Disha Super 10 Mock Tests For JEE Main

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Contents
1. Mock Test - 1 MT-1–10
9. Mock Test - 9 MT-95–106
10. Mock Test - 10 MT-107–118
Mock Test Solutions (1-10) MT-119-244

Time : 3 hrs.
1 Max. Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This test will be a 3 hours Test.
2. This test consists of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics questions with equal weightage of 100
marks.
3. Each question is of 4 marks.
4. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics (Q no.1 to 30), Chemistry (Q no.31 to
60) and Mathematics (Q. no.61 to 90). Each part is divided into two sections, Section A consists of 20
multiple choice questions & Section B consists of 10 Numerical value answer Questions.
In Section B, candidates have to attempt only 5 questions out of 10.
5. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices in Section A. For each question 4 marks
will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect choice and zero mark will be
awarded for unattempted question. For Section B 4 marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero
for marked for each review / unattempted/incorrect answer.
6. Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the students
appearing for the test.
7. All calculations / written work should be done in the rough sheet provided.
PHYSICS
Section - A 2. A 20 kg block B is suspended from a cord
attached to a 40 kg cart A. Find the ratio of the
1. Two balls of same mass and carrying equal acceleration of block in cases (i) and (ii) shown
charge are hung by threads of length l from a in the figure immediately after the system is
fixed support. At electrostatic equilibrium, released from rest. (neglect friction)
assuming that angles made by each thread is
small, the separation, x between the balls is
A A
proportional to : B B
(1) l (2) l 2 (3) l 2/3 (4) l 1/3 Case (i) Case (ii)
MT-2 JEE MAIN
3 7. A certain amount of gas is taken through a cyclic

2 3
(1) (2) 3 2 (3) (d) process (ABCDA) that has two isobars, one
3 2 2 2
isochore and one isothermal. The cycle can be
3. The diagram showing the variation of represented on a P-V indicator diagram as :
gravitational potential of earth with distance from
the centre of earth is P
B C B
P C
(1) V (b) V
R R (1) (2)
O O A D A D
r r
V V
(3) V (d) V P
B C
P
B
C
R R
O
r O (3) (4)
r A D
A D
V
V
4. In “Al” and “Si”, if temperature is changed from 8. A goods train accelerating uniformly on a
normal temperature to 70 K then straight railway track, approaches an electric pole
standing on the side of track. Its engine passes
(1) The resistance of Al will increase and that
the pole with velocity u and the guard’s room
of Si will decrease
passes with velocity v. The middle wagon of the
(2) The resistance of Al will decrease and that
train passes the pole with a velocity.
of Si will increase
(3) Resistance of both decrease u+v 1 2
(1) (2) u + v2
(4) Resistance of both increase 2 2
5. Two rods of length d1 and d2 and coefficients of æ u 2 + v2 ö
thermal conductivities K1 and K2 are kept (3) uv (4) ç ÷
touching each other. Both have the same area of è 2 ø
cross-section, the equivalent thermal 9. A wheel is rotating at 900 r.p m. about its axis.
conductivity is When power is cut off it comes to rest in 1 minute.
(1) K1 + K2 (2) K1d1 + K2d2 The angular retardation in rad/s2 is
(1) p/2 (2) p/4
d1K1 + d 2 K 2 d1 + d 2 (3) p/6 (4) p/8
(3) (d) (d / K + d / K )
d1 + d 2 1 1 2 2 10. Two springs of force constants 300 N/m
(Spring A) and 400 N/m (Spring B) are joined
6. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of together in series. The combination is
radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a compressed by 8.75 cm. The ratio of energy
uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of E E
stored in A and B is A . Then A is equal
magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is EB EB
to :
m 0 qf m0 q
(1) (2) 4 16
2R 2f R (1) (2)
3 9
m 0q m 0 qf 3 9
(3) 2pf R
(4) (3) (4)
2 pR 4 16
Mock Test -1 MT-3
11. A particle of mass m is acted upon by a force F 14. If 10% of a radioactive material decays in 5 days,
R then the amount of the original material left after
given by the empirical law F = 2 v(t). If this 20 days is approximately
t
law is to be tested experimentally by observing the (1) 60% (b) 66%
motion starting from rest, the best way is to plot : (3) 70% (4) 75%
1 15. When white light passes through a dispersive
(1) log v(t) against (2) v(t) against t2 medium, it breaks up into various colours. Which
t
1 of the following statements is true?
(3) log v(t) against 2 (4) log v(t) against t (1) Velocity of light for violet is greater than
t the velocity of light for red colour.
12. In case of a p-n junction diode at high value of (2) Velocity of light for violet is less than the
reverse bias, the current rises sharply. The value velocity of light for red.
of reverse bias is known as (3) Velocity of light is the same for all colours
(1) cut off voltage (2) zener voltage (4) Velocityoflight for differentcolours hasnothing
(3) inverse voltage (4) critical voltage to do with the phenomenon of dispersion
13. Assume that the nuclear binding energy per 16. A plate of mass (M) is placed on a horizontal
nucleon (B/A) versus mass number (A) is as frictionless surface and a bodyofmass (m) is placed
on this plate. The coefficient of dynamic friction
shown in the figure. Use this plot to choose the
between this body and the plate is m. If a force
correct choice(s) given below.
3mmg is applied to the body of mass (m) along the
B/A horizontal, the acceleration of the plate will be
8 mm mmg
(1) g (2)
6 M M+m
4
3mmg 2mmg
2 (3) (4)
M M+m
0
100 200 A 17. Lights of two different frequencies, whose
(1) Fusion of twonuclei with mass numbers lying photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV
in the range of 1 < A< 50 will release energy respectively, successively illuminate a metal
whose work function is 0.5 eV. The ratio of the
(2) Fusion of twonuclei with mass numbers lying
maximum speeds of the emitted electrons will be
in the rangeof51 < A< 100will releaseenergy
(1) 1 : 5 (b) 1 : 4
(3) Fission of a nucleus lying in the mass range
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
of 100 < A < 200 will release energy when
broken into two equal fragments 18. Which of the plots shown in the figure represents
(4) Fission of a nucleus lying in the mass range speed (vn) of the electron in a hydrogen atom as
of 120 < A < 180 will release energy when a function of the principal quantum number (n)?
broken into two equal fragments
MT-4 JEE MAIN
22. In a meter bridge experiment resistances are

connected as shown in the figure. Initially
resistance P = 4 W and the neutral point N is at
60 cm from A. Now an unknown resistance R is
connected in series to P and the new position of
the neutral point is at 80 cm from A. The value of
unknown resistance R is ________ohm.
P Q
(1) B (2) D A B
N
(3) C (4) A
19. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the ( )
temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, its E Rh K
efficiency is doubled. Temperatures of source 23. The circular head of a screw gauge is divided
and sink are into 200 divisions and move 1 mm ahead in one
(1) 99°C,37°C (2) 124°C,62°C revolution. If the same instrument has a zero error
(3) 37°C,99°C (4) 62°C,124°C of –0.05 mm and the reading on the main scale in
20. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and measuring diameter of a wire is 6 mm and that on
angular frequency 320/s is applied to a series circular scale is 45. The diameter of the wire is
LCRcircuit. Given that R= 5 W, L= 25 mH and C ________ mm.
24. The radius of curvature of a thin plano-convex
= 1000 mF. The total impedance, and phase
lens is 20 cm (of curved surface) and the refractive
difference between the voltage across the source index is 1.5. If the plane surface is silvered, then
and the current will respectively be : it behaves like a concave mirror of focal length
(1) 10 W and tan–1 æç 5 ö÷
________ cm.
25. Three resistors of 4 W, 6 W and 12 W are
è 3ø
(2) 7 W and 45° connected in parallel and the combination is
connected in series with a 1.5 V battery of 1 W
æ8ö internal resistance. The rate of Joule heating in
(3) 10 W and tan –1 ç ÷
è3ø the 4 W resistor is ________ watt.
(4) 7 W and tan–1 ç ö÷
æ 5 26. A bottle has an opening of radius a and length
b. A cork of length b and radius (a + Da)
è 3ø
where (Da a
Section - B < < a) is compressed to fit into the
opening completely (see figure). If b
21. A toy–car, blowing its horn, is moving with a the bulk modulus of cork is B and
steady speed of 5 m/s, away from a wall. An frictional coefficient between the
observer, towards whom the toy car is moving, bottle and cork is m then the force
is able to hear 5 beats per second. If the velocity needed to push the cork into the
of sound in air is 340 m/s, the frequency of the bottle is
horn of the toy car is close to ________ Hz. (x pmBb)DA.
Find the value of x.
Mock Test -1 MT-5
27. A sinusoidal voltage of amplitude 25 volt and 29. The magnetic field of earth at the equator is
frequency 50Hz is applied to a half wave rectifier
approximately 4 × 10–5 T. The radius of earth is
using P-n junction diode. No filter is used and
the load r esistor is 1000W. The forward 6.4 × 106 m. Then the dipole moment of the earth
resistance Rf of ideal diode is 10W. The of the order of 10x Am2. Find the value of x.
percentage rectifier efficiency is _______. 30. A particle starts S.H.M. from the mean position.
28. An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius Its amplitude is a and total energy E. At one
12 cm moves along the groove steadily and instant its kinetic energy is 3E/4, its displacement
completes 7 revolutions in 100 sec. What is the a
linear speed (in cm/s) of the motion? at this instant is y = . Find the value of x.
x
CHEMISTRY
Section - A 34. Which of the following orders is wrong?
(1) Electron affinity– N < O < F < Cl
31. Which of the following resonance structure is (2) Ist ionisation potential – Be < B < N < O
lowest in energy? (3) Basic property– MgO < CaO < FeO < Fe2O3
:
H O : : H O – : : (4) Reactivity–Be < Li < K < Cs

| || | | 35. The following species will not exhibit
A. H–C –C B. H – C – C + disproportionation reaction
: :
||
| O– H | O– H (1) ClO– (2) ClO-2

:
H H
(3) ClO3- (4) ClO-4
:
: :
H O –
| | ® H 3O + + F – ;
Ka
36. Given, HF + H 2 O ¾¾¾
C. H – C – C
: :
| + O– H
|
K
F– + H 2 O ¾¾¾b ® HF + OH – .
H
(1) A Which relation is correct ?
(2) B 1
(1) Kb = Kw (2) Kb =
(3) C Kw
(4) All have same energy Ka
32. Which of the following pairs have identical bond (3) Ka × Kb = Kw (4)= Kw
order ? Kb
(1) N 2 , O 22+ (2) N 2 , O 2– 37. The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions
–
(3) N 2 , O 2 (4) O 2+ , N 2 SO32- , S2 O24- and S2 O62- follow the order
33. In a compound AOH, electronegativity of ‘A’ is (1) SO 32 - < S 2 O 24 - < S2 O 62 -
2.1, the compound would be
(1) Acidic (2) S 2 O 42- < S2 O 62 - < SO 32 -
(2) Neutral towards acid & base (3) S 2O 62- < S2 O 24- < SO32-
(3) Basic
(4) Amphoteric
(4) S 2 O 24- < SO 32 - < S 2 O 62 -
MT-6 JEE MAIN
38. Among the electrolytes Na 2 SO 4 , CaCl 2 , 44. Which of the following oxidising reaction of
Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 and NH4 Cl, the most effective KMnO4 occurs in acidic medium?
coagulating agent for Sb2S3 sol is (i) Fe2+ (green) is converted to Fe3+ (yellow).
(1) Na2SO4 (2) CaCl2 (ii) Iodide is converted to iodate.
(iii) Thiosulphate oxidised to sulphate.
(3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) NH4Cl
(iv) Nitrite is oxidised to nitrate.
39. Which of the following will not be soluble in (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv)
sodium carbonate solution? (3) (iv) only (4) (ii) and (iv)
OH 45. Which of the following compound cannot be
COOH used in preparation of iodoform?
O2N NO2
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COCH3
(1) (b)
(3) HCHO (4) 2-propanol
46. Anhydrous AlCl3 cannot be obtained from which
NO2 of the following reactions ?
(1) Heating AlCl3.6H2O
OH SO2OH (2) By passing dry HCl over hot aluminium
NO2 powder
(3) By passing dry Cl2 over hot aluminium
(3) (4)
powder
(4) By passing dry Cl2 over a hot mixture of
40. Although Al has a high oxidation potential it alumina and coke
resists corrosion because of the formation of a 47. Identify X in the sequence given :
tough, protective coat of
NH 2
(1) Al(NO3)2 (2) AlN
(3) Al2O3 (4) Al2(CO3)2 CHCl3 HCl
(Y) X + methanoic acid
41. Which is used as medicine? KOH (300 K)
(1) PVC (2) Terylene
(3) Glyptal (4) Urotropine Cl
42. In Lassaigne’s test, the organic compound is
fused with a piece of sodium metal in order to (1) NH2 Cl
(1) increase the ionisation of the compound
(2) decrease the melting point of the compound
(3) increase the reactivity of the compound
(4) convert the covalent compound into a (2) C N Cl
mixture of ionic compounds
43. An aqueous solution of colourless metal
sulphate M gives a white precipitate with (3) N C Cl
NH4OH. This was soluble in excess of NH4OH.
On passing H2S through this solution a white
ppt. is formed. The metal M in the salt is
(4) CH3–NH Cl
(1) Ca (2) Ba
(3) Al (4) Zn
Mock Test -1 MT-7
48. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data Cl

shown for the following reaction A + B ¾ ¾® C Cl
Expt. No. [A] [B] Initial Rate
Cl Cl
(i) 0.012 0.035 0.10
(ii) 0.024 0.070 0.80 53. If 3.01 × 1020 molecules are removed from 98 mg
(iii) 0.024 0.035 0.10 of H2SO4, then calculate the number of moles of
(iv) 0.012 0.070 0.80 H2SO4 left in terms of x × 10–3.
(1) Rate = K[B]3 (2) Rate = K [B]4 54. The initial volume of a gas cylinder is 750.0 mL.
(3) Rate = K [A] [B] 3 (4) Rate = K [A]2 [B]2 If the pressure of gas inside the cylinder changes
49. An alkene upon ozonolysis yield from 840.0 mm Hg to 360.0 mm Hg, calculate the
CHO – CH2– CH2– CH2 – CHO only. The alkene is final volume of the gas.
(1) CH2= CH—CH2— CH2 — CH2— CH2 — CH3 55. In an amino acid, the carboxyl group ionises at
pKa 1 = 2.34 and ammonium ion at pK a 2 = 9.60.
(2)
Find the isoelectric point (pI) of the amino acid
56. AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecules. If the bond
(3) (4) enthalpies of A2, AB and B2 are in the ratio 1:1 :0.5
and enthalpy of formation of AB from A2 and B2 is
50. An inorganic compound gives off O2 when
–100 kJ mol–1. Calculate the bond energy of A2
heated, turns an acidic solution of KI violet and
reduces acidified KMnO4. The compound is 57. A 5.25% solution of a substance is isotonic with a
(1) SO3 (2) KNO3 1.5% solution of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol–1) in
the same solvent. If the densities of both the solu-
(3) H2O2 (4) All of these
tions are assumed to be equal to 1.0 g cm–3, calcu-
Section - B late molar mass of the substance
51. Ionization energy of gaseous Na atoms is 58. If the following half cells have the E° values as
495.5 kJ mol–1. Calculate the lowest possible
Fe +3 + e – ¾
¾® Fe +2 ; E° = + 0.77V and
frequency of light that ionizes a sodium atom in
terms of x × 1015s–1 Fe +2 + 2e - ¾
¾® Fe ; E° = – 0.44V. Calculate the
(h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js, NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol–1)
E° of the half cell Fe +3 + 3e – ¾
¾® Fe
Cl
59. What is the oxidation number of Mn in the
52. The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is product of alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2.
60. A solid AB crystallises as NaCl structure and
1.5 D. Find the dipole moment of the radius of the cation is 0.100nm. Calculate the
maximum radius of the anion
MT-8 JEE MAIN
MATHEMATICS
Section - A 66. The angle between the two lines
x +1 y + 3 z - 4 x - 4 y + 4 z +1
= = & = = is
61. If 2 sec 2a = tan b + cot b then one of the values 2 2 -1 1 2 2
of (a + b) = æ4ö æ3ö
(1) cos -1 ç ÷ (2) cos -1 ç ÷
p è9ø è9ø
(1) p (2)
2
æ2ö æ1ö
p (3) cos -1 ç ÷ (4) cos -1 ç ÷
(3) (4) None è9ø è9ø
4
5 n 67. The contrapositive of (p Ú q) Þ r is
Cr
62. The value of å r
n
C r -1
= (1) r Þ (p Ú q) (2) ~ r Þ (p Ú q)
r =1
(1) 5 (n – 3) (2) 5 (n – 2) (3) ~ r Þ ~ p Ù ~ q (4) p Þ (q Ú r)
(3) 5n (4) 5 (2n – 9) 68. If (2, 3, 5) are ends of the diameter of a sphere
3 x2 + y2 + z2 – 6x – 12y – 2z + 20 = 0. Then
63. 14
C7 + å 17-i C6 = coordinates of the other end are
(1) (4, 9, –3) (2) (4, 3, 5)
i =1
(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) (4, 3, –3) (4) (4, –3, 9)

C7 C7
dx
ò (x - b)
(3) 17 (4) 16
C8 C8 69. is
(x - a)(b - x )
d2y
64. If ey(x + 1) = 1, then, is
dx 2 2 x -α
(1) +C
2 α -β β - x
dy æ dy ö
(1) (2) ç ÷
dx è dx ø 2
(2) (x - α) ( β - x) + C
3 α -β
æ dy ö
(3) ç dx ÷ (4) 1
è ø a -b
65. Let ABC be a triangle with vertices at points (3) (x - a ) b - x
2
A (2, 3, 5), B (–1, 3, 2) and C (l, 5, m) in three
(4) None of these.
dimensional space. If the median through A is
equallyinclined with the axes, then (l, m) is equal 70. Consider the following planes
to : P : x + y – 2z + 7 = 0
(1) (10, 7) (2) (7, 5) Q : x + y + 2z + 2 = 0
(3) (7,10) (4) (5, 7)
R : 3x + 3y – 6z – 11 = 0
Mock Test -1 MT-9
(1) P and R are perpendicular 75. IfAB = 0, then for the matrices
(2) Q and R are perpendicular é cos q sin qù and
A = ê cos q
2
(3) P and Q are parallel ú
ëcos q sin q sin 2 q û
(4) P and R are parallel
é cos 2 f cos f sin fù
1 1 1 p4 B= ê ú , q – f is
71. If 4 + 4 + 4 + ..... + ¥ = , then the value ëêcos f sin f sin 2 f ûú
1 2 3 90
p
11 1 (1) an odd multiple of
of 4 + 4 + 4 + ......¥ is 2
1 3 5 (2) an odd multiple of p
p4 p4 p
(1) (2) (3) an even multiple of
96 45 2
(4) 0
89 4 76. If f(x) = xex(1 – x), x Î R , then f(x) is
(3) p (4) None of these
90 (1) decreasing on [–1/2, 1]
72. The domain of the function (2) decreasing on R
f (x) = exp( 5x - 3 - 2x 2 ) is (3) increasing on [–1/2, 1]
(4) increasing on R
(1) [3/2, ¥) (2) [1, 3/2]
77. The area bounded by the curves x = y2 and
(3) (–¥, 1] (4) (1, 3/2)
2
73. The value of the determinant x= is
1 + y2
1 a a2
2 2
cos(n –1) x cosnx cos (n + 1) x (1) p - (2) p +
is zero, if a ¹ 1 3 3
sin (n –1) x sinnx sin (n + 1) x
2
(1) sin x = 0 (2) cos x = 0 (3) -p - (4) None of these
3
78. An inverted cone is 10 cm in diameter and 10 cm
1 + a2
(3) a = 0 (4) cos x = deep. Water is poured into it at the rate of
2a 4cm3/min. When the depth of water level is 6 cm,
æ 2p ö æ 2p ö then it is rising at the rate
74. If a = cos ç ÷ + i sin ç ÷ , then the quadratic
è 7ø è 7ø 9 1
(1) cm 3 / min . (2) cm 3 / min .
equation whose roots are a = a + a2 + a4 and 4p 4p
b = a3 + a5 + a6, is
1 4
(1) x2 – x + 2 = 0 (2) x2 + x – 2 = 0 (3) cm 3 / min . (4) cm 3 / min .
2
(3) x – x – 2 = 0 (4) x2 + x + 2 = 0 9p 9p
MT-10 JEE MAIN
79. The equation of tangent to 4x2 – 9y2 = 36 which 83. A point is selected at random from the interior of
is perpendicular to straight line 5x + 2y – 10 = 0 is a circle. The probability that the point is close to
æ 117 ö÷ the centre, than the boundary of the circle, is
(1) 5 (y–3) = 2çç x -
è 2 ÷ø ________.
84. Three persons A, B, C throw a die in succession.
(2) 2y – 5x + 10– 2 18 = 0 The one getting 'six' wins. If A starts then the
probability of B winning is __________.
(3) 2y – 5x – 10– 2 18 = 0
(4) None of these x2 y 2
85. If the foci of the ellipse + = 1 coincide
log p æ1 ö 16 b 2
80. òlog p2
e 2 x sec 2 ç e 2 x ÷ dx is equal to :
è3 ø
2 2
1 with the foci of the hyperbola x - y = 1 ,
(1) 3 (2) 144 81 25
3
then value of b2 is ________.
3 3 1 86. If f(x) = | x – 2| and g(x) = f (f(x)) then for x > 10,
(3) (4) g'(x) is.
2 2 3
87. If ab2c3, a2 b3c4, a3b4c5 are in A.P. (a, b, c > 0),
Section - B then the minimum value of a + b + c is.
81. If a1, a2, a3, ................. are positive numbers in 88. The sum of the coefficients in the expansion of
G.P. then the value of æ 2 1ö
199
æ 1ö
200
çè x - ÷ø ´ ç x3 + ÷ is ________.
3 è 2ø
log an log an+1 log an +2
89. If the median and the range of four numbers
log an+1 log an +2 log an +3 {x, y, 2x + y, x – y}, where 0 < y < x < 2y, are 10
is _____.
log an+ 2 log an +3 log an +4 and 28 respectively, then the mean of the
numbers is _________.
82. The probability that in the random arrangement
of the letters of the word ‘UNIVERSITY’, the dx
two I’s does not come together is ______.
90. If ò cos3 x 2sin 2x
= (tan x)A + C(tan x)B + k ,
where k is a constant of integration, then value of

A + B + C is _________.
Time : 3 hrs.
2 Max. Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
marks.
PHYSICS
Section - A has been 'removed out'), at a very far off point, P,
located as shown, would be (nearly) :
1. N divisions on the main scale of a vernier
callipers coincide with N + 1 divisions on the Removed Mass of complete
vernier scale. If each division on the main scale Part sphere = M
is of ‘a’ units, the least count of the instrument P
R R
is
a a
(1) (2) x
N +1 N -1
2a 2a 5 GM 8 GM
(3) (4) (1) (2)
N -1 N +1 6 x2 9 x2
2. The gravitational field, due to the 'left over part' 7 GM 6 GM
of a uniform sphere (from which a part as shown, (3) (4)
8 x2 7 x2
MT-12 JEE MAIN
3. n moles of an ideal gas undergo a process A ® 7. A body is executing simple harmonic motion. At a
B as shown in the figure. Maximum temperature displacement x from mean position, its potential
of the gas during the process is
A
energy is E1 = 2J and at a displacement y from
2P0
9 P0V0 3P0V0 mean position, its potential energy is E2 = 8J.
(1) (2) The potential energy E at a displacement (x + y)
nR 2 nR P0 B
from mean position is
9P0V0 9P0V0 V0 2V (1) 10J (2) 14J
(3) (4) P 0
2nR 4nR V (3) 18J (4) 4J
4. Which of these nuclear reactions is possible – 8. A proton (mass m) accelerated by a potential
23 1 20 difference V flies through a uniform transverse
(1) 11 Na + 1H ¾¾® 10 Ne + 24 He
10 4
magnetic field B. The field occupies a region of
(2) 5 B + 2 He ¾¾® 13 1
7 N + 1H space by width ‘d’. If a be the angle of deviation
10 1 -
(3) 5 B + 0 n ¾¾® 11
5 B+b + n
of proton from initial direction of motion (see
(4) 14 1
® 12 - figure), the value of sin a will be :
7 N + 1H ¾¾ 6 C+b + n
5. White light is incident on the interface of glass Bd
(1) qV
and air as shown in the figure. If green light is 2m
just totally internally reflected then the emerging B
B qd
ray in air contains (2)
2 mV a
(1) yellow, orange, red Green
Air
(2) violet, indigo, blue Glass B q
(3) d
(3) All colours d 2mV
White
(4) All colours
q
except green (4) Bd
2mV
6. What is the conductivity of a semiconductor
sample having electron concentration of 5 × 1018 9. Two wires are made of the same material and
m–3, hole concentration of 5 × 1019 m–3, electron have the same volume. However wire 1 has
mobility of 2.0 m2 V–1 s–1 and hole mobility of cross-sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-
0.01 m2 V–1 s–1 ? sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases
(Take charge of electron as 1.6 × 10–19 C) by Dx on applying force F, how much force is
(1) 1.68 (W – m)–1 (2) 1.83 (W – m)–1 needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount?
(3) 0.59 (W – m) –1 (4) 1.20 (W – m)–1
(1) 4 F (2) 6 F (3) 9 F (4) F
Mock Test -2 MT-13
10. A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L (L < (2) is proportional to 1/E

H/2). Cross-sectional area A/5 is immersed such
(3) is p ml
that it floats with its axis vertical at the liquid- 3qE
liquid interface with length L/4 in the denser 1 ml
(4) is proportional to but ¹ p
liquid as shown in the fig. The lower density E 3qE
13. A thin convex lens of focal length ‘f’ is put on a
liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure
plane mirror as shown in the figure. When an
P0. Then density of solid is given by
object is kept at a distance ‘a’ from the lens -
5 mirror combination, its image is formed at a
(1) d
4 a
distance in front of the combination. The
H/2 d 3
4 3L/4 value of ‘a’ is :
(2) d L
5
H/2 2d (1) 3f
(3) d
3
(2) f
d 2
(4)
5
11. In a Young’s double slit experiment with light of (3) f
wavelength l, fringe pattern on the screen has (4) 2f
fringe width b. When two thin transparent glass
(refractive index m) plates of thickness t1 and t2 14. A sinusoidal wave is propagating in negative x-
(t1 > t2) are placed in the path of the two beams direction in a string stretched along x-axis. A
respectively, the fringe pattern will shift by a particle of string at x = 2m is found at its mean
distance position and it is moving in positive y-direction at
b ( m - 1) æ t1 ö mb t1 t = 1 sec. The amplitude of the wave, the wavelength
and the angular frequency of the wave are 0.1 meter,
(1) l çè t ÷ø
2
(2) l t2
p/2 meter and 2p rad/sec respectively.
b ( m - 1) l
(3) ( t1 - t2 ) (4) ( m - 1) ( t1 + t2 ) The equation of the wave is
l b
(1) y = 0.1 sin (4p (t – 1) + 8 (x – 2))
12. A dipole consisting of two charges +q and –q joined
(2) y = 0.1 sin ((t – 1) – (x – 2))
by a massless rod of length l, is seen oscillating
with a small amplitude in a uniform electric field of (3) y = 0.1 sin (2p (t – 1) + 4 (x – 2))
magnitude E. The period of oscillation (4) None of these
(1) is proportional to E
MT-14 JEE MAIN
15. Velocity–time graph for a body of mass 10 kg is v

shown in figure. Work–done on the body in first
two seconds of the motion is :
v (m/s)
-1
50 ms x
a a
(1) x (2) x
a a
(0,0) 10s t(s)
(1) – 9300 J (2) 12000 J (3) x (4) x
(3) –4500 J (4) –12000 J
16. A charged particle of mass m and having a charge
Q is placed in an electric field E which varies 19. A ring of mass M and radius R lies in x-y plane
with time as E = E0 sin wt. What is the amplitude with its centre at origin as shown. The mass
of the S.H.M. executed by the particle? distribution of ring is non-uniform such that at
QE 0 1 QE 0 any point P on the ring, the mass per unit length
(1) 2 (2) is given by l = l0 cos2q (where l0 is a positive
mw 2 mw 2
2QE 0 constant). Then the moment of inertia of the ring
(3) (4) None of these about z-axis is – y
mw 2
17. In a photoelectric experiment, with light of (1) MR2
wavelength l, the fastest electron has speed v. 1 P
(2) MR 2 M
R
If the exciting wavelength is changed to 3l/4, 2
q
the speed of the fastest emitted electron will 1M x
become – (3) 2 l R
0
3 4 1 M
(1) v (2) v (4) p l R
4 3 0
4 4 20. The electric potential V is given as a function of
(3) less than v (4) greater than v
3 3 distance x by V = (5x2 + 10x – 9) volt. Value of
18. A particle moves along x-axis with initial position electric field at x = 1m is
x = 0. Its velocity varies with x-coordinate as (1) –20 V/m (2) 6 V/m
shown in graph. The acceleration ‘a’ of this (3) 11 V/m (4) 20 V/m
particle varies with x as –
Mock Test -2 MT-15
Section - B 26. A series LR circuit is connected to an ac source

of frequency w and the inductive reactance is
21. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are equal to 2R. A capacitance of capacitive
smooth and of negligible mass. For the system reactance equal to R is added in series with
to remain in equilibrium, the angle q should be L and R. The ratio of the new power factor to the
_____ degree.
x
old one is . Find the value of x.
2
27. A mass of 50g of water in a closed vessel, with
surroundings at a constant temperature takes 2
q
minutes to cool from 30°C to 25°C. A mass of
2m 100g of another liquid in an identical vessel with
m m
identical surroundings takes the same time to
cool from 30° C to 25° C. The specific heat of the
22. A current of 4A produces a deflection of 30° in liquid is _____ kcal/kg.
the galvanometer. The figure of merit is _____ (The water equivalent of the vessel is 30g.)
A/rad. 28. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic
23. A uniform thin rod AB of length L has linear wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value
bx of electric field strength is _____ V/m.
mass density m (x) = a + , where x is 29. An ideal monatomic gas with pressure P, volume
L
measured from A. If the CM of the rod lies at V and temperature T is expanded isothermally to
æ 7ö a volume 2V and a final pressure Pi. If the same
a distance of ç ÷ L from A, then a and b are gas is expanded adiabatically to a volume 2V,
è 12 ø
related as b = xa. Find the value of x. P
24. A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has the final pressure is Pa. The ratio a is _____.
Pi
height 32 m and height of the receiving antenna
30. Six resistors of 10W each are connected as
is 50 m. What is the maximum distance (in km)
shown. The equivalent resistance between
between them for satisfactory communication
points X and Y is _____.
in line of sight (LOS) mode?
25. A ball of mass 160 g is thrown up at an angle
X
of 60° to the horizontal at a speed of 10 ms–1. The
angular momentum of the ball at the highest point
of the trajectory with respect to the point from
which the ball is thrown is _____ kg m2/s.
Y
(g = 10 ms–2)
MT-16 JEE MAIN
CHEMISTRY
Section - A (3) Sodium or potassium salt of a long chain
fatty acid is called soap.
31. Consider the following reactions (4) All of these.
(i) Cd 2+ (aq ) + 2e - ¾¾® Cd (s) , E° = – 0.40 V
35. Electrode potential of the half cell Pt (s) | Hg (l)
(ii) Ag + (aq) + e- ¾¾® Ag(s), E° = 0.80 V | Hg2Cl2(s) | Cl– (aq) can be increased by :
For the galvanic cell involving the above (1) Increasing [Cl–]
reactions. Which of the following is not correct?
(2) Decreasing [Cl–]
(1) Molar concentration of the cation in the
(3) Increasing Hg2Cl2 (s)
cathodic compartment changes faster than
that of the cation in the anodic compartment. (4) Decreasing Hg (l)
36. What is the name of the following reaction :
(2) E cell increase when Cd2+ solution is
diluted. COOEt
(3) Twice as many electrons pass through the
cadmium electrode as through silver
electrode. EtONa
¾¾®
(4) E cell decreases when Ag + solution is
diluted. COOEt
32. A container contains certain gas of mass ‘m’ of
high pressure. Some of the gas has been allowed (1) Knoevenagel reaction
to escape from the container and after some time (2) Perkin reaction
the pressure of the gas becomes half and its (3) Reformatsky reaction
absolute temperature 2/3 rd. The amount of the (4) Dieckmann’s condensation.
gas escaped is
37. Choose the correct options –
(1) 2/3 m (2) 1/2 m
(3) 1/4 m (4) 1/6 m (1) The change of atmospheric temperature
33. The hybrid state of S in SO3 is similar to that of with altitude is called the lapse rate.
(1) C in C2H2 (2) C in C2H4 (2) The gases responsible for greenhouse
(3) C in CH4 (4) C in CO2 effects are CO2, water vapour, CH4 and
34. Choose the correct options – ozone.
(1) Tranquillizers are called psychotherapeutic (3) The order of contribution to the acid rain is
drugs. H2SO4 < HNO3 < HCl
(2) Vitamin C, Vitamin E and b-carotene are (4) Both (1) and (2)
antioxidants.
Mock Test -2 MT-17
38. Optically active isomer (A) of (C 5H9Cl) on (1) NH4NO2 (2) (NH4)2SO4
treatment with one mole of H2 gives an optically (3) NH4ClO4 (4) (NH4)2Cr2O7
inactive compound (B) compound (A) will be: 43. Flocculation value of BaCl2 is much less than
(1) CH3 CH CH CH2 that of KCl for sol A and flocculation value of
Na2SO4 is much less than that of NaBr for sol B.
CH2Cl
The correct statement among the following is :
(2) Cl CH CH CH CH 3 (1) Both the sols A and B are negatively
charged.
CH 3
(2) Sol A is positively charged and Sol B is
(3) CH3 CH CH2 CH CH2 negatively charged.
(3) Both the sols A and B are positively
Cl charged.
(4) CH3 CH2 CH CH CH2 (4) Sol A is negatively charged and sol B is
positively charged.
Cl
HgSO dil. OH –
39. Which statement is/are correct about ICl 3 44. HC º CH ¾¾¾¾
H SO
4 ® (A) ¾¾¾¾® (B)
5 C
2 4
molecule ?
Give the IUPAC name of “B” is –
(1) All I – Cl bonds are equivalent.
(1) 2-butanal
(2) Molecule is polar and non-planar.
(2) 3-hydroxy butanal
(3) All adjacent bond angles are equal.
(3) 3-formyl-2-propanol
(4) All hybrid orbitals of central atom having
(4) 4-oxo-2-propanol
equal s-character.
40. Isopropyl alcohol is obtained by reacting which
of the following alkenes with concentrated Br
2/ hn ® Major (X) ¾¾¾¾¾ Alcoholic
45. ¾¾¾¾ ®
KOH/ D
H2SO4 followed by boiling with H2O?
(1) Ethylene (2) Propylene H - Br
Major (Y) ¾¾¾¾® Major (Z)
(3) 2-Methylpropene (4) Isoprene Peroxide
41. In electro-refining of metal the impure metal is Major final product (Z) is –
used to make the anode and a strip of pure metal
Br
as the cathode, during the electrolysis of an
aqueous solution of a complex metal salt. This (1) (2)
method cannot be used for refining of Br
(1) silver (2) copper Br
(3) aluminium (4) sodium
Br
42. Which of the following compounds does not (3) (4)
give nitrogen gas on heating?
MT-18 JEE MAIN
46. Choose the incorrect option –

(1) When a dilute solution of an acid is added O
to a dilute solution of a base, neutralization
reaction takes place. NH
(1)
(2) In acid-base titrations, at the end point, the
amount of acid becomes chemically
equivalent to the amount of base present. NO2
(3) In the case of a strong acid and a strong NO2
base titration, at the end point the solution O
becomes acidic.
(4) In acid-base titrations the end point is (2)
NH
determined by the hydrogen ion
concentration of the solution.
NO2 O
Br CH ONa NH
47. ¾¾¾
2 ® X ¾¾¾¾¾
3 ®Y (3)
Fe, D CH3OH, D
NO2
H
Cl
Product (Y) of this reaction is – (4) O2N NH2
NO2 NO2
Cl
H 3O +
(1) (2) 49. (X) ¾¾¾¾
® Y+ Z (Y and Z both give
(C5 H10O)
OCH3 Br
Cl OCH3 the Iodoform test). The compound X is –
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – O – CH2 – CH3
NO2 NO2
H
|
(3) (4) (2) CH 3 - C - O - CH 2 - CH 3
OCH3 |
CH 3
OCH3
(i) NaOI SOCl C H NH (3) CH3 - C - O - CH 2 - CH3
48. A ¾¾¾¾ 6 5
2 ® C ¾¾¾¾¾
® B ¾¾¾¾ 2®
||
(ii) HÅ NaOH
CH 2
Conc HNO
3 ® E (Major)
D ¾¾¾¾¾ E can be – (4) Both (1) and (3)
Conc H 2SO4
(1 equivalent)
Mock Test -2 MT-19
50. If the elevation in boiling point of a solution of 55. Rate constant k = 2.303 min–1 for a particular
non-volatile, non-electrolytic and non- reaction. The initial concentration of the reactant
associating solute in a solvent (Kb = x K kg mol–1) is 1 mol/litre then calculatle the rate of reaction
is y K, then the depression in freezing point of
after 1 minute.
solution of same concentration would be (Kf of
the solvent = z K kg mol–1) 56. How many free radicals can be produced during
2xz yz following reaction (ignoring resonating
(1) K (2) K structure) ?
y x
xz yz
(3) K (4) K
y 2x NBS, hn
¾¾¾¾®
CCl4
Section - B
51. The density of CaF2 (fluorite structure) is 3.18
g/cm3. Find the length of the side of the unit cell 57. An electron has a speed of 30,000 cm sec–1
is _____. accurate upto 0.001%. What is the uncertainty
(in cm) in locating it’s position?
52. When the following aldohexose exists in its D-
configuration, the total number of stereoisomers 58. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is –
in its pyranose form is _____. 46.0 kJ/mol. If the enthalpy of formation of H2
CHO — CH2 — CHOH — CHOH — CHOH — from its atoms is – 436 kJ/mol and that of N2 is –
CH2OH 712 kJ/mol, calculate the average bond enthalpy
of N - H bond in NH3.
53. A 25.0 mm × 40.0 mm piece of gold foil is 0.25 mm
thick. The density of gold is 19.32 g/cm3. How 59. The rate coefficient (k) for a particular
many gold atoms are in the sheet in terms of reaction is 1.3 × 10–4 M–1 s–1 at 100 °C and
x × 1022? (Atomic weight : Au = 197.0) 1.3 × 10–3 M–1 s–1 at 150 °C. What is the energy
54. In a chemical reaction A is converted into of activation (EA) (in kJ/mol) for this reaction?
B. The rates of reaction, starting with initial (R = molar gas constant = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
con centra tions of A a s 2 × 10 –3 M and 60. The e m.f. of the cell Zn | Zn 2+ (0.01M) | | Fe2+
1 × 10–3 M, are equal to 2.40 × 10–4 Ms–1 and (0.001M) | Fe at 298 K is 0.2905 then the value of
0.60 × 10–4 Ms–1 respectively. Find the order of equilibrium constant for the cell reaction 10x. Find
reaction with respect to reactant A. x.
MT-20 JEE MAIN
MATHEMATICS
Section - A æ x cos3 x - sin x ö
66. Find ò esin x ç ÷ dx
è cos 2 x ø
ì 2
ï 10 - x if - 3 < x < 3 (1) x esin x – esin x sec x + C
61. Given f (x) = í
ï2 - e x -3 if x ³ 3 (2) x ecos x – esin x sec x + C
î
(3) x2 esin x + esin x sec x + C
The graph of f (x) is –
(4) 2x esin x – esin x tan x + C
(1) continuous and differentiable at x = 3
(2) continuous but not differentiable at x = 3 67. The function f : [2, ¥) ® (0, ¥) defined by
(3) differentiable but not continuous at x = 3 f (x) = x2 – 4x + a, then the set of values of ‘a’ for
(4) neither differentiable nor continuous at x = 3 which f(x) becomes onto is
62. The greatest and the least absolute value of (1) (4,¥) (2) [4, ¥)
z + 1,where | z + 4 | £ 3 are respectively (3) {4} (4) f
(1) 6 and 0 (2) 10 and 6
68. If a and b are the real roots of the equation
(3) 4 and 3 (4) None of these
63. The equation x2 – (k – 2) x + (k2 + 3k + 5) = 0 (k Î R) .
(5x – 1)2 + (5y – 2)2 = (l2 – 4l + 4) (3x + 4y – 1)2
represents an ellipse if l Î Find the maximum and minimum values of
(1) (0, 1] (2) (–1, 2) (a 2 + b 2 ) .
(3) (2, 3) (4) (–1, 0)
64. If (– 4, 5) is one vertex and 7x – y + 8 = 0 is one (1) 18, 50/9 (2) 18, 25/9
diagonal of a square, then the equation of second (3) 27, 50/9 (4) None of these
diagonal is 69. The sum of the coefficient of all the terms in the
(1) x + 3y = 21 (2) 2x – 3y = 7 expansion of (2x – y + z)20 in which y do not
(3) x + 7y = 31 (4) 2x + 3y = 21 appear at all while x appears in even powers and
65. Which of the following is always true? z appears in odd powers is –
(1) (~ p Þ q) = ~ q Þ ~ p
2 20 - 1
(2) (~ p Ú q) º Ú p Ú ~ q (1) 0 (2)
2
(3) ~ ( p Þ q) º p Ù ~ q 320 - 1
(3) 219 (4)
(4) ~ ( p Ú q) º ~ p Ù ~ q 2
Mock Test -2 MT-21
70. All the five digit numbers in which each 75. If the tangent at any point on the curve x4 + y4 = a4
successive digit exceeds is predecessor are cuts off intercepts p and q on the co-ordinate
arranged in the increasing order. The (105)th axes then the value of p–4/3+q–4/3 is
number does not contain the digit (1) a –4/3 (2) a –1/2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) a 1/2 (4) None
(3) 6 (4) All of these
76. The area bounded by the curve y2 (2a – x) = x3
71. If a, ˆ cˆ are non-coplanar unit vectors such that
ˆ b, and the line x = 2a is
1
aˆ ´ (bˆ ´ c)
ˆ = (bˆ + c)
ˆ then the angle between 3pa 2
2 (1) 3pa2 sq. unit (2) sq. unit
2
the vectors â, bˆ is
(1) 3p/4 (2) p/4 3pa 2 6pa 2
(3) p/8 (4) p/2 (3) sq. unit (4) sq. unit
4 5
72. The greatest and the least values of |z1 + z2| if
z1 = 24 + 7i and |z2| = 6 respectively are 77. The expression satisfying the differential
(1) 31, 19
(3) –19, –31
(2) 19, 31
(4) –31, –19
2
(
equation x - 1 ) dy
dx
+ 2 xy = 1 is
73. Let P = (–1, 0), Q = (0, 0) and R = (3, 3 3 ) be (1) x 2 y - xy 2 = c

three points. The equation of the bisector of the
angle PQR is (2) ( y 2 - 1) x = y + c
3
(1) x+ y =0 (2) x + 3 y = 0
2 (3) ( x 2 - 1) y = x + c
3 (4) None of these
(3) 3x + y = 0 (4) x + y = 0.
2 78. Let f : R ® R and fn (x) = f (fn–1 (x)) n ³ 2, n Î N,
74. If ò 2 1 + sin xdx = -4 cos (ax + b) + C then the roots of equation
the value of (a, b) is : f3(x) f2(x) f (x) – 25f2(x) f (x) + 175 f (x) = 375,
1 p p which also satisfy equation f (x) = x will be
(1) , (2) 1,
2 4 2 (1) 5 (2) 15
(3) 1, 1 (4) None of these (3) 10 (4) Both (1) and (2)
MT-22 JEE MAIN
79. The value of 84. The value of the definite integral,

q2
sin 2 x cos 2 x dq 501p
ò0 sin -1
t dt + ò
0
cos -1
t dt is ò 1 + tan q = K
where
q1
p 1003p p
(1) p (2) q2 = and q1 = . The value of K is
2 2008 2008
p _____.
(3) (4) 1 85. The expansion of (1 + x)n has 3 consecutive terms
4
with coefficients in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and can be
80. If a is real and 2ax + sin By + cos Bz = 0 , written in the form nCk : nCk+1 : nCk+2. The sum
x + cos By + sin Bz = 0 , – x + sin By – cos Bz = 0, of all possible values of (n + k) is _____.
then the set of all values of a for which the system 86. The mean and standard deviation of 6
of linear equations has a non-trivial solution, is– observations are 8 and 4 respectively. If each
observation is multiplied by 3, the new standard
(1) [1, 2] (2) [–1, 1] deviation of the resulting observations is _____.
(3) [1, ¥] (4) [2–1/2, 21/2] tan x tan x - sin x sin x
87. The value of lim is
Section - B
x ®0 x3. x
_____.
81. If two vertical poles 20 m and 80 m high stand 88. Three people each flip two fair coins. The
apart on a horizontal plane, then the height (in m) probability that exactly two of the people flipped
one head and one tail, is _____.
of the point of intersection of the lines joining
89. If P(S) denotes the set of all subsets of a given
the top of each pole to the foot of other is _____.
set S, then the number of one-to-one functions
3 from the set S = {1, 2, 3} to the set P(S) is _____.
82. If x + iy = then the value of
cos q + i sin q + 2 90. A triangle ABC satisfies the relation
4x – x2 – y2 is _____. 2 sec 4C + sin 2 2A + sin B = 0 and a point P is
83. Box contains 2 one rupee, 2 five rupee, 2 ten rupee taken on the longest side of the triangle such
and 2 twenty rupee coin. Two coins are drawn at that it divides the side in the ratio 1 : 3. Let Q and
R be the circumcentre and orthocentre of D ABC.
random simultaneously. The probability that their
If PQ : QR : RP = 1 : a : b, then the value of
sum is Rs. 20 or more, is _____. a2 + b2 is _____.
Time : 3 hrs.
3 Max. Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
marks.
PHYSICS
Section - A 2. What is the minimum energy required to launch
a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet
1. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an
4
in water (refractive index ) as shown in figure. altitude of 2R?
3
A light beam incident normally on the face AB is 5GmM
(1)
totally reflected to reach the face BC, if 6R
5 B A
(1) sin q ³ q 2GmM
9 (2)
3R
2
(2) sin q ³ GmM
3 (3)
2R
8 C
(3) sin q ³
9 3GmM
1 (4)
(4) sin q ³ 2R
3
MT-24 JEE MAIN
3. What is the maximum value of the force F such 1 1

(1) Tµ (2) T µ
that the block shown in the arrangement, does R R3
not move? (3) T µ e–R (4) T µ e–3R
F 6. Two particles A and B of equal mass M are
1 moving with the same speed v as shown in the
m=
60º 2 3 figure. They collide completely inelastically and
m = 3kg move as a single particle C. The angle q that the
path of C makes with the X-axis is given by:
(1) 20 N (2) 10 N (3) 12 N (4) 15 N

Y
4. A particle falls freely near the surface of the earth.
Consider a fixed point O (not vertically below
the particle) on the ground. Then pickup the C
incorrect alternative
q
(1) The magnitude of angular momentum of the X
particle about O is increasing A 45°
30°
(2) The magnitude of torque of the B
gravitational force on the particle about O
is decreasing
(3) The moment of inertia of the particle about
O is decreasing 3+ 2
(1) tanq =
(4) The magnitude of angular velocity of the 1- 2
particle about O is increasing
5. Consider a spherical shell of radius R at 3- 2
(2) tanq =
temperature T. The black body radiation inside it 1- 2
can be considered as an ideal gas of photons 1- 2
U (3) tanq =
with internal energy per unit volume u = µ T4 2(1 + 3)
V
1æUö
and pressure p = ç ÷ . If the shell now 1- 3
3è V ø (4) tanq =
undergoes an adiabatic expansion the relation 1+ 2
between T and R is :
Mock Test -3 MT-25
7. The fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire (1) I is increasing and Q is increasing

of length l is n 0. A bridge is now introduced at a (2) I is increasing and Q is decreasing
distance of Dl (<< l) from the centre of the wire. (3) I is decreasing and Q is increasing
The lengths of wire on the two sides of the bridge (4) I is decreasing and Q is decreasing
are now vibrated in their fundamental modes. 10. Figure shows a network of capacitors where the
Then, the beat frequency nearly is –
numbers indicates capacitances in micro Farad. The
(1) n0Dl/l (2) 8n0Dl/l value of capacitance C if the equivalent
(3) 2n0Dl/l (4) n0Dl/2l capacitance between point A and B is to be 1 mF is:
8. In Young's double slit experiment shown in figure
S1 and S2 are coherent sources and S is the screen C 1
having a hole at a point 1.0mm away from the A
central line. White light (400 to 700nm) is sent
through the slits. Which wavelength passing 8 6 4
through the hole has strong intensity?
Centre of 2 2 12
S1
screen
0.5mm
S2 Screen B
1.0mm
hole
32 31
50cm S (1) mF (2) mF
23 23
(1) 400 nm (2) 700 nm 33 34
(3) 500 nm (4) 667 nm (3) mF (4) mF
23 23
9. In the LC circuit, the current in the direction 11. The position of a projectile launched from the
shown and the charges on the capacitor plates
have the signs shown. At this time
r
( )
origin at t = 0 is given by r = 40iˆ + 50 ˆj m at
t = 2s. If the projectile was launched at an angle
C q from the horizontal, then q is
I
(take g = 10 ms–2)
2 3
+Q –Q (1) tan -1 (2) tan
-1
L 3 2
7 -1 4
(3) tan -1 (4) tan
4 5
MT-26 JEE MAIN
12. A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a 15. A point charge +Q is positioned at the center of
vertical axis passing through its centre. An insect the base of a square pyramid as shown. The flux
is at rest at a point near the rim of the disc. The through one of the four identical upper faces of
insect now moves along a diameter of the disc the pyramid is –
to reach its other end. During the journey of the
insect, the angular speed of the disc
(1) continuously decreases
(2) continuously increases
(3) first increases and then decreases
(4) remains unchanged
13. An ideal ammeter (zero resistance) and an ideal
voltmeter (infinite resistance) are connected as
shown. The ammeter and voltmeter reading for +Q
R1 = 5 W, R2 = 15 W, R3 = 1.25 W and E = 20 V are
given as
R1=5W Q Q
(1) 16e 0 (2) 4e
R2=15W 0
3 1.25 W
R=
Q
(3) 8e 0 (4) None of these
E = 20 V 16. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2

(1) 6.25 A, 3.75 V (2) 3.00 A, 5 V having densities r1 and, r2 respectively. A solid
ball, made of a material of density r3 , is dropped
(3) 3.75 A, 3.75 V (4) 6.25 A, 6.25 V
in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position
14. A monoatomic ideal gas is filled in a shown in the figure.Which of the following is
nonconducting container. The gas can be true for r1, r1and r3?
compressed by a movable nonconducting
piston. The gas is compressed slowly to 12.5% (1) r3 < r1 < r2
of its initial volume. (2) r1 > r3 > r2 r3
Find final temperature of the gas if it is T0 initially –
(3) r1 < r2 < r3
(1) 4T0 (2) 3T0
(3) 2/3 T0 (4) T 0 (4) r1 < r3 < r2
Mock Test -3 MT-27
17. A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing SHM

of amplitude of 0.1m. When the particle passes
through the mean position, its kinetic energy is a
18 × 10–3 J. The equation of motion of this particle
when the initial phase of oscillation is 45° can be
given by – (1) cot a = 3 (2) sec a = 3
(3) cosec a = 3 (4) cos a = 3
æ pö
(1) y = 0.1 cos ç 6t + ÷
è 4ø 20. The length of a magnet is large compared to its
æ pö width and breadth. The time period of its
(2) y = 0.1 sin ç 6t + ÷
è 4ø oscillation in a vibration magnetometer is 2s. The
æ pö magnet is cut along its length into three equal
(3) y = 0.4 sin ç t + ÷ parts and these parts are then placed on each
è 4ø
other with their like poles together. The time
æp ö
(4) y = 0.2 sin ç + 2t ÷ period of this combination will be
è2 ø
18. What happens when the applied load increases 2
(1) 2 3s (2) s
and upto breaking stress in the experiment to 3
determine the Young's modulus of elasticity ?
2
(1) The area of wire goes on decreasing and (3) 2 s (4) s
wire extends and breaks. 3
(2) The area of wire goes on increasing and Section - B
wire breaks. 21. A uniform wire of length l and radius r has a
(3) The wire extends and area remains constant. resistance of 100 W. It is recast into a wire of
(4) The area remains same and wire length is r
radius . The resistance of new wire will be
also same. 2
19. An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very ________ W.
slowly. The coefficient of friction between the 22. A thin liquid film formed between a U-shaped
insect and the surface is 1/3. If the line joining the
wire and a light slider supports a weight of 1.5 ×
centre of the hemispherical surface to the insect
makes an angle a with the vertical, the maximum 10–2 N (see figure). The length of the slider is
possible value of a so that the insect does not 30 cm and its weight negligible. The surface
slip is given by tension of the liquid film is _________Nm–1.
MT-28 JEE MAIN
25. If the ratio of the concentration of electrons to

7
Film that of holes in a semiconductor is and the
5
7
ratio of currents is , then what is the ratio of
4
their drift velocities?
26. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f
W through a distance S, then continues at constant
23. A piece of wood from a recently cut tree shows speed for time t and then decelerates at the rate
20 decays per minute. A wooden piece of same f
size placed in a museum (obtained from a tree to come to rest. If the total distance traversed
2
cut many years back) shows 2 decays per
ft 2
minute. If half life of C14 is 5730 years, then age is 15 S , then S = . Find the value of x.
x
of the wooden piece placed in the museum is 27. Consider an optical communication system
approximately ________ years. operating at a wavelength of 800 nm. Suppose,
24. The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a only 1% of the optical source frequency is the
composite slab, consisting of two materials available channel bandwidth for optical
having coefficients of thermal conductivity K communication. How many channels can be
and 2K and thickness x and 4x, respectively, are accommodated for transmitting audio signals
T2 and T1 (T2 > T1 ) . The rate of heat transfer requiring a bandwidth of 8 kHz ?
through the slab, in a steady state is 28. The current voltage relation of a diode is given
æ A(T2 - T1 ) K ö by I = ( e1000V T - 1) mA, where the applied

ç x ÷ f . Find the value of F.
è ø voltage V is in volts and the temperature T is in
x 4x
degree kelvin. If a student makes an error
measuring ±0.01 V while measuring the current
of 5 mA at 300 K, what will be the error in the
value of current in ________ mA?
2K T1
K
29. Currents of a 10 ampere and 2 ampere are passed
through two parallel thin wires A and B
respectively in opposite directions. Wire A is
infinitely long and the length of the wire B is 2 m.
Mock Test -3 MT-29
The force acting on the conductor B, which is 30. Hot water cools from 60°C to 50°C in the first 10
situated at 10 cm distance from A will be minutes and to 42°C in the next 10 minutes. The
x × 10–5 N. Find the value of x. temperature of the surroundings is ______ °C.
CHEMISTRY
Section - A (3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 5 1 3 4
31. Let n1 be the frequency of the series limit of the
Lyman series, n2 be the frequency of the first 33. Which one of the following is the correct
line of the Lyman series, and n3 be the frequency statement?
of the series limit of the Balmer series, then – (1) Boric acid is a protonic acid.
(2) Beryllium exhibits coordination number
1
(1) n3 = (n – n ) (2) n2 – n1 = n3 of six.
2 1 3
(3) Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium
(3) n1 – n2 = n3 (4) n1 + n2 = n3 have bridged chloride structures in solid
32. Match List I with List II and select the correct phase.
answer : (4) B2 H 6 .2NH 3 is known as ‘inorganic
List I (Ions) List II (Shapes) benzene’.
A. ICl -2 1. Linear 34. Choose the correct option for
B. BrF2+ 2. Pyramidal Anhydrous

¾¾¾¾® I
HI
C. ClF4- 3. Tetrahedral O | Conc.
¾¾¾¾® II
HI
D. AlCl-
4 4. Square planar (1) I and II are identical
5. Angular (2) I and II are different
A B C D (3) Mechanism of formation of I and II are not
(1) 1 2 4 5 known
(2) 4 5 2 3 (4) None of these
MT-30 JEE MAIN
35. Reducing the pressure from 1.0 atm to 0.5 atm 38. Which of the following option is having
would change the number of molecules in one maximum number of unpaired electrons –
mole of ammonia to (1) A tetrahedral d6 ion
(1) 25% of its initial value (2) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(2) 50% of its initial value (3) A square planar d7 ion
(4) A co-ordination compound with magnetic
(3) 75% of its initial value
moment of 5.92 B.M.
(4) None of the above
39. Which of the following carbide does not release
36. Structure of some important polymers are given. any hydrocarbon on reaction with water?
Which one represents Buna-S?
(1) SiC (2) Be2C
CH3 (3) CaC2 (4) Mg2C3
|
(–C H2 – C = CH – C H2 –)n 40. An ether (A), C5H12O, when heated with excess
(1)
of hot concentrated HI produced two alkyl
(2) (–CH2 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH – CH2 –)n halides which when treated with NaOH yielded
| compounds (B) and (C). Oxidation of (B) and (C)
C6H5 gave a propanone and an ethanoic acid
(3) (–CH2 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH – CH2 –)n respectively. The IUPAC name of the ether (A)
| is:
CN (1) 2-ethoxypropane
Cl (2) ethoxypropane
| (3) methoxybutane
(4) (–CH2 – C = CH – CH2 –)n
(4) 2-methoxybutane
37. In electrolysis of NaCl when Pt electrode is taken, 41. Aqueous solution of (M) + (NH4)2S ® yellow
then H2 is liberated at cathode while with Hg (NH ) S
cathode it forms sodium amalgam. This is ppt (B) ¾¾¾¾¾ 4 2 2 ® insoluble.
because The cation present in (M) is –

(1) Hg is more inert than Pt (1) CdS (2) SnS2
(2) more voltage is required to reduce H+ at Hg (3) Cd2+ (4) Sn2+
than at Pt 42. Both geometrical and optical isomerisms are
(3) Na is dissolved in Hg while it does not shown by
dissolve in Pt (1) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
(4) conc. of H+ ions is larger when Pt electrode (3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (4) [Cr(ox)3]3–
is taken
Mock Test -3 MT-31
aq KOH
43. Me – CH = CH2 + CHCl3 ¾¾¾¾ ® A (Major 2.303 2.303 100
excess, D
products) is – (1) (2) log
500 500 90
O
2.303 90 100
(1) (3) log (4)
OK 500 100 10 ´ 500
OK 45. The basic character of the transition metal

(2) monoxides follows the order
O (Atomic Nos.,Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26)
(1) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO
(2) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO
(3) (3) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
O (4) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
46. NH4ClO4 + HNO3 (dilute) ¾® X + HClO4
heat
X ¾¾¾
® Y (gas) Gas (Y) is –
(4) OH (1) O2 (2) N2
OH (3) NO2 (4) N2O
47. Which of the following is/are formed when
44. The decomposition of N 2 O 5 in carbon
ozone reacts with the unburnt hydrocarbons
tetrachloride was followed by measuring the
in polluted air ?
volume of O2 gas evolved :
(i) Formaldehyde (ii) Acrolein
2N 2 O5 ( CCl4 ) ® 2N2 O4 ( CCl 4 ) + O 2 ( g ) . (iii) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (iv) Formic acid
The maximum volume of O2 gas obtained was (1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) only
100 cm3. In 500 minutes, 90 cm3 of O2 were (3) (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
evolved. The first order rate constant (in min –1)
for the disappearance of N2O5 is :
MT-32 JEE MAIN
CO2 K
O3 Conc. KOH (4)
48. ¾¾® (A) ¾¾¾¾¾
® (B)
Zn (1 mole) CO2 K
End product (B) of above reaction is – 49. Precautions to be taken in the study of reaction
rate for the reaction between potassium iodate
(KIO3) and sodium sulphite (Na2SO3) using
CHO starch solution as indicator at different
concentrations and temperature –
(1) The concentration of sodium thiosulphate
(1) CH2OH solution should always be less than the
concentration of the potassium iodide
solution.
(2) Freshly prepared starch solution should be
used.
CO2 K (3) Experiments should be performed with the
fresh solutions of H2O2 and KI.
(2) (4) All of these
CH2OH
50. Predict the product (A) of the following reaction
H+
A
D
CH2OH
(3) (1) (2)

CH2OH
(3) (4)
Mock Test -3 MT-33
Section - B 55. Find the pH of a 2 litre solution which is 0.1 M

each with respect to CH 3COOH and
(CH3OO)2Ba. (Ka = 1.8 × 10–5)
56. H3PO2 is the molecular formula of an acid of
phosphorus. What is its basicity?
OH
51. ¾¾® 57. A gas present in a cylinder fitted with a
N D
frictionless piston expands against a constant
pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 2 litre to a
Find the number of a-H in alkene which is major volume of 6 litre. In doing so, it absorbs 800 J
product in this reaction? heat from surroundings. Determine increase in
52. At 675K, H2(g) and CO2(g) react to form CO(g) internal energy of process.
and H2O (g), Kp for the reaction is 0.16. If a mixture 58. Calculate the number of metamers represented
of 0.25 mole of H2(g) and 0.25 mol of CO2 is by molecular formula C4H10O.
heated at 675K, calculate the mole % of CO(g) in 59. A current of 2.0 A passed for 5 hours through a
equilibrium mixture molten metal salt deposits 22.2 g of metal (At wt.
53. In the spinel structure, oxides ions are cubical- = 177). Find the oxidation state of the metal in
closest packed whereas 1/8th of tetrahedral the metal salt.
voids are occupied by A2+ cation and 1/2 of 60. The instantaneous rate of disappearance of
octahedral voids are occupied by B3+ cations. MnO4– ion in the following reaction is
The general formula of the compound having 4.56 × 10–3 Ms–1
spinel structure is ABnO2n. Find the value of n.
2MnO4– + 10I– + 16H+ ® 2Mn2+ + 5I2 + 8H2O
54. The value of P° for benzene is 640 mm of Hg.
The vapour pressure of solution containing 2.5g The rate of appearance I2 is x × 10–2 Ms–1
substance in 39g benzene is 600mm of Hg. Find
the molecular mass of X .
MATHEMATICS
Section - A on L1 and L2 are equal, then which of the
following equation can represent L1 ?
61. Let L1 be a straight line passing through the (1) x + 7y = 0 (2) x – y = 0
origin and L2 be the straight line x + y = 1. If the
(3) x – 7y = 0 (4) Both (1) and (2)
intercepts made by the circle x2 + y2 – x + 3y = 0
MT-34 JEE MAIN
62. Let a1, a2 and b1, b2 be the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 then possible values of [ | 10a | ] where [ . ]
and px2 + qx + r = 0 respectively. If the system of denotes the greatest integer function will be
equations a1y + a2z = 0 and b1y + b2z = 0 has a (1) 1 (2) 5
non-trivial solution, then (3) 10 (4) Both (1) and (3)
67. The image of the pair of lines represented by:
b2 ac ab c2
(1) = (2) 2 = ax2 + 2hxy + by2 = 0 by the line mirror y = 0 is
2 pr pq
q r (1) ax2 – 2hxy – by2 = 0
(2) bx2 – 2hxy + ay2 = 0
a2 bc
(3) = (4) None of these (3) bx2 + 2hxy + ay2 = 0
2 qr
p (4) ax2 – 2hxy + by2 = 0
63. If f ''( x ) < 0, "x Î (a, b), then f '( x) = 0 occurs 68. If x2 – 2x cos q + 1 = 0, then the value of
x2n – 2xn cos nq + 1, n Î N is equal to –
(1) exactly once in (a, b)
(1) cos 2nq
(2) atmost once in (a, b)
(2) sin 2nq
(3) atleast once in (a, b)
(3) 0
(4) None of these (4) some real number greater than 0
64. If the function f : [0, 16] ® R is differentiable. If
1 2 1 3 2 2
x x x
16
69. If I1 = ò 2 dx , I 2 = ò 2 dx , I 3 = ò 2 dx
0 < a < 1 and 1 < b < 2, then ò f (t) dt is equal to– 0 0 1
0
2 3
x
(1) 4 [a3f (a4) – b3 f (b4)] and I 4 = ò 2 dx then
1
(2) 4 [a3f (a4) + b3 f (b4)]
(3) 4 [a4f (a3) + b4 f (b3)] (1) I 2 > I1 (2) I1 > I 2
(4) 4 [a2f (a2) + b2 f (b2)] (3) I 3 = I 4 (4) I 3 > I 4
65. Three distinct points P (3u2, 2u3), Q (3v2, 2v3) 70. The value of the definite integral
and R (3w2, 2w3) are collinear then –
3p / 4
(1) uv + vw + wu = 0 (2) uv + vw + wu = 3
ò [(1 + x)sin x + (1 - x) cos x ] dx is –
(3) uv + vw + wu = 2 (4) uv + ww + wu = 1 0
66. Let ‘a’ denote the roots of equation
(1) 2( 2 + 1) (2) 2 +1
æ 1+ x2 ö
cos (cos–1 x) + sin–1 sin ç –1
÷ = 2 sec (sec x) (3) 2 2 (4) 0
è 2 ø
Mock Test -3 MT-35
71. The locus of the centres of the circles which cut

the circles x2 + y2 + 4x – 6y + 9 = 0 and 76. If the pair of lines ax 2 + 2 (a + b)xy + by 2 = 0 lie
x2 + y2 – 5x + 4y – 2 = 0 orthogonally is – along diameters of a circle and divide the circle
(1) 9x + 10y – 7 = 0 (2) x – y + 2 = 0 into four sectors such that the area of one of the
(3) 9x – 10y + 11 = 0 (4) 9x + 10y + 7 = 0 sectors is thrice the area of another sector then
72. The sum of the first n terms of the series (1) 3a 2 - 10 ab + 3b 2 = 0
12 + 2.2 2 + 3 2 + 2.4 2 + 5 2 + 2.6 2 + ... (2) 3a 2 - 2ab + 3b 2 = 0
n(n + 1)2 (3) 3a 2 + 10 ab + 3b 2 = 0

is when n is even. When n is odd the
2 (4) 3a 2 + 2ab + 3b 2 = 0
sum is
77. Which of the following is a contradiction?
2
é n(n + 1) ù n2 (n + 1) (1) (p Ù q)Ù ~ (p Ú q) (2) p Ú ( - p Ù q)
(1) êë 2 úû (2)
2
(3) (p Þ q) Þ p (4) None of these
2 3n(n + 1)
n(n + 1)
(3) (4) 78. If 1, w, w2 ,........ wn-1 are the n roots of unity,,
4 2
73. The straight line joining any point P on the then (1 - w) (1 - w2 )........(1 - wn -1 ) equals
parabola y2 = 4ax to the vertex and perpendicular (1) 0 (2) 2
from the focus to the tangent at P, intersect at R, (3) n (4) n 2
then the equation of the locus of R is –
79. Set of values of m for which two points P and Q lie
(1) x2 + 2y2 – ax = 0 (2) 2x2 + y2 – 2ax = 0
on the line y = mx + 8 so that Ð APB = Ð AQB
(3) 2x2 + 2y2 – ay = 0 (4) 2x2 + y2 – 2ay = 0
p
74. If z + 1/z = 2 cos q, then the value of = where A º (– 4, 0), B º (4, 0) is –
2
|(z2n – 1)/(z2n + 1)|
(1) | tan n q | (2) tan n q (1) ( -¥, - 3) È ( 3, ¥ ) - {-2, 2}
(3) | cot n q | (4) cot n q
(2) [ - 3, - 3] - {-2, 2}
75. The two curves x3 – 3xy2 + 2 = 0 and 3x2y – y3 = 2
(1) cuts at right angle (2) touch each other (3) (-¥, -1) È (1, ¥) - {-2, 2}
p p
(3) cut at an angle (4) cut at an angle (4) {- 3, 3}
3 4
MT-36 JEE MAIN
80. The trace Tr(A) of a 3 × 3 matrix A = (aij ) is defined 86. A box contains 6 red, 5 blue and 4 white marbles.
by the relation Tr(A) = a11 + a22 + a33 (i.e., Tr(A) is Four marbles are chosen at random without
sum of the main diagonal elements). Which of the replacement. The probability that there is atleast
following statements cannot hold ? one marble of each colour among the four
(1) Tr(kA) = kTr(A) (k is a scalar) chosen, is ______.
(2) Tr(A + B) = Tr(A) + Tr(B) sin q + sin 2q Kp
(3) Tr(I3) = 3 87. Period of is ,then k is ____.
cos q + cos 2q 3
(4) Tr(A2) = Tr(A)2
æ 16 ö
Section - B 88. If the tangent at the point ç 4 cos q, sin q ÷
è 11 ø
81. The area above the x–axis enclosed by the to the ellipse 16x2 + 11y2 = 256 is also a tangent to
curves x2–y2 = 0 and x2 + y – 2 = 0 is_____. the circle x2 + y2 – 2x = 15, then the value of q is
82. If number of permutations 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and p
9 taken all at a time are such that the digit. 1 ± . The value of k is _____.
K
appearing somewhere to the left of 2, 3 appearing 89. One percent of the population suffers from a
to the left of 4 and 5 somewhere to the left of 6, is certain disease. There is blood test for this
equal to k.7!, then value of k is _____. disease, and it is 99% accurate, in other words,
(e.g., 815723946 would be one such permutation) the probability that it gives the correct answer is
83. Vertices of a parallelogram taken in order are 0.99, regardless of whether the person is sick or
A (2, –1, 4), B (1, 0, –1), C (1, 2, 3) and D. If healthy. A person takes the blood test, and the
distance of the point P (8, 2, –12) from the plane result says that he has the disease. The
k 6 probability that he actually has the disease,
of the parallelogram is , then value of k is__. is _____.
9
84. Given p /2
r r r
A = 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 6k,
ˆ B = î + ˆj - 2kˆ and C = î + 2ˆj + kˆ. 90. Let a n = ò (1 - sin t)n sin 2t dt then
r r r r r 0
The value of | A ´ [A ´ (A ´ B)].C | is _____. n
an
85. If area of triangle formed by common tangents lim
n ®¥
å n is ______.
1
to the circles x2 + y2 – 6x = 0 and x2 + y2 + 2x = 0
is l 3 , then value of l is ____.
Time : 3 hrs.
4 Max. Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
marks.
PHYSICS
Section - A qQ qQ
(3) - (4)
6pe0 L 4pe0 L
1. Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B
respectively which are a distance 2L apart, C is 2. Two pulses in a stretched string whose centres
the midpoint between A and B. The work done are initially 8 cm apart are moving towards each
in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle CRD other as shown in the figure. The speed of each
is pulse is 2 cm/s. After 2 seconds, the total energy
R of the pulses will be
(1) Zero
(2) Purely kinetic
A C B D 8 cm
qQ qQ (3) Purely potential
(1) (2) (4) Partly kinetic and partly potential
2pe0 L 6pe0 L
MT-38 JEE MAIN
3. A metallic wire of density d is lying horizontal additional mass M is added to its bob, the time
on the surface of water. The maximum length of
wire so that it may not sink will be period changes to TM. If the Young's modulus of
2pT
1
2Tg the material of the wire is Y thenis equal to:
(1) (2) dg Y
pd
(g = gravitational acceleration)
2T
(3) (4) any length é æ T ö2 ù A é æ T ö2 ù A
pdg (1) ê1 - ç
M
÷ ú (2) ê1 - ç T ÷ ú Mg
4. Which logic gate with inputs A and B performs ë è T ø û Mg ëê è M ø úû
the same operation as that performed by the
following circuit? éæ T ö2 ù A éæ T ö2 ù Mg
M
(3) êç ÷ - 1ú (4) êç M ÷ - 1ú
A ëè T ø û Mg ëè T ø û A
B 7. A bucket full of hot water is kept in a room and it
cools from 75oC to 70oC in T1 minutes, from 70oC
to 65oC in T2 minutes and from 65oC to 60oC in
V T3 minutes. Then
Lamp (1) T1= T2 = T3 (2) T1 < T2 < T3
(3) T1 > T2 > T3 (4) T1< T3< T2
(1) NAND gate (2) OR gate 8. The length of an elastic string is x when the tension
(3) NOR gate (4) AND gate is 5N. Its length is y when the tension is 7N.
5. The specific heat capacity of a metal at low What will be its length, when the tension is 9N?
temperature (T) is given as (1) 2y + x (2) 2y – x
3
æ T ö (3) 7x – 5y (4) 7x + 5y
C p (kJK –1kg –1 ) = 32 ç ÷ . A 100 g vessel
è 400 ø 9. The load versus elongation graphs for four wires
of this metal is to be cooled from 20 K to 4 K by of same length and made of the same material
a special refrigerator operating at r oom are shown in the figure. The thinnest wire is
temperature (27°C). The amount of work required represented by the line
to cool in vessel is Load D
C
(1) equal to 0.002 kJ
B
(2) greater than 0.148 kJ A
(3) between 0.148 kJ and 0.028 kJ
(4) less than 0.028 kJ O Elongation
6. A pendulum made of a uniform wire of cross
(1) OA (2) OC
sectional area A has time period T. When an
(3) OD (4) OB
Mock Test -4 MT-39
10. Six equal resistances are connected between 13. A flat plate P of mass ‘M’ executes SHM in a
points P, Q and R as shown in figure. Then net horizontal plane by sliding over a frictionless
resistance will be maximum between : surface with a frequency V. A block ‘B’ of mass
P ‘m’ rests on the plate as shown in figure.
Coefficient of friction between the surface of B
and P is m. What is the maximum amplitude of
oscillation that the plate block system can have
r
r if the block B is not to slip on the plate :
r
r
r
Q R
r
(1) P and R (2) P and Q mg mg

(1) (2)
(3) Q and R (4) Any two points 4p 2 V 2 4p 2 V
11. Electrons are accelerated through a potential m mg
difference V and protons are accelerated through (3) (4)
4p 2 V 2 g 2p 2 V 2
a potential difference 4 V. The de-Broglie
wavelengths are le and lp for electrons and 14. A glass slab has the left half of refractive index
n1, and the right half of n2=3n 1. The effective
le refractive index of the whole slab is
protons respectively. The ratio of is given
lp n1
by : (given me is mass of electron and mp is mass (1) (2) 2n
of proton). 2
3n 1 2n 1
le mp (3) (4)
le me 2 3
(1) = (2) =
lp me lp mp 15. In the arrangement shown L1, L2 are slits and S1
and S2 are two independent sources. On the
le 1 me le mp screen, interference fringes screen
(3) = (4) =2 (1) will not be there
l p 2 mp lp me L1
(2) will not be there if the
12. A straight section PO of a circuit lies along the x- intensity of light
× ×
S1 S2
axis from x = –a/2 to x = +a/2, and carries a steady reaching the screen
current ‘I’. The magnitude of magnetic field due from S1 and S2 are L2
to the section PO at a point to y = + a will be equal.
(1) proportional to a (2) proportional to a2 (3) will be there under all circumstances
(3) proportional to 1/a (4) equal to zero (4) we will have only the central fringe
MT-40 JEE MAIN
16. For good demodulation of AM signal of carrier mass of each charge is m, then the electrostatic
frequency f, the value of RC should be potential at the centre of line joining them will be
1 1
(1) RC = (2) RC < æ 1 ö
f f ç =k÷
1 1 è 4p Î0 ø.
(3) RC ³ (4) RC >>
f f (1) 2 k mg tan q (2) 4 k mg tanq
17. The radioactivity of a sample is R1 at a time T1 (3) 4 k mg / tan q (4) k mg / tan q
and R2 at a time T2. If the half life of the specimen
is T, the number of atoms that have disintegrated Section - B
in the time (T2–T1) is proportional to 21. A car is standing 200 m behind a bus, which is
(1) (R1T1 – R2T2) (2) (R1 – R2) also at rest. The two start moving at the same
(3) (R1 – R2)/T (4) (R1– R2) × T instant but with different forward accelerations.
18. P–V plots for two gases during adiabatic The bus has acceleration 2 m/s2 and the car has
processes are shown in the figure. Plots 1 and 2 acceleration 4 m/s2. The car will catch up the bus
should correspond respectively to after a time of s.
22. A transformer is used to light a 140 W, 24 V bulb
(1) He and Ar from a 240 V a.c. mains. The current in the main
cable is 0.7 A. The efficiency of the transformer is
(2) He and O2 P
1 _____%.
(3) O2 and N2 23. A rod of length L is placed on x – axis between
2 x = 0 and x = L. The linear density i.e., mass per
(4) O2 and He unit length denoted by r, of this rod, varies as, r
V
19. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic = a + bx. The dimensions of b is ML–2Tx. Find
field requiers W units of work to turn it through the value of x.
24. The surface charge density of a thin charged disc
600 . The torque needed to maintain the needle
of radius R is s. The value of the electric field at
in this position will be
s
(1) 3W (2) W the centre of the disc is . With respect to
2 Î0
3 the field at the centre, the electric field along the
(3) W (4) 2 W axis at a distance R from the centre of the disc is
2
20. Two small equal point charges of magnitude q reduces by _____%.
are suspended from a common point on the 25. A body is thrown vertically upwards from the
ceiling by insulating mass less strings of equal surface of earth in such a way that it reaches
lengths. They come to equilibrium with each upto a height equal to 10Re. The velocity
string making angle q from the vertical. If the imparted to the body will be km/s
Mock Test -4 MT-41
26. What is the ratio of the circumference of the first 29. Two points of a rod move with velocities 3v and
Bohr orbit for the electron in the hydrogen atom v perpendicular to the rod and in the same
to the de Brogile wavelength of electrons having direction, separated by a distance r. Then the
the same velocity as the electron in the first Bohr angular velocity of the rod xv . Find the value
orbit of the hydrogen atom? r
27. A projectile can have the same range ‘R’ for two of x.
angles of projection. If ‘T1’ and ‘T2’ to be time of 30. In the given circuit, the current drawn from the
flights in the two cases, then the product of the source is _____A.
two time of flights is xR
V = 100x sin(100pt )
g
. Find the value of x.
28. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave
X C = 20W
X L = 10W
R = 20W
r
in vacuum is given by E = iˆ 40 cos (kz – 6 × ~
108t), where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and
seconds respectively. The value of wave vector
k is m–1.
CHEMISTRY
Section - A The product E would be:
31. Which of the following structures does not
contain any chiral C atom but represent the CH3 CH3
chirality in the structure. Br Br Br
(1) 2 – Ethyl – 3 – hexene
(1) (2)
(2) 2, 3-Pentadiene
(3) 1,3 – Butadiene
(4) Pent – 3 – en – 1 – yne Br Br
32. In a set of reactions p-nitrotoluene yielded a
product E.
CH3 CH2 Br
CH3
Br
Br Sn/HCl
¾¾¾
2 ® B ¾¾¾¾
®C (3) (4)
FeBr3
Br
NO2 Br
NaNO 2 CuBr
¾¾¾¾
® D ¾¾¾® E
HCl HBr
MT-42 JEE MAIN
33. Compound A is formed by the interaction of (3) 2 FeSO 4 + H 2SO 4 + H 2 O 2 ®

CH3 Fe 2 (SO 4 ) 3 + 2H 2 O
(4) Ag 2 O + H 2 O 2 ® 2Ag + H 2 O + O 2
O O 36. Reaction of CH — CH with RMgX leads to
CH2COOH 2 2
CH3 O
[A] formation of
(1) RCHOHR (2) RCHOHCH3
(1) CH3COOH and HO CHO R
(3) RCH2CH2OH (4) CHCH2OH
(2) CH3CHO and HO COOH R
OH
37. If m and e are the mass and charge of the revolving
(3) CH3COCH2COOH and
electron in the orbit of radius r for hydrogen atom,
the total energy of the revolving electron will be:
HO CHO
OH
1 e2 e2
OH (1) (2) -
2 r r
(4) CH3CHO and HO COOH
me2 1 e2
(3) (4) -
r 2 r
34. N2 and O2 are converted to mono cations N2+
38. When chlorine water is added to an aqueous
and O2+ respectively, which of the following is solution of sodium iodide in the presence of
wrong? chloroform, a violet colouration is obtained. On
(1) In N2+, the N – N bond weakens adding more of chlorine water and vigorous
shaking, the violet colour disappears. This
(2) In O2+, the O – O bond order increases shows the conversion of ...... into ......
(1) I2, HIO3 (2) I2, HI
(3) In O2+, paramagnetism decreases
(3) HI, HiO3 (4) I2, HOI
(4) N2+ becomes diamagnetic 39. When tert-butyl chloride is made to react with
35. The reaction in which hydrogen peroxide acts sodium ethoxide, the major product is
as a reducing agent is (1) dimethyl ether
(2) di-tert-butyl ether
(1) PbS + 4H 2 O 2 ® PbSO 4 + 4 H 2 O
(3) tert-butylmethyl ether
(2) 2 Kl + H 2 O2 ® 2KOH + I 2 (4) isobutylene
Mock Test -4 MT-43
40. Which statement is true regarding following (2) Acidic character follows the order H2O <
reactions H2S < H2Se < H2Te.
(3) The tendency to form multiple bonds
HCO H increases in moving down the group from
trans - 2 - Butene ¾¾¾¾
3 ®A
sulphur to tellurium (towards C and N).
HCO H (4) Sulphur has a strong tendency to catenate
cis - 2 - Butene ¾¾¾¾
3 ®B
while oxygen shows this tendency to a
(1) Compounds A and B are formed by syn limited extent.
addition and they are racemic mixture and 43. Removal of Fe, Cu, W from Sn metal after smelting
meso respectively is by ............... because .............
(2) Compounds A and B are formed by anti (1) poling; of more affinity towards oxygen for
impurities
addition and are racemic mixture and meso
(2) selective oxidation; of more affinity towards
respectively oxygen for impurities
(3) Compounds A and B are formed by anti (3) electrolytic refining; impurities undissolved
addition and are meso and racemic mixture in elec-trolyte
respectively (4) liquation; Sn having low melting point
compared to impurities.
(4) Compounds A and B are formed by syn
addition and are meso and racemic mixture 44. Among KO 2 , AlO-2 , BaO2 and NO +2 ,unpaired
respectively electron is present in
41. An organic compound is treated with NaNO 2 (1) NO +2 and BaO 2 (2) KO 2 and AlO -2
and dil. HCl at 0°C. The resulting solution is (3) KO 2 only (4) BaO 2 only
added to an alkaline solution of b -naphthol 45. If a 0.1 M solution of glucose (Mol. wt 180) and
where by a brilliant red dye is produced. It shows 0.1 molar solution of urea (Mol. wt. 60) are placed
the presence of on two sided semipermeable membrane to equal
(1) – NO 2 group heights, then it will be correct to say that
(1) there will be no net movement across the
(2) aromatic – NH 2 group membrane.
(3) – CONH 2 group (2) glucose will flow across the membrane into
urea solution.
(4) aliphatic – NH 2 group (3) urea will flow across the membrane into
42. Point out the incorrect statment among the glucose solution.
following : (4) water will flow from urea solution to glucose
(1) The oxidation state of oxygen is +2 in OF2. solution.
MT-44 JEE MAIN
46. Melamine plastic crockery is a codensation 50. If the following half cells have E° values as
polymer of A3+ + e– ¾® A2+, E° = y2V
(1) HCHO and melamine A2+ + 2e– ¾® A, E° = –y1V
(2) HCHO and ethylene The E° of the half cell
(3) melamine and ethylene A3+ + 3e– ¾® A will be
(4) None of these 2 y1 - y2 y2 - 2 y1
(1) (2)
47. When pink complex, [Co(H2O)6]2+ is dehydrated 3 3
(3) 2y1 – 3y2 (4) y2 – 2y1
the colour changes to blue. The correct
explanation for the change is : Section - B
(1) The octahedral complex becomes square
planar. 51. The radii of Na+ and Cl– ions are 100 pm and 200
(2) A tetrahedral complex is formed. pm respectively. Calculate the edge length of
(3) Distorted octahedral structure is obtained. NaCl unit cell.
(4) Dehydration results in the formation of 52. When 1.8 g of steam at the normal boiling point of
polymeric species. water is converted into water at the same
48. In the form of dichromate, Cr (VI) is a strong temperature, calculate Ds for the above change
oxidising agent in acidic medium but Mo (VI) in in J/K. (DHvapfor water = 40.8 kJ mol–1)
MoO3 and W (VI) in WO3 are not because 53. Given
____________ . n = 5, ml = + 1
(i) Cr (VI) is more stable than Mo(VI) and W (VI). Find the maximum number of electron(s) in an
(ii) Mo (VI) and W(VI) are more stable than Cr(VI). atom that can have the quantum numbers as
(iii) Higher oxidation states of heavier members given.
of group-6 of transition series are more 54. What amount of sugar (C12H22O11) (in g) is
stable. required to prepare 2 L of its 0.1 M aqueous
(iv) Lower oxidation states of heavier members solution?
of group-6 of transition series are more (i) H2O 2
stable. 55. ¾¾¾® Product
(ii) heat
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv) CH3 N(CH3)2
49. The correct statement among the following is : Find the number of unsaturated carbon in the
(1) The alkali metals when strongly heated in product.
oxygen form superoxides. 56. A tetrapeptide has —COOH group on alanine.
(2) Caesium is used in photoelectric cells. This produces glycine (Gly), valine (Val), phenyl
(3) NaHCO3 is more soluble in water than alanine (Phe) and alanine (Ala), on complete
KHCO3. hydrolysis. For this tetrapeptide, find the number
(4) The size of hydrated ions of alkali metals of possible sequences (primary structures)
increases from top to bottom. with —NH2 group attached to a chiral center.
Mock Test -4 MT-45
57. 4 g of H2 effused through a pinhole in 10 s at 59. When CO2 dissolves in water, the following
some constant temperature and pressure. equilibrium is established
Calculate the amount of oxygen effused in the CO2 + 2H2O H3O+ + HCO3–; for which
same time interval and at the same conditions of the equilibrium constant is 3.8 ´ 10–6 and pH = 6.0.
What would be the ratio of concentration of
temperature and pressure.
bicarbonate ion to carbon dioxide?
58. The vapour pressure of benzene at a certain 60. For a first order reaction, calculate the ratio
temperature is 640 mm of Hg. A non volatile and
between the time taken to complete 3/4th of the
non electrolyte solid weighing 2.175 g is added
reaction and time taken to complete half of the
to 39.08 g of benzene. If the vapour pressure of
the solution is 600 mm of Hg, calculate the reaction.
molecular weight of solid substance.
MATHEMATICS
Section - A log x log y log z
(2) If = = ,
61. The roots of the given equation b-c c-a a-b
(p – q) x 2 + (q – r) x + (r – p) = 0 are : then x a .y b .z c = abc
p-q q-r 1 1 1
(1) ,1 (2) ,1 (3) + + =2
r-p p-q log xy xyz log yz xyz log zx xyz
(4) All are correct
r-p
(3) ,1 (4) None of these
p-q p
64. If 0 < a, b, g < p/2 such that a + b + g =and cot
2
62. If a, b, c, d and p are distinct non zero real
a, cot b, cot g are in arithmetic progression, then
numbers such that (a 2 + b2 + c 2 ) p 2 –
the value of cot a cot g is
2(ab + bc + cd)p + (b2 + c2+ d2) £ 0 then a,b,c,d
(1) 1 (2) 3
are in 2
(3) cot b (4) cot a + cot g
(1) A.P. (2) G.P.
65. The equation of the chord of the hyperbola
(3) H.P. (4) satisfy ab = cd
25 x 2 - 16 y 2 = 400 that is bisected at point (5,
63. Which of the following is correct?
3) is:
(1) If a 2 + 4b 2 = 12ab , then (1) 135 x – 48 y = 481 (2) 125x–48y=481
1 (3) 125 x – 4 y = 48 (4) None of these
log(a + 2b) = (log a + log b)
2
MT-46 JEE MAIN
66. The number of solutions of the equation

2a 2b
70. If sin -1 2
+ sin -1 = 2 tan -1 x, then
æ px ö 1+ a 1 + b2
sin çç ÷÷ = x 2 – 2 3 x + 4
è2 3ø x is equal to
(1) forms an empty set (2) is only one a -b b
(3) is only two (4) is more than (1) (2)
1 + ab 1 + ab
2
67. If 1, a1, a2, a3, a4 are the roots of z5 – 1 = 0, then b a+b
(3) (4)
w – a1 w – a2 w – a3 1 - ab 1 - ab
the value of 2
× 2
× ×
w – a1 w – a2 w 2 – a3 2
71. Let f (x) = , g(x) = cos x and h(x) = x + 3
x +1
w – a4
is (where w is imaginary cube root of then the range of the composite function fogoh,
w2 – a4
is
unity) (1) R+ (2) R – {0}
(1) 1 (2) w (3) [1, ¥) (4) R+ – {1}
(3) w 2
(4) None of these
72. The set of points where f(x) = (x – 1)2 (x + | x –1 | )
68. Which of the following is correct? is thrice differentiable, is
(1) If A and B are square matrices of order 3 (1) R (2) R – {0}
such that | A | = –1, | B | = 3, then the
determinant of 3 AB is equal to 27. (3) R – {1} (4) R–{0,1}
(2) If A is an invertible matrix, then det (A–1) is 73. Let f (x) = 1/(x – 1) and g (x) = 1/(x2 + x – 2). Then the
equal to det (A) set of points where (gof)(x) is discontinuous, is
(3) If A and B are matrices of the same order, then (1) {1} (2) {–2,1}
(A + B)2 = A2 + 2AB + B2 is possible if AB = I (3) {1/2, 1, 2} (4) {1/2 , 1}
(4) None of these
m
69. Let f(x) = | x – 1 |. Then 74. å n + r Cn is equal to :
(1) f(x2) = (f(x))2 r =0
(2) f (x + y) = f(x) + f(y) n + m +1 n + m +2

(1) Cn + 1 (2) Cn
(3) f (| x |) = | f(x) |
n + m +3
(4) None of these (3) C n -1 (4) None of these
Mock Test -4 MT-47
( an -1) / n 2x 2y 2z
x 80. If x + y – z + xyz = 0, then + -
75. The value of ò a-x + x
dx is 1- x 2
1- y 2
1- z2
1n
is equal to
a 1 xyz
(1) (2) (na + 2) (1)
2 2n [(1 - x )(1 - y 2 )(1 - z 2 )]
2
na - 2 - xyz
(3) (4) None of these. (2)
2n [(1 - x )(1 - y 2 )(1 - z 2 )]
2
76. The value of 8xyz

(3)
p/4 [(1 - x )(1 - y 2 )(1 - z 2 )]
2
ò (x | x | + sin3 x + x tan 2 x + 1) dx is
-8 xyz
-p / 4 (4)
[(1 - x )(1 - y 2 )(1 - z 2 )]
2
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) p/4 (4) p/2 Section - B
77. Let (1 – x – 2x2)6 = 1+ a1x + a2x2 + …. + a12 x12.
81. If the number of 5-element subsets of the set
a2 a4 a6 a12
Then + + + ...... +
is equal to A= {a1, a2, ...., a20} of 20 distinct elements is k
22 24 26 212
times the number of 5-element subsets
(1) –1 (2) –1/2 containing a4, then k is _____.
(3) 0 (4) 1/2
82. The value of cos360 cos420 cos780 is _____.
78. The equation of a common tangent to y2 = 4x
and the curve x2 + 4y2 = 8 can be é 5 -1 5 + 1ù
(1) x – 2y + 2 = 0 (2) x + 2y + 4 = 0 êGiven : sin18° = and cos 36° = ú
ë 4 4 û
(3) x – 2y = 4 (4) x + 2y = 4
79. The function f (x) = (x – 3)2 satisfies all the 83. If x =1/5, the value of |cos (cos–1x + 2 sin–1 x)| is
conditions of mean value theorem in [3, 4]. A _____.
point on y = (x –3)2, where the tangent is parallel 84. Let A be the centre of the circle x2 + y2 – 2x–4y –
to the chord joining (3, 0) and (4,1) is
20 = 0, and B( 1,7) and D(4,–2) are points on the
æ 7 1ö æ 7 1ö circle then, if tangents be drawn at B and D,
(1) çè , ÷ø (2) ç , ÷
è 2 4ø
2 2 which meet at C, then area of quadrilateral ABCD
(3) (1, 4) (4) (4, 1) is _____.
MT-48 JEE MAIN
85. If the system of linear equations :

( 2 + sin x ) dy = cos x
x1 + 2x2 + 3x3 = 6 88. Let y (x) be a solution of .
(1 + y ) dx
x1 + 3x2 + 5x3 = 9
2x1 + 5x2 + ax3 = b æ pö
If y (0) = 2, then value of y ç ÷ is _____.
is consistent and has infinite number of solutions, è 2ø
then value of a + b is _____.
1
ò f (x) dx = log(f (x))
2
86. If Ak = 0 ( A is nilpotent with index k), 89. + C. If f(0) = 5 then value
(I – A)p = I + A + A2 + . . . + Ak – 1, then value of
|p| is _____. of constant term of f(x) is _____.
x - {x + 1 } 1 a b
87. Let f ( x) = ; where {x} is the
x - {x + 2 } 90. In a DABC, if 1 c a = 0, then value of
1 b c
fractional part of x, then value of lim f ( x ) is
x®1 / 3
_____. sin 2 A + sin 2 B + sin 2 C is _____.
Time : 3 hrs.
5 Max. Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
marks.
PHYSICS
following values of these quantities are allowed
Section - A
for a diamagnetic material?
1. A lift is moving down with acceleration a. A (1) er = 0.5, mr = 1.5 (2) er = 1.5, mr = 0.5
man in the lift drops a ball inside the lift. The (3) er = 0.5, mr = 0.5 (4) er = 1.5, mr = 1.5
acceleration of the ball as observed by the man 3. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge
in the lift and a man standing stationary on the distribution with charge density varying as
ground are respectively
æ5 rö
(1) g, g (2) g – a, g – a r(r ) = r0 ç - ÷ upto r = R , and r(r ) = 0
è 4 Rø
(3) g – a, g (4) a, g for r > R , where r is the distance from the origin.
2. Relative permittivity and permeability of a The electric field at a distance r(r < R) from the
material are er and mr, respectively. Which of the origin is given by
MT-50 JEE MAIN
r0 r æ 5 r ö 4pr0 r æ 5 r ö 6. In a cubical vessel are enclosed n molecules of a

(1) ç - ÷ (2) ç - ÷ gas each having a mass m and an average speed
4e 0 è 3 R ø 3e 0 è 3 R ø
v. If l is the length of each edge of the cube, the
r0 r æ 5 r ö r0 r æ 5 r ö pressure exerted by the gas will be
(3) ç - ÷ (4) ç - ÷
3ε 0 è 4 R ø n m2 v
4ε0 è 4 R ø n mv 2
(1) (2)
4. An ideal gas enclosed in a vertical cylindrical l3 2 l3
container supports a freely moving piston of
m nv 2 nmv
mass M. The piston and the cylinder have equal (3) 3 (4)
cross sectional area A. When the piston is in 3l 2l
equilibrium, the volume of the gas is V0 and its 7. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate all
pressure is P0. The piston is slightly displaced made of the same material and having the same
from the equilibrium position and released. mass, are initially heated to a temperature of
Assuming that the system is completely isolated 200oC. Which of these objects will cool slowest
from its surrounding, the piston executes a when left in air at room temperature?
simple harmonic motion with frequency
(1) the sphere
1 AgP0 1 V0 MP0 (2) the cube
(1) (2)
2p V0 M 2p A 2 g
(3) the circular plate
1 A 2 gP0 1 MV0 (4) all will cool at samerate
(3) (4)
2p MV0 2p AgP0 8. An electromagnetic wave in vacuum has the
r r
5. The correct graph between the gravitational electric and magnetic field E and B , which are
potential (Vg) due to a hollow sphere and distance always perpendicular to each other. The
r
from its centre will be direction of polarization is given by X and that
r r
of wave propagation by k . Then
r r r r r
(1) Vg (2) Vg (1) X || B and k || B ´ E
r
r r r r r
(2) X || E and k || E ´ B
+Vg r r r r r
+Vg r = Re r r = Re r (3) X || B and k || E ´ B
r r r r r
(3) (4) (4) X || E and k || B ´ E
–Vg –Vg
Mock Test -5 MT-51
9. A particle of mass m1 collides head-on with (1) m0

i1i2 dl tan q
another stationary particle of mass m2 (m2 > m1). 2 pr
The collision is perfectly inelastic. The fraction m0
(2) i1i2 dl sin q 1 2
of kinetic energy which is converted into heat in 2pr
this collision is m0
(3) i1i2 dl cos q i1 r i2
(1) m2/(m1 + m2) (2) m1/(m1 + m2) 2 pr
m0 q dl
(3) m1/(m1 – m2) (4) m2/(m1 – m2) (4) i1i2 dl sin q
4 pr
10. The instantaneous values of current and voltage 13. In Young's double slit experiment, one of the slit is
in an A.C. circuit are I = 4 sin wt and E = 100 cos wider than other, so that amplitude of the light from
one slit is double of that other slit. If Im be the
æ pö
ç wt + ÷ respectively. The phase difference maximum intensity, the resultant intensity I when
è 3ø they interfere at phase difference f is given by :
between voltage and current is Im
(1) (4 + 5 cos f)
p 2p 9
(1) (2)
3 3 Im æ 2 fö
(2) ç 1 + 2 cos ÷
3 è 2ø
5p 7p Im æ f
2 ö
(3) (4) (3) ç 1 + 4 cos ÷
6 6 5 è 2ø
11. Which of the following units denotes the Im æ f
2 ö
(4) ç 1 + 8 cos ÷
ML2 9 è 2ø
dimension , where Q denotes the electric
Q2 14. A pendulum consists of a wooden bob of mass
charge? m and length ‘l’. A bullet of mass m1 is fired
towards the pendulum with a speed v1. The bullet
(1) Wb/m 2 (2) Henry (H)
emerges out of the bob with a speed v1/3, and
(3) H/m2 (4) Weber (Wb) the bob just completes motion along a vertical
12. Wires 1 and 2 carrying currents i 1 and i 2 circle. Then v1 is
respectively are inclined at an angle θ to each æ mö 3æ m ö
other. What is the force on a small element dl of (1) çè m ÷ø 5g l (2) 2 çè m1 ÷ø
5gl
1
wire 2 at a distance of r from wire 1 (as shown in
figure) due to the magnetic field of wire 1? 2 æ m1 ö æ m1 ö
(3) ç ÷ 5gl (4) çè ÷ø g l
3è m ø m
MT-52 JEE MAIN
15. In a p-n junction diode, a square input signal of (a) 1490, 1510 (b) 1510, 1490
10 V is applied as shown in figure. 1 1 1 1
(c) , (d) ,
5V 1490 1510 1510 1490
RL 18. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60° on
one face of a prism of angle 30°. The ray emerging
– 5V out of the prism makes an angle of 30° with the
The output signal across RL will be incident ray. The emergent ray is
(1) Normal to the face through which it emerges
(1) 10V (2) 5V (2) Inclined at 30° to the face through which it
emerges
–10V (3) Inclined at 60° to the face through which it
(3) –5V (4)
emerges
16. A conducting square loop of side L and (4) Inclined at 90° to the normal at face through
resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform which it emerges
velocity v perpendicular to one of its sides. A 19. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed.
magnetic induction B constant in time and space, The wavelength l of the light falling on the
pointing perpendicular and into the plane at the cathode is gradually changed. The plate current
loop exists everywhere with half the loop outside I of the photocell varies as follows :
the field, as shown in figure. The induced emf is I I
(1) (2)
O l O l
L v
I I
(3) (4)
O l O l
(1) zero (2) RvB
20. A proton, a deutron and an a particle accelerated
(3) vBL/R (4) vBL through the same potential difference enter a
17. Sinusoidal carrier voltage of frequency 1.5 MHz region of uniform magnetic field, moving at right
and amplitude 50 V is amplitude modulated by angles to B. What is the ratio of their K.E.?
sin usoidal voltage of frequency 10 kHz (1) 1 : 2 : 2 (2) 2 : 2 : 1
producing 50% modulation. The lower and upper (3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 2
side-band frequencies in kHz are
Mock Test -5 MT-53
Section - B 25. In the figure battery B supplies 12 V. Take C1 = 1

21. In the circuit shown, the total current supplied mF, C2 = 2 mF, C3 = 3 mF, C4 = 4 mF. Charge on
by the battery is _________ A. capacitor C1 when only S1 is closed is _____
B mC.
C1 C3
6W
2W 3W S2
A C
6 volts
1.5W C2 C4
+ – S1
D B
22. Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are 26. p
kept as shown in figure, touching each other, A B
2p0
with their centres on a straight line. If their centres
are marked P, Q, R respectively, the distance of p0
D C
PQ + PR
centre of mass of the system from P is . v0
x 2v0 v
y
Find the value of x. The above p-v diagram represents the
thermodynamic cycle of an engine, operating with
P Q R x an ideal monatomic gas. The amount of heat,
extracted from the source in a single cycle is x
p0v0. Find the value of x.
23. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20
27. A hydrogen-like atom has one electron revolving
minutes. The approximate time interval (t2 – t1)
around a stationary nucleus. The energy
2 required to excite the electron from the second
between the time t2 when of it had decayed
3 orbit to the third orbit is 47.2 eV. The atomic
1 number of the atom is _________.
and time t1 when of it had decayed is _____
3 28. A boyplaying on the roof of a 10 m high building
throws a ball with a speed of 10m/s at an angle
min.
of 30º with the horizontal. How far (in m) from
24. A wooden block of volume 1000 cc is suspended the throwing point will the ball be at the height
from a spring balance. It weighs 12 N in air. It is of 10 m from the ground ?
then held suspended in water with half of it inside
water. What would be the reading in spring 1 3
[ g = 10m/s2 , sin 30o = , cos 30o = ]
balance (in N) now? 2 2
MT-54 JEE MAIN
29. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass are joined end to end. The composite wire is
through a region at the same time in the same stretched by a certain load which stretches the
direction. The sum ofthe maximum and minimum copper wire by 1 mm. If the Young’s modulii of
intensities is x (I1 + I2). Find the value of x. copper and steel are respectively 1.0 × 1011 Nm–2
30. A copper wire of length 1.0 m and a steel wire of and 2.0 × 1011 Nm–2, the total extension of the
length 0.5 m having equal cross-sectional areas composite wire is _______ mm.
CHEMISTRY
Section - A sequences represents the increasing order of the
polarizing power of the cationic species, K+,
31. In which of the following arrangements, the
Ca2+, Mg2+, Be2+?
sequence is not strictly according to the property
(1) Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be+ < K+
written against it?
(2) Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+
(1) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2: increasing
(3) Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+
oxidising power
(2) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3: increasing basic (4) K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+.
strength 34. A 1.0 M solution with respect to each of the
(3) HF < HCl < HBr < HI: increasing acid metal halides AX3, BX2, CX 3 and DX2 is
electrolysed using platinum electrodes. If
strength
(4) B < C < O < N: increasing first ionisation E° = 1. 50 V, E° = 0. 3 V,
A3+ / A B2+ /B
enthalpy.
32. Aluminothermy used for on the spot welding of E° = – 0. 74 V,, E° = – 2.37 V..
C3+ /C D2+ /D
large iron structure is based on the fact that- The correct sequence in which the various metals
(1) As compared to iron, aluminium has greater are deposited at the cathode is :
affinity for oxygen. (1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B, C
(2) As compared to aluminium, iron has greater (3) D, C, B, A (4) C, B, A
affinity for oxygen. 35. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal expansion at
(3) Reaction between aluminium and oxygen is constant pressure. During the process :
endothermic. (1) enthalpy increases but entropy decreases.
(4) Reaction between iron and oxygen is (2) enthalpy remains constant but entropy
endothermic. increases.
33. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its (3) enthalpy decreases but entropy increases.
polarizing power. Which one of the following (4) Both enthalpyand entropy remain constant.
Mock Test -5 MT-55
36. Among the reactions given below for B2H6, the 39. A metal gives two chlorides A and B. A gives
one which does not take place is black precipitate with NH4OH and B gives white.
(1) B2H6 + HCl ¾¾ ® B2H5Cl + H2 With KI, B gives a red precipitate soluble in
D
(2) 2B2H6 + 6NH3 ¾¾® B3N3H6 (borazine) excess of KI. A and B are respectively :
(3) B2H6 + 2N(CH3)3 ¾¾
® 2(CH3)3 NBH3 (1) HgCl2 and Hg2Cl2 (2) Hg2Cl2 and HgCl2
H 3O + (3) HgCl2 and ZnCl2 (4) ZnCl2 and HgCl24
(4) B2H6 + 6C2H4 ¾¾¾®
3C2H5OH + 2B(OH)3 40. In which reaction, there is change in oxidation
37. Which of the following ions are optically active? number of N
en en (1) 2NO2 ® N2O4

+ +
Cl Cl (2) NH4OH ® NH4+ + OH–
Co Co (3) N2O5 + H2O ® 2HNO3
Cl Cl (4) 2NO2 + H2O ® HNO3 + HNO2

en en 41. Potassium permanganate acts as an oxidant in
I II neutral, alkaline as well as acidic media. The final
products obtained from it in the three conditions
en en are, respectively
3+ +
Cl (1) MnO42–, Mn3+ and Mn2+
en Co Co (2) MnO2, MnO2 and Mn2+
Cl (3) MnO2, MnO2+ and Mn3+

en en (4) MnO, MnO2 and Mn2+
III IV 42. An organic compound ‘X’ on ozonolysis

followed by reduction with Zn/H2O gives 2 moles
(1) I only (2) II only
O O O
(3) II and III (4) IV only || || ||
of H - C - H and H - C - CH 2 - C - H . ‘X’ is
38. The pair of compounds having metals in highest
oxidation state is: (1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH = CH2
(1) MnO2 and CrO2Cl2 (2) CH2 = CH–CH2–CH2–CH = CH2
(2) [NiCl4]2– and [CoCl4]2– (3) H – C º C – C º C – H
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– and [Cu(CN)2]2– (4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
(4) [FeCl4]– and Co2O3
MT-56 JEE MAIN
43. Which one of the following compounds is The respective compounds A and B are
resistant to nucleophilic attack by hydroxyl ions? O
COCH3 COCH3
(1) Methyl acetate (2) Acetonitrile
(1) and
(3) Diethyl ether (4) Acetamide
44. To detect iodine in presence of bromine, the O
sodium extract is treated with NaNO2 + glacial CH2CHO CH2CHO
acetic acid + CCl4. Iodine is detected by the (2) and
appearance of
(1) yellow colour of CCl4 layer. O
COCH3 CH2CHO
(2) purple colour of CCl4. (3) and
(3) brown colour in the organic layer of CCl4.
(4) deep blue colour in CCl4. O
CH2CHO COCH3
45. An organic compound A (C4H10O) has two
(4) and
enantiomeric forms and on dehydration it gives
B(major product) and C (minor product). B and
C are treated with HBr/ Peroxide and the NH2
compounds so produced were subjected to (i) NaNO + HCl
alkaline hydrolysis then- 48. ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾2¾ ¾ ® A.
(ii) CuCl
(1) B will give an isomer ofA
Compound ‘A’is
(2) C will give an isomer ofA
NO2 Cl
(3) Neither of them will give isomer ofA
(4) Both B and C will give isomer of A (1) (2)
46. In which of the following polymers, empirical
formula resembles with monomer?
Cl NO2
(1) Bakelite (2) Teflon
(3) Nylon-6, 6 (4) Dacron (3) (4)
CºCH 2+
H2SO4, Hg
47 . A,
49. Allyl phenyl ether can be prepared by heating:
O (1) C6H5Br + CH2 = CH – CH2 – ONa
CºCH 2+ (2) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Br + C6H5ONa
H 2SO4, Hg
B (3) C6H5 – CH = CH – Br + CH3 – ONa
(4) CH2 = CH – Br + C6H5 – CH2 – ONa
Mock Test -5 MT-57
Cº N 54. To find the standard potential of M 3+/M

electrode, the following cell is constituted : Pt/
50. + C6H5MgBr
M/M3+(0.001 mol L–1)/Ag+(0.01 mol L–1)/Ag
Ether H O+
The emf of the cell is found to be 0.421 volt at
¾¾¾® A ¾¾¾ 3 ¾ ®B 298 K calculate the standard potential of half
The final product (B) in above reaction is reaction
O M3+ + 3e– ¾® M at 298 K
C (Given E at 298 K = 0.80 Volt)
Ag + /Ag
(1) 55. The number of p electrons present in 6.4 g of
calcium carbide is x × NA where (NA =Avagadro’s
N–MgBr number). Find the value of x.
C 56. Two elements A & B form compounds having
(2) molecular formulae AB2 and AB4 . When
dissolved in 20.0 g of benzene 1.00 g of AB2
N–H lowers f.p. by 2.3 °C whereas 1.00 g ofAB4 lowers
f.p. by 1.3 °C. The molal depression constant for
C benzene in 1000 g is 5.1. Calculate the sum of
(3) atomic masses of A and B.
57. An element (atomic mass =100 g/mol) having
N–OH bcc structure has unit cell edge 400 pm. Calculate
the density (in g/cm3) of the element.
C
58. A substance "A" decomposes in solution
(4) following the first order kinetics. Flask I contains
1 L of 1 M solution of A and flask II contains 100
Section - B mL of 0.6 M solution. After 8 hr, the
concentration, of A in flask I becomes 0.25 M.
51. If radiation corresponding to second line of What will be the time for concentration of A in
"Balmer series" of Li2+ ion, knocked out electron flask II to become 0.3 M?
from first excited state of H-atom, then find the 59. Concentration of NH4Cl and NH4OH in a buffer
kinetic energy of ejected electron. solution is in the ratio of 1 : 1, Kb for NH4OH is
52. What is the sum of number of sigma ( s ) and pi 10–10. Calculate the pH of the buffer.
( p ) bonds present in sulphuric acid molecule ? 60. At 5 × 105 bar pressure and density of diamond
53. Copper crystallises in fcc with a unit length of and graphite are 3 g/cc and 2 g/cc respectively,
361pm. What is the radius of copper atom ? at certain temperature 'T'. Find the value of
DU – DH for the conversion of 1 mole of graphite
to 1 mole of diamond at temperature 'T'.
MT-58 JEE MAIN
MATHEMATICS
Section - A 8a 3
y= is
61. Which of the following statements is false? x 2 + 4a 2
(1) The length of sub-tangent to the curve a2 a2
(1) ( 6p - 4) (2) (4 p + 3)
3 3
x2y2 = 16a4 at the point (–2a, 2a) is 2a.
a2
(2) x + y = 3 is a normal to the curve x2 = 4y (3) (8p + 3) (4) None of these
3
(3) Curves y = –4x2 and y = e–x/2 are orthogonal. r r
(4) If a Î (–1, 0), then tangent at each point of 65. Given that a is ^ to b and p is a non zero scalar
r r r r r r
if pr + (r .b) a = c then r equals
2 3 r r r
the curve y = x - 2ax 2 + 2x + 5 makes r
(1) c / p - éë(b.c) a ùû / p 2
3
an acute angle with the positive direction of r r r r
(2) a / p - éë (c.a) b ùû / p2
x-axis. r rr r 2
(x 2 - 1)dx (3) b / p - éë(a.b)c ùû / p
62. If ò (4) None of these
æ x2 +1ö
(x 4 + 3x 2 + 1) tan -1 ç ÷ 66. The domain of the function
è x ø
f (x) = x - 1 - x is
2
= log | tan -1 f (x) | + C, then

é 1 ù é 1 ù
x 2 +1 (1) ê -1, - úÈê ,1ú
(1) f (x) = x2 + 1 (2) f ( x) = ë 2û ë 2 û
2x
x2 +1 1 2 (2) [–1, 1]
(3) f (x) = (4) f ( x) = (x + 1) 1ù é 1 ö
x 2 æ
(3) çè -¥, - 2 ú È ê , + ¥÷
ø
æp ö û ë 2
63. If P(q) and Qç + q ÷ are two points on the
è2 ø é 1 ù
2 2 (4) ê ,1ú
x y ë 2 û
ellipse + = 1 , then locus of the midpoint
2
a b2 67. Which of the following is an empty set?
of PQ is (1) The set of prime numbers which are even
x2 y2 1 x2 y2 (2) The solution set of the equation
(1) + = (2) + =4
a 2 b2 2 a2 b2 2 (2x + 3) 2
x2 y2 – + 3 = 0; x Î R
(3) + =2 (4) None of these x +1 x +1
a 2 b2 (3) (A× B) Ç (B×A), whereAand Baredisjoint.
x2 (4) The set ofreal which satisfyx2 + ix + i – 1 = 0
64. Area included between y = and
4a
Mock Test -5 MT-59
68. f(x) = x2 [x] (1) positive (2) negative

(1) increases in (0,1) (2) decreases in (0 , 1) (3) of opposite signs (4) non-real
74. The equation k sin q + cos 2q = 2k – 7 possesses a
(3) increases in (–1,0) (4) None of these solution if :
69. If y = ex + sin x , then d2x/dy2 is equal to (1) 2 £ k £ 6 (2) k > 2
(1) ex – sin x (3) k > 6 (4) k < 2
(2) –(ex + cos x)–2 2 x
75. If y = sin -1 , then which of the following
(3) – (ex – sin x ) (ex + cos x)–2 1+ x2
(4) (sin x – ex) (cos x + ex)–3 is not correct?
70. The sum to n terms of the series dy 2
(1) = for | x |< 1
1 3 7 15 dx 1 + x 2
+ + + + .............. is
2 4 8 16 dy -2
(1) n – 1 – 2 –n
(2) 1
(2) = for | x | > 1
dx 1 + x 2
(3) n – 1 + 2–n (4) 1 + 2–n dy
(3) = 2 for x = -1
71. If f : R ® R be a function defined byf(x) = 4x3 –7. dx
Then dy
(4) does not exist at | x | = 1
(1) f is one-one -into (2) f is many-one - into dx
(3) f is many-one onto(4) f is bijective 76. If the slope of the tangent at (x, y) to a curve
é p 2p ù passing thr ough æ p ö is given by

72. Let f : ê- , ® [0, 4] be a function defined ç 1, ÷
ë 3 3 úû y æ yö
è 4ø
as - cos 2 ç ÷ , then the equation of the curve is
x x
è ø
f (x) = 3 sin x - cos x + 2 . Then f –1(x) is given (1) y = tan -1 log (e / x )
by
y = e1+ cot
( y / x)
(2)
æ x - 2ö p y = x tan -1 log(e / x )
sin -1 ç - (3)
(1) è 2 ÷ø 6
(4) y = e1+tan(y/x)
æ x - 2ö p
sin -1 ç +
(2) è 2 ÷ø 6 -1
æ 2x ö
÷, then dy at x = 0 is :
77. If y = tan çç 2 x +1 ÷
2p æ x - 2ö è1+ 2 ø dx
+ cos -1 ç
(3)
3 è 2 ÷ø 3 2
(4) None of these (1) – log 2 (2) log 2
5 5
73. The roots a and b of the quadratic equation 3
px2 + qx + r = 0 are real and of opposite signs. (3) - log 2 (4) None of these
The roots of a(x – b)2 + b(x – a)2 = 0 are 2
MT-60 JEE MAIN
a a2 1+ a3 82. If the function f ( x ) = Pe 2 x + Qe x + Rx satisfies

2 3 the conditions f (0) = -1, f ¢(log 2) = 31 and
78. If b b 1 + b = 0 and the vectors
c c2 1 + c3 log 4 39
ò0 (f (x) - Rx)dx =
2
, then valve of P + Q
A = (1,a,a2) ; B = (1, b, b2) ; C = (1,c, c2) are + R is ______.
non-coplanar then the product abc = 83. The sum of 10 items is 12 and sum of their
(1) 0 (2) 1 squares is 18, then standard deviation will be
(3) –1 (4) None _______.
79. A and B are two independent witnesses (i.e. there 84. If the system of equations :
is no collusion between them) in a case. The p3x + (p + 1)3 y = (p + 2)3
probability that A will speak the truth is x and px + (p + 1) y = p + 2
the probability that B will speak the truth is y. A x+y= 1
and B agree in a certain statement. The is consistent then valve of |P| is ______.
probability that the statement is true is 85. If f (x) = 3x10 – 7x8 + 5x6 – 21x3 + 3x2 – 7, then
f (1 - a ) - f (1)
x–y xy lim is ________.
(1) (2) a®0 a3 + 3a
x+y 1 + x + y + xy
86. A survey of 500 television viewers produced the
x–y xy following information, 285 watch football, 195
(3) (4) watch hockey, 115 watch basket-ball, 45 watch
1 – x – y + 2xy 1 – x – y + 2xy
football and basket ball, 70 watch football and
80. Let x1 and y1 be real numbers. If z1 and z2 are hockey, 50 watch hockey and basket ball, 50 do
complex numbers such that |z1| = |z2| = 4, then not watch any of the three games. The number
|x1z1 – y1z2|2 + |y1z1 + x1z2|2 = of viewers, who watch exactly one of the three
games are ________.
(1) 32(x12 + y12) (2) 16(x12 + y12) 87. The value of | x | for which
(3) 4(x12 + y12) (4) 8 ( x12 + y12 ) sin (cot –1 (1+ x)) = cos (tan –1 x) is _______.
1 - cos 3 x
Section - B 88. The value of lim is _______.
x ® 0 x sin x cos x
81. Let f be a composite function of x defined by 1
89. If f (x ) = , th e number of points of
1 1 1- x
f (u ) = 2 , u ( x) = .
u +u -2 x -1 discontinuity of f{f [f(x)]} is ________.
Then the number of points x where f is 90. The number of roots of equation
discontinuous is ________. cos x + cos 2 x + cos 3x = 0 is (0 £ x £ 2p)
______.
Time : 3 hrs.
6
Max. Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
marks.
PHYSICS
ur
Section - A field E at the centre O is
1. A 1 kg block attached to a spring vibrates with a j

frequency of 1 Hz on a frictionless horizontal
table. Two springs identical to the original spring
are attached in parallel to an 8 kg block placed
on the same table. The frequency of vibration of
the 8 kg block is : i
O
1 1 q q
(1) Hz (2) Hz ˆj ˆj
4 2 2 (1) 2 2 (2) -
4p e 0 r 4p e 0 r 2
2
1
(3) Hz (4) 2Hz q q
2 (3) - 2 2 ˆj (4) ˆj
2. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive 2p e0 r 2p e 0 r 2
2
charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net

MT-62 JEE MAIN
3. If a bar magnet of magnetic moment 80 units be 1

cut into two halves of equal lengths, the given by x =
2
[aw - bw + c]
magnetic moment of each half will be
(1) 80 units (2) 40 units where a, b, c, are constants and b2 < 4 ac. For
what value of w does the resonance occur ?
(3) 160 units (4) 20 units
b b
4. Hydrogen ( 1 H1 ) , Deuterium ( 1 H 2 ) , singly (1) w=
2a
(2) w =
a
ionised Helium ( 2 He4 ) and doubly ionised
+
(3) w = c (4) w = 0
lithium ( 3 Li 6 ) all have one electron around
+ +
7. Three bars each of area of cross - section A and
the nucleus. Consider an electron transition from length L are connected in series. The thermal
n = 2 to n = 1. If the wavelengths of emitted conductivities of their materials are K, 2K, 1.5K.
radiation are l1, l2, l3 and l4 respectively then If the temperatures of the external ends of the
approximately which one of the following is first and last bar are 200 & 18ºC, then the
correct? temperatures of both the junctions are
(1) 4l1 = 2l 2 = 2l3 = l 4 (1) T1 = 116ºC, T2 = 74ºC
(2) l1 = 2l 2 = 2l3 = l 4 (2) T1 = 120ºC, T2 = 84ºC
(3) l1 = l 2 = 4l3 = 9l 4 (3) T1 = 132ºC, T2 = 98ºC
(4) l1 = 2l 2 = 3l3 = 4l 4 (4) T1 = 164ºC, T2 = 62ºC
5. A small object of uniform density rolls up a 8. In the following diagram the reading of the
curved surface with an initial velocity v. It ammeter is (when the internal resistance of the
3v2 battery is zero)
reaches up to a maximum height of with
4g
A 10V
respect to the initial position. The object is
(1) Ring
4W
(2) Solid sphere 5W
(3) Hollow sphere v

40 10
(4) Disc (1) A (2) A
29 9
6. The amplitude of velocity of a particle acted on
by a force F cos w t along the x direction, is 5
(3) A (4) 2 A
3
Mock Test -6 MT-63
9. A 2V battery is connected across AB as 11. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B a wire

shown in the figure. The value of the current in the form of a semicircle of radius r rotates
supplied by the battery when in one case about the diameter of the circle with an angular
battery’s positive terminal is connected to A frequency w. The axis of rotation is perpendicular
and in other case when positive terminal of to the field. If the total resistance of the circuit is
battery is connected to B will respectively be: R, the mean power generated per period of
rotation is
D1 5W
( B pr w )2 ( B pr 2 w ) 2
(1) (2)
2R 8R
D2 10 W
B pr 2 w ( B pr w 2 ) 2
(3) (4)
2R 8R
12. A steel wire is suspended vertically from a rigid
A B support. When loaded with a weight in air, it
extends by la and when the weight is immersed
(1) 0.4 A and 0.2 A (2) 0.2 A and 0.4 A
completely in water, the extension is reduced to
(3) 0.1 A and 0.2 A (4) 0.2 A and 0.1 A
lw. Then the relatively density of material of the
10. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass
weight is
density r is bent into a circular loop with centre
at O as shown. The moment of inertia of the la la
loop about the axis XX' is (1) (2)
lw la - l w
rL3 X X¢ lw lw
(1) 2 90° (3) (4)
8p la - l w la
O 13. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 1 × 1014
rL3 hertz is propagating along z-axis. The amplitude
(2)
16p 2 of electric field is 4 V/m. If e0 = 8.8 × 10–12 C2/N-
m2, then average energy density of electric field
5rL3
(3) will be:
16p 2 (1) 35.2 × 10–10 J/m3
3rL3 (2) 35.2 × 10–11 J/m3
(4) (3) 35.2 × 10–12 J/m3
8p 2
(4) 35.2 × 10–13 J/m3
MT-64 JEE MAIN
14. The x-t graph of a particle undergoing simple

harmonic motion is shown below. The acceleration V D
C
V D
C
of the particle at t = 4 / 3 s is
1 A
B
A
B
x (cm)
0 t(s) (1) P (2) P

4 8 12
–1 D C D
C
2
3 2 –p
(1) p cm/s 2 (2) cm/s 2 V V
32 32 A B A
B
p2 3 2
(3) cm/s2 (4) – p cm/s 2 (3) P (4) P
32 32 (1) Positive in all the cases (1) to (4)
15. In a Young’s double slit experiment with light (2) Positive in cases (1), (2), (3) but zero in case(4)
(3) Negative in cases (1), (2), (3) but zero in case (4)
of wavelength l the separation of slits is d and
(4) Zero in all the cases
distance of screen is D such that D >> d >>
17. Three masses m, 2m and 3m are moving in x-y
l. If the fringe width is b, the distance from plane with speed 3u, 2u and u respectively as
point of maximum intensity to the point where shown in figure. The three masses collide at the
intensity falls to half of maximum intensity on same point at P and stick together. The velocity
either side is: of resulting mass will be:
y
b b
(1) (2) 2m, 2u
6 3
b b 60°
(3) (4) x
4 2 m, 3u P 60°
16. In diagrams (1 to 4), variation of volume with
changing pressure is shown. A gas is taken 3m, u
along the path ABCD. The change in internal
energy of the gas will be
(1)
12
(
u ˆ
)
i + 3jˆ (2)
u ˆ
12
i - 3jˆ( )
(3)
12
(
u ˆ
-i + 3jˆ ) (4)
u ˆ
12
(
-i - 3jˆ )
Mock Test -6 MT-65
18. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth (3) 12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA
of radius R at a height x from its surface. If g is (4) 12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Section - B
the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is
21. The magnetic field due to a current carrying
gR 2 gR circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis
(1) (2)
R+ x R-x at a distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 mT.
What will be its value at the centre of loop (in
æ gR 2 ö 1/ 2 mT)?
(3) gx (4) ç ÷ 22. One end of a massless rope, which passes over a
è R + xø
massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook
19. The plots of intensity versus wavelength for C while the other end is free. Maximum tension
three black bodies at temperatures T1, T2 and T3 that the rope can bear is 360 N. With what value
respectively are as shown. Their temperature are of maximum safe acceleration (in ms-2) can a man
such that of 60 kg climb on the rope?
P
(1) T1 > T2 > T3 T3
C
(2) T1 > T3 > T2 I T1 T2
(3) T2 > T3 > T1
23. The velocity of projection of a body is increased
(4) T3 > T2 > T1 l by 2%, other factors remaining unchanged, what
20. A Zener diode is connected to a battery and a will be the percentage change in the maximum
load as shown below: height attained?
4 kW A IL 24. The insulation property of air breaks down at
E = 3 × 106 volts/ metre. The maximum charge
IZ that can be given to a sphere of diameter 5 m is
I approximately ______ coulomb.
10 V = VZ RL = 2kW 25. A compound microscope has an objective and
60 V
eye-piece as thin lenses of focal lengths 1 cm
and 5 cm respectively. The distance between
B the objective and the eye-piece is 20 cm. The
The currents, I, IZ and IL are respectively. distance at which the object must be placed in
(1) 15 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA front of the objective if the final image is located
at 25 cm from the eye-piece, is numerically
(2) 15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA
______ cm.
MT-66 JEE MAIN
26. When light of 3000 Å is incident on sodium and B are situated at ( 2, 2) and (2, 0)
chloride, the stopping potential is 1.85 volt and
respectively. The potential difference between
when light of 4000 Å is incident, then the stopping
the points A and B will be ______ volts.
potential becomes 0.82 volt. The threshold
29. The Thallium-201 half-life is 74 hours. If the
wavelength for sodium is ______ Å. (h = 6.6 ×
sample has an activity of 80 millicuries initially,
10–34 J-sec.)
what will be the activity (in mci) after 9.25 days ?
27. In four complete revolution of the cap, the
30. An engine approaches a hill with a constant
distance travelled on the pitch scale is 2 mm. If speed. When it is at a distance of 0.9 km, it blows
there are 50 divisions on the circular scale, then a whistle whose echo is heard by the driver after
the least count of the screw gauge is _____ mm. 5 seconds. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s,
28. An electric charge 10–3 λ C is placed at the origin then the speed of the engine (in m/s) is _____ .
(0, 0) of X – Y co-ordinate system. Two points A
CHEMISTRY
Section - A (1) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl (2) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(3) CH3 – O – CH2Cl (4) CH3Cl
31. Four species are listed below:
34. Which of the following hydrocarbon can react
i. HCO3– ii. H3 O+ with maleic anhydride ?
iii. HSO4– iv. HSO3F
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of their acid strength?
(i)
(1) iv < ii < iii < i (2) ii < iii < i < iv
(3) i < iii < ii < iv (4) iii < i < iv < ii
32. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched
(1) Fossil fuel burning - release of CO2
(ii)
(2) Nuclear power - radioactive wastes
(3) Solar energy - Greenhouse effect
(4) Biomass burning - release of CO2
33. Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis
(iii)
by SN1 mechanism :
Mock Test -6 MT-67
39. Which one of the following esters cannot

undergo Claisen self-condensation?
(1) CH 3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 2 - COOC 2 H 5
(iv) (2) C6H5COOC2H5
(1) only (i) (2) (i) and (iv) (3) C6H5CH2COOC2H5
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) all the four (4) C6H11CH2COOC2H5
35. The process of the extraction of Au and Ag is 40. In recovery of silver from photographic film, you
based on their solubility in have decided to dissolve the silver ion with dilute
(1) NH3 or NH4OH (2) KCN or NaCN nitric acid. Addition of dilute HCl to precipitate
(3) HCl or HNO3 (4) H2SO4 AgCl seems to result in unacceptable losses.
36. Which of the following compounds having You might improve recovery by addition
highest and lowest melting point respectively ? of_______ in the latter step.
(1) CsF (2) LiF (1) NaNO3 (2) NaCl
(3) HCl (4) HF (3) Ag2SO4 (4) sodium acetate
Correct answer is 41. One mole of fluorine is reacted with two moles
(1) 2, 3 (2) 1, 4 of hot and concentrated KOH. The products
(3) 4, 3 (4) 2, 1 formed are KF, H2O and O2. The molar ratio of
37. Silver bromide when dissolve in hypo solution KF, H2O and O2 respectively is
gives complex ..... in which oxidation state of (1) 1 : 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 : 0.5
silver is .... (3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 : 2
(1) Na3[Ag(S2O3)2], (I) 42. In the reaction,
HOCl B
(2) Na3[Ag(S2O3)3], (III) CH 2 < CH 2 ¾¾ ¾↑ A ¾¾
↑ CH 2 OH
|
(3) Na3[Ag(S2O3)2], (II) CH2OH
(4) Na3[Ag(S2O3)4], (I)
The molecule ‘A’ and the reagent ‘B’ are
38. An organic compound (A) reacts with sodium (1) H C – CH and hot water
metal and forms (B). On heating with conc. 2 2
H2SO4, (A) gives diethyl ether, (A) and (B) are O

(2) CH3CH2Cl and NaOH
(1) C2H5OH and C2H5ONa
(3) CH3CH2OH and H2SO4
(2) C3H7OH and CH3ONa
(3) CH3OH and CH3ONa (4) CH 2 – CH2 and NaHCO3
| |
(4) C4H9OH and C4H9ONa Cl OH
MT-68 JEE MAIN
43. Alkali metals dissolve in liquid NH3 then which (3) mixing equal volumes of equimolar
of the following observations is not true? solutions of AgNO3 and KI.
(1) H2 gas is liberated. (4) none of these.
(2) Solution turns into blue due to solvated
electrons. 47. Which of the following is an artificial edible
(3) It becomes diamagnetic. colour?
(4) Solution becomes conducting. (1) Melamine (2) Saffron
44. At very high pressures, the compressibility (3) Carotene (4) Tetrazine
factor of one mole of a gas is given by :
48. Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen is positive for
Pb Pb which compound?
(1) 1+ (2)
RT RT
(1) NH2OH (2) NH2NH2
Pb b
(3) 1- (4) 1 - (3) H2NCONH2 (4) All the three
RT (VRT)
45. Among the following compounds (I-III) the 49. It is always advisable not to keep egg yolk or
correct order of reactivity with electrophile is mustard in silver cutlery because
(1) silver reacts with water of egg yolk to form
OCH3 NO2 AgOH.
(2) silver reacts with sulphur of egg yolk
forming black Ag2S.
(3) silver reacts with egg yolk forming Ag2SO4
which is a poisonous substance.
I II III
(4) silver attracts UV light of the atmosphere,
(1) II > III > I (2) III < I < II thereby spoiling the food.
(3) I > II > III (4) I = II > III 50. Which of the following complexes will give white
precipitate with BaCl2 (aq)?
46. One desires to prepare a positively charged sol
(1) [Co(NH3)4SO4]NO2
of silver iodide. This can be achieved by
(2) [Cr(NH3)4SO4]Cl
(1) adding a little AgNO3 solution to KI
(3) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]SO4
solution in slight excess.
(4) Both (b) & (c)
(2) adding a little KI solution to AgNO3
solution in slight excess.
Mock Test -6 MT-69
Section - B percentage by mass of malachite is copper?

56. The freezing point of a solution, prepared from
51. Calculate the molality of 1 litre solution of 93% 1.25 g of a non-electrolyte and 20 g of water, is
H2SO4 (weight/volume). The density of the 271.9 K. If molar depression constant is 1.86 K
solution is 1.84 g/mL. mole–1, find the molar mass of the solute
52. Find out the number of stereoisomers obtained 57. A solution of Ni (NO3)2 is electrolysed between
by bromination of trans-2-butene.
platinum electrodes using 0.1 Faraday
53. The enthalpy of combustion of H2(g), to give
electricity. How many mole of Ni will be
H2O(g) is –249 kJ mol–1 and bond enthalpies of
deposited at the cathode?
H – H and O = O are 433 kJ mol–1 and 492 kJ mol–1
respectively. The bond enthalpy of O – H is 58. In O-2 , O2 and O 22 - molecular species. Find the
54. A certain metal when irradiated to light total number of antibonding electrons.
(v = 3.2× 1016 Hz) emits photoelectrons with 59. x × 1021 unit cells are present in a cube-shaped
twice kinetic energy as did photoelectrons when ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g. Find the
the same metal is irradiated by light value of x.
[Atomic masses: Na = 23, Cl = 35.5]
(v = 2.0 × 1016 Hz) The v0 (threshold frequency)
60. The electrode potential of Mg2+/Mg electrode,
of metal is x × 1015. Find the value of x.
in which conc. of Mg2+ is 0.01M, is
55. Malachite has the formula Cu2CO3(OH)2. What
(E o Mg 2 + / Mg = -2.36V)
MATHEMATICS
Section - A 62. The number of real roots of the equation
1 + a1 x + a2 x2 + …. + an xn = 0
y
dt d2y 1
61. If x = ò , then
2
is equal to : where |x| <
3
and |an| < 2, is
0 1+ t2 dx
(1) n if n is even
(1) y (2) 2 (2) 0 for any natural number n
1+ y
(3) 1 if n is odd
x
(3) (4) y 2 (4) None of these.
2
1+ y
MT-70 JEE MAIN
p (1) a = b = c (2) c = a
- p
63. If e 2 < q < , then (3) a = b (4) b = c
2 68. If w is a cube root of unity, then a root of the
(1) cos log q > log cos q
(2) cos log q < log cos q x +1 w w2
(3) cos log q = log cos q following equation w x + w2 1 =0 is
2 w2 1 x+w
(4) cos log q = log cos q
3
s n (1) x = 1 (2) x = w
64. The value of å å n s
Cs Cr is (3) x = w 2 (4) x = 0.
r=0 s =1 69. The lines lx + my + n = 0, mx + ny + l = 0 and
r £s
nx + ly + m = 0 are concurrent if
(1) 3n – 1 (2) 3n + 1
(1) l – m – n = 0
(3) 3 n
(4) 3(3n – 1)
(2) l + m – n = 0
65. Number of ways to distribute 10 distinct balls to
(3) l – m + n = 0
3 persons. One getting 2, 2nd getting 3 and 3rd
getting 5 balls is (4) l2 + m2 + n2 = lm + mn + nl
70. If (x, y) are the co-ordinates of a point in the
10! 10!
(1) (2)
2!.3!.5! 2!.(3!) 2 .5! 3 4 2
10! plane , then 5 8 2 = 0 represent
(3) (4) 10!
2!.5! x y 2
66. The general solution of the differential equation, (1) a. st. line || to y-axis (2) a st. line || to x-axis
æ dy ö (3) a st. line (4) a circle
sin 2x ç - tan x ÷ - y = 0 , is :
è dx ø 71. The equation of the circle whose radius is 5 and
which touches the circle x2 + y2– 2x – 4y–20 = 0 at
(1) y tan x = x + c
the point ( 5,5) is
(2) y cot x = tan x + c (1) x2 + y2 + 18 x + 16 y + 120 = 0
(3) y tan x = cot x + c (2) x2 + y2 – 18 x – 16 y + 120 = 0
(4) y cot x = x + c (3) x2 + y2 – 18 x + 16 y + 120 = 0
(4) x2 + y2 + 18 x – 16 y + 120 = 0
sin B
67. In any triangle ABC, if cos A = , then
2sin C
Mock Test -6 MT-71
æ 3ö (1) a = 1, b = –1 (2) a = 1, b = ± 1
72. The normal at ç 2, ÷ to the ellipse, (3) a = –1, b = ± 1 (4) a = ± 1, b = 1
è 2ø
76. p : Every quadratic equation has one real root
x2 y 2
+ = 1 touch es a par abola, whose and q : Every quadratic equation has two real
16 3 roots, then truth value of p and q are
equation is
(1) p is true and q is false
(1) y2 = – 104 x (2) y2 = 14 x
(2) p is false and q is true
(3) y2 = 26x (4) y2 = – 14x
(3) p and q both true
73. If p : I study and q : I fail
(4) p and q both false
Then negation of 'I study or I fail' is 77. Let A, B and C be n × n matrices. Which one of
(1) I do not study and I do not fail the following is a correct statement?
(2) I do not study or I do not fail (1) If AB = AC, then B = C
(3) Either I study and I do not rail or I study (2) If A 3 + 2 A 2 + 3A + 5I = 0 ; then A is
and I do not fail invertible.
(4) I study and I do not fail (3) If A2 = 0, then A = 0
(4) None of these
74. The general solution of the trigonometric
equation sin x – cos x = 1 is given by 78. If for a real number y, [y] is the greatest integer
less than or equal to y, then the value of the
(1) x = 2n p, n Î I
p p 3p / 2
(2) x = n p + (–1)n + , n Î I integral òp / 2 [2 sin x ]dx is
4 4
(1) –p (2) p
p
(3) x =2n p + , n Î I (3) p /2 (4) -p/2
2
79. If f(x) = ax2 + b, b ¹ 0, x £ 1;
p
(4) x = n ,n ÎI
2 = bx2 + ax + c, x > 1,
r r
75. If A = î + ˆj + k,
ˆ B = 4iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ and then f(x) is continuous and differentiable at x = 1 if
r (1) c = 0, a = 2b (2) a = b, c arbitrary
C = î + aˆj + bkˆ are linearly independent vectors (3) a = b, c = 0 (4) a = b, c ¹ 0
r
and C = 3 , then
MT-72 JEE MAIN
80. The values of the parameter a such that the a1 = a2 = 10, then value of m + n is ______ .
roots a, b of the equation 2x2 + 6x + a = 0 satisfy
86. The value of expression
a b
the inequality + < 2 are
b a é æ 3p ö ù
3 êsin 4 ç - a ÷ + sin 4 (3p + a ) ú
(1) a > 0 (2) a < 9/2 ë è 2 ø û
(3) a < 0 or a > 9/2 (4) None of these
é æp ö ù
Section - B -2 êsin 6 ç + a ÷ + sin 6 (5p - a ) ú is ______ .
ë è 2 ø û
81. It has been found that A and B play a game 12 r r r r r r
times, A wins 6 times, B wins 4 times and they 87. The value of [A - B, B - C, C - A] where
draw twice. A and B take part in a series of 3 r r r
games. The probability that they will win | A |= 1, | B |= 2 and | C |= 3 is ______ .
alternately is ______ .
2 x -3
x 3 x 88. If f(x) = , g (x) =
82. If period of the function sin + cos5 = x -3 x+4
2 5
kp, then value of x is ______ .
2(2 x + 1)
83. If the least difference between the roots, in the h(x) = – and
pö x 2 + x - 12
æ
first quadrant ç 0 £ x £ ÷ , of the equation
è 2ø lim [f(x) +g(x) +h(x)] = k then value of | k | is
x ®3
p ______ .
4 cos x (2 - 3 sin 2 x ) + (cos 2x + 1) = 0 is ,
n
then value of n is ______ . 89. If P and Q be two given points on the curve
84. If [x] denotes the greatest integer £ x and 1 uuur uuur
y=x+ such that OP.iˆ = 1 and OQ.iˆ = -1
x
1 p
lim ([12 x] + [ 22 x] + [32 x] + ........+ [ n 2 x]) = , where î is a unit vector along the x–axis and
x ®3 n 3 n
the length of vector 2OP + 3OQ = n 5, then
then value of n is ______ .
value of n is ______ .
85. For natural numbers m, n if
90. The area bounded by parabola y2 = x, st. line
(1 - y )m (1 + y ) n = 1 + a1 y + a2 y 2 + ¼ and y = 4 and y-axis is ______ .
Time : 3 hrs.
7Max. Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
marks.
PHYSICS
Section - A
p2 p
(3) cm/s2 (4) cm/s2
1. Using mass(M), length(L), time(T) and electric 4 4
current (A) as fundamental quantities the 3. A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the
dimensions of permittivity will be form of a spiral with inner and outer radii a and b
(1) MLT–1A–1 (2) MLT–2A–2 respectively. When a current I passes through
–1 –3
(3) M L T A 4 2 (4) M2L–2T –2A2 the coil, the magnetic field at the center is
é pt ù m o NI 2 m o NI
2. y = 2 (cm) sin ê + fú (1) (2)
ë2 û b a
What is the maximum acceleration of the particle m 0 NI b m 0 IN a
executing the SHM? (3) ln (4) 2 b - a ln b
2 (b - a ) a ( )
p p2
(1) cm/s2 (2) cm/s2
2 2
MT-74 JEE MAIN
4. A cylindrical solid of length L and radius a having Y

varying resistivity given by r = r0x, where r0 is Y
a positive constant and x is measured from left (3) (4) d
end of solid. The cell shown in the figure having d
X o X
o T T + DT
emf V and negligible internal resistance. The T T + DT
Temperature (K)
electric field as a function of x is best described Temperature (K)
by 7. A Hydrogen atom and a Li++ ion are both in the

r = r 0x second excited state. If l H and l Li are their
respective electronic angular momenta, and EH
and ELi their respective energies, then
(1) l H > l Li and |EH| > |ELi|
x
(2) l H = l Li and |EH| < |ELi|
V (3) l H = l Li and |EH| > |ELi|
2V 2V (4) l H < l Li and |EH| < |ELi|
(1) x (2) x
L2 r0 L2 8. The temperature of reservoir of Carnot’s engine
operating with an efficencyof 70% is 1000 kelvin.
V
(3) x (4) None of these The temperature of its sink is
L2 (1) 300 K (2) 400 K
5. A mass m hangs with the help of a string (3) 500 K (4) 700 K
wrapped around a pulley on a frictionless
bearing. The pulley has mass m and radius R. 9. A radar has a power of 1kW and is operating at
Assuming pulley to be a perfect uniform circular a frequency of 10 GHz. It is located on a mountain
disc, the acceleration of the mass m, if the string top of height 500 m. The maximum distance upto
does not slip on the pulley, is: which it can detect object located on the surface
of the earth (Radius of earth = 6.4 × 106m) is :
2 g 3
(1) g (2) g (3) (4) g (1) 80km (2) 16km
3 3 2
(3) 40km (4) 64km
6. An ideal gas is initially at temperature T and
volume V. Its volume is increased by DV due to 10. What is the electric potential at the centre of the
an increase in temperature DT, pressure square?
+Q –Q
remaining constant. The quantity d = DV
V DT
varies with temperature as
Y a
Y C
(1) (2)
d d –Q a +Q
o X o X
T T + DT T T + DT (1) zero (2) kq/a 2
Temperature (K) Temperature (K)
(3) kq/ a2 (4) None of these
Mock Test -7 MT-75
11. In the arrangement shown in the Fig, the ends P 15. A transparent solid cylindrical rod has a
and Q ofan unstretchable string move downwards 2
with uniform speed U. Pulleys A and B are fixed. refractive index of . It is surrounded by air..
3
Mass M moves upwards with a speed A light ray is incident at the mid-point of one
(1) 2Ucos q A
end of the rod as shown in the figure.
B
(2) U/ cos q
qq q
(3) 2U / cos q
P Q
(4) U cos q
M The incident angle q for which the light ray
grazes along the wall of the rod is
12. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are
illuminated by white light. The distance between -1 æ 3 ö -1 æ 2 ö
(1) sin ç 2 ÷ (2) sin ç ÷
two slits is d and screen is D distance apart from è ø è 3ø
the slits. Some wavelengths are missing on the
-1 æ 1 ö
screen in front of one of the slits. These
wavelengths are
(3) sin ç
è 3ø
÷ (4) sin
-1 1
2 ( )
16. In the figure below, what is the potential
d2 2d 2 difference between the point A and B and
(1) λ = (2) λ =
D D between B and C respectively in steady state
d2 2d 2
(3) λ = (4) λ = 1mF
2D 3D 3mF
B
13. A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-
section A floats in a liquid of density r. If it is 3mF 1mF
given a small vertical displacement from
equilibrium it undergoes oscillation with a time 1mF 10W
period T. Then
1 1 20W 100V
(1) T µ (2) T µ
A r A C
1
(3) T µ (4) T µ r (1) VAB = VBC = 100V
m
(2) VAB = 75, VBC = 25V
14. There are two wires of the same length. The
diameter of second wire is twice that of the first. (3) VAB = 25V, VBC = 75V
On applying the same load to both the wires, the (4) VAB = VBC = 50V
extension produced in them will be in ratio of
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
MT-76 JEE MAIN
17. A block is placed on a frictionless horizontal table. Section - B

The mass of the block is m and springs are
attached on either side with force constants K1 21. In a series LCR circuit R = 200W and the voltage
and the frequency of the main supply is 220V
and K2. If the block is displaced a little and left to
and 50 Hz respectively. On taking out the
oscillate, then the angular frequency of oscillation
capacitance from the circuit the current lags
will be behind the voltage by 30°. On taking out the
1 1 inductor from the circuit the current leads the
æ K1 + K 2 ö 2 é K1K 2 ù 2 voltage by 30°. The power dissipated in the LCR
(1) ç ÷ (2) ê ú
è m ø ë m (K 1 + K 2 ) û circuit is ______ watt.
1
22. In an isothermal expansion of 10g of gas from
1
é ù2 volume V to 2V the work done by the gas is
é K 1K 2 ù2 K12 + K 22
(3) ê ú (4) ê ú 575J. What is the root mean square speed (in m/
ë (K 1 - K 2 )m û êë (K1 + K 2 )m úû s) of the molecules of the gas at that temperature?
th 23. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60 km/h,
æ1ö can brake to stop within a distance of 20m. If the
18. A bullet looses ç ÷ of its velocity passing
ènø car is going twice as fast i.e., 120 km/h, the
through one plank. The number of such planks stopping distance (in metre) will be
that are required to stop the bullet can be: 24. At the centre of a circular current carrying coil
2 2 of radius 5 cm magnetic field due to earth is 0.5 ×
n 2n
(1) (2) 10–5 W/m2. What should be the current (in A)
2n - 1 n -1 flowing through the coil so that it annuls the
(3) infinite (4) n earth’s magnetic field?
19. An ideal coil of 10H is connected in series with 25. An air bubble of radius 0.1 cm is in a liquid
a resistance of 5W and a battery of 5V. 2second having surface tension 0.06 N/m and density
after the connection is made, the current flowing 103 kg/m3. The pressure inside the bubble is 1100
in ampere in the circuit is Nm–2 greater than the atmospheric pressure. At
(1) (1 – e–1) (2) (1 – e) what depth (in metre) is the bubble below the
(3) e (4) e–1 surface of the liquid? (g = 9.8 ms–2)
20. A spacecraft of mass ‘M’, moving with velocity 26. The escape velocity for a body of mass 1 kg
‘v’ suddenly breaks into two pieces. After the from the earth surface is 11.2 kms–1. The escape
explosion mass ‘m’becomes stationary. What is velocity for a body of mass 100 kg would be
the velocity of the other part of the spacecraft? ______ kms–1.
Mv 27. The circuit shown here has two batteries of 8.0
(1) (2) v
M-m V and 16.0 V and three resistors 3 W, 9 W and 9
mv M-m W and a capacitor of 5.0 mF.
(3) (4) v
M m
Mock Test -7 MT-77
I area 1.5 cm2, then the force (in newton) acting

on the mirror will be
3W 5 mF 9W 29. A liquid drop having 6 excess electrons is kept
stationary under a uniform electric field of
9W 25.5 kVm–1. The density of liquid is 1.26 × 103 kg m–3.
8.0 V 16.0 V
The radius of the drop is ______ metre. (neglect
buoyancy).
I1 I2
30. Two waves of wavelengths 99 cm and 100 cm
How much is the current (I) (in A) in the circuit both travelling with velocity 396 m/s are made
in steady state? to interfere. The number of beats produced per
28. A beam of light of intensity 12 watt/cm2 is second is
incident on a totally reflecting plane mirror of
CHEMISTRY
Section - A Crafts alkylation reaction ?
31. Ethylene dichloride and ethylidine chloride are (1) 1-butene + HF
isomeric compounds. The false statement about (2) 2-butanol + H2SO4
these isomers is that they (3) Butanoyl chloride + AlCl3 then Zn, HCl
(1) react with alcoholic potash and give the (4) Butyl chloride + AlCl3
same product. 34. Moissan boron is
(2) are position isomers. (1) amorphous boron of ultra purity
(3) contain the same percentage of chlorine. (2) crystalline boron of ultra purity
(4) are both hydrolysed to the same product.
(3) amorphous boron of low purity
32. By what ratio the average velocity of the molecule
(4) crystalline boron of low purity
in gas changes when the temperature is raised 35. Which reaction characteristics are changed by
from 50 to 200 ºC ? the addition of a catalyst to a reaction at
1.21 1.46 constant temperature ?
(1) (2) (i) Activation energy
1 1
(ii) Equilibrium constant
2 4
(3) (4) (iii) Reaction enthalpy
1 1
(1) (i) only (2) (iii) only
33. Which of the following would not give 2-
(3) (i) and (ii) only (4) all of these
phenylbutane as the major product in a Friedel-
MT-78 JEE MAIN
36. A metal M reacts with N2 to give a compound (2) Bringing conformational change in the
‘A’ (M3N). ‘A’ on heating at high temperature binding site of enzyme
gives back ‘M’ and ‘A’ on reacting with H2O (3) Binding irreversibly to the active site of
gives a gas ‘B’. ‘B’ turns CuSO4 solution blue the enzyme
on passing through it. M and B can be : (4) Binding at the allosteric sites of the enzyme
(1) Al & NH3 (2) Li & NH3 43. With a change in hybridization of the carbon
(3) Na & NH3 (4) Mg & NH3 bearing the charge, the stability of a carbanion
37. Asthma patient use a mixture of.... for respiration. increases in the order :
(1) O2 and CO2 (2) O2 and He
(3) O2 and NH3 (4) O2 and CO (1) sp < sp2 < sp3 (2) sp < sp3 < sp2
3 2
(3) sp < sp < sp (4) sp2 < sp < sp3
38. When ethanal reacts with CH3MgBr and
C2H5OH/dry HCl, the product formed are : 44. Which of the following compounds are not
(1) ethyl alcohol and 2-propanol arranged in order of decreasing reactivity
(2) ethane and hemi acetal
towards electrophilic substitution?
(3) 2-propanol and acetal
(4) propane and methyl acetate (1) Methoxybenzene >Toluene > Bromobenzene
39. Amongst the following salts of iron, which is (2) Phenol > N-Propylbenzene > Benzoic acid
most unstable in aqueous solutions? (3) Chlorotoluene > Para Nitro toluene >
(1) K3[Fe(CN)6] (2) Fe2(SO4).9H2O 2-chloro-4-Nitrotoluene
(3) FeSO4 7H2O (4) FeI3 (4) Benzoic acid > Phenol > N-Propylbenzene
40. Given the molecular formula of the hexa- 45. Which of the given sets of temperature and
coordinated complexes (i) CoCl 3.6NH3, (ii) pressure will cause a gas to exhibit the greatest
CoCl3.5NH3, (iii) CoCl3.4NH3 deviation from ideal gas behaviour ?
If the number of co-ordinated NH3 molecules in (1) 100 ºC & 4 atm (2) 100 ºC & 2 atm
i, ii and iii respectively are 6, 5, 4, the primary (3) –100 ºC & 4 atm (4) 0 ºC & 2 atm
valencies in (i), (ii) and (iii) are :
46. Which is not true for beryllium ?
(1) 6, 5, 4 (2) 3, 2, 1
(1) Beryllium is amphoteric.
(3) 0, 1, 2 (4) 3, 3, 3
(2) It forms unusual carbide, Be2C.
41. Polyethylene is
(3) Be(OH)2 is basic.
(1) Random copolymer
(4) Beryllium halides are electron deficient.
(2) Homopolymer
47. Which of the following pairs show reverse
(3) Alternate copolymer properties on moving along a period from left to
(4) Crosslinked copolymer right and from up to down in a group :
42. The reason for “drug induced poisoning” is : (1) Nuclear charge and electron affinity
(1) Binding reversibly at the active site of the (2) Ionization energy and electron affinity
enzyme (3) Atomic radius and electron affinity
(4) None of these
Mock Test -7 MT-79
48. An organic amino compound reacts with aqueous 54. Calculate the radius (in pm) of the largest sphere
nitrous acid at low temperature to produce an which fits properly at the centre of the edge of
oily nitrosoamine. The compound is: a body centred cubic unit cell. (Given edge
(1) CH3 NH2 (2) CH3CH2NH2 length is 100 pm)
(3) CH3CH2NH.CH2CH3 (4) (CH3 CH2)3N
55. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution if 25mL
49. A white sodium salt dissolves readily in water to
is exactly neutralized with 32.63 mL of 0.164 M,
give a solution which is neutral to litmus. When
NaOH ?
silver nitrate solution is added to the solution, a
white precipitate is obtained which does not 56. 1.500g of hydroxide of a metal gave 1.000g of its
dissolve in dil. HNO3. The anion could be oxide on heating. What is the equivalent mass
(1) CO 32 - (2) Cl– of the metal ?
57. The enthalpy change on freezing of 1 mole of
(3) SO 24 - (4) S2– water at 5 °C to ice at –5 °C is :
50. Energy of activation is lowest for which [Given DfusH = 6 kJ mol–1 at 0 °C,
reaction?
+ + Cp(H2O, l) =75.3 J mol–1 K–1,
(1) RCH 2 O H 2 ® R C H 2 Cp(H2O, s) = 36.8 J mol–1 K–1]
+ +
(2) R 2 CH O H 2 ® R 2 C H 58. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –
+ 13.6 eV. Calculate the energy of second excited
(3) R 3C O H 2 ® R 3C +
state of He+ ion in eV.
(4) All have same Eact
59. The total number of basic groups in the following
Section - B form of lysine is
+ O
51. The pKa of HCOOH is 3.8 and pKb of NH3 is 4.8,
fin d the pH of aqueous solution of 1M CH C
HCOONH4.
52. The number of electrons passing per second H2N O–
through a cross-section of copper wire carrying 60. What quantity (in mL) of a 45% acid solution of
10–6 amperes of current is found to be x × 102. a mono-protic strong acid must be mixed with a
Find the value of x. 20% solution of the same acid to produce 800
53. Number H-atoms present in 0.046 g of ethanol is mL of a 29.875% acid solution?
x × 1021. Find the value of x.
MT-80 JEE MAIN
MATHEMATICS
Section - A 65. Assume R and S are (non-empty) relations
in a set A. Which of the following relation
61. The function f (x) = tan–1(sin x + cos x) is an given below is false
increasing function in (1) If R and S are transitive, then R È S is
p æ p pö
(1) æç 0, ö÷ (2) çè - , ÷ø
transitive.
è 2ø 2 2 (2) If R and S are transitive, then R Ç S is
(3) æç p , p ö÷ (4) æ p pö transitive.
è 4 2ø çè - , ÷ø (3) If R and S are symmetric, then R È S is
2 4
symmetric.
x2 y 2 (4) If R and S are reflexive, Then R Ç S is
62. A tangent to the hyperbola - = 1 meets
4 2 reflexive.
x-axis at P and y-axis at Q. Lines PR and QR are 66. Given that f and g are continuous functions on
drawn such that OPRQ is a rectangle (where O [0 a] satisfying f(a–x) = f(x) and g(x)+g(a–x) = 2.
is the origin). Then R lies on : a
(1)
4
+
2
=1 (2)
2
-
4
=1
Then ò0 f (x) g (x) dx is equal to :
2 2 2
x y x y2 a a
(3)
2
2
+
4
2
=1 (4)
4
2
-
2
=1 (1) ò0 f (x) dx (2) ò0 g(x) dx
x y x y2 (3) 0 (4) None of these
1 x2
2
67. If c1 = y = and c = y = be two
ò ( [x ) 2
63. With the usual notation 2
] - [x]2 dx is 1 + x2 2
curves lying in XY-plane, then
1 1
equal to
(1) area bounded by curve y = and
(1) 4+ 2 - 3 (2) 4 - 2 + 3 1+ x2
p
(3) 4 - 2 - 3 (4) None of these y = 0 is
2
64. The standard deviation of a variate x is s. The p
ax + b (2) area bounded by c1 and c2 is - 1
standard deviation of the variable ; a, b, 2
c p
c are constants, is (3) area bounded by c1 and c2 is 1 -
2
æaö a 1
(1) ç ÷s (2) s (4) area bounded by curve y = and x-
c
è ø c 1+ x2
æ a2 ö p
(3) ç 2 ÷ s (4) None axis is
èc ø 2
Mock Test -7 MT-81
68. Let f and g be functions from the interval [0, ¥) (2) (sum of digits of n is not divisible by 9)
to the interval [0, ¥), f being an increasing and g Þ (n is not divisible by 9)
being a decreasing function. If f {g(0)} = 0 then (3) (sum of digits of n is divisible by 9)
Þ (n is divisible by 9)
(1) f {g( x )} ³ f {g(0)}
(4) None of these
(2) g{f ( x )} £ g{f (0)} 73. Fifteen coupons are numbered 1, 2 ..... 15,
(3) f {g(2)} = 7 respectively. Seven coupons are selected at
(4) None of these
random one at a time with replacement. The
dy
69. + y = 2e 2 x then y is probability that the largest number appearing
dx on a selected coupon is 9, is
2 2x
(1) ce - x + e 6 7
3 æ9 ö æ8 ö
(1) ç ÷ (2) ç ÷
2 2x è 16 ø è 15 ø
(2) (1 + x )e - x + e +c 7
3 æ3ö
2 (3) ç ÷ (4) None of these
(3) ce - x + e 2 x + c è5ø
3
-x 2 2x 74. If a £ 0 then roots of x 2 - 2a x - a - 3a 2 = 0 is
(4) e + e +c
3
(1) ( -1 + 6)a (2) ( 6 - 1)a
a+x a-x a-x (3) a (4) None of these
70. If a - x a + x a - x = 0 then x is 75. If n(A) = 1000, n(B) = 500 and if n(A Ç B) ³ 1 and
a-x a-x a+x n(A È B) = p, then
(1) 500 £ p £ 1000 (2) 1001 £ p £ 1498
(1) 0, 2a (2) a, 2a
(3) 1000 £ p £ 1498 (4) 1000 £ p £ 1499
(3) 0, 3a (4) None of these
71. The equation of a circle with origin as centre and dy
76. If y = log 2 {log 2 ( x)} , then is
passing through the vertices of an equilateral dx
triangle whose median is of length 3a is log 2 e 2.3026
(1) (2)
(1) x 2 + y 2 = 9a 2 (2) x 2 + y 2 = 16a 2 x ln x x ln x ln 2
1
(3) x 2 + y 2 = 4a 2 (4) x 2 + y 2 = a 2 (3) (4) None of these
ln ( 2 x ) x
72. If a positive integer n is divisible by 9, then the
77. f ( x ) = sin x . f (x ) is not differentiable at
sum of the digits of n is divisible by 9. So which
(1) x = 0 only (2) all x
statement is it contrapositive.
(1) (sum of digits of n is divisible by 9) p
(3) multiples of p (4) multiples of
Þ (n is divisible by 9) 2
MT-82 JEE MAIN
78. The angle between the pair of tangents drawn to 15

the ellipse 3x2 + 2y2 = 5 from the point (1,2) is probability that none of them occurs is , then
49
the probability of more probable of the two
(1)
æ 12 ö
tan -1 ç ÷
è5ø
( )
(2) tan -1 6 5 events is ______ .
84. a, b be the roots of x2 – 3x + a = 0 and g, d be the
(3) tan ç -1 æç
12 ö
÷÷ (4) tan -1 12 5 ( ) roots of x2 – 12x + b = 0 and numbers a, b, g, d (in
order) form an increasing G.P. then value of a + b
è 5ø
79. The least integral value a of x such that is ______ .
85. The probability of A = Probability of B
x-5
> 1 , satisfies : 1
x 2 + 5 x - 14 = Probability of C =
4
(1) a2 + 3a – 4 = 0 P(A) Ç P(B) Ç P(C) = 0, P(B Ç C) = 0 and
(2) a2 – 5a + 4 = 0 1
(3) a2 – 7a + 6 = 0 P (A Ç C) = , P (A Ç B) = 0
8
(4) a2 + 5a – 6 = 0 the probability that atleast one of the events A, B,
80. The x satisfying
C exists is ______ .
sin -1 x + sin -1 (1 - x ) = cos -1 x are n
r+2 28 - 1
(1) 1, 0 (2) 1, –1 86. If å r + 1 n Cr = 6
, then n is ______ .
1 r=0
(3) 0, (4) None of these sin 3x
2 87. f (x) = , when x ¹ 0
Section - B sin x
= k, when x = 0
81. The degree of differential equation satisfying for the function to be continuous, k should be
the relation ______ .
p/3
1 + x 2 + 1 + y 2 = l( x 1 + y 2 - y 1 + x2 ) is cos x + sin x
______ .
88. If ò1 + sin 2 x
dx = kp then value of k is
0
82. If the second term in the expansion ______ .
n n 89. The S.D. of the following data is nearly
æ a ö C3
13
ç a+ 5/2
÷ is 14a , then value of n
ç ÷ C2 x i 140 145 150 155 160 165 170 175
è a -1 ø
fi 4 6 15 30 36 24 8 2
is ______ .
83. Given two independent events, if the probability is ______ .
90. A line passes through (2,2) and is perpendicular
26
that exactly one of them occurs is
49
and the to the line 3x + y = 3, its y intercept is ______ .
Time : 3 hrs.
8 Max. Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
marks.
PHYSICS
Section - A (3) 2 T (4) 8 T
2. A small bar magnet is being slowly inserted with
Cp constant velocity inside a solenoid as shown in
1. A given ideal gas with g = = 1.5 at a
Cv figure. Which graph best represents the
temperature T. If the gas is compressed relationship between emf induced with time
adiabatically to one-fourth of its initial volume,
the final temperature will be
(1) 2 2T (2) 4 T
MT-84 JEE MAIN
(1) varies with time as x = A sin (wt + f)

2mg
(2) is constant and has value
(1) (2) k
Time Time (3) is zero
(4) increases linearly with time
5. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon
of frequency n and the nucleus recoils. The recoil
(3) (4) energy will be
Time
Time (1) Mc2 – hn (2) h2n2 / 2Mc2
3. There is a spherical cavity (3) zero (4) hn
of radius R/2 in uniformly R 6. In Young’s double slit experiment, if intensity of
charged spherical region R/2 maxima on screen is I (assume equal intensity of
having charge density r and
the source) and when the sources become
radius R as shown in figure. r incoherent, average intensity on the screen is
A small charged particle
having q0 charge is released I1
I2, then the ratio is
at point O. It will collide with the wall of cavity I2
with kinetic energy 1
(1) 2 (2) (3) 1 (4) 0
rR 2 q 0 rR 2 q 0 2
(1) (2) 7. Orbits of a particle moving in a circle are such
3 Î0 6p Î0
that the perimeter of the orbit equals an integer
rR 2 q 0 rR 2 q 0 number of de-Broglie wavelengths of the
(3) (4) particle. For a charged particle moving in a
4p Î0 12 Î0
4. Two bodies of mass m and 2m connected by an plane perpendicular to a magnetic field, the
unextended spring of spring constant ‘k’ are radius of the nth orbital will therefore be
allowed to fall simultaneously in a uniform proportional to :
gravitational field g. The extension ‘x’ in the spring (1) n 2 (2) n
when the bodies A and B are falling (3) n 1/2 (4) n 1/4
8. From a sphere of mass M and radius R, a smaller
m R
sphere of radius is carved out such that the
2
cavity made in the original sphere is between
g
its centre and the periphery (See figure). For
the configuration in the figure where the
distance between the centre of the original
2m
Mock Test -8 MT-85
sphere and the removed sphere is 3R, the holes and electrons respectively. The material is
gravitational force between the two sphere is:
(1) an insulator Ec
(2) a metal Eg
(3) an n-type semiconductor

Ev
3R (4) a p-type semiconductor
41 GM 2 41 GM 2 12. The figure of merit of a galvanometer is defined as
(1) 2 (2) 2 (1) the voltage required to produce unit
3600 R 450 R
59 GM 2 deflection in the galvanometer
GM 2
(3) (4) (2) the current required to produce unit
450 R 2 225 R 2 deflection in the galvanometer
9. Two rods of the same length and diameter having (3) the power required to produce unit
thermal conductivities K1 and K2 are joined in deflection in the galvanometer
parallel. The equivalent thermal conductivity of (4) None of these
the combination is 13. The activity of a radioactive element decreases
to one-third of the original activity I0 in a period
K1 K 2
(1) (2) K1 + K 2 of nine years. After a further lapse of nine years
K1 + K 2 its activity will be
K1 + K 2 2
(1) I0 (2) I 0
(3) (4) K1 K 2 3
2
10. A photoelectric surface is illuminated I0 I0
(3) (4)
successively by monochromatic light of 9 6
l 14. The velocity of a particle is v = v0 + gt + ft2. If its
wavelengths l and . If the maximum kinetic position is x = 0 at t = 0, then its displacement
2
energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the after unit time (t = 1) is
second case is 3 times that in the first case, the (1) v0 + g /2 + f (2) v0 + 2g + 3f
work function of the surface is : (3) v0 + g /2 + f/3 (4) v0 + g + f
hc hc hc 3hc 15. Which of the following graph represents the
(1) (2) (3) (4) input characteristics of a common emmiter
2l l 3l l
11. In the energy band diagram of a material shown transistor correctly ?
below, the open circles and filled circles denote
MT-86 JEE MAIN
Y
Y If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the
gas along the three processes and DU1, DU2,
Base current
Base current
DU3 indicate the change in internal energy along
(1) (2) the three processes respectively, then
Base voltage X
Base voltage X (1) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and DU1 = DU2 = DU3
Y
Y (2) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and DU1= DU2 = DU3
(3) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and DU1 > DU2 > DU3
Base current
Base current
(4) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and DU1> DU2 > DU3
(3) (4) 18. A tennis ball (treated as hollow spherical shell)
Base voltage
X Base Voltage X
starting from O rolls down a hill. At point A the
ball becomes air borne leaving at an angle of 30°
16. A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S,
with the horizontal. The ball strikes the ground
which makes an angle q with a large charged
conducting sheet P, as shown in the figure. The at B. What is the value of the distance AB ?
surface charge density s of the sheet is (Moment of inertia of a spherical shell of mass m
proportional to
2
and radius R about its diameter = mR 2 )
3
P O
q
S
2.0 m
B
(1) cot q (2) cos q
(3) tan q (4) sin q 30°
17. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via 0.2 m A B
three different processes as indicated in the P-V (1) 1.87 m (2) 2.08 m
diagram :
(3) 1.57 m (4) 1.77 m
19. In an organ pipe, three successive resonance
A 1 frequencies are observed at 425, 595 and 765Hz.
P 2 The length of organ pipe is (Velocity of sound
3 B in air = 340 m/s).
(1) 2.0 m (2) 1.5 m
(3) 1.0 m (4) 2.5 m
V
Mock Test -8 MT-87
20. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed ' v0 ' 25. A structural steel rod has a radius of 10 mm and
length of 1.0 m. A 100 kN force stretches it along
at an elevation angle of q. From the same point
its length. Young’s modulus of structural steel is
and at the same instant, a person starts running
' v0 ' 2 × 1011 Nm–2. The percentage strain is about
with a constant speed to catch the ball. 26. In the X-rays tube before striking the target we
2 accelerate the electrons through a potential
Will the person be able to catch the ball? If yes,
difference of V volt. For kV we will have X-rays
what should be the angle of projection q ? of largest wavelength?
(1) No (2) Yes, 30° 27. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just
(3) Yes, 60° (4) Yes, 45° hold a block stationary against a wall. The
Section - B coefficient of friction between the block and the
wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is ______ N.
21. An object is moving towards a concave mirror
of focal length 24 cm. When it is at a distance of
60 cm from the mirror its speed is 9 cm/s.
The speed of its image at the instant is ______ 10N
cm/s toward away from the mirror.
22. An aluminium foil of relative emittance of 0.1 is 28. The effective resistance between points A and B
placed in between two concentric spheres at of infinite network is .......... ohm.
temperature 300 K and 200 K respectively. What 1W 1W 1W
is the temperature in kelvin of this foil when steady A
1W
state is reached? Assume the spheres to be black
bodies. (s = 5.672 × 10–8) 2W 2W 2W
23. The space between the parallel plates of a
capacitor is tightly filled with three dielectric B
slabs A,B, C of thickness 5mm, 3mm and 2mm 29. While measuring the length of the rod by vernier
with dielectric constants 2, 3 and 5 respectively. callipers the reading on main scale is 6.4 cm and
If a potential difference of 351 volts is applied to the eight division on vernier is in line with
plates then electric field intensity in slab A is marking on main scale division. If the least count
______ v/m. of callipers is 0.01 and zero error –0.04 cm, the
24. Given that radius of earth is 6.4 × 106 m and a length of the rod is ______ cm.
transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a (1) 5.25 cm (2) 6.52 cm
height 40 m and the height of the receiving (3) 5.52 cm (4) 6.44 cm
antenna is 50 m. What is the maximum distance 30. A moving particle of mass m, makes a head on elastic
(in metre) between them for satisfactory collision with another particle of mass 2m, which is
communication in los mode? initially at rest. The percentage loss in energy of the
colliding particle on collision, is close to ______ .
MT-88 JEE MAIN
CHEMISTRY
Section - A 36. Chemical reduction is not suitable for
(1) conversion of bauxite to aluminium
31. Match the items in Column I with its main use
(2) conversion of cuprite into copper
listed in Column II:
(3) conversion of haematite to iron
Column I Column II
(A) Silica gel (i) Transistor (4) conversion of zinc oxide to zinc
(B) Silicon (ii) Ion–exchanger 37. Which is the only group which is deactivating
(C) Silicone (iii) Drying agent yet ortho-para directing when attached to
(D) Silicate (iv) Sealant benzene ring?
(1) (A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iv), (D)–(ii) (1) NO2 (2) CH3
(2) (A)–(iv), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iii) (3) Cl (4) None of these
(3) (A)–(ii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iv), (D)–(iii)
(4) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii) 38. C º C – H + CH3 - CH 2 MgBr gives
32. Which of the following has highest boiling point?
(1) H2Se (2) H2Te (3) H2S (4) H2O
33. In which of the following will the oxidation state C º CMgBr +
change ? (1)
(1) Reaction of Cu2+with NaOH CH 3 – CH2
(2) Reaction of Cu2+ with iron metal
(3) Reaction of Cu2+ with KI
(4) both (2) and (3) C º CMgBr + C2H 6
(2)
34. Reduction of esters with sodium and alcohol is
referred to as
(1) Bouveault-Blanc reduction MgBr + CH3 – CH2 – C º CH
(2) Mendius reaction (3)
(3) Clemmensen’s reduction
(4) MPV reduction
C 2H5 + HC º CMgBr
35. p-Chloroaniline and anilinium hydrochloride can (4)
be distinguished by
(1) Sandmeyer reaction (2) NaHCO3
(3) AgNO3 (4) Carbylamine test
Mock Test -8 MT-89
39. Which of the following will be most reactive 44. AgBr dissolves in Na2S2O3 solution and forms
towards nucleophillic substitution. (A). On boiling an aquous solution of (A), a ppt.
(B) is obtained. The colour of B is
Br Cl
(1) Red (2) White
(3) Black (4) Colourless
(1) (2) 45. Chloride of an element gives neutral solution in
water. In the periodic table the element belongs to
(1) third group
OH OSO2CF3 (2) fifth group
(3) first group
(3) (4) (4) first transition series
46. Arrange the following in order of decreasing order
of reactivity towards Perkin reaction
40. Ozone reacts with dry iodine to give CHO CHO
(1) IO2 (2) I2O3 (3) I2O4 (4) I4O9 CH 3
41. Dipole moment is shown by
(1) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene
(2) cis-1,2-dichloroethene I II
(3) trans-1,2-dichloroethene CHO CHO
(4) trans-2,3-dichloro-2 butene
42. In what manner will increase of pressure effect
the following equilibrium?
C(s) + H 2 O(g) CO(g) + H 2 (g) N(CH 3 ) 2 NO 2
(1) Shift in forward direction III IV
(2) Shift in reverse direction (1) IV > III > I > II (2) II > III > IV > I
(3) Increase in yield of hydrogen (3) III > II > I > IV (4) IV > III > I > II
(4) No effect 47. In the preparation of p-nitro acetanilide from
43. Which of the following compounds is most reactive
aniline titration is not done by nitrating mixture (a
to an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate? mixture of conc. H2SO4 and conc. HNO3) because
(1) on nitration it gives o-nitro acetanilide
(1) (2) (2) lt gives a mixture of o and p-nitro aniline
(3) –NH2 group gets oxidised
(4) it forms a mixture of o and p-nitro acetanilide.
(3) (4)
MT-90 JEE MAIN
48. Which of the following sequences represents (Mass of electron=9×10–31 kg;

the correct order of increasing stability of +3 Velocity of light = 3×108 ms–1;
oxidation state? Planck’s constant=6.626×10–34 Js;
(1) Al < In < Ga (2) As < Sb < Bi Charge of electron =1.6×10–19 JeV–1)
(3) (4) none of these 54. What is the value of x in the following complex?
Bi < Sb < As
49. An alloy of copper, silver and gold is found to OH
have copper constituting the ccp lattice. If silver (NH3)4 Co Co (NH3)2 (SO4)X
atoms occupy the edge centres and gold is OH
present at body centre the alloy has a formula
Consider the oxidation state of Cobalt in the
(1) Cu4Ag2Au (2) Cu4Ag4Au complex same as that of iron in K3[Fe(CN)6]?
(3) Cu4Ag3Au (4) CuAgAu 55. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of
pH = 3 at 25 ºC. Find the potential of the cell
OH would be
TsCl
50. ¾¾¾¾ ® A, Then A is 56. 50 mL of 0.2 M ammonia solution is treated with
LiAlH 4
25 mL of 0.2 M HCl. If pKb of ammonia solution
is 4.75. Find the pH of the mixture will be :
OLi 57. When a solution containing w g of urea in 1kg
(1) (2) of water is cooled to – 0.372ºC, 200g of ice is
separated. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1,
calculate w.
Cl 58. The rate of a reaction quadruples when the
(3) (4) temperature changes from 300 to 310 K. Calculate
the activation energy of the reaction (Assume
Section - B activation energy and pre-exponential factor are
independent of temperature; ln 2 = 0.693; R =
51. At 300 K, the density of a certain gaseous molecule 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)
at 2 bar is double to that of dinitrogen (N2) at 59. An ideal gas is allowed to expand from 1 L to 10
4 bar. Find the molar mass of gaseous molecule L against a constant external pressure of 1 bar.
52. How many stereoisomers are possible for 1, 3- Calculate the work done in kJ.
dichlorocyclopentane? 60. Calculate the amount of arsenic pentasulphide
53. What is the work function (in eV) of the metal if that can be obtained when 35.5 g arsenic acid is
the light of wavelength 4000Å generates treated with excess H2S in the presence of conc.
photoelectrons of velocity 6×105 ms-1 from it ? HCl (assuming 100% conversion)
Mock Test -8 MT-91
MATHEMATICS
Section - A (1) (–5, –7) (2) (5, 7)
(3) (5, –7) (4) (–5, 7)
61. If f (x) = 1 - 1 - x 2 , then at x = 0,
65. The number of ways of selecting 4 cards out of
(1) f (x) is differentiable as well as continuous 52 cards of an ordinary pack, so that exactly 3 of
(2) f (x) is differentiable but not continuous them are of same denomination is
(1) 52 × 48 (2) 13C × 4C × 48
(3) f (x) is continuous but not differentiable 3 3
(3) 52C × 48 (4) 52C × 48C
(4) f (x) is neither continuous nor differentiable 3 3 3
sin A sin(A - B) 66. The domain of the function

62. In a D ABC, = , then a2, b2, c2
sin C sin(B - C)
are such that f (x) = exp( 5x - 3 - 2x 2 ) is
(1) they are in G.P. (1) [3/2, ¥) (2) [1, 3/2]
(2) they are in H.P. (3) (–¥, 1] (4) (1, 3/2)
(3) they are in A.P. 67. Solution of differential equation
2 2 2
(4) b = a + c
dy
= sin x + 2 x , is
63. Coefficient of x25 in the expansion of expression dx
50
(1) y = x2 – cos x + c (2) y = cos x + x2 + c
å 50 Cr (2x - 3)r (2 - x) n -r is (3) y = cos x + 2 (4) y = cos x + 2 + c
r =0
(1 - iz )
(1) 50C (2) –50C24 68. If z = x + iy and w = , then | w | = 1, show
25 (z - i )
(3) –50C25 (4) 50C
30 that in complex plane
64. The equation x3 + 5x2 + px + q = 0 and x3 + 7x2 + (1) z is situated on imaginary axis
px + r = 0 have two roots in common. If their third (2) z is situated on real axis
roots are x1 and x2, then (x1, x2) = (3) z is situated on unit circle
(4) None of these
MT-92 JEE MAIN
69. If z, wz and w z are the vertices of a triangle,

then the area of the triangle will be (where w is ì1 - [ x]
ï , x ¹ -1
73. If f (x) = í 1 + x , then the value of
cube root of unity) : ïî1 , x = -1
3 | z |2 3 3 | z |2 f ( 2 k ) will be (where [] shows the greatest
(1) (2)
2 2
integer function]
3 | z |2
(3) (4) None of these (1) Continuous at x = –1
2
70. From a point (h, 0) common tangents are drawn (2) Continuous at x = 0
to circles x2 + y2 = 1 and (x – 2)2 + y2 = 4, value 1
of h is (3) Discontinuous at x =
2
(1) 2 (2) –2 (4) All of these
74. A variable circle passes through the fixed point
2 2 A(p, q) and touches x-axis. The locus of the other
(3) - (4)
3 3 end of the diameter through A is
71. The altitude of a cone is 20cm and its semi-vertical (1) ( y - q)2 = 4 px (2) ( x - q)2 = 4 py
angle is 30°. If the semi-vertical angle is increasing
at the rate of 2° per second, then the radius of the (3) ( y - p )2 = 4qx (4) ( x - p)2 = 4qy
base is increasing at the rate of–
160 75. Let A = 2î + k̂ , B = î + ĵ + k̂ and C = 4î - 3ˆj + 7k̂ .
(1) 30 cm/sec (2) cm/sec
3
(3) 10 cm/sec (4) 160 cm/sec. The vector R which satisfies the equations
1 æx ö R ´ B = C ´ B and R . A = 0 is given by
72. If ò 1 + sin x dx = tan çè 2 + a ÷ø + b then
(1) - 2î + k̂
p p
(1) a = - , bÎR (2) a = , bÎR
4 4 (2) - î - 8 ĵ + 2k̂
5p 1
(3) a= , bÎR (4) None of these (î - ĵ + 2k̂ )
4 (3)
6
(4) None of these
Mock Test -8 MT-93
65
æ 2k p 2k p ö x2 y2
76. å çè sin - i cos
8 ø
÷= (3)
y2
(4)
k =33 8 x2
80. The coordinates of the foot of perpendicular from
(1) 1 + i (2) 1 – i
the point (1, 0, 0) to the line
i 1- i x - 1 y + 1 z + 10
(3) 1 + (4) = = are
2 2 2 -3 8
77. The complete solution set for sin (x) = 3 sin–1 (a) is
–1
(1) (2, – 3, 8) (2) (1, – 1, – 10)
1 1 (3) (5, – 8, – 4) (4) (3, – 4, – 2)
(1) 0£a £ (2) - £a£0
2 2
Section - B
1 1
(3) - £ a £ (4) None of these 81. The smallest value of ‘p’ for which y2 + xy + px2 –
2 2
x – 2y + p = 0 represent 2 straight lines is ____ .
78. The equation of the plane through the line of
intersection of planes 82. If the length of a focal chord of parabola y2 = 4x is
ax + by + cz + d = 0, a ' x + b' y + c' z + d' = 0 25
and has positive slope, then the slope will be
and parallel to the line y = 0, z = 0 is 4
(1) (ab'-a ' b) x + (bc '-b' c) y + (ad'-a ' d) = 0 ______ .
(2) (ab'-a ' b) x + (bc'- b' c) y + (ad'-a ' d )z = 0 83. The roots of the equation
(3) (ab'-a ' b) y + (ac'-a ' c)z + (ad'-a ' d) = 0 x5 – 40x4 + px3 + qx2 + rx + s = 0 are in geometric
progression and the sum of their reciprocal is
(4) None of these 10. Then value of |S| is ______ .
æ x 2 - y2 ö
79. If tan -1 ç 2 ÷ = e a where a is constant, 84. Let | a |= 2 , | b |= 5 . The values of |k| for which
ç x + y2 ÷
è ø
dy the vectors a + kb an d a - kb are
then
dx perpendicular is ______ .
x y 85. From a pack of 52 cards two cards are drawn at
(1) y
(2)
x random. The probability of both cards being
spades is ______ .
MT-94 JEE MAIN
86. If f(A) = 3, f ¢(A) = –2, g(A) = –1, g¢(A) = 4, then 88. The sides of a triangle ABC lie on the lines
g ( x )f ( a ) - g ( a ) f ( x ) 3x + 4y = 0, 4x + 3y = 0 and x = 3. Let (h, k) be the
value of lim is ______ .
x ®a x-a centre of the circle inscribed in D ABC. The value
of (h + k) is ______ .
ex sin 2x tan x 2 é2 4 5 ù
87. If D ( x) = ln(1 + x ) cos x sin x =A+ Bx + Cx2 ê ú
89. If A = ê 4 8 10 ú . Then rank of A is
cos x 2 e x - 1 sin x 2 êë- 6 - 12 - 15úû
______ .
+ .... then value of B is ______ .
90. If a coin is tossed n times, the probability that
head appears odd no. of times is ______ .
Time : 3 hrs.
9 Max. Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
marks.
PHYSICS
Section - A the figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on the
two planes. What is the relative vertical
1. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an
acceleration of A with respect to B ?
external resistance R. The internal resistances
of the two sources are R1 and R2 ( R2 > R1). If the A
potential difference across the source having B
internal resistance R2 is zero then

(1) R = R1R2 /( R1 + R2 )
(2) R = R1R2 /( R2 – R1 ) 30°
60°
(3) R = R2 ´ ( R1 + R2 ) /( R2 - R1 )
(1) 4.9 ms–2 (in horizontal direction)
(4) R = R2 - R1 (2) 9.8 ms–2 (in vertical direction)
2. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making an (3) Zero
angle 30° and 60° with the vertical are shown in (4) 4.9 ms–2 (in vertical direction)
MT-96 JEE MAIN
3. A capillary tube (A) is dipped in water. Another 3g 2g

identical tube (B) is dipped in a soap -water (3) sin q (4) sin q
2l 2l
solution. Which of the following shows the relative
5. The rectangular surface of area 8 cm × 4 cm of a
nature of the liquid columns in the two tubes.
A B
black body at temperature 127°C emits energy E
per second. If the length and breadth are reduced
(1) to half of the initial value and the temperature is
raised to 327°C, the rate of emission of energy
A B becomes
(2) 3 81 9 81
(1) E (2) E (3) E (4) E
8 16 16 64
A B
6. T he figure shows the volume V versus
temperature T graphs for a certain mass of a
(3)
perfect gas at two constant pressures of P1 and
P2. What inference can you draw from the
A B
graphs?
(4) (1) P1 > P2 V P2
(2) P1 < P2
P1
4. A slender uniform rod of mass M and length l (3) P1 = P2
q2
is pivoted at one end so that it can rotate in a (4) No interference
vertical plane (see figure). There is negligible q1 T
can be drawn due to
friction at the pivot. The free end is held insufficient information.
vertically above the pivot and then released. The
angular acceleration of the rod when it makes an 7. What should be the maximum acceptance angle
at the air core interface of an optical fibre if n 1
angle q with the vertical is
and n2 are the refractive indices of the core and
the cladding, respectively
(1) sin -1 (n 2 / n1 ) (2) sin -1 n12 - n 22
é -1 n 2 ù é -1 n1 ù
(3) ê tan ú (4) ê tan n ú
3g 2g ë n1 û ë 2û
(1) cos q (2) cos q
2l 3l
Mock Test -9 MT-97
8. When Uranium is bombarded with neutrons, it V

undergoes fission. The fission reaction can be
written as : R
235
92 U + 0n1 ® 56Ba141 + 36Kr92 + 3x + Q(energy) S1
where three particles named x are produced and energy

C S2
Q is released. What is the name of the particle x ?
(1) electron (2) a-particle L
(3) neutron (4) neutrino
9. Given that K = energy, V = velocity, T = time. If (1) Work done by the battery is half of the
they are chosen as the fundamental units, then energy dissipated in the resistor
what is dimensional formula for surface tension? (2) At t = t, q = CV/2
(1) [KV–2T–2] (2) [K2V2T–2] (3) At t = 2t, q = CV (1 – e–2)
2 –2
(3) [K V T ] –2 (4) [KV2T2]
t
10. Three charges of (+ 2q), (– q) and (– q) are placed (4) At t = , q = CV (1 – e–1)
2
at the corners A, B and C of the equilateral triangle
of side a as shown in the given figure. Then the 12. Torques t1 and t 2 are required for a magnetic
dipole moment of this combination is needle to remain perpendicular to the magnetic
fields at two different places. The magnetic fields
A + 2q
at the those places are B1 and B2 respectively;
B1
a a
then ratio is
B2
t2 t1
D (1) (2)
t1 t2
–q B a C –q
(1) qa (2) zero t1 + t 2 t -t
(3) (4) 1 2
t1 - t 2 t1 + t 2
2
(3) qa 3 (4) qa 13. The transverse displacement y (x, t) of a wave is
3
11. In an LCR circuit as shown below both switches given by y( x, t ) = e
(
- ax 2 + bt 2 + 2 ab ) xt )
S1 and S2 are open initially. Now switch S1 is This represents a:
closed, S2 kept open. (q is charge on the capacitor b
and t = RC is capacitive time constant). Which (1) wave moving in – x direction with speed
a
of the following statements is correct ? (2) standing wave of frequency b
MT-98 JEE MAIN
1 16. Two identical short bar magnets, each having

(3) standing wave of frequency magnetic moment M, are placed a distance of 2d
b
apart with axes perpendicular to each other in a
a horizontal plane. The magnetic induction at a
(4) wave moving in + x direction speed
b point midway between them is
14. A system of four gates is set up as shown. The
m0 M m0 M
‘truth table’ corresponding to this system is : (1) ( 2) 3 (2) ( 3) 3
A 4p d 4p d
æ 0ö
2m M m0 M
(3) çè ÷ (4) ( 5) 3
p ø d3 4p d
17. Inside a cylinder closed at both ends is a movable
Y
piston. On one side of the piston is a mass m of
a gas, and on the other side a mass 2m of the
same gas. What fraction of volume of the
B cylinder will be occupied by the larger mass of
(1) A B Y (2) A B Y the gas when the piston is in equilibrium? The
0 0 1 0 0 0 temperature is the same throughout.
0 1 0 0 1 0 (1) 1/4 (2) 1/2 (3) 2/3 (4) 1/3
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 0 18. A hydrogen atom emits green light when it
(3) A B Y (4) A B Y changes from n = 4 energy level to the n = 2 level.
0 0 1 0 0 1 Which colour of light would the atom emit when
0 1 0 0 1 1 it changes from n = 5 level to the n = 2 level?
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 0 (1) red (2) yellow (3) green (4) violet
15. A particle of mass m is under a potential 19. As shown in the figure, a very thin sheet of
v(x) = (1/2)k1x2 for x > 0 and v(x) = k1x2 for x < 0. aluminium is placed in between the plates of the
When disturbed a little from the position x = 0, it will condenser. Then the capacity
(1) not execute SHM
m Al strip
(2) execute SHM with T = 2p
3k1
(3) execute SHM with T2 = 2p2m/(k12)
(1) Will increase
p m (2) Will decrease
(4) execute SHM with T =
æ 1 ö (3) Remains unchanged
k1 çç1 + ÷÷
è 2ø (4) May increase or decrease
Mock Test -9 MT-99
20. A coil having n turns and resistance RW is 25. The work function of a metallic surface is 5.01 eV,
connected with a galvanometer of resistance photoelectrons are emitted when light of
4RW. This combination is moved in time t wavelength 2000Å falls on it. The minimum
seconds from a magnetic field W1 weber to W2 potential difference (in volts) required to stop the
weber. The induced current in the circuit is fastest photoelectrons is (h = 4.14 × 10–15 eV–s)
(W2 - W1 ) n (W 2 - W1 ) 26. A refrigerator takes heat from water at 0°C inside
(1) - (2) - 5 Rt it and rejects it to the room at a temperature of
Rnt
(W2 - W1 ) 27°C. The latent heat of ice is 336 × 10 3 J kg–1. If
n (W 2 - W1 )
(3) - 5 Rnt (4) - 5 kg of water at 0°C is converted into ice at 0°C
Rt by the refrigerator, then the energy consumed
by the refrigerator is close to ________ joule.
Section - B 27. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to
21. Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8 l' move along the x-axis is given by
and material 'B' has decay constant 'l'. Initially æ x4 x 2 ö
1 V ( x) = ç - ÷J.
they have same number of nuclei. After time, ç 4 2 ÷ø
xl è
the ratio of number of nuclei of material 'A' to The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J.
1 Then, the maximum speed (in m/s) is
that 'B' is . Find the alue of x.
e 28. The radiation corresponding to 3 ® 2 transition
22. A ball projected from ground at an angle of 45° of hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface to
just clears a wall in front. If point of projection is produce photoelectrons. These electrons are
4 m from the foot of wall and ball strikes the made to enter a magnetic field of 3 × 10–4 T. If the
ground at a distance of 6 m on the other side of radius of the largest circular path followed by
the wall, the height of the wall is ______metre. these electrons is 10.0 mm, the work function of
23. A particle of charge 16 × 10–16 C moving with the metal is close to _____ eV.
velocity 10 ms–1 along x-axis enters 29. A stuntman plans to run across a roof top and
ur a region horizontally jumps on to another roof 4.9 m below
where magnetic field of induction B is along
the first one and at a distance of 6.2 m away.
the y-axis and an electric field of magnitude 104 What is the minimum velocity (in m/s) he must
Vm–1 is along the negative z-axis. If the charged have before the jump ?
particle continues
ur moving along x-axis, the 30. A thin sheet of glass (m = 1.5) of thickness 6
magnitude of B is ________ Wb m–2 microns introduced in the path of one of
24. A satellite is revolving round the earth with interfering beams in a double slit experiment
velocity v. The minimum percentage increase in shifts the central fringe to a position previously
its velocity necessary for the escape of satellite occupied by fifth bright fringe. Then the wave
will be length of the light used is _______ Å.
MT-100 JEE MAIN
CHEMISTRY
Section - A CH3 CH3
NH2 N
31. A hydrocarbon with five carbon atoms in the
molecule, decolourizes alkaline KMnO4, but does
not give a precipitate with ammonical Cu2Cl2 (1) (2)
solution. The hydrocarbon is possibly O
(1) 1-pentyne (2) 1, 3-pentadiyne
NHCH3 C–NH–CH3
(3) 2-pentyne (4) 1, 4-pentadiyne
32. The threshold frequency of a metal is 1 ´ 1015 s–1.
The ratio of maximum kinetic energies of the (3) (4)
photoelectrons when the metal is irradiated with
36. Consider the reaction
radiations of frequencies 1.5 ´ 1015 s–1 and
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) in a closed
2 ´ 1015 s–1 respectively would be
container at equilibrium. What would be the
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 3 effect of addition of CaCO3 on the equilibrium
33. A solution containing a group–IV cation gives a concentration of CO2 ?
precipitate on passing H2S. A solution of this (1) Increases
precipitate in dil.HCl produces a white precipitate (2) Decreases
with NaOH solution and bluish–white precipitate (3) Data insufficient
with basic potassium ferrocyanide. The cation is : (4) Remains unaffected
(1) Co2+ (2) Ni2+ (3) Mn2+ (4) Zn2+ 37. Consider the reaction sequence below :
OCH3
34. Identify the feasible reaction among the
following:
Succinic anhydride Clemmenson 's
D ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® A ¾¾¾¾¾¾® X
(1) K 2 CO3 ¾¾
® K 2 O + CO 2 AlCl3 reduction
D is
(2) Na 2 CO3 ¾¾
® Na 2 O + CO 2 OCH3 OH
D
(3) Li 2 CO 3 ¾¾
® Li 2 O + CO 2
(4) Rb 2 CO 3 ¾¾ D
® Rb 2 O + CO 2 (1)
35. Which of the following gives N-nitrosoamine
on reaction with nitrous acid?
OH
Mock Test -9 MT-101
OH corresponding alcohol and acid?

(1) C6H5CHO (2) CH3CH2CH2CHO
H3CO O
(2) ||
(3) CH 3 - C - CH 3 (4) C6H5CH2CHO
40. The complexes of Nickel (II) can be
(1) Square planar, tetrahedral and octahedral
OCH3 OH (2) Square planar and octahedral
(3) Tetrahedral and octahedral
(4) Square planar only
(3) 41. Which of the following represents the correct
order of stability?
H3CO
(4) (1) H – C º C – : > H 2 C = CH – : > H3 C – CH 2– :
(2) H3C – CH 2– : > H 2C = CH – : > H – C º C – :
38. Br , (3) H 3C – CH 2– : > H 2C = CH –: = H – C º C – :
CH–CH2Br (4) None of these
42. Which of the metal is extracted by Hall-Heroult
Alc. KOH NaNH2 process?
¾¾¾¾® A ¾¾¾¾® B
NaNH2 CH 3CH 2Cl (1) Al (2) Cu (3) Ni (4) Zn
A and B are é d ( DG ) ù
43. DG = DH - T DS and ê = -DS
ë dT úû p
CH=CH2 CH2–CH3
The enthalpy of cell reaction, DH, is then given by

(1) A= ;B=
é dE ù
C º CH C º CCH2CH3 (1) T ê cell ú - Ecell
ë dT û p
(2) A= ;B= é æ dE ö ù
(2) nF êT ç cell ÷ - Ecell ú
C º CH CH2CH2C º CH êë è dT ø p úû
é æ dE ö ù
(3) A= ;B= (3) nF ê Ecell - T ç cell ÷ ú
è dT ø p ú
ëê û
(4) None of these
æ dE ö
39. Which one of the following on treatment with (4) nFT ç cell ÷
è dT ø p
50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the
MT-102 JEE MAIN
44. Given E = 1.52 V and 46. The hybridization states of the central atoms in
Au 3+ / Au the complexes [Fe(CN)6]3– , [Fe(CN)6]4– and
E = 1.36V . [Co(NO2)6]3– are
Au 3+ / Au +
Point out the correct statement of the following (1) d2sp3, sp3 and d4s2 respectively
(1) Au3+ disproportionates into Au4+ and (2) d2sp3, sp3d and sp3d2 respectively
Au2+ in aqueous solution (3) d2sp3, sp3d2 and dsp2 respectively
(2) Au3+ disproportionates into Au4+ and Au+ (4) all d2sp3
in aqueous solution 47. Among the acids given below
(3) Au+ disproportionates into Au3+ and Au CH3CH2COOH (X); CH2 = CHCOOH (Y) and
in aqueous solution CH º C-COOH (Z)
(4) Au+ disproportionates into Au2+ and Au The correct order of increasing acid strength is
in aqueous solution
(1) X < Y < Z (2) X < Z < Y
45. The major product of the following reaction is :
(3) Y < X < Z (4) Z < Y < X
48. Which series of reactions correctly represents
OH
(i) K2CO3 chemical reactions related to iron and its compound?
¾¾¾¾¾® dil . H 2SO 4 H 2SO 4 , O 2
(ii) CH 3I (1. eq.) (1) Fe ¾¾¾¾¾ ® FeSO 4 ¾¾¾¾¾ ®
Fe 2 ( SO4 )3 ¾¾¾
heat
OH ® Fe
OCH3
(2) O , heat dil. H SO
Fe ¾¾¾¾
2 ® FeO ¾¾¾¾¾
2 4®
heat
(1) FeSO 4 ¾¾¾ ® Fe
OH (3) Cl , heat heat , air
Fe ¾¾¾¾®
2 FeCl3 ¾¾¾¾®
O Zn
FeCl 2 ¾¾® Fe
(2) O , heat CO , 600 C
(4) Fe ¾¾¾¾
2 ® Fe3O 4 ¾¾¾¾¾
®
OH CO , 700 C
FeO ¾¾¾¾¾
® Fe
49. The form of BN which is as hard as diamond is
(3) (1) hexagonal form
OCH3 (2) Cubic form with ZnS structure
(3) both of these
OCH3
(4) none of these
(4) 50. A mixture of two aromatic compounds A and B is
separated by dissolving in chloroform followed
by extraction with aq. KOH solution. The alkaline
aqueous layer gives a mixture of two isomeric
Mock Test -9 MT-103
compounds on treatment with carbon 52. Bond distance in HF is 9.17 × 10–11 m. Dipole
tetrachloride. The organic layer containing moment of HF is 6.104 × 10 –30 Cm. The
compound A gives an unpleasant odour on percentage ionic character in HF will be
treatment with alcoholic solution of KOH. ________. (electron charge = 1.60 × 10–19 C)
Compounds A and B respectively are 53. The vapour pressure (at the standard boiling
CN OH poin t of water ) of an aqueous solution
containing 28% by mass of a non-volatile normal
(1) solute (molecular mass = 28) will be ________.
and 54. Lithium chloride has a Cl–
cubic structure as shown
NC OH below. If the edge length
is 400 pm., then the radii
of Cl– ions is + a/2
(2) and Li
55. At 300 K, the density of a certain gaseous
NH2 OH molecule at 2 bar is double to that of dinitrogen
(N2) at 4 bar. Find the molar mass ofgaseous molecule.
(3) 56. Normality of a mixed solution of sulphuric acid
and
and hydrochloric acid is 0.6 N. 20 mL of this
solution gives 0.4305 g of AgCl on reacting with
OH NH2
AgNO3 solution. The strength of H2SO4 in g/ L
in the mixed solution is ________ .
(4) and 57. What is the value of n in the molecular formula
BenAl2Si6O18 ?
Section - B 58. The half life of a first order reaction is 10 min. If
initial amount is 0.08 mol L-1 and concentration at
51. Oxidising power of chlorine in aqueous solution some instant is 0.01 mol L-1. What is the time
can be determined by the parameters indicated below: elapsed ?
1 o 59. For soaps critical micelle concentration (CMC)
1 D H D eg Ho
2 diss ® Cl(g) ¾¾¾¾
Cl 2 (g) ¾¾¾¾¾ ® Cl – (g) is 10–x (min.) to 10–y (max.) mol/L. What is the
2 value of x?
D Ho
¾¾¾¾hyd
® Cl – (aq) 60. A weak base BOH is titrated with a strong acid
(using the data, HA. When 10 ml of HA is added, the pH is found
–1
D diss H°Cl = 240 kJ mol , to be 9.00 and when 25 ml is added, pH is 8.00.
2
–1 Find the volume of the acid required to reach the
D eg H °Cl = –349 kJ mol , equivalence point
–1
° – = –381 kJ mol ), DH will be _____.
Dhyd H Cl
MT-104 JEE MAIN
MATHEMATICS
1 2 b
Section - A (3) e ax cos(bx 2 + c - tan -1 ) + A
2
a +b 2 a
61. If P = { x Î R :f (x) = 0 } and 1 2 b
(4) eax cos(bx 2 + c - tan -1 ) + A
Q = { x Î R :g (x) = 0 } then P È Q is 2
2 a +b 2 a
(1) { x Î R : f (x) + g(x) = 0 }
(2) { x Î R : f (x) g(x) = 0 }
65. If ò 1 + sec x dx = 2(fog )( x ) + C, then
f ( x ) = sec x - 1 (2) f ( x) = 2 tan -1 x

{ }
(1)
x Î R : ( f (x)) + ( g(x)) = 0
2 2
(3)
(4) None of these (3) g( x ) = sec x - 1 (4) None of these
p+q 66. If y2 = P (x) is a polynomial of degree 3, then
62. If cosec q =
p-q
( p ¹ q ¹ 0 ) , then
d é 3 d2y ù
æp qö 2 êy ú
cot ç + ÷ is equal to: dx êë dx 2 úû is equal to
è 4 2ø
(1) P(x) + P¢ (x) (2) P(x) + P¢¢¢ (x)
p q (3) P(x) P¢¢¢ (x) (4) None of these
(1) (2) (3) pq (4) pq 67. Which of the following is an even function?
q p
63. The expression satisfying the differential æ 1- x ö
(1) f ( x ) = log ç ÷
2
equation x - 1 (dy
dx
)
+ 2 xy = 1 is è1+ x ø
(2) f ( x ) = log ( x + 1 + x 2 )
(1) x 2 y - xy 2 = c
x x
(3) f ( x) = + +1
(2) ( y 2 - 1)x = y + c x
e -1 2
(3) ( x 2 - 1) y = x + c 2x
(4) f ( x ) = e + sin x
(4) None of these 68. A plane meets the coordinate axes in points A,
(log x + ax ) 2 B, C and the centroid of the triangle ABC is
64. òe cos(bx 2 + c) dx is equal to
(a, b, g ) . The equation of the plane is
1 2 b
(1) e ax cos( bx 2 + c + tan -1 ) + A x y z
2 2 a (1) + + =3 (2) ax+ by+ gz = 3abg
a +b a b g
12 b x y z 1
(2) eax cos(bx 2 - c - tan -1 ) + A (3) + + = (4) None of these
2 a +b 2 2 a a b g 2
Mock Test -9 MT-105
69. Equation of the latus rectum of the hyperbola 74. Let f (x) = ex, g(x) = sin–1x and h (x) = f (g(x)), then
h'(x)/h(x) =
(10x - 5) 2 + (10 y - 2) 2 = 9(3x + 4 y - 7) 2 is
-1
(1) esin x (2) 1/ 1 – x 2
1 3æ 1ö
(1) y - = - çx - ÷ (3) sin –1 x (4) 1/(1 – x2)
5 4è 2ø
75. Which of the following functions is differentiable
1 3æ 1ö at x = 0?
(2) x - = - çy- ÷
5 4è 2ø (1) cos(|x|) + |x| (2) cos (|x|) - |x|
1 3æ 1ö (3) sin (|x|) + |x| (4) sin (|x|) - |x|
(3) y+ = - çx + ÷
The largest interval lying in æç -p , p ö÷ for which
5 4è 2ø
76.
1 3æ 1ö è 2 2ø
(4) x+ = - çy + ÷ the function,
5 4è 2ø
70. The point (2a, a) lies inside the region bounded 2 æx ö
by the parabola x2 = 4y and its latus rectum. Then, f ( x) = 4- x + cos -1 ç - 1÷ + log (cos x) is
è2 ø
(1) 0 £ a £ 1 (2) 0 < a < 1 defined, is
p
(3) a > 1 (4) a < 0 (1) é - p , p ö (2) éê 0, ö÷
71. If DABC is right angled at A then the inradius of ê 4 2÷ ë 2ø
ë ø
the triangle is æ p pö
(1) 2(a + b – 2) (2) 2(b + c – a) (3) [0, p] (4) ç - , ÷
è 2 2ø
b+c-a b+c-a 77. If f (x) = sin x + cos x, g (x) = x2 – 1, then g (f (x))
(3) (4)
2 4 is invertible in the domain
1 1 1
72. If , , are in A.P.. é pù é p pù
b+ c c+ a a+ b (1) ê0 , 2 ú (2) ê- , ú
ë û ë 4 4û
then 9 ax +1 ,9 bx +1 ,9cx +1 , x ¹ 0 are in : é p pù
(1) G.P. (2) G.P. only if x < 0 (3) ê- 2 , 2 ú (4) [0, p]
ë û
(3) G.P. only if x > 0 (4) None of these 78. Which of the following functions is NOT one-one ?
p
sin (2k - 1) x (1) f : R ® R defined by f ( x ) = 6 x - 1.
73. If a k = ò sin x
dx , then –
0 (2) f : R ® R defined by f ( x ) = x 2 + 7.
(1) a1, a2, ....... are in A.P. (3) f : R ® R defin ed by f ( x ) = x 3 .
(2) a1, a2, ....... are in G..P.
2x + 1
(3) a1, a2, ....... are in H.P. (4) f : R - {7} ® R defined by f ( x) = .
(4) a1, a2, ....... form a constant sequence x-7
MT-106 JEE MAIN
r r r r r r r r
é1 1 2 4 1 ù
Lim ê sec 2 2 + 2 sec 2 2 ............ + sec2 1ú
84. If a = i + j+k , b = 4i + 3 j + 4k and
79. n ® ¥ ë n2 n r r r r
n n n û c= i + a j + b k are linearly independent vectors
equals and | rc | = 3 , then greatest value of a + b is __.
1 1
(1) sec 1 (2)cosec 1 85. If the area lying between the curves y = tan x, y
2 2
1 é pù
(3) tan 1 (4) tan 1 = cot x and x-axis, x Î ê0, ú is log k, then value
ë 2û
2 of k is ________.
80. The differential equation of the family of curves
86. From the point (15, 12) three normals are drawn
2 3
represented by c( y + c) = x is to the parabola y2 = 4x. If centroid of triangle
2 formed by three co-normal points is (m, n), then
d2y æ dy ö value of m + n is _____.
(1) y 2 - y 2 ç ÷ = 27 x
dx è dx ø 87. If a + b + c = 3 and a > 0, b > 0, c > 0, and the
æ dy ö
2
æ dy ö
3 3p.2q
(2) 12 y ç ÷ = 8x ç ÷ - 27 x greatest value of a2 b3 c2 is , then value of
è dx ø è dx ø 7r
(p + q + r) is _____.
3 2
æ dy ö æ dy ö 88. If z1, z2, z3, z4 be the vertices of a quadrilateral
(3) 8 y ç ÷ = 12 x ç ÷ - 27 x
è dx ø è dx ø taken in order such that z1 + z3 = z2 + z4 ,
3 2
æ dy ö æ dy ö æ dy ö æ z -z ö
|z1 – z3 | = | z2 – z4 | and arg ç 1 2 ÷ = ± kp then
(4) çè ÷ø - çè ÷ø + çè ÷ø - y = 27 x .
dx dx dx è z3 - z2 ø
value of k is ______.
Section - B 89. The function defined by
( )
r ˆ ˆ ˆ r ì 1 -1
81. If a = i – 2 j + 3k , b = –3iˆ + ˆj - kˆ , ï 2
r r r r r r r r r r f (x) = í x + e 2 - x , x ¹ 2, is
r ´ a = b ´ a, r ´ b = a ´ b and r × a = 30, then
r ï k x=2
magnitude of r is _____. î
82. The acute angle between two lines such that the continuous from right at the point x =2, then k is
direction cosines l, m, n, of each of them satisfy the _____.
equations l + m + n = 0 and l2 + m2 – n2 = 0 is (in 90. Consider a rectangle whose length is increasing
degree) _____. at the uniform rate of 2 m/sec, breadth is
83. In a two player game that always has a winner, A decreasing at the uniform rate of 3 m/sec and
beats B with probability 2/3; B beats C with the area is decreasing at the uniform rate of 5 m2/
probability 2/3 & C beats A with the same sec. If after some time the breadth of the rectangle
probability. If B plays with C and then the winner is 2 m then the length of the rectangle is ____m.
plays with A, the chance that A will be the final
winner is ______.
Time : 3 hrs.
10 Max. Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
marks.
PHYSICS
Section - A æ 2 Mg ö æ 1 Mg ö
(1) L ç 1 + (2) L ç1 +
1. A uniformly tapering conical wire is made from a è 9 pYR 2 ÷ø è 9 pYR 2 ÷ø
material of Young's modulus Y and has a normal,
unextended length L. The radii, at the upper and æ 1 Mg ö æ 2 Mg ö
(3) L ç 1 + (4) L ç1 +
lower ends of this conical wire, have values R è 3 pYR 2 ÷ø è 3 pYR 2 ÷ø
and 3R, respectively. The upper end of the wire 2. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless
is fixed to a rigid support and a mass M is horizontal surface collides with the spring of
suspended from its lower end. The equilibrium spring constant k and compresses it by length
extended length, of this wire, would equal :
MT-108 JEE MAIN
L. The maximum momentum of the block after same axial points. Then the potential at the
collision is common centre is
Q(R 2 + r 2 ) Q
M (1) (2)
4pe 0 (R + r ) R+r
Q( R + r )
(3) Zero (4)
4pe 0 ( R 2 + r 2 )
kL2
(1) (2) Mk L 6. A wheel is rolling straight on ground without
2M slipping. If the axis of the wheel has speed v, the
instantenous velocity of a point P on the rim,
ML2 defined by angle q, relative to the ground will be
(3) (4) Zero
k
3. A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, P
executes S.H.M. with amplitude A1. When the q
mass M passes through its mean position then
a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of
them move together with amplitude A2. The ratio
æ A1 ö æ1 ö æ1 ö
of çè A ÷ø is: (1) v cosç q ÷ (2) 2 v cosç q ÷
2 è2 ø è2 ø
1
M +m æ M ö2 (3) v(1 + sin q) (4) v(1 + cos q)
(1) (2) çè ÷
M M + mø 7. In the Bohr model an electron moves in a circular
1 orbit around the proton. Considering the
æ M + mö 2 M
(3) çè ÷ (4) orbiting electron to be a circular current loop,
M ø M +m
4. Three particles of equal mass m are situated at the magnetic moment of the hydrogen atom,
the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side L. when the electron is in nth excited state, is :
What should be the velocity of each particle so æ e n2 h ö æ e ö nh
that they move on a circular path without (1) ç ÷ (2) ç ÷
ç 2m 2p ÷ è m ø 2p
changing L? è ø
2
(1) Ö(GM/2L) (2) Ö(GM/L) æ e ö nh æ e ön h
(3) ç ÷ (4) ç ÷
(3) Ö(2GM/L) (4) Ö(GM/3L) è 2m ø 2p è m ø 2p
5. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric 8. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown
hollow spheres of radii r and R (>r) such that the vertically upwards with a speed u. The time taken
surface densities are equal and placed on the by the particle, to hit the ground, is n times that
taken by it to reach the highest point of its path.
Mock Test -10 MT-109
The relation between H, u and n is:

(1) 2gH = n2u2 (2) gH = (n – 2)2 u2d (3)
(3) 2gH = nu2 (n – 2) (4) gH = (n – 2)u2
9. The figure shows a system of two concentric
spheres of radii r1 and r2 are kept at temperatures
(4)
T1 and T2, respectively. The radial rate of flow of
heat in a substance between the two concentric
11. A cell of e m.f. E is connected across a reistance
spheres is proportional to R. The potential difference between the terminals
ær ö
of the cell is found to be V. The internal resistance
(1) In ç 2 ÷ of the cell must be
è r1 ø
(1) [2(E–V)V]/R (2) [2(E–V)/V]R
(r2 - r1 ) r1
(2) T1 (3) [(E–V)/V]R (4) (E–V)R
(r1 r2 ) 12. A cylindrical vessel of cross-section A contains
( r2 - r1 )
r2 T2 water to a height h. There is a hole in the bottom
(3)
of radius ‘a’. The time in which it will be emptied
r1 r2 is:
(4)
(r2 - r1 ) 2A h 2A h
10. An electron beam is accelerated by a potential (1) 2 (2)
pa g pa 2 g
difference V to hit a metallic target to produce X-
rays. It produces continuous as well as 2 2A h A h
characteristic X-rays.If lmin is the smallest (3) (4)
pa 2 g 2pa 2 g
possible wavelength of X-ray in the spectrum,
the variation of log lmin with log V is correctly 13. Two straight long conductors AOB and COD
represented in : are perpendicular to each other and carry
currents I1 and I2 respectively. The magnitude
of the magnetic induction at a point P at a
(1) distance ‘a’ from the point O where the two
conductors intersect, in a direction perpendicular
to the plane ABCD is
m0 m0
(1) (I1 + I 2 ) (2) (I1 – I 2 )
(2) 2 pa 2 pa
m 0 é 2 2 ù 1/ 2 m 0 æ I1I 2 ö
(3) I1 + I 2 (4) ç ÷
2pa ë û 2pa çè I1 + I 2 ÷ø
MT-110 JEE MAIN
14. In a series resonant circuit, having L, C and R as These materials are used to make magnets for
its elements, the resonant current is i. The power elecric generators, transformer core and
dissipated in the circuit at resonance is electromagnet core. Then it is proper to use :
i 2R
(1) A for transformers and B for electric
(1) æ (2) zero generators.
1 ö
ç wL - ÷ (2) B for electromagnets and transformers.
è wC ø
(3) A for electric generators and trasformers.
(3) i2wL (4) i2R
(4) A for electromagnets and B for electric
15. The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time generators.
‘t’are given by x = a t 3 and y = b t 3 . The speed 18. A student measures the focal length of a convex
of the particle at time ‘t’ is given by lens by putting an object pin at a distance ‘u’
from the lens and measuring the distance ‘v’ of
(1) 3t a 2 + b 2 (2) 3t 2 a 2 + b2 the image pin. The graph between ‘u’ and ‘v’
plotted by the student should look like
(3) t 2 a 2 + b2 (4) a 2 + b2 (1) v(cm)
16. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils, each of
N turns, is M henry. If a current of I ampere in
one of the coils is brought to zero in t second,
O u(cm)
the emf induced per turn in the other coil, in
volt, will be (2) v(cm)
MI NMI
(1) (2)
t t
MN MI O u(cm)
(3) (4)
It Nt
17. Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials A (3) v(cm)
and B are given below :
B B
O u(cm)
(4) v(cm)
H H
(A) (B)
O u(cm)
19. A battery is connected across series times the time taken by the same body in slipping
combination of a capacitor and a resistor, at t = down a similar frictionless plane. The coefficient
0. If at an instant t potential difference across of dynamic friction between the body and the
the capacitor be ‘V’ and energy stored in it be U æ 1 ö
then which of the following graph is correct? plane is m = 1 – ç x ÷ . Find the value of x.
U U èn ø
22. A lamp emits monochromatic green light
(1) (2) uniformly in all directions. The lamp is 3%
efficient in converting electrical power to
O O
V V
electromagnetic waves and consumes 100 W of
U U power. The amplitude of the electric field (in
V/m) associated with the electromagnetic
(3) (4) radiation at a distance of 5 m from the lamp will
O V O V be nearly ______
20. A ray of light of intensity I is incident on a parallel 23. A Carnot’s engine works as a refrigerator
between 250 K and 300 K. If it receives 750
glass-slab at a point A as shown in fig. it
calories of heat from the reservoir at the lower
undergoes partial reflection and refraction. At temperature, the amount of heat rejected at the
each reflection 25% of incident energy is
higher temperature is ______ cal.
reflected. The rays AB and A¢B¢ undergo
interference. The ratio Imax / Imin is 24. The electric field in a region of space is given by,
r
E = Eoiˆ + 2Eoˆj where Eo = 100 N/C. The flux of
B B¢
I the field through a circular surface of radius 0.02
m parallel to the Y-Z plane is nearly ____ Nm2/C
A A¢
25. A gas molecule of mass M at the surface of the
Earth has kinetic energy equivalent to 0°C. If it
were to go up straight without colliding with
C 819k B
any other molecules, it rises to h = . Find
xMg
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 8 : 1 the value of x. Assume that the height attained
(3) 7 : 1 (4) 49 : 1 is much less than radius of the earth. (kB is
Section - B Boltzmann constant).
26. In a npn transistor 1010 electrons enter the
21. The time taken by a body in sliding down a rough emitter in 10–6 s. 4% of the electrons are lost in
inclined plane of angle of inclination 45° is n the base. The current transfer ratio will be
MT-112 JEE MAIN
27. 56 tuning forks are so arranged in series that the main scale exactly coincide with the 30
each fork gives 4 beats per sec with the previous divisions of the vernier scale. If the smallest
division of the main scale is half- a degree
one. The frequency of the last fork is 3 times
(= 0.5°), then the least count of the instrument is
that of the first. The frequency of the first fork is
______ minute.
______ Hz. 30. The counting rate observed from a radioactive
28. For sky wave propagation of a 10 MHz signal, source at t = 0 second was 1600 counts per
what should be the minimum electron density
second and at t = 8 seconds it was 100 counts
(in m–3) in ionosphere?
per second. The counting rate observed, as
29. In an experiment the angles are required to be
measured using an instrument, 29 divisions of counts per second at t = 6 seconds will be
CHEMISTRY
Section - A (1) phenylhydrazine (2) semicarbazide
31. If the shortest wavelength in Lyman series of (3) biuret (4) acetylurea
hydrogen atom is A, then the longest
wavelength in Paschen series of He+ is : 34. The IUPAC name of CH 2 - CH - C H 2 is
| | |
CN CN CN
5A 9A
(1) (2)
9 5 (1) 1, 2, 3-propanetrinitrile
36A 36A (2) 1, 2, 3-tricyanopropane
(3) (4)
5 7 (3) 3-cyano-1, 5-dinitrilepentane
t 0.875 (4) 1, 2, 3-propanetricarbonitrile
32. The value of for nth order reaction is
t 0.50 35. The catenation tendency of C, Si and Ge is in
(1) 2(2n – 2) (2) 2(2n –2)–1 the order Ge < Si < C. The bond energies (in
kJmol– l) of C – C, Si – Si and Ge –Ge bonds are
8n -1 - 1 respectively;
(3) (4) None of these
2 n -1 - 1 (1) 348, 297, 260 (2) 297, 348, 260
33. Urea and hydrazine react to form ammonia gas (3) 348, 260, 297 (4) 260, 297, 348
along with compound X which reacts with
aldehydes and ketones to form specific
crystalline derivatives. X is
36. The repeating units of acrilan are 41. In which of the following cases, the stability of
two oxidation states is correctly represented
H
| (1) Ti3+ > Ti4+ (2) Mn2+ > Mn3+
(1) H 2 C = C - COOCH 3 2+
(3) Fe > Fe 3+ (4) Cu+ > Cu2+
H 42. Which one of the following oxides of chlorine is
| obtained by passing dry chlorine over silver
(2) H 2 C = C - COOC 2 H 5 chlorate at 90°C ?
H (1) Cl2O (2) ClO3
|
(3) H 2 C = C - CN (3) ClO2 (4) ClO4
43. The main product of the following reaction is
CH3
| C6 H5CH 2CH(OH)CH(CH3 )2 ¾¾¾¾¾
2 4¾
®?
conc.H SO
(4) H 2 C = C - COOCH3
37. A metal X on heating in nitrogen gas gives Y. (1) H 5C 6 H
C=C
Y on treatment with H2O gives a colourless gas H CH(CH3)2
which when passed through CuSO4 solution
gives a blue colour. Y is (2) C6H5CH2 CH3
C=C
(1) Mg(NO3)2 (2) Mg3N2 H CH3
(3) NH3 (4) MgO
38. The turbidity of a polymer solution measures (3) H5C6CH2CH 2
C = CH2
(1) the light scattered by solution H3C
(2) the light absorbed by a solution
(4) C6H5 CH(CH3)2
(3) the light transmitted by a solution C=C
(4) None of these H H
39. Which of the following has a shape different 44. Zirconium phosphate [Zr 3(PO4)4] dissociates
from others? into three zirconium cations of charge + 4 and
(1) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ (2) Ni(CO)4 four phosphate anions of charge – 3. If molar
solubility of zirconium phosphate is denoted by
(3) [Cd(CN)4]2+ (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ S and its solubility product by Ksp then which of
40. Di-n-propyl ether and diallyl ether can be the following relationship between S and Ksp is
distinguished by correct?
(1) Acetic acid (1) S = [Ksp/ (6912)1/7]
(2) Sodium Metal (2) S = [Ksp/ 144]1/7
(3) Cold dilute KMnO4 solution (3) S = [Ksp/ 6912]1/7
(4) PCl5 (4) S = [Ksp/ 6912[7
MT-114 JEE MAIN
45. The final product of the following sequence of offensive smelling compound ‘C’. Th e
reactions compound ‘C’ is
O (1) CH3CH 2 NH2

NaOH , H O
¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
2 ®
D (2) CH 3 CH 2 N ®
=C
H
(3) CH3 C º N
LiCu (CH 3 ) 2 LiAlH 4
B ¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
¾® C ¾¾ ¾¾® D (4) CH 2 CH 2 OH
H 2O H 2O
49. The reaction of
(1) 3-ethyl-2-methyl-1-hexanol
(2) 2, 3-dimethyl-1-pentanol CH3 CH = CH OH
(3) 2-ethyl-3-methyl-1-hexanol with HBr gives

(4) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-pentanol
(1) CH3CH = CH Br
46. A solution containing As3+, Cd2+, Ni2+ and Zn2+
is made alkaline with dilute NH4OH and treated
with H2S. The precipitate obtained will consist of (2) CH3CH2CHBr OH
(1) As2S3 and CdS
(2) CdS, NiS and ZnS (3) CH3CHBrCH2 Br
(3) NiS and ZnS
(4) Sulphide of all ions (4) CH3CH2CHBr Br
47. The intermediate formed during the addition of
50. Final product (D) formed in the following reaction
HCl to propene in the presence of peroxide is
sequence is
·
(1) CH3CHCH2Cl (2) CH 3 CHCH3
D 2NBS
CH2 = CHCH = CH2 + ¾¾® A ¾¾¾® B
· +
(3) CH3CH 2CH 2 (4) CH3CH 2 CH 2
48. An organic compound ‘A’ having molecular alc.KOH 2 ®DPd ,( -H )
¾¾ ¾¾® C ¾¾ ¾¾ ¾
formula C2H3N on reduction gave another (1) Naphthalene (2) Tetralin
compound ‘B’. Upon treatment with nitrous
acid, ‘B’ gave ethyl alcohol. On warming with (3) Benzene (4) Anthracene
chloroform and alcoholic KOH, B formed an
Section - B 55. M2SO4 (M+ is a monovalent metal ion) has a Ksp of

3.2 ´ 10–5 at 298 K. The maximum concentration of
51. Determine enthalpy of formation for H2O2(l), SO4–2 ion that could be attained in a saturated
using listed enthalpies of reaction : solution of this solid at 298 K is x × 10–2 M. Find
N 2 H 4 ( l ) + 2H 2 O2 ( l ) ¾¾
® N 2 ( g ) + 4H 2 O ( l ) ; the value of x.
D r H1 = -818 kJ / mol 56. The colour of KMnO4 solution is decolourised
by Fe2+ solution, one mole of Fe2+ reacts with x
N 2 H 4 ( l ) + O 2 ( g ) ¾¾
® N 2 ( g ) + 2H 2 O ( l ) ;
moles of KMnO4. Find x.
D r H 2 = -622 kJ / mol 57. For the coagulation of 500 mL of arsenious
H 2 ( g ) + 1/ 2O2 ( g ) ¾¾
® H 2O ( l ) ; sulphide sol, 2 mL of 1 M NaCl is required. What
is the flocculation value of NaCl?
D r H3 = -285 kJ / mol
58. The standard reduction potential for Cu2+/Cu is
52. A metallic element exists as cubic lattice. Each
+ 0.34. Calculate the reduction potential at
edge of the unit cell is 2.88 Å. The density of the
pH = 14 for the above couple.
metal is 7.20 g cm–3. How many unit cell will be
present in 100 g of the metal in the multiple of (Ksp Cu(OH)2 = 1 × 10–19)
1023? 59. A current of 2.0A when passed for 5 hours
53. The solution containing 4.0 % PVC in one litre through a molten metal salt deposits 22.2g of
of dioxane was found to have osmotic pressure metal of atomic weight 177. Find the oxidation
of 6.0 × 10–4 atm at 300 K. Find the molecular state of the metal in the metal salt
mass of polymer in terms of x × 105. 60. A gaseous mixture of three gases A, B and C has
a pressure of 10 atm. The total number of moles
54. For a chemical reaction X ® Y, the rate of of all the gases is 10. If the partial pressures of A
reaction increases by a factor of 1.837 when the and B are 3.0 and 1.0 atm respectively and if ‘C’
concentration of X is increased by 1.5 times. Find has mol. wt of 2.0 what is the weight of ‘C’ in g
the order of the reaction with respect to X present in the mixture
MATHEMATICS
Section - A 62. Let a/(a–1) and b/(b–1) be the roots of
n+4C – nC – 3.nC n n x2 + ax + b = 0. Then 1/a and 1/b are the roots of
61. r–1 – 3. Cr–2 – Cr–3 is equal to
r
n+1
r
n+2
(1) bx2 + ax + 1 = 0
(1) Cr–1 (2) Cr–1 (2) bx2 – ax + 1 = 0
(3) n+3Cr–1 (4) n+4Cr–1 (3) bx2 + (a + 2b)x + a + b + 1 = 0
(4) bx2 – (a + 2b) x + a + b + 1 = 0
MT-116 JEE MAIN
63. For any real q, the maximum value of 68. The value of
cos2(cos q) + sin2(sin q) is 1
(1) 1 (2) 1 + sin21 lim (4 - 3 sin x - 2 cos 2 x ) 2 sin x -1 is
x ®p / 6
2
(3) 1 + cos 1 (4) 1/2 (1) 1 (2) e
64. If tan(A/2), tan(B/2), tan(C/2) are in A.P. then sec (3) Öe (4) e–1/2
A, sec B, sec C are in 69. The function f (x) = 3 cos4x + 10 cos3x + 6 cos2x – 3,
(1) A.P. (2) G..P. (0 £ x £ p) is –
(3) H.P. (4) None æ p 2p ö
65. The equation of the common tangent to the (1) Increasing in çè , ÷ø
2 3
parabolas y2 = 4ax and x2 = 4by is given by æ p ö æ 2p ö
(1) xa1/3 + yb1/3 + a2/3 b2/3 = 0 (2) Increasing in çè 0, ÷ø È çè , p÷ø
2 3
(2) xb1/3 + ya1/3 + a2/3 b2/3 = 0
(3) xa1/3 + yb1/3 – a2/3 b2/3 = 0 æ p 2p ö
(3) Decreasing in çè , ÷ø
(4) None of these 2 3
66. If tangents be drawn to the cricle x2 + y2 = 12 at (4) All of the above
p
its points of intersection with the circle 70. Value of ò 0 sin
n
x cos 2m+1 x dx
x2 + y2 – 5x + 3y – 2 = 0, then the tangents
( where m, n Î N) is
intersect at the point
(2m + 1)! (2m + 1)!
æ 18 ö æ 18 ö (1) (2)
(1) ç – 6, ÷ (2) ç 6, ÷ n! n2
è 5ø è 5ø p 2m +1
æ 18 ö æ 18 ö (3) ò 0 cos x dx (4) None of these
(3) ç – 6,– ÷ (4) ç 6,– ÷ 71. If f ¢( x) = f ( x ) and f (0) = 2, then
è 5ø è 5ø
67. Let R = {(x, y) : x, y Î N and x – 4xy + 3y2 = 0},
2 f ( x)
where N is the set of all natural numbers. Then ò 3 + 4f (x ) dx =
the relation R is :
(1) log(3 + 8e x ) + C
(1) reflexive but neither symmetric nor
1
transitive. (2) log(3 + 8e x ) + C
(2) symmetric and transitive. 4
(3) reflexive and symmetric, 1
(3) log( 3 + 8e x ) + C
(4) reflexive and transitive. 2
(4) None of these
72. The area under the curve y = | cos x – sin x |, (3) If x = 4, then x + 2 = 6
p (4) If, x ¹ 4 then x + 2 = 6
0 £ x £ , and above x-axis is :
2 76. If y = f(x) be a monotonically increasing or
(1) 2 2 decreasing function of x and M is the median of
variable x, then the median of y is
(2) 2 2 -2 (1) f (M) (2) M/2
(3) 2 2 + 2 (3) f –1 (M) (4) None of these
(4) None of these 77. A fair die is tossed eight times. The probability
73. Let coordinates of a point ‘p’ with respect to the that a third six is observed on the eighth throw is
r r r
system of non-coplanar vectors a , b and c is 7 55 7 53
(1) C2 (2) C3
(3, 2, 1). Then coordinates of ‘p’ with respect to 68 68
r r r r r r
the system of vectors a + b + c , a – b + c 56
r r r (3)
7
C6 (4) None of these
and a + b – c is 68
æ3 1 ö æ3 1ö
ur uur uur
(1) ç , ,1÷ (2) ç ,1, ÷ 78. If a , b , c are non coplanar vectors and l is a
è2 2 ø è2 2ø
real number then
æ1 3 ö uur uur uur uur uur uur uur uur
(3) ç , ,1÷ (4) None [l (a + b ) l 2 b l c ] = [a b + c b ] for
è2 2 ø
(1) exactly one value of l
74. Equation of the line through the point (2,3,l) and
parallel to the line of intersection of the planes (2) no value of l
x – 2y – z + 5 = 0 and x + y + 3z = 6 is (3) exactly three values of l
(4) exactly two values of l
x - 2 y - 3 z -1
(1) = = æ ö
-5 -4 1 -1 æ 1 ö
3 79. S = tan -1 ç ÷ + tan ç 2 ÷ + ...
(2) x - 2 = y - 3 = z - 1
2
è n + n +1 ø è n + 3n + 3 ø
5 -4 3 æ 1 ö
x - 2 y - 3 z -1 + tan -1 ç ÷ , then tan S is
(3) = = è 1 + ( n + 19)( n + 20) ø
5 4 3
x - 2 y - 3 z -1 equal to :
(4) = = 20 n
4 3 2 (1) (2)
75. If x + 2 = 6, then x = 4. So, which statement is its 401 + 20 n 2
n + 20n + 1
converse?
20 n
(1) If x ¹ 4, then x + 2 ¹ 6 (3) (4)
2
n + 20n + 1 401 + 20 n
(2) If x = 4, then x + 2 ¹ 6
MT-118 JEE MAIN
80. The middle term in the expansion of 85. The derivative of tan –1[(3x2 – 1)/(3x – x3)] with
n respect to sin–1[(x2 –1)/( x2 + 1)] is ______ .
æ 1ö
çè1 - ÷ø (1 - x ) in powers of x is
n
86. If 2a + 3b + 6c = 0 and at least one root of the
x equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 lies in the interval (m,
(1) – 2nCn–1 (2) – 2nCn n), then value of m + n is ______ .
(3) 2n Cn – 1 (4) 2n Cn 87. If Z1 ¹ 0 and Z2 be two complex numbers such
Section - B Z2
that is a purely imaginary number, then
Z1
5 11 17
81. The value of S = + + +
12 × 4 2 2
4 ×7 2
7 ×10 2
2 2Z1 + 3Z 2
¼ ¥ is ______ . 2Z1 - 3Z 2 is ______ .
82. The line 2x + y = 3 cuts the ellipse 4x2 + y2 = 5 at 88. If the straight lines
P and Q. If q be the angle between the normals at x = 1 + s , y = -3 - l s , z = 1 + l s
these points, then value of tan q is ______ . t
and x = , y = 1 + t , z = 2 - t , with parameters
2
æ r r – 1ö s and t respectively, are co-planar, then value of
83. Matrix M r is defined as M r = çç ÷÷ ,
l is ______ .
è r –1 r ø
89. A and B are two independent events. The prob-
r Î N. If value of det(M1) + det(M2) + det(M3) + ability that both A and B occur is 1/6 and the
.... + det(M2007) = (k)2, then value of k is ____ . probability that neither of them occurs is 1/3.
æ 1 -1 1 ö The most probability of occurrence of A is
ç ÷
84. Let A = ç 2 1 - 3 ÷. and ______ .
ç1 1 1 ÷ø
è 90. If X and Y are independent binomial variates
æ 4 2 2ö
ç ÷
(10) B = ç - 5 0 a ÷. æ 1ö æ 1ö
ç 1 -2 3÷ B ç 5, ÷ and B ç 7, ÷ , then P (X + Y = 3) is
è ø è 2ø è 2ø
If B is the inverse of matrix A, then value of a is ______ .
______ .
Mock Test-1
ANSWER KEY
1 (4) 16 (1) 31 (1) 46 (1) 61 (3) 76 (3)
2 (4) 17 (3) 32 (1) 47 (1) 62 (2) 77 (1)
3 (3) 18 (1) 33 (2) 48 (1) 63 (2) 78 (4)
4 (2) 19 (1) 34 (2) 49 (2) 64 (2) 79 (4)
5 (4) 20 (2) 35 (4) 50 (3) 65 (3) 80 (1)
6 (1) 21 (170) 36 (3) 51 (1.24) 66 (1) 81 (0)
7 (3) 22 (6.67) 37 (4) 52 (2.25) 67 (3) 82 (0.80)
8 (4) 23 (6.275) 38 (3) 53 (0.5) 68 (1) 83 (0.25)
9 (1) 24 (20) 39 (3) 54 (1.75) 69 (1) 84 (0.33)
10 (1) 25 (0.25) 40 (3) 55 (5.97) 70 (4) 85 (7.00)
11 (1) 26 (4) 41 (4) 56 (400) 71 (1) 86 (1.00)
12 (2) 27 (40.05) 42 (4) 57 (210) 72 (2) 87 (3.00)
13 (2) 28 (5.3) 43 (4) 58 (0.04) 73 (1) 88 (1.50)
14 (2) 29 (23) 44 (2) 59 (6) 74 (4) 89 (14.00)
15 (2) 30 (2) 45 (3) 60 (0.241) 75 (1) 90 (3.20)
Solutions
PHYSICS x/2
also tan q » sin =
l
1. (4) x q2
Hence, 2l =
4p Î0 x 2 ´ mg
q
2q 2 l
Þ x3 =
Tcos q 4p Î0 mg
q
1/3
Tsin q æ q2l ö
q Fe
q \ x = çç ÷÷
x
è 2p Î0 mg ø
mg Therefore x µ l1/3
2. (4) Case I :
T
T – N = 40 a
In equilibrium, Fe = T sin q and 20g – T = 20 a T
mg = T cos q Also N = 20 a T A
After simplifying, N
20g
Fe q2 we get
tan q = =
mg 4p Î0 x 2 ´ mg
MT-120 JEE MAIN
g Magnetic field at the centre of the ring is

a=
4 m0I m 0 qf
B= =
g 2R 2R
Acceleration of block B, = 2a = .
2 2 7. (3) P-V indicator diagram for isobaric
Case II : T
P
T
dP
slope =0
A dV
20g
T =40 a V
and 20 g – T =20 a
After simplifying above equation, we get P-V indicator diagram for isochoric process
a =g/3
P
g/2 2 3 dP
= slope =¥
Ratio = . dV
g /3 2 2
-GM é æ r ö ù
2
3. (3) Vin = ê3 - ç ÷ ú ,
2R ê è R ø ú V
ë û
P-V indicator diagram for isothermal
-GM -GM process
Vsurface = , Vout =
R r
P
4. (2) T ¯ (300K to 70K ) dP - P
slope = =
dV V
T ¯ R metal ¯ R semi - conductor
(Al) (Si)
5. (4) When two rods are connected in series V
A(T1 - T2 )t A(T1 - T2 ) t 8. (4) Let 'S' be the distance between two ends
Q= =
d1 d 2 (d 1 + d 2 ) / K 'a' be the constant acceleration
+ As we know v2 – u2 = 2aS
K1 K1
v2 - u2
d + d 2 d1 d 2 or, aS =
\ 1 = + ; 2
K K1 K 2
Let vc be velocity at mid point.
(d1 + d 2 ) 2 2 S
\K = Therefore, vc - u = 2a
d1 d 2 2
+
K1 K 2
vc2 = u 2 + aS
6. (1) When the ring rotates about its axis with a
uniform frequency f Hz, the current flowing v2 - u 2
vc2 = u 2 +
in the ring is 2
I=
q
= qf u 2 + v2
vc =
T 2
Solutions-Mock Test-1 MT-121
9. (1) Angular retardation, Next 5 days 81´10

81 ¾¾ ¾¾¾® 8.1 » 73
w - w 2p(n2 - n1) 2p(0 - 900 / 60) p 100
a= 2 1 = = = - rad / s2.
t t 60 2 73 ´ 10
Next 5 days
73 ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾® 7.3 » 66
10. (1) Given : k A = 300 N / m, k B = 400 N / m 100
Let when the combination of springs is 15. (2) As mv > mr therefore, vv < vr.
compressed by force F. Spring A is
mmg
compressed by xA. Therefore compression 16. (1) a =
M
in spring B
x B = (8.75 - x A ) cm Body
m 3mmg
F = 300 ´ x A = 400(8.75 - x A ) fr
M plate
Solving we get, xA = 5 cm fr
x B = 8.75 - 5 = 3.75cm fr = mmg = Ma
1 17. (3) Einstein equation KE max = E – Work

k (x )2
EA 2 A A 300 ´ (5)2 4 function;
= = =
EB 1 2
k B (x B )2 400 ´ (3.75)
3 1
mv2 = E - W
2 2
Using this concept,
11. (1) From F < v(t) Þ m dv < R v(t)
R
1
t2 dt t 2 mV12 max
1 - .5 1
2 V max 1
= = or 1 =
dv Rdt 1 2.5 - .5 4 V
2 2 max 2
Integrating both sides ò v(t)
<ò
mt 2
2
mV2 max
R 18. (1) Velocity of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen

In v < , atom is given by :
mt
1 2pKZe2
[ ln v × Vn =
t nh
Substituting the values we get,
12. (2) In reverse bias on p-n junction when high
voltage is applied, electric break down of 2.2 ´ 106 1
Vn = m/s or Vn µ
junction takes place, resulting large increase n n
in reverse current. This high voltage applied As principal quantum number increases,
is called zener voltage. velocity decreases.
13. (2) If in nuclear reaction binding energy per T2 T2 1 5
19. (1) From h = 1 - , =1- h = 1- =
nucleon increases, energy is released. T1 T1 6 6
14. (2) Let initial amount be 100 gm. ...(i)
disintegrated Left In 2nd case :
100 ´ 10
5 days T2 - 62 2 2
100 gm ¾¾ ¾® 10 90 = 1 - h' = 1 - = .....(ii)
100 T1 6 3
Next 5 days 90 ´ 10
90 ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾® 9 81 2 2 6 4
100 Using (i), T2 – 62 = T1 = ´ T2 = T2
3 3 5 5
MT-122 JEE MAIN
1 4+ R 8
or T2 = 62, T2 = 310 K = 310 – 273 = 37°C =
5 80 60
64 64 - 24 40
6 6 R= -4= = W
T1 = T2 = ´ 310 = 372K 6 6 6
5 5
Hence, the value of unknown resistance R
= 372 - 273 = 99°C 20
20. (2) Given, is= W
3
V0 = 283 volt, w = 320, R = 5 W, L = 25 mH, C 23. (6.275) Pitch = 1 mm
= 1000 µF Number of divisions on circular scale = 200
XL = wL = 320 × 25 × 10–3 = 8 W Pitch
1 1 L.C =
XC = = = 3.1 W Number of divisions on circular scale
wC 320 ´ 1000 ´ 10 -6 1 mm
= = 0.005 mm = 0.0005 cm
Total impedance of the circuit : 200
Diameter of the wire = (Main scale reading
Z = R 2 + (XL - XC )2 = 25 + (4.9)2 = 7 W + Circular scale reading × L.C.) – zero error
= 6 mm + 45 × 0.005 – (– 0.05)
Phase difference between the voltage and = 6 mm + 0.225 mm + 0.05 mm = 6.275 mm
current 24. (20) The silvered plano convex lens behaves as
X - XC
tan f = L a concave mirror; whose focal length is
R given by
4.9
tan f = » 1 Þ f = 45° 1 2 1
5 = +
F f1 f m
21. (170)From Doppler's effect
æ 340 ö÷ If plane surface is silvered
f (direct) < f ççç ÷< f
è 340 , 5 ø÷ 1 R2 ¥
fm = = =¥
æ 340 ö÷ 2 2
f (by wall)=f çç ÷
èç 340+5 ø÷ = f2 1 æ 1 1 ö
Beats = (f1 – f2) \ = (m –1) ç – ÷
f1 R
è 1 R 2ø
æ 340 340 ö÷
5 < f ççç , ÷
è 340 , 5 340 ∗ 5 ø÷ æ 1 1 ö m –1
= (m – 1) ç – ÷ =
èR ¥ø R
Þ f < 170 Hz.
22. (6.67) In balan ce position of bridge, 1 2(m –1) 1 2(m –1)
\ = + =
P l F R ¥ R
=
Q (100 - l ) R
ÞF =
Initially neutral position is 60 cm from A, so 2(m – 1)
4 Q 16 8 Here R = 20 cm, m = 1.5
= ÞQ= = W
60 40 6 3
20
Now, when unknown resistance R is \ F= = 20cm
connected in series to P, neutral point is 2(1.5 –1)
80 cm from A then, 25. (0.25) Resistors 4 W, 6 W and 12 W are connected in
4+ R Q parallel, its equivalent resistance (R) is given
= by
80 20
1 1 1 1 12 Pdc 61.9
= + + Þ R= = 2W h= × 100 = × 100 = 40.05%
R 4 6 12 6 Pac 154.54
Again R is connected to 1.5 V battery 28. (5.3) This is a example of uniform circular motion.
whose internal resistance r = 1 W.
2p 7
Equivalent resistance now, w= = 2pn = 2p ´ = 0.44 rad / sec;
R¢ = 2W + 1W = 3W T 100
V = Rw = 0.44 × 12 = 5.3 cm/sec.
V 1.5 1 29. (23) Given, B = 4 × 10–5 T
Current, Itotal = = = A
R' 3 2 RE = 6.4 × 106 m
1 1 Dipole moment of the earth M = ?
Itotal = = 3x + 2x + x = 6x Þ x =
2 12 m0 M
\ Current through 4W resistor = 3x B=
4p d3
1 1
= 3× = A
12 4 4p´10-7 ´ M
Therefore, rate of Joule heating in the 4W 4 ´10-5 =
( )
3
resistor 4p´ 6.4 ´ 106
2
æ1ö 1
= I2R = ç ÷ ´ 4 = = 0.25W \ M @ 1023 Am2
4è ø 4
1
Normal force N N 30. (2) Total energy, E = mw 2 a 2 ;
26. (4) Stress < < < 2
Area A (2p a)b
3E 1
Stress = B×strain K.E. = = mw 2 (a 2 - y 2 ) .
4 2
N 2paΧa ≥ b
<B
(2pa)b pa 2 b 3 a2 - y2
= 2 a2 a
So, 2
or y = or y = .
4 a 4 2
(2pa) 2 Χab 2
ÞN<B CHEMISTRY
pa 2 b
31. (1) The order of stability of resonating
Force needed to push the cork.
structures: carrying no charge > carrying
f < m N < m 4pbΧaB = (4pmBb)Da minimum charge and each atom having
octet complete.
Vm 25
27. (40.05) Im = = = 24.75 mA 32. (1) Bond order in N2 and O 22+ is 3 (calculated
R f + R L (10 + 1000)
by energy level diagram)
Im 24.75 33. (2) In A — O — H, if EN of ‘A’ is 2.1 then it will
Idc = = = 7.87 mA
p 3.14 be neutral, as XA – X0 = X0 – XH. (where X
is EN)
Im 24.75
Irms = = = 12.37 mA 34. (2) Correct order is B < Be < O < N.
2 2 35. (4) In disproportionation reaction, one element
Pdc = Idc2 × RL = (7.87 × 10–3)2 × 103 = 61.9 of a compound will simultaneously get
mW reduced and oxidised. In ClO-4 , oxidation
Pac = Irms 2(Rf + RL) = (12.37 × 10–3)2 × (10 number of Cl is + 7 and it can not increase it
+ 1000) further. So, ClO-4 will not get oxidised and
= 154.54 mW so will not undergo disporportionation
Rectifier efficiency reaction.
MT-124 JEE MAIN
group on reaction with potassium iodide

[H 3 O + ][F – ]
36. (3) Ka = and and sod. hypochlorite yield iodoform.
[HF][H 2 O]
46. (1) D , air
2Al + 6HCl ¾¾¾® 2AlCl3 + 3H 2
–
[HF][OH ]
Kb = . 2Al + 3Cl 2 ¾¾
® 2AlCl3
[F – ][H 2 O]
1000 C
Therefore, Ka × Kb = [H3O+] [OH–] = Kw. Al 2O3 + 3C + 3Cl 2 ¾¾¾¾
® 2AlCl3 + 3CO
vapours
37. (4) The chemical bond method gives the O.N.
:O O:
:
:
:
:
: O O: Cooling
–
: : : :
:O – – –
: :
S = O : : O – S – S – O : :O – S – S – O:
: :
– : :
: :
–
:O +4
Anhydrous AlCl3
:
+3 +5 :O O:
D
:
38. (3) As Sb2S3 is a negative sol, so Al2(SO4)3 : AlCl3 .6H 2O ¾¾® Al(OH)3 + 3HCl + 3H 2O
will be the most effective coagulant due to Thus AlCl 3 cannot be obtained by this
method.
higher positive charge on Al (Al3+) – Hardy-
Schulze rule. CHCl
47. (1) Cl ¾¾®
3
39. (3) o-Nitrophenol is not sufficiently strong acid KOH
so as to react with NaHCO3.
40. (3) Because the layer of Al2O3 (oxide) is inert, HCl
NC ¾¾®
Cl 300 K
insoluble and impervious.
41. (4) Urotropine is used as antibiotic for urinary [Y]
tract infection.
42. (4) To convert covalent compounds into ionic
Cl + HCOOH
compounds such as NaCN, Na2S, NaX, etc.
43. (4)
[X]
48. (1) Let the rate law be r = [A]x[B]y
Zn 2+ + 2NH 4 OH ¾¾
® Zn(OH) 2 + 2NH 4+
0.10 [0.024]x [0.035] y
White ppt Divide (3) by (1) =
0.10 [0.012]x [0.035] y
Zn(OH)2 + 2NH 4 OH ¾¾
®(NH 4 ) 2 ZnO 2 + 2H 2 O
\ 1 = [2]x, x = 0
Soluble
0.80 [0.024]x [0.070] y
(NH 4 )2 ZnO2 + H 2S ¾¾
® ZnS + 2NH 4 OH Divide (2) by (3) =
0.10 [0.024]x [0.035]y
White ppt
\ 8 = (2)y , y = 3
44. (2) 5Fe2+ + MnO-4 + 8H+ ¾¾
® Hence rate equation, R = K[A]0[B]3 =K[B]3
49. (2)
Mn2+ + 4H2O + 5Fe3+
CH2– C – H
5NO -2 + 2MnO -4 + 6H + ¾® ||
O CH2– CH
2+
+ 5NO3- + 3H2O
Ozonolysis ||
2Mn H2C ¬¾¾¾¾ H2C
O CH2– CH
45. (3) Formaldehyde can not produce iodoform, ||
as only those compound which contains CH2– C – H
50. (3) D
either CH3 - CH - group or CH3 - C - 2H 2 O 2 ¾¾® 2 H 2 O + O 2
| ||
O ® 2KOH + I 2
2KI + H 2 O 2 ¾¾
OH
2KMnO 4 + 3H 2SO 4 + 5H 2 O 2 ¾¾
® Enthalpy of formation of AB is – 100 kJ/mol
K 2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2 O + 5O2 A 2 + B2 ® 2 AB;
51. (1.24) Energy = NA hn 1 1
A 2 + B2 ® AB; D f H = -100 kJ mol –1
495.5 = 6.023 × 1023 × 6.6 × 10–34 × n 2 2
495.5 ´ 103 æx xö
n= = 12.4 ´ 1014 or - 100 = ç + ÷ - x
6.023 ´ 1023 ´ 6.6 ´ 10-34 è2 4ø
= 1.24 × 1015 s–1. 2x + x - 4x
\ - 100 =
Cl 4
120° –1
1 x = 400 kJ mol
6 Cl
2 57. (210)Osmotic pressure (p) of isotonic solutions
52. (2.25) 3 Dipole moments
are equal. For solution of unknown substance
Cl 5 4 Cl C1(concentration).
of 2Cl and 5Cl are vectorically cancelled.
5.25 / M
It is due 1 Cl and 3 Cl C1 =
V
2 2
m 2 = m1 + m 2 + 2m1 m 2 cos q Where M represents molar mass.
For solution of urea, C2 (concentration)
= (1.5)2 + (1.5)2 + 2 ´ 1.5 ´ 1.5 cos120°
1.5 / 60
1 =
= 2.25 + 2.25 + 4.5 × – V
2
= 2.25 + 2.25 – 2.25 Given, p1 = p2
= 2.25 D Q p = CRT
\ m = 2.25 D \ C1RT = C2RT or C1 = C2 or
53. (0.5) Moles of H2SO4 in 98 mg of H2SO4 5.25/ M 1.5 / 60
=
1 V V
= ´ 0.098 = 0.001
98 \ M = 210 g/mol
Moles of H2SO4 remove 58. (0.04) DG 3 = DG1 + DG 2
20
3.01´10
= = 0.5 ´10 -3 = 0.0005 – n 3FE 3 = -n1FE1 - n 2 FE 2
6.02 ´ 10 23
Moles of H2SO4 left = 0.001 – 0.0005 n1E1 + n 2 E 2
= 0.5 × 10–3 E3 =
n3
54. (1.75)According to Boyle’s law
1 ´ 0.77 + 2 ( -0.44 )
V1 P2 750 360 E3 =
= ; = 3
V2 P1 V2 840
0.77 - 0.88 0.11
V2 = 1750 mL = 1.750 L = =- » - 0.04 V
3 3
55. (5.97) Isoelectric point (pI)
59. (6) 2MnO 2 + 4KOH + O 2 ¾¾
®
pK a1 + pK a 2 2.34 + 9.60
= = = 5.97
2 2 2K 2 MnO 4 + 2H 2 O
56. (400)Let bond energy of A2 be x then bond Oxidation number of Mn in K2MnO4 is 6
energy of AB is also x and bond energy of K2MnO4 ; 2 + x – 8 = 0
B2 is x/2. x = +6
MT-126 JEE MAIN
60. (0.241) Solid AB crystallizes as NaCl structure, so d æ dy ö d æ 1 ö

it has coordination number 6 and its r+/r– ç ÷ = ç- ÷
ranges from 0.414 – 0.732. dx è dx ø dx è x + 1 ø
For maximum radius of anion, we have to d2y 1
take the lower limit of the range 0.414 – \ = ...(ii)
2
+
dx ( x + 1)2
r
0.732. So, = 0.414 2
r- d2y
æ dy ö
From (i) and (ii), we get =ç ÷ .
2
dx è dx ø
0.100
Þ r–= nm = 0.241 nm 65. (3) Since AD is the median
0.414 A (2, 3, 5)
MATHEMATICS
61. (3) 2 tan 2 b + 1 1

= =
cos 2a tan b sin b cos b
Þ sin2b = cos2a = sin (90–2a)
p
Þ a+b=
4
B C
D
n (–1, 3, 2) (l, 5, m)
Cr r. n r -1 n - r +1 n - r +1
62. (2)
n
= . = æ l -1 m+2ö
Cr-1 r. n - r n n -r \ D=ç , 4, ÷
è 2 2 ø
n - r +1 Now, dr’s of AD is
= = n - r +1
n-r æ l -1 ö l-5
a =ç - 2÷ =
è 2 ø 2
5
\ å= n + (n -1) + (n - 2) + (n - 3) + (n - 4) b = 4 – 3 = 1, c =
m+2
2
-5 =
m -8
2
r =1
= 5n -10 = 5(n - 2) Also, a, b, c are dr’s
\ a = kl, b = km, c = kn where l = m = n
3
and l2 + m2 + n2 = 1
63. (2) 14
C7 + å 17-i C6
i =1 1
Þ l=m=n=
14 3
= C7 +14 C6 +15 C6 +16 C6 Now, a = 1, b = 1 and c = 1
=15 C7 +15 C6 +16 C6 Þ l = 7 and m = 10
66. (1) a1 = 2, b1 = 2,c1 = –1 and a2 = 1, b2 = 2, c2 = 2
=16 C7 +16 C6 =17 C7 a1a 2 + b1b2 + c1c 2
64. cos q =
(2) Given relation is ey(x + 1) = 1.
a12 + b12 + c12 a 22 + b 22 + c2 2
Differentiating both sides w r.t. x, we get
dy 2+ 4- 2 4
( x + 1)e y + e y ×1 = 0 = . =±
dx 4 + 4 +1 1+ 4 + 4 9
\
dy
=-
1 67. (3) Contrapositive of p Þ q is ~ q Þ ~ p
...(i)
dx x +1 \ contrapositive of (p Ú q) Þ r is
Differentiating again w r.t. x both sides, we get
~ r Þ ~ (p Ú q) i.e. ~ r Þ (~ p Ù ~ q)
68. (1) Let the co-ordiante of other ends are (x, y, z).
1 1 1 1 p4
The centre of sphere is C(3, 6, 1) 71. (1) + + + + ....¥ =
14 24 34 44 90
x+2 1 1 1 1 æ1 1 1 1 ö
Therefore, = 3Þ x = 4 + 4 + 4 + ..... + ¥ + 4 ç 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + ....¥÷
2 4
1 3 5 è
2 1 2 3 4 ø
y+3 z+5
= 6 Þ y = 9 and = 1 Þ z = -3 p4
2 2 =
90
dx
69. (1) I = ò
(x - b) ( x - a )(b - x )
1
4
+
1
4
+
1
4
+
1
4
+ .... + ¥ +
1 p4 p4
´ =
1 3 5 7 16 90 90
Put x = a sin 2 q + b cos 2 q 1 1 1 1 p 4 1 æ p4 ö
\ + + + + .... + ¥ = – ç ÷
dx = 2(a - b) sin q cos q dq
4
1 3 4 4
5 7 4 90 16 è 90 ø
Also, ( x - a) = (b - a ) cos 2 q 15 æ p4 ö p 4
= ç ÷= .
( x - b) = ( a - b) sin 2 q 16 è 90 ø 96
2( a - b) sin q cos q dq
72. (2) We have, f (x) = exp ( 5x - 3 - 2 x2 )
\I = ò (a - b) sin 2 q (b - a) sin q cos q 5 x - 3- 2 x 2
i.e. , f (x) = e
2 dq 2 For domain of f (x), 5 x - 3 - 2 x 2 should be
cosec 2q dq
b - a ò sin 2 q b - a ò
= =
+ve.
2 2 i.e., 5 x - 3 - 2 x 2 ³ 0
= (- cot q) + C = cot q + C
b-a a -b Þ 2 x2 - 5x + 3 £ 0
Now , x = a sin 2 q + b cos 2 q (By taking –ve sign common)
Þ 2 x( x - 1) - 3( x - 1) £ 0
Þ xcosec 2 q = a + b cot 2 q
Þ (2 x - 3)( x - 1) £ 0
2 2
Þ x (1 + cot q) = a + b cot q Þ 2x - 3 £ 0 or x -1³ 0
3
x-a Þ x£ or x ³1
\cot q = ; 2
b-x
3 é 3ù
\ 1£ x £ i.e., x Î ê1, ú
2 x -a 2 ë 2û
\I= +C Hence, domain of the given function is
a-b b- x
é 3 ù.
70. (4) Given planes are êë1, 2 úû
P : x + y – 2z + 7 = 0 73. (1) Given determinant
Q : x + y + 2z + 2 = 0 1 a a2
and R : 3x + 3y –6z – 11 = 0
c o s ( n - 1) x cos nx c os ( n + 1) x
Consider Plane P and R. =0
sin ( n - 1) x sin n x sin ( n + 1) x
Here a1 = 1, b1 = 1, c1 = – 2
and a2 = 3, b2 = 3, c2 = – 6 1 + a 2 - 2 a cos x a a2
a1 b1 c1 1 Þ 0 co s n x co s ( n + 1) x =0
Since, a = b = c = 3 0 sin n x sin ( n + 1) x
2 2 2
therefore P and R are parallel. By applying C1 ® C1 + C3 – 2 cos x C2
MT-128 JEE MAIN
By expanding Since, AB = 0, \ cos(q - f) = 0

(1 + a2 – 2a cos x) [cos nx sin (n + 1) x p
– sin nx cos (n + 1) x]= 0 \ q - f is an odd multiple of
2
Now, (1 + a2 – 2a cos x) sin (n + 1 – n) x = 0
2
76. (3) f ( x ) = xe x(1- x) , x Î R
Þ (1 + a - 2a cos x)sin x = 0
f ' ( x ) = e x(1- x) . é1 + x – 2 x 2 ù
1+ a 2 ë û
sin x = 0 or cos x = x(1- x ) é 2
2a = -e . 2 x - x –1ù
ë û
æ 1 + a2 ö x(1- x ) éæ 1ö ù
As a ¹ 1 \ç ÷ >1 = -2e . êç x + ÷ ( x - 1)ú
è 2a ø ëè 2ø û
f ' ( x ) = -2e ( ) . A
x 1- x
Þ cos x > 1 It is not possible.
æ 1ö
\ sin x = 0 where A = çè x + ÷ø ( x - 1)
2
æ 2p ö æ 2p ö
74. (4) We have, a = cos ç ÷ + i sin ç ÷ Now, exponential function is always +ve
è 7ø è 7ø and f ¢(x) will be opposite to the sign of A
7
é æ 2p ö æ 2p ö ù é 1 ù
Þ a7 = ê cos ç ÷ + i sin ç ÷ ú which is –ve in ê - ,1ú
ë è 7 ø è 7 øû
ë 2 û
= cos 2p + i sin 2p = 1 …(i)
Let S = a + b = (a + a2 + a4) + (a3 + a5 + a6) é 1 ù
Hence, f ¢(x) is +ve in ê - ,1ú
[ Q a = a + a2 + a4, b = a3 + a5 + a6] ë 2 û
é 1 ù
Þ S = a + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 + a6 \ f(x) is increasing on ê - ,1ú
ë 2 û
a (1 - a 6 ) 3
= 77. (1) Solving curves, we get
1- a 2
a - a7 a - 1 point of intersections (1, ±1).
Þ S= = = –1 …(ii) Required area 1
1- a 1 - 2a 4 3
Let P = ab = (a + a + a )(a + a + a6) 5
1æ 2 ö 2 –1
- y 2 ÷ dy = p - .
1 2
= a4 + a6 + a7 + a5 + a7 + a8 + a7 + a9 + a10 = 2ò ç
ç
0 1+ y 2 ÷ 3 –1
= a4 + a6 + 1 + a5 + 1 + a + 1 + a2 + a3 è ø
–2
[from Eq. (i)]
= 3 + (a + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 + a6) = 3 + S –3
=3–1=2 [from Eqn. (ii)]
Required equation is, x2 – Sx + P = 0 78. (4) Let y be the level of water at time t and x the
Þ x2 + x + 2 = 0 radius of the surface and V, the volume of
75. (1) We have, water.
D
é cos 2 q cos q sin qù é cos 2 f cos f sin fù C 5cm B
AB = ê 2 úê ú
êëcos q sin q sin q úû êëcos f sin f sin 2 f úû
écos2 q cos2 f + cos q cos f sin q sin f
=ê 2 2 R
ëê cos q sin q cos f + sin q cos f sin f M 10 cm
cos q cos f sin f + cos q sin q sin fù
2 2
ú
cos q cos f sin q sin f + sin2 q sin2 f ûú y
écos q cos f cos q sin fù
= cos( q - f) ê ú A x
ë sin q cos f sin q sin f û
We know that the volume of cone p

log p 2
1 =e =
= p (radius)2 × height 2
3 p
1 When x = log p , t = e 2 log =p
\ V = px 2 y. Let ÐBAD = a
3 p1 æ1 ö
BD 5 1
\I = ò p2
sec 2 ç t ÷
è3 ø
dt
Þ tan a = = = . 2
AD 10 2
p
Again, from right angled DAMR, 1 1é t ù
we have = . ê tan .ú
2 1ë 3 ûp2
MR x 1 x y 3
tan a = = ; Þ = ; \x = .
AR y 2 y 2 3 é p pù
2 = ê tan - tan ú
1 1 æ yö p 2 ë 3 6û
\V = p.x2y = p.ç ÷ .y = y3 ......(1).
3 3 è 2ø 12 3é 1 ù
By question, the rate of change of volume =
ê 3- ú= 3
2ë 3û
dV
= = 4 cub.cm./min. 81. (0) If the G.P be a, ar, ar2, .... then an = arn – 1
dt
We have to find out the rate of increase of log a + ( n - 1) log r log a + n log r log a + (n + 1) log r
log a + n log r log a + (n + 1) log r log a + ( n + 2) log r
dy D=
water-level i.e. . log a + ( n + 1) log r log a + ( n + 2) log r log a + ( n + 3) log r
dt
Differentiating (1) with respect to t, we get R3 ® R3 – R2 and R2 ® R2 – R1 gives,
dV p 2 dy p dy dy 16
= .3y . ; \ 4 = y2. ; \ = . log a + (n - 1)log r log a + n log r log a + (n + 1)log r
dt 12 dt 4 dt dt py2
When y = 6 cm, log r log r log r
=
dy 16 4 log r log r log r
= = cub.cm. / min .
dt p6 2 9p = 0, since R2 and R3 are identical.
79. (4) Slope of the tangent to 4x2 – 9y2 = 36 is 82. (0.80) Total no. of arrangements of the letters of
given by
10!
4x the word UNIVERSITY is .
dy dy 4x 2!
8x - 18y = 0Þ = or m1 =
dx dx 9 y 9y No. of arrangements when both I's are
Slope of the straight line, 5x + 2y – 10 = 0 is together = 9!
5 So. the no. of ways in which 2 I’s do not
m2 = -
2 10!
Therefore, for the perpendicularity, m1m2 = –1 together = - 9!
2!
4 x -5 10x \ Required probability
Now, ´ = -1 Þ y = .
9y 2 9
10!
10 x - 9!
Putting y = in 4 x 2 - 9 y 2 = 36 2! 10!- 9! 2!
= =
9 10! 10!
gives imaginary roots resulting in no 2!
tangents.
log p æ1 ö 10 ´ 9!- 9!.2! 9![10 - 2]
80. (1) I =ò e 2 x sec 2 ç e 2 x ÷ dx = =
log p 2 è 3 ø 10! 10 ´ 9!
Put e 2 x = t Þ 2 e 2 x dx = dt 8 4
= = = 0.80
p2
10 5
When x = log p 2 , t = e 2 log
MT-130 JEE MAIN
83. (0.25) n(S) = the area of the circle of radius r Now from equation (1), a + b + c ³ 3 (1)1/3
r Þ (a + b + c) ³ 3
n(E) = the area of the circle of radius Hence, minimum value of is a + b + c is 3.
2 88. (1.50) Sum of coefficients is obtained by simply
2 putting x = 1 in the expression
ærö
pç ÷ 199 200
n( E ) 2 1 æ2ö æ3ö
\ The probability = = è 2ø = . So, sum of coefficients = ç ÷ ´ç ÷
n( S ) pr 4 è3ø è2ø
-199 200
84. (0.33) P(E E) + P(E E E E E ) + ...¥ æ3ö æ 3ö 3200-199 3
= ç ÷ ´ ç ÷ = = = 1.50
5 1 æ 5ö
4
1 æ 5ö 1
8 è2ø è 2ø 2200-199 2
= ´ +ç ÷ ´ +ç ÷ + ...¥ 89. (14.00) Since 0 < y < x < 2y
6 6 è 6ø 6 è 6ø 6
x x
\ y> Þ x- y <
5 é æ 5ö ù 30
3
2 2
= ê1 + ç ÷ + ......¥ ú = \ x – y < y < x < 2x + y
36 ê è 6 ø úû 91
ë y+x
85. (7.00) Given equation of ellipse is Hence median = = 10
2
x2 y 2 Þ x + y = 20 ...(i)
+ =1
16 b 2 And range = (2x + y) – (x – y) = x + 2y
But range = 28
b2 \ x + 2y = 28 ...(ii)
eccentricity = e = 1 - From equations (i) and (ii),
16
x = 12, y = 8
b2 \ Mean
foci: ± ae = ± 4 1 - ( x - y ) + y + x + (2 x + y ) 4 x + y
16 = =
2 2 4 4
Equation of hyperbola is x - y = 1 y 8
144 81 25 = x + = 12 + = 14
4 4
x2 y2 dx
Þ - =1 90. (3.20) ò
144 81 cos3 x 4sin x cos x
25 25 dx
81 25
Eccentricity = e = 1 + ´ = 1+
81 =ò 4
25 144 144 2 cos x tan x
Let tan x = t2 Þ sec2 x = 1 + t4
225 15 sec2 x dx = 2t dt
= =
144 12 sec 4 x dx sec 2 x (sec2 x dx )
12 15 = ò2 tan x
= ò 2 tan x
foci: ± ae = ± ´ = ± 3
5 12 4
(1 + t )2t dt
Since, foci of ellipse and hyperbola coincide = ò 2t
= ò (1 + t 4 ) dt
b2
\ ± 4 1- = ± 3 Þ b2 = 7 t5
16 = t+ +k
86. (1.00) For x > 10, f (x) = x – 2. 5
Therefore, g(x) = x – 2 – 2 = x – 4 1
\ g¢(x) = 1. = tan x + tan 5 / 2 x + k ét = tan x ù
5 ë û
a+b+c 1
87. (3.00) Q A.M. ³ G.M. Þ ³ (abc)1/3 1 5
3 A= ,B= ,C=
2 2 5
Þ a + b + c ³ 3(abc)1/3 (1)
But given : ab2c3, a2b3c4, a3b4c5 are also in AP. 16
(Q abc ¹ 0) A+ B+C= = 3.20
5
Þ 2abc = 1 + a2b2c2 Þ (abc – 1)2 = 0
\ abc = 1
Mock Test-2
ANSWER KEY
1 (1) 16 (1) 31 (3) 46 (3) 61 (2) 76 (2)
2 (3) 17 (4) 32 (3) 47 (2) 62 (1) 77 (3)
3 (4) 18 (1) 33 (2) 48 (2) 63 (3) 78 (4)
4 (1) 19 (1) 34 (4) 49 (3) 64 (3) 79 (3)
5 (1) 20 (1) 35 (1) 50 (2) 65 (3) 80 (2)
6 (1) 21 (45°) 36 (4) 51 (546) 66 (1) 81 (16)
7 (3) 22 (7.6) 37 (4) 52 (8) 67 (1) 82 (3)
8 (4) 23 (2) 38 (4) 53 (1.47) 68 (1) 83 (0.5)
9 (3) 24 (45.5) 39 (3) 54 (2) 69 (1) 84 (2008)
10 (1) 25 (3) 40 (2) 55 (0.2303) 70 (1) 85 (18)
11 (3) 26 (5) 41 (4) 56 (4) 71 (1) 86 (12)
12 (3) 27 (0.5) 42 (2) 57 (2) 72 (1) 87 (0.75)
13 (4) 28 (6) 43 (4) 58 (964) 73 (3) 88 (0.38)
-2
14 (3) 29 (2 3 ) 44 (2) 59 (60) 74 (1) 89 (336.00)
15 (3) 30 (5) 45 (3) 60 (10.85) 75 (1) 90 (9)
Solutions
PHYSICS Therefore gravitational field due to the left over
part of the sphere
1. (1) Least count of vernier callipers
= value of one division of main scale GM ' 7 GM
= =
– value of one division of vernier scale x2 8 x2
Now, N × a = (N + 1) a' 3. (4)
(a' = value of one division of vernier scale) 4. (1) Charge conservation is violated in [2, 3, 4],
N nucleon conservation is violated in (4), (1) works.
a¢ = a
N +1
a æ1ö 1
\ Least count = a - a ¢ = 5. (1) C = sin –1 ç ÷ and m µ
N +1 èmø l
2. (3) Let mass of smaller sphere (which has to be
Yellow, orange and red have higher wavelengths
removed) is m
than green, so m will be less for these rays,
R consequently critical angle for these rays will be
Radius = (from figure)
2 high, hence if green is just totally internally
M m reflected then yellow, orange and red rays will
= emerge out.
4 3 4 æ R ö3
pR pç ÷ 6. (1) The conductivity of semiconductor
3 3 è2ø
M s = e (heµe + hhµh)
Þm= = 1.6 × 10 –19(5 × 1018 ×2 + 5 × 1019 × 0.01)
8
Mass of the left over part of the sphere = 1.6 × 1.05 = 1.68
M 7 1 1
M' = M - = M 7. (3) E1 = kx 2 , E 2 = ky 2 ,
8 8 2 2
MT-132 JEE MAIN
1 10. (1) Weight of cylinder = upthrust due to both

E= k(x + y) 2 = E1 + E 2 + 2 E1E 2 liquids
2
æA 3 ö æ A Lö
= 2 + 8 + 2 16 = 18J V ´ D ´ g = ç ´ L÷ ´ d ´ g + ç ´ ÷ ´ 2d ´ g
è5 4 ø è 5 4ø
8. (4) From figure, sin a = d/R
æA ö A´ L ´ d ´ g D d
Þ çè ´ L÷ø ´ D ´ g = Þ =
5 4 5 4
a R
5
\D= d
a 4
d b ( m - 1) b ( m - 1)
11. (3) Shift = t1 - t2
l l
b ( m - 1)
And we know,
mv 2
= qvB
= ( t1 - t2 )
l
R
mv ml 2
Þ R= 12. (3) I= ;
qB 12
dqB Restoring torque
\ sin a =
mv d 2q
= qElsin q » qEl q =
I
é 1 2ù dt 2
q
sin a = Bd êQ qV = 2 mv ú qEl qEl ´12 2p
2mV ë û \w = = =
I ml 2 T
9. (3) l ml
\T = p
3qE
A Y
13. (4) When object is kept at a distance ‘a’ from
Wire (1) thin convex lens
O
3A Y I1 v
a
l/3
Wire (2) 1 1 1
By lens formula : v – u = f
As shown in the figure, the wires will have the
1 1 1
same Young’s modulus (same material) and the – =
length of the wire of area of cross-section 3A will V (– a) f
be l/3 (same volume as wire 1). 1 1 1
or, = – ...(i)
F/A v f a
For wire 1, Y = ...(i)
D x/l Mirror forms image at equal distance from
F '/ 3 A mirror
For wire 2 , Y = ...(ii)
Dx /( l / 3)
F l F' l
From (i) and (ii) , ´ = ´ v v
A Dx 3 A 3Dx I1 I2
Þ F ' = 9F
Now, again from lens formula 18. (1) The linear relationship between v and x is
v = – mx + C where m and C are positive constants.
I3 I2 dv
\ Acceleration, a = v = -m ( -mx + C)
dx
a/3 \ a = m2x – mC
v Hence the graph relating a to x is
3 1 1 a
– =
a V f
x
3 1 1 1
– + = [From eqn. (i)]
a f a f
Hence, a = 2f
14. (3) The equation of wave moving in negative x-
19. (1) Divide the ring into infinitely small lengths
direction, assuming origin of position at x = 2 and
of mass dm1. Even though mass distribution is
origin of time (i.e. initial time) at t = 1 sec.
non-uniform, each mass dm1 is at same distance
y = 0.1 sin (2pt + 4x) R from origin.
Shifting the origin of position to left by 2m, that \ MI of ring about z-axis is
is, to x = 0. Also shifting the origin of time = dm1R2 + dm2 R2 + ...........+ dmnR2 = MR2
backwards by 1 sec, that is to t = 0 sec.
-dV
y = 0.1 sin (2p (t – 1) + 4 (x – 2)) 20. (1) E = V = 5x2 + 10x –9,
dx
v–u -d
15. (3) Acceleration (a) = = E= (5x2 + 10x – 9) = – (10x + 10)
t dx
(0 , 50) On putting value of x in it we get,
< ,5 m / s 2
(10 , 0) E = –(10 × 1 + 10) = –20 V/m
u = 50 m/s 21. (45°) If T is the tension i n the string , Then
\ v = u + at = 50 – 5t T = mg (For outer masses)
Veocity in first two seconds t = 2 2T cos q = 2mg (For inner mass)
v(at t <2) < 40 m / s Eliminating T, we get 2(mg) cos q = 2mg
From work-energy theorem, or cos q = 1/ 2 Þ q = 45°
1 22. (7.6) Here I = 4A
ΧK.E. < W < (402 , 502 )´10 <,4500 J
2 æ 30 ´ p ö p
16. (1) For a particle undergoing SHM with an q= 30° = ç ÷=
amplitude A and angular frequency w, the è 180 ø 6
maximum acceleration = w2A I 4 4´6´7 2´6´7
Here the maximum force on the particle = QE0 Now, k = = = =
q æpö 22 11
QE 0 ç ÷
\ maximum acceleration = = w2A è ø
6
m
QE 0 84
\ A= = = 7.6 A / rad
mw 2 11
1 hc 23. (2) Centre of mass of the rod is given by:
17. (4) mv2 = - f L
2 l bx 2
1 hc 4hc ò (ax + L
aL2 bL2 L æ a + b ö
) dx
+ ç ÷
mn '2 = -f= -f. xcm = 0 L = 2 3 = è 2 3ø
2 (3l / 4) 3l bL b
bx aL + a+
Clearly, v ¢ >
4
v
ò (a + L )dx 2 2
0
3
MT-134 JEE MAIN
a b mWCW
+ \ Specific heat of liquid , Cl =
7L 2 3 ml
Now =
12 b 50 ´ 1
a+ = = 0.5 kcal / kg
2 100
On solving we get, b = 2a 28. (6) From question,
24. (45.5) Given : hR = 50 m B0 = 20 nT = 20 × 10–9T
hT = 32 m r r r
Maximum distance, dM = ? E0 = B0 ´ C
r r r
Applying, dM = 2Rh T + 2Rh R | E 0 |=| B0 | . | C |= 20 ´ 10-9 ´ 3 ´ 108 = 6 V/m.
(Q velocity of light in vacuum C = 3 × 108 ms–1)
= 2 ´ 6.4 ´106 ´ 32 + 2 ´ 6.4 ´106 ´ 50
-2
= 45.5 km
29. ( 2 3 ) For isothermal process :
25. (3) Given : m = 0.160 kg
PV = Pi .2V
q = 60°; v = 10 m/s
® ® P = 2Pi ...(i)
Angular momentum L = r ´ m v For adiabatic process
= H mv cos q PVg = Pa (2V)g
v2 sin 2 q é v2 sin 2 q ù (Q for monatomic gas g= 5 3 )
= mv cos q êH = ú
2g ëê 2g ûú 5 5
2 2 or, 2Pi V 3 = Pa (2V) 3 [From (i)]
10 ´ sin 60°´ cos 60°´ 0.160 ´ 10
=
2 ´10 -2
= 3 kg m2/s Pa 2 P
Þ = 5 Þ a =2 3
26. (5) Power factor (old) Pi Pi
R R R 23
= = =
5R 30. (5) D
R 2 + XL2 R 2 + (2R)2
Power factor(new)
R R X Y
= =
R 2 + (X L - XC )2 R 2 + (2R - R) 2
R C
=
2R Equivalent resistance = 5W
R
New power factor 2R = 5
\ = CHEMISTRY
Old power factor R 2
5R 31. (3) Cd(s) + 2 Ag + (aq) ¾
¾®
27. (0.5) As the surrounding is identical, vessel is
identical time taken to cool both water and liquid Cd 2 + (aq) + Ag (s),
(from 30°C to 25°C) is same 2 minutes, therefore [Cd 2 + ]
0.059
E cell = E cell – log
æ dQ ö æ dQ ö 2 [Ag + ]2
çè ÷ø =ç ÷
dt water è dt ø liquid
m
(mw C w + W)DT (ml Cl + W) D T 32. (3) Gas equation is PV = RT ...(i)
or, = M
t t
(W = water equivalent of the vessel) P m 2
Again V = 1 R. T ...(ii)
or , m w C w = m l C l 2 M 3
Divide (i) by (ii) 39. (3) µ2

m 3 µ3
2= ´
m1 2 Cl
3 1 x
\ m1 = m . Gas escaped is then = m a µ1
4 4 I Cl
a
33. (2) Molecule Hybridization x
SO3 µ3 Cl
sp2
C2H2 sp µ2
C2H4 sp2 (µD ¹ 0)
Molecule is polar and planar.
CH4 sp3 Both ÐCl I Cl are equal
CO2 sp Equatorial I – Cl bond has more s-character than
axial I–Cl bond.
34. (4) (1) Tranquillizers are the substances used 40. (2) Since the compound is formed by hydration
for the treatment of mental diseases. These act of an alkene, to get the structure of alkene remove
on higher centres of the central nervous system. a molecule of water from the alcohol.
These are also called psychotherapeutic drugs. -H O
CH3 C H CH 3 ¾¾¾®
2
CH 2 = CHCH 3
(2) Vitamin C, Vitamin E and b-carotene are | Propylene
antioxidants. OH
Isopropyl alcohol
(substances that act against oxidants).
(3) Sodium or potassium salt of a long chain 41. (4) Na reacts vigorously with water (exothermic
process ).
fatty acid is called soap.
D
35. (1) 42. ® N2 + 2H2O
(2) (1) NH4NO2 ¾¾
; as [Cl- ] , E
0.0591 1 (2) (NH4)2SO4 ¾¾
D
® NH3 + H2SO4
E = E° - log
2 [Cl ]
- 2
(3) 2NH4ClO4 ¾¾
D
® N2 + Cl2 + 2O2 + 4H2O
36. (4) Ester of dicarboxylic acids undergo an D
(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 ¾¾ ® N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
intramolecular version of the claisen
condensation when a five or six membered ring 43. (4) In first case the given compounds have
can be formed. This reaction is an example of a same anion but different cations having different
Dieckmann’s condensation charge hence they will precipitate negatively
37. (4) (1) The change of atmospheric charged sol i.e. ‘A’.
temperature with altitude is called the lapse rate. In second case the given compounds have
(2) The gases responsible for greenhouse similar cation but different anion with different
effects are CO2, water vapour, CH4 and ozone. charge. Hence they will precipitate positively
(3) The order of contribution to the acid charged sol. i.e. ‘B’.
rain is HgSO
H2SO4 > HNO3 > HCl 44. (2) HC º CH ¾¾¾¾
4®
H2SO4
H2
38. (4) CH3 CH2 CH CH CH 2 ¾¾®
Pt CH 3 - CHO ¾¾¾¾¾¾
®
aldol reaction
Cl OH
|
Et CH Et optically inactive. CH3 – CH – CH2 – CHO
3 2 1
Cl 3-hydroxy butanal
MT-136 JEE MAIN
Br 50. (2) Given kb = x K kg mol–1

Br /hn Alcoholic
DTb = kb × m
45. (3) ¾¾®
2
¾¾¾®
KOH/D \ y= x × m
y K y
(X) (Y)
m< –1
< mol Kg –1
H x K Kg mol x
We know
H – Br
Br H Br DTf = kf × m
¾¾¾® ¾¾®
Peroxide On substituting value of m,
(Z)
yz
46. (3) (1) When a dilute solution of an acid is DTt = K
added to a dilute solution of a base, neutralization x
zM
reaction takes place. 51. (546) Use d =
(2) In acid-base titrations, at the end point, the NA a 3
amount of acid becomes chemically equilvalent to z = 4; M = 40 + 2 × 19 = 78
the amount of base present. zM
(3) In the case of a strong acid and a strong a3 =
base titration, at the end point the solution NA d
becomes neutral (i.e., pH = 7) 4 ´ 78
(4) In acid-base titrations the end point is =
determined by the hydrogen ion concentration 6.022 ´1023 ´ 3.18
of the solution. a = 546 pm
NO2 NO2 52. (8)
47. (2)
1 1
CHO CHOH
6
CH3ONa CH2OH
¾¾¾¾® 2
CH2
2
CH2
CH3OH, D 5 O
Br SNAr Br 3 3 4 1
CHOH CHOH O or HO H OH
Cl OCH3
(X) (Y)
4
CHOH
4
CHOH 3 2
OH
O O H
5
C OH H
5
C
|| NaOI
||
48. (2) X – C – OH3 ¾¾¾Å
® X – C – OH CH2OH CH2OH
H 6 6
O O
|| || D- Aldohexose D- Aldohexopyranose
SOCl2 Ph,NH 2
¾¾ ¾¾ ↑ X – C – Cl ¾¾¾¾↑ X – C – NH – Ph Thus, total number of stereoisomers in pyranose
O form of D-configuration = 23 = 8
(HNO ∗H SO ) 53. (1.47) Volume of gold foil = 25 × 40 × 0.25 mm3
¾¾ ¾¾¾
3 2 ¾¾
4 ↑
X – C – NH NO2
= 250 × 10–3 cm3
49. (3) Mass of gold foil = 19.32 × 250 × 10–3 g
CH3 – C – O – CH2 – CH3 = 4.83 g
H3O+ 4.83
No. of gold atoms = ´ N A = 1.47 × 1022
CH2 197
(X) 54. (2) A B
CH3 – C – OH + HO – CH2 – CH3 Initial concentration Rate of reaction
(Z) 2 × 10–3 M 2.40 × 10–4 Ms–1
–3
1 × 10 M 0.60 × 10–4 Ms–1
CH2
rate of reaction r = k[A]x
where x = order of reaction
CH3 – C – CH3 hence
O 2.40 × 10–4 = k [2 × 10–3]x ......(i)
(Y) 0.60 × 10–4 = k [1 × 10–3]x ......(ii)
On dividing eqn.(i) from eqn. (ii) we get 59. (60) According to Arrhenius equation
4 = (2)x k Ea æ 1 1 ö
log 2 = -
\ x=2 k1 2.303R çè T1 T2 ÷ø
i.e. order of reaction = 2
1.3 ´ 10-3 Ea é 1 1 ù
log = -
55. (0.2303) k =
2.303 [A ]
log 0 ; 1.3 ´ 10 -42.303 ´ 8.314 ë 373 423 úû
ê
t [A] Ea é 1 1 ù
1= -
[A 0 ] 2.303 ´ 8.314 ë 373 423 úû
ê
2.303 ´ 1 = 2.303 log
[A] Ea = 60 kJ / mol
[A0 ] 60. (10.85) For this cell, reaction is; Zn + Fe2+ ®
= 10
[A] Zn2+ + Fe
1 0.0591 c 0.0591 c
\ [A] Þ Þ 0.1 E = E° - log 1 ; E° = E + log 1
10 n c2 n c2
\ rate after 1 min r 1= k × [A]
0.0591 10 -2
Þ 2.303 × 0.1 Þ 0.2303 M min–1 E° = 0.2905 + log -3 = 0.32 V.
3
. 1
2 10
0.0591
56. (4) E° = log K eq
2
4 2
0.32 ´ 2 0.32
log K eq = =
0.001 0.0591 0.0295
57. (2) Dv = × 30,000 = 0.3 cm sec–1
100 0.32
According to uncertainty principle, \ K eq = 10 0.0295
h h
Dx . Dp » ; Dx.Dv » Comparing the value of 10x,
4p 4pm
6.625 ´ 10 27 ´ 7 0.32
Dx × 9.1 × 10–28 × 0.3 » x= = 10.847 » 10.85
4 ´ 22 0.0295
Dx » 1.93 cm. » 2
MATHEMATICS
1 3 NH 3 ;
58. (964) Given N 2 + H 2 f (3 + h) - f (3)
2 2 +
61. (2) f ¢(3 ) = lim
DHf = - 46.0 kJ / mol h ®0 h
H 2 ; DH f = - 436 kJ / mol
H + H (2 - e h ) - 1 æ e h - 1ö
= lim = - lim ç ÷ = -1
h®0 h h®0 è h ø
N 2 ; DH f = - 712 kJ / mol
N + N
f (3 - h) - f (3)
1 f ¢(3- ) = lim
ΧH f ∋ NH3 ( < ΧH N,N ∗ h®0 -h
2
3 10 - (3 - h)2 - 1 1 + (6h - h 2 ) - 1
ΧH H,H , ΧH N,H = lim = - lim
2 h ®0 -h h ®0 -h
1 3
,46 < ∋,712( ∗ ∋,436( , ΧH N,H = lim
6h - h 2 =
-6
= -3
2 2 2
h ®0 2
On calculation - h( 1 + 6h - h + 1)
ΧH N,H < , 964 kJ / mol Hence, f ' (3+) ¹ f (3–)
MT-138 JEE MAIN
62. (1) We have |z+1| = |z+4–3| ...(i) 67. (1) f (x) = x2 – 4x + a

Now | z + 4 - 3 | £ | z + 4 | + | -3 | £ 3 + 3 = 6 = x2 – 4x + 4 – 4 + a
[Given | z + 4 | £ 3 & | - 3 | = 3 ] \| z + 1 | £ 6 = (x – 2)2 + (a – 4)
Again | z + 1 | ³ 0 [modulus is always non- So, a Î (4, ¥) for domain [2, ¥) and range (0, ¥)
negative] 68. (1) For real roots D ³ 0
\ Least value of |z + 1| may be zero, which occurs
when z = –1, For z = –1, |z + 4| = |–1 + 4| = 3 (k – 2)2 – 4 (k2+ 3k + 5) ³ 0
Which satisfies the given condition that |z + 4| ³ 3 (k2 + 4 – 4k) – 4k2 – 12k – 20 ³ 0
Hence, the least and the greatest values of | z + 1 | – 3k2 – 16k –16 ³ 0 ; 3k2 + 16k + 16 £ 0
are 0 and 6.
63. (3) æ 4ö
çè k + ÷ø (k + 4) £ 0
2 2 2 3
æ 1ö æ 2ö 2 æ 3x + 4y - 1ö
çè x - ÷ø + çè y - ÷ø = (l - 4l + 4) çè ÷ø Now E = a 2 + b2 ; E = (a + b) 2 - 2ab
5 5 5
æ 1ö
2
æ 2ö
2
3x + 4y - 1 E = (k – 2)2 – 2 (k2 + 3k + 5) = –k2 – 10k – 6
i.e., çè x - ÷ø + çè y - ÷ø = | l - 2 | E = – (k2 + 10k + 6) = – [(k + 5)2 – 19]
5 5 5
is an ellipse. = 19 – (k + 5)2
If 0 < | l – 2 | < 1 i.e., l Î (1, 2) È (2, 3) \ Emin occurs when k = – 4/3
64. (3) One vertex of square is (– 4, 5) and equation 121 171 - 121 50
of one diagonal is 7x – y + 8 = 0 \ Emin = 19 - = =
9 9 9
Diagonal of a square are perpendicular and bisect Emax occurs when k = – 4
each other Emax = 19 – 1 = 18
Let the equation of the other diagonal be y = mx +
c where m is the slope of the line and c is the 20! 20! p
69. (1) (2x)p (-y)q (z)r = 2 (-1)q x p yq z r
y-intercept. p!q!r! p!q!r!
Since this line passes through (– 4, 5) p + q + r = 20, q = 0
\ 5 = –4m + c … (i)
Since this line is at right angle to the line p + r = 20 (p is even and r is odd).
7x – y + 8 = 0 or y = 7x + 8, having slope = 7, even + odd = even (never possible)
-1 Coefficient of such power never occur
\ 7 × m = – 1 or m = \ coefficient is zero
7
Putting this value of m in equation (i) we get 70. (1)
31 Starting with 1 23456789
C=
7
Hence equation of the other diagonal is = 8C4 = 70
1 31 or x + 7y = 31. Starting with 2 3 4 56 7 8 9
y=- x+
7 7
65. (3) p Þ q º ~ p Ú q \~ ( p Þ q) º pÙ ~ q. = 7C4 = 35
Total = 105
sin x æ x cos x - sin x ö
3
(105)th number 26789
66. (1) ò e ç
ç ÷÷ dx
è cos2 x ø 1 ˆ 1
71. ˆ ˆ ˆ - (a.b)c
(1) (a.c)b ˆˆ ˆ= b+ cˆ
= òe sin x
x cos x dx – ò e sin x
tan x sec x dx 2 2
1
ò x d (e )–òe
1
=
sin x sin x
d (sec x) \ a.c ˆˆ= and â.bˆ = -
2 2
= xe{ sin x
-ò e sin x
dx } Þ angle between aˆ and cˆ =
p
and angle
4
{
– esin x sec x - ò esin x sec x cos x dx } between â and bˆ =
3p
=x esin x – esin x sec x + C 4
72. (1) |z1 + z2| £ |z1| + |z2| = |24 + 7i| + 6 = 25 + 6 = 31 75. (1) 4x3 + 4y3 (dy/dx) = 0 Þ dy/dx = –x3/y3
Also, |z1 + z2| = |z1 – (–z2)| ³ ||z1| – |z2|| Equation of tangent, Y – y = – x3/y3 (X–x)
Þ |z1 + z2| ³ | 25 – 6| = 19 Þ y3Y + x3X = x4 + y4 = a4
Hence the least value of |z1 + z2| is 19 and the X Y
Þ + =1
4 3
greatest value is 31. a /x a / y3
4
73. (3) The coordinates of points P, Q, R are Here, p = a4/x3, q = a4/y3

(–1, 0), (0, 0), (3,3 3) respectively..
Þ p -4 / 3 + q -4 / 3 =
a -16 / 3
x -4
+
a -16 / 3
y -4
(
= a -16 / 3 x 4 + y 4 )
Slope of QR = 3 Y R (3, 3 3 )
= a -16 / 3 (a 4 ) = a -4 / 3
Þ tan q = 3 M
76. (2) Let the equation of curve
p y2(2a – x) = x3 ...(i)
Þ q=
3 2p / 3 p /3
X'
P (–1, 0) Q (0, 0)
X and equation of line x = 2a ...(ii)
p The given curve is symmetrical about x-axis and
Þ ÐRQX = Y'
3 passes through origin.
p 2p x3
\ ÐRQP = p - = From (i) we have, y2 =
3 3 2a - x
Let QM bisects the ÐPQR , x3
But < 0 for x > 2a and x < 0
2a - x
2p
\ Slope of the line QM = tan =– 3 So, curve does not lie in the portion x > 2a and
3
x < 0, therefore curve lies in 0 £ x £ 2a .
\ Equation of line QM is (y – 0) = – 3 (x – 0)
\ Area bounded by the curve and line
Þ y= – 3x Þ 3 x + y= 0 2a 2a
x3/2
74. (1) Given
ò 2 1+ sin x dx = -4cos(ax + b) + C
= ò ydx =
ò 2a - x
dx
0 0
Put x = 2a sin2q and dx = 4a sin q cos q dq
æ x xö
Þ ò 2 ç sin + cos ÷ dx = -4cos(ax + b) + C p/2
é3 1 pù
ò 8a
2
è 2 2ø \ I= sin 4 q dq = 8a 2 ê . . ú
0
ë4 2 2û
æ 1 x 1 xö
Þ ò 2. 2ç
è 2
sin +
2 2
cos ÷ dx
2ø æ p/2 G
m + 1 n +1ö
G
2 2 ÷
= –4 cos(ax + b) + C ç using
çè
m
ò n
sin x cos x dx =
2G
m + n + 2 ÷
÷
0 ø
æ p x p xö 2
Þ ò 2 çè cos 4 sin 2 + sin 4 cos 2 ÷ø dx 3pa 2
= sq. unit
= –4 cos(ax + b) + C 2
77. (3) Rewrite the given differential equation as
æ x pö
Þ ò 2 sin çè 2 + 4 ÷ø dx = –4 cos(ax + b) + C follows :
dy 2x 1
+ y= 2 , which is a linear form
æx pö dx x 2 - 1 x -1
Þ -4 cos ç + ÷ = -4 cos(ax + b) + C
è2 4ø The integrating factor I.F.
1 p ò
2x
dx
Þ a= , b=
=e x 2 -1 = e ln ( x
2 -1)
= x 2 -1
2 4
MT-140 JEE MAIN
Thus multiplying the given equation by

80. (2) For non-trivial solution,
dy 2
( x - 1), we get ( x - 1)
2 + 2 xy = 1
dx 2a sin B cos B
d D= 1 cos B sin B =0
Þ [ y( x 2 - 1)] = 1 -1 sin B - cos B
dx
On integrating we get y( x 2 - 1) = x + c Þ a 2 [- cos 2 B - sin 2 B] - sin B [ - cos B + sin B]

78. (4) f2 (x) = f (f (x)) = f (x) = x
+ cos B [sin B + cos B] = 0
f3 (x) = f (f2 (x)) = f (x) = x
Þ -a 2 + sin 2B + cos 2B = 0 Þ a Î[-1,1]
Þ x3 – 25x2 + 175x – 375 = 0
(x – 5) (x2 – 20x + 75) = 0 81. (16.00)
C(a, 80)
(x – 5)2 (x – 15 ) = 0 Þ x = 5, 15 A (0, 20)
sin 2 x
79. (3) Let I1 = ò0 sin -1 t dt M
2
Put t = s in u Þ d t = 2 sin u c o s u d u
Þ dt = sin 2udu
O(0, 0) N B (a, 0)
x
\I1 = ò0 u sin 2u du We put one pole at origin.
cos 2 x BC = 80 m, OA = 20 m
Let I2 = ò0 cos -1 t dt Line OC and AB intersect at M.
2
Put t = cos v Þ dt = - 2 cos v sin v dv To find: Length of MN.
Þ dt = - sin 2 v dv æ 80 - 0 ö
Eqn of OC: y = ç x
x x è a - 0 ÷ø
\I 2 = ò p v ( - sin 2v ) dv = - ò p v sin 2v dv
80
2 2 Þ y= x ...(1)
x a
= -ò p
u sin 2u du [change of variable]
æ 20 - 0 ö
Eqn of AB: y = çè ÷ ( x - a)
2
\ I = I 1 + I2 0-a ø
x x
-20
= ò0 u sin 2u du - ò p u sin 2u du
Þ y= ( x - a) ...(2)
2 a
p At M: (1) = (2)
2 x x 80 -20
( x - a)
ò òp
= u sin 2u du + u sin 2u du - u sin 2u du òp Þ
a
x=
a
0
80 -20 a
2 2 Þ x= x + 20 Þ x =
p a a 5
2 80 a
p
ò
= u sin 2u du =
4
[Integrate by parts] \ y= ´ = 16
a 5
0
n
3 Ck 1
82. (3.00) x + iy = 85. (18.00) n
=
cos q + i sin q + 2 C k +1 2
1 cos q + i sin q + 2 n! (k + 1)!(n - k - 1)! 1

Þ = Þ =
x + iy 3 k! (n - k)! n! 2
x - iy 1 k +1 1
Þ = [(cos q + 2) + i sin q] or =
( x + iy) ( x - iy) 3 n-k 2
x 1 2k + 2 = n – k
Þ = (cos q + 2) n – 3k = 2 ...... (1)
2 2 3
x +y
n
x 2 1 Ck +1 2
Þ - = cos q Similarly, n
=
2 2 3 3 Ck + 2 3
x +y
y 1 n! (k + 2)!(n - k - 2)! 2
and - 2 2
= sin q . =
x +y 3 (k + 1)! (n - k - 1)! n! 3
Squaring and adding, we get
k+2 2
æ
2 2 =
ç x 2 ö æ - y ö÷ 1 n - k -1 3
- ÷ +ç =
ç x 2 + y2 3 ÷ ç x 2 + y2 ÷ 9 3k + 6 = 2n – 2k – 2
è ø è ø
2n – 5k = 8 ...... (2)
1
Þ (3 - 4 x ) + 1 = 0 From (1) and (2)
x + y2
2
n = 14 and k = 4
Þ 3 - 4x = - x 2 - y 2 \ n + k = 18
86. (12.00) Let the observations be x1, x2, x3, x4, x5
Þ 4x - x 2 - y 2 = 3 and x6, so
83. (0.50) Let A be the event such that sum is Rs. 20 6
or more å xi 6
\ P (1) = 1 – P (Total value is < 20) their mean x = i =1
= 8 Þ å xi = 48
6
C2 - 2C2 14 1 1 6 i =1
= 1- 8
= 1- = 1- = On multiplying each observation by 3, we get
C2 28 2 2
the new observations as 3x1, 3x2, 3x3, 3x4, 3x5
and 3x6.
Now, their mean
6
p å 3x i
3 ´ 48
84. (2008.00) q1 + q2 = =x =
i =1
= 24 =
2 6 6
q2 q2
dq tan q dq Variance of new observations
\ I= ò = ò 1 + tan q
æp ö
q1 1 + tan ç - q÷
6 6
è2 ø
q1
å (3x i - 24) 2 32 å (x i - 8) 2
i =1
q2 dq = = i =1
and also I = ò 6 6
q1 1 + tan q
= 9 × Variance of old observations
q2
1002p 501p = 9 × 42 = 144
\ 2I = ò dq = q2 - q1 = 2008
ÞI=
2008 Thus, standard deviation of new observations
q1
Hence, K = 2008. = Variance = 144 = 12
MT-142 JEE MAIN
(tan x)3/ 2 [1 - (cos x)3/ 2 ] 90. (9.00) 2 sec 4C + sin22A + sin B = 0

87. (0.75) lim 3/ 2 2 .
x ®0 x .x A = 45°, B = 90° and C = 45°
1 - cos3 x 1 C
lim .
= 1× x ®0 x 2
1 + (cos x) 3/2
P
1 1 2 3 Q
= . (1 + cos x + cos x) = = 0.25
2 2 4
88. (0.38) n = 3, P (success) = P (HT or TH) = 1/2
1 A
Þ p=q= and r = 2 R,B
2
2 a
æ 1ö 1 3 Let AQ = a, then BP = ,
P (r = 2) = 3C2 ç ÷ . = = 0.38 2
è 2ø 2 8
a
89. (336.00) Let S = {1, 2, 3} Þ n(S) = 3 PQ = and QR = a
Now, P (S) = set of all subsets of S 2
total no. of subsets = 23 = 8 a2 5a
\ PR = a 2 + =
\ n[P(S)] = 8 4 2
Now, number of one-to-one functions from S ® a 5a
\ 1: a : b = :a : = 1: 2 : 5
8! 2 2
P(S) is 8P3 = = 8 × 7 × 6 = 336.
5! \ a = 2 and b = 5 \ a 2 + b2 = 9
Mock Test-3
ANSWER KEY
1. (3) 16. (4) 31. (3) 46. (4) 61. (4) 76. (4)
2. (1) 17. (2) 32. (3) 47. (4) 62. (1) 77. (1)
3. (1) 18. (1) 33. (3) 48. (2) 63. (2) 78. (3)
4. (2) 19. (1) 34. (1) 49. (4) 64. (2) 79. (1)
5. (1) 20. (2) 35. (4) 50. (4) 65. (1) 80. (4)
6. (1) 21. (1600) 36. (2) 51. (2) 66. (4) 81. (2.33)
7. (2) 22. (0.025) 37. (2) 52. (14.28) 67. (4) 82. (9.00)
8. (3) 23. (19039) 38. (4) 53. (2) 68. (3) 83. (32.00)
9. (2) 24. (0.33) 39. (1) 54. (80) 69. (2) 84. (343.00)
10. (1) 25. (1.25) 40. (1) 55. (5.0) 70. (1) 85. (3.00)
11. (3) 26. (72) 41. (3) 56. (1) 71. (3) 86. (0.53)
8
12. (3) 27. (4.8 × 10 ) 42. (1) 57. (395) 72. (2) 87. (2.00)
13. (2) 28. (0.2) 43. (2) 58. (3) 73. (2) 88. (3.00)
14. (1) 29. (8) 44. (1) 59. (3) 74. (1) 89. (0.50)
15. (3) 30. (10) 45. (1) 60. (1.14) 75. (1) 90. (0.50)
Solutions
PHYSICS -GMm
Ei = +K
1. (3) For total internal reflection on face AC R
q > critical angle (C) and sinq ³ sinC Ei = E f
1 Therefore minimum required energy,
sin q ³
wm g 5GMm
4 K=
6R
mw
sin q ³ Þ sin q ³ 3 3. (1) The forces acting on the block are shown.
mg 3 Since the block is not moving forward for the
2 maximum force F applied, therefore
8 F cos 60° = f = µN... (i) (Horizontal Direction)
\ sin q ³ .
9 Note: For maximum force F, the frictional force
2. (1) As we know, is the limiting friction = µN]
-GMm and F sin 60° + mg = N... (ii)
Gravitational potential energy = From (i) and (ii)
r
N
and orbital velocity, v0 = GM / R + h
1 GMm 1 GM GMm F cos 60o
Ef = mv02 - = m -
2 3R 2 3R 3R mg 60
o
f
GMm æ 1 ö - GMm
= ç - 1÷ =
3R è 2 ø 6R F
F sin 60o
MT-144 JEE MAIN
F cos 60° = µ [F sin 60° + mg] 6. (1) For particle C,

m mg According to law of conservation of linear
Þ F= momentum, verticle component,
cos 60° - m sin 60° 2 mv' sin q = mv sin 60° + mv sin 45°
1 mv mv 3
´ 3 ´ 10 2mv 'sin q = + ...... (i)
2 3 5 2 2
= = = 20 N
1 1 3 1 Horizontal component,
- ´
2 2 3 2 4 2 mv' cos q = mv sin 60° – mv cos 45°
4. (2) If student will use angular momentum mv mv ...... (ii)
2mv'cos q = -
= mvr. 2 2
He/she may conclude answer (a) as r is
decreasing angular momentum must decrease Y A Y'
hence (a) is incorrect. B
v sin 60°
m
v 30° v sin 45°
q
mg r
60° 45°
X X'
v cos 60° – v cos 45°
///////////////////////////////////////// For particle A For particle B
O
d
Dividing eqn (i) by eqn (ii),
But the magnitude of angular momentum of
particle about O = mvd 1 3
Since speed v of particle increases, its angular +
2 2 2+ 3
momentum about O increases. tan q = =
1 1 1 - 2
Magnitude of torque of gravitational force about -
2 2
O = mgd Þ constant
Moment of inertia of particle about O = mr2 v
7. (2) n0 =
,
Hence MI of particle about O decreases. 2l
v sin q v v
Angular velocity of particle about O = n1 = , n2 =
r 2 ( l / 2 - Dl) 2 ( l / 2 + Dl)
Q v and sin q increases and r decreases.
Beat frequency = n 1 – n 2
\ angular velocity of particle about O increases.
é 1 1 ù
1æUö Þ vê -
5. (1) As, P = ç ÷ ë l - 2Dl l + 2 Dl úû
3èVø
(l + 2Dl) - (l - 2Dl) ù
U
= KT 4 = v éê ú
But ë l 2 - 4 Dl 2 û
V
1 8 Dlv 8Dln 0
4D l
So, P = KT
4 =v 2
= 2
=
3 l - 4Dl l 2l l
uRT 1 8. (3) Wavelength for which maximum obtained
or = KT 4 [As PV = u RT] at the hole has the maximum intensity on passing.
V 3
n lD
4 So, x =
pR 3T 3 = constant d
3
1 xd 1 ´ 10-3 ´ 0.5 ´ 10-3
Therefore, Tµ l= =
R nD n ´ 50 ´ 10-2
7
1 ´ 10-6 1000nm Þ Angle q = tan–1
= = 4
n n 12. (3) As insect moves along a diameter, the
n = 1, l = 1000 nm ® Not in the given range effective mass and hence the M.I. first decreases
n = 2, l = 500nm then increases so from principle of conservation
I C q of angular momentum, angular speed, first
9. (2) I increases then decreases.
I
R 1R 2
13. (2) Req = ( Parallel combination);
L R1 + R 2
I
I I RNet = Reg+R3(Series combination)
RNet of the circuit
As it can be easily seen by the direction of I that
Q is decreasing thus, energy of capacitor is 5 ´ 15 125 75 5
= + = + =5 W
decreasing and hence, energy of inductance is 5 + 15 100 20 4
increasing or æç 1 LI 2 ö÷ gives that I is increasing. R1= 5 W

è2 ø I1 A
10. (1) Capacitors 2mF and 2mF are parallel, their R 2= 15 W 4A R 3= 1.25 W
equivalent = 4 mF
6mF and 12 mF are in series, their equivalent = 4 mF 4A 4 – I1
Now 4mF (2 and 2 mF) and 8mF in series
3
= mF
8 E
And 4mF (12 & 6 mF) and 4mF in parallel We know that I = = 20 = 4 A
= 4 +4 = 8mF R eq 5
1 8 Potential difference across R1 and R2 are same
8mF in series with 1mF = + 1 Þ mF (Parallel combination) I1R1 = (4 – I1)R2
8 9
8 8 32 Þ 5I1 = (4 – I1) ´ 15 Þ I1 = 12–3I1 Þ I1 = 3A
Now Ceq = ∗ < Thus reading of ammeter = 3A
9 3 9
1 1 9 32 Voltage across 1.25W = I ´ R = 4 ´ 1.25 = 5V
With C, C = C + 32 = 1 Þ C = 23 μF (Reading of voltmeter)
eq 14. (1) Let initial temperature and volume be T0
11. (3) From question, and V0.
Horizontal velocity (initial), Since the process is adiabatic, the first
40 temperature and volume is TV g -1 = T V g -1 (g
ux = = 20m/s 0 0
2 = 5/3 for monoatomic gas)
1 2 2/3
Vertical velocity (initial), 50 = uy t + gt æ V0 ö
2
\ T = T0 ç = 4T0
1 è V0 / 8 ÷ø
Þ uy × 2 + (–10) ×4
2 Q
or, 50 = 2uy – 20 15. (3) Flux going in pyramid = 2e
0
70 Which is divided equally among all 4 faces
or, uy = = 35m / s
2 Q
u y 35 7 \ Flux through one face = 8e
\ tan q = = = 0
u x 20 4
MT-146 JEE MAIN
16. (4) From the figure it is clear that liquid 1 floats

on liquid 2. The lighter liquid floats over heavier 20. (2) I I
T = 2p = 2p
liquid. Therefore we can conclude that r1 < r2 M ´B MB
Also r3 < r2 otherwise the ball would have sink 1
to the bottom of the jar. where I = ml 2
Also r3 > r1 otherwise the ball would have 12
floated in liquid 1. From the above discussion When the magnet is cut into three pieces the
we conclude that r1 < r3 < r2. pole strength will remain the same and
2
1 æ m öæ l ö I
17. (2) A = 0.1m, m = 0.1 kg, KEmax = 18 × 10–3 J, M.I. (I¢) = ç ÷ç ÷ ´ 3 =
12 è 3 ø è 3 ø 9
p
f= We have, Magnetic moment (M)
4
= Pole strength (m) × l
36 ´ 10 -3 \ New magnetic moment,
k= = 3.6 ;
(0.1) 2 æ lö
M ' = m ´ ç ÷ ´ 3 = ml = M
k 3.6 è 3ø
w= = = 6 rad / s
m 0.1 T 2
\T'= = s.
p
\ Eqn. y = 0.1 sin æç 6t + ö÷ 9 3
è 4ø 21. (1600) Given, R1 = 100 W, r' = r/2, R2 = ?
18. (1) First, the length of wire goes on increasing rl
ie., area decreases and finally at breaking stress Resistance of wire, R =
A
the wire breaks. Q Area × length = volume
19. (1) r rV
O Hence, R = 2
A
F1 a Since, r ® constant, V ® constant
R y Bowl 1
Rµ 2
A h A
1
mg cos a or R µ Q A = pr2
mg sin a r4
mg
R2
The insect crawls up the bowl upto a certain = 16 Þ R2 = 16 ´ 100 = 1600 W
R1
height h only till the component of its weight
22. (0.025) At equilibrium, weight of the given block
along the bowl is balanced by limiting frictional
is balanced by force due to surface tension, i.e.,
force.
2L. S = W
For limiting condition at point A
R = mg cosa ...(i) W 1.5 ´ 10 -2 N
F1 = mg sina ...(ii) or S = = = 0.025 Nm -1
2L 2 ´ 0.3 m
Dividing eq. (ii) by (i)
dN 0
1 F 23. (19039) Given: = 20 decays/min
tan a = = 1 = m [ As F1 = mR ] dt
cot a R
dN
1é 1 ù = 2 decays/min
Þ tan a = m = êQ m = ( Given ) ú dt
3ë 3 û T1/2 = 5730 years
\ cot a = 3 As we know,
N = N 0 e -lt
N0 Þ f t1t = 12 S ............. (i)

log = lt
N 1 2
f t1 = S ............ (ii)
1 N 2
\ t= log 0
l N t
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get t1 =
2.303 ´ T1/2 N 6
= ´ log10 0
0.693 N 2
1 ætö f t2
Þ S= fç ÷ =
dN 0 2 è6ø 72
N 20
But dt = 0 = = 10 27. (4.8 × 108) Optical source frequency
dN N 2
c
dt f= = 3 ´ 108 /(800 ´10 -9 ) = 3.8 ´1014 Hz
l
2.303 ´ 5730 Bandwidth of channel (1% of above)
\ t= ´1
0.693 = 3.8 × 1012Hz
= 19039 years Number of channels = (Total bandwidth of
24. (0.33) The thermal resistance is given by channel) / (Bandwidth needed per channel)
Number of channels for audio signal
x 4x x 2 x 3x
+ = + =
KA 2KA KA KA KA = (3.8 ´1012 ) /(8 ´103 ) ~ 4.8 ´108
28. (0.2) The current voltage relation of diode is
dQ DT (T2 - T1 ) KA
\ = = I = (e1000 V /T - 1) mA (given)
dt 3x 3x
KA When, I = 5mA, e1000 V /T = 6mA
1 ì A(T2 - T1 ) K ü 1000
= í ý Also, dI = (e1000 V /T
)´
3î x þ T
(By exponential function)
1 1000
\f =
3 = (6 mA) ´ ´ (0.01) = 0.2 mA
300
Ie ne eAve 7 7 ve v 5 29. (8) Force acting on conductor B due to
25. (1.25) = Þ = ´ Þ e = conductor A is given by relation
Ih nh eAvh 4 5 vh vh 4
m 0 I1 I 2 l
F=
1 2 2 pr
26. (72) Distance from A to B = S = ft 1
2 l-length of conductor B
r-distance between two conductors
Distance from B to C = (ft 1 ) t
4p´ 10-7 ´ 10 ´ 2 ´ 2
u2
(ft ) 2 \F= = 8 × 10–5 N
Distance from C to D = = 1 2 ´ p´ 0.1
2a 2 (f / 2) 30. (10) By Newton’s law of cooling
= ft 12 = 2S q1 - q2 é q + q2 ù
= -K ê 1 - q0 ú
t ë 2 û
A f B C f /2 D
where q0 is the temperature of surrounding.
t1 t 2t 1 Now, hot water cools from 60°C to 50°C in 10
minutes,
15 S
60 - 50 é 60 + 50 ù
Þ S + f t1t + 2S = 15 S = -K ê - q0 ú ...(i)
10 ë 2 û
MT-148 JEE MAIN
Again, it cools from 50°C to 42°C in next 10 The coordination number exhibited by beryllium
minutes. is 4 and not 6 so statement (b) is incorrect.
Both BeCl2 and AlCl3 exhibit bridged structures
50 - 42 é 50 + 42 ù
= -K ê - q0 ú ...(ii) in solid state so (c) is correct statement.
10 ë 2 û
Dividing equations (i) by (ii) we get
Anhydrous HI
1 55 - q0 34. (1) ¾¾¾¾¾® (I)
= O SN2 I
0.8 46 - q0 HO
10 55 - q 0
= Conc HI
8 46 - q 0 (II)
SN2 I
460 - 10q0 = 440 - 8q0 HO
2q0 = 20 35. (4) One mole of a substance contains the
number of molecules which is independent of
q0 = 10°C pressure.
CHEMISTRY 36. (2) nCH 2 = CH - CH = CH 2
1, 3-Butadiene
æ 1
2 1 ö
31. (3) n = RcZ ç 2 - 2 ÷ CH = CH2
çn ÷
è 1 n2 ø
Na, Heat
æ1 1 ö +n ¾¾¾¾¾®
n1 = RcZ2 ç 2 - 2 ÷ = RcZ2 Polymerisation
è1 ¥ ø Styrene
2
æ1 1 ö 3RcZ (– CH2 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH – CH2 –)n
n 2 = RcZ2 ç 2 - 2 ÷= 4
è1 2 ø Butadiene -
2 Styrene copolymer
æ 1 1 ö RcZ
n 3 = RcZ2 ç 2 - 2 ÷ = (SBR or BUNA - S)
è2 ¥ ø 4
37. (2) In electrolysis of NaCl when Pt electrode is
\ n1 - n2 = n3 taken, then H2 liberated at cathode, while with
32. (3) ICl, 2 Þ 2 bp + 3lp
Hg cathode it forms sodium amalgam because
3
(thus, sp d hybridisation) = linear more voltage is required to reduce H+ at Hg than
at Pt.
BrF2∗ Þ 2 bp + 2lp 38. (4)
(thus, sp3 hybridisation) = pyramidal (1) For tetrahedral d6 ion,
ClF4, Þ 4 bp + 2lp
(thus, sp3d2 hybridisation) = square planar
4 unpaired electrons
AlCl,
4 Þ 4 bp + 0lp (2) For [Co(NH3)6]3+,
(thus sp3 hybridisation) = tetrahedral
33. (3) The correct formula of inorganic benzene
is B3N3H6 so (d) is incorrect statement. 0 unpaired electrons
OH (3) For square planar d7 ion,
|
Boric acid (H3BO3 or B - OH ) is a Lewis
|
OH 1 unpaired electrons
acid so (a) is incorrect statement.
39. (1) (1) SiC Þ Covalent carbide

(4) B.M. = n(n + 2) , n = unpaired electrons
(2) Be2C + 4H2O ¾¾® 2Be(OH)2 + CH4
5.92 B.M. = n(n + 2) (3) CaC2 +2H2O ¾¾ ® HC ºCH +Ca(OH)2
n = 5 unpaired electrons (4) Mg2C3 + 2H2O ¾¾®
2Mg(OH)2 + H3C–C º CH
Conc. HI
40. (1) CH3CH2O CH(CH3)2 ¾¾¾® CH3CH2I + (CH3)2CHI
(A) (B) (C)
NaOH NaOH
CH3CH2OH (CH3)2CHOH
[O] [O]
CH3COOH (CH3)2CO
hence the IUPAC name of compound is

(2) SnS2 ¯ + (NH 4 ) 2 S ¾¾
® CdS ¯
2 1 Yellow
CH3 — CH 2 — O — CH — CH3
(NH ) S
½ 4 2 2 ® (NH ) SnS
¾¾¾¾¾ 4 2 3
3CH3 Soluble
2 -ethoxy propane
2+
(3) Cd ® CdS ¯
+ (NH 4 ) 2 S ¾¾
41. (3) Yellow
(1) CdS ¯ + (NH 4 ) 2 S ¾¾

® CdS ¯ (NH 4 ) 2 S2
¾¾¾¾¾
® CdS ¯
Yellow Yellow Insoluble
(NH 4 ) 2 S2 2+
® CdS ¯
¾¾¾¾¾ ® SnS ¯
(4) Sn + (NH 4 ) 2 S ¾¾
Insoluble Brown
(NH ) S
¾¾¾¾¾
4 2 2 ® (NH ) SnS
4 2 3
(Amm. thiostannate)
Soluble
42. (1) The compounds of the type M(AA)2B2 exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism.
43. (2)
COOK
aq. KOH COOH COOK
Me – CH = CH2 + CHCl3 ¾¾¾® CH3 CH – CH3 |
CH3 – CH – CH2 ¾¾® CH3 – CH – CH3
CCl 2
Cl Cl HO OH O OH
C C
aq. KOH OH
CH3 – CH – CH2 ¾¾¾® CH3 – CH – CH2 ¾¾¾®
– H2O
CH3 – CH – CH2
MT-150 JEE MAIN
44. (1) 47. (4) 3CH4 + 2O3 ¾® 3CH2= O + 3H2O

Formaldehyde
2N 2 O5 (CCl4 ) ¾¾
® 2N 2O 4 (CCl4 ) + O 2 (g)
t=0 a mol 0 CH 2 = CHCH = O CH 3 COONO 2
x Acrolein Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN)
t = 500 min. a–x mol
2 48. (2)
a
t=¥ 0 mol
2
a = 100 CH = O – +
CO2 K
x = 90 Conc KOH
¾¾¾¾®
Cannizzaro
1 a 2.303 CH = O CH2OH
k = ln =
t a-x 500
45. (1) The order of basic character of the
(A) (B)
transition metal monoxide is TiO > VO > CrO >
FeO because basic character of oxides decreases 49. (4) (1) The concentration of sodium
with increase in atomic number. thiosulphate solution should always be less
46. (4) NH4ClO4 + HNO3 (dilute) ¾¾® than the concentration of the potassium
NH4NO3 + HClO4 iodide solution.
(X) (2) Freshly prepared starch solution
heat
should be used
NH4NO3 ¾¾¾
® N2O + 2H2O (3) Experiments should be performed with
(X) (Y) the fresh solutions of H2O2 and KI.
50. (4)
+
+
Ring 1, 2 – CH3
H+ expansion shift +
(3° Carbocation stable)
51. (2) 1
53. (2) No. of A 2+ = ´ 8 = 1
b 3 b 3 8
a
1
No. of B3+ = ´4 = 2
b + ¾¾® 2
a N N
2 1 1
No. of O 2- = 8´ ´6´ = 4
(2aH) 8 2
52. (14.28) H2 (g) + CO2 (g) CO (g) + H2O (g) (AB2O4)
\ value of n = 2
At eqm 0.25–x 0.25–x x x
P° - P n2
2 54. (80) =
x P° n1 + n2
Kp = 0.16 =
(0.25 - x) 2 640 - 600 2.5 m
=
x 640 39 78
Þ 0.4 = Þ 0.1 - 0.4x = x
0.25 - x 640 ´ 78 ´ 2.5
x = 0.0714 m= = 80
39 ´ 40
0.0714
Mole% of CO (g) = ´ 100 = 14.28
0.50
[CH3COO - ] 1 dMnO 4– 1 dI 2
55. (5.0) pH = pKa + log - =
[CH 3COOH] 2 dt 5 dt
pKa = – log (1.8 × 10–5) = 4.7447
5 dMnO4– dI 2
[CH3COO–] = 2 × [(CH3COO)2Ba] = 0.2 M \ - =
[CH3COOH] = 0.1 M 2 dt dt
0.2 On substituting the given value
pH = 4.7447 + log = 5.046 » 5.0
0.1 dI 2 4.56 ´ 10-3 ´ 5
56. (1) H3PO2 is named as hypophosphorous acid. \ = = 1.14 × 10–2 M/s
dt 2
It is monobasic as it contains only one P – OH
bond, its basicity is one. MATHEMATICS
O æ 1 3ö
|| 61. (4) Centre of the circle is çè , - ÷ø .
P 2 2
H | OH
|
Its distance from the line x + y – 1 = 0 is 2

H
57. (395)Since, work is done against constant Let the required line be mx – y = 0
pressure and thus, irreversible. m 3
Given, DV = (6 – 2) = 4 L; P = 1 atm +
\ 2 2 = 2 Þ m = 1, –1/7
1 ´ 4 ´ 1.987
\ W = – 1 × 4 L-atm = – cal m2 + 1
0.0821
(since 0.0821 L-atm = 1.987 cal) \ The lines are x – y = 0, x + 7y = 0
= – 96.81 cal = – 96.81 × 4.184 J 62. (1) Since a1, a2 and b1, b2 are the roots of
(Q1 cal = 4.184 J ) ax2 + bx + c = 0 and px2 + qx + r = 0 respectively,
= – 405.05 J therefore
Now from Ist law of thermodynamics -b c
q = DU – W a1 + a2 = , a1a2 = . ..(1)
a a
800 = DU + 405.05
\ DU = 395 J -q r
and b1 + b2 = , b1b2 = ...(2)
58. (3) Three, these are p p
CH3CH2OCH2CH3 (I), CH3OCH2CH2CH3 (II) Since the given system ofequations hasa non-trivial
and CH3OCH(CH3)2 (III). Here I and II, I and III solution
are pairs of metamers.
a1 a 2
59. (3) E.wt ´ Q ; \ = 0 i.e. a1b2 – a2b1 = 0
m= b1 b 2
96500
m ´ 96500 22.2 ´ 96500 a1 a 2 a1 + a 2 a1a 2
\ E. wt = = = 60.3 or = = =
Q 2 ´ 5 ´ 60 ´ 60 b1 b 2 b1 + b 2 b1b 2
At wt. 177
Oxidation state = = =3 pb pc b 2 ac
Eq. wt . 60.3 Þ = Þ =
qa ra q 2 pr
dMnO4– 63. (2) Suppose, there are two points x1 and x2 in
60. (1.14) Given - = 4.56 × 10–3 Ms–1 (a, b) such that f '(x1) = f '(x2) = 0. By Rolle's
dt
theorem applied to f ' on [x1, x2], there must be a
From the reaction given,
c Î ( x1, x2 ) such that f ''(c) = 0. This contradicts
1 dMnO 4 – 4.56 ´ 10 -3 the given condition f ''( x ) < 0, " x Î (a, b).
- = Ms -1
2 dt 2
MT-152 JEE MAIN
Hence, our assumption is wrong. Therefore, x = 2 2 - 3 Þ |10a | = [| 20 2 - 30 |] = 30 - 20 2

there can be atmost one point in (a, b) at which
f '(x) is zero. x Î [0, 1]
16 1 + x2
x+ = 2x
64. (2) I= ò f (t) dt 2
0
x4 1 + x2 = 2x Þ x = 1 Þ | 10a | = 10
Consider g(x) = ò f (t) dt Þ g(0) = 0 | 10a | = 10, | 20 2 - 30 |
0
Þ [ | 10a | ] = 1, 10
LMVT for g in [0, 1] gives, some a Î (0, 1) such
67. (4) Each point (x, y) has an image in line y = 0
g(1) - g(0) as (x, –y). So, replacing y by –y in the given
that = g ¢ (a ) ..... (1)
1- 0 equation, we get the image as
Similarly, LMVT in [1, 2] gives, some ax2 – 2hxy + by2 = 0.
g(2) - g(1) 68. (3) x2 – 2x cos q + 1 = 0,
b Î (1, 2) such that = g ¢ (b) .... (2)
2 -1
Eq. (1) + Eq. (2) 2 cos q ± 4 cos 2 q - 4
x= = cos q ± i sin q
g ¢(a ) + g ¢ (b) = g(2) - g(0) ; 2
{
zero Let x = cos q + i sin q
but g' (x) = f (x4) . 4x3 \ x2n – 2xn cos nq + 1
16 = cos 2nq + i sin 2nq – 2 (cos nq + i sin nq)
\ 4 éëa 3f (a 4 ) + b3f (b4 ) ùû = ò f (t) dt cos nq + 1
= cos 2nq + 1 – 2 cos2 nq +
0
i (sin 2nq – 2 sin nq cos nq)
3u 2 2u 3 1 =0+i0=0
2 3
3v 2v 1 =0 1 1
65. (1) 2 3
3w 2
2w 3
1
69. (2)
ò
I1 = 2 x dx , I 2 = 2 x dx , ò
0 0
R1 ® R1 – R2 and R2 ® R2 – R3 2 2
2 3
u+v 2
u + v + vu 2
0 ò
I3 = 2 x dx, I 4 = 2 x dx ò
1 1
Þ v+w v2 + w 2 + vw 0 = 0 2 3
" 0 < x < 1, x > x
w2 w3 1
1 1
2 3
R1 ® R1 – R2 Þ ò ò
2 x dx > 2 x dx Þ I1 > I 2 .
0 0
1 u+w+v 0
Also " 1 < x < 2
Þ v+w v2 + w 2 + vw 0 = 0
2 2
w2 w3 x2 3
1 2
x <x Þ 2 3
ò ò
dx < 2 x dx Þ I3 < I 4
Þ (v2 + w2 + vw) – (v + w) [v + w + u] = 0 1 1
Þ uv + vw + wu = 0 70. (1)
66. (4) x Î [–1, 0] 3p /4 3p / 4
1+ x 2 I= ò (sin x + cos x) dx + ò x{ (sin x - cos x) dx

14243
x+ = -2x 0 0 I II
2
x2 + 6x + 1 = 0
3p /4 Taking positive sign,

= ò (sin x + cos x) dx + x(- cos x - sin x) |30p /4 z 2 n - 1 2i sin nq
144424443 \ = = i tan nq
0 zero z 2n + 1 2 cos nq
3p / 4 Taking negative sign, we get
+ ò (sin x + cos x) dx z 2 n - 1 -2i sin nq
= = –i tan nq
0
z 2n + 1 2 cos nq
3p / 4
z 2n - 1
=2 ò (sin x + cos x) dx = 2 ( 2 + 1) Þ
z 2n + 1
= | ± i tan nq| = |tan nq|
0
71. (3) Given circles are x2 + y2 + 4x – 6y + 9 = 0 75. (1) Two curves cuts at right angle if product of
and x2 + y2 – 5x + 4y – 2 = 0 their slopes is –1.
\ locus of centres is Two given curves are
9x – 10y + 11 = 0 x3 – 3xy2 + 2 = 0 ..... (i)
72. (2) If n is odd, the required sum is and 3x y – y3 – 2 = 0
2 ...... (ii)
Differentiate equ. (i),
12 + 2.22 + 32 + 2.42 + ...... + 2.(n - 1) 2 + n2
2 2
dy 3(x - y )
(n - 1)(n - 1 + 1) 2 Þ m1 = =
= + n2 [Q (n–1) is even dx 6xy
2 Differentiate equ. (ii),
\ using given formula for the sum of (n–1)
terms.] dy -2xy
Þ m2 = =
dx (x 2 - y 2 )
2
æ n - 1 ö 2 n (n + 1)
=ç + 1÷ n =
è 2 ø 2 (x 2 - y 2 ) –2xy
\ m1 ´ m 2 = ´
2xy (x 2 - y 2 )
73. (2)
2
N P(at , 2at) Þ m1 ´ m 2 = -1
R(h,k)
O
76. (4)
S(a,0)
q
3q
T : ty = x + at2 ..... (i)
Line perpendicular to (1) through (a, 0)
tx + y = ta ..... (ii)
2
Let one angle be q then other = 3q
Equation of OP : y - x = 0 ...... (iii) Clearly q + 3q = 180 Þ q = 45o
t
From equations (ii) and (iii) eliminating t we get \ Angle between the diameters represented by
locus combined equation
2x2 + y2 – 2ax = 0
ax 2 + 2 ( a + b ) xy + by 2 = 0 is 45o
1
74. (1) z + = 2 cos q
z 2 h2 - ab
\ Using tan q =
Þ z2 – 2 cos qz + 1 = 0 a+b
2cos q ± 4 cos 2 q - 4 2 a 2 + b2 + ab
Þ z= Þ1=
2 a+b
= cos q + i sin q
MT-154 JEE MAIN
( )
If the line passing throw the point A (–4, 0),
Þ ( a + b) = 4 a 2 + b2 + ab
2
B (4, 0) p
then Ð APB = Ð AQB = does not formed.
Þ 3a 2 + 3b 2 + 2 ab = 0 2
\ m¹ ±2
77. (1) 80. (4) (1) Tr (kA) = k (a11 + a22 + a33) = kTr(A)
p q p Ù q p Ú q ~ (p Ú q) (p Ù q) Ù ~ (p Ú q) (2) Tr (A + B) = a11 + b11 + a22 + b22 + a33 + b33 = Tr
T T T T F F (A) + Tr (B)
T F F T F F
(3) Tr (I3) = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3
F T F T F F
F F F F T F 2 2
(4) Tr(A2) = S a11 + S a12 ¹ (a11 + a 22 + a 33 ) 2
\ (p Ù q) Ù (~ (p Ú q)) is a contradiction. 81. (2.33)
78. (3) Since, 1, w , w2 , ................. wn -1 are the n y
roots of unity y = –x B (0, 2) y=x
n
Consider x = 1
(–1, 1) A C (1, 1)
\ ( x n - 1) = ( x - 1) ( x - w ) ( x - w 2 )
......( x - w n -1 ) O
x
xn -1
Þ ( x - w ) ( x - w 2 )......( x - w n -1 ) = We first draw the given curves
x -1
Taking lim on both side The first curve x 2 - y 2 = 0 Þ y = ± x
x ®1 represents a pair of straight lines with slopes
lim ( x - w ) ( x - w 2 )......( x - w n -1 ) 1 and –1 passing through origin. The second
x ®1 curve
xn - 1
= lim Þ x 2 + y - 2 = 0 Þ x 2 = -y + 2
x ®1 x - 1
Þ (1 - w )(1 - w 2 )......(1 - w n -1) = n Þ x 2 = -( y - 2)
p represents a parabola with vertex (0,2) axis as
79. (1) Since, Ð APB = Ð AQB = so y = mx + 8 y–axis and concavity downwards. Both the
2
intersect the circle whose diameter is AB. curves are plotted in the figure and the required
Equation of circle is x2 + y2 = 16, CD < 4 area is shown by the shaded region.
The points A and C are the points of intersection
Q of y 2 = x 2 with x 2 + y - 2 = 0 .
D Solving the two equations, we get
P A y 2 + y - 2 = 0 [putting value of x2 = y2]
C
B Þ ( y + 2)( y - 1) = 0
giving y = –2 and 1, but y = –2 is discarded as
the required area is above the x-axis.
8
Þ < 4 Þ 1 + m2 > 4 \y = 1 Þ x = ± 1
2
1+ m The points A and C are respectively (–1, 1) and
Þ m Î (-¥, - 3) È ( 3, ¥) (1, 1) now due to symmetry
Area of the bounded region OABCO
r
[ ] Now, | A |2 = 4 + 9 + 36 = 49
1
= 2 × Area OBCO = 2 × ò ( 2 - x ) - x dx
2
0 2 3 6
[Since y = 2 –x2 is the upper curve and y = x is r r r
the lower curve] [A B C] = 1 1 -2
=7
1 2 1
1
é x3 x 2 ù é 1 1ù 7 r 2 r r r
= 2ê2x - - ú = 2 ê2 - - ú = = 2.33 \ - | A | [A B C] = 49 ´ 7 = 343
ëê 3 2 úû 0 ë 3 2û 3
85. (3.00) Adivides C1C2 externallyin the ratio 1 : 3.
82. (9.00) Number of digits are 9
Select 2 places for the digit 1 and 2 in 9C2 ways 1 3
from the remaining 7 places select any two places A(–3,0) ?
C1(–1,0) B C2(3,0)
for 3 and 4 in 7C2 ways and from the remaining 5
places select any two for 5 and 6 in 5C2 ways
Now, the remaining 3 digits can be filled in 3! \ coordinates of A are (–3, 0)
ways We have sin q = 1/2 \ q = 30°
\ Total ways = 9C2 . 7C2 . 5C2 . 3!
9! 7! 5! Area = 3 × 3 tan 30° = 3 3 = l 3
= . . .3! = 9.7! = k. 7! Þ l=3
2!.7! 2!.5! 2!.3!
Þ k=9 6R
r 86. (0.53) Box 5B
83. (32.00) n = 7iˆ + 2jˆ - kˆ is normal to plane 4W
(Assuming n = aiˆ + bjˆ + ckˆ and using P(E) = P(R R B W or B B R W or W W R B)
r uuur r uuur r uuur
n.AB = 0, n.BC = 0, n.AC = 0 ) n (E) = 6C 2 · 5C 1 · 4C 1 + 5C 2 · 6C 1 · 4C 1 + 4C 2
P = (8, 2, – 12) · 6C 1 · 5C 1
P(8,2,–12) n (S) = 15C4
n 720 × 4! 48
\ P (E) = = = 0.53
15 ×14 ×13 × 12 91
87. (2.00)
æ 3q ö æ q ö
2sin ç ÷ cos ç ÷
A(2,–1,4) sin q+ sin 2q è 2 ø è 2 ø = tan æ 3q ö
= ç ÷
uuur cos q+ cos2q æ 3q ö æ q ö è2ø
AP = 6iˆ + 3jˆ - 16kˆ 2cos ç ÷ cos ç ÷
è 2 ø è2ø
\ Distance 2p p
uuur r Hence period = = k
AP n 42 + 6 + 16 64 64 64 6 32 6 3 3
d= r = = = = =
|n| 49 + 4 + 1 54 3 6 18 9 Þ k = 2.
88. (3.00) The equation of the tangent at
k 6
= Þ k = 32 . æ 16 ö
9 çç 4 cos q, sin q ÷÷ to the ellipse
è 11 ø
84. (343.00)
r r r r r r r r r 16x2 + 11y2 = 256 is
V = A ´ éë (A.B)A - (A.A)B ùû .C
æ 16 ö
æ r r r r r r r rö r r r r r 16x (4 cos q) + 11y ç sin q ÷ = 256
= çA ´(A.B)A- (AA)A´B÷.C = – | A |2 [A B C] è 11 ø
ç 14 2 43 ÷
è zero ø
MT-156 JEE MAIN
or 4x cos q + 11y sin q = 16 P(B1 ).P(A / B1 )

P (B1 / A) =
P(B1) P(A / B1 ) + P(B2 ).P(A / B2 )
This touches the circle (x – 1)2 + y2 = 42 if
1 99
4 cos q - 16
=4
×
100 100 99 1
16 cos 2 q + 11sin 2 q = = = = 0.50
1 99 99 1 2 × 99 2
× + ×
Þ (cos q – 4)2 100 100 100 100
= 16cos2q + 11sin2q p /2
Þ 15cos2q + 11sin2q + 8cos q – 16 = 0
Þ 4 cos2q + 8 cos q – 5 = 0
90. (0.50) a n = ò (1 - sin t) n sin 2t dt
0
Þ (2 cosq – 1) (2 cos q + 5) = 0 Let 1 – sin t = u Þ – cos t dt = du
1 p p 1 æ1 1 ö
Þ cos q = Þq= ± =± = 2ò u n (1 - u) du = 2 ç ò u n du - ò u n +1du ÷ = 2 æç 1 - 1 ö÷
2 3 k è0 ø è n +1 n + 2ø
0 0
Þ k= 3
an æ 1 1 ö
89. (0.50) A: blood result says positive about the Hence, n = 2 çè n(n + 1) - n(n + 2) ø÷
disease
B1: Person suffers from the disease
n
1 an æ æ1 1 ö 1 æ1 1 öö
\ P(B1) =
100
lim
n ®¥
å n
= 2 ç åç -
è è n n + 1
÷ - åç -
ø 2 è n n
÷
+ 2 ø ÷ø
1
99 æ n 1 1 öö n æ 1
= 2 ç å æç -
1 ö
ç è n n + 1 ÷ø ÷÷ å çè n n + 2 ÷ø
B2 : person does not suffer \ P(B2) = - -
100
è 1 ø 1
99 1 éæ 1ö æ1 1ö æ 1 1ö ù 3 1
P(A/B1) = , P(A/B2) = = 2(1) - êç 1 - ÷ + ç - ÷ + ç - ÷ + .....ú = 2 - =
100 100 ëè 3 ø è 2 4 ø è 3 5 ø û 2 2
=0.50
Mock Test-4
ANSWER KEY
1 (3) 16 (4) 31 (2) 46 (1) 61 (3) 76 (4)
2 (2) 17 (4) 32 (2) 47 (2) 62 (2) 77 (2)
3 (4) 18 (4) 33 (4) 48 (2) 63 (3) 78 (2)
4 (2) 19 (1) 34 (4) 49 (2) 64 (2) 79 (2)
5 (3) 20 (2) 35 (4) 50 (2) 65 (2) 80 (4)
6 (3) 21 (10 2 ) 36 (3) 51 (600) 66 (2) 81 (4.00)
7 (2) 22 (83.3) 37 (4) 52 (10.93) 67 (2) 82 (0.13)
8 (2) 23 (3) 38 (1) 53 (8) 68 (4) 83 (0.20)
9 (1) 24 (70.7) 39 (4) 54 (68.4) 69 (4) 84 (75)
10 (2) 25 (10.6) 40 (3) 55 (2) 70 (4) 85 (23.00)
11 (4) 26 (1) 41 (2) 56 (4) 71 (3) 86 (1.00)
12 (3) 27 (2) 42 (3) 57 (16) 72 (3) 87 (1.00)
13 (1) 28 (2) 43 (4) 58 (69.6) 73 (3) 88 (3.50)
14 (3) 29 (2) 44 (3) 59 (3.8) 74 (1) 89 (5.00)
15 (2) 30 (5 2 ) 45 (1) 60 (2) 75 (3) 90 (2.25)
Solutions
PHYSICS 2. (2) After 2 sec the pulses will overlap
completely. The string becomes straight and
1. (3) therefore does not have any potential energy
R
and it entire energy must be kinetic.
+q –q 3. (4) mg = 2TL Þ pr2 Ldg = 2TL Þ pr2 dg = 2T..
A C D
This relation is independent of L.
B
2L L 4. (2) When either of A or B is 1 i.e. closed then
Potential at C = VC = 0 lamp will glow.
Potential at D = VD In this case, Truth table
æ -q ö Kq 2 Kq Inputs Output
= K çè ÷ø + =-
L 3L 3 L A B Y
Potential difference
0 0 0
-2 Kq 1 æ 2 qö
VD – VC = = ç- . ÷ 0 1 1
3 L 4p Î0 è 3 L ø
1 0 1
Þ Work done = Q(VD – VC)
1 1 1
2 1 qQ -qQ
=- ´ = This represents OR gate.
3 4pe 0 L 6pe 0L
MT-158 JEE MAIN
5. (3) Heat required to change the temperature of 8. (2) We have, F = kx

vessel by a small amount dT where, F, x and k are force, length and constant
– dQ = mCpdT respectively.
Total heat required \ 5 = kx ......(1)
4 æ T ö
3 and 7 = ky ......(2)
– Q = m ò20 32 ç ÷ dT Multiplying eq (2) by 2
è 400 ø
4 14 = 2ky ......(3)
100 ´ 10 –3 ´ 32 é T 4 ù Subtracting eq (1) from (3),
= ê ú
(400)3 ë 4 û 20 14 – 5 = 2ky – kx or 9 = k(2y – x)
Þ Q = 0.001996 kJ Hence, required length = 2y – x
Work done required to maintain the temperature 9. (1) From the graph, it is clear that for the same
of sink to T2 value of load, elongation is maximum for wire
OA. Hence OA is the thinnest wire among the
Q1 – Q2 æT ö
W = Q1 – Q2 = Q2 = ç 1 –1÷ Q2 four wires
Q2 T
è 2 ø 10. (2) Resistance between P and Q
Þ W = æç 1 2 ö
T –T 5
÷ Q2 r´ r
è T2 ø æ r rö 6 = 5r
rPQ = r P ç + ÷ =
For T2 = 20 K è 3 2ø 5 11
r+ r
300 – 20 6
W1 = ´ 0.001996 = 0.028 kJ Resistance between Q and R
20
For T2 = 4 K r 4
´ r
r r 4
rQR = P (r + ) = 2 3 = r
W2 = 300 – 4 ´ 0.001996 = 0.148 kJ 2 3 r 4
+ r 11
4 2 3
As temperature is changing from 20k to 4 k, work Resistance between P and R
done required will be more than W1 but less
than W2. r 3
´ r
r ær ö 3 2 3
l rPR = P ç + r÷ = = r
6. (3) As we know, time period, T = 2p 3 è 2 ø r + 3 r 11
g
3 2
When additional mass M is added then Hence, it is clear that rPQ is maximum
l + Dl 11. (4) Energy in joule (E)
TM = 2p
g = charge × potential diff. in volt
2 Eelectron = qeV and Eproton = qp 4V
TM l + Dl æ TM ö l + Dl
= or ç
è ÷ø = h h
T l T l de-Broglie wavelength l = =
2 P 2mE
æ TM ö Mg é Mgl ù
or, çè
T
÷ø = 1 +
AY êëQ Dl = AY úû le =
h
lP =
h
2me eV and 2mP e4V
1 éæ T ö
2 ù
A
\ = êç M ÷ -1ú (Q qe = qP)
Y êëè T ø úû Mg h
7. (2) More the initial temperature more is the rate l 2m e eV 2m P e4V mP
of cooling. Hence, T3 > T2 > T1 \ e = = =2
lP h 2me eV me
or
2m P e4V
The rate of cooling decreases with decrease in
temperature difference between body and m I m Isin q
12. (3) B = 0 (sin q + sin q) = 0
surrounding. 4p a 2pa
B at any point on Y axis is inversely proportional 19. (1) W = MB (cos q1 - cos q2 )

to a.
a Y = MB (cos 0° - cos 60°)
1 MB
q q = MB(1 - ) =
P O 2 2
X MB
–a/2 I a/2 \ t = MB sin q = MB sin 60° = 3 = 3W
13. (1) f max = mmg, a max = mg. 2
If A is the amplitude a max 20. (2) O
2 2 2
= Aw = 4p AV = mg .
q Tcosq
mg q
Therefore, A = .
4p 2 V 2 q C Tsinq q
14. (3) Total time taken to travel distance d is : x Fe
d d æ n +n2 ö d
+ = dçç 1 ÷=
÷ n ;
mg
2n 1 2n 2 è 2 n n
1 2 ø eff In equilibrium, Fe = T sin q
3
n 2 = 3n 1 Þ n eff = n 1 mg = T cos q
2
15. (2) On the screen, we have four amplitudes pair Fe q2
wise coherent. tan q = =
mg 4p Î0 x 2 ´ mg
(A1 + A2) + (A3 + A4) = A12 + A34
However, if A12 and A34 have equal magnitude
because of random phase of A12 and A34, no q2
\ x=
fringes will be seen. 4p Î0 tan q mg
16. (4) For good demodulation,
Electric potential at the centre of the line
1 1
<< RC or, RC >>
f f kq kq
V= + = 4 kmg tan q
0.693 x/2 x/2
17. (4) 1. l = 2. R = lN t
t1/ 2 21. ( 10 2 )
Radioactivity at T1 is R1 = l N1, 4 m/sec2 2 m/sec2
Radioactivity at T2 is R2 = l N2 Car Bus
\ Number of atoms decayed in time
(T1–T2) = (N1–N2) 200 m
Given, uC = uB = 0, aC = 4 m/s2, aB = 2 m/s2
R1 - R2 ( R1 - R2 )T hence relative acceleration, aCB = 2 m/sec2
= =
l 0.693 1
i.e., µ (R1 – R2)T Now, we know, s = ut + at 2
2
18. (4) In the graph given, slope of curve 2 is
1
greater than the slope of curve 1. 200 = ´ 2t 2 Q u = 0
2
æ gP ö æ gP ö Hence, the car will catch up the bus after time
çè ÷ø > çè ÷ø Þ g 2 > g1
V 2 V 1
t = 10 2 second
g He > gO 2
22. (83.3) Power of source = EI = 240 × 0.7 = 166
Since, g monoatomic > g diatomic
Hence, curve 2 corresponds to helium and curve 140
Þ Efficiency = Þ h = 83.3%
1 corresponds to oxygen. 166
MT-160 JEE MAIN
23. (3) In the given equation [r] = [b][x]; 2pr h ´ mv 1

\[b] =[r]/[x]. But r is mass per unit length and x is Divide (1) by (2), = = = 1:1
l mv ´ h 1
distance, therefore [b]=ML–1/L=ML–2T0
27. (2) The angle for which the ranges are same is
24. (70.7) Electric field intensity at the centre of the
disc. complementary.
s Let one angle be q, then other is 90° – q
E= (given)
2 Î0
2u sin q 2u cos q
Electric field along the axis at any distance x T1 = , T2 =
g g
from the centre of the disc
æ ö 4u 2 sin q cos q2R u 2 sin 2q
s x T1T2 = = (Q R = )
E' = ç1 - ÷ g2 g g
2 Î0ç 2 2 ÷
è x + R ø Hence it is proportional to R.
From question, x = R (radius of disc) 28. (2) On comparing the given equation to
r
æ
\ E ' = s ç1 - R ö E = a0iˆ cos (wt – kz)
÷ w = 6 × 108,
2 Î0 çè R + R2
2 ÷
ø
2p w
s æ 2R - R ö k= =
= ç ÷ l c
2 Î0 çè 2R ÷ø
4 w 6 ´ 108
= E k= = = 2 m -1
14 c 3 ´ 108
\ % reduction in the value of electric field
æv ö
29. (2) w rod = w point = ç rel ÷ ,
æ 4 ö è r ø
çè E - E÷ø ´ 100
14 1000 vrel represents the velocity of one point w.r.t.
= = % ; 70.7%
E 14 other.
25. (10.6) Work done in going from a distance r 1 to 3v - v
= and ‘r’ being the distance between
a distance r 2 away from centre of the earth, by a r
body of mass m, is, them.
W = GMm (1/r1 – 1/r2), 2v
=
For our case we should have r
1/2 mv2 = GMm [ (1/Re) – (1/10Re)] 30. (5 2 )
= (GMm/Re) ´ (9/10) V0 100
V 100
v = Ö[(2GM/Re) ´ ( 9/10)] iR = 0 = = 5 , iL = = = 10
R 20 X L 10
= Ö(9/10) ´ escape velocity
= Ö(9/10) ´ 11.1 km/s = 10.6 km/s V0 100
and i C = = =5
XC 20
nh h
26. (1) mvr = , l= ;
2p mv Current, i = i 2R + (iC - i L )2
nh
Using the two concept we get, mvr = (where = 52 + 52 = 5 2 amp.
2p
n = 1)
CHEMISTRY
1´ h
2p r = ....(1); 31. (2) The molecule 2,3 - pentadiene does not
mv
have any chiral C but at the same time it does
h not have any mirror plane which makes the mol-
l= ....(2)
mv ecule chiral.
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

Br Br Br
Br 2 NaNO
32. (2) ¾¾® Sn/HCl
¾¾¾® ¾¾¾®
2
FeBr3 HCl
NO2 NO2 NO2 N = NCl

CH3
Br HBr CuBr
Br
33. (4) The compound A is cyclic acetal, so it 38. (1) 3Cl2 + 2Nal ® 2NaCl + I2
should have an aldehyde and a diol as the two I2 gives violet colouration in CHCl3.
starting compounds.
5Cl2 + 6H 2 O + I2 ® HIO3 + 10HCl
CH3 Colourless
39. (4) Tertiary halides on treatment with base,
O O such as sodium methoxide, readily undergo
CH2COOH ¬¾¾
elimination resulting in the formation of alkenes.
CH3 (Williamson’s Synthesis)
[A]
CH3 CH3
| +– E2
CH3 — C — Cl + N a O CH2CH3 ¾¾®
CH |
+ HO OH CH3
O CH2COOH CH3 — C = CH2
t-Butyl chloride |
CH3 CH3
34. (4) In N2+ , there is one unpaired electron hence Isobutylene
it is paramagnetic. 40. (3) Performic acid causes hydroxylation of the

double bond ; the two –OH groups add in anti-
35. (4) In Ag2O (O.N. of Ag +1) in Ag the O.N. is O.
manner. Hence cis-isomer gives racemic mixture
There is gain of electrons, hence H2O2 is acting
while the trans-isomer gives meso.
as reducing agent.
41. (2) C6 H5 NH 2 + NaNO2 + HCl ¾¾¾
®
36. (3) H 2C – CH 2+RMgX ¾® CH2 – CH 2 0C
| | + -
O C6 H5 N º N Cl
OMgX R
OH
H 2O CH 2 – CH 2
¾¾¾¾® | |
–Mg(OH)X
OH R N2Cl + ¾®
37. (4) Total energy of a revolving electron is the
sum of its kinetic and potential energy.
OH
Total energy = K.E. + P. E.
N= N
e 2 æ e2 ö 2
= +ç- ÷ = - e
2r è r ø 2r
Red dye
MT-162 JEE MAIN
42. (3) Multiple bonds formation tendency with 51. (600) In a fcc lattice, the distance between the
carbon and nitrogen decreases from sulphur to cation and anion is equal to the sum of their
tellurium. radii, which is equal to half of the edge length of
CS2 (S = C = S) is moderately stable, unit cell,
CSe2 (Se = C = Se) decomposes readily whereas, a
i.e. r + + r - = (where a = edge length)
CTe2 (Te = C = Te) does not exist. 2
43. (4) Liquation is the principle based on r+ = 100 pm, r– = 200 pm
difference in melting points. Edge length = 2r+ + 2r– = (2 × 100 + 2 × 200) pm
44. (3) In NO 2 + odd (unpair ed) electron is = (200 + 400) pm = 600 pm.
removed. In peroxides (O22– ) no unpaired
electrons are persent as the antibonding p M.O.’s 52. (10.93) DH = (-40.8) ´ 1.8 = -4.08 kJ ;
acquired one more electron each for pairing. 18
3
AlO-2 containing Al3+ (2s2p6) configuration and DH -4.08 ´ 10
DS = = = -10.93 JK -1
2 oxides (O2– ) ions each of which does not T 373.15
contain unpaired electron. Superoxide O 2– has 53. (8) n = 5 means l = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
one unpaired electron in p antibonding M.O. since ml = + 1
45. (1) The two solutions are isotonic hence there
hence total no. of electrons will be
will be no movement of H2O.
46. (1) Melamine plastic crockery is a copolymer = 0(from s) + 2(from p) + 2(from d) + 2(from f)
of HCHO and melamine. + 2(from g)
47. (2) Hydrated CoCl2. 6H2O is pink coloured and =0+2+2+2+2=8
contains octahedral [Co(H2O)6]2+ ions. If this is
54. (68.4) As we know,
partially dehydrated by heating, then blue
coloured tetrahedral ions [Co(H2O)4]2+ are No.of moles of sugar
Molarity =
formed. Volume of solution (in L)
[Co(H 2 O)6 ]2+ [Co(H 2 O) 4 ]2 + + 2H 2O No.of moles of sugar
pink blue
0.1 =
2L
48. (2)
49. (2) So, no. of moles of sugar = 0.2 mol
• Li does not form peroxide or superoxide \ Mass of sugar = No. of moles of sugar ×
due to its small size. Molar mass of sugar
• Solubility of carbonates and biocarbonates
= 0.2 × 342 = 68.4 g
increases on moving down the group.
55. (2) The reaction involves Cope eliminiation
• The increasing order of size of hydrated
(heating of a 3º amine oxide to form an alkene
ions of alkali metals is
with the elimination of a 2º hydroxylamine).
Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
• Cesium used in photoelectric cells due to
its low I.E. Hence statements (2) is correct.
50. (2) (i) A3+ + e– ¾® A2+, DG1 = – 1 F y2
(ii) A2+ + 2e– ¾® A, DG2 = –2F(–y1) = 2Fy1
Add, (i) and (ii), we get
A3+ + 3e– ¾® A ;
DG3 = DG1 + DG2
–3FE° = –Fy2 + 2Fy1
–3FE° = –F (y2 – 2y1)
y - 2 y1
E° = 2 There are two unsaturated carbon in the product.
3
56. (4) According to question C – Terminal must MATHEMATICS

be alanine and N – Terminal do have chiral carbon
61. (3) Given equation is
means it should not be glycine. So possible
(p – q) x2 + (q – r) x + (r – p) = 0
sequence is :
By using formula for finding the roots
Val Phe Gly Ala
Val Gly Phe Ala -b ± b2 - 4ac
Phe Val Gly Ala x= , we get
2a
Phe Gly Val Ala
( r - q) ± ( q - r )2 - 4( r - p)( p - q)
rO2 nO2 w / 32 w M H2 x=
57. (16) = = = = 2( p - q)
rH 2 nH 2 4 / 2 64 M O2
(r - q) ± (q + r - 2 p) r - p
Þ x= = ,1
2 1 2( p - q) p-q
= =
32 4
62. (2) (a 2 + b 2 + c 2 ) p 2 - 2(ab + bc + cd ) p
w = 64/4 = 16 g + b2 + c2 + d 2 £ 0
P° - PS w/m
58. (69.6) = Þ (a 2 p 2 - 2abp + b 2 ) + (b 2 p 2 - 2 bcp + c 2 )
P° W/M
+ (c 2 p 2 - 2cdp + d 2 ) £ 0
(640–600)/640 = wM / mW
40/640 = 2.175 ´ 78/m ´ 39.08 Þ (ap - b)2 + (bp - c) 2 + (cp - d) 2 £ 0
m = 2.175 ´ 78 ´ 640 / 39.08 ´ 40
Þ ap - b = 0, bp - c = 0 & cp - d = 0
= 69.458 @ 69.60
b c d
é H 3 O+ ù é HCO3– ù Þ = = Þ a, b, c and d are in G.P
(3.8) K = ë ûë û a b c
59.
[ CO 2 ][ H 2 O ]2 Also ad = bc
63. (3)
As pH = 6.0 [H3O]+ =10–6 1 2
(1) log( a + 2 b) = log( a + 2 b)
2
é H 3 O+ ù é HCO3– ù
1
K=ë ûë û (H O is in excess, 2 2
2 = log(a + 4b + 4ab)
[CO 2 ][ H 2 O ]2 2
1
therefore its conc. remains constant) = log(12ab + 4ab)
2
éHCO3– ù
ë û K 3.8 ´ 10 -6 1
= log( 2 4 . ab )
= = = 3.8
[ CO 2 ] é H 3 O+ ù 10 -6 2
ë û 1
= (4 log 2 + log a + log b)
0.69 2
60. (2) t1/2 = , t 3/14 = t 75% log x log y log z
k (2) Let = = =k
2.303 a b-c c-a a -b
t 3/4 = log
k æ 3a ö Þ log x = k (b - c), log y = k(c - a ),
çè a - ÷ø
4
log z = k(a - b)
2.303 2.303 0.69 ´ 2
= log 4 = ´ 2 ´ 0.3010 =
k k k \ x a . y b . z c = p k[ a (b -c))+ b (c - a )+ c(a - b)]
t 3/4 0.69 ´ 2 k
= ´ Þ t 3/4 = 2t1/2 k ( 0)
=1
t1/2 k 0.69 =p
where p is any arbitrary base of the log.
MT-164 JEE MAIN
(3) Given expression 67. (2) We have z5 – 1 = (z – 1)(z – a1) … (z – a4)

= log xyz xy + log xyz yz + log xyz zx Putting z = w we get
(w - 1)(w - a1 )(w - a 2 )(w - a3 )(w - a 4 )
= log xyz ( xy . yz . zx)
= w5 - 1
2
= log xyz ( x . y . z ) 2 2 Putting z = w we get2
(w2 – 1)(w2 – a1)(w2 – a2)(w2 – a3)(w2 – a4)

= 2 log xyz ( xyz) = 2 ´ 1 = 2 = w10 – 1
(w –1)(w – a1 )(w – a 2 )(w – a3 )(w – a 4 )
p p \
64. (2) a+b+ g = Þ a + g = – b. (w –1)(w2 – a1)(w2 – a 2 )(w2 - a3 )(w2 – a 4 )
2
2 2
æp ö w 5 –1
so that cot ( a + g ) = cot ç - b÷ =
è2 ø
w10 –1
cot a cot g - 1 1 (w – a1 )(w – a 2 )(w – a3 )(w – a 4 )
Þ = Þ
cot a + cot g cot b
(w 2 – a1 )(w 2 – a 2 )(w 2 – a 3 )(w2 – a 4 )
Þ cot a cot g - 1 = 2 Þ cot a cot g = 3.
(w 2 –1) 2
(since cot a + cot g = 2cot b) = = (w + 1)2 = w4 = w
(w –1) 2
65. (2) The equation of the chord, having mid-point
68. (4)
x2 y2 (1) We have | AB | = | A | | B |
as (x1 , y1), of the hyperbola - = 1 is
a2 b2
given by Also for a square matrix of order 3, | kA |= k 3 | A |
T = S1 ..... (i) because each element of the matrix A is multiplied
xx1 yy1 by k and hence in this case we will have k3
where, T = 2
- - 1 and common
a b2
x12 y12 \ | 3AB |= 33 | A || B |= 27( -1)(3) = -81
S1 = - -1
a 2 b2 (2) Since A is invertible, therefore A–1 exists
According to the question, and AA-1 = I Þ det( AA-1 ) = det( I )
(x1, y1) = (5, 3) and a2 = 16, b2 = 25
as 25x2 – 16y2 = 400 Þ det(A ) det(A -1 ) = 1
x2 y 2 1
Þ - =1 \ Þ det(A -1 ) =
16 25 det(A)
5x 3y 25 9
– = – [Using (i)] (3) (A + B) 2 = (A + B)(A + B)
16 25 16 25
Þ 125x – 48y = 625 – 144 Þ 125x – 48y = 481 2
= A + AB + BA + B
2
æ px ö 2 2 2 2
66. (2) sin ç ÷ = x - 2 3x + 4 = (x - 3) + 1 = A + 2AB + B if AB = BA .
è2 3ø
Q RHS ³ 1 so, the solution exists ì – x + 1, x < 1
69. (4) f (x) = | x – 1| = í
î x – 1, x ³ 1
If and only if x - 3 = 0 Þ x = 3
and then equation is obviously satisfied Consider f (x2) = (f (x))2
If it is true it should be " x Now x + 3 ³ 0 and -1 < cos x + 3 £ 1

\ Put x = 2
LHS = f (22) = |4 – 1| = 3 x + 3 ¹ (2n - 1) p, n Î N
RHS = ( f (2))2 = 1
So, range of fogoh is [1, ¥)
\ (2) is not correct
Consider f (x + y) = f (x) + f (y) 72. (3) Since | x | is not diff. at x = 0
Put x = 2, y = 5 we get
|x – 1|
f (7) = 6; f (2) + f (5) = 1 + 4 = 5
\ (b) is not correct
1
Consider f (| x |) = | f (x) |
Put x = – 5 then f (| –5 |) = f (5) = 4
| f (– 5) | = | – 5 – 1| = 6
x
\ (3) is not correct. 1
70. (4) Let a = tan q and b = tan f
Þ | x - 1 | is not diff at x = 1.
\ sin -1 é
2a ù -1 é 2 tan q ù
êë1 + a 2 úû = sin êë 1 + tan 2 q úû x n | x | is n times diff. at x = 0
-1
= sin -1 [ sin 2q] = 2q = 2 tan a Þ ( x - 1) 2 | x - 1 | is twice diff. at x = 1
é 2b ù é 2 tan f ù but not thrice diff. at x = 1
and sin -1 ê 2ú
= sin -1 ê 2 ú
ë1 + b û ë 1 + tan f û 1
73. (3) f(x) = is discontinuous at x =1.
x -1
-1
= sin [ sin 2f] = 2f = 2 tan b
-1
( x - 1) 2
é 2a ù (gof) (x) = g(f(x)) = - , which is not
Thus, sin -1 ê = 2 tan–1 a and ( 2 x - 1)( x - 2)
2ú
ë1 + a û
defined at x = 1/2, 2.
é 2b ù Hence the set of points where (gof) (x) is
sin -1 ê = 2 tan–1 b
ë 1 + b2 úû discontinuous is {1/2, 1, 2}
m m
é 2a ù é 2b ù å n+r
Cn = å n+ r
\ sin -1 ê
2 tan–1x = + sin -1 ê 74. (1) Cr
ë 1 + a 2 úû ë1 + b2 úû r =0 r =0
–1
= 2 tan a + 2 tan b –1
(Q n + r Cn =n + rCn + r - n )
Þ tan–1 x = tan–1a + tan–1b
= nC0 + n + 1C + n + 2C + n + 3C +......+
a+b 1 2 3
n + mC
tan–1 x= tan–1 m
1 - ab Using, nC0 = 1 = n + 1C0
a+b = (n+1C0 + n + 1C1) + n + 2C2 + n + 3C3 +....+ n
\ x=
1 - ab + mC
m
71. (3) Let f image of goh image, fogoh = F (x) Using, nCr + nCr+1 = n+1Cr+1
= f [goh (x)] = (n + 2C1 + n + 2C2) + n + 3C3 +.....+ n + mCm
Using this again and again, we are left with
= f [g ( x + 3)] = f (cos x + 3)
= n + mCm – 1 + n + mCm
2 = n + m + 1Cm = n + m + 1Cn + 1
F(x) =
cos x + 3 + 1
MT-166 JEE MAIN
seeing the options

(an -1) / n
x
75. (3) I= ò a-x + x
dx ....(i)
m=±
1
satisfy the equation
1n 2
1
(an -1) / n Þy=± x ± 2 Þ 2y = ± x ± 4
a-x 2
Then, I =
ò x + a-x
dx ....(ii)
i.e. 2y = x + 4 & x + 2y + 4 = 0
1n
79. (2) Let the point be ( x1, y1).
Adding (i) and (ii), we get Therefore y1 = (x1 – 3)2 ...(i)
(an -1)/n \ Now slope of the tangent at ( x1, y1) is
an - 2 æ an - 2 ö
2I = ò 1.dx =
n
Þ I =ç
è 2n ø
÷ 2(x1 – 3), but it is equal to 1.
1n
Therefore, 2(x1 – 3) = 1 Þ x1 = 7
2
76. (4) p /4
3 2
I= ò (x | x |+ sin x + x tan x + 1) dx 2
-p /4 ¯ ¯ ¯ æ7 ö 1
odd f odd f odd f y1 = ç – 3÷ = .
è2 ø 4
p/4 p
I= æ 7 1ö
ò dx = Hence the point is ç , ÷ .
-p / 4 2 è 2 4ø
a 80. (4) x = tanA, y = tanB, – z = tanC.
ò
[Q f (x)dx = 0, as f (x) is an odd function] Then (x + y – z) = –xyz.
-a Þ tanA + tanB + tanC = tanA tanB tanC
77. (2) (1 – x – 2x2)6 = (1 + x)6 (1 – 2x)6 Þ A + B + C = p Þ 2A + 2B = 2p – 2C
= 1+ a1x + a2x2 + …….. + a12x12 Þ tan(2A + 2B) = tan(2p – 2C) = – tan2C
Putting x = 1/2, we have 0 = 1 + a 1/2 + a2/22 Þ tan2A + tan2B + tan2C
+ a3/23 + a4/24 + ……..+ a12/212 .....(1) = tan2A.tan2B.tan2C
Putting x = –1/2, we have
1 = 1 – a1/2 + a2/22 – a3/23 + a4/24 – ….. 2 tan A 2 tan B 2 tan C
Þ + +
+ a12/212 ....(2) 1 - tan A 1 - tan B 1 - tan 2 C
2 2
Adding (1) and (2), we have 2 tan A 2 tan B 2 tan C

= . .
1 = 2 (1 + a2/22 + a4/24 + …..+ a12/212) 1 - tan A 1 - tan B 1 - tan 2 C
2 2
Þ a2/22 + a4/24 + a6/26 …..+ a12/212 = –1/2 Put the value of tanA , tanB, tanC, we get
x 2 y2
78. (2) y 2 = 4x &+ =1 Þ
2x
+
2y
-
2z
8 2 2 2
1- x 1- y 1- z 2
Equation of tangent to above curves are
respectively.
8xyz
1 =-
y = mx + and y = mx + 8m 2 + 2 (1 - x )(1 - y 2 )(1 - z 2 )
2
m
1 81. (4.00) Set A = {a1, a2, ....., a20} has 20 distinct
Comparing = 8m 2 + 2 elements.
m
We have to select 5-element subset.
Þ m 2 (8m 2 + 2) = 1
\ Number of 5-element subsets = 20C5
According to question Solving (1) and (2), we get C is (16, 7)
( )
1
20 C = 19 C .k Area ABCD = 2 (Area of D ABC) = 2× AB × BC
5 4 2
AB × BC = 5 × 15 = 75 units
20! æ 19! ö
Þ = k. ç 85. (23.00) Given system of equations can be
5! 15! è 4! 15!÷ø written in matrix form as AX = B where
20
Þ = k Þk=4 æ1 2 3ö æ6ö
5 A = ç 1 3 5 ÷ and B = ç 9 ÷
82. (0.13) cos36°cos42°cos78° ç2 5 a÷ çb÷
è ø è ø
= cos36°cos(60° – 18°)cos(60° + 18°)
Since, system is consistent and has infinitely
=
5 +1
(cos 2
60° - sin 2 18° ) many solutions
\ (adj. A) B = 0
4
æ 3a - 25 15 - 2a 1 ö æ 6 ö æ 0 ö
æ 5 + 1ö é æ ö ù
2
Þ ç 10 - a a - 6 -2 ÷ ç 9 ÷ = ç 0 ÷
ê1 - 5 -1 ú ç -1
=ç ÷ ê 4 çè 4 ÷ø ú è -1 1 ÷ø çè b ÷ø çè 0 ÷ø
è 4 ø
ë û
Þ – 6 – 9 + b = 0 Þ b = 15
and 6(10 – a) + 9(a – 6) – 2(b) = 0
é
( )
2ù
5 +1 ê 5 -1 ú Þ 60 – 6a + 9a – 54 – 30 = 0
= 1-
16 ê 4 ú Þ 3a = 24 Þ a = 8
êë úû Hence, a + b = 8 + 15 = 23.
86. (1.00) Let B = I + A + A2 + . . . + Ak – 1
5 +1 é 4 - 6 + 2 5 ù 1
= ê ú = = 0.13 Now multiply both sides by ( I – A ), we get
16 ë 4 û 8 B(I – A) = (I + A + A2 + . . . + Ak – 1) (I – A)
83. (0.20) The given expression is equal to = I – A + A – A2 + A2 – A3 +. . . –Ak – 1 + Ak – 1– Ak
cos(cos -1 x + sin -1 x + sin -1 x) = I – Ak = I, since Ak = 0 Þ B = (I – A)–1
Hence (I – A)–1 = I + A + A2 + . . . + Ak–1 Thus
æp ö 1
= cos ç + sin -1 x ÷ = - sin(sin -1 x) = - x = - |p| = |–1| = 1
è2 ø 5
1
1 -1 -1 p 87. (1.00) As x ® ; {x + 1} ® {1 + 1 / 3} ® 1 / 3
= = 0.20 [Using cos x + sin x= ] 3
5 2
1 1
84. (75.00) Similarly {x + 2} ® as x ®
B (1, 7) 3 3
(1, 2) C x - 1/ 3
A Þ lim f (x) = lim =1
x ®1/ 3 x ®1/ 3 x - 1/ 3
88. (3.50) Given differential equation is
D (4, – 2) ( 2 + sin x ) . dy = cos x
Here, centre is A (1,2), and Tangent at B (1,7) is (1 + y ) dx
x.1 + y.7 – 1 (x + 1) – 2 (y + 7) – 20 = 0 which can be rewritten as
or y = 7 ...(1) dy cos x
Tangent at D (4,–2) is = dx
1 + y 2 + sin x
3x – 4y – 20 = 0 ...(2)
MT-168 JEE MAIN
Integrate both the sides, we get where a is a constant.

Q f(0) = 5 Þ 0 + a = 5 Þ a = 5
dy cos x dx
ò =ò
1+ y 2 + sin x 1 a b
Þ log (1 + y) = log (2 + sin x) + log C 90. (2.25) Given, in DABC 1 c a = 0
Þ 1 + y = C (2 + sin x) 1 b c
Given y(0) = 2
3 Þ 1(c2 – ab) – a(c – a) + b(b – c) = 0
Þ 1 + 2 = C[2 + sin 0] Þ C =
2 Þ a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca = 0
æ pö Þ 2a2 + 2b2 + 2c2 – 2ab – 2bc – 2ca = 0
Now, y çè ÷ø can be found as
2 Þ (a2 + b2 – 2ab) + (b2 + c2 – 2bc)
+ (c2 + a2 – 2ca) = 0
3æ pö 9
1+y= ç 2 + sin ÷ Þ 1 + y = Þ (a – b)2 + (b – c)2 + (c – a)2 = 0
2è 2ø 2
Here, sum of squares of three members can be
7 zero if and only if a = b = c
Þ y=
2 Þ DABC is equilateral.
Þ ÐA = ÐB = ÐC = 60°
æ pö 7
Hence, y ç ÷ =
è 2ø 2 \ sin 2 A + sin 2 B + sin 2 C
89. (5.00) Differentiating w.r.t.x, we get
1 1 = (sin 2 60° + sin 2 60° + sin 2 60°)
= 2f (x )f ¢( x)
f ( x ) (f ( x )) 2
2
1 1 æ 3ö 9
= 3´ç = = 2.25
Þ f '(x) = Þ f (x) = x + a
2 2 ç 2 ÷÷ 4
è ø
Mock Test-5
ANSWER KEY
1 (3) 16 (4) 31 (2) 46 (2) 61 (3) 76 (3)
2 (2) 17 (1) 32 (1) 47 (3) 62 (3) 77 (4)
3 (1) 18 (1) 33 (4) 48 (3) 63 (1) 78 (3)
4 (3) 19 (4) 34 (2) 49 (2) 64 (1) 79 (4)
5 (3) 20 (4) 35 (2) 50 (1) 65 (1) 80 (1)
6 (3) 21 (4) 36 (4) 51 (19.55) 66 (4) 81 (3.00)
7 (1) 22 (3) 37 (3) 52 (8) 67 (3) 82 (2.00)
8 (2) 23 (20) 38 (1) 53 (128) 68 (3) 83 (0.60)
9 (1) 24 (7) 39 (2) 54 (0.32) 69 (4) 84 (1.00)
10 (3) 25 (9) 40 (4) 55 (0.4) 70 (3) 85 (17.67)
11 (2) 26 (6.5) 41 (2) 56 (68.13) 71 (4) 86 (325.00)
12 (3) 27 (5) 42 (1) 57 (5.19) 72 (2) 87 (0.50)
13 (4) 28 (8.66) 43 (3) 58 (4.0) 73 (3) 88 (1.50)
14 (2) 29 (2) 44 (2) 59 (4.0) 74 (1) 89 (2.00)
15 (2) 30 (1.25) 45 (2) 60 (100) 75 (3) 90 (6.00)
Solutions
PHYSICS \ Total charge in the spherical region from centre
to r (r < R ) is
1. (3) For the man standing in the lift, the r
acceleration of the ball æ5 xö
r r r q = ò dq = 4 pr0 ò ç - ÷ x 2 dx
abm = ab - am Þ abm = g – a 0
è4 Rø
Where 'a' is the acceleration of the mass (because
the acceleration of the lift is 'a' )
For the man standing on the ground, the dx
acceleration of the ball x
r r r
abm = ab - am Þ abm = g – 0 = g
2. (2) For a diamagnetic material, the value of µr is
less than one. For any material, the value of Îr is
always greater than 1.
3. (1) Let us consider a spherical shell of radius x é 5 r3 1 r 4 ù
3æ5 r ö
and thickness dx. = 4pr0 ê 4 . 3 - R . 4 ú = pr0r ç - ÷
ëê ûú è3 Rø
Charge on this shell
\ Electric field at r,
æ5 x ö 2
dq = r.4px 2 dx = r0 ç 4 - R ÷ .4px dx E=
1 q
. 2
è ø
4p Î0 r
MT-170 JEE MAIN
8. (2) Q The E.M. wave are transverse in nature
1 pr0 r 3 æ 5 r ö
= . ç - ÷ i.e.,
r r
4pÎ0 r 2 è 3 R ø
k É r
r0 r æ 5 r ö = =H …(i)
mw
= 4Î ç 3 - R ÷ r
0è ø r
where H = B
Mg m
4. (3) = P0 r r
A k ´H r
and = -E … (ii)
P0V0 g = PV g rwe r r r
k is ^ H and k is also ^ to E
Mg = P0A r r r r r
or In other words X || E and k || E ´ B
P0 Ax0 g = PA( x0 - x ) g 9. (1) For conservation of momentum, we have,
g
P0 x0 m1v1 = (m1 + m2) v or v = m1/(m1 + m2) v1
P= Now the loss of energy
( x0 - x )g
1 1
Piston = m1v12 – (m1+ m2)v2
2 2
\ Fraction of energy lost
x
1 1
m1v12 - (m1 + m 2 )v 2
x0 Cylinder
= 2 2
containing 1
ideal gas m1v12
2
Let piston is displaced by distance x
= 1 – [(m1+m2) / m1] ´ ( v2/v12)
æ P0 x0gö = 1 – [(m1+m2)/m1]×[ m12 v12/[(m1+m2)2]
Mg - ç ÷ A = Frestoring × (1/v12)
g
çè ( x - x) ÷ø
0
= 1 – [ m1/[(m1+m2)] = m2 /(m1+m2)
æ x0g ö 10 (3) I = I0 sin ( wt + f ) ;
P0 A ç1 - ÷ = Frestoring
çè ( x - x )g ÷ø E = E0 sin ( wt + f) ;
0
[ x0 >>> x ] I = 4 sin wt ;
gP0 Ax æ p pö
F=- E = 100 sin ç wt + + ÷
x0 è 2 3ø
\ Frequency with which piston executes SHM. p p 5p

Phase diff. between I and E = + =
3 2 6
1 gP0 A 1 gP0 A2
f = f BA
2p x0 M = 2p MV0 11. (2) Mutual inductance = =
I I
5. (3) Inside the sphere, V is constant and is equal
[ MT -1Q -1 L2 ]
to that on the surface of the sphere. Outside the [Henry] = = ML2 Q -2
-1
sphere it comes out to be, V = –Gm/r i.e. |V| µ 1/ [QT ]
r. Hence the graph (c) is correct. 12. (3) Magnetic field due to current in wire 1 at
6. (3) point P distant r from the wire is
7. (1) Rate of cooling µ surface area and for a m i
B = 0 1 [ cos q + cos q ]
given mass, surface area of sphere is minimum. 4p r
Solutions-Mock Test -5 MT-171
(v = 5gl to complete motion along vertical circle)
q i2 2m1v1 2 m1v1
= mv Þ v =
i1 3 3 m
r P
dl 3 m
or v1 = 5gl
2 m1
q
15. (2) The p-n junction diode is a half wave
m 0 i1 cos q rectifier which produces output in forward biased
B= (directed perpendicular to the mode only. Thus, there will be no output
2p r corresponding to –5V input. Hence, output will
plane of paper, inwards) be obtained corresponding to +5V only.
The force exerted due to this magnetic field on 16. (4) The induced emf is
current element i2 dl is r r
dF = i2 dl B sin 90° -d f d ( B. A) - d ( BA cos 0º )
\ dF = i2 dl e= =- =
dt dt dt
é m 0 i1 cos q ù m0 × × × ×
ê 2 p r ú = 2 pr i1 i2 dl cos q
ë û
13. (4) Let a1 = a, I1 = a12 = a2 × × × ×
a2 = 2a, I2 = a22 = 4a2
× l
V
I2 = 4I1 × × ×
Ir = a12 + a22 + 2a1a2 cos f

× × × ×
= I1 + I 2 + 2 I1 I2 cos f X
× × × ×
Ir = I1 + 4 I1 + 2 4 I12 cos f dA d (l ´ x )
\ e = –B = -B
Þ Ir = 5I1 + 4 I1 cos f … (1) dt dt
2
Now, I max = ( a1 + a2 ) = ( a + 2a ) = 9 a 2
2 dx
\ e = - Bl = - Blv
dt
I
Imax = 9I1 Þ I1 = max 17. (1) Here, fc = 1.5 MHz = 1500 kHz, fm = 10 kHz
9
Substituting in equation (1) \ Low side band frequency
5 Imax 4 I max = fc – fm = 1500 kHz – 10 kHz = 1490 kHz
Ir = + cos f
9 9 Upper side band frequency
I = fc + fm = 1500 kHz + 10 kHz = 1510 kHz
Ir = max [ 5 + 4 cos f]
9
18. (1) A + d = i + i ' Þ i ' = A + d – i = 30 + 30 – 60 = 0°
Imax é f ù
Ir = ê 5 + 8 cos2 - 4 ú 19. (4) As l is increased, there will be a value of l
9 ë 2 û
above which photoelectrons will be cease to
Imax é fù come out so photocurrent will become zero.
Ir = ê1 + 8 cos 2 ú
9 ë 2û 20. (4) K.E. gained by charged particle of charge q
14. (2) Using conservation of momentum, when accelerated under a pot. diff. V will be
Ek = qV;
v
m1v1 = m1 1 + mv For a given V, E µ q.
3
For proton, deutron and a-particle, the ratio of
m v
Þ m1v1 - 1 1 = mv charges is 1 : 1 : 2.
3
MT-172 JEE MAIN
21. (4) 6W and 2W are in parallel combination 1´ 3
C'1 = = 3 / 4F
B
1+ 3
A 2W 6W 1 5W C1
6V 3W 6V 3W 6V 3W 2´ 4 4
1 5W 1 5W 3W C'2 = = F
2+ 4 3
6´2
Hence, R AB = = 1.5W
6+2 C2
V = IR Þ
6
= I Þ I = 4A B 12V
1.5
Charge on C'1 = 9mC;
3´3 9
[Q R eq = = = 1.5W] 4
3+ 3 6 Charge on C'2 = ×12 = 16mC
3
1 ´ 0 + 1´ PQ + 1´ PR PQ + PR Hence, charge on C1 and C3 is 9mC, as both are
22. (3) xcm = =
1+ 1+1 3 in series combination.
and ycm = 0 26. (6.5) Heat is extracted from the source in path
DA and AB is
23. (20) Number of undecayed atom after time t2 ;
3 æ p v ö 5 æ 2p v ö
N0 DQ = R ç 0 0 ÷ + R ç 0 0 ÷
= N 0 e -lt2 ...(i) 2 è R ø 2 è R ø
3
Number of undecayed atom after time t1; 3 5 æ 13 ö
Þ p0v0 + 2 p0v0 = ç ÷ p0v0
2 2 è 2ø
2N0
= N 0 e -lt1 ...(ii)
3 13.6Z 2
27. (5) E= ; According to question,
-lt2 1 n2
From (i), e =
3
13.6Z2 13.6Z2
æ 1ö - = 47.2
Þ–lt2 = loge çè ÷ø ...(iii) 4 9
3
æ 5ö
2 Þ 13.6Z2 ç ÷ = 47.2
From (ii) – e -lt1 = è 36 ø
3
æ 2ö Þ Z 2 = 25 Þ Z = 5
Þ–lt1 = loge çè 3 ÷ø ...(iv)
28. (8.66)
Solving (iii) and (iv), we get From the figure it is clear that range is required
t2 – t1 = 20 min u 2 sin 2q (10)2 sin(2 ´ 30°)
24. (7) Apparent wt. R= = =5 3
g 10
= Real wt.–Upthrust u
1 30°
= 12 – (1000 ´ 10- 6 ) ´103 ´10 = 12 - 5 = 7 N Range R
2
25. (9) As S2 is open, hence C1 & C3 are in series,
10m
10m
also C2 & C4 are in series combination. Tower

3 3
Q= ×V = × 12 = 9mC;
4 4
29. (2) Here, Imax = I1 + I 2 + 2 I1 I2 cos 0º 2- -1 2-

38. (1) Cr O 2 Cl2 ; Cr = +6; MnO 2 ; Mn = +4
Imin = I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I 2 cos180º (Highest oxidation state)
-1 -1
\ Imax + Imin = 2(I1 + I2 ) [NiCl 4 ]2- ; Ni = +2 ; [Co Cl 4 ]2- ; Co = + 2
30. (1.25) Yc ´ ( DLc / Lc ) = Ys ´ (DLs / Ls ) -1 -1
[Fe(CN)6 ]3- Fe = +3 ; [Cu(CN) 4 ]2 - Cu = +2
æ 1´10-3 ö æ DL ö
Þ 1´1011 ´ ç ÷ = 2 ´ 1011 ´ ç s ÷
ç 1 ÷ è 0.5 ø Hg 2Cl 2 + 2NH 4 OH ¾¾
®
è ø 39. (2)
(A)
0.5 ´10-3
\ DLs = = 0.25 mm
2 [H 2 N - Hg - Cl + Hg] ¯ + NH 4 Cl + 2 H 2 O
Therefore, total extension of the composite wire (Black)
= DLc + DLs HgCl 2 + 2NH 4 OH ¾¾

® Hg(NH 2 )Cl +
= 1 mm + 0.25 mm = 1.25 mm (B) (White)
NH 4Cl + H 2 O
CHEMISTRY
HgCl2 + 2KI ¾¾
® HgI 2 ¯ +2KCl
31. (2) Correct order of increasing basic strength (Red)
is NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
32. (1) Aluminium has greater affinity for oxygen HgI 2 + 2KI(excess) ¾¾
® K 2 (Hg I 4 )
and the reaction is highly exothermic. 40. (4) In option (4) oxidation number changes from
33. (4) Smaller the size and higher the charge more + 4 in NO2 to + 3 in HNO2 and + 5 in HNO3.
will be polarising power of cation. Since the order
of the size of cation is 41. (2) In neutral and alkaline medium
K + > Ca 2 + > Mg 2+ > Be 2 + . MnO 4- + 2H 2 O + 3e - ¾¾
® MnO 2 + 4OH -
So the correct order of polarising power is : In acidic medium:
K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+
34. (2) The more the reduction potential, the more is MnO 4- + 8H + + 5e - ¾¾
® Mn 2 + + 4H 2 O
the deposition of metals at cathode. Cation having O
CH 2 = CH – CH2 – CH = CH 2¾¾®
3
E° value less than – 0.83 V (reduction potential of 42. (1)
H2O) will not deposit from aqueous solution. HOOC – CH 2 – COOH + 2HCOOH
35. (2) DH = nCpDT = 0 means DH constant.
Zn / H2O
æv ö 2HCHO + OHC – CH2 – CHO ¬¾¾¾¾
Reduction
DS = nR ln ç 2 ÷ ³ 0 DS increases.
è v1 ø 43. (3) The compound is diethyl ether (CH3CH2)2O
36. (4) Reaction between diborane and alkene are which is resistant to nucleophilic attack by
carried out in dry ether under an atmosphere of hydroxyl ion due to absence of double or triple
N2 because B2H6 and the products are very bond, whereas all other compounds given are
reactive. The products further treated with unsaturated.
alkaline H2O2 to convert into alcohols. O
||
alkaline
B2 H 6 + 6C2 H 4 ¾¾
® B(C2 H 4 )3 ¾¾¾¾
® C2 H5 OC2 H5 CH3 - C - OCH3
H 2O 2
reactive Ether Methyl acetate
3CH3CH 2OH + H3BO3 O

||
37. (3) Ions I and IV are the same (trans), with mirror CH3 - C º N CH3 - C - NH 2
plane through en groups. Acetonitrile Acetamide
MT-174 JEE MAIN
44. (2) 2NaI + 2 NaNO 2 + 4 CH 3COOH ¾

¾® O
C º CH 2+
I 2 + 2NO + 4 CH 3COONa + 2 H 2 O H2SO4, Hg
The colour of CCl4 layer turns purple due to
liberated I2.
Due to electronegative nature
45. (2) Enantiomers of C4H10O are of > C = O, p electrons are
transferred toward benzene ring
OH HO
| |
O H
H3 CH 2 C - C - CH3 H3C - C - CH 2CH3
| | C = CHOH
H H O
OH CH2–CHO
|
H SO
CH3 CH 2- CH - CH3 ¾¾¾¾
2 4
®
(A) [B]
CH 3 CH = CH - CH 3 + CH 2 = CHCH 2 CH 3 48. (3) Sandmeyer’s reaction

Major ( B ) Minor ( C )
NH2
HBr / Peroxide
CH 3CH = CH – CH3 ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ® NaNO
(B) ¾¾¾®
2
HCl
Br alkaline
| hydrolysis NH2+Cl– Cl
CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3 ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ®
OH CuCl
¾¾®
|
CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3
(A) 49. (2) C6H5ONa + CH2 = CH – CH2 – Br ¾¾ ®
C6H5 – O – CH2 – CH = CH2 + NaBr
HBr / Peroxide
CH2 = CHCH 2CH 3 ¾¾¾¾¾® Allyl phenyl ether
(C)
alkaline
50. (1) Alkyl or Aryl cyanide react with grignard
hydrolysis reagent to form ketones
BrCH 2 – CH 2 – CH 2 – CH 3 ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ®
CºN
OH – CH2 – CH2CH 2CH3
Isomer of (A)
46. (2) In addition homopolymers such as teflon, Ether
+ C6H 5MgBr ¾¾®
empirical formula resembles with monomer.
O
C
C º CH H3O+
H2SO4, Hg
2+ C6H5 – C = NMgBr ¾¾®
47. (3) |
C6H5
O
OH or C6H5 – C = O + MgBrNH2
C – CH3 |
C = CH2 C6H5
51. (19.55)
[A] Energy of photon corresponding to second line
of Balmer series for Li2+ ion
56. (68.13)
2é 1 1ù
= (13.6 ) ´ ( 3 ) ê 2 - 2 ú Let atomic masses of A and B be a and b amu
ë2 4 û
respectively
27 \ Molar mass of AB2 = (a + 2b) g mol–1
= 13.6 ´
16 and Molar mass of AB4 = (a + 4b) g mol–1
Energy needed to eject electron from n = 2 level
For compound AB2
in H-atom;
DTb = Kb´ WB ´ 1000/ WA ´ MB
2 é 1 1 ù 13.6
= 13.6 ´1 ´ ê 2 - 2 ú Þ 2.3 = 5.1 ´ 1 ´ 1000/ 20.0 ´ (a + 2b)....I
ë2 ¥ û 4
For compound AB4
K.E. of ejected electron
1.3 = 5.1 ´ 1 ´ 1000/ 20.0 ´ (a + 4b)....II
9 ´ 3 13.6 æ 27 - 4 ö Solving (I) and (II), a = 25.49 b = 42.64
= 13.6 ´ - = 13.6 ´ ç ÷
16 4 è 16 ø Sum of atomic masses = 25.49 + 42.64 = 68.13
Þ 19.55 eV 57. (5.19) For bcc lattice, number of atoms per unit
cell = 2
O
|| Now
52. (8) H - O - S- O - H ; 6s & 2p
|| n´M 2 ´ 100
O d= =
3 -8
a ´ NA (4 ´ 10 cm)3 ´ 6.02 ´ 1023
53. (128) For fcc, = 200/38.528 = 5.19 g/cc
58. (4.0) Flask I:
2a a
r= = = 0.3535a 1M 0.5 M 0.25 M
4 2 2 t1/2 = 4 hr t1/2 = 4 hr
given a = 361 pm
t = 8 hr
r = 0.3535 × 361 \ t1/2 = 4 hr.
= 128 pm
Flask II:
54. (0.32) Cell reaction :
0.6 M ¾¾¾¾¾
® 0.3 M
M + 3Ag + (aq) ¾¾
® M 3+ + 3Ag (s) t1/2 = 4 hr
A first order reaction is independent of the initial
0.0591 [Reduced state] concentration of the reactant.
E = E0 - log
(4.0) pOH = pK b + log [salt ]
n [Oxidised state]
59.
0.0591 0.001
[base]
0.421 = E 0 - log = - log10-10 + log1 = 10 ; pH = 14 - 10 = 4
3 (0.01)3
60. (100)
E0 = 0.48
C (graphite) ® C (diamond)
E 0
= E 0Ag + / Ag 0
- EM 3+
DH = DU + P . DV
/M
12
Vm ( diamond ) = mL
E 0M 3+ / M = 0.8V - 0.48V = 0.32 volt 3
12
55. (0.4) 6.4 g of CaC2 º 0.1 mol of CaC2 Vm ( graphite ) = mL
2
0.1 mol contains 0.1 NA molecules of CaC2 DH – DU = (500 × 103 × 105 N/m2)
Q 1 molecules have 4p electron æ 12 12 ö -6
\ 0.1 NA molecule will have ç - ÷ ´ 10 = – 100 kJ/mol
è 3 2ø
0.1 NA × 4 = 0.4 NA DU – DH = + 100 kJ/mol
MT-176 JEE MAIN
MATHEMATICS a cos q - a sin q b sin q + b cos q

h= and k =
2 2
y
61. (3) (1) x2y2 = 16a4 ; LST = x Þ xy = 4a2 4h 2 4k 2 h2 1k2
T \ 2
+ 2
=2Þ 2
+ 2
=
a b a b 2
-y
y + xy' = 0 Þ y ¢ = ; 64. (1) The curve of y (x2 + 4a2) = 8a3 is symmetrical
x about y-axis and cuts it at A (0, 2a). Tangent at A is
y parallel to x-axis. x-axis is asymptote. This curve
LST = = x Þ LST = 2a
y/x meets x2 = 4ay
\ (1) is true. Where,
dy x x2 8a 3
(2) = = 1 i.e. x = 2 = Þ x 4 + 4a 2 x 2 - 32a 4 = 0
dx 2 4a x 2 + 4a 2
\ (2, 1) is the point on the curve x2 = 4y at
Þ (x 2 - 4a 2 )(x 2 + 8a 2 ) = 0 Þ x = ± 2a
which the normal is : y – 1 = – 1 (x – 2) i.e.
x + y = 3 \ (b) is true
A(0, 2a)
(3) y = – 4x2, y = e–x/2
The curves are non-intersecting
(–2a, a) (2a, a)
\ curves are not orthogonal i.e. (3) is false.
2
(4) y = x3 – 2ax2 +2x+ 5 O
3
\ Required
dy
= 2x2 – 4ax + 2 = 2 (x – a)2 + 2 – 2a2 > 0 é 2a 8a 3 2a x 2 ù
dx area = 2 ê ò dx - ò 0 4a úúdx
2 2
[Q a Î (–1, 0) Þ 0 < a2 < 1] \ (4) is true êë 0 x + 4a û
(x 2 - 1) dx a2
62. (3) I =ò = (6p - 4).
æ x 2 + 1ö 3
(x 4 + 3x 2 + 1) tan -1 ç ÷ r rr r r
è x ø 65. (1) p r + ( r . b ) a = c ...(1)
(Dividing Num. and Den. by x2) rr rr rr rr
p( r .b) + ( r.b)(a.b) = c.b
æ 1ö rr
çè1 - 2 ÷ø dx r r c.b rr
x Þ r.b = , since a.b = 0 , putting in (1),
I=ò p
æ 2 1ö -1 æ 1ö rr r
çè x + 3 + 2 ÷ø tan çè x + x ÷ø
x
r rr
r c (c.b) r c b.c a
Þr= -
r
a = –
( )
dt p p2 p p2
=ò
( )
t 2 + 1 tan -1 t 66. (4) For f (x) to be defined, we must have
æ 1 æ 1ö ö x - 1 - x 2 ³ 0 or x ³ 1 - x2 > 0
çè where t = x + x Þ dt = èç1 - 2 ø÷ dx ÷ø
x 1
x2 ³ 1 – x2 or x ³
2
\ .
æ x 2 + 1ö 2
= log | tan -1 t | + C = log tan -1 ç ÷ +C Also, 1 – x2 ³ 0 or x2 £ 1.
è x ø æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
1
Now, x ³ Þ çè x - ÷ø çè x +
2
÷ ³0
x +1 2
2 2 2ø
Þ f (x) = 1 1
x Þ x£- or x ³
63. (1) Clearly P is (a cos q, b sin q) and Q is 2 2
Also, x2 £ 1 Þ (x – 1) ( x + 1) £ 0
(-a sin q, b sin q) so the mid point (h, k) of PQ Þ –1 £ x £ 1
will be given by
1 éæ x ö
2
3x 2 ù
Thus, x > 0, x ³
2
and x2 £ 1 Þ ( x 1 - x 2 ) êç x 1 + 2 ÷ + 2 ú = 0 .
2 2 ø 4 ú
êëè û
é 1 ù Þ x1 – x2 = 0, because the other factor is non-
ÞxÎê ,1ú
ë 2 û zero.
67. (3) A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {4, 5} Þ x1 = x2 \ f is one-one.
f is onto. Let k ÎR any real number.
Then A Ç B = f
1/ 3
A × B = {(1, 4), (1, 5), (2, 4), (2, 5), (3, 4), (3, 5)} æk+7ö
f ( x ) = k Þ 4x 3 - 7 = k Þ x = ç ÷
B × A = {(4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3)} è 4 ø
(A × B) Ç (B × A) = f 1/ 3
æ k + 7ö
Now ç Î R, because k Î R and
è 4 ÷ø
2
68. (3) f ( x) = x [ x]
Y
3
é æ k + 7 ö 1/ 3 ù é æ k + 7 ö 1/ 3 ù
f êç ÷ ú=4 êç ÷ ú –7
–1 O 1 êë è 4 ø úû êë è 4 ø úû
X
æ k + 7ö
=4ç -7 = k
y = –x2
è 4 ÷ø
1/ 3
æk+7ö
\ k is the image of ç ÷
è 4 ø
ìï- x 2 , -1 < x < 0 \ f is onto.
Þ f ( x) = í \ f is a bijective function.
ïî 0, 0 £ x <1
é p 2p ù
69. (4) y = e x + sin x 72. (2) f : ê- , Þ [0, 4] ,
ë 3 3 úû
dy dx 1
= e x + cos x Þ = f (x) = 3 sin x - cos x + 2
dx dy e x + cos x
Diff. w r.t y æ pö
f(x) = 2sin ç x - ÷ + 2
è 6ø
d 2x - 1[e x - sin x ] dx (sin x - e x )
= ´ = æ x - 2ö p
dy 2 (e x + cos x ) 2 dy (e x + cos x)3 Þ (f -1 (x)) = sin -1 ç +
è 2 ÷ø 6
1 3 7 15 q r
70. (3) + + + + ...
2 4 8 16 73. (3) We have a + b = - p , ab = p
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö æ 1ö æ 1ö Now the given equation
= ç1 - ÷ + ç1 - ÷ + ç1 - ÷ + ç1 - ÷ + ....
è 2 ø è 4 ø è 8 ø è 16 ø a ( x - b) 2 + b ( x - a ) 2 = 0
1ì 1 ü
í1 - n ý Þ (a + b) x 2 - 4 ab x + ab ( a + b ) = 0
2
=n- î
2 þ
= n - 1 + 2-n
1 æ qö r r æ qö
1- Þç- ÷ x2 - 4 x + ç- ÷ = 0
2 p p p
è ø è pø
71. (4) We have f ( x ) = 4 x3 - 7, x Î R.
Þ pqx 2 + 4prx + rq = 0 ------(i)
f is one-one. Let x1, x2ÎR and f (x1) = f(x2).
Since a and b have opposite signs, therefore p
Þ 4x13 - 7 = 4x 2 3 - 7 Þ 4x13 = 4x 2 3 and r must have opposite signs.
Þ x13 = x 2 3 Þ x13 - x 2 3 = 0. Þ pq and rq must have opposite signs
Þ roots of equation (i) have oposite signs
Þ ( x 1 - x 2 ) ( x1 2 + x 1 x 2 + x 2 2 ) = 0.
MT-178 JEE MAIN
74. (1) Given, k sin q + cos 2 q = 2k – 7
Þ k sin q + 1 – 2 sin2 q = 2k – 7 This passes through æç1, p ö÷ Þ ln c =1
Þ 2sin2 q – k sin q + (2k – 8) = 0 è 4ø
For the existence of real roots, discriminant ³ 0. æ eö
Þ k2 – 4 × 2 (2k – 8) ³ 0 Þ (k – 8)2 ³ 0, which is \y = x tan -1 ç log ÷
è xø
always true.
k-4 é 2 x (2 - 1) ù é 2 x +1 - 2 x ù
Roots of the quadratic equation are , 2, 77. (4) y = tan -1 ê ú = tan -1 ê ú
x x +1 x x +1
2 ëê1 + 2 .2 ûú êë1 + 2 .2 úû
but sin q ¹ 2.
= tan -1 (2 x +1 ) - tan -1 (2 x )
k-4
\ sin q = but - 1 £ sin q £ 1
2 dy 2 x +1 log 2 2 x log 2
Þ = -
k-4 dx 1 + 2 2 ( x +1) 1 + 2 2 x
Þ -1 £ £1 Þ -2 £ k -4 £ 2
2 æ dy ö æ2 1ö æ 1ö
Þ 2£k£6 \ç ÷ = (log 2) ç - ÷ = (log 2) ç - ÷
è dx ø x = 0 è5 2ø è 10 ø
æ 2x ö
75. (3) y = sin -1 ç ÷
è 1+ x2 ø a a2 1+ a3
dy 1 2(1 + x 2 ) - 4 x 2 78. (3) b b2 1 + b3

= .
dx
1-
4x 2 (1 + x )
2 2 c c2 1 + c3
(1 + x ) 2 2
= (1 + abc)(a - b)(b - c)(c - a ) = 0 ....(1)
2(1 - x 2 ) 1 2(1 - x 2 )
= . = 1 a a2
2 2
(1 - x ) 1+ x2 | 1 - x 2 | (1 + x 2 )
also, 1 b b 2 ¹ 0, since A, B, C are not
2 2
If | x | < 1 Þ x < 1, then 1–x > 0
1 c c2
2 dy2 2 coplanar = (a - b)(b - c)(c - a ) ¹ 0 ...(2)
\ | 1- x | = 1- x Þ =
dx 1 + x 2 From (1) & (2), abc = –1
If | x | > 1 Þ x2 > 1, then 1 –x2 < 0
79. (4) A and B will agree in a certain statement if
2 2dy 2 both speak truth or both tell a lie. We define
\ | 1- x |= x -1 Þ =-
dx 1+ x 2 following events
dy E1 = A and B both speak truth Þ P(E1) = xy
Obviously does not exist for x2 = 1 or | x | = 1
dx E2 = A and B both tell a lie
dy y æyö Þ P (E2) = (1 – x ) (1 – y)
76. (3) Given, = - cos 2 ç ÷
dx x èxø E = A and B agree in a certain statement
dy dv Clearly, P(E / E1 ) = 1 and P(E / E 2 ) = 1
Putting, y = vx so that = v+x
dx dx The required probability is P(E1 / E). Using
dv
We get, v + x = v - cos 2 v Baye’s theorem
dx
P ( E1 / E )
dv dx dx
Þ 2
=- Þ sec 2 v dv = - P(E1 )P(E / E1 )
cos v x x =
Integrating, we get P(E1 )P(E / E1 ) + P(E 2 )P(E / E 2 )
æyö xy.1 xy
tan v = – ln x + ln c tan ç ÷ = - ln x + ln c = =
èxø xy.1 + (1 – x )(1 – y).1 1 – x – y + 2 xy
80. (1) | x1z1 – y1z2 |2 + | y1z1 – x1z2 |2 1 æ Sx ö

2
s 2 = Sx 2 - ç ÷
= | x1z1 |2 + | y1z2|2 – 2Re(x1y1z1z2) n è n ø
2
+ | y1z1 |2 + | x1z2 |2 + 2Re (x1y1z1z2) 18 æ 12 ö 9 36 9
= -ç ÷ = - =
= x12 | z1 |2 + y12 | z2 |2 + y12 | z1 |2 + x12 | z2 |2 10 è 10 ø 5 25 25
= x12 | z1 |2 + y12 | z2 |2 + y12 | z1 |2 + x12 | z2 |2 3
\ SD = = 0.60
= 2(x12 + y12) (42) = 32(x12 + y12) 5
81. (3.00) 84. (1.00) The given system of equations are :
p3x + (p +1)3 y = (p +2)3 ...(1)
1 px + (p +1)y = (p +2) ....(2)
m( x) = , which is discontinous at x = 1 x +y = 1 ....(3)
x -1
This system is consistent, if values of x and y
1 1 from first two equation satisfy the third equation.
f (u) = = ,
u +u -2 2 (u + 2) (u - 1)
p3 (p + 1)3 (p + 2)3
which is discontinous at u = – 2, 1
which Þ p (p + 1) (p + 2) = 0
1 1
when u = – 2, then = -2 Þ x = 1 1 1
x -1 2
p3 (p + 1)3 - p3 (p + 2)3 - p 3
1
when u = 1, then =1 Þ x = 2 p 1 2 =0
x -1 Þ
Hence given composite function is discontinous 1 0 0
1 Þ 2 (p + 1)3 – 2p3 – (p + 2)3 + p3 = 0
at three points, x = 1, and 2.
2 Þ 2 (p3 +1 + 3p2 + 3p) – 2p3 – (p3 + 8 + 12p +
82. (2.00) f ( x ) = Pe 2 x + Qe x + Rx 6p2) + p3 = 0
Þ 2p3 + 2 + 6p2 + 6p – 2p3– p3 – 8 – 12p – 6p2
Þ f ¢( x ) = 2Pe 2 x + Qe x + R + p3 = 0
Þ – 6 – 6p = 0 Þ | p | = |– 1| = 1.
Þ 31 = 2Pe 2 log 2 + Qelog 2 + R
85. (17.67)
Þ 8P + 2Q + R = 31 ......... (i) Let f (x) = 3x10 – 7x8 + 5x6 – 21x3 + 3x2 – 7
Also, 0 = P + Q ......... (ii) f ¢ (x) = 30x9 – 56x7 + 30x5 – 63x2 + 6x
f ¢ (1) = 30 – 56 + 30 – 63 + 6
log 4 39
& ò0 (f (x) - Rx)dx =
2
= 66 – 63 – 56 = – 53
f (1 – a ) – f (1)
log 4 39 Consider lim
a®0 a3 +3a
ò0
2x x
Þ (Pe + Qe )dx =
2
f ¢ (1– a )(–1)–0
log 4 = lim
éP ù 39 a®0 3a 2 +3
Þ ê e 2x + Qe x ú = (By using L’hospital rule)
ë2 û0 2
f ¢(1 – 0)(–1) – f ¢ (1) 53
= = =
P 2 log 4 P 39 3(0)2 + 3 3 3 = 17.67
Þ e + Q elog 4 - - Q =
2 2 2 86. (325.00)
Þ 15P + 6Q = 39 ......... (iii) F
f b H
Solving (i), (ii) and (iii), we get P = 5, Q = – 6, R = a
g
3 Þ P + Q + R = 5 – 6 + 3 = 2. e d
83. (0.60) Given, x1 + x2 + .... + x10 = 12 c
B
and x12 + x22 + .... + x10
2
= 18
MT-180 JEE MAIN
a + e + f + g = 285, b + d + f + g = 195 89. (2.00)
c + d + e + g = 115, e + g = 45, f + g = 70,
é æ 1 öù
d + g = 50 f {f [f ( x)]} = f êf ç ÷ú
a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 500 – 50 = 450 ë è 1 - x øû
we obtain æ ö
a + f = 240, b + d = 125, c + e = 65 ç ÷ x -1 ö
÷ = f æç
1
a + e = 215, b + f = 145; b + c + d = 165 =fç ÷
ç1- 1 ÷ è x ø
a + c + e = 255; a + b + f = 335 ç ÷
è 1- x ø
Solving we get
b = 95, c = 40, a = 190 , d = 30, e = 25, f = 50 and æ 1 ö
\ f (x) is not defined for x = 1; f ç ÷ is not
g = 20 è1- x ø
Desired quantity = a + b + c = 325 defined for x = 0.
87. (0.50) \ f {f [f(x)]} is discontinuous at x = 0 and 1 i.e.,
sin (cot–1(x + 1)) = cos (tan –1x) there are two points of discontinuity.
90. (6.00)
Þ cos( p / 2 - cot -1 ( x + 1)) = cos(tan -1 x)
We have cos x + cos 2 x + cos 3x = 0
p
Þ - cot -1 ( x + 1) = 2np ± tan -1 x Put n = 0 or (cos3x + cos x) + cos 2x = 0
2
Þ p / 2 - cot -1 (x + 1) = ± tan -1 x = tan -1 (± x) or cos 2x(2cos x + 1) = 0
-1 -1
Þ p / 2 = tan (± x ) + cot ( x + 1) or cos 2x (2 cos x + 1) = 0
Þ x + 1 = ± x Þ 2x + 1 = 0 ; We have, either cos 2x = 0 or 2 cos x + 1 = 0
1 1 p
| x | = - = = 0.50 If cos 2x = 0, then 2x = (2m + 1)
2 2 2
88. (1.50)
p
1 - cos 3 x or x = (2m + 1) , m Î I ...(i)
lim 4
x ® 0 x sin x cos x
1 2p
(1 - cos x) (1 + cos x + cos 2 x) If 2 cos x + 1 = 0, then cos x = - = cos
= lim 2 3
x ®0 x sin x cos x
2p
æ xö Þ x = 2 np ± , nÎI ...(ii)
2sin 2 ç ÷ 3
è 2ø (1 + cos x + cos2 x)
= lim ´ So, the required general solution are
x ®0 æ xö æ xö cos x
x.2sin ç ÷ cos ç ÷
è 2ø è 2ø
\ Values of x in the interval (0 < x < 2p) in
equation (i)
æ xö Put m = 0, 1, 2, 3
sin ç ÷
è 2 ø 1 + cos x + cos 2 x p 3p 5p 7 p
= lim ´ So the value is x = , , ,
x®0 æ x ö æ xö 4 4 4 4
2ç ÷ cos ç ÷ cos x
è 2ø è 2ø
2 p 4p
1 3 In equation (ii) Put, n = 0, 1 x = ,
= ´ 3 = = 1.50 3 3
2 2 Hence, 6 roots of the given equation.
Mock Test-6
ANSWER KEY
1 (3) 16 (4) 31 (3) 46 (2) 61 (1) 76 (4)
2 (3) 17 (4) 32 (3) 47 (2) 62 (2) 77 (2)
3 (2) 18 (4) 33 (3) 48 (3) 63 (1) 78 (4)
4 (3) 19 (2) 34 (2) 49 (2) 64 (1) 79 (1)
5 (4) 20 (4) 35 (2) 50 (3) 65 (3) 80 (3)
6 (1) 21 (250) 36 (1) 51 (10.43) 66 (4) 81 (0.14)
7 (1) 22 (4) 37 (1) 52 (1) 67 (2) 82 (10)
8 (4) 23 (4) 38 (1) 53 (464) 68 (4) 83 (6)
–3
9 (1) 24 (2 × 10 ) 39 (2) 54 (8) 69 (4) 84 (3)
10 (4) 25 (1.06) 40 (2) 55 (57.5) 70 (3) 85 (80)
11 (2) 26 (5451) 41 (2) 56 (105.7) 71 (2) 86 (1)
12 (2) 27 (0.01) 42 (4) 57 (0.05) 72 (1) 87 (0)
13 (3) 28 (0) 43 (2) 58 (21) 73 (1) 88 (0.29)
14 (4) 29 (80) 44 (1) 59 (2.57) 74 (2) 89 (1)
15 (3) 30 (30) 45 (3) 60 (2.42) 75 (4) 90 (21.33)
Solutions
j
PHYSICS
+
+
+
+ dl
+
1 k + dq
+
1. (3) Frequency of spring (f ) = = 1 Hz
2p m + dE q
+
cos q
i
O
k m = 1 kg dE
Þ 4p 2 =
m dE sin q
æ ö
q q
dq = ç ÷ dl = (rd q) (Qdl = rd q)
è pr ø pr
If block of mass m = 1 kg is attached then,
k = 4p2 æqö
= ç ÷dq
Now, identical springs are attached in parallel è pø
with mass m = 8 kg. Hence, Electric field at O due to dq is
keq = 2k 1 dq 1 q
dE = . = 4 . dq
k 4p Î0 r 2 p Î0 pr 2
1 k´2 1
F= = Hz 8 kg
The component dE cos q will be counter
2p m 2
balanced by another element on left portion.
2. (3) Let us consider a differential element dl. Hence resultant field at O is the resultant of the
charge on this element. component dE sinq only.
MT-182 JEE MAIN
p
q 5
\ E = ò dE sin q = ò 4 p2 r 2 Î sin qd q \ i1 = i2
0 0 4
q p i1 = current through 4 W
= [ - cos q]0 i2 = current through Ammeter
4p2 r 2 Î0
q 5 ´ 4 20
= (+1 + 1) Total R = =
4p2 r 2 Î0 9 9
q 10 ´ 9 9 5 9
= I= = Þ i 2 + i 2 = Þ i 2 = 2A
2p2 r 2 Î0 20 2 4 2
The direction of E is towards negative y-axis. 9. (1) When positive terminal connected to A
then diode D1 is forward biased, current,
r q
\ E=- 2 2 ˆj 2
2p r Î0 I= = 0.4 A
5
3. (2) Let pole strength = m When positive terminal connected to B then
l diode D 2 is forward biased, current,
\ M = m ´ l when l' =
2 2
ml M I= = 0.2 A
M' = m ´ l' = = = 40 units 10
2 2 10. (4) Mass per unit length of the wire = r
1 é 1 1 ù Mass of L length, M = rL
4. (3) Wave number = RZ 2 ê - ú and since the wire of length L is bent in a form
l êë n1 n 2 úû
2
1 L
Þlµ of circular loop therefore 2pR = L Þ R =
Z2 2p
By question n = 1 and n 1 = 2 Moment of inertia of loop about given axis
3 2
Then, l1 = l2 = 4l3 = 9l4 = MR
2
5. (4) From conservation of mechanical energy 2
3 æ Lö 3rL3
1 1 æ v2 ö æ 3v2 ö = rL ç ÷ =
mv 2 + I ç 2 ÷ = mg ç ÷ 2 è 2p ø 8p2
2 2 èR ø è 4g ø r r
11. (2) f = B. A ; f = BA cos wt
mR 2
after solving I = Which is for disc. df wBA
2 e=- = wBA sin wt ; i = sin wt
1 dt R
6. (1) X= 2
a w 2 - bw + c æ wBA ö
Pinst = i 2 R = ç ÷ ´ R sin 2 wt
At resonance X becomes maximum and è R ø
T
aw 2 - bw + c becomes minimum.
\ Differential above term and equating it to zero.
ò Pinst ´ dt
0
Pavg =
b T
\ 2aw - b = 0 Þ w = .
2a ò dt
0
(200 - T1 ) (T - T ) T
7. (1) Q = KA = (2K)A 1 2 2
L L 2 ò sin wtdt
1 =
(wBA) 0 1 ( wBA) 2
=(1.5K)A (T2-18) × R T =
L 2 R
200 – T1= 2T1 – 2T2 = 1.5 T2- 27, ò dt
0
Solving T1 = 116ºC and T2= 74ºC é
(w B pr 2 ) 2 pr 2 ù
8. (4) 4i1 = 5i 2 \ Pavg = êA = ú
8R ëê 2 ûú
12. (2) Let V be volume of the load, and let its 4

relative density be r then At t = s we get
3
2
FL VrgL d2x æ pö p 4 -p2 p
Y= = . ......(1) = - ç ÷ sin ´ = sin
Al a Al a dt 2 è 4ø 4 3 16 3
when the load is immersed in liquid, the net - 3p 2
= cm / s 2
weight = weight - upthrust 32
F' L (Vrg - V ´ l ´ g )L 2 æ Df ö p
\Y = = ......(2) 15. (3) 2I0 = 4I0 cos ç ÷ here, Df =
Al w Al w è 2 ø 2
2p l
r r -1 But, Df = Dx so, Dx =
Equating (1) and (2), we get = l 4
la lw dy l
= ....(i)
D 4
la
which gives r = lD
la - l w =b ....(ii)
d
13. (3) Given: Amplitude of electric field, Multiplying equation (i) and (ii) we get,
E0 = 4 V/m b
Absolute permitivity, y=
e0 = 8.8 × 10–12 C2/N-m2 4
Average energy density uE = ? 16. (4) Internal energy is a state function hence in
Applying formula, a cyclic process change in internal energy is
zero.
1
Average energy density uE = e0 E 2 17. (4) From the law of conservation of momentum
4 we know that,
1 m1u1 + m2u2 + .... = m1v1 + m2v2 + ....
Þ uE = ´ 8.8 ´ 10 -12 ´ (4) 2
4 Given m1 = m, m2 = 2m and m3 = 3m
= 35.2 × 10–12 J/m3 and u1 = 3u, u2 = 2u and u3 = u
14. (4) From the graph it is clear that the ®
amplitude is 1 cm and the time period is 8 Let the velocity when they stick = v
second. Therefore the equation for the S.H.M. Then, according to question,
is Y
æ 2p ö æ 2p ö 2m, 2u
x = a sin ç ÷ ´ t = 1sin ç ÷ t
èT ø è 8ø
j sin 60°
p j
x = sin t 60°
4 m, 3u X
The velocity (v) of the particle at any instant of P 60° i i cos 60°
time ‘t’ is (–j) sin 60°
–3m, u
dx d é æ p ö ù p æ pö
v= = êsin ç ÷ t ú = cos ç ÷ t
dt dt ë è 4 ø û 4 è 4ø ()
m × 3u î + 2m × 2u
The acceleration of the particle is
2 2 ( -î cos 60° - ˆjsin 60°) + 3 m × u
d x æ pö æ pö
= - ç ÷ sin ç ÷ t
( -î cos 60° + ˆjsin 60°) = (m + 2m + 3m) v
®
dt 2 è 4ø è 4ø
MT-184 JEE MAIN
î æ 3 ˆö î 21. (250) The magnetic field at a point on the axis

Þ 3muiˆ - 4mu - 4mu ç j÷ - 3mu of a circular loop at a distance x from centre is,
2 è 2 ø 2
æ 3 ˆö ® m 0i a 2
+ 3mu çç j ÷÷ = 6m v B=
2( x 2 + a 2 )3 / 2
è 2 ø
3 3 ® m i
Þ muiˆ - muiˆ - mujˆ = 6m v B' = 0
2 2 2a
®
1 ˆ
Þ - mui -
3 ˆ
muj = 6m v B.( x 2 + a2 )3/ 2
\ B' =
2 2 a3
®
54(53 )
Þ v=
u ˆ
12
(
- i - 3jˆ ) Put x = 4 & a = 3 Þ B ' =
3´ 3´ 3
= 250 µT
18. (4) Gravitational force provides the necessary 22. (4) mg – T = ma
centripetal force.
T 360
mv 2 GmM GM \ a = g - = 10 - = 4m / s 2
\ = also g = m 60
( R + x ) ( R + x )2 R2
T
mv 2 æ GM ö R 2 n!
\ = mç
( R + x) è R 2 ÷ø ( R + x )2 r !( n - r ) !
a
®
T
mv 2 R2
\ = mg
( R + x) ( R + x) 2
mg
1/ 2 mg
gR 2 æ gR 2 ö
\ v2 = Þ v = ç ÷ u 2 sin 2 q
R+ x è R + xø 23. (4) H= or H µ u 2
2g
1
19. (2) According to Wien’s law l m µ and DH Du
T = 2. = 2(+2%) = 4% increased
H u
from the figure (lm)1 < (lm)3 < (lm)2 therefore 1 q
T1 > T3 > T2. 24. (2 × 10–3) Electric Intensity = ´
4 p Î0 r 2
20. (4) Here, R = 4 kW = 4 × 103 W 1
Vi = 60 V or qmax = r2E
9
9 ´ 10
Zener voltage Vz = 10 V
1
RL = 2 kW = 2 × 103 W = × 2.5 × 2.5 × 3 × 106
9 ´10 9
VZ 10
Load current, IL = = = 5 mA or qmax = 2 × 10–3 coulomb
RL 2 ´ 103
25. (1.06) 20 cm
V - VZ
Current through R, I = i
R u0 v0 ue
60 - 10 50
= 3
= = 12.5 mA
4 ´ 10 4 ´ 103
Fom circuit diagram,
I = IZ + IL objective
Þ 12.5 = IZ + 5
Þ IZ = 12.5 – 5 = 7.5 mA Ve=25 cm Eye piece
Final image distance L = v0 + ue = 20

1 1 1
The distance of point A ( 2, 2 ) from the
for objective = +
origin,
f0 v0 u 0
1 1 1 ur 2 2
for eye piece =- + OA= | r1 | = ( 2) + ( 2) = 4 =2units.
fe 25 u e
The distance of point B(2, 0) from the origin,
1 1 1
or + = uur 2 2
5 25 u e OB = | r2 | = (2) + (0) = 2 units.
25 1 Q
\ue = cm Now, potential at A, VA = .
6 4p Î0 (OA)
\ v o = 20 - u e
1 Q
25 95 Potential at B, VB = .
v0 = 20 - = 4p Î0 (OB)
6 6
\ Potential difference between the points A and
1 1 95 89 B is given by
\ = 1- =1- = -
u0 v0 6 95
1 Q 1 Q
95 VA – VB = . - .
\u0 = - ; 1.06 4p Î0 OA 4p Î0 OB
89
1 ì hc ü Q æ 1 1 ö Q æ 1 1ö
26. (5451) V= í - fý = ç - ÷ = ç - ÷
eîl þ 4p Î0 è OA OB ø 4p Î0 è 2 2 ø
Put l1 = 3 ´10 -7 m, V1 = 1.85 , Q
= ´ 0 = 0.
l 2 = 4 ´ 10 -7 m, V2 = 0.82 4p Î0
in the above equation respectively 29. (80) 9.25 days is equal to three half-lives for Tl-
hc 201. The fraction remaining is then :
f = 1.216 ´ 10 -19 J = Þ l 0 = 5451Å 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2 = 1/8. Thus 1/8 of 80 mCi remains.
l0
Distance travelled on pitch scale
27. (0.01) Pitch = H
Number of rotation A 0.9 km B I
2mm 30. (30) ENGINE L
= = 0.5 mm C L
4
Least count
Pitch Let after 5 sec engine at point C
=
Number of division on circular scale AB BC
t= +
0.5mm 330 330
= = 0.01 mm
50 0.9 ´ 1000 BC
28. (0) 5= +
Y 330 330
\ BC = 750 m
Distance travelled by engine in 5 sec
A(Ö2,Ö2)
® = 900 m – 750 m = 150 m
r1 Therefore velocity of engine
150 m
O X = = 30 m/s .
(0,0) ®
r2 B (2,0) 5sec
MT-186 JEE MAIN
CHEMISTRY 37. (1) AgX + 2 Na2S2O3 ® Na3[Ag(S2O3)2] + NaX

thiosulphate Sodium argento (soluble complex)
31. (3) The correct order of acidic strength of the Q x + 2 (–2) = –3
given species is :
x = +1
HSO 3 F > H 3O + > HSO 4– > HCO 3–
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 38. (1) 2C2 H5OH ∗ 2Na ¾¾
↑
(i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) Ethanol
(A) 2C2 H5ONa ∗ H 2 ←
It corresponds to choice (c) which is correct
Sod. ethoxide
answer. (B)
32. (3) Solar energy is not responsible for green conc. H2SO4
house effect instead it is a source of energy for 2C2 H5OH ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® C2 H 5 OC2 H5
- H 2O
Diethyl ether
the plants and animals.
Thus, (A) is ethanol and (B) is sodium ethoxide.
33. (3) CH3OCH2Cl is a 1° halide but still
39. (2) Claisen self condensation is given by esters
hydrolysis takes place through SN1 mechanism
+ which contain at least one hydrogen on an alpha
because CH 3O - C H 2 is stabilized by carbon atom (e.g., CH3COOC2H5). Compound,
resonance C6H5COOC2H5 will not give this reaction. All
+ remaining compounds will give this reaction.
C H3O CH 2Cl « CH 3– O – CH2 « 40. (2) The step involved is a precipitation step.
+
CH3– O = CH2 Increasing the Cl– concentration will reduce the
34. (2) It is an example of Diel’s-Alder reaction in concentration of Ag+ in solution. Remember
which a dienophile (maleic anhydride, here) Ksp = [Ag+ ] [Cl–] and the source of the Cl– is
reacts with a conjugated diene to form cyclic irrelevant. Thus increased concentration of Cl –
adduct. Here although structures (i), (iii) and (iv) must result in decreased concentration of Ag+
have conjugated system of double bonds, hence in order to maintain the solubility product
theoretically all the three can undergo Diel’s- constant. Addition of Ag2SO4 would probably
Alder reaction, but structure (iii) does not be counterproductive, since additional Ag+ is
undergo this reaction because this will lead to being added, and probably all will not be
larger ring (9-membered) which is unstable. recovered.
CH — CO 41. (2) 2F2 + 4KOH ® 4 KF + O 2 + 2H 2 O for 1 mole
+ O of F2 the molar ratio.
CH — CO F2 KOH KF O2 H2O
6 1
5 7 1 2 2 1
2
8 HOCl
3
4 42. (4) CH 2 < CH 2 ¾¾ ¾↑ ClCH 2 CH 2 OH
9
1 aq. NaHCO
2
CH — CH ¾¾¾ ¾¾
3 ↑ HOCH CH OH
2 2
CO CO 43. (2) All alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia

giving deep blue solution.
O 44. (1) According to van der Waal's equation for
35. (2) Ag2S + 2NaCN Na2S + 2AgCN one mole of gas
AgCN + NaCN ¾ ¾® Na[ Ag ( CN ) 2 ] æ a ö
36.
1
(1) M.P. µ (HCl having more covalent çççP ∗ 2 ÷÷÷ (V , b) < RT
è V ø
f
character) a
M.P. µ Lattice energy (Ionic compd.) at very high pressure P ==
LiF is ionic having highest Lattice energy. V2
a 52. (1)
So, is negligible. H
V2 H
H CH3
P (V – b) = RT
CH3 CH3 CH3 +
PV – Pb = RT Br –
¾ ¾® Br ¾¾ ®
on dividing RT on both sides. Br
H
Pb
[ Z < 1∗ compressibility factor..
Br
Br CH3
RT
H H Br
45. (3) For electrophilic substitution reaction, the CH3
order of reactivity among the given compounds CH3 H Br
H
is as follows : Br CH3
C6H5OCH3 > benzene > C6H5NO2 (meso)
46. (2) KI ∗ AgNO 3 (slight excess) ¾ ¾ ↑ 1
AgI ∗ KNO3 53. (464) H 2 (g) + O2 (g) ® H 2 O(g) ΔH = – 249
2
∗ ,;
AgNO3 ¾¾ ↑ Ag ∗ NO3 Let the bond enthalpy of O - H is x. Then
AgI(s) ∗ Ag ∗ ¾¾ ↑ [AgI]Ag ∗ DH = SB.E. of reactant - S B.E.of product
47. (2) Saffron is an artificial edible colour. 1
–249 = 433 + ´ 492 - 2 x
48. (3) Hydroxylamine and hydrazine, both do not 2
have carbon, hence NaCN will not be formed in Þ x = 464 kJ mol-1.
Lassaigne’s extract leading to negative test for 54. (8) KE = hv – hv0
nitrogen. hv1 – hv0 = 2(hv2 – hv0)
49. (2) Both egg yolk and mustard contain large v0 = 2 v2 – v1
quantity of sulphur (as its compounds) which = 2 (2.0 × 1016) – (3.2 × 1016)
react with Ag.
= 8 × 1015 s–1 = 8 × 1015 Hz
2Ag + S ® Ag2S (Black colour)
55. (57.5) Percentage by mass of copper in malachite
50. (3) In (c), sulphate ion is present outside the
coordination sphere so it can form white ppt of 2 ´ 63.5
= = 57.5%
BaSO4 with BaCl2 (aq). 221
K f ´ w ´ 1000
51. (10.43) Mass of H2SO4 in 100ml of 93% H2SO4 56. (105.7) Molar mass of solute =
DTf ´ W
solution = 93g
Given : Kf = 1.86, w = 1.25 g, W = 20 g,
\ Mass of H2SO4 in 1000 ml of the H2SO4 DTf = 273 – 271.9 = 1.1K
solution = 930g Therefore, molar mass of solute
Mass of 1000 ml H2SO4 solution
1.86 ´ 1.25 ´ 1000
= 1000 × 1.84 = 1840g = = 105.7
1.1´ 20
Mass of water in 1000 ml of solution
= 1840 – 930 = 910 g 57. (0.05) According to the Faraday’s law of
Wt. of H 2SO4 930 electrolysis, nF of current is required for the
Moles of H2SO4 = =
Mol Wt. of H 2SO4 98 deposition of 1 mole.
According to the reaction,
\ Moles of H2SO4 in 1 kg of water
930 1000 Ni ( NO3 ) 2 ¾¾
® Ni 2 + + 2NO 3-
= ´ = 10.43 mol kg–1
98 910 2 F of current deposits = 1 mol
\ Molality of 1 litre solution = 10.43 \ 0.1 F of current deposits = = 0.05 mol
MT-188 JEE MAIN
58. (21) Molecular orbital electronic configuration

d2 y 1 dy y
of these species are : Þ = .2y . = . 1+ y2 = y
2 2 dx 1+ y2
dx 2 1+ y
O 2- (17e - ) : s1s 2 , s *1s 2 , s 2s 2 , s *2s2 , s 2p 2z ,
62. (2) | a1 x + a2x2 + … + anxn | £ | a1 | | x |+| a2 | | x | 2
p2p2x = p 2p2y , p * 2p2x = p *2p1y
+ | a3 | | x | 3 + ……. + | an | | x | n
O2 (16e - ) : s1s 2 , s *1s 2 , s 2s 2 , s *2s 2 , s2p 2z ,
£ 2 [| x | + | x |2 + ….. + | x |n ] [Q a n < 2]
p2p2x = p 2p 2y , p * 2p1x
= p * 2p1y
O22 - (18e -
) : s1s , s *1s , s 2s , s *2s 2 , s2p 2z ,
2 2 2 2| x|
[1- | x | n ] <
2| x| 2 1
<
=
p 2p2x : p2p2y , p * 2p x2 = p * 2p 2y 1- | x | 1- | x | 3 1- | x |
Hence number of antibonding electrons are 7, 6
and 8 respectively. 1 3
Therefore, | a1x + ….. + anxn | < 2. . =1
59. (2.57) Since in NaCl type of structure 4 formula 3 2
units form a cell. \ | a 1x + ….. + anxn | < 1 for all n .
58.5 g of NaCl = 6.023 × 1023 atoms
– 1 < a1x + ….. + anxn < 1 for all n
6.023 ´ 10 23
1 g of NaCl = atoms Þ 1 + a1x + a2x2 + … + anxn > 0 for all n
58.5
4 atoms constitute 1 unit cell
Þ 1 + a1x + .. + a nxn ¹ 0 for all n
23 23
6.023 ´ 10 6.023 ´ 10 p
\ atoms constitute = - p
58.5 58.5 ´ 4 63. (1) Since, e 2 < q <
= 2.57 × 1021 unit cells. 2
o
60. (2.42) Given : E 2+ = -2.36V -
p
p
Mg / Mg
2+ -
\ log e 2 < log q < log
Mg (aq) + 2e ® Mg(s) 2
p p p
o 0.059 [Mg 2+ ] i.e., – < log q < log <1 <
E =E + log 2 2 2
Mg 2 + / Mg Mg 2 + / Mg 2 [Mg] é p p pù
Given [Mg2+] = 0.01 M; [Mg] = 1 êQ 2 < e \ log 2 < log e = 1 and 1 < 2 ú
ë û
0.059
Hence, E Mg2+/Mg = -2.36 + log(0.01) p p
2 \– < log q < \ cos (log q) > 0
= -2.42V 2 2
MATHEMATICS But 0 < cos q < 1, \ log ( cos q) < log 1 = 0
i.e., log (cos q) < 0.
y 1 dy
dt . Hence, cos (log q) > log ( cos q)
61. (1) x = ò Þ 1=
1+ y 2 dx
0 1+ t2 s n
64. (1) å å n
Cs s Cr
r=0 s =1
é y ( x) r£s
dI(x)
êQ If I( x) = ò f (t ) dt , then = f {y ( x)}.
ê dx n
ë f ( x )
(
= å nCs s C 0 + s C1 + s C2 + ... + s Cs )
{ d
dx }
y ( x ) - f {f( x )} .
d
dx { ù
f( x ) ú
û
} s =1
n n
= å n
Cs 2 s = å n Cs 2s – n C0 2 0 =(1 + 2) – 1
n
dy
= 1 + y2 s =1 s=0
dx = 3 –1n
65. (3) Number of ways of making 3 sets of 10 balls we get,
having 2, 3 and 5 balls

10!
and further they x + 1+ w + w2 w w2
2!.3!.5!
x + 1+ w + w2 x + w2 1 =0
can be given to 3 persons one each in 3! ways. 2
x + 1+ w + w 1 x+w
10!
Total number of ways = ´ 3!
2!3!5! x w w2
æ dy ö
66. (4) Given, sin 2 x çè - tan x ÷ø - y = 0 Þ x x + w2 1 =0
dx
x 1 x+w
dy y
or, = + tan x
dx sin 2 x [Q 1 + w + w2 = 0]
dy
or, - y cosec2 x = tan x ...(1) 1 w w2
dx
2
Þ x 1 x+w 1 =0Þx =0
Now, integrating factor (I.F) = e ò
- cosec2x
1 1 x+w
1
- log|tan x|
or, I.F = e 2 = e
( )
log tan x
-1
1 l m n
= = cot x 69. (4) Lines are concurrent if m n l =0
tan x
Now, general solution of eq. (1) is written as n l m
y (I. F.) = ò Q(I.F.) dx + c l+ m+n m n
Þ l+ m+n n l = 0 (C1 ® C1 + C2 + C3 )
\ y cot x = ò tan x . cot x dx + c l+ m+n l m
1 m n
\ y cot x = ò 1.dx + c Þ (l + m + n) 1 n l =0
\ y cot x = x + c 1 l m
67. (2) From cosine and sine formula, we have Þ (l + m + n )( mn + nl + lm - l 2 - m 2 - n 2 ) = 0
b2 + c2 - a 2
cos A = and Þ l + m + n = 0; l 2 + m 2 + n 2 - lm - mn - nl = 0
2bc \ l2 + m2 + n2 = lm +mn + nl
sin A sin B sin C
= = = k. 3 4 2 3 4 2
a b c
70. (3) 5 8 2 = 2 4 0
Given, in any DABC,
sinB x y 2 x -5 y -8 0
cos A =
2sin C (R 2 ® R 2 - R1 , R 3 ® R 3 - R 2 )
From the above given formula, we have
= 2 (2y – 16 – 4x + 20 ) = 2 (2y – 4x + 4 )
sin B = bk, sin C = ck
\ given determinant = 0 Þ 2y – 4x + 4 = 0
bk b Þ 2x – y – 2 = 0 which represents st. line.
\ cos A = =
2ck 2 c 71. (2) Centre of the given circle is (1,2) and its
Put the value of cos A in the formula, which
gives radius = 1 + 4 + 20 = 5 . Since the radii of the
2 2 2 two circles are equal, therefore these will touch
b b +c -a
= externally and the point of contact will lie mid -
2c 2bc
2 2 way between the two centres. If (h,k) is the
Þc =a Þ c=a centre of the circle, then
68. (4) Operate C1+C2 +C3 ,
MT-190 JEE MAIN
h +1 k+2 r
= 5, = 5 \ h = 9, k = 8 Again, | C | = 1 + a 2 + b 2 = 3
2 2
\ its equation is ( x –9)2 + ( y – 8)2 = 25 Þ 1 + a2 + b2 = 3 Þ 1 + a2 + 1 = 3
i.e., x2 + y2 – 18x – 16y + 120 = 0 \ a2 = 1 Þ a = ± 1
Hence, a = ± 1 , b = 1
x2 y 2 76. (4) We know that every quadratic equation has
72. (1) Ellipse is + =1 exactly two roots which are either, both real or
16 3
both are imaginary. So, any quadratic equation
Now, equation of normal at (2, 3/2) is has neither exactly one real root nor booth roots
16 x 3 y are always real.
- = 16 - 3
2 3/ 2 77. (2) We have a theorem that if a square matrix A
13 satisfies the equation;
Þ 8x – 2y = 13 Þ y = 4 x -
2 a0 + a1 x + a2 x 2 + ....... + a n x n = 0,
13 where a0 ¹ 0 then A is invertible.
Let y = 4 x - touches a parabola
2 Since A, B and C are n × n matrices and
y2 = 4ax. A satisfies the equation x3 + 2x2 + 3x + 5 = 0 as
We know, a straight line y = mx + c touches a
parabola y2 = 4ax if a – mc = 0 A 3 + 2 A 2 + 3A + 5I = 0 , therefore, A is
invertible.
æ 13ö 3p / 2 5p / 6 p
\ a - ( 4) ç - ÷ = 0 Þ a = – 26 78. (4) ò [ 2 sin x]dx = ò [2 sin x ]dx + ò [2 sin x ]dx
è 2ø
p/2 p/ 2 5p / 6
Hence, required equation of parabola is 7p / 6 3p / 2
y2 = 4 (– 26)x = – 104 x + ò [2 sin x ]dx + ò [ 2 sin x ]dx
p 7p / 6
73. (1) I study or I fail = p Ú q 5p / 6 p 7p /6
Now, ~ (p Ú q) º~ p Ù (~ q) = ò 1 dx + ò 0 dx + ò (-1) dx
p/2 5p / 6 p
Hence, negation of 'I study or I fail' is I do not
3p / 2
study and I do not fail.
æ pö p
+ ò (-2) dx
74. (2) sin x – cos x = 1 Þ sin ç x - ÷ = sin Þ x 7p / 6
è 4 ø 4
æ 5p p ö æ 7 p ö æ 7 p 3p ö p
=ç - + 0 + çp - ÷ + 2ç - ÷=-
p p p p è 6 2 ÷ø è 6 ø è 6 2 ø 2
– = np+ (–1)n Þ x = np + (–1)n +
4 4 4 4 79. (1) L f ¢(1)
r r f ( x ) - f (1) ax 2 + b - a - b
75. (4) Vector A = î + ˆj + k,ˆ B = 4iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ = Lt = Lt
r x ®1 x -1 x ®1 x -1
And C = î + aˆj + bkˆ are linearly independent, a ( x 2 - 1)
= Lt = Lt a ( x + 1) = 2a
1 1 1 x ®1 x - 1 x ®1
Rf ¢(1)
if 4 3 4 =0
f ( x) - f (1) bx 2 + ax + c - a - b
1 a b = Lt = Lt
x ®1 x -1 x ®1 x -1
Operate C3®C3 – C1 ; C2®C2 – C1 c
= Lt [b ( x + 1) + a ] +
1 0 0 x ®1 x -1
we get, 4 -1 0 =0 c
= 2b + a + = 2b + a if c = 0
1 a -1 b -1 x -1
Since, f is diff. at x = 1\ 2 a = 2 b + a
Þ–(b–1)=0Þb=1 Þ a = 2 b. Thus, result holds if a = 2 b, c = 0.
80. (3) We have a + b = – 3 and ab = a/2 83. (6.00) We have,

a b a2 + b 2 4 cos x (2 - 3 sin 2 x ) + (cos 2x + 1) = 0
Now + <2 Þ <2
b a ab Þ 4 cos x (3 cos 2 x - 1) + 2 cos 2 x = 0
(a + b)2 – 2ab 9–a Þ 2 cos x (6 cos 2 x + cos x - 2) = 0

Þ <2 Þ <2
ab a/2 Þ 2 cos x (3 cos x + 2)(2 cos x - 1) = 0
9–a Þ either cos x = 0 which gives x = p / 2 or
Þ <1 cos x = -2 / 3
a
Which gives no value of x for which 0 £ x £ p / 2
9–a 9 – 2a 2a – 9
Þ –1<0 Þ <0 Þ >0 or cos x = 1 / 2 , which gives x = p / 3
a a a
So, the required difference = p / 2 - p / 3 = p / 6
9
Þ a < 0 or a > p
2 = Þ n = 6.
n
81. (0.14) The probability of A winning in a game 84. (3.00) Since 12 x – 1 < [12 x] £ 12 . x
22 x – 1 < [22 x] £ 22 x
6 1
= P (A) = = 32 x – 1 < [32 x] £ 32 x ………………
12 2
n2 x – 1 < [n 2 x] £ n2 x
The probability of B winning in a game = P (B) Adding all terms, we get,
4 1 x å n 2 - n < {[12 x] + [22 x] + [32 x] + …

= =
12 3
+ [ n2 x]} £ x å n 2
\ Reqd. probability=P(AÇ BÇ A)+P(BÇ AÇ B)
Dividing each term by n3,
= P (A).P(B).P(A) + P (B).P(A).P(B) æ 1 öæ 1ö
x ç1 + ÷ç 2 + ÷
we get , è n øè nø 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 5 -
= × × + × × = = 0.14 6 n2
2 3 2 3 2 3 36 æ 1 öæ 1ö
xç1 + ÷ç 2 + ÷
[12 x ] + [2 2 x] + ..... + [ n 2 x] è n øè nø
82. (10.00) Period of sinx = 2π < £
n3 6
3
Þ period of sin x = 2 π Let n ® ¥, we get,
x [12 x] + [2 2 x] + ....+ [n 2 x] x
3
period of sin x = π (2) - 0 < Lt £
6 n®¥ n3 3
3 x [12 x ] + [2 2 x ] + ..... + [n 2 x ] x
Þ period of sin = 2π Þ lim =
2 n ®¥ 3 3
n
period of cos5 x = 2 π
x
= Þ n = 3.
Þ period of cos5 x = π n
85. (80.00) (1 - y ) m (1 + y )n
x 5
Þ period of cos = 5π = [1 - m C1 y + m C2 y 2 - ......] [1 + n C1 y + n C2 y 2 + .....]
5
Thus required period
= 1 + (n - m) y + ìí m(m - 1) + n(n - 1) - mn üý y 2 + .....
= LCM of 2π & 5π = 10π = kp Þ k = 10 î 2 2 þ
MT-192 JEE MAIN
By comparing coefficients with the given 89. (1.00) Let P ( x1, y1 ), Q ( x2,y2 ) be two points on
expression, we get
1
the curve y = x + . Let î be unit vector along
m2 + n 2 - m - n - 2mn x
\ a1 = n - m = 10 and a2 = = 10
2
x-axis and let ĵ be a unit vector along y-axis.
So, n – m = 10 and (m - n) 2 - (m + n) = 20
Then
Þ m + n = 80 uuur uuur
OP = x1î + y1ˆj, OQ = x 2î + y 2ˆj
æ 3p ö
86. (1.00) sin 4 ç - a ÷ = cos 4 a, uuur
è 2 ø Since, OP × î = 1 and OQ.î = -1
sin 4 ( 3p + a) = sin4 a, \ x1 = 1 and x2 = –1 Þ y1 = 2 and y2 = –2 ;
æp ö
sin 6 ç + a ÷ = cos6 a, sin6 (5p – a) = sin6 a \ OP = î + 2 ĵ; OQ = - î - 2 ĵ
è2 ø
\ given quantity
\ 2OP + 3OQ = 2i + 4 j - 3i - 6 j = -i - 2 j ;
= 3[cos4a + sin4 a] – 2 [cos6 a + sin6 a]
= 3 [1 – 2sin2 a cos2a] –2 [1 – 3 sin2 acos2a] = 1
r r r r r r Hence, 2OP + 3OQ = 1 + 4 = 5
87. (0) [A - B B - C C - A]
r r r r r r
= [(A - B) ´ (B - C)]. (C - A) = n 5 Þn=1
r r r r r r r r r
= [A ´ B - A ´ C - 0 + B ´ C].(C - A) 90. (21.33) y = 4 meets the parabola y2 = x at A, if
r r r r r r 16 = x
= [A ´ B].C - [B ´ C].A \ A is (16, 4)
rrr r rr
= [A BC] - [A BC] = 0 (Q[ABC]= [BCA]) Reqd. area = Area ofrect. OMAC – Area OMA
88. (0.29) Lt [f (x ) + g ( x ) + h (x )]
x ®3
é 2 x -3 2(2 x + 1) ù
= Lt ê + - ú
x ®3 ë x - 3 x + 4 x 2 + x - 12 û
é 2 x + 8 + x 2 - 6x + 9 - 4 x - 2 ù
= Lt ê ú
x ®3ê
ë x 2 + x - 12 ûú 16
16 3/ 2
x
x 2 - 8x + 15(x - 3)( x - 5) = 4 ´ 16 – ò x dx = 64 - .
= Lt = Lt 0
3
2
x ®3 x + x - 12 x ®3 ( x + 4)( x - 3) 2 0
x -5 3-5 2
= Lt = =- =k 2 128 64
x + 4 3+ 4
x ®3 7 = 64 - (4)3 = 64 - = = 21.33 sq.units
3 3 3
2
Þ k = = 0.29.
7
Mock Test-7
ANSWER KEY
1 (3) 16 (3) 31 (4) 46 (3) 61 (4) 76 (1)
2 (2) 17 (1) 32 (1) 47 (2) 62 (4) 77 (3)
3 (3) 18 (1) 33 (3) 48 (3) 63 (3) 78 (3)
4 (1) 19 (1) 34 (3) 49 (2) 64 (2) 79 (1)
5 (2) 20 (1) 35 (1) 50 (3) 65 (1) 80 (3)
6 (3) 21 (242) 36 (2) 51 (6.5) 66 (1) 81 (1)
7 (2) 22 (499) 37 (2) 52 (6.24) 67 (2) 82 (4)
8 (1) 23 (80) 38 (3) 53 (3.6) 68 (2) 83 (0.57)
9 (1) 24 (0.4) 39 (4) 54 (6.7) 69 (1) 84 (34)
10 (1) 25 (0.1) 40 (2) 55 (0.107) 70 (3) 85 (0.63)
11 (2) 26 (11.2) 41 (2) 56 (10) 71 (3) 86 (5)
12 (1) 27 (0.67) 42 (3) 57 (6.56) 72 (2) 87 (3)
–7
13 (1) 28 (1.2 × 10 ) 43 (3) 58 (–6.04) 73 (3) 88 (0.33)
–7
14 (4) 29 (7.8 × 10 ) 44 (4) 59 (2) 74 (1) 89 (7.26)
15 (3) 30 (4) 45 (3) 60 (316) 75 (4) 90 (1.33)
Solutions
PHYSICS N
\ Number of turns in thickness dx = dx
b-a
1 q 1q 2 q .q Small amount of magnetic field is produced at O
1. (3) Force, F = Þ e0 = 1 2 due to thickness dx of the wire.
4pe 0 r 2 4pFr 2
So dimension of e0 m 0 NI dx
\ dB =
2 (b - a) x
[ AT ]2
= = [ M -1L-3T 4 A 2 ] On integrating, we get,
[ MLT -2 ][ L2 ] b m 0 NI dx m NI
æ pt ö B = òa = 0
2. (2) y = 2 sin ç + f ÷ 2 b-a x 2 (b - a )
è 2 ø b dx m0 NI
velocity of particle
dy p æ pt
= 2 ´ cosç + f ÷
ö òa x
=
2 (b - a )
[loge x] ba
dt 2 è 2 ø
m 0 NI b
d2y p2 æ pt ö B= loge
acceleration =- sinç + f ÷ 2 (b - a) a
dt 2 è 2 ø
4. (1) Consider an element part of solid at a
p2 distance x from left end of width dx.
Thus, a max = dx
2 x
3. (3) Let us consider a dx
thickness dx of wire. x
Let it be at a distance a
x from the centre O. O
Number of turns per b
N
unit length =
b-a V
MT-194 JEE MAIN
Resistance of this elemental part is, From DAOC

rdx r xdx OC 2 = AC 2 + AO2
dR = 2 = 0 2
pa pa C
L
r0 xdx r0 L2
R = ò dR = ò =
pa 2
0 2 pa 2 h
Current through cylinder is, d
B
2
V V ´ 2pa
I= = A q R
R r0 L2
Potential drop across element is, dV = I dR = R
O
2V
x dx
L2
dV 2V
E(x) = = x
dx L2 (h + R)2 = d 2 + R 2
5. (2) For translational motion,
mg – T = ma .....(1) Þ d 2 = ( h + R )2 - R 2
For rotational motion,
d = ( h + R )2 - R 2
a
T.R = I a = I ....(2)
R d = h2 + 2hR
m R
d = 5002 + 2 ´ 6.4 ´ 10 6 = 80 km
T 10. (1) + Q –Q
m
a
mg c
Solving (1) & (2),
–Q a Q
mg mg 2 mg 2 g
a= = = = Electric potential at centre
æ I ö mR 2 3m 3
çè m + 2 ÷ø m+ 1 Q 1 Q
R 2R 2 = +
6. (3) We know that V/T = constant 4pe0 a 4pe0 a
V + DV V DV 1 2 2
\ = or = 1 Q 1 Q
T + DT T V DT T - - =0
nh 4pe 0 a 4pe 0 a
7. (2) l = ,| E |µ Z 2 / n2 ; n = 3 2 2
2p
Þ lH = lLi and |EH| < |EL i| 11. (2) This is a problem based on constraint
motion. The motion of mass M is constraint with
æ T ö æ T ö the motion of P and Q. Let AN = x, NO = z. Then
8. (1) h = çç1 - c ÷÷ ´100 Þ 70 = ç1 - c ÷ ´100
è TH ø è 1000 ø
dz
T velocity of mass is . Also, let OA = l . then
0.7 = 1 - c dt
1000
Tc dl
\ = 0.3 or Tc = 300K. =U
1000 dt
9. (1) Let d is the maximum distance, upto it the From DANO, using pythagorous theorem
objects \ x2 + z2 = l2
Here x is a constant. Since, acceleration a x. So it is equation of S.H.M.

Differentiating the above
A x N B 2 rAg m Ta 1
So, w = Þ T = 2p ;
m rAg A
Z
l Stress
P U qq U 14. (4) Young’s modulus, Y =
Q Strain
O or stress = Y. strain
M or strain = Stress / Y
equation w.r.t to t
dz dl Fl Dl Fl A Y
= 2l or Dl = ; 1 = 11 . 2 2
0 + 2z Þ zvM = lU YA Dl 2 A1Y1 F1l1
dt dt
l U U l1= l2 & Y1 = Y2 , F1 = F2
Þ vM = U = =
z z / l cos q
Dl1 pr2 2 4r 2
æ zö Þ = = =4
çèQ cos q = ÷ø Dl 2 pr12 r2
l
xd 15. (3)
12. (1) Path difference =
D Q
For missing wavelengths (i.e., for dark fringe)
l xd n
path difference = (2n - 1) = 90 – a
2 D a
2xd
Þl= q P
D(2n - 1)
P
Applying Snell’s law at Q
S1 P1 x
d/2 1 sin(90 - a)
Source d =
O n sin 90º
S2 1
\ cos a =
D n
1 n2 - 1
but x = d/2, because point is P1, where we want \ sin a = 1 - cos 2 a = 1 - = ...(1)
missing wave length. n2 n
Applying Snell’s Law at P
d2
\ l= sin q
D(2n - 1) n= Þ sin q = n ´ sin a = n2 - 1 ; from
sin a
For n = 1, 2 ......... missing wavelengths are (1)
2
d 2 d 2 d 2 ............... æ 2 ö 4 1
, , \ sin q = çè ÷ -1 = -1 =
D 3D 5D 3ø 3 3
13. (1) Let the body be depressed by distance x æ 1 ö
or q = sin -1 ç ÷
from its equilibrium position. The extra upthrust è 3ø
created is x rAg which applies to whole body. If 16. (3)
a be acceleration created then, (3 + 3) ´ (1 + 1) æ 6´ 2 ö 5
Ceq = +1 = ç ÷ + 1 = mF
rA (3 + 3) + (1 + 1) è 6+2ø 2
xrAg= ma Þ a= xg
m
MT-196 JEE MAIN
5 n2
\ Q = C ´V = ´ 100 = 250mC \ P=
2 2n - 1
Charge in 6mF branch
æ - tö
R
æ 6´ 2 ö 19. (1) I = I o ç1 - e L ÷
= VC = ç ÷100 = 150mC çè ÷ø
è 6+ 2ø
150 (When current is in growth in LR circuit)
VAB = = 25V and V = 100 – V = 75V
6 BC AB æ - ´2 ö
5
Eæ - tö
R
5
B = ç1 - e L ÷ = ç 1 - e 10 ÷
R çè ÷ø 5 çè ÷ø
6mF 2mF
= (1 – e–1)
20. (1) Total momentum will be conserved.
1mF Initial momentum = Final momentum
M.v = m ´ 0 + (M - m)v '
Mv
\v' =
M-m
A 100V C 21. (242)When capacitance is taken out, the circuit
17. (1) When springs are in parallel, then is LR.
m 2p K1 + K 2 wL
T = 2p Þ =w= \ tan f =
K1 + K 2 T m R
1 200
18. (1) Let u be the initial velocity of the bullet of Þ wL = R tan f = 200 ´ =
mass m. 3 3
After passing through a plank of width x, its Again, when inductor is taken out, the circuit is
CR.
velocity decreases to v. 1
u u u(n - 1) \ tan f =
\ u–v= or, v = u - = w CR
n n n 1 1 200
Þ = R tan f = 200 ´ =
If F be the retarding force applied by each plank, wc 3 3
then using work – energy theorem,
2
1 1 1 1 2 æ 1 ö
Fx = mu 2 – mv2 = mu 2 – mu 2 Now, Z = R + ç - wL ÷
2 2 2 2 è wC ø
2
é ( n - 1)2 ù æ 200 200 ö
( n - 1)2 1
mu 2ê
1- ú = (200) 2 + ç - ÷ = 200 W
= 2 è 3 3ø
n2 êë n 2 úû
Power dissipated = Vrms I rms cos f
1 æ 2n - 1 ö
Fx = mu 2 ç ÷ Vrms R æ Rö
2 è n2 ø = Vrms . . çQ cos f = ÷
Z Z è Zø
Let P be the number of planks required to stop
the bullet. V 2rms R (220)2 ´ 200 220 ´ 220
Total distance travelled by the bullet before = = =
Z 2 (200)2 200
coming to rest = Px = 242 W
Using work-energy theorem again,
1 3pv
F ( Px ) = mu 2 - 0 22. (499) v rms =
2 mass of the gas
5 50
é1 ( 2n - 1) ù = 1 mu 2 23. (80) Speed, u = 60 ´ m/s = m/s
or, P ( Fx ) = P ê mu 2 ú 18 3
ë2 n2 û 2 5 100
d = 20m, u' = 120 ´ = m/s
18 3
Let declaration be a then (0)2 – u2 = –2ad In steady state capacitor is fully charged hence
or u2 = 2ad … (1) no current will flow through line 2.
and (0)2 – u'2 = –2ad' or u '2 = 2 ad ' …(2) By simplyfing the circuit
(2) divided by (1) gives,
d' 3W 9W
4 = Þ d ' = 4 ´ 20 = 80m
d
24. (0.4) r = 5 cm. = 5×10–2m 16.0 V
–5 2
8.0 V
BE = 0.5 × 10 W/m
we know that field due to coil at
Hence resultant potential difference across
resistances will be 8.0 V.
r=5cm V 8.0 8
Thus current I = = =
R 3 + 9 12
2
m I or, I= = 0.67 A
centre B = 0 3
2r 28. (1.2 × 10–7) Pressure of light on totally reflecting
it annuals the earth’s megnetic field surface
m I
So, 0 = 0.5 ´ 10 -5 2I
2r P= (C = velocity of light)
C
2r ´ 0.5 ´ 10 - 5 5 F 2I
=
I= = A = 0.4 A P=
m0 4p A C
2IA 2 ´ 12 ´ 1.5 ´ 10 –4
25. (0.1) Given: Radius of air bubble, ÞF= =
r = 0.1 cm = 10–3 m C 10 –4 ´ 3 ´ 108
-8
Surface tension of liquid, 8 ´ 15 ´ 10
S = 0.06 N/m = 6 × 10–2 N/m = = 12 ´ 10 -8 = 1.2 ´ 10 -7 N
10
Density of liquid, r = 103 kg/m3 29. (7.8 × 10–7) F = qE = mg (q = 6e = 6× 1.6 × 10–19)
Excess pressure inside the bubble,
Pexe = 1100 Nm–2 mass m
Density (d) = =
volume 4
Depth of bubble below the liquid surface, pr 3
h=? 3
m
As we know, PExcess = hrg +
2s or r3 =
r 4
pd
2 ´ 6 ´ 10 -2 3
Þ 1100 = h × 103 × 9.8 + æ qE ö
10 -3 Putting the value of d and m ç = and solv-
Þ 1100 = 9800 h + 120 –7
è g ÷ø
ing we get r = 7.8 × 10 m
Þ 9800h = 1100 – 120
30. (4) Velocity of wave v = nl
980 v
Þ h= = 0.1 m where n = frequency of wave Þ n =
9800 l
26. (11.2) Escape velocity ve = 2gR v1 396
n1 = = = 400 Hz
thus, it doesn’t depend on mass. l1 99 ´ 10 -2
27. (0.67) line 1 line 2 line 3
v 396
I n2 = 2 = = 396 Hz
5m F l 2 100 ´ 10-2
3W 9W
no. of beats = n 1 – n 2 = 4
8.0 V 16.0 V
I1 I2
MT-198 JEE MAIN
CHEMISTRY with magnesium. Boron obtained has 86% purity

and is amorphous.
31. (4) (a) CH2Cl CH 35. (1) Addition of a catalyst to a reaction mixture
| KOH
¾¾¾¾ ® ||| ; has the effect of lowering the activation energy
CH2Cl alcohol CH of the reaction by changing the path or
Ethylene Acetylene mechanism of the reaction. The reaction rate
Dichloride increases manifold. However, the equilibrium
CH3 CH constant and the enthalpy (DH) of the reaction
| KOH
¾¾¾¾ ® ||| ; hence true are unaffected.
CHCl2 alcohol CH 36. (2) Since the gas B turns CuSO4 solution blue,
Ethylidine Acetylene it can be NH3.
Chloride Since formula of the given compound ‘A’ is M3N,
(b) Both are position isomers ‘A’ is either lithium or sodium nitride. Of the two,
(c) Since, they are isomers, precentage of C, H Li3N is most likely since it is a stable, very high
and Cl in both will be same. melting compound.
(d) CH2Cl CH2OH 37. (2) He is less soluble in blood.
hydrolysis
| ¾¾¾¾¾ ® | 38. (3) (i)
C H 2Cl C HOH;
O H
CH3 CH3 || |
hydrolysis
| ¾¾¾¾¾ ® | (i)CH 3MgBr
CH3 - C ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® CH3- C- OH
CHCl2 C H(OH) 2 | (ii)H3O+ |
H CH3
CH3
- H 2O 2-Propanol
¾¾¾ ¾® |
C HO
Hence, statement (4) is wrong. H
|
32. (1) According to the kinetic theory of gases, HCl
(ii) CH 3 - C = O + C 2 H 5OH ¾¾
¾®
the average velocity of the molecules in the gas
8RT H
is given by the expression v = where T |
HCl
pM CH3 - C - OC 2 H 5 ¾¾
¾®
is the absolute temperature and R is the gas | C 2H 5OH
constant. Thus the average velocity can be taken OH
Hemiacetal
as proportional to the square root of the absolute
temperature. Hence the ratio of the average H
|
velocity at 200 ºC to that at 50 ºC will be equal to CH3 - C (OC 2 H5 )2
273 + 200 Acetal
which is 1.21. 39. (4) I– ion reduces Fe(III) to Fe(II).
273 + 50
33. (3) The Friedal-crafts alkylation reaction will 1
give propyl phenyl ketone which further on FeI3 ® FeI2 + I
Clemmenson’s reduction will give butyl benzene 2 2
40. (2) Since each of (i), (ii) and (iii) are hexa-
AlCl
C6H6 + CH3CH2CH2COCl ¾¾¾®
3 coordinated, in the case of (ii), one of the chlorines
Zn-Hg/HCl (chloride ions) is coordinated to the central cobalt
C6H5COCH2CH2CH3 ————® ion and in (iii), two such chlorides are
coordinately linked. Thus, the ionisable chlorides
C6 H5 CH 2 CH 2CH 2CH3
Butyl benzene
in (i) is three in (ii) it is two and in (iii) it is only
one.
34. (3) Moissan boron, which is an amorphous low Primary valency means the valency of the
purity boron, is made by reduction of boric oxide complex cation.
41. (2) Polyethylene or Polyethene, 1 1 1

pH = pKw + pKa – pKb
[ CH 2 - CH 2 ] n , 2 2 2
is made from a single monomer, it is a 1 1 1

\ pH = ´ 14 + ´ 3.8 - ´ 4.8 ; pH = 6.5
homopolymer. 2 2 2
42. (3) Enzyme inhibition can be either reversible 52. (6.24) Charge (Coulombs) passed per second
or irreversible. In case of irreversible inhibition = 10–6
the inhibitor dissociates very slowly from its Number of electrons passed per second
target enzyme because it has become tightly 10-6
bound to the enzyme either covalently or non- = = 6.24 ´ 1012
covalently. Some irreversible inhibitors are 1.602 ´ 10-19
53. (3.6) No. of atoms of hydrogen in 0.046 g of
important drugs like Penicilline and Aspirin.
alcohol
Thus "drug induced poisoning" may bound
irreversibly to the active site of the enzyme. 0.046
= ´ 6.022 ´1023 ´ 6
43. (3) More the s - character, more is the stability 46
of the carbanion. hence the correct order is = 1 × 10–3 × 6.022 × 1023 × 6 = 3.6 × 1021
sp > sp2 > sp3. 54. (6.7) For bcc
44. (4) Amongst the sets, it is (4) that is not
arranged in the order of decreasing reactivity 3a
Þ R=
towards electrophilic substitution. Carboxylic 4
acid group in the case of benzoic acid deactivates 3a
\ Empty space at edge = a – 2R = a -
the benzene nucleus towards electrophilic 2
substitution reaction and thus it can not have
3
higher reactivity than phenol which has a highly a- a
activating phenolic OH group. \ rsphere = 2 = æ 2 - 3ö a
2 ç 4 ÷
45. (3) Deviation from ideal gas behaviour is è ø
greater, when the pressure is higher and the gas
= diameter of sphere.
is closed to its liquefaction point or its critical
temperature. Thus, the conditions of –100 ºC = 0.067 a (Given a = 100 pm)
and 4 atm pressure among the sets given causes = 0.067 × 100 = 6.7 pm
maximum deviation. 55. (0.107) N1 V1 = N2 V2
46. (3) Be(OH)2 is amphoteric that means it can N NaOH = M NaOH = 0.164
react with both acids and alkalies.
47. (2) Ionization energy increases along a period
Þ 25 × N = 32.63 × 0.164
but reduces down a group. Electron affinity 32.63 ´ .164
N= = 0.214 N
increases along a period from left to right and 25
deceases on moving down in a group. But N H 2SO4 = 2 ´ M H 2SO 4
48. (3) The secondary amines react with HNO2 to
give the oily nitroso derivative. Amongst the Normality 0.214
options, (3) is the secondary amine. Þ M= = = 0.107 M
2 2
49. (2) NaCl is a salt of strong acid and strong 56. (10) By the law of equivalents :
base hence on dissolution will give neutral
solution. E + Eq. mass of OH -
NaCl + AgNO3 ® AgCl ¯ + NaNO3 E + Eq. mass of O
50. (3) Higher is the stability of a species, more mass of metal hydroxide
likely it is formed, hence lower will be the Eact for = (E = Eq. mass
mass of metal oxide
its precursor.
of metal)
51. (6.5) HCOONH4 is a salt of weak acid and weak
base;
MT-200 JEE MAIN
E + 17 1.5 if f ¢ (x) >0 then f(x) is increasing function.

or = Þ E = 10 Hence f(x) is increasing, if
E+8 1
p p p 3p p
57. (6.56) In order to calculate the enthalpy change - < x+ < Þ - <x<
2 4 2 4 4
for H2O at 5 °C to ice at –5 °C, we need to Hence, f(x) is increasing when
calculate the enthalpy change of all the
æ p pö
transformation involved in the process. x Îç - , ÷
è 2 4ø
(i) Energy change of 1 mol, H2O (l), at 5 °C ®
1 mol, H2O (l), 0 °C 62. (4) Equation of the tangent at the point ‘q’ is
(ii) Energy change of 1 mol, H2O (l), at 0 °C ® x sec q y tan q
- =1
1 mol, H2O (s) (ice), 0 °C a b
(iii) Energy change of 1 mol, Ice (s), at Þ P = (a cos q, 0) and Q = (0, – b cot q)
0 °C ® 1 mol, Ice (s), –5 °C Let R be (h, k) Þ h = a cos q, k = –b cot q
Total DH k -b -bh
Þ = Þ sin q = and
= CP [H2O (l)] DT + DH freezing + CP [H2O (s)] h a sin q ak
DT h
cos q =
= (75.3 J mol–1 K–1) (–5)K + (–6 × 103 J mol–1) a
+ (36.8 J mol–1 K–1) (–5) K By squaring and adding,
DH = – 6.56 kJ mol–1 (exothermic process)
So, DH = 6.56 kJ mol–1. b2 h2 h2
+ =1
58. (–6.04) According to Bohr’s model energy in a2k 2 a2
Y
nth state
R
Z2 Q
= -13.6 ´ eV
n2
P O X
For second excited state, of He+, n = 3
2
2
\ E3(He+) = -13.6 ´ 2 eV = –6.04 eV
3
59. (2) The basic groups in the given form of
+ b2 a2 a2 b2
lysine is NH2 (not NH 3 ) and CO-2 . Þ 2
+1 =
2
=1 Þ 2
-
k h h k2
V ´ 45 (800 - V) ´ 20 800 ´ 29.875 Now, given eq n of hyperbola is
60. (316) + =
100 100 100 x2 y 2
- = 1 Þ a 2 = 4, b 2 = 2
9V V 4 2
Þ + 160 - = 239 Þ V = 316 mL
20 5 a 2 b2 4 2
\ R lies on - = 1 i.e., 2 - 2 = 1
MATHEMATICS x2 y 2 x y
2 2
(4) Given f(x) = tan–1 (sin x + cos x)
ò1 [x ò1 [x] dx
61. 2 2
63. (3) I= ]dx -
1
f ¢(x) = .(cos x - sin x) 2 3 2 2
1 + (sin x + cos x) 2
æ 1 1 ö
= ò1 dx + ò
2
2 dx + ò
3
3 dx - ò 1 dx
1
2. ç cos x - sin x ÷
è 2 2 ø =4 - 3 2-
=
1 + (sin x + cos x) 2 ax + b a b
64. (2) Let y = Þ y= x+
æ pö c c c
2 cos ç x + ÷ a b
è 4ø Þ y = Ax + B, where A = and B =
\ f ¢(x) = c c
1 + (sin x + cos x)2
So, y = Ax + B and hence 69. (1) It can be also solved by comparing

y - y = Ax + B - (Ax + B) = A(x - x) dy
with the linear equation + Py = Q
dx
Þ ( y - y) 2 = A 2 ( x - x ) 2
The integrating factor, I.F. = eò
1.dx
= ex
Þ å ( y - y) 2 = A 2 å ( x - x ) 2
2 2 2 Therefore, y I.F = ò 2e2x .I.F + C
Þ ns y = A ( n s x ) Þ s y = A s x
65. (1) Consider the example: Let A = {1, 2, 3}, y.e x = ò 2e2x .e x + C
R = {(1, 1), (1,2)} and S = {(2, 2), (2, 3)}
2 3x 2e 2 x
Clearly R and S are transitive relations on A. y.e x = 2ò e3x + C = e +C Þ y = + ce - x
R È S = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (1, 2), (2, 3)} 3 3
R È S is not transitive as (1,3) ÏRÈS.
a a+x a-x a-x
66. (1) I =
ò0
f ( x) g(x) dx 70. (3) D = a-x a+x a-x = 0
a a-x a-x a+x
= ò0 f (a - x ) g(a - x ) dx
3a - x a - x a - x
a a
= ò0 f (x ) [2 - g(x )] dx = 2 ò 0 f ( x ) dx - I Þ D = 3a - x a + x a - x ,
a a 3a - x a - x a + x
\2I = 2 ò0 f ( x ) dx Þ I = ò0 f (x)dx C1 ® C1 + C2 + C3
1
67. (2) Area bounded by y = 1 a-x a-x
1+ x2
= (3a - x) 1 a + x a - x = 0
y
x2
y= 1 a-x a+x
2
(–1, 0) Q P (1, 0) 1 Using R 2 ® R 2 - R1 and R 3 ® R 3 - R1
y=
2
1+ x
x 1 a-x a-x
Þ D = (3a - x) 0 2x 0 =0
¥ 1 0 0 2x
and x-axis is ò-¥ dx = p
1 + x2 or, 4x 2 (3a - x ) = 0 Þ x = 0 or 3a
Area bounded by two curves is
71. (3) We know that centroid divides the median
1 æ 1 x2 ö p in the ratio 2 : 1.
ò-1ç 1 + x 2 2 ÷÷ dx = 2 - 1
ç -
Radius of the circle = 2 ´ length of median
è ø
3
68. (2) f ' ( x ) > 0 if x ³ 0 and g' ( x ) < 0 if
2
x³0 = ´ 3a = 2a
3
Let h (x ) = f (g( x)) then Centre of the (given) circle is C(0, 0). Therefore
h ' (x ) = f ' (g (x )).g' ( x) < 0 if x ³ 0 the equation of the circle
\ h(x) is decreasing function (x – 0)2 + (y – 0)2 = (2a)2 Þ x2 + y2 = 4a2
\ h (x ) £ h (0) if x ³ 0 72. (2) Its contropositive is ‘sum of digits of n is
not divisible by 9’
\ f (g(x )) £ f (g(0)) = 0 Þ n is not divisible by 9
But codomain of each function is [0, ¥ ) 73. (3) n = 7
Prob. of getting any no. out of 1, 2, 3, … 9 is p
\ f (g(x )) = 0 for all x ³ 0 \ f (g(x )) = 0 = 9/15
\ q = 6/5
Also g(f (x)) £ g(f (0)) [as above]
MT-202 JEE MAIN
P (x = 7) = 7C7 p7q0 [Binomial distribution] Similarly, f (x) is not differentiable at all multiples
7 7 of p, i.e, n p where n = 0, 1, 2.....
æ9ö æ 3ö 78. (3) The equation of the pair of tangents is given
=ç ÷ =ç ÷
è 15 ø è 5ø by SS1 = T2
74. (1) For x ³ a, the equation becomes (3x 2 + 2 y 2 - 5)(3.12 + 2.2 2 - 5) = (3x.1 + 2 y.2 - 5) 2
x2 – 2a(x–a) – 3a2 = 0 9x2 – 4y2 – 24xy + 40y + 30x – 55 = 0
Þ x = (1 + 2 )a , (1 - 2 )a further angle, q between them can be found by
for x £ a , the equation becomes using
x2 – 2a[–(x–a)] – 3a2 = 0 Þ x 2 + 2ax - 5a 2 = 0 2 h 2 - ab 2 (12)2 - (9)(-4)

tan q = =
Þ x = -(1 + 6)a, (-1 + 6)a a+b 9 + ( -4)
This shows (-1 + 6) a is one of the roots. 2 180 12 5 \q = tan -1 12
75. (4) n(A) = 1000, n(B) = 500, n(A Ç B) ³ 1, = = ,
5 5 5
n(A È B) = p
n(A È B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A Ç B) x-5
79. (1) > 1 Þ x2 + 5x – 14 < x – 5
p = 1000 + 500 – n (A Ç B) 2
x + 5 x - 14
1 £ n(A Ç B) £ 500 Þ x2 + 4x – 9 < 0
Hence p £ 1499 and p ³ 1000 Þ a = – 5, – 4, – 3, – 2, – 1, 0, 1
1000 £ p £ 1499 a = – 5 does not satisfy any of the options
76. (1) y = log2 {log 2 ( x)} = log 2 {log e x. log 2 e} a = – 4 satisfy the option (a) a2 + 3a – 4 = 0
Þ y = loge{logex.log2e}.log2e æp ö
80. (3) sin -1 (1 - x ) = ç - sin -1 x ÷ - sin -1 x
dy d è 2 ø
Þ = log 2 e [log e {log e x. log 2 e}] p
(Q cos–1x = - sin -1 x )
dx dx 2
dy 1 p
Þ = log 2 e. sin -1 (1 - x) =
- 2 sin -1 x
dx loge x.log 2 e 2
Taking sum of both sides
d
(log e x. log 2 e) æp ö
dx 1 - x = sin ç - 2 sin -1 x ÷ = cos( 2 sin -1 x )
è2 ø
dy 1 1 log e
Þ = ( log 2 e ) = 2 = cos 2q, where sin -1 x = q
dx log e x x x ln x
77. (3) The function breaks at x = 0 and multiples 1 - x = 1 - 2 sin 2 q = 1 - 2 x 2 or x(1 – 2x) = 0 or
of x. Hence the function is differentiable at all 1
other points as the function is continuous at all x = 0,
2
these pts. 81. (1.00)
1 + x 2 + 1 + y 2 = l( x 1 + y 2 – y 1 + x 2 )
Þ 1 + x 2 (1 + ly ) = 1 + y 2 ( lx - 1)
1 + x2 lx - 1
At x = 0, for f (x) to be continous Þ =
1+ y2 ly + 1
lim f (0 - ) = f (x = 0) = lim f (0 + )
x® 0 x® 0
f (x) = 0 at x = 0 x2 + 1 l 2 x 2 - 2l x + 1
Þ =
RHL = lim sin( x + h ) = sin h > 0 y 2 + 1 l 2 y 2 + 2l y + 1
x ®0
L. H. L. = lim sin(x - h ) = sin (-h ) < 0 Þ ( y 2 + 1)(l 2 x 2 - 2lx + 1)
x ®0
= ( x 2 + 1)(l 2 y 2 + 2ly + 1)
Hence, not differentiable at x = 0
Þ l 2 x 2 y 2 - 2lxy 2 + y 2 + l 2 x 2 - 2lx + 1
= l 2 x 2 y 2 + 2lx 2 y + x 2 + l 2 y 2 + 2ly + 1 15
Þ (1 – a) × (1 – b) =
49
Þ l 2 ( x 2 - y 2 ) - 2l( xy 2 + x 2 y + x + y ) = 0
15
Þ l 2 ( x + y )( x - y ) - 2l [ xy( x + y) + ( x + y )] = 0 Þ 1 – b – a + ab =
49
Þ l ( x + y) [ l ( x - y ) - 2 xy - 2] = 0 34
Þ a + b – ab = ...(ii)
Þ ( x + y) [ l ( x - y) - 2 xy - 2] = 0
49
From (i) and (ii),
Þ l ( x - y ) - 2 xy - 2 = 0 6
a+b= ...(iii)
2 xy + 2 xy + 1 l 7
Þ =l Þ = 8
x- y x- y 2 and ab =
49
æ dy ö æ dy ö 42 42 4 ´ 8
ç x + y ÷ ( x - y ) - ( xy + 1) ç1 - ÷ (a – b)2 = (a + b)2 – 4ab = ´ - =
Þ è dx ø è dx ø = 0 49 49 49
2
( x - y) 196 14
This is the first order differential equation and \ a–b= ...(iv)
2401 49
dy From (iii) and (iv),
clearly degree of is 1. Hence degree of the 4 2
dx a= ,b=
differential equation is 1. 7 7
5 Hence probability of more probable of the two
82. (4.00) We have T2 = 14 a2 4
events = = 0.57
Þ C ( ) ( a ) = 14a
7
1 n -1 3 5
n 84. (34.00) a + b = 3; ab = a ;
1 a13 2 2
g + d = +12 ; gd = b
n -1 3 5
+ a, b, g, d are in increasing G.P..
Þ na 13 2 = 14a 2
n
C3 14
12 C3 b = ax , g = ax 2 , d = ax 3
Þ n = 14 Þ n =
14
= =4 a + b = a + ax = 3 = a(1 + x) .....(1)
C2 C2 3
2 3 2
g + d = ax + ax = 12 = ax (1 + x) .....(2)
83. (0.57) Let the probability of occurrence of first
event A, be ‘a’ 3 a(1 + x )
i.e., P(A) = a Divding =
\ P(not A) = 1 – a 12 a x 2 (1 + x )
And also suppose that probability of 1 1
occurrence of second event B, P(B) = b, or = or x = 2
4 x2
\ P(not B) = 1 – b
Now, P(A and not B) + P(not A and B) Þ b = 2a and a + 2a = 3 Þ a = 1 and b = 2
26 \a = ab = 2
=
49 g = ax 2 = 1´ 2 2 = 4; d = ax 3 = 1´ 23 = 8
26
Þ P(A) × P(not B) + P(not A) × P(B) = \ b = g d = 4 ´ 8 = 32
49
26 Þ a + b = 2 + 32 = 34.
Þ a × (1 – b) + (1 – a) b =
49 85. (0.63) P (A Ç B)
26 P(B)
Þ a + b – 2ab = ...(i)
49 P(A) P (A Ç B Ç C)
15
And P(not A and not B) =
49 P (B Ç C)
15 P (A Ç C)
Þ P (not A) × P(not B) = P(C)
49
MT-204 JEE MAIN
\ Probability that atleast one of the events A, p/3

B, C exists is given by the shaded region. cos x + sin x
Req. prob. = P(A) + P(B) + P(C) - P(A Ç B)
= ò sin x + cos 2 x + 2 sin x cos x
2
dx
0
- P(B Ç C) - P(C Ç A) + P(A Ç B Ç C) p/3 p/3
cos x + sin x p
1 1 1 1
= + + - 0 - 0 - + 0 = = 0.63
4 4 4 8
5
8
= ò (cos x + sin x) 2
dx = ò dx = 3 = kp
0 0
n n
r+2 n r + 1+1 n
86. (5.00) å r + 1 C r = å r + 1 C r Þ k=
1
= 0.33
r =0 r=0 3
n n n
C 89. (7.26) Let us assume an arbitary mean a = 155.
= å n C r + å r + 1r Following table is constructed :
r =0 r =0 X i - 155
n n +1 Xi fi ui =
5
u i2 fiui f i u i2
C r +1
=2 + n
å n +1 140 4 –3 9 –12 36
r =0 145 6 –2 4 –12 24
1 n 150 15 –1 1 –15 15
= 2n + å n +1C r+1
n +1 r=0 155 30 0 0 0 0
160 36 1 1 36 36
1 165 24 2 4 48 96
= 2n + (2 n +1 - 1) 170 8 3 9 24 72
n +1
175 2 4 16 8 32
1
= [(n + 1)2 n + 2 n +1 - 1] Total 125 77 311
n +1
1 æ f u2 æ f u 2 ö
[2 n (n + 3) - 1] ç å i i –ç å i i
= ö
n +1 \ Variance, s 2
= ÷÷ ÷
ç n ç n ÷
è è ø ø
(n + 3)2 n - 1 28 - 1 (5 + 3) . 25 - 1
Given, = =
n +1 6 5 +1 \ S.D. = variance = 7. 26
Þ n=5 90. (1.33) Line is ^ to 3x + y = 3
87. (3.00) For f (x) to be continuous, 1
\ Slope of line, m =
lim f ( x ) = f (0 ) 3
x®0
f(0) = k Equation is, y = mx + c = x + c
sin 3x 3
sin 3x 3× 2
lim lim
= Lim 3x = 3 It passes through (2, 2) Þ 2 = + c
x ® 0 f (x) = x ® 0
sin x x ®0 sin x 3
x 4
Þ c=
é lim sinq ù 3
êQx®0 q = 1ú x
ë û Þ y - = 4 / 3 Þ 3y - x = 4
3
Þ k= 3
\ y-intercept = 4 / 3 = 1.33
p/3
cos x + sin x
88. (0.33)
ò 1 + sin 2x
dx
0
Mock Test-8
ANSWER KEY
1 (3) 16 (3) 31 (1) 46 (3) 61 (3) 76 (4)
2 (3) 17 (1) 32 (4) 47 (3) 62 (3) 77 (3)
3 (4) 18 (2) 33 (4) 48 (3) 63 (3) 78 (3)
4 (3) 19 (3) 34 (1) 49 (3) 64 (1) 79 (2)
5 (2) 20 (3) 35 (3) 50 (3) 65 (1) 80 (4)
6 (1) 21 (4) 36 (1) 51 (112) 66 (2) 81 (0.25)
7 (3) 22 (264) 37 (3) 52 (3) 67 (1) 82 (1.33)
8 (1) 23 (4.5 × 104) 38 (2) 53 (2.1) 68 (2) 83 (32.00)
9 (3) 24 (48) 39 (4) 54 (2) 69 (2) 84 (0.40)
10 (1) 25 (0.16) 40 (4) 55 (0.177) 70 (2) 85 (0.60)
11 (4) 26 (10) 41 (2) 56 (9.25) 71 (2) 86 (10.00)
12 (2) 27 (2) 42 (2) 57 (9.6) 72 (1) 87 (0)
13 (3) 28 (2) 43 (4) 58 (107.2) 73 (4) 88 (0)
14 (3) 29 (6.52) 44 (3) 59 (–0.9) 74 (4) 89 (1.00)
15 (1) 30 (90) 45 (3) 60 (0.125) 75 (2) 90 (0.50)
Solutions
PHYSICS r æRö
ç ÷q 0
F 3 Î0 è 2 ø rq 0 R
1. (3) TV g -1 = constant a= = =
m m 6m Î0
g -1
T1V1g -1 = T2V2 rq R R
1
\ v2 = 2a(R / 2) = 2. 0 .
6mÎ0 2
1 æV ö 2
Þ T (V ) 2 =T2 ç ÷ 1 q 0 rR
2
è 4ø K.E. =
1
mv 2 =
2 12 Î0
é Vù
êëQ g = 1.5, T1 = T ,V1 = V and V2 = 4 úû 4. (3) Both fall with equal acceleration g, have
equal displacements in time t; therefore extension
1 = 0.
æ 4V ö 2
\ T2 = ç ÷ T = 2T 5. (2) Momentum
èV ø
E hn
2. (3) Initially, fB increases as magnet approaches Mu = =
the solenoid c c
\ e = – ve and increasing in magnitude. When Recoil energy
magnet is moving inside the solenoid, increase 1 1 M2u 2 1 æ hn ö
2
in fB slow down and finally fB starts decreasing Mu 2 = =
2 2 M 2M çè c ÷ø
\ emf is positive and increasing.
Only graph (c) shows these characteristic.
h 2 n2
3. (4) Acceleration =
2Mc2
MT-206 JEE MAIN
6. (1) I1 = 4I0 7M 1
G ´ M
I2 = Aaverage ; 8 8 7 GM 2
= =
(3R )2 64 ´ 9 R 2
= [ I0 + I0 + 2 I0 I0 cos f]ev = 2I0
41 GM 2
I 4I ;
\ 1 = 0 =2 3600 R 2
I 2 2I 0 9. (3) In parallel combination, the equivalent ther-
7. (3) According to the question, mal conductivity is given by
nh nh
2pr = nl = = K1 A1 + K 2 A2 + K3 A3 + ....... + K n An
p mv K=
A1 + A2 + A3 + ....... + An
nh nh
or mvr = or mv = For two rods of equal area,
2p 2pr
( K1 + K 2 ) A
mv2 K= (if A1 = A2 = A)
F = qvB = 2A
r
mv nh K1 + K 2
or, qB = = Þ K=
r 2pr.r 2
10. (1) From Einstein's photoelectric equation
2 nh
or, r = hc
2pqB K.E.l < ,f ...(i)
l
(for monochromatic light of wavelength l)
nh
or, r= where f is work function
2pqB
hc
K.E.l / 2 < ,f ...(ii)
i.e., r µ n1/2
l/2
8. (1) Volume of removed sphere (for monochromatic light of wavelength l/2)
3 From question,
4 æRö 4 æ 1ö
Vremo = p ç ÷ = pR 3 ç ÷ hc æ hc ö
3 è2ø 3 è 8ø K.E.l / 2 < 3(K.E.l ) Þ , f < 3çç , f÷÷÷
l/2 èç l ø
Volume of the sphere (remaining) 2hc hc
, f < 3 , 3f
4 3 4 3æ1ö l l
Vremain = pR - pR ç ÷
3 3 è8ø hc hc
Þ 2f < \f=
l 2l
4 3æ7ö 11. (4) For a p-type semiconductor, the acceptor
= pR ç ÷
3 è8ø energy level, as shown in the diagram, is slightly
Therefore mass of sphere carved and remaining above the top Ev of the volume band. With very
small supply of energy an electron from the
1 7 valence band can jump to the level EA and ionise
sphere are at respectively M and M.
8 8 acceptor negatively
Therefore, gravitational force between these two 12. (2) The figure of merit of a galvanometer is the
sphere, current required to produce unit deflection in
GM m the galvanometer. Mathematically,
F= K = I/q, where k is the figure of merit of the
r2
galvanometer.
Initial amount Dividing (i) by (ii),

13. (3) Left amount = (2)n
; T = n×t½ sq
tan q =
9 = n 1 × t½ ......(1) e 0 K . mg
18 = n2 × t½ ......(2) \ s µ tan q
IO IO 17. (1) Initial and final condition is same for all
In case (1) = ......(3);
3 1/ 2 process
(2)9 / t DU1 = DU2 = DU3
IO IO from first law of thermodynamics
In case (2), I = = ....(4)
18 / t1 / 2 2
DQ = DU + DW
(2) æ 9 / t1 / 2 ö
ç (2 ) ÷
è ø
Work done
DW1 > DW2 > DW3 (Area of P.V. graph)
I0 I
From eq. (3) & (4), we get I = = 0 So DQ1 > DQ2 > DQ3
2 9
(3) 18. (2) Velocity of the tennis ball on the surface of
dx the earth or ground
14. (3) We know that, v = Þ dx = v dt
dt 2gh
v= ( where k = radius of gyration of
x t k2
1+ 2
Integrating, ò dx = ò v dt R
0 0
2
t spherical shell = R)
or x = ò (v0 + gt + ft ) dt 2 3
0 v2 sin 2q
Horizontal range AB =
t g
é gt 2 ft 3 ù
= êv0 t + + ú 2
2 3 úû æ 2gh ö
ëê 0 çç ÷÷ sin(2 ´ 30°)
1+ k2 / R2
gt 2 ft 3 =è ø
= 2.08 m
or, x = v0 t + + g
2 3
g f 19. (3) Let l be length of the organ pipe. Difference
At t = 1, x = v0 + + . between successive resonating frequencies.
2 3
15. (1) The correct plotting of the base current vs V
= 595 – 425 = 170 =
base voltage (i.e., input characteristics of a 2l
common emitter transistor) is shown by (a) (for both open and closed pipes);
16. (3) P Now, V = 170 Þ l = 340 = 1 m
2l 2 ´ 170
T cos q
q 20. (3) Yes, the person can catch the ball when
T
s horizontal velocity is equal to the horizontal
F = Eq = q component of ball’s velocity, the motion of ball
e0K
will be only in vertical direction with respect to
T sin q
person for that,
vo
mg = vo cos q or q = 60°
2
s 1 1 1 uf 60 ´ 24
T sin q = .q .... (i) 21. (4) + = Þv= = = 40 cm
e0 K u v f u -f 36
Further differentiation gives,
T cos q = mg .... (ii)
MT-208 JEE MAIN
1 du 1 dv 1
+ =0 Therefore % strain = ´100 = 0.16%
u 2 dt v 2 dt 628
12345
2 26. (10) Concept involved l = Å; From
dv v2 du æ 40 ö V
Þ =- 2 = -ç ÷ ´ 9 = -4 cm / s
dt u dt è 60 ø 1
above l¥
22. ( ) (
(264) e s T14 - x 4 = e s x 4 - T24 ; ) V
Hence, X rays of largest wavelength can be
T14 - x 4 = x 4 - T24 generated by applying lowest potential i.e.,10kV.
27. (2) For the block to remain stationary with the
or 2x 4 = T14 + T24 ; wall
1/ 4 1/ 4
f=W
éT4 + T4 ù é 300 4 + 200 4 ù f = mN
x=ê 1 2
ú =ê ú = 263.8 K
ëê 2 ûú ëê 2 ûú
23. (4.5 × 104) The potential difference along slabs
V0 = E1 d1 + E2 d2 + E3 d3 10N 10N 10N
sd1 sd 2 sd 3
= + +
Î0Î1 Î0Î2 Î0Î3 mN = W W
s é 5 ´ 10 -3 3 ´ 10 -3 2 ´ 10 -3 ù 0.2 × 10 = W Þ W = 2N
= ê + + ú
Î0 ëê 2 3 5 ûú 2 R eq 2 + 3 R eq
s 28. (2) R eq = 1 + = ;
= (3.9 ´10 -3 ) = 351 2 + R eq 2 + R eq
Î0
2 R eq + R 2 eq = 2 + 3 R eq ;
s 351
= = 9 ´ 10 4 V / m
Î0 3.9 ´10 -3 R 2 eq - R eq - 2 = 0 Þ R eq = 2W
Electric field intensity in slab A 29. (6.52) Length of the rod = observed reading -
zero error
s 9 ´ 10 4
E1 = = = 4.5 ´ 104 V / m = (Main scale division + Vernier scale division x
Î0Î1 2
L.C.) - Zero error
24. (48) = (6.4 + 8 × 0.01) – (–0.04)
d m = 2 ´ 64 ´105 ´ 40 + 2 ´ 64 ´105 ´ 50 = 6.4 + 0.08 + 0.04 = 6.52 cm
30. (90) Fractional decrease in kinetic energy of
= 103 2 ´ 64 ´ 4 + 103 2 ´ 64 ´ 5 mass m
2 2
= 8 ´ 103 ( 8 + 10) = 48 km æ m2 - m1 ö æ 2 - 1ö
= 1- ç = 1 - çè ÷
è m2 + m1 ÷ø 2 + 1ø
25. (0.16) Given: F = 100 kN = 105 N
Y = 2 × 1011 Nm–2 æ 1ö
2
1 8
l0 = 1.0 m = 1 – ç ÷ =1- =
è 3ø 9 9
radius r = 10 mm = 10– 2 m Percentage loss in energy
Stress
From formula, Y = 8
Strain = ´ 100 ; 90%
9
Stress F
Þ Strain = = CHEMISTRY
Y AY
105 105 31. (1) A - Silica gel packets are used to absorb
= = moisture and keep things dry i.e. as drying agent.
pr 2Y 3.14 ´ 10-4 ´ 2 ´ 1011 B - Silicon is a semiconductor and is used in
1
= transistors.
628
C - Silicone is used as sealant. 40. (4) 9 O3 + 2 I 2 ¾¾

® I 4O 9 + 9 O 2
D - Silicates are widely used in ion-exchange
beds in domestic and commercial water
purification, softening and other applications. H Cl
32. (4) H2O. Because of hydrogen-bonding the C
intermolecular forces increase. Hence boiling 41. (2)
point increases.
C
33. (4) Cu 2+ + Fe ¾¾
® Fe2 + + Cu
+2 0 H Cl
2+ + +
2Cu + 2KI ¾¾
® 2Cu + 2K + I 2
+2 +1 42. (2) According to Le Chatlier ’s principle
O
increase in pressure will increase the reaction in
||
Na / alcohol
the direction in which lesser no. of moles are
34. (1) R - C - OR ' ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾® RCH 2 OH + R ' OH formed to offset the increase in pressure. In
reverse reaction, one gaseous mole is formed as
–
NH+3 Cl NH+3 NO3
–
compared to two in forward direction. Hence
reverse direction is favoured.
AgNO 43. (4) (1) Antiaromatic (4pe–)
35. (3) ¾¾¾®
3
+ AgCl
(White ppt.) Na+
aq. Na CO
¾¾¾¾®
2 3
p-Chloroaniline does not give white ppt. with
AgNO3. Unstable.
36. (1) Bauxite is not chemically reduced to Al, as (2) Nonaromatic (4pe–)
aluminium is fairly electropostive and reactive Na+
metal, hence it may react with the reducing agent. aq. Na2CO 3
¾ ¾¾¾®
37. (3) All ortho para directors other than Halogens
activate the ring to electrophilic substitution Unstable.
while all meta directors deactivate the ring to (3) Homoaromatic (6pe–)
further electrophillic substitution, because aq. Na2CO3 Na
+
halogen can both withdraw and release electrons ¾ ¾¾¾®
th rough in ductive effect and r esonance
respectively. No delocalization of electron in whole ring Unstable.
C ºCH (4) Aromatic (6pe–)

aq. Na2CO3
38. (2) + CH3– CH2MgBr ¾¾® ¾¾¾ ¾®
C º CMgBr Na
+
C2H6 + Stable.
44. (3) 2AgBr ∗ Na 2S2O3 ¾¾↑
O Ag 2S2 O3 ∗ 2NaBr
|| Boil
39. (4) -
O - S - CF3 is the best leaving group as Ag 2S2 O3 ¾¾¾ ® Ag 2S + SO3
|| Black ppt.
O 45. (3) Only chlorides of group I are neutral
it is the weakest base because they do not undergo hydrolysis
46. (3) Presence of electron -withdrawing group
reduces efficiency of Perkin reaction.
MT-210 JEE MAIN
47. (3) The nitration of aniline is difficult to carry

out with nitrating mixture since –NH2 group get 6.626 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3 ´ 108
E= = 3.1 eV
oxidised which is not required. So the amino 4000 ´ 10 -10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
group is first protected by acylation to form
1 2 1
acetanilide which is then nitrated to give p-nitro = mv = ´ 9 ´ 10 -31 ´ 36 ´ 1010 J
acetanilide as a major product. 2 2
48. (3) The inert pair effect increases down the –19
= 1.62 × 10 J
group and stability of lower oxidation state = 1 eV
increases.
8 6 According to photoelectric effect
49. (3) Each cell, Cu atoms + = 4 K.E. = hn – hn0
8 2
12 hn0 = hn – K.E.
Ag atom = =3
4 Work function (W0) = E – K.E.
1 = 3.1 – 1 = 2.1 eV
Au atom = = 1.
1 54. (2) In K3 [Fe (CN)6]
Hence, formula, Cu4Ag3Au
[Fe (CN)6]3–
..
OH OTs \ {y – 6 = – 3, y = 3}the oxidation state of Fe is
50. (3) Ts – Cl
¾¾® 3
\ in
+ –
H
¾¾® ¾¾® OH
(NH3)4Co Co(NH 3)2 (SO 4)X
Pm OH
51. (112) Density (r) =
RT
(1 bar = 0.987 atm) 4×0 +1×3 +1×(–1)+ 1×(–1)+ 1×3 + 2×0–2x = 0
4 ´ 0.987 atm ´ 28 g / mol or 6 – 2 – 2x = 0 ; 2x = 4 ; or x = 2

r N2 =
R ´ 300 K æ 1 ÷ö
55. (0.177) E < 0.0591≥ log ççç ÷÷ ;
Let the molar mass of gas be x èç [H∗ ] ÷÷ø
2 ´ 0.987 atm ´ x pH = 3 \ [ H + ] = 10 -3 \ E = 0.177 volts
rgas =
R ´ 300 K
56. (9.25) NH3 + HCl ¾¾
® NH 4 Cl
Given rgas = r N ´ 2
2 moles of HCl = 0.2 M × 25 × 10–3 L = 0.005 moles
2 ´ 0.987 atm ´ x HCl (total consumed)
R ´ 300 K moles of NH3 = 0.2 M × 50 × 10–3 L = 0.01 moles
4 ´ 0.987 atm ´ 28 g / mol HCl
= ´2
R ´ 300 K excess NH3 = 0.01 – 0.005 = 0.005 moles
\ x = 112 g/mol.
1 mole ammonia = 1 mole NH4Cl
52. (3)
(i) cis-1, 3-dichlorocyclopentane 0.005 NH3 = 0.005 NH4Cl
(ii) trans-1, 3-dichlorocyclopen tane Total volume
(enantiomeric pair)
= VHCl + VNH3 = 25 + 50 = 75 mL
hc
53. (2.1) E = hn = 0.005 mole
l [NH3 ] = [NH 4 Cl] = = 0.066 M
75 ´ 10 -3 L
[NH 4 Cl]
pOH = pK b + log MATHEMATICS
[NH3 ]
[0.066] 61. (3) L f ¢(0) = hlim f (0 - h) - f (0)
pOH = 4.75 + log ®0
[0.066] -h
pOH = 4.75
1 - 1 - h2
pH = 14 – pOH Þ pH = 9.25 = lim
h ®0 -h
57. (9.6) Mass of water present in the solution at
the F. pt. = 1000 – 200 = 800 g 1 - 1 - h2 1
= lim ´
1000 K f W 1000 ´ 1.86 ´ W h®0 -h
ΔT f = 0.372 = = 1+ 1- h2
60 ´ 800 60 ´ 800
-1 -1
W = 9.6 g = lim =
h ®0 2
58. (107.2) 1 + 1- h2
K 2 Ea æ 1 1 ö f (0 + h) - f (0)
= Rf¢(0)= lim
ln ç - ÷ h®0 h
K1 R è T1 T2 ø
E æ 310 - 300 ö 1 - 1 - h2
ln 4 = a ç ÷ = lim
8.314 è 310 ´ 300 ø h ®0 h
Ea æ 310 - 300 ö 1 1
2ln 2 = = lim =
ç ÷ h ®0 2
8.314 è 310 ´ 300 ø 1 + 1- h2
0.693 ´ 2 ´ 8.314 ´ 300 ´ 310 Therefore, f(x) is not differentiable at x = 0.
Ea = Since L f ¢(0) and R f ¢(0) are finite therefore, f(x) is
10 continuous at x = 0.
= 107.2 kJ/mol Hence f (x) is continuous but not differentiable at
59. (–0.9) w = – PDV x = 0.
62. (3)
= – (1 bar) × (9 L)
sin A sin(A - B) sin(B + C) sin(A - B)
= – (105 Pa) × (9 × 10–3) m3 = Þ =
sin C sin(B - C) sin(A + B) sin(B - C)
= – 9 × 102 N m
= – 900 J = – 0.9 kJ Þ sin 2 B - sin 2 C = sin 2 A - sin 2 B
60. (0.125) Þ sin 2 A, sin 2 B, sin 2 C and hence a 2 , b2 , c 2
Conc. HCl
2H3 AsO 4 ∗ 5H 2S ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾
↑
are in A.P.
2 moles 50
1 mole As 2S5 ∗ 8H 2 O
1 mole
63. (3)
å 50 Cr (2x - 3) r (2 - x) n -r
x =0
½ mole = 50 C 0 ( 2 x - 3) 0 ( 2 - x ) n + 50 C1 (2 x - 3)1 (2 - x ) n -1
\ number of moles of H3AsO4
+ 50 C 2 (2 x - 3) 2 (2 - x ) n -2 ...... + 50 C 50 ( 2x - 3) n
35.5
= < 0.25 . = ( x - 1)50 = 50 C 0 x 50 -50 C1 x 49 + .....
142
\ number of moles of As2S5 Coeff. of x25 = -50 C 25 .
0.25
= < 0.125 mole. 64. (1) The common root must satisfy
2
( x 3 + 5x 2 + px + q) - ( x 3 + 7 x 2 + px + r ) = 0
MT-212 JEE MAIN
i.e. - 2x 2 + q - r = 0 Þ| (1 + y) - ix |=| x + i ( y - 1) |
Sum of common roots = 0 Þ [(1 + y) 2 + (- x) 2 ] = [x 2 + ( y - 1) 2 ]
Þ x1 = -5, x 2 = -7 . Þ (1 + y) 2 + x 2 = x 2 + ( y - 1) 2
65. (1) We can decide denomination in 13
C1 ways.
Þ 1 + 2y + y 2 + x 2 = x 2 + y2 - 2y + 1
Then 3 cards out of this denomination in 4
C3 or, 4y = 0 \ y = 0
ways and remaining card in 48 ways. From this it is known that the locus of z, is
So no. of ways y = 0, which is a real axis. Therefore, z is situated
= 13 C1 ´4 C3 ´ 48 = 52 ´ 48 ways . on real axis.
69. (2) Let the point A represents the complex
66. (2) We have, f (x) = exp ( 5x - 3 - 2 x2 ) number z, B represents wz and C represents w z.
w & w are complex cube roots of unity clearly
5 x - 3- 2 x 2
i.e., f (x) = e 2p
wz means rotation of z by and w2 z
2
For Domain of f (x), 5 x - 3 - 2 x should be +ve. 3
i.e., 5 x - 3 - 2 x 2 ³ 0 2p
(= wz) means rotation of wz by .
3
Þ 2 x2 - 5x + 3 £ 0 y
(By taking –ve sign common) B (w z)
Þ 2 x( x - 1) - 3( x - 1) £ 0 A (z)
Þ (2 x - 3)( x - 1) £ 0
Þ 2x - 3 £ 0 or x
x -1³ 0 O
3 D
Þ x£ or x ³1
2
3 é 3ù
\ 1£ x £ i.e., x Î ê1, ú C (w z)
2 ë 2û
3 2p
Hence, domain of the given function is [1, ]. \ Ð AOB = Ð BOC = Ð COA =
2 3
dy also OA = OB = OC = |z|.
67. (1) = sin x + 2 x
dx That is the D ABC is equilateral.
On integrating, Now AC = 2AD = 2 (OA cos 30°)
2x2 3
y = – cos x + + c = x 2 - cos x + c . = 2 |z| = 3 |z|
2 2
3 3 3 2
68. (2) 1 - iz Area of D ABC = (side)2 = |z|
=| w |= 1 (given) 2 2
z -i
70. (2) Equation of tangent to circle x2 + y2 = 1is
1 - iz z |z | y = mx ± 1 + m 2 . This also touches the circle (x
Þ =1 Q 1 = 1
z-i z2 | z2 | – 2)2 + y2 = 4.
Þ| 1 - iz |=| z - i |
2m ± 1 + m 2 1
Þ| 1 - i(x + iy) |=| (x + iy) - i | \ =2Þm=±
1+ m2 3.
Therefore common tangents are

x
x 2 -x 2 1 - tan
y= + & y= - =- 2 + b = - tanæç p - x ö÷ + b
3 3 3 3 x è4 2ø
1 + tan
On putting y = 0, from both equations we get x = 2
–2 Þ h = –2. æx pö
71. (2) Let q be the semi-vertical angle and r be the = tan ç - ÷ + b . Clearly
è2 4ø
radius of the cone at time t.
Then, r = 20 tan q V p
a =- and b Î R
4
dr dq
= 20sec 2 q
dt dt ì1 - [ x]
ï
(4) f (x) = í 1 + x , x ¹ -1 and f (x)
q
73.
dr ïî1
Þ = 20 ´ sec2 30° ´ 2 , x = -1
dt 20cm.
ì1 ,x < 0
160 ï
= cm/sec A r r B = í 1 - x
3 O
ïî1 + x , x ³ 0
1 dx
72. (1) Let I = ò 1 + sin x dx = ò x
ì1
ï
,x < 0
1
2 tan ï1 ,0 £ x <
2 ì1 ,x < 0
1+ ï ï 2
1 + tan 2 x f (2x) = í1 - [ 2 x ] Þ f ( 2 x) = í 1
,x > 0 £ x £1
2 ï1 + [ 2 x ] ï0 ,
2
î ï 1 3
æ 2 xö x ï- ,1 £ x <
ç 1 + tan ÷ dx sec 2 dx î 3 2
è 2ø
ò x
1 + tan 2 + 2 tan
x
= ò 1 + tan 2 x + 2 tan x 2
1
2 2 2 2 Þf (x), for all values of x where x < a, is
2
x 1 x
Substitute tan = t Þ sec 2 dx = dt 1
2 2 2 continuous function and for x = and x = 1 f (x)
2
x
Þ sec 2 dx = 2 dt . be a discontinous function.
2
74. (4) Let the variable circle be
Then
2dt dt -1 x 2 + y 2 + 2 gx + 2 fy + c = 0 ....(1)
I=ò 2
= 2ò 2
=2
(1 + t )
+c
1 + t + 2t (1 + t ) Since this circle is passing through A(p, q)
=
-2
+c \ p 2 + q 2 + 2 gp + 2 fq + c = 0 ....(2)
x
1 + tan Circle (1) touches x-axis,
2
\ g2 - c = 0 Þ c = g2.
x
tan - 1 From (2), we have
2 2
= 1- + (c - 1) = +b
x x
1 + tan tan + 1 p 2 + q 2 + 2 gp + 2 fq + g 2 = 0 ....(3)
2 2
Where b = c – 1, a new constant Let the other end of diameter through
(p, q) be (h, k), then
MT-214 JEE MAIN
h+ p k+q and cos (a) + cos (a + b) + … + cos(a + (n – 1)b)

= - g and = -f
2
Put in (3)
2
2 =
{
cos a + (n - 1)
b
2 } æ nb ö
sin ç ÷
è 2ø
æ h + pö æ k + qö æ h + p ö b
p2 + q 2 + 2 p ç - ÷ + 2q çè - ÷ +ç ÷ =0 sin
è 2 ø 2 ø è 2 ø 2
æ1+ i ö 1- i
Þ h2 + p 2 - 2hp - 4kq = 0 =– ç =
è 2 ÷ø 2
\ locus of (h, k) is x 2 + p2 - 2 xp - 4 yq = 0
p p
77. (3) -£ sin -1 x £
Þ ( x - p )2 = 4qy 2 2
p p p p
- £ 3 sin -1 a £ Þ - £ sin -1 a £
75. (2) Let R = x î + yˆj + zk̂ . Then 2 2 6 6
æ-pö p -1 1
R ´ B = C ´ B Þ ( R - C )´ B = 0 sin ç ÷ £ a £ sin Þ £a£ .
è 6 ø 6 2 2
î ĵ k̂ 78. (3) Equation of a plane through the line of
Þ x -4 y+3 z -7 = 0 intersection of given plane is
1 1 1 ax + by + cz + d + l (a ' x + b' y + c' z + d' ) = 0
Þ (a + la' )x + (b + lb' )y + (c + lc' )z + (d + ld' ) = 0
Þ ( y - z + 10) î + ( z - x - 3) ĵ + ( x - y - 7) k̂ = 0
It is parallel to y = 0, z = 0
Þ y - z = -10, z - x = 3, x - y = 7 i.e., x-axis whose direction ratios are 1, 0, 0
Also \ 1(a + la ' ) + 0(b + lb' ) + 0(c + lc' ) = 0
R . A = 0 Þ 2 x + 0 . y + z = 0 Þ z = -2 x .
a
Solving, we obtain Þl=- .
a'
x = –1, y = –8, z = 2. Hence R = - î - 8 ĵ + 2 k̂ . Hence, the required plane is
65
æ 2kp 2kp ö y(a ' b - ab' ) + z(a ' c - ac' ) + (a ' d - ad' ) = 0
76. (4) å çè sin 8
- i cos
8 ø
÷
k = 33 or y(ab '- a ' b) + z(ac '- a ' c) + (ad ' - a ' d) = 0
é 33p 34 p 65p ù
= êsin + sin + ¼ + sin x 2 - y2
ë 4 4 4 úû 79. (2) = tan ea = k (a const.)
x 2 + y2
é 33p 34 p 65p ù
- i ê cos + cos + ¼ + cos Þ kx 2 - x 2 = ky 2 + y2
ë 4 4 4 úû
(1 - k) 2
p p Þ (1 - k)x 2 = (1 + k)y 2 Þ y 2 = x
= sin - i cos (1 + k)
4 4
dy æ 1 - k ö x y 2 x y
Þ =ç ÷ = . =
Q sin a + sin (a + b) + sin (a + 2b) + … + sin[a + (n– dx è 1 + k ø y x 2 y x
1)b]
80. (4) Let the equation of AB is
=
{
sin a + (n - 1)
b
2}· sin
nb
2
x – 1 y – (–1) z – ( -10)
2
=
–3
=
8
=k
b Let L be the foot of the perpendicular drawn from

sin P(1, 0, 0).
2
P(1, 0, 0) Þ 4p2 – 5p + 1 = 0 Þ (4p – 1) (p – 1) = 0

1
Þ p = 1,
4
82. (1.33) Length of focal chord will be
1 25 1 5
t 2 +1 + 2
+1 =
Þ t + = ± Þ t = ±2 .
t 4 t 2
A L B Since slope is positive. Therefore t = 2.
\ L =(2k + 1, –3k – 1, 8k – 10). æ1 ö
The end points will be (4, 4), ç , -1÷ .
Now, direction ratio of PL = (2k, – 3k – 1, 8k – 10) and è 4 ø
direction ratio of AB = (2, – 3, 8) 4
Since, PL is perpendicular to AB Slope = = 1.33
3
\ 2(2k) – 3(–3k – 1) + 8(8k – 10) = 0 a a
83. (32.00) Let the roots be 2 , , a, ar , ar 2
2(1 - 1) + (–3)(0 + 1) + 8(0 + 10) r r
Now, k =
(2) 2 + (–3) 2 + (8) 2 æ 1 1 ö
Þ aç + + 1 + r + r 2 ÷ = 40
2 r
èr ø
0 – 3 + 80 77
= = =1 1æ 1 1 2ö
4 + 9 + 64 77 Also, ç 2 + + 1 + r + r ÷ = 10
aèr r ø
\ Required co-ordinates Now product of roots = – s
= L = (2 + 1, –3 – 1, 8 – 10) = (3, – 4, –2). a5 = –s Þ| s |=| a |5 = 32
81. (0.25) We have the equation 84. (0.40)
y2 + xy + px2 – x – 2y + p = 0
( a + k b ).( a - k b ) = 0 Þ| a |2 - k 2 | b |2 = 0
We know any general equation
ax2 + by2 + 2hxy + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 ... (1) | a |2 |a | 2
k2 = Þk = ± =±
represents two straight lines if 2 5
|b| |b|
abc + 2fgh – af 2 – bg2 – ch2 = 0 ... (2) 85. (0.60) Total no. of ways in which 2 cards can be
On comparing given equation with (1), we get chosen = 52C2 = 1326.
Total no. of ways in which 2 cards of spades can
1 1 be drawn (13 in no.) = 13C2 = 78. Therefore
a = p, b = 1, h = , g = - , f = – 1, c = p
2 2 required probability
Put these value in equation (2)
78 1
= = = 0.06
æ 1 1ö 1326 17
( p × 1 × p) + ç 2 ´ -1´ - ´ ÷ – p × (–1)2 86. (10.00) f(1). = 3, f ¢(1). = –2, g(1). = –1, g ¢(1). = 4
è 2 2ø
g (x )f (a ) - g(a )f (x )
2 2 lim
æ 1ö æ1ö x®a x-a
– 1 × ç- ÷ - p´ç ÷ = 0 g ' ( x )f (a ) - g (a )f ' ( x )
è 2ø è 2ø = lim
x ®a 1
= g ' (a )f (a ) - g (a )f ' (a ) = 4.3 - (-1)(-2) = 10
1 1 p
Þ p2 + - p- - =0
2 4 4
2 5p 1
Þ p - + =0
4 4
MT-216 JEE MAIN
ex 2cos 2x 2x sec2 x 2 é2 4 5 ù
D '(x) = ln(1 + x) cos x sin x 89. (1.00) Given that A = êê 4 8 10 úú
87. (0)
2 x êë- 6 - 12 - 15úû
cos x e -1 sin x 2
ex sin 2x tan x 2 2 4 5
1 |A|= 4 8 10
+ - sin x cos x
1+ x
-6 -12 -15
cos x 2 ex - 1 sin x 2
Order of given matrix = 3
ex sin 2x tan x 2 and |A| = 2(–120 + 120) – 4(–60 + 60)
+ ln(1 + x) cos x sin x
+ 5(–48 + 48) = 0
-2x sin x 2 ex 2x cos x 2 \ Rank of A < 3
= B + 2Cx + .... i.e. Rank of A either 0, 1 or 2
1 2 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 Now, Applying and
Put x = 0, B = 0 1 0 + 1 0 1 + 0 1 0 = 0 R 3 ® R 3 + 3R1
1 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0
é2 4 5ù
A(0,0)
Þ A = ê0 0 0ú
88. (0) 3x + 4y = 0 4x + 3y = 0 ê ú
êë 0 0 0 úû
15/4 5
Since the equivalent matrix in echelon form has
B C x=3 only one non-zero row, therefore, rank of the
(3, –9/4) 7/4 (3,–4) matrix A = 1, i.e., r (A) = 1
90. (0.50) Now there are only two possibilities :-
a ( x1 + y1 ) + b ( x2 + y2 ) + c ( x3 + y 3 )
h+k = Either head appears odd no. of times = event A
a+b+c
Or head appears even no. of times = event B
7 æ 9 ö 15
(0) + 5 ç 3 - ÷ + (3 - 4) 15 - 15 Since both are mutually exclusive and equally
4 è 4ø 4
= = 4 4 =0 1
15 7 22 likely. Therefore P(1). = P(2). = . Therefore
5+ + 5+
4 4 4 2
1
required probability = = 0.50.
2
Mock Test-9
ANSWER KEY
1 (4) 16 (4) 31 (3) 46 (4) 61 (2) 76 (2)
2 (4) 17 (3) 32 (2) 47 (1) 62 (2) 77 (2)
3 (2) 18 (4) 33 (4) 48 (4) 63 (3) 78 (2)
4 (3) 19 (3) 34 (3) 49 (2) 64 (4) 79 (4)
5 (4) 20 (2) 35 (3) 50 (3) 65 (3) 80 (2)
6 (2) 21 (7) 36 (4) 51 (610) 66 (3) 81 (1.67)
7 (2) 22 (2.4) 37 (4) 52 (41.5) 67 (3) 82 (60)
8 (3) 23 (1000) 38 (2) 53 (608) 68 (1) 83 (0.56)
9 (1) 24 (41.4) 39 (1) 54 (141.4) 69 (1) 84 (2)
10 (3) 25 (1.2) 40 (1) 55 (112) 70 (2) 85 (2)
5
11 (3) 26 (1.67 × 10 ) 41 (1) 56 (22.05) 71 (3) 86 (8.67)
12 (2) 27 (2.12) 42 (1) 57 (3) 72 (1) 87 (21)
13 (1) 28 (1.1) 43 (2) 58 (30) 73 (4) 88 (0.5)
14 (1) 29 (6.2) 44 (3) 59 (4) 74 (2) 89 (0.25)
15 (1) 30 (6000) 45 (1) 60 (30) 75 (4) 90 (3)
Solutions
g
PHYSICS g (sin 2 60 - sin 2 30] = = 4.9 m/s2
2
2E
1. (4) i= 2T cos q
R + R1 + R2 h=
3. (2) , Height in capillary depends
From cell (2) E = V + iR2 = 0 + iR2 rdg
R upon the surface tension of the liquid and surface
tension of soap water solution is less than water.
i So, height will be less in second case.
4. (3) Torque at angle q
E,R1 E,R2 l w ,a
t = Mg sin q.
(1) (2) 2
2E Also t = la q
ÞE= ´ R2 Þ R = R2 - R1 l
q
R + R1 + R2 \ Ia = Mg sin q
2. (4) mg sin q = ma 2
\ a = g sin q Ml 2
l é Ml 2 ù
.a = Mg sin q êQ I rod = ú
where a is along the inclined plane 3 2 ë 3 û
\ vertical component of acceleration is g sin2 q la sin q 3g sin q
\ relative vertical acceleration ofAwith respect Þ =g \ a=
3 2 2l
to B is
MT-218 JEE MAIN
q = CV (1– et/t)
5. (4) E = s × area × T4 ; T increases by a factor 3 . at t = 2t
2
q = CV (1 – e–2)
Area increses by a factor 1 . 12. (2) t = MB sin q (q = 90°)
4
B1 t1
6. (2) Q q1 < q2 Þ tan q1 < tan q2 t = MB Þ =
B2 t2
æV ö æV ö (since magnetic moment is same)
Þç ÷ <ç ÷
è T ø1 è T ø 2 13. (1) Given wave equation is y(x,t)
= e -( ax + bt + 2 ab xt )
2 2
V 1
from PV = mRT ; µ
T P -[( ax )2 + ( b t ) 2 + 2 a x . b t ]
= e
æ 1ö æ 1ö Increase cover on “n”
Hence çè P ÷ø < çè P ÷ø Þ P1 > P2 .
1 2 - ( ax + bt ) 2
=e
7. (2) Core of acceptance angle 2
æ ö
-1 b ÷
q = sin n12 - n 22 - çè x + tø
= e a
It is a function of type y = f (x + vt)
8. (3) Nuclear fission equation b
135 1 141 92
Þ Speed of wave =
® 56 Ba
+ 0 n ¾¾ + 36 Kr a
92 U
14. (1) In the given system all four gate is NOR gate
+ 3 0 n1 + Q(energy) Truth Table
Hence particle x is neutron. A B ( y ' = A + B) y '' = (A + y ') y ''' = (B + y ') y = y ''+ y '''
0 0 1 0 0 1
F F l T2
9. (1) Surface tension, T = = . . 0 1 0 1 0 0
l l l T2 1 0 0 0 1 0
2 1 1 0 0 0 1
T
(As, F.l = K (energy); = V -2 )
l2 A B y
i.e.,
Therefore, surface tension = [KV–2T–2] 0 0 1
10. (3) This figure can be shown as 0 1 0
+2q 1 0 0
A +2q 1 1 1
3
15. (1) T in general = 2pÖ(m/k); Half the cycle on
a a one side has period pÖ(m/k) and the other half
2 pÖ(m/2k)
16. (4) At point P net magnetic field
B C – 2q
–q
a /2
D –q Bnet = B12 + B22
3 m 0 2M m M
Hence a = 3qa
q × r1 = 2q × where B1 = . 3 and B2 = 0 . 3
2 4p d 4p d
11. (3) Charge on the capacitor at any time t is
m0 5M
given by Þ Bnet = .
4p d 3
2 21. (7) Given, l A = 8l, l B = l

1 d d
NB
P B1 NA =
e
B2 e-lBt
Þ No e-lA t = No
e
17. (3) At equilibrium, pressure is same, temp. and
e -8lt = e -lt e -1
molecular weight do not change (given). Comparing both side powers
Using ideal gas eq. P1V1 = n1RT1 -8lt = -lt - 1
1
V m t=
From above, V is constant, 1 = 1 ; 7l
m V 2 m 2 1
The best answer is t =
V1 + V2 m1 + m 2 7l
Add 1 on both sides, we get =
V2 m2
V m 2m 2 P
2 2
Þ V +V = =
m + 2m
=
3
1 2 m +
1 m2 wall
45°
18. (4) In first case : O 4m A 6m
22. (2.4)
As ball is projected at an angle 45° to the
1 1 1 4 -1
f1 = = RZ 2 ( - ) = RZ 2 ( ) horizontal therefore Range = 4H
l1 4 16 16
10
or 10 = 4H Þ H = = 2.5 m
3 4
= RZ 2 = .18RZ 2 (green light) (Q Range = 4 m + 6 m = 10m)
16
1 1 1 u 2 sin 2 q
In second case : f 2 = = RZ 2 ( - ) or Maximum height, H =
2g
l2 4 25
21 H ´ 2g 2.5 ´ 2 ´10
RZ 2 ´ = .21RZ 2 \ u2 =
2
= 2
= 100
100 sin q æ 1 ö
Hence f2 > f1 Among the options, only violet is ç ÷
è 2ø
one which has frequency more than green.
Hence answer is violet. or, u = 100 = 10 ms -1
19. (3) Since aluminium is a metal, therefore field Height of wall PA
inside this will be zero. Hence it would not affect
the field in between the two plates, so capacity 1 g(OA) 2
= OA tan q -
2 u 2 cos2 q
q q
= = remains unchanged. 1 10 ´ 16
V Ed = 4- ´ = 2.4 m
2 1 1
Df (W2 - W1 ) 10 ´ 10 ´ ´
20. (2) = 2 2
Dt t
Rtot = ( R + 4 R )W = 5R W 23. (1000) Since particle is moving undeflected
nd f -n(W2 - W1 ) So, qE = qvB

i= =
Rtot dt 5 Rt E 104
ÞB= = = 103 wb / m 2
(Q W2 & W1 are magnetic flux) V 10
MT-220 JEE MAIN
24. (41.4) We know that escape velocity ve and

1 2
orbital velocity vo are related as, ve = Ö2.vo or ve K.E.max . = mvmax .
2
=1.414 vo.
Thus for the satellite to escape from its orbit, % 1 2 9 3
Þ ´ 1 ´ vmax . = Þ vmax. =
increase in the velocity required is 2 4 2
= [(ve – vo) / vo] ´ 100 = ((Ö2 vo – vo) / vo] ´ 100 28. (1.1) Radius of circular path followed by electron
= 41.4% is given by,
hc mu 2meV 1 2m
25. (1.2) eV = –W r= = = V
l qB eB B e
According to question,
eV =
hc
–5.01 B2 r 2 e
l
Þ V= = 0.8V
2m
12400 For transition between 3 to 2.
Þ eV = – 5.01,
2000
Þ eV = 6.2 –5.01 eV = 1.2 eV = 1.2 Volt æ 1 1 ö 13.6 ´ 5
E = 13.6 ç - ÷ = = 1.88eV
26. (1.67 × 105) DH = mL = 5 × 336 × 103 = Qsink è 4 9ø 36
Qsink T Work function = 1.88 eV – 0.8 eV = 1.08 eV »

< sink 1.1eV
Qsource Tsource
29. (6.2) Time taken for travelling vertical distance of
4.9m with zero initial velocity = Ö(2h/g) =Ö2´4.9/
Tsource
\ Qsource = ´ Qsink 9.8= 1 sec. In this time, distance travelled with
Tsink horizontal velocityv should be at least 6.2 m. Thus
minimum velocity v is v ´ 1 = 6.2
Energy consumed by freezer
or v = 6.2m/s.
\ w output = Qsource - Qsink æDö lD D b
30. (6000) S = (m - 1) tç ÷; b= or =
2
è ød 2 d 2d l
æT ö
= Qsink ç source - 1÷ æbö
è Tsink ø or S = (m - 1) tç ÷ or 5b
èlø
Given: Tsource < 27°C ∗ 273 < 300K, 10 -6 ´ b
= (1.5 – 1) × 6 ×
Tsink < 0°C ∗ 273 < 273 k l
.5
æ 300 ö Þ l= ´ 10 - 6 ´ 6 = 6 × 10–7 m = 6000Å
-1 5
Woutput = 5×336×103 çè 273 ÷ø =1.67×105J
CHEMISTRY
27. (2.12)Velocityis maximum when K.E. is maximum
31. (3) It is 2-pentyne, CH3C º CCH2CH3 , which
For minimum. P.E.,
being a non-terminal alkyne, will not give ppt.
dV
= 0 Þ x 3 - x = 0 Þ x = ±1 with ammonical Cu2Cl2 solution.
dx
1 1 1 32. (2)
Þ Min. P.E. = - =- J
4 2 4 ( K .E.)1 n - n0 (1.5 ´ 1015 - 1 ´ 1015 ) 1
K.E.(max ) + P.E.(min ) = 2 (Given) = 1 = =
( K .E .)2 n2 - n0 (2.0 ´ 1015 - 1 ´ 1015 ) 2
1 9
\ K.E.(max.) = 2 + =
4 4
33. (4) In presence of HCl

OCH3
ZnS ü HCl ZnCl2
ý ¾¾¾®
MnSþ MnCl 2
CoSü HCl
ý ¾¾¾® No reaction COOH
NiS þ
HCl NaOH
ZnS ¾¾® ZnCl2 ¾¾® Zn(OH)2
O
white ppt
K4 [Fe(CN)6 ] (Clemmenson's Zn – Hg
reduction) conc. HCl
Zn2 [Fe(CN)6] OCH3

bluish white ppt
HCl K [Fe(CN)]
MnS ¾¾® MnCl2 ¾¾¾¾®
4 6
No reaction
NaOH
[O]
Mn(OH)2 ¾¾® MnO(OH)2
(Brown colour)
The above reaction path is confirming the Br
presence of Zn2+ ion.
34. (3) The thermal stability of carbonates is in the CHCH2Br C º CH
following order. alc. KOH
38. (2) ¾¾¾®
Li 2CO3 < Na 2CO3 < K 2CO3 NaNH2
< Rb 2CO3 < Cs 2CO3 (A)

Li 2 CO 3 is considerably less stable and CºCCH2CH3
decompose readily.
NaNH
D ¾¾¾¾®
2
® Li 2 O + CO 2
Li 2 CO 3 ¾¾ CH3CH2Cl
35. (3) Only secondary amines give nitroso amines
on reaction with nitrous acid. This reaction is (B)
known as Libermann’s nitroso reaction. 39. (1) Aldehydes containing no a-hydrogen
atom on warming with 50% NaOH or KOH
36. (4) For the given reaction K = [CO2] because undergo disproportionation i.e. self oxidation -
concentrations of solid CaCO3 and CaO have reduction known as Cannizzaro’s reaction.
been taken as unity, since [CaCO3] or [CaO] do 50% NaOH
2 C6 H5 CHO + NaOH ¾¾¾¾¾®
not come in the expression there will be no effect
of addition of CaCO3. C6 H5COONa + C6 H5CH 2 OH
40. (1) Octahedral complexes result from d2sp3
OCH3 O (inn er orbital) and sp 3 d 2 (outer orbital)
hybridisation eg. [Ni(NH3)6]2+.
AlCl Tetrahedral complexes are formed by sp 3
37. (4) + O ¾¾¾¾®
3
Friedal-craft hybridisation. e.g. Ni(CO)4
acetylation and square planar complexes are formed by dsp2
O hybridisation. e.g. [Ni(CN)4]2–.
Succinic
anhydride
MT-222 JEE MAIN
41. (1) sp-hybridized carbon atom is more

46. (4) In Fe(CN)36- theoxidationnumber of Fe=+3
electronegaive than sp2 hybridized carbon which
in turn is more electronegative than sp 3 and so it has a 3d5 configuration
hybridized carbon. More In Fe(CN)64 - theoxidation number of Fe= +2 and
electronegative atom accommodates the so it has a 3d6 configuration.
negative charge more easily. In Co(NO2 )36- the oxidation number of
42. (1) Hall-Heroult process is used in extraction Co = +3 and so it has a 3d6 configuration.
ofAl from alumina.
Fe(III)
43. (2)
3d 4s 3p
é d ( DG ) ù
DH = DG + T DS = -n FEcell - T ê ú
ë dT û P
é d (- nFEcell ) ù Fe(CN)36-
= - n FEcell - T ê ú
ë dT ûP
3d 4s 3p
é æ dE ö ù
= n F êT ç cell ÷ - Ecell ú X X X X X X
ë è dT ø P û
44. (3) d 2sp 3
2 Au 3+ + 6e - ¾
¾® 2 Au , DG º = - 6 ´ 1 .52 F Fe (II) and Co (III)
......(i)
3d 4s 3p
3Au 3+ + 6e - ¾
¾® 3Au + , DG º = -6 ´ 1.36 F
......(ii)
For the reaction Fe(CN)64 - and Co(NO2 )63-
3Au + ¾¾
® 2Au + Au 3+ ,ΔG º = (i) – (ii)
3d 4s 3p
= 8.16 F – 9.12 F = – 0.96 F (negative)
X X X X X X
OH (i) K CO
2 3
45. (1) ¾¾¾® d 2sp3
OH 47. (1) sp-hybrid C is more electronegative than
sp2 hybrid C which is more electronegative than
OH
sp3 hybrid C. As the hybrid state of a-C changes
s from sp3 to sp, the acid strength tends to increase
O from X to Z.
Less stable
48. (4) In equation (i) Fe2(SO4)3 and in equation
s
O (ii) Fe2(SO4)3 on decomposing will form oxide
+ (ii) CH I instead of Fe
¾¾¾®
3
OH The correct sequence of reactions is

Resonance stabilized
O ,heat CO, 600 C
Fe ¾¾¾¾
2 ® Fe3O 4 ¾¾¾¾¾ ®
OCH3
CO, 700 C
FeO ¾¾¾¾¾® Fe
OH
49. (2) The cubic form of BN with ZnS structure is % ionic character
as hard as diamond.
Observed dipole moment
=
NH2 OH Dipole moment for 100% ionic bond
CHCl 6.104 ´ 10-30

50. (3) + ¾¾¾®
3
= ´ 100
aq. KOH
14.672 ´ 10 -30
(A) (B)
= 41.5%
– +
NH2 O Na
53. (608) Moles of solute = 28 = 1 ;
28
+ 100 - 28
moles of water = =4
Organic layer Aq. layer
18
V.P. of solution
NH2 NC 4
= PH O ´ X H O = 760 ´ = 608 torr
2 2 5
CHCl
¾¾ ¾¾¾¾®
3
54. (141.4) For a cube as given, the Cl– ions are at
KOH – C2H 5OH
the corners and one each in the face centre i.e. it
(A)
(Organic layer) Unpleasant smell
is a ccp structure.
For a ccp structure 4r – < 2 a, The face
diagonal = 2 a
O– OH OH
COO– On the face diagonal there are only Cl– ions
CCl
¾¾®
4
+ \ 4r – < 2 a or r– = 1.414 ´ 400/4
KOH
= 141.4 pm
Aq. layer (B)
–
COO
51. (610)The energy involved in the conversion of a/2

1
Cl2 (g) to Cl– (aq) is given by
2 a/2
1 PM
DH = D diss H Cl2 + D eg H Cl + D hyd HCl
2 55. (112)Density (r) = (1 bar = 0.987 atm)
RT
Substituting various values from given data, we get
4 ´ 0.987 ´ 28
rN =
DH = æç ´ 240 ö÷ + (–349) + (–381) kJmol –1
1 2 R ´ 300
è2 ø
Let the molar mass of gas be x
= (120 – 349 – 381) kJ mol–1 = – 610 kJ mol–1
2 ´ 0.987 ´ x
52. (41.5) Given e = 1.60 × 10–19 C rgas =
R ´ 300
d = 9.17 × 10–11 m
Given rgas = rN × 2
From m = e × d 2
2 × 0.987 × x 4 × 0.987 × 28
m = 1.60 × 10–19 × 9.17 × 10–11 = ×2
R × 300 R × 300
= 14.672 × 10–30
\ x = 112 g/mol
MT-224 JEE MAIN
56. (22.05) Q 143.5 g ofAgCl = 36.5 g HCl and g (x) = 0 or f (x) = – g (x)
36.5 ´ 0.4305 (c) represents the set for which f (x) and
0.4305 gAgCl = g HCl g (x) both zero.
143.5
36.5 ´ 0.4305 0.4305 p+q p-q
geq of HCl = = 62. (2) cosec q = , sin q =
143.5 ´ 36.5 143.5 p-q p+q
0.4305 1000
Normalityof HCl = × = 0.15 cos q = ± 1 - sin 2 q
143.5 20
Normalityof H 2SO 4 = 0.6 – 0.15 = 0.45 2
æ p-qö 2 pq
= 1- ç ÷ =
Strength of H 2SO 4 = 49 × 0.45 = 22.05 g/L è p + q ø ( p + q)
57. (3) Total cationic charge = Total anionic charge
2n + 6 + 24 = 36 æ p qö
cot ç + ÷
n=3 è 4 2ø
a0 a0 0.08 p q q
58. (30) a = , 2n = = , Thus 2n = 8 or cot cot - 1 cot - 1
2n a 0.01 4 2 2
= =
n = 3; T = 3 ´ t1/2 = 3 ´ 10 = 30 min p q q
cot + cot cot + 1
59. (4) CMC of soap 4 2 2
10–4 M to 10–3 M
x= 4 q q
cos - sin
2 2
[B + ] = q
cos + sin
q
60. (30) pH = 14 - pK b - log 2 2
[BOH]
V = volume of acid required for the equivalance On rationalizing denominator, we get
point.
æ q qöæ q qö
cos - sin cos + sin
10 ç 2 2 ÷ ç 2 2÷
(i) (pH)1 = 9 = 14 - pK b - log ç
V - 10 q q÷ç q q÷
çè cos + sin ÷ø çè cos + sin ÷ø
2 2 2 2
25
(ii) (pH)2 = 8 = 14 - pK b - log
V - 25 cos q
=
(i) – (ii), q q q q
sin 2 + cos2 + 2sin cos
2 2 2 2
25 10 25(V - 10)
1 = log - log = log
V - 25 V - 10 10(V - 25) cos q 2 pq / ( p + q ) pq
= = =
Þ V = 30 mL 1 + sin q ( p - q) p
1+
p+q
MATHEMATICS
q
61. (2) We have, P È Q =
p
= {x Î R : f ( x ) = 0 or g (x ) = 0} 63. (3) Rewrite the given differential equation as
follows :
= {x Î R : f ( x) g (x ) = 0}
dy 2x 1
(a) represents the set for which either f (x) = 0 + y= 2 , which is a linear form
dx x 2 - 1 x -1
The integrating factor I.F.

P' ( x )
2x
ò 2 dx
66. (3) y2 = P(x) Þ 2 yy1 = P' (x ) Þ y1 =
ln ( x 2 -1) 2y
= e x -1
=e = x 2 -1
Thus multiplying the given equation by
dy 2 yP' ' ( x ) - P' ( x ).2 y1
( x 2 - 1), we get ( x 2 - 1) + 2 xy =1 \ y2 =
dx 4y2
d
Þ [ y( x 2 - 1)] =1
dx P' ( x )
2 yP ' ' ( x) - P' ( x).
y
On integrating we get y(x 2 - 1) = x + c =
4y 2
64. (4) Seeing the options we can assume that
(log x + ax 2 )
òe cos( bx 2 + c)dx
Þ y2 =
2 y 2 P' ' ( x) - [P' (x )]2
4y3
K 2 æ bö 2P(x )P' ' (x ) - [P' ( x)]2
= e ax cos ç bx 2 + c - tan -1 ÷ + A =
2
a +b 2 è aø
4y 3
Put b = 0 & a = 1
Þ 2 y3 y 2 =
1
2
[
2P( x )P' ' (x ) - {P ' (x )}2 ]
2 2
Þ ò xe x cosc dx = Ke x cos(c) + A
d 3 1 2 P( x ) P ' ' ' ( x ) + 2P ' ( x ) P' ' ( x ) ù
Þ2 ( y y 2 ) = éê
dx 2ë - 2P ' ( x ) P' ' ( x ) úû
cos c 2 2
Þ ò 2xex dx = Kex cosc + A
2 d æç 3 d 2 y ö÷
Þ2 y = P( x ) P' ' ' ( x )
dx çè dx 2 ÷ø
cos c x 2 2
Þ e = Kex cos c + A 67. (3)
2
æ 1- x ö
x2 1 (1) f ( x ) = log ç ÷
Comparing coeff. of e cos c , we get K = è 1+ x ø
2
sec x. tan x æ 1+ x ö æ 1- x ö
65. (3) ò 1 + sec x dx = ò
sec x. sec x - 1
dx \ f ( - x ) = log ç
è 1 - x
÷ = - log ç
ø
÷ = -f ( x )
è 1+ x ø
\ It is an odd function
(Put sec x = t Þ sec x tanx dx = dt)
2 2
(2) f ( x) + f (-x) = log ( x + x +1) + log(-x + x +1)
dt y dy
= òt t -1
= 2ò
2
( y + 1) y
(where y2 = t – 1) ì
î
ü
= log í( x + x 2 + 1) (- x + x 2 + 1 ý = log x 2 + 1 - x 2
þ
( )
= log (1) = 0 \ f (–x) = – f (x)
-1 -1
= 2 tan y + C = 2 tan sec x - 1 + C \ It is an odd function
x x
\ f ( x ) = tan -1 x and g (x) = sec x - 1. (3) f(x)= x + +1;
e –1 2
MT-226 JEE MAIN
70. (2) Let S º x2 – 4y

x–x - xe x x
f( - x)= –x - + 1 = - +1 Since the point (2a, a) lies inside the parabola,
e -1 2 1- ex 2
\ S (2a, a) = 4a2 – 4a < 0
ì x x ü ìï -xex x üï or a (a – 1) < 0 ...(1)
f(x) - f(-x) = í x + +1ý- í x - +1ý
îe -1 2 þ îï1- e 2 þï Also, the vertex A (0, 0) and the point (2a, a) are
on the same side of the line y = 1 (the equation of
x(1 - e x ) latus rectum)
+ x = -x + x = 0
e x -1 So, a – 1 < 0 i.e. a < 1 ...(2)
\ f(–x)=f(x) Y
Hence, it is an even function
S (0, 1)
(4) f (x) = e2x + sinx;
f (–x) = e–2x + sin (–x) = e–2x – sinx ¹ ±f(x) y=1
68. (1) Let the equation of the required plane be (2a, a)
x y z
+ + = 1 ...(i) X
a b c A
It meets co-ordinate axes in points
From (1) and (2), we have a (a – 1) < 0
A (a, 0, 0), B(0, b, 0), C(0, 0, c). or 0 < a < 1
æa b cö
The centroid of DABC is ç , , ÷ D bc bc (b + c - a )
è 3 3 3ø 71. (3) r = = =
s a + b + c (b + c + a ) (b + c - a )
a b c
Þ = a, = b, = g
3 3 3 bc (b + c - a) bc (b + c - a )
= =
Þ a = 3a, b = 3b, c = 3g
{ (b + c )2 - a 2 } 2bc
Hence the required plane is
x y z x y z [Since a 2 = b 2 + c 2 ]
+ + = 1 i.e., + + = 3 . C
3a 3b 3g a b g
69. (1) Given, hyperbola is
(10x - 5) 2 + (10 y - 2) 2 = 9(3x + 4 y - 7) 2
2 2 2 A B
æ 1ö æ 1ö 9 æ 3x + 4 y - 7 ö
Þ çx - ÷ +çy - ÷ = ç ÷ b+ c-a
è 2ø è 5ø 4è 5 ø \r =
2
Þ Given curve is a hyperbola where focus is
2 1 1
72. (1) = +
æ1 1ö c+ a b+ c a+ b
ç , ÷ and directrix is 3x + 4 y - 7 = 0 . Latus
è 2 5ø
2 b+ a+ c
rectum is a line passing through the focus and =
parallel to the directrix. ( b + c) ( a + b)
Þ Eq. of the latus rectum is Þ 2 ab + 2b + 2 ac + 2 bc
1 3æ 1ö = 2 bc + 2 ac + c + 2 ab + a
y- = - çx - ÷.
5 4è 2ø
Þ 2b = a + c p p
Clearly g (f (x)) is invertible in – £ 2x £
2 2
\ a , b, c, are in A.P. p p
Þ– £x£
Þ ax, bx , cx, are in A.P. 4 4
78. (2)
Þ ax + 1, bx + 1, cx + 1, are in A.P.
(1) We have
ax +1 bx +1 cx +1
Þ9 ,9 ,9 are in G.P.. f (x) = 6x – 1, x Î R.
Let f (x1) = f(x2), x1, x2 Î R
p
sin (2k - 1)x - sin(2k - 3)x
73. (4) a k - a k -1 = ò dx Þ 6x1–1 = 6x2 –1 Þ 6x1 = 6x2 Þ x1 = x2.
0
sin x
\ ‘f’ is one-one.
p
2sin 2 (k - 1) x ù
p (2) We have f (x) = x2 + 7, x ÎR.
= ò 2 cos 2 (k - 1)x dx = ú =0
0
2 (k - 1) û0 f(–2) = (–2)2+ 7 =11, f (2) = (2)2 + 7 = 11
\ The images of distinct elements –2 and 2 of R
for k = 2, 3, 4
are equal.
Þ a1 = a2 = a3 = ..............
\ ‘f’ cannot be one-one.
Þ the sequence is a constant sequence.
74. (2) f(x) = ex and g(x) = sin–1xand h (x)= f (g(x)) (3) f (x) = x3, x Î R.
sin -1
x Let f (x1) = f(x2), x1, x2 Î R
Þ h(x) = f(sin–1 x) = e
-1
esin x Þ x13 = x 2 3 Þ x13 – x 2 3 = 0
Þ h'(x) =
1- x2
Þ ( x1 - x 2 ) ( x1 2 + x1 x 2 + x 2 2 ) = 0
h '(x) 1
Þ =
h(x) 1 – x2 Þ x1 - x 2 = 0 Þ x1 = x 2 ,
75. (4) f (x) = sin|x| - |x|
because the other factor cannot be zero
f ( x ) x =0 - = -sinx + x Þ f ¢(x) = -cosx + 1
\ ‘f’ is one-one
f ( x ) x =0 = sinx - x Þ f ¢(x) = cos x - 1
Þ Lim- f (x )= Lim f ( x ) = 0 (4) We have f ( x) =
2x + 1
, x ÎR - {7}.
x ®0 x®0
x-7
2 æx ö
76. (2) f (x) = 4- x + cos -1 ç - 1÷ + log(cos x)
è2 ø Let f ( x1 ) = f ( x2 ), x1 , x2 Î R - {7}.
æx ö 2x + 1 2x 2 + 1
f (x) is defined if – 1 £ ç - 1÷ £ 1 and Þ 1 =
è2 ø x1 - 7 x2 - 7
cos x > 0 Þ - 15x1 = -15x 2 Þ x1 = x 2 .
x p p \ f is one-one.
or 0 £ £ 2 and - < x <
2 2 2 é1 2 1 2 2 4 3 2 9 ù
p p ê 2 sec 2 + 2 sec 2 + 2 sec 2 ú
or 0 £ x £ 4 and - < x < 79. (4) lim ê n n n n n n ú
2 2 n®¥ ê 1 2 ú
é pö êë +.... + sec 1ú
\ x Î ê 0, ÷ n û
ë 2ø
77. (2) f (x) = sin x + cos x, g (x) = x2 – 1 r r2
Þ g (f (x)) = (sin x + cos x)2 – 1 = sin 2x is equal to lim 2
sec2
n®¥ n n2
MT-228 JEE MAIN
81. (1.67) We have

2
1 r 2 r
= lim . sec 2 r á + r ´b = a ´b + b á = 0
n®¥ n n n
Þ Given limit is equal to value of Þ r ´ (a + b ) = 0
1
integral ò x sec 2 x 2 dx Þ r = l (a + b ) = l (–2 î – ˆj + 2 k̂ )
0
1
1
1
1
1 Þ r̂ = (–2 î – ĵ + 2k̂ )
or ò 2 x sec2 x 2dx = ò sec2 t dt 3
2 2 ur ur
0 0
r × a = 6l = 30 Þ l = 5
[put x 2 = t ur
Þ 2xdx = dt] \ r = 5(–2iˆ – ˆj + 2k)
ˆ
1 1 1 ur
= (tan t ) = tan1 .
2 0 2 \ r = 5 / 3 = 1.67
80. (2) The equation c ( y + c) 2 = x3 ...(i) 82. (60) Let l1, m1, n1 and l2, m2, n2 be the d.c of
has one arbitrary constant, so the equation must line 1 and 2 respectively, then as given
be of the first order. Differentiating (i) we get l1 + m1 + n1 = 0
dy and l2 + m2 + n2 = 0
2c ( y + c ) = 3x 2 ...(ii)
dx and l12 + m12 – n12 = 0 and
2 l22 + m22 – n22 = 0
æ dy ö
Þ 4c 2 ( y + c )2 ç ÷ = 9 x 4 ...(iii)
è dx ø (Q l + m + n = 0 and l2 + m2 – n2= 0)
Divide (iii) by (i), we get Angle between lines, q is
2 cos q = l1l2 + m1m2 + n1n2 ...(1)
æ dy ö 9 x
4c ç ÷ = 9 x Þ c = 2 2 2
As given l + m = n and l + m = – n
è dx ø 4 æ dy ö 2
çè ÷ø Þ (– n)2 – 2lm = n2 Þ 2lm = 0 or lm = 0
dx
So l1m1 = 0, l2m2 = 0
Put the value of c in (ii), we get
If l1 = 0, m1 ¹ 0 then l1m2 = 0
é ù If m1 = 0, l1 ¹ 0 then l2m1 = 0
ê ú If l2 = 0, m2 ¹ 0 then l2m1 = 0
9 x ê 9 x ú æ dy ö 2
2× y + ç ÷ = 3x If m2 = 0, l2 ¹ 0 then l1m2 = 0
4 æ dy ö 2 ê 4 æ dy ö 2 ú è dx ø
çè ÷ø ê çè ÷ø ú Also l1l2 = 0 and m1m2 = 0
dx ë dx û l2 + m2 – n2 = l2 + m2 + n2 – 2n2 = 0
1
é ù Þ 1 – 2n2 = 0 Þ n = ±
ê ú 2
9 x ú æ dy ö
Þ 9x ê y + = 6x 2 ç ÷ 1 1
ê 4 æ dy ö 2 ú è dx ø \ n1 = ± , n2 = ±
ê ç ÷ ú 2 2
êë è dx ø úû 1
\ cos q = q = 60° (acute angle)
2 3 2
æ dy ö 27 æ dy ö
Þ 3y ç ÷ + x = 2x ç ÷ 83. (0.56) IfAwill be final winner
è dx ø 4 è dx ø
Þ (A beats B ) (B beats C)
2 3
æ dy ö æ dy ö + (A beats C) (C beats B)
Þ 12 y ç ÷ = 8 x ç ÷ - 27 x
è dx ø è dx ø
\ 12 = – 15t + 2t + t3 i.e., t3 – 13t – 12 = 0

2 2 æ 2 öæ 2 ö 4 1 5
= ´ + ç1 - ÷ç1 - ÷ = + = =0.56 \ t = – 1, –3, 4
3 3 è 3 øè 3 ø 9 9 9 \ The points are (1, –2), (9, – 6), (16, 8)
\ Centroid is æç , 0ö÷ = (m, n).
r r r 26
84. (2.00) If a, b, c are linearly independent è 3 ø
vectors, then rc should be a linear combination 26
r Þ m+n = = 8.67
of ar and b . 3
87. (21.00) Taking A.M. and G.M. of 7 numbers
r r r
Let c = pa + qb
a a b b b c c
, , , , , , , we get
( ) (
i.e. î + aˆj + bkˆ = p î + ˆj + kˆ + q 4iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ ) 2 2 3 3 3 2 2
a b c 1
r r r 2. + 3. + 2. ìïæ a ö 2 æ b ö3 æ c ö 2 üï 7
Equating the coefficient i , j, k , we get 2 3 2 ³ ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷
í ý
1 = p + 4q, 7 ïîè 2 ø è 3 ø è 2 ø ïþ
10 4
a = p + 3q and b = p + 4q. 37 a 2 b 3c 2 2 b3 c2 £ 3 .2
Þ ³ Þ a
7 7 22.33.2 2 77
From first and third, b = 1.
310.2 4 3P.q q
\ greatest value of a2 b3 c2 = = r
Now | rc | = 3 Þ1+ a + b =3
2 2
77 7
Þ P + q + r = 10 + 4 + 7 = 21
Þ a 2 = 1, \ a = ± 1. 88. (0.50) Since z1 + z3 = z2 + z4
Hence , a = ± 1, b = 1.
z1 + z3 z 2 + z 4
Þ a + b = 2 or 0. Þ =
2 2
85. (2) Required area D (z4) C (z3)
p/4 p/2
= ò0 tan x dx + ò
p/4
cot x dx
Y
x
t an
y=
y=
co
A (z1) B (z2)
tx
æ Midpoint of ö æ Midpoint of ö
÷=ç
X
O p/4 x = p/2 Þ ç ÷
è z1 and z3 ø è z2 and z 4 ø
p/4 p/2
= [ log sec x ] 0 + [ log sin x ] p / 4 Þ Quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram.
Also, | z1 – z3 | = |z2 – z4 |
= log 2 + log 2 = 2 log 2 = log 2
æ Distance ö æ Distance ö
= logk Þ k = 2 i.e. çç Between ÷÷ = çç Between ÷÷
86. (8.67) Let the equation of any normal be ç z and z ÷ ç z and z ÷
è 1 3ø è 2 4ø
y = – tx + 2t + t3
Since it passes through the point (15, 12)
MT-230 JEE MAIN
Þ Length of diagonals are equal. é 1 ù

-1
\ The parallelogram ABCD is a rectangle ê 2 2 -( 2 + h ) ú

Þ k = lim ê( 2 + h ) + e ú
h ®0
æ z1 - z 2 ö êë úû
Now, arg ç z - z ÷ i.e. angle between z1, z2 and -1
è 3 2ø Þ k = lim é4 + h 2 + 4h + e -1/ h ù
h ®0 ë û
p -1 1
z3 (taken in order) is ±which is angle between Þ k = é 4 + 0 + 0 + e-¥ ù Þ k = = 0.25
2 ë û 4
sides AB and BC (see figure) 90. (3) Let A be the area, b be the breadth and l be
the length of the rectangle.
p 1
\± kp = ± Þ k = = 0.50
2 2 dA dl db
Given : = -5 , = 2, = -3
-1 dt dt dt
é 1 ù
89. ê
(0.25) f ( x ) = x + e
2 2- x ú
and f (2) =k We know, A = l × b
ê ú
êë úû dA db dl
If f (x) is continuous from right at x =2 then Þ = l. + b. = -3l + 2b
dt dt dt
lim f ( x ) = f ( 2 ) = k
x ®2 + Þ – 5 = – 3l + 2b.
-1 When b = 2, we have
é 1 ù
9
Þ lim ê x 2 + e 2 - x ú =k – 5 = – 3l + 4 Þ l = = 3m
x ® 2+ ê ú 3
ë û
Þ k = lim f ( 2 + h )
h® 0
Mock Test-10
ANSWER KEY
1 (3) 16 (2) 31 (4) 46 (4) 61 (3) 76 (1)
2 (2) 17 (2) 32 (3) 47 (2) 62 (4) 77 (1)
3 (3) 18 (3) 33 (2) 48 (2) 63 (2) 78 (2)
4 (2) 19 (1) 34 (4) 49 (2) 64 (3) 79 (3)
5 (4) 20 (4) 35 (1) 50 (1) 65 (1) 80 (4)
6 (2) 21 (2) 36 (3) 51 (187) 66 (4) 81 (0.33)
7 (3) 22 (2.68) 37 (2) 52 (5.82) 67 (4) 82 (0.60)
8 (3) 23 (900) 38 (1) 53 (1.6) 68 (4) 83 (2007)
9 (4) 24 (0.125) 39 (4) 54 (1.5) 69 (1) 84 (5.00)
10 (3) 25 (2) 40 (3) 55 (2) 70 (4) 85 (1.50)
11 (3) 26 (0.96) 41 (2) 56 (0.2) 71 (2) 86 (1.00)
12 (2) 27 (110) 42 (3) 57 (4) 72 (2) 87 (1.00)
12
13 (3) 28 (1.2 × 10 ) 43 (1) 58 (0.22) 73 (1) 88 (2.00)
14 (4) 29 (1) 44 (3) 59 (3) 74 (1) 89 (0.50)
15 (2) 30 (200) 45 (3) 60 (12) 75 (3) 90 (0.05)
Solutions
PHYSICS Taking limit from 0 to L
1. (3) Consider a small element dx of radius r, é ù
ê ú
2R ê ú
r< x∗R Mg ê 1 Lú MgL
ΧL < ê , ≥ ú<
L
R pY ê é 2Rx ù L 2R ú 3pR 2Y
ê ê ∗ Rú ú
ëê ëê L ûú 0 ûú
x The equilibrium extended length of wire = L +
r
DL
dx
MgL æ 1 Mg ö÷
< L∗ < L çç1 ∗ ÷
3p R Y2 èç 3 p YR 2 ø÷
L 2. (2)
M
3R
Mg
1 1 k
At equilibrium change in length of the wire Mv 2 = k L2 Þ v = .L
2 2 M
L
Mg dx
ò dL < ò é 2R ù2 k
Momentum = M × v = M × . L = kM . L
0 pê x ∗ Rú Y M
êë L úû
MT-232 JEE MAIN
3. (3) The net force becomes zero at the mean

point. 6. (2) v R = v 2 + v 2 + 2v2 cos q
Therefore, linear momentum must be conserved. v
qv
\ Mv1 = (M + m)v2
q
k k
MA1 = ( M + m) A2
M m+M
æ k ö
\ çV = A M ÷ q
è ø = 2v2 (1 + cos q) = 2v cos
2
Q A1 M = A2 M + m
7. (3) Magnetic moment of the hydrogen atom,
A1 m+ M when the electron is in nth excited state, i.e.,
\ A = M
2 n ' = (n + 1)
4. (2) The resultant gravitational force on each
particle provides the necessary centripetal force. As magnetic moment M n = In A = in (prn2 )
C
mz 2 e5
fAC i n = eVn =
4e02 n 3 h 3
L L
O n2h2 æ 1 ö
rn = çk = ÷
F 2
4p kzme è 2 4p Î0 ø
m
A m B
D Solving we get magnetic moment of the hydrogen
atom for nth excited state
\ mv2/r = Ö (F2 + F2 + 2F2cos 60°) = Ö3 F
æ e ö nh
But r = (Ö3 L/2) ´ (2/3) = L/Ö3 Mn ' = ç ÷
è 2m ø 2p
\ mv2Ö3 / L = Ö3GM2 / L2 Þ v =Ö(GM/L) 8. (3) Speed on reaching ground
5. (4) Let the charges on spheres of radii r and R
be q1 and q2 respectively. Then, Q = q1+q2. v= u 2 + 2 gh
The potential at the centre will be :
Now, v = u + at u
1 q1 q 2
V= ( + )
4pe 0 r R Þ u 2 + 2 gh = -u + gt
Time taken to reach highest H
As surface densities are equal, hence
u
q1 q2 æ R2 ö point is t = ,
s= = or q = q ç ÷ g
2 1 ç r2 ÷
4pr 2 4p R 2 è ø
u + u 2 + 2 gH nu
1 q1 R 1 q Þ t= = (from question)
V= ( + q1 ) = ´ 1 (r + R ) g g
4pe o r r 2 4pe o r 2 Þ 2gH = n(n –2)u2
9. (4) Consider a shell of thickness (dr) and of
R2 radii (r) and the temperature of inner and outer
Now, q1 + q2 = Q or q1 + q1 =Q
r2 surfaces of this shell be T, (T – dT)
q1 Q Q æ R+r ö dQ
Þ = ;V= ç ÷
= rate of flow of heat through it
r 2 2
R +r 2
4pe0 è R 2 + r 2 ø dt
KA[(T - dT ) - T ] - KAdT Initially at t = 0 ; h = h A

= = t=t;h=0
dr dr
dT æ dh ö
= -4pKr
2
(Q A = 4pr 2 ) Then, A ç - ÷ = pa 2 .v
dr è dt ø h
T - dT A a
dt = - 2
dh
dr pa 2 gh
[Q velocity of efflux of
T1
r1 r
liquid v = 2 gh ]
T2 Integrating both sides
r2 t 0
A -1 2
ò dt = - òh dh
To measure the radial rate of heat flow, integration 0 2 g pa 2 h
technique is used, since the area of the surface 0
Aé h1 2 ù
through which heat will flow is not constant. [t] t
0
=- . ê ú
r2 T2 2 g pa 2 ëê 1 2 ûú h
æ dQ ö 1
Then, ç
è dt ÷ø ò r 2 dr = -4pK ò dT 2A h
r1 T1 t=
pa 2 g
dQ é 1 1 ù
ê - ú = -4pK [T2 - T 1 ] 13. (3) B due to AOB and COD are ^ to each
dt ë r1 r2 û
2
other. Hence, net B = B12 + B 22
dQ -4pKr1r2 (T2 - T1 )
or =
dt (r2 - r1 ) m 0 2 2 1/ 2
B= ( I1 + I 2 ) ( ^ to plane ABCD)
dQ r r 2pa
\ µ 1 2
dt (r2 - r1 )
hc
10. (3) In X-ray tube, l min =
eV
æ hc ö
In l min = In ç ÷ - InV
è eø
Clearly, log lmin versus log V graph 1 1
14. (4) At resonance Lw = , w=
Cw LC
slope is negative hence option (c) correctly
depicts. E
Current through circuit i =
R
11. (3) Let r be the internal resistance of the cell. Power dissipated at Resonance = i2R
Terminal potential difference (V) < EMF of a cell
(E). 15. (2) x = at 3 and y = bt 3
E - V æ E - Vö dx dy
V = E – Ir or r = =ç R = 3at 2 and v y = = 3bt 2
I è V ÷ø vx =
dt dt
dh
12. (2) Let the rate of falling water level be -
dt \ v = v x2 + v2y = 9a 2t 4 + 9b2 t 4
MT-234 JEE MAIN
9I Þ I2 = 9
= 3t 2 a 2 + b2 I2 =
64 I1 16
l D 6.5 ´ 10 –7
16. (2) b= = ´ 1 = 0.65 × 10–3 B¢
2d 10-3 I B
I/4 9I/64
= 0.65 mm A A¢
3I/64
The distance between fifth bright fringe from
third dark fringe = 2.5 b = 2.5 × .65 3I/4 3I/16
= 1.63 mm. C
17. (2) Graph [A] is for material used for making
permanent magnets (high coercivity)
Graph [B] is for making electromagnets and By using
transformers.
2
18. (3) This graph suggest that when æ I2 ö æ 9 ö
2
u = – f, v = + µ ç +1 ÷ ç +1÷
Imax I
=ç 1 ÷ = ç 16 ÷ = 49
v (cm) Imin ç I ÷ ç 9 ÷ 1
çç 2 - 1 ÷÷ ç -1 ÷
I
è 1 ø è 16 ø
21. (2) Acceleration when there is no friction is a =

gsinq and acceleration when friction is there is
f a¢ = (g sin q – mg cos q)
1
–f u (cm) We know that s = ut + at2, under condition of
2
u = 0, gives, t = Ö(2s/a).
When the object is moved further away from the
Therefore, t'/ t = Ö(a / a' ).
lens, v decreases but remains positive. When u For our case we get n = Ö[g sin q /(g sin q – mg cos
is at – µ, v = f. q)]
This is how image formation takes place for Þ n2 = g sin q /(g sin q – mg cos q) = 1/(1 – m
different positions of the object in case of a cot q)
convex lens. But q = 45°
1 Þ cot q = 1 \ n2 = 1 /(1– m) or m = 1 – (1/n2)
19. (1) U = CV2 22. (2.68)Wavelength of monochromatic green light
2
From this, we get U µ V2 = 5.5 × 10–5 cm
Power
Intensity I =
Area
U 100 ´ ( 3 /100 ) 3
U = = Wm -2
4p ( 5 )
2 100p
Now, half of this intensity (I) belongs to electric
2 field and half of that to magnetic field, therefore,
V V
I 1
I = e0 E 02 C or E 0 = 2I
20. (4) From figure I1 = and 2 4 e0 C
4
æ 3 ö 819K B
2´ç p÷ Þ = Mgh
è 100 ø 2
= 819K B
æ
ç
1
9÷
è 4p ´ 9 ´10 ø
ö
(
´ 3 ´108 ) or h =
2Mg
26. (0.96) No. of electrons reaching the
6 collector,
= ´ 30 = 7.2
25
96
\ E 0 = 2.68 V / m nC = ´ 1010 = 0.96 ´ 1010
100
23. (900) We know that nE é
Emitter current, I E =
T 300 - 250 50 1 t
h =1- 2 = = =
T1 300 300 6
Collector current, I C = n C ´ e
Q2 1 Q - 750 t
or h = 1 - Þ = 1
Q1 6 Q1 \ Current transfer ratio,
Q1 = 6Q1 –4500
a=
IC n C
=
0.96 ´ 1010
= = 0.96
Þ –5Q1 = -4500 Þ Q1 = 900 Cal IE nE 1010
® 27. (110) nlast = n first + ( n - 1) ´ d
24. (0.125) E = E 0 iˆ + 2E 0 ˆj
Þ 3n = n + ( 56 - 1) ´ 4
Given, E 0 = 100N / c
or 2n = 55 ´ 4 Þ n = 110Hz
®
So, E = 100iˆ + 200ˆj 28. (1.2 × 1012) The critical frequency of a sky wave
for reflection from a layer of atmosphere is given
Radius of circular surface = 0.02 m
by f c = 9(N max )1/ 2
2 22
Area = pr = ´ 0.02 ´ 0.02
7 Þ 10 ´ 106 = 9(N max )1/ 2
2
= 1.25 ´10-3 î m 2 [Loop is parallel to Y-Z plane] Þ N max
æ 10 ´ 106 ö
=ç 12 -3
÷ ; 1.2 ´ 10 m
ç 9 ÷
Now, flux (f) = EA cosq è ø
29. (1) 30 Divisions of vernier scale coincide with
( ) -3
= 100iˆ + 200ˆj .1.25 ´ 10 î cos q° [q = 0°] 29 divisions of main scales
= 125 × 10–3 Nm2/c 29
Therefore 1 V.S.D = MSD
= 0.125 Nm2/c 30
Least count = 1 MSD – 1VSD
25. (2) Kinetic energy of each molecule, 29
3 = 1 MSD - MSD
K.E. = K B T 30
2 1
= MSD
In the given problem, 30
Temperature, T = 0°C = 273 K 1
= ´ 0.5° = 1 minute.
Height attained by the gas molecule, h = ? 30
3 819K B
K.E. = K B ( 273) = 30. (200)After 8 sec., the counting rate falls to
2 2 4
K.E. = P.E. 100 1 æ1ö
= = ç ÷ th Part ;
1600 16 è 2 ø
MT-236 JEE MAIN
8 33. (2) NH2CONH2 + NH2 –NH2 ¾¾®

Time period = sec. = 2 sec.
4 NH2NHCONH2 + NH3
Therefore, after 6 seconds, the counting rate
(Semicarbazide)
3
æ1ö
should be ç ÷ th part of 1600, i.e. 1 2 3
è2ø 34. (4) H2C – CH – CH2
| | |
1 CN CN CN
´ 1600 = 200 .
8 1,2,3-propanetricarbonitrile
CHEMISTRY 35. (1) The linking of identical atoms with each other
31. (4) For Lyman series (shortest wavelength) to form long chains is called catenation. However,
n1 = 1, n2 = ¥ this property decreases from carbon to lead.
Decrease of this property is associated with M-
1 æ 1 1 ö M bond energy which decreases from carbon to
= Rz 2 ç 2 - 2 ÷
l çn ÷
è 1 n2 ø lead.
36. (3) Polyacrylonitrile (PAN), acrilan or orlon
1 æ1 1 ö 1
Þ = 12 R ç - ÷ Þ = R
A è1 ¥ ø A CN CN
st | |
Longest wavelength = 1 line n CH 2 = CH ¾¾
® –(CH 2 - CH)-n
n1 = 3, n2 = 4 Acrylonitrile Orlon
1 æ1 1 ö 1 R7
= Rz 2 ç 2 - 2 ÷ Þ = It is hard used in preparing cloths, carpets etc.
l è 3 4 ø l 36
D
1 37. (2) 3Mg+ N 2 ¾¾® Mg3 N 2 ;
R= X Y
A
1 Mg 3 N 2 ∗ 6H 2 O ¾¾
↑ 3Mg(OH) 2 ∗ 2NH 3 ←
´7 Colourless
1 A 1 7 36 A
= Þ = Þl=
l 36 l 36 A 7 CuSO 4 + 4 NH 3 ¾
¾® [Cu ( NH 3 ) 4 ] SO 4
Blue complex
1 é 1 1 ù 38. (1) Molecules of a polymer, being large in size,
32. (3) kt = ê n -1 - n -1 ú
n - 1 ëê A t A 0 ûú scatter light.
é ù 39. (4) [Zn(NH3)4]2+, Ni(CO)4 and [Cd(CN)4]2– all
ê ú form tetrahedral structures where the central atom
1 ê 1 1 ú 1 é 2 n -1 - 1 ù uses sp3 hybridisation.
kt0.5 = - = ê ú
n - 1 ê æ A ön -1 A0n -1 ú n - 1 êë A0n -1 úû Whereas [Cu(NH3)4]2+ uses sp2d hybridisation
ê 0 ú
êë çè 2 ÷ø úû and forms square planar structure. Although Cu
should use both tetrahedral (sp3) and square
é ù planar (sp2d) hybridisations but the later one is
ê ú confirmed through X-ray analysis.
1 ê 1 1 ú 1 é 8n -1 –1 ù
kt0.875 = - = ê ú 40. (3) Diallyl ether has double bond which shows
n - 1 ê æ A ö n -1 A n0 -1 ú n - 1 êë A0n -1 úû addition reaction with KMnO4 (change its colour)
ê 0 ú
ç ÷
ëê è 8 ø ûú while di-n-propyl ether does not react with
KMnO4.
t 0.875 8n -1 - 1 41. (2) Mn2+ (3d 5) is more stable then Mn 3+ (3d 4).
=
t 0.5 2n -1 - 1 due to half filled orbitals.
42. (3) Pure ClO2 is obtained by passing dry Cl2 CH 3

over AgClO3 at 90°C. 5 1
90 C 2
2AgClO3 + Cl2 (dry) ¾¾¾® 6
4
3 OH
2AgCl + 2ClO 2 + O 2 C2 H 5
43. (1) Whenever dehydration can produce two 2-Ethyl-3 methyl-1-hexanol
different alkenes, major product is formed 46. (4) As3+ and Cd2+ are the radicals of group II,
according to Saytzeff rule i.e. more substituted whereas Ni2+ and Zn2+ are the radicals of group
alkene (alkene having lesser number of IV. The solubility product of group IV radicals is
hydrogen atoms on the two doubly bonded higher as compared to group II. NH4 OH
carbon atoms) is the major product. increases the ionisation of H2S by removing H+
of H2S as unionisable water.
Conc H SO
C6 H 5 , CH 2 , CH, CH , CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾¾
2 4↑ 2H+ + S2–;
H2S
| |
OH CH3 H + + OH - ¾ ¾® H 2 O
Thus, excess of sulphide ions are present which
H H H CH(CH3)2 leads to the precipitation of all the four ions.
C=C + C=C Note : HCl decreases ionisation of H2S whereas
C6H5 CH(CH3)2 C6H5 H NH4OH increases the ionisation of H2S.
cis trans 47. (2) The reaction proceed through Markownikoff’s
(minor) (major) rule by ionic mechanism. The initial carbonium
+
ion (CH 3CH 2 C H 2 ) rearrange into more stable
44. (3) 3Zr 4 + + 4PO 43-
é Zr3 ( PO 4 ) ù
ë 4û +
3S 4S (CH3 C HCH3 ) carbonium ion.
Ksp = (3S)3 (4S)4
= 27S 3 × 256 S 4 48. (2)
reduction HNO 2
= 6912 S 7. A B C2H5OH
(C 2H 3N)
1/7 Carbylamine reaction
æ K sp ö Offensive smell (C)
\ S = çç ÷÷
è 6912 ø Given reactions indicate that B has 1º NH2 group,
and thus A, C2H3N, should be CH 3C º N .
O Hence C should be CH3CH2NC
NaOH, H O
45. (3) ¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
2 ®
H D
reduction
CH3C º N ¾¾¾¾® CH3CH 2 NH 2
Butanal A B
CHCl3 ®
O ¾¾¾¾ ® CH3CH 2 N = C
KOH
|| C
C LiCu (CH ) 49. (2) Of the two possible carbocations, benzylic
H ¾¾¾¾¾
3¾
2®
H 2O type (II) is more stable than the I.
C2 H 5
+
CH3CHCH2 OH ......(I)
CH 3 O
LiAlH +
H ¾¾ ¾¾ 4®
CH3 CH2CH OH ......(II)
H 2O
C2 H5 hence bromination occurs on 3rd C atom
MT-238 JEE MAIN
50. (1) 55. (2) The maximum concentration of SO42– will

be same as the solubility of M2SO4 ;
CH2
If solubility is x mol L–1
D 2M+ + SO 2–
CH + ¾ ¾¾¾¾¾ ¾® M2SO4 4
Diel’s-Alder reaction
Ksp =4x , therefore x = (Ksp /4) 1/3
3
CH (A)
[SO4–2] = x = (Ksp /4) 1/3 = [(3.2 ´ 10–5)/4 ] 1 / 3
CH2 = 2 ´ 10–2 M
2NBS
Br 56. (0.2) MnO4 + 5Fe2+ + 8H+ ¾® 5Fe3+ + Mn2+ +
–
4H2O
alc KOH
¬¾¾¾¾¾ In the above reaction 1 mole of MnO4– reacts
–2HBr
with 5 mole of Fe2+.
Tetralin (C) Br or 1 mole of Fe2+ reacts with 0.2 mole of MnO4–.
(B)
57. (4) 2 mL of 1 M NaCl contains
–2H2 Pd
2
NaCl = = 2 m mole Thus 500 mL of As2S3
1000
sol require NaCl for complete coagulation = 2 m
mole
Naphthalene Hence 1 L, i.e., 1000 mL of the sol require NaCl
51. For sH2+(g)
(187)gO (g) ¾¾
+ O2 aq
2HCl ® H2O2 (l) for complete coagulation = 4 m mole
Therefore, flocculation value of NaCl = 4.
D r H 2 D r H1
D f H° ( H 2 O2 , l ) = D r H3 ° + -
2 2 58. (0.22) When pH = 14
æ -622 ö æ -818 ö [H+] = 10–14
= (–285) + ç ÷ –ç ÷
è 2 ø è 2 ø
= –187 kJ/mol Kw 10 -14 m
[OH - ] = = =1m
52. (5.82) The volume of the unit cell [H + ] 10 -14 m
= (2.88 Å)3 = 23.9 × 10–24 cm3.
2+ - 2 - 19
The volume of 100 g of the metal Ksp = [Cu ] [OH ] = 10
m 100 10 -19
= = = 13.9 cm3 \ [Cu 2+ ] = = 10 -19
r 7.20 [OH ] - 2
Number of unit cells in this volume The half cell reaction
13.9 cm3
= -24 3 = 5.82 × 1023 Cu 2+ + 2e - ¾
¾® Cu
23.9 ´ 10 cm
53. (1.6) W2 = 4g, V = 1000 mL = 1 L, 0 .059 1
E = E° – log
p = 6.0 ´ 10–4 atm
2 [ Cu 2+ ]
T = 300K, R = 0.0821 Latm. K–1 mol–1 0.059 1
= 0.34 – log -19 = – 0.22 V
p = W2´RT/(M2V) 2 10
\ M2 = 4 ´ 0.0821 ´ 300/ (6 ´ 10–14 ´ 1) 59. (3) Fmetal = (Wt of metal ´ 96500)/No of coulombs
= 16.42 ´ 104 = 1.6 ´ 105 (22.2 ´ 96500)
= » 59.5
log 1.837 (2 ´ 5 ´ 60 ´ 60)
54. (1.5) (1.5)n = 1.837, n = =1 . 5
log1.5 177
Oxidation no. of metal = = +3
59.5
60. (12) Total pressure of mixture of gases A,B & C

Since, sin 2 1 > cos 2 1
= 10 atm.
Partial pressure of p p p
[Q sin q > cos q " < q< &1> ]
A = (No. of moles of A ´ 10)/ 10 4 2 4
Now, seeing the options 1 + sin21 is greater than
or (No. of moles of A ´ 10)/ 10 = 3
all other options.
Hence, no. of moles of A = 3 64. (3) tanA/2, tanB/2, tanC/2 are in A.P.
\ Partial pressure of Þ tanA/2 – tanB/2 = tanB/2 – tanC/2
B = (No. of moles of B ´ 10)/ 10
sin A / 2 sin B / 2 sin B / 2 sin C / 2
(since partial pressure of B = 1atm) Þ - = -
cos A / 2 cos B / 2 cos B / 2 cos C / 2
\ No.of moles of B = 1
Þ cos(C/2)sin(A/2 – B/2)
Now the no. of moles of C = 10 – ( 3+1) = 6; = cosA/2 sin (B/2 – C/2)
1 mole of C weighs = 2 g. Þ cos B - cos A = cosC - cosB
\ 6 mole of C will weigh = 2 ´ 6 = 12 Þ 2cos B = cos A + cos C
MATHEMATICS Þ secA, secB, secC are in H.P.
65. (1) Any tangent to the parabola y2 = 4ax is
61. (3)
a
n +4
C r - (n C r +3.n C r -1 +3.n C r - 2 + n C r -3 ) y = mx + ...(1)
m
= n + 4 C r - (n C r +n C r -1 ) + (n C r -1 + n C r -2 ) æ aö
meets x2 = 4by where x2 = 4b ç mx + ÷
+ (n C r -1 + n C r - 2 ) + ( n C r - 2 +n C r -3 ) è mø
2 2
or mx – 4bm x – 4ab = 0 ...(2)
n+4
= C r - n+1C r +n+1C r-1+n+1C r-1+n+1C r-2 If the line (1) be a tangent to the second parabola,
= n + 4 C r - n + 2 C r + n + 2 C r -1 then roots of (2) must be equal. The condition
for this is
= n + 4 C r - n +3Cr = n + 3 C r -1
a
62. (4) Let a' = a/(a – 1), b' = b/(b – 1) 16b2m4 + 16abm = 0 or m3 = -
b
Þ a = a'/(a'– 1), b = b'/(b' – 1) 1/ 3
æaö a1/ 3
Þ 1/a = (a' – 1)/a', 1/b = (b' – 1)/b' \ m= -ç ÷ =-
Then equation whose roots are 1/a, 1/b, is èbø b1 / 3
x2 – (1/a + 1/b)x + 1/ab = 0 Substituting this value of m in (1), we get
Þ x2 – [(a' – 1)/a' + (b' – 1)/b'] x æ b1 / 3 ö
a1/ 3
+ [(a' – 1) (b' –1)] / a'b' = 0 y = - 1 / 3 x + a çç - 1 / 3 ÷÷
b è a ø
Þ a'b'x – [2a'b' – (a + b')]x + a'b' – (a' + b') + 1
2 '
=0 i.e. xa1/3 + yb1/3 + a2/3 b2/3 = 0

Þ bx2 – (a + 2b)x + a + b + 1 = 0 which is the required equation of the common
tangent.
63. (2) f (q) = cos 2 (cos q) + sin 2 (sin q) 66. (4) Let the point of contact be (h,k); equation
Now, put q = p /2 & 0 of chord of contact is T = 0
f (0) = cos 2 1 + 0 = cos 2 1 Þ xh + yk – 12 = 0 ………..(1)
f (p / 2) = 1 + sin 2 1 Equation of common chord C1 – C2 = 0

Þ 5x – 3y –10 = 0 ………. (2)
MT-240 JEE MAIN
(1) and (2) represent the same line 71. (2) Since, f ' (x) = f (x), therefore, f (x) = aex.
Since, f (0) = 2, therefore, f (x) = 2ex.
Þ h/5 = k/(–3)= –12/(–10)
Þ h = 6, k = –18/5 ex
\ I = 2ò dx
67. (4) R = {(x, y) : x, y Î N and x2 – 4xy + 3y2 = 0} 3 + 8e x
Put ex = t, \ dt = ex dx
Now, x2 – 4xy + 3y2 = 0
dt 1
Þ (x – y) (x – 3y) = 0 \ I = 2ò Þ I = log(3 + 8e x ) + C
3 + 8t 4
\ x = y or x = 3y
72. (2) y = | cos x – sin x |
\ R = {(1, 1), (3, 1), (2, 2), (6, 2), (3, 3),
(9, 3),......} Y
Since (1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3),...... are present in the
f(x) = cos x g(x) = sin x
relation, therefore R is reflexive.
Since (3, 1) is an element of R but (1, 3) is not the
element of R, therefore R is not symmetric
Here (3, 1) Î R and (1, 1) Î R Þ (3, 1) Î R
X
(6, 2) Î R and (2, 2) Î R Þ (6, 2) Î R
O p/4 p/2
For all such (a, b) Î R and (b, c) Î R
Þ (a, c) Î R
Hence R is transitive.
x® p/6 (
4 - 3 sin x - 2 cos 2 x )
1/(2 sin x -1)
68. (4) lim p /4
Required area = 2 ò (cos x - sin x ) dx
0
sin x –1
p/4
lim [1 + (2 sin x – 1)(sin x – 1) ]
(2sin x –1)(sin x –1) = 2 [ sin x + cos x ]0
x ®p /6 = e –1/2
69. (1) f ¢ (x) = – 12 cos3 x sin x – 30 cos2x sin x – é 2 ù
=2ê - 1ú = (2 2 - 2) sq. units
12 cos x sin x = – 6 sin x cos x (cos x + 2) ë 2 û
(2 cos x + 1) 73. (1) Any vector (x, y, z) can be represented as a
p 2p linear combination of three non coplanar vectors.
f ' (x) = 0, for x = 0, , , p r r r
2 3 OP = xa + yb + zc
p 2p r r r r
Clearly, f ' (x) > 0 for <x< But P is (3, 2,1) Þ OP = 3a + 2b + c
2 3
Now if coordinate axis changes then the vector
p 2p is represented by
And f ' (x) < 0 ; for 0 < x < or <x<p
2 3 r r r r r r r r r
x(a + b + c ) + y (a - b + c ) + 2(a + b - c )
p
70. (4) I = ò sin n x cos2m +1 x dx r r r
0 = 3a + 2b + c
p r r r
= ò sin n (p - x).cos2m+1 (p - x) dx Comparing coeff of a, b & c , we get
0
p
x + y + z = 3, x - y + z = 2, x + y - z = 1
= -ò sin n x cos 2m+1 x dx = -I Þ I = 0 On solving, we get
0
Similarly, one can show that 3 1
x= , y = ,z =1
p 2m+1 2 2
ò 0 cos x dx = 0
Hence the new co-ordinates of point P r r r r

æ3 1 ö ë ( )
é l ar + b l 2 b lcr ù = é ar b + cr b ù
û ë û
are ç , ,1÷
è2 2 ø l ( a1 + b1 ) l ( a2 + b2 ) l ( a3 + b3 )
74. (1) Let DR of the line of intersection of the planes
Þ l 2 b1 l 2 b2 l 2b3
be a, b, c
Þ a – 2b – c = 0 .......... (1) lc1 lc2 lc3
and a + b + 3c = 0 .......... (2)
a1 a2 a3
a b c
on solving, we get = = =k = b1 + c1 b 2 + c2 b3 + c3
-5 -4 3
b1 b2 b3
Þ a = – 5 k, b = – 4 k, c = 3k
Thus required eqn of line is a1 + b1 a2 + b2 a3 + b3
x - 2 y - 3 z -1 Þ l4 b1 b2 b3
= =
-5 -4 3 c1 c2 c3
75. (3) x + 2 = 6 Þ x = 4, Its converse is
x = 4 Þ x + 2 = 6 i.e. if x = 4 then x + 2 = 6 a1 a2 a3
76. (1) Since, x1 < x 2 Þ f (x1) < f (x 2 ) if = b1 + c1 b2 + c2 b3 + c3
b1 b2 b3
x1 ,x 2 ,---,x n are in ascending order
Þ f(x1 ),f(x 2 ),---f(x n ) are also in ascending or- a1 a2 a3 a1 a2 a3
der. Þ l 4 b1 b2 b3 = c1 c2 c3
If M is the median along x, then f (M) is the c1 c2 c3 b1 b2 b3
median along y
77. (1) The required event occurs if two sixes are Þ l 4 = -1
observed in the first seven throws and a six is Hence l has no real values.
observed on the eighth throw. If p is the
79. (3)
probability that a six shows on the die, the
number of throws n is 7, and X is the number of 1 1
tan -1 + tan -1 + ...... +
times a six is observed, then X ~ B(7,p). Therefore 1 + n( n + 1) 1 + ( n + 1)( n + 2)
the required probability equals P(X = 2) times 1
the probability of getting a six on the eighth tan–1
1 + ( n + 19) ( n + 20)
throw, i.e., it equals
2 -1 n + 19 n -1
- tan -1
5
æ1ö æ5ö æ1ö = tan
( 7 C2 p2 q5 )(p) = (7 C2 ) ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷ n + 21 n +1
è6ø è6ø è6ø
æ 1 ö -1 æ 1 ö
Þ tan-1 ç 2
7
C2 (55 )
= ÷ + tan ç 2 ÷ + ...... +
68 è n + n +1ø è n + 3n + 3 ø
78. (2) Let us consider 1
r tan -1
r 1 + ( n + 19) ( n + 20)
a = a1$i + a2 $j + a3kˆ b = b1$i + b2 $j + b3kˆ
r
c = c1i$ + c2 $j + c3 kˆ
then as per question
MT-242 JEE MAIN
æ n + 19 n - 1 ö y= 3– 1 = 2
ç - ÷
= tan -1 ç n + 21 n + 1 ÷ \
æ1 ö
Points of intersection are P ç , 2 ÷ and
n + 19 n - 1
çç 1 + ´ ÷÷ è2 ø
è n + 21 n + 1 ø
Q (1, 1).
-1 20
= tan =S
n2 + 20n + 1 æ1 ö
Equation of tangent at P ç , 2 ÷ is
20 è2 ø
\ tan S = 2
n + 20n + 1 æ1ö
80. (4) Given expansion can be written as 4x ç ÷ +y(2) = 5 i.e. 2x + 2y = 5
è 2ø
n
æ x -1 ö n Its slope = –1 \ Slope of the normal = 1
ç x ÷ .(1 - x ) = (–1) x (1 – x)
n –n 2n
è ø Again, equation of tangent at Q (1, 1) is
Total number of terms will be 2n + 1 which is 4x(1) + y(1) = 5 i.e. 4x + y = 5
odd (Q 2n is always even)
1
2n + 1 + 1 Its slope = –4 \ Slope of the normal =
\ Middle term = = (n + 1) th 4
2
Now, Tr +1 = nCr (1)r x n - r 1 3
1-
2n
Cn × x 2 n - n tan q = 4 =4 =3
= 2 n Cn .( -1)n \ = 0.6
So, æ1ö 5 5
n
x .( -1) n 1 + (1) ç ÷
è4ø 4
Middle term is an odd term. So, n + 1 will be
odd. r r -1
So, n will be even. 83. (2007) det (Mr) = = 2r - 1
r -1 r
\ Required answer is 2nCn.
2007 2007
5
81. (0.33) S =
12 × 4 2
+
11
42 × 72
+
17
7 2 ×10 2
+ ¼ ¥. å det (M r ) = 2 å r - 2007
r =1 r =1
3× 5 3 ×11 3 ×17
3S = + + + ¼¥ 2007 ´ 2008
2
1 ×4 2 2
4 ×7 2 7 ×10 2
2 = 2´ - 2007 = (2007)2
2
(4–1)(4 +1) (7–4)(7 +4) (10–7)(10 +7) = k2 Þ k = 2007
Þ 3S = + + + ...¥
12 × 42 42 ×72 72 ×102
1 é1 - 1 1 ù
ÞS= = 0.33 ê ú
3 84. (5.00) A = ê2 1 - 3ú
82. (0.60) Solving 2x + y = 3 i.e. y = 3 – 2x and êë1 1 1 úû
4x2 + y2 = 5, we get
Cofactors of various entries are
4x2 + (3 – 2x)2 = 5 Þ 8x2 – 12x + 4 = 0
Þ 2x2 – 3x + 1 = 0 Þ (2x – 1) (x – 1) = 0 4, - 5, 1; 2, 0, - 2; 2, 5, 3
1 | A |= 1´ 4 + (-1) ´ -5 + 1´1 = 10
\ x= ,1
2
é 4 -5 1 ù
1 C = ê 2 0 -2ú
When x = 1, y = 3 – 2 = 1 and when x = , Cofactor Matrix ê ú
2 êë 2 5 3 úû
87. (1.00) Let z1 = 1 + i and z2 = 1 – i

é4 2 2ù
ê ú z2 1 - i (1 - i ) (1 - i )
\ Adj A = C T = ê- 5 0 5ú = = =-i
êë 1 - 2 3úû z1 1 + i (1 + i ) (1 - i )
æz ö
é4 2 2ù 2 + 3ç 2 ÷
-1 AdjA 1 ê ú 2 z1 + 3z2 è z1 ø = 2 - 3i
\A = = - 5 0 5ú =
| A | 10 ê 2 z1 - 3z2 æ z ö 2 + 3i
2-3ç 2 ÷
êë 1 - 2 3úû
è z1 ø
Comparing , we get a = 5
2 z1 + 3z2 2 - 3i 2 - 3i
æ 3x 2 - 1 ö = =
85. (1.50) y = tan
-1 ç ÷ 2 z1 - 3z2 2 + 3i 2 + 3i
ç 3x - x 3 ÷
è ø
é z1 | z |ù
æ 3x - x 3 ö p êQ = 1 ú
p z2 | z2 | û
= - tan -1 ç ÷ = + 3 tan -1 x ë
2 ç 3x 2 - 1 ÷ 2 4+9
è ø = =1
4+9
dy 3 88. (2.00) The given lines are
=
dx 1 + x 2
y + 3 z -1
x -1 = = =s ......(1)
æ x 2 -1 ö p æ 2 ö -l l
u = sin -1 ç ÷ = - cos -1 ç x - 1 ÷
ç x2 +1÷ 2 ç x 2 +1 ÷ z -2
è ø è ø and 2 x = y - 1 = =t ......(2)
-1
p
= - + 2 tan -1 x The lines are coplanar, if
2
du 2 0 - ( -1) -1 - 3 -2 - ( -1)
=
dx 1 + x 2 1 -l l =0
dy dy du 3 1
= = 1 -1
dx du dx 2 = 1.50 2
86. (1.00) Let f(x) = ax 2 + bx + c

1 -5 -1
ax3 bx 2 c2 ® c2 + c3 ; 1 0 l =0
g ( x) = ò f ( x) = + + cx
3 2 1
0 -1
a b 2
\ g(1) = + + c = 2a + 3b + c = 0
3 2 l
Þ 5( -1 - ) = 0 Þ l = -2
g(0) = 0 = g(1) 2
\ g(x) is continuous apply Rolle’s theorem Þ |l |= 2
Þ g( x) = 0 for some value x Î (0,1) 89. (0.50) Since A and B are two independent events
\ P(A Ç B) = P(A) P(B)
Þ g' (x ) = f ( x) = ax 2 + bx + c = 0
has a root in (0, 1) = (m, n) 1
Þ P (A) P(B) = (given) ...(i)
Þ m + n = 1. 6
MT-244 JEE MAIN
1 1
and P (neither of A nor B) = P (A È B) = \ Most P(A) =
3 2
1 2 æ 1ö 1 1
Þ P(A È B) = 1 - P(A È B) = 1 - = 90. (0.05) B ç 5, ÷ Þ n = 5, p = , q =
3 3 è 2ø 2 2
We know that
æ 1ö 1 1
B ç 7, ÷ Þ n = 7, p = , q =
P(A È B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A Ç B) è 2ø 2 2
2 1 Since X and Y are independent events
Þ = P ( A ) + P ( B) -
3 6 ÞX+Y=3
Þ X = 0, Y = 3; X = 1, Y = 2; X = 2, Y = 1; X
2 1 5 = 0, Y = 3
Þ P ( A ) + P ( B) = + =
3 6 6
\ P (X + Y = 3)
1 5 5 7 5 7
Þ P( A) + = æ1ö
6P ( A ) 6
[from (i)] = C0 ç ÷ . 7 C3 æç 1 ö÷ + 5C1 æç 1 ö÷ 7C æç 1 ö÷
5
è2ø è2ø è2ø 2è 2 ø
Þ 6 [P(A)]2 – 5P (A) + 1 = 0
5 7 5 7
Þ (2P (A) – 1) (3P (A) – 1) = 0 æ1ö æ1ö æ1ö æ1ö
+ 5 C2 ç ÷ 7
C1 ç ÷ + 5C3 ç ÷ 7
C0 ç ÷
è2ø è2ø è2ø è2ø
1 1
Þ P(A) = , 55
2 3 = = 0.05
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2. Mock Test - 2 MT-11–22

3. Mock Test - 3 MT-23–36

4. Mock Test - 4 MT-37–48

5. Mock Test - 5 MT-49–60

6. Mock Test - 6 MT-61–72

7. Mock Test - 7 MT-73–82

8. Mock Test - 8 MT-83–94

9. Mock Test - 9 MT-95–106

10. Mock Test - 10 MT-107–118

Mock Test Solutions (1-10) MT-119-244

3 7. A certain amount of gas is taken through a cyclic

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48. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data Cl

(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) (4, 3, –3) (4) (4, –3, 9)

where k is a constant of integration, then value of

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15. Velocity–time graph for a body of mass 10 kg is v

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46. Choose the incorrect option –

73. Let P = (–1, 0), Q = (0, 0) and R = (3, 3 3 ) be (1) x 2 y - xy 2 = c

79. The value of 84. The value of the definite integral,

3. What is the maximum value of the force F such 1 1

(1) 20 N (2) 10 N (3) 12 N (4) 15 N

7. The fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire (1) I is increasing and Q is increasing

E = 20 V 16. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2

17. A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing SHM

25. If the ratio of the concentration of electrons to

æ A(T2 - T1 ) K ö by I = ( e1000V T - 1) mA, where the applied

B. BrF2+ 2. Pyramidal Anhydrous

because The cation present in (M) is –

OK 45. The basic character of the transition metal

(3) (1) (2)

Section - B 55. Find the pH of a 2 litre solution which is 0.1 M

71. The locus of the centres of the circles which cut

n(n + 1)2 (3) 3a 2 + 10 ab + 3b 2 = 0

(1) P and R (2) P and Q mg mg

33. Compound A is formed by the interaction of (3) 2 FeSO 4 + H 2SO 4 + H 2 O 2 ®

66. The number of solutions of the equation

(2) f (x + y) = f(x) + f(y) n + m +1 n + m +2

76. The value of 8xyz

85. If the system of linear equations :

r0 r æ 5 r ö 4pr0 r æ 5 r ö 6. In a cubical vessel are enclosed n molecules of a

9. A particle of mass m1 collides head-on with (1) m0

Section - B 25. In the figure battery B supplies 12 V. Take C1 = 1

en en (1) 2NO2 ® N2O4

Cl Cl (4) 2NO2 + H2O ® HNO3 + HNO2

Cl (3) MnO2, MnO2+ and Mn3+

III IV 42. An organic compound ‘X’ on ozonolysis

Cº N 54. To find the standard potential of M 3+/M

= log | tan -1 f (x) | + C, then

68. f(x) = x2 [x] (1) positive (2) negative

é p 2p ù passing thr ough æ p ö is given by

a a2 1+ a3 82. If the function f ( x ) = Pe 2 x + Qe x + Rx satisfies

1. A 1 kg block attached to a spring vibrates with a j

charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net

3. If a bar magnet of magnetic moment 80 units be 1

(3) Hollow sphere v

9. A 2V battery is connected across AB as 11. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B a wire

14. The x-t graph of a particle undergoing simple

0 t(s) (1) P (2) P