanol give primary amine. sol cHicHiconHs UN» CHACHACHANs vat ciuction MSL cHscHacHaNte No. OOO Answer (3) NH, NHCOCH sine BS (HCO), 0 Pyridine sol: A encoro & | Dane (cHGOoH “ Br ian | oa we & © Answer () Hint: CHsCHsCH»CH:CHO is called valeraldehyde Sol: CHa= CH-CHO > Acrolein cHO ‘OCH, > Vanilin OH oy H-CHO » Cinnamaldehyde Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ieee 96. 7. 98. 99, 101 Ceo) Answer (4) Hint: Acidified KMnOs is a strong oxidising agent Sol KMn0.-H,SO. COOH ol | a COOH ‘Answer (3) Hint & Sol.: + Abnormally low level of thyroxine leads to hypothyroidism which lethargy no space ness and obesity is characterised by + Increased level of thyroxine causes hyperthyroidism, ‘Answer (4) Hint: Myosin is a fibrous protein 100. CU a nga bao dO oO O*O, i HO-HC-COO <=> HC-C-oH por “EE HO - CH, - COOH Answer (3) Sol. eg a ww Sol: + Keratin and myosin are fbrous proteins Y no.nes oO + Insulin and albumin are globular proteins 2 + Answer (3) Y Ono Hint: tis an intramolecular Cannizzero reaction (aion @) [BOTANY] ‘SECTION-A 103. Answer (1) Answer (8) Hint: Primary succession starts at barren area that Is never having vegetation of any type or where no living organism ever existed, Sol: Primary succession takes place on bare rock. Secondary succession ocours in areas such ‘as abandoned farmlands, burnt or cut forest, flooded lands, etc. 102. Answer (2) Hint: Interaction of biotic and abiotic components results in a physical structure that is characteristic for each type of ecosystem. Sol.: Stratification and species composition are structural aspects of an ecosystem. Productivity, nutrient cycling, energy flow and decomposition are functional aspects of an ecosystem. 104, Hint: A stable community should not show too much variation in productivity from year-to-year and it must be either resistant or resilient to ‘occasional disturbances, Sol.: According to David Tilman, plots with more species showed less year-to-year variation in total biomass and also increased diversity contributed to higher productivity Answer (3) Hint: Earth Summit was held to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utlisation of its benefits. Sol.: The World Summit held in 2002 in Johannesburg, South Africa was to achieve a significant biodiversity loss at global, levels. reduction in the current rate of regional and local Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456RU eee 105. Answer (3) Hint: Decomposers are usually aerobic microbes. Sol: Decomposition is requiring process. 106. Answer (3) Hint: Energy flow across trophic levels follows 10% law. Sol.: Plants (10,000 J) -» Rabbit (1000 J) -» Wolf (100 J) -» Top Carnivore (10 J) Answer (4) Hint: The pioneer community is followed by a specific orderly sequence of series of plant largely an oxygen- 107. communities known as transitional or seral communities, Sol: The community that is in near equilibrium with the environment is called climax community, Answer (2) Hint: These species are compared with rivets on wings of airplane according to Paul Ehrlich’s perspective. Sol: Keystone species drive major ecosystem functions, Answer (2) 108. 109. Hint: It is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area. Sol.: Each trophic level has a certain mass ofliving material at a particular time called standing crop. Answer (4) Hint: Hydrarch succession starts with pioneer ‘community phytoplanktons and gradually reaches climax community, forest. Sol: Correct sequence of hydrarch succession is, 110. communities in Phytoplanktons > Submerged plant stage > Submerged free-floating plant stage > Reed- swamp stage -> Marsh-meadow stage -> Scrub stage ~ Forest ‘Answer (4) Sol: The base of each pyramid represents the producers or the first trophic level while the apex represents the top level consumer. 1 112 113. 114. 116. 116. 117 118. To feo) Answer (2) Hint: Flow of energy is unidirectional and it follows, both first law as well as second law of thermodynamics. Sol: Except for the deep sea hydro-thermal ecosystem, sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on earth, Answer (3) Hint: Earthworm is a detrtivore. Sol.: Earthworms are referred to as the farmer's friend because they help in the breakdown of complex organic matter as well as in loosening of the soil Answer (3) Hint: In an aquatic ecosystem, grazing food chain is the major conduit for energy flow. Sol: In a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through detritus. food chain. Answer (3) Hint: Rock minerals undergo weathering to form soll Sol: A~ Soll solution, 8 — Uptake G~ Producers, D - Decomposition ‘Answer (4) Hint: Some examples of recent extinctions include the dodo from Mauritius. Sol: Quagga - Attica Thylacine — Australia Steller's sea cow — Russia ‘Answer (4) Hint: Loss of biodiversity in a region makes the ecosystem less stable, less resistant or resilient, Sol: Increased niche specialisation and ‘speciation occurs over a long evolutionary time if the ecosystem is stable ‘Answer (4) Hint: Amazon forest is estimated to produce 20% of the total oxygen in the earth's atmosphere through photosynthesis, Sol.: + Since the origin and diversification of life on earth there were five episodes of mass extinction of species. + The colonisation of tropical Pacific Islands by humans is said to have led to the extinction of more than 2000 species of native birds Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ieee 119. 120. 121 122. 123. 124, 126. Ceo) Answer (4) Hint: Introduction of African catfish, Clarias gariepinus for aquaculture purposes is posing a threat to the indigenous catfishes in our rivers. Sol. passenger pigeon were due to overexploitation by humans. Extinction of Steller's sea cow and The Nile perch introduction into lake Vietoria in east Aftica and introduction of water hyacinth in India exemplify alien species invasion Answer (2) Hint: Low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition of organic matter. Sol: The rate of decomposition is quicker if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances. Warm and moist environment favour decomposition. Answer (1) Hint: OF the incident solar radiation less than 50% ofits PAR Sol.: Plants capture only 2 - 10% of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living world Answer (2) Hint: The species that invade the bare area are called pioneer species. Sol.: The pioneer organisms on bare rock are lichens. ‘Answer (3) Hint: Natural reservoir of phosphorus contains this element in the form of phosphates, Sol.: The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock, ‘Answer (3) Hint: A considerable amount of GPP is utllised by plants in respiration. Sol.: The expression to evaluate net primary productivity is GPP — R = NPP. Answer (4) Hint: Top layer in a forest ecosystem is occupied by trees, ‘Sol.: Herbs and grasses form the bottom strata in a forest ecosystem, 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131 132 CU Answer (1) Hint: Z value lies in the range of 0.6 to 1.2 for very large areas like entire continent Sol.: Species-area relationship explains that the slope of the line is much steeper for very large areas. Answer (4) Hint: The higher trophic level has less population and higher dependence on the other trophic levels for food, making them more vulnerable to extinction, Sol: High trophic level in food chain with low reproductive rate are more susceptible to extinction Answer (2) Hint: ‘The Evil Quartet’ is a sobriquet to describe major causes of biodiversity losses, Sol: Alien species invasion is one among the evil quartet w.rt. biodiversity loss. Answer (2) Hint: During succession, environmental conditions become favourable for the species colonization, Sol: During succession, low diversity changes to high degree of diversity in an area F., increase in the number of species ‘Answer (2) Hint: Species diversity decreases as we move ‘away from the equator towards the poles. Sol: The increasing order of diversity of birds in the given areas is as follows : Greenland (56) < New York (105) Producers -> Herbivores between organism and environment are » Secondary consumers. negligible “Answer (1) Sol: Phosphorus is not released through Hint: Herbivores are key industry animals. respiration. Carnivores are secondary consumers. 150. Answer (3) Sol: Grasses are autotrophs also termed as Hint: Anthropogenic ecosystems are not self converters or transducers. regulated, They are maintained by humans. Cows are herbivores or primary consumers also Sol.: Anthropogenic ecosystems have simple food termed as key industry animals. chain, high productivity and litle diversity [ZOOLOGY] SECTION-A 453, Answer (2) ‘Answer (2) Hint: Less than 30 Hint: Bright orange band: int: Bright orange bands Sol.: There are an estimated 200,000 varieties of Sol Pure DNA fragments present in the gel Fon in india alone cannot be seen in visible light without staining Hence, after gel electrophoresis, the” separated There are 27 documented varieties of Basmati rice DNA fragments are stained using ethidium grown in India. bromide, This is followed by exposure to UV | 454, answer (2) radiations. Hint: Restriction endonucleases are hydrolytic Bright orange-coloured bands are visible where enzymes DNA fragments are present in the gel Answer (1) Sol.: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA hence are known as molecular scissors Hint: Beetles are coleopterans, So They are hydrolytic enzymes, hence belong to the group hydrolases. Lepidopterans = Tobacco budworm, ‘Armyworm Hydrolases are class Il enzymes. Coleopterans = Beetles The enzyme commission numberof all hydrolases Dipterans = Flies, mosquitoes starts with 3. Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456RU eee 155. Answer (3) Hint: Genetic engineering is one of the core techniques. Sol.: The two core biotechnology are () Genetic engineering - Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA), to introduce these into host organisms and thus change the phenotype of the host organism, (i) Bioprocess engineering ~ Maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical engineering processes to enable growth of only the desired microbe/eukaryotic cell in large quantities for the manufacture of biotechnological products like antibiotics, vaccines, enzymes, ete. ‘Answer (2) Hint: DNA fragments with the same sticky ends. Sol.: Plasmids and bacteriophages have the ability to replicate within bacterial cells, independent of the control of chromosomal DNA. techniques of modern 158. DNAs a hydrophilic molecule. ‘Sampling ports in a bioreactor help in withdrawing ‘small volumes of culture whenever required. ‘Answer (3) Hint: Protein used to treat emphysema Sol.: Rosie was the first transgenic cow produced in 1997. Tracy was a transgenic sheep developed to produce o-1-antitrypsin for the treatment of ‘emphysema, ‘Answer (4) Hint: Validity of GM research Sol. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee [GEAC] is an Indian Government set up organisation which makes decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM organisms for public services. Answer (4) Hint: It is a newly developed technique. Sol.: ELISA is a non-conventional method of molecular diagnosis which helps in the early detection of infections. It is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction. 187. 158. 159, 160. 161 162 163. To feo) Infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of antigens (proteins, glycoproteins, etc.) or by detecting the antibodies synthesised against the pathogen. Answer (1) Hint: Agarose gel is used in it. Sol: When DNA is acted upon by restriction enzymes, DNA fragments are produced. These fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Agarose is the most commonly used matrix in gel electrophoresis. Elution is the step by which separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. Answer (3) Hint: Roundworm Sol.: Meloidogyne incognita is a nematode that infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield, Roundworms or nematodes belong to the phylum Aschelminthes. Answer (2) Hint: Anode is the positive electrode Sol.: DNA is a negatively charged molecule, hence it moves towards the positive electrode (anode) during gel electrophoresis. DNA is loaded in well towards the negative electrode (cathode), DNA fragments move from the well (cathode) to the anode under an clectric field through a medium/matrix. ‘Answer (3) Hint: No digestion Sol: A restriction enzyme cuts DNA at its specific, recognition sequence only. ‘The plasmid was tried to cut by using a restriction ‘endonuclease that did not have a recognition site in the plasmid. Hence, the enzyme would not be able to cut the plasmid and the plasmid would remain undigested. Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ieee (Hints & Solution: 164, Answer (1) Hint: Less than 40, Sol. The recombinant DNA technological processes have made an immense impact in the area of healthcare by enabling mass production of safe and more effective therapeutic drugs. ‘At present, about 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use the world over. In India, 12 of these are presently being marketed. 165. Answer (3) Hint: Pores are formed in bacterial cell wall due to heat shock Sol: DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, hence, it cannot pass through cell membranes. In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid, the bacteria are treated with a specific concentration of a divalent cation such as calcium. This makes the bacterial cells competent, which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterial cells. 166. Answer (4) Hint: Human diseases Sol.: Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of how genes contribute to the development of disease. Today transgenic models exist for many human diseases such as cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s disease, 167. Answer (1) Hint: Proinsulin is longer. Sol. Proinsulin ___& Apeniice tee + B peptide ——___—— Free © peptide Proinsulin and insulin both are proteins, hence are heteropolymers. 168, Answer (1) Hint: pBR322 does not have the B-galactosidase gene. Sol: Chromogenic substrate, X-gal, is used for cloning vectors which have the coding sequence of B-galactosidase. pBR322 does not have the f-galacto: (lacZ), hence, chromogenic substrate, X-gal, jase gene cannot be used. When the foreign gene is inserted in the coding ‘sequence of f-galactosidase gene in a vector Ike pUC8, it results in the insertional inactivation of the B-galactosidase gene. The recombinant colonies do not produce any colour in the presence of chromogenic substrate, 169. Answer (4) Hint: Animal cells do not have a cell wall Sol.: In order to release the DNA from a cell, the cell needs to be broken open. The cell walls of plant cells, fungal cells and bacterial cells are digested using cellulase, chitinase and lysozyme, respectively 4170. Answer (3) Hint: Thermophilic bacteria Sol: The DNA polymerase obtained from Thermus aquaticus is Taq polymerase EcoR has been isolated from Escherichia col. Pseudomonas putida or superbug was developed by AM. Chakravorly and is used for clearing oil spills ‘Salmonella typhimurium was used in construction of 1* recombinant plasmid. 471, Answer (1) Hint: Diabetes mellitus Sol: Adult-onset diabetes can be managed by 9 insulin at rogular timo intervals. The first tal human hormone to be produced by recombinant DNA technology was insulin Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456RU eee 172, Answer (1) Hint : Seven years before the American company got patent rights on Basmati rice Sol.: The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a fouryears-old girl with Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, ADA deficiency causes Immunodeficiency (SCID). Severe Combined 173. Answer (3) Hint: MCS Cla by Hind Sol. Eoor SY is Pu eile GBs Pst J Jamo’ te? \ )\ / | a pBR322— |} sal \ BH Pw 174, Answor (4) Hint: Bioforttiod crop Sol: Golden rice is a Genetically Modified Organism (GMO). Itis a vitamin A enriched rice. Its consumption can lead to the elimination of night blindness. Answer (1) Hint: Gel has pores in i Sol.: The matrix that is commonly used during ge! electrophoresis is agarose which is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds. 176. ‘The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel ‘Answer (3) Hint: Base of the bioreactor Sol.: A stirred-tank reactor is usually cylindrical or with @ curved base to facilitate the mixing of the reactor contents. The stirer facilitates even mixing and oxygen availabilty throughout the bioreactor. ‘Sampling ports in a bioreactor help in withdrawing ‘small volumes of culture whenever required. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181 To feo) Answer (3) Hint: Critical research area of biotechnology Sol: The applications of biotechnology include therapeutics, diagnostics, genetically modified crops for agriculture, processed food, bioremediation, waste treatment and energy production. Answer (3) Hint: Restriction endonucleases are molecular scissors. Sol. ends of the DNA, whereas endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA. (Once the restriction endonuclease finds its specific. recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA and cut each of the two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar-phosphate backbones. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the Purified DNA precipitates out after the addition of chilled ethanol. Answer (3) Hint: RNAV is known as MRNA silencing, Sol: RNA interference is a novel strategy adopted to prevent the infestation of plants by nematodes. RNAi is present in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense. RNAi involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA. Answer (1) Hint: Tumor causing DNA Sol.: Agrobacterium tumifaciens is a pathogen of several dicot plants and causes crown gall disease. It is able to deliver a piece of DNA known as T-DNA into normal cells and transforms them into a tumor. Answer (1) Hint: Finished product Sol: The recombinant protein is formed during biosynthetic stage. After the completion of biosynthetic stage, the product is separated, Purified, efc., and converted into a finished product. The product has to be formulated with suitable preservatives. Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ieee 182, 183. 184. 186. 186. 187. Ceo) Answer (2) Hint: Ethanol Sol.: After the cells are broken open, DNA is released along with other macromolecules. ‘The other molecules are removed by appropriate treatments and purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after the addition of chilled ethanol Answer (3) Hint: Insulin is secreted by f-cells of islets of Langerhans of the pancreas. Sol.: Earlier, insulin was extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs. But this insulin from animal source caused allergy in some patients or other types of reactions to the foreign protein. Answer (4) Hint: Almost 100 per cent Sol: The animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene are known as transgenic animals Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheeps, cows and fishes have been produced, although over 95 per cent of all transgenic animals are mice. Answer (3) Hint: Complementary ends are required for linking Sol.: Recombinant DNA can be created when the vector and the source DNA are cut with the same restriction enzyme. SECTION -B ‘Answer (4) Hint: The smaller the fragment size, the farther it Sol.: During gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through the sieving effect provided by the agarose gel Hence, the smaller the fragment size the farther it moves. Answer (1) Hint: Nucleases are hydrolytic enzymes. Sol.: Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases. There are two kinds of nucleases ~ exonucleases and endonucleases. Ligase is also known as molecular glue 188, 189, 190. 191 192 193. CU ‘Answer (2) Hint: Patents Act was passed in 1970 Sol.: The Indian Parliament has recently cleared the second amendment of the Indian Patents Bil, that takes issues into consideration, like patent terms, emergency provisions and research and development initiatives. ‘Answer (3) Hint: Process of detection Sol. A single-stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule (probe) is allowed to hybridise with its complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography. The clone having the mutated gene will hence not appear on the photographic film, because the probe will not have complementarity with the mutated gene. ‘Answer (1) Hint: Effects of toxic substances in transgenic animals are studied Sol.: Transgenic animals are made to cary genes Which make them more sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals. Toxicity testing in such animals will allow us to obtain results in less time. ‘Answer (3) Hint: Protoxin Sol.: The Bt toxin protein exists as an inactive protoxin but once an insect ingests the inactive toxin, itis converted into an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilises the crystals. ‘Answer (1) Hint: More than 20 cycles Sol.: The formula to find the number of copies formed after PCR is 2°, where 'n’is the number of cycles of PCR. Answer (3) Hint: Palindromic nucleotide sequence Sol:: The recognition sequence of EcoRI is 5'--GAATTC-- 3) 3'=-CTTAAG-- 5! Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456RU eee 194, Answer (1) Hint: Ligation is joining of DNA fragments. Sol.: Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium. Ligation is the joining of two fragments of DNA. 195. Answer (1) Hint: Bacillus thuringiensis Sol: Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and been expressed in plants to provide resistance to insects without the need for insecticides; in effect created a biopesticide. Golden rice is a vitamin A enriched rice. Answer (4) Hint: Not a dipteran Sol.: Proteins encoded by the genes crylAc and cryllAb control the cotton bollworms, that of cry/Ab control com borers. Answer (3) Hint: European Federation 196. 197. Sol.: The European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB) has given a definition of biotechnology that encompasses both traditional view and modem molecular biotechnology. a 198, 199. 200, feo) Answer (1) Hint: 1972 Sol: Stanley Cohen accomplished the construction of recombinant DNA in 1972, and Herbert Boyer the first Kary Mullis invented PCR, ‘Answer (4) Hint: Breakdown of H-bond Sol: The double-stranded DNA is made to undergo separation to form single-stranded DNA. This process is denaturation and occurs at 92°C. Annealing takes place at temperature 50°C - 60°C. Extension occurs at 72°C. Answer (2) Hint: Exponential phase Sol: The cells are maintained in their physiologically most active loglexponential phase. Larger biomass is produced by continuous culture system, Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ice All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2024 TEST - 4 (Code-B) Co Alll India Aakash T Test Date : 24/12/2023 ANSWERS 1. (1) 41, (3) 81, (3) 121. (4) 161. (3) 2 @) 42. (1) 82. (3) 122. (3) 162. (4) 3. (3) 43. (3) 83. (2) 123. (3) 163. (3) 4 (1) 44. (2) 84. (2) 4124. (2) 164. (2) 5. (2) 45. (4) 85. (4) 128. (1) 165. (1) 6. (3) 46. (3) 86. (3) 126. (2) 166. (1) 7% @) 47. (3) 87. 3) 127. (4) 167. (3) 8 (2) 48. (3) 88. (4) 128. (4) 168. (3) 9. (2) 49, (1) 89. (3) 129. (4) 169. (3) 10. (4) 50. (3) 90. (4) 130. (4) 170. (3) 11. (3) 51. (2) 91. (3) 131. (3) 171. (1), 12. 4) 52. (1) 92. (3) 132. (3) 172. (4) 13. (3) 53. (1) 93. (1) 133. (3) 173. (3) 14, (1) 54. (3) 94. (4) 134. (2) 174. (1) 16. (3) 55. (2) 95. (1) 135. (4) 175. (1) 16. (1) 56. (4) 96. (3) 136. (3) 176. (3) 17. (3) 57. (4) 97. (1) 137. (4) 177. (4) 18. (3) 58. (4) 98. (4) 138. (3) 178. (1) 19. (4) 59. (3) 99. (2) 139. (1) 179. (1) 20. (1) 60. (1) 4100. (2) 140. (3) 180. (4) 21. (3) 61. (2) 101. (3) 141. (4) 181. (3) 22. (1) 62. (2) 102. (2) 142. (3) 182. (1) 23. (1) 63. (2) 4103. (1) 143. (2) 183. (3) 24. (2) 64. (3) 104. (3) 144, (4) 184. (2) 28. (3) 65. (2) 108. (3) 145. (2) 185. (3) 26. (1) 66. (3) 4108. (3) 148. (3) 186. (2) 27. (1) 67. (2) 107. (4) 147. (3) 187. (4) 28. 3) 68. (4) 4108. (2) 148. (1) 188. (1) 29. (2) 69. (2) 109. (2) 149. (1) 189. (3) 30. (1) 70. (4) 110. (4) 150. (2) 190. (4) 31. 2) 71. @) 111. (4) 151. (2) 191. (1) 32. (3) 72. (1) 112. (1) 182. (1) 192. (1) 33. (2) 73. (1) 113. (3) 153. (2) 193. (3) 34. 2) 74. (3) 114. (1) 154. (3) 194. (1) 35. (4) 75. (2) 115. (4) 155. (3) 195. (3) 36. (2) 76. (1) 116. (2) 186. (2) 196. (1) 37. (1) 7. (a) 117. (2) 187. (3) 197. (3) 38. (3) 78. (1) 118. (2) 158. (4) 198. (2) 39. (4) 79. (3) 119. (4) 159. (4) 199. (1) 40. (2) 80. (4) 120. (1) 160. (1) 200. (4) Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456All India Aakash Test Series for NEE1 Ty Ss To feo) [PHYSICS] SECTION-A 6 Answer (3) ‘Answer (1) Hint: Use Boolean Algebra Hint: Use TE =— KE = PE Sol: ¥= AB= A+B=A+B 2 Sol.: As we know, TE = - 13.6 eV TE=-27.2eV 3,6 eV 2. Answer (3) nh Hint: Use L= 2" int: Use L= >" oh Sol: L= 7, since the angular momenta depend only upon the principal quantum number hence angular momenta would be same. 3, Answer (3) Hint: Use E=-"2S ey 7 Sol: > AE=-1611136 = +1209 eV => Initial principal quantum number = 3 Final principal quantum number Change in angular momentum = 22.8 2x 2n on 4. Answer (1) he Hint: AE = a st Sol: Eis = 13.6 eV, Enns = 2 =-1.51 eV E= 1.514 136= 12.1 eV che. he, 12400 AERO BO aaa = 1024.79 A 5. Answer (2) Hint: Use Boolean algebra Sol: The given truth table inthe question belongs to NAND gate. Hence Y = AB 10. " ‘Answer (3) Hint: Use Bohr’s quantization principle sot: mur= 2 also, x= 2 2n nh 2ar= mv 2nr n 3 2er= 0h Answer (2) Hint & Sol: Max. number of spectral ines a(n-1) 2 Answer (2) Hint; se = P° = 5000 A Answer (4) Hint: Ultraviolet have higher frequency than infrared Sol.: Increasing frequency will increase maximum kinetic of energy of photoelectron. Answer (3) Hint: Use Boolean Algebra Sol: Y=(A18)8 = AB+BB= AB 1B Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ieee 12, 13, 14, Ceo) Answer (4) Hint: The Zener is in breakdown state. Sol. 1a ! 20v 4ko 20V-12V 1kO 4 12V gegz3ma 5mA Vele = 12 * 5 mW =60mW Answer (3) Hint: Both diodes are forward biased Sol.: 2k ov eK aKa 2k 2K A 30V—> 1k H ‘al ve= (2)+a0v-=100 Answer (1) Hint and sol: E, « wr As the electron moves away from nucleus the energy of electron decreases, so the difference between energy level decreases 15. 16. 17 18, 19, 20. 24 CU Answer (3) Hint: BE(Products) - BE (Reactants) = AE Sol.: AE = 60 (8.2 MeV) + 40 (8.0 MeV) - 100 (7.2 Mev) = (492 + 320 - 720) MeV =92MeV Answer (1) Hint and Sol: In case of B* decay, atomic number is decreased by 1 So, reaction is 0% +p ‘Answer (3) Hint: In a decay mass number reduces by 4 and atomic number decreases by 2 and in - decay the atomic number increases by 1 i ON 172 164, sol. \/?x after 2a decay = 1" Y ater 4 69 65°" pr decay itbecomes ‘+z 69 Answer (3) Hint and Sol: For fusion, the light nuclei must have sufficient initial energy to overcome the coulomb potential barrier so fusion requires very high temperatures. ‘Answer (4) Hint: Properties of nuclear force Sol.: The attractive force between two nucleons is strong nuclear force. Answer (1) Hint: BE Sol ve? Am = mass defect (6Me+ 7My— Mc} Answer (3) Hint: Both have same linear momentum Am 1 R {AY Sol; = =| 4 aa) Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456All India Aakash Test Series for NEE1 22. 23, 24 25. 26. For b= 2 naa © Sol. Maximum wavelength will be emitted for n= 4 ton = 3 transition =Ri+ Answer (1) Hint: KE =— TE 13.622 7 Sol. KE= eV= 13.6 eV Answer (2) Hint: Use conservation of mechanical energy ‘equation _ 2kZe? mv? Sold dx Ze Answer (3) Hint; AE = "© x Sol. ‘Answer (1) Hint and Sol: PE is maximum at infinity and KE is, maximum in 7 =1 orbit. 28. 29. 30. 31 feo) Answer (3) Hint and Sol.: Heavy nuclides have more number of neutron than proton and for lighter nuclei the ratio of | abouts Answer (2) Hint and Sol: 3402= 1.5 x102 2 =15mA Answer (1) Hint: Decreasing the distance will increase the intensity Sol: Increasing intensity will generate more electron per second, which will increase current Answer (2) Hint: Conservation of linear momentum. Sol.: Conservation of linear momentum mv = (2m) v v 2 h <_, (Before collision) mv (after collision) -> * Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ieee 32. 33, 34, 36. 36. (Hints & Solutions) Answer (3) Mint: = mr sols ™ Kee roe _ [kze® mr a ‘Answer (2) Hint: Number of photon emitted per second . Power Energy of one photon P 66.3010" = 310? m ‘Answer (2) Ic and Hint: Use & =" 2S = 8x10%eV 3x10 mis = 0.02 eV sim ‘Answer (4) Mint and Sol: Wavelength of cent ght shoul SeCTION-B Answer (2) Hin: nergy regid fr roinglastlcton om lit = P28 Sol.: Energy required for removing first electron is = 756 eV 37, 38, 39, 40, CU Bo ma Energy required to remove second electron = (GPx 13.6 eV =122.4eV Energy required to remove last two electron (75.6 + 122.4) eV = 198 eV Answer (1) Hint: N= Noe“ Sol: After 2 mean life, time Ratio ‘Answer (3) Hint: Energy of 3" orbit Es and energy of 1* orbit E: Sol.: Energy of photon release (AE) =13.6 -1.51 = 12.08 eV = use photoslectric equation eV. = Energy of incident photon — Work function Ve = 12.08 ~1.08, atv ‘Answer (4) A Hint: =F Soli: ha h P ‘Answer (2) Hint: Nuclear radius R= Ro (A)!® Sol: Rx A (128) (ea) R, =4.8% 5 a8 xy 6 fermi Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456All India Aakash Test Series for NEE1 Ty EZ To feo) 41. Answer (3) 10V—2.5kO lo=0 Hint: Use de Broglie wavelength formula 10 lo= Text0 A=4ma le 4mA___ 4000 Sol: For same potential difference V @= 1” Gma+20 uA 4020 ~ 99950 noe 48, Answer (3) mm 2 a (Mp * Hint and Sol: E = ~13.6 2 eV = Ae. fampx?e _o 5 n nV mxe Here n=3,2=3 42. Answer (1) Hint: LED is forward biased E=-13.6 eV 49. Answer (1) hc . Sols AE =" he? by? ho? ha Hint: Use photoelectric equation 43, Answer (3) Sol: Smv? = ht—o @ Hint and Sol: Vp-Va = 0.4 mA (15 kQ) +0.2V 2 =6V+02V Vy’? = Ant 0 tip =6.2V 2 ¥ 44. Answer (2) From (i) and (i) Hint and Sol: LED is used in forward biased alone and photodiode is used in reverse biased only. In LED electrical energy is converted into light energy and in photodiode light energy is converted into electric current, 48. Answer (4) Hint and Sol.: In n-type semiconductors current is, mainly due to electrons as they are majority vis (2ve+ Ste charge carriers and semiconductor is entirely v= fo () neutral yn) 46. Answer (3) = yea Hint: Use Einstein photoelectric equation 50. Answer (3) (KE)nec= v= 6 Sol. (KE)nat= hv —$ Hint: Use formula t= R) 4-1 = (KE)nax = 6= 1.2 x lam =48eV 4_pft_1 47. Answer (3) an ans] _ tLe naa 204A => 42 4 (1) 7R Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-4762345651 62. 53, 54, Rx5 (2) [CHEM SECTION-A Answer (2) Hint Sol. S=S, Hint: Benzene diazonium chloride is a salt. Sol. Benzene diazonium chloride is soluble in water. Answer (1) The salt generally dissolves in water. Hint: Amylose is water soluble component of starch Sol: + Amylose and amylopectin are components of starch. two + Amylose is water soluble component which constitutes about 15-20% of starch, + Amylopectin is insoluble in water and constitutes about 80-85% of starch. Answer (3) Hint: The amino acid which cannot be synthesised in the body and must be obtained through diet, are: known as essential amino acids. Sol. acids. Histidine and valine are essential amino CU From eq. (1) & eq, (2) 144 36 a= 8, TH ISTRY] 55. 56. 87. Answer (2) Hint: Electron withdrawing group present at para position to the -COOH group increases acidity of the compound, Sol: + Electron donating group present at para position decreases acidic strength, + -NOz is electron withdrawing group while -CHs, “OCH: are electron donating group. + The correct order of acidic strength: 00H &. cOoH COOH foe i Hint: Chromic acd oxidises acetophenone to benzoic ai sol: A Saf a bm at rower Hint: Carbortic acids are assoiatod wih each ther by ieraolclar rogen bonding. Sol: + Simple alphatc caboxyle acids having up to four carbon atoms are misciton water ue ta the oration of hyatogon bonds wth water, + Carboxylic acids are higher bolling liquids than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular masses. This is due to more extensive association of carboxylic acid molecules through intermolecular —_ hydrogen bonding, Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456RUT a er) 58. 59. 60. 61. ‘Answer (4) Hint: Electron withdrawing group attached with benzene ring at para position increases electrophilcity at carbonyl carbon of -COOCHs ‘group. Sol.: -NOz has strong electron withdrawing nature hence electrophilicty of carbonyl carbon is Gooch, maximum in and hydrolysis is fastest No, ‘among the given options 7 len we (SCS 08 it C08 + chor ‘Answer (3) Hint: Carboxylic acid is converted to acid chloride ‘on reaction with thiony| chloride. Sol © ° AA, aoe wie m) © Answer (1) Hint: Isocyanide is a foul-smelling compound Sol: + Primary with chloroform and ethanolic KOH gives isocyanide which is a foul-smelling compound. NH, Ne Dr see os . 2 Isopropylamine ‘Answer (2) Hint: isomeric amines, intermolecular hydrogen bonding more is the boiling points, amine on reaction For more is the To feo) Sol: Intermolecular hydrogen _ bonding association is more in primary amines than in secondary amines as there are two hydrogen ‘atoms available for hydrogen bond formation in it. Tertiary amines do not have available for hydrogen bond formation. Therefore, the order of boiling points for isomeric amines is a follows: Primary > Secondary > Tertiary + Gii)> > 62, Answer (2) Po. Hint: ATP. ent Sol. Po. NH, ESL, My > on (snow g wn Sono 63. Answer (2) Hint: n HelVothard Zelinsky reaction, halogen — carbon bond is formed Sol.: Co CO.HCI on, Anhyd. AIGL/Cuct Gatterman-Koch reaction 64, Answer (3) Hint & Sol: No, CHO Q zest HON 9, NaH (O>n "{O) Hetianianaied 65. Answer (2) Hint: Arene diazonium fluoroborate on heating yields ary! fluoride Sol: @o NBF, Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone 011 -47623456 intermolecular association due to the absence of hydrogen atom66. Answer (3) Hint: Carboxyl group is deactivating in nature. Sol: + Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel- Crafts reaction because the carboxyl group is deactivating and the catalyst ‘AlCl [Lewis acid] gets bonded to the carboxyl group. coon Oa ee m-Bromobenzoic acic (Major) 67. Answer (2) Hint: The given reaction is called Clemmensen reduction Sol. + The carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones is reduced to CH» group on treatment with zinc-amalgam and concentrated HCl 68. Answer (4) Hint: Compound B is a methy! ketone Sol. KON_,CH,-CH,-CN @ + CH ~ CHe - Cl (yohyuger_,CH,-CH,-C- CH, corse” 1 . aie i CHa— CHs— COONa + CHI + Ketones do not reduce Fehiing’s solution + Carboxylic acid on reaction with NaHCOs liberates COs. CU ae 69, Answer (2) Hint: CH, CH (OCIOHCL), cHo O sooo, > oO =z) Sol.: In this reaction, toluene is oxidised to benzaldehyde. This is called Etard reaction. 70. Answer (4) Hint: Aldehydes having two a-hydrogen atoms undergo aldol condensation reaction giving a, B unsaturated carbonyl compounds. Sol.: ainsoH ase orcH0 cH cH STE cH0 eo 71. Answer (2) Hint: Serine contains -OH group Sol.: Glutamine is ° Hn Ech, —cH, — GH-cOOH NH 72. Answer (1) ee Lactose is commonly known as milk sugar oy me CH. en H 73, Answer (1) Hint: Sugar moiety present in DNA is 6-D-2. deoxyribose ‘Sol.: HOH.C . OH HOH.C ° OH Ho H # H On H OH OH [-D-2deoxyrbose (D-tbose (Sugar moiety (Sugar moiety DNA) in RNA) ‘Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456RU eee 74, 75. 76. Answer (3) Hint: Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction with the anion formed by phthalimide. ws be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis because ary! halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide. Answer (2) Hints Compounds containing CH, G— group or ° CH, - CH ~ group give positive iodoform test. OH Sol. (CH,CH,OH—™°_,{CH,CHO]— CHI, + HCOO ° iy Ph-C-Pr—y No characteristic change (benzophenone) tea 9 |. Ethanal, (CHsCHO) CH, -C CH, ° Butanone 1 CH, - CH ~CH.- CH, OH ‘Sec-butanol [> ~ CH CH, 4) give OH positive iodoform test Answer (1) Hint: Deficiency of vitamin K causes increased blood clotting time feo) Sol: Vitamin Deficiency diseases Thiamine Loss of appetite Pyridoxine Convulsions: Ascorbic acid | Bleeding gums Vitamin K Increased blood clotting time 77. Answer (4) Hint: Benzenesulphony! chloride is called Hinsberg's reagent Sol: + Hinsberg's reagent (CeHsSO2Cl) on reaction with primary amine gives a product which dissolves in aqueous alkali + Hinsberg's reagent (CsHsSO.Cl) on reaction with secondary amine gives a product which does not dissolve in aqueous alkali + Hinsberg's reagent (CeHsSO2C) does not react with tertiary amine, 78. Answer (1) Hint: In disaccharides, if the reducing groups of monosaccharides Le. aldehydic or ketonic groups are bonded then they will not given positive Tollens' test and are called non-reducing sugars. Sol: CHOH ‘OH HOHC 4 i oH HHO HO Lo CHOH HOH OH H a-D-ghoose D-fructose Sucrose In sucrose, the reducing groups of glucose and fructose are involved in glycosidic bond formation hence will not reduce Tollens' reagent. ‘Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone; 011-47623456ieee Ceo) 79. Answer (3) 20. at Hint: Lone pair present on sp? hybridised nitrogen is most easily available for protonation. i iin, > > = Between Zand [fone pair on Z nitrogen in aniline is delocalised and is least available for protonation. + In pytidine (C3) the lone pair on si nitrogen is present on sp? hybridized nitrogen hence it is less available for i i seme vine ws we so. Re be fo cae | a I s+ crcHo nove Hint: Ketal is formed on the reaction of ketone with, excess of monohydric alcohol in presence of dry HCl gas 82, 83, 84, 85, 86, CU fs 4 vet Answer (2) Hint: Electron withdrawing groups increase the acidity and decrease the pK values of the acids. Sol.:—| effect order CN > -F > -CeHs + Acidic strength order: (ivy> (i> Gi > Gi) + pKa value order: (i) > Gi) > (> Gv) ‘Answer (2) Hint: Ser Son Sol: SS NN Nea Peser ‘Answer (2) Hint: Mothanal is gas at room temperature Sol: Due to dipole-dipole interaction, the boing point of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons and ether of comparable molecular mass. ‘Answer (4) Hint: Guanine is a purine base Sol.: + Adenine and Guanine are purine bases + Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil are pyrimidine bases SECTION -B Answer (3) Hint: Benzene diazonium chloride undergoes diazo coupling reaction with aniline in acidic medium, Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456eae Ty ee m a ceo, €S- nen 4D (Maio) 87. Answer (3) Hint: Its an intramolecular Cannizzaro reaction Sol. : on ae Bicone fn 0 oO og Ho-He-cod <= H¢-¢-08 |ro i H0- cH, cooH 8. Answer (4) Hint: Myosin i fbrous poten Sol: = Keratn and myosin are fbrous proteins + Insulin and albumin are globule proteins 68. Answer (3) Hint & Sol: + Abnormally low level of thyroxine leads to hypothyroidism which is characterised by lethargy no space ness and obesity + Increased level of hyperthyroidism. 90. Answer (4) Hint: Acidified KMnOs is a strong oxidising agent Sol a KMn0.-H,SO. ss a COOH 91. Answer (3) Hint: CHsCHaCHaCHzCHO is called valeraldehyde Sol.: CH2= CH-CHO — Acrolein CHO thyroxine causes ‘OCH, > Vanillin OH To CH=cH-cHO cr » Cinnamaldehyde 92. Answer (3) feo) NH, NHCOCH Hint: (Sy (CHsC0}, 0 Pyridine Sol: NH NHcOCH Niicoct A, (exco.0 &, 2D Pare GEOR “ u 2) a0) | 0 NH a © 93. Answer (1) Hint: Nitriles on reduction with sodium amalgam in ethanol give primary amine. sol: CHiCH.CONH, 28H» CHICHCHEN: NaiHig) crncHsen SHE Crotches N On) 94. Answer (4) Hint & Sol.: Lone pair present on nitrogen of aniline binds with Lewis acid (AICI) due to this, nitrogen of aniline acquires positive charge and hence acts as a strong deactivating group for further reaction. 95. Answer (1) Hint: Glucose when heated with HI gives hexane Sol.: Despite having the aldehyde group, glucose does not give Schiffs test and it does not from the hydrogensulphite addition product with NaHSOs, Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ieee 96. 7. 98, 101 Ceo) All India Aakash Test Series for NEE ma Answer (3) aldehyde hence aliphatic aldehydes react Hint and Sol.: Steroid hormones are produced by faster than aromatic aldehyde. adrenal cortex and gonads. These play very + Ketones are less reactive than aromatic important role in the functions of the body. aldehydes because of more steric Answer (1) hindrance in tetrahedral intermediate due © Hint, 08 i to the CN addition. 004 99. Answer (2) Hint: Jones reagent is CrOs ~ H2SO« ook Sol: Jones reagent (CrOs — HsSO.) oxidises ore 08 ; primary alcohol to carboxylic acid a mnor CHs-CH2-CH2-OH 2-150 cHscH:COOH 4100, Answer (2) Hint: NaBH« does not reduce ester “teres? WHO Sol a °. © ‘Answer (4) paneblie’ Hint: Aldehydes are more reactive than ketone 3S CHOH towards nucleophilic addition reaction HO, ~ © Sol: + Electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon of aliphatic aldehyde is more than aromatic [BOTANY] ‘SECTION-A 4103. Answer (1) Answer (3) Hint: A stable community should not show too Hint: Primary succession starts at barren area that much variation in productivity from year-to-year is never having vegetation of any type or where no and it must be either resistant or resilient to living organism ever existed. occasional disturbances. Sol.: Primary succession takes place on bare Sol.: According to David Timan, plots with more rock. Secondary succession occurs in areas such species showed less year-to-year variation in total as abandoned farmlands, burnt or cut forest, biomass and also increased diversity contributed flooded lands, etc. to higher productivity 102. Answer (2) 104, Answer (3) Hint: Interaction of biotic and abiotic components Hint: Earth Summit was held to take appropriate results in a physical structure that is characteristic measures for conservation of biodiversity and for each type of ecosystem. sustainable utlisation of its benefits. Sol.: Stratification and species composition are Sol: The World Summit held in 2002 in structural aspects of an ecosystem Johannesburg, South Africa was to achieve a Productivity, nutrient cycling, energy flow and significant reduction in the current rate of decomposition are functional aspects of an biodiversity loss at global, regional and local ecosystem. levels. Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456RU eee 105. Answer (3) Hint: Decomposers are usually aerobic microbes. Sol: Decomposition is requiring process. Answer (3) Hint: Energy flow across trophic levels follows 10% law. largely an oxygen- 108. Sol.: Plants (10,000 J) -» Rabbit (1000 J) -» Wolf (100 J) -+ Top Carnivore (10 J) 107. Answer (4) Hint: The pioneer community is followed by a specific orderly sequence of series of plant communities known as transitional or seral communities. Sol: The community that is in near equilibrium with the environment is called climax community, 108. Answer (2) Hint: These species are compared with rivets on wings of airplane according to Paul Ehrlich’s perspective. Sol: Keystone species drive major ecosystem functions. 109. Answer (2) Hint: It is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area Sol.: Each trophic level has a certain mass ofliving material at a particular time called standing crop. ‘Answer (4) Hint: Hydrarch succession starts with pioneer ‘community phytoplanktons and gradually reaches climax community, forest, 110. Sol: Correct sequence of communities in hydrarch succession is, Phytoplanktons -> Submerged plant stage —> Submerged free-floating plant stage > Reed- swamp stage > Marsh-meadow stage > Scrub stage + Forest, Answer (4) Hint: In upright pyramid of number, the producers fare maximum as compared to top carnivores, a Sol.: Tree ecosystem usually represents inverted or spindle shaped pyramid of number. Rest others are upright pyramid of number. 112 113. 114. 146. 116. 117 118. To feo) Answer (1) Hint: The World Summit on sustainable development was held in 2002, Johannesburg, Sol: The concept of Biosphere reserves was launched in 1975 as a part of UNESCO's MAB (Man and Biosphere) programme. Answer (3) Hint: The slope of line will be much steeper if we analyse species area relationship of large area like entire continent, Sol.: The species area relationship for the entire continent, Z values will ie in the ranges of 0.6 to 42. Answer (1) Hint: In ex-situ conservation approach, threatened animals and plants are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in a special setting where they can be protected. Sol.: Wildlife sanctuary is an in situ conservation strategy. Answer (4) Hint: Sarguja is situated in central India. Sol.: Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar are areas of Madhya Pradesh. Answer (2) Hint: Species diversity decreases as we move ‘away from the equator towards the poles. Sol: The increasing order of diversity of birds in the given areas is as follows : Greenland (56) < New York (105) Producers -» Herbivores + Secondary consumers, Answer (4) Hint: Several biotic and abiotic factors will affect the magnitude of primary productivity. Sol.: Primary productivity of an ecosystem is affected by plants and their photosynthetic capacity and abiotic factors like nutrients, soll moisture, ete. Answer (3) Hint: Indo-Burma and Himalayan region is a hot- spot region of India. Sol.: Indo-Burma and Himalayan region shows a high degree of endemism and is prone to accelerated habitat loss. Answer (2) Hint: Secondary consumer occupies third trophic level in a food chain, Sol: Secondary consumers are also called primary camivores and occupy the third trophic level Answer (4) Hint: Gir National park is famous for lions. Sol: Kaziranga National Park is famous for Rhinoceros. Bandipur National Park and Periyar Sanctuary (Kerala) is famous for elephants. Corbett National park is famous for tiger. Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ieee 145, 146. 147. 151 162. Ceo) ‘Answer (2) Hint: India is one of the 12 mega diversity Countries of the world and its share of the global species diversity is impressive as compared to its share of world’s land area. Sol: India has only 2.4% of the world’s land area that possesses 8.1% species diversity of the world Answer (3) Hint: Tropical environments unlike temperate cones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable Sol.: Tropics receive more solar energy which contribute to higher productivity and indirectly to greater diversity. Answer (3) Hint: Ecosystem services that nature provides and are not direct economic benefits represent broadly utilitarian benefits Sol: Food and firewood are direct economic benefits from nature representing narrow utliarian arguments for conserving biodiversity. Oxygen and pollination are broadly utilitarian services of biodiversity. CU 148, Answer (1) Hint: Itis the diversity at genetic level. Sol.: The genetic diversity can be exemplified by 1000 varieties of mango in India. Answer (1) Hint: Primary production is defined as the amount, of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. Sol.: Primary production is expressed in terms of weight (g m-2) or energy (kcal m~). Answer (2) Hint : Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) minus respiratory losses (R), is the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) (GPP —-R=NPP| 149. 150. Sol: Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers). Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers, [ZOOLOGY] SECTION-A ‘Answer (2) Hint: Bright orange bands Sol.: Pure DNA fragments present in the gel cannot be seen in visible light without staining Hence, after gel electrophoresis, the separated DNA fragments are stained using ethidium bromide. This is followed by exposure to UV radiations Bright orange-coloured bands are visible where DNA fragments are present in the gel ‘Answer (1) Hint: Beetles are coleopterans. Sol. Lepidopterans = Tobacco _budworm, Armyworm Coleopterans — Beetles Dipterans - Flies, mosquitoes 153, Answer (2) Hint: Less than 30 Sol.: There are an estimated 200,000 varieties of rice in India alone. ‘There are 27 documented varieties of Basmati rice grown in India, 154, Answer (3) Hint: Restriction endonucleases are hydrolytic, enzymes Sol.: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA, hence are known as molecular scissors, They are hydrolytic enzymes, hence belong to the group hydrolases. Hydrolases are class Ill enzymes. ‘The enzyme commission number of all hydrolases starts with 3. Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456