Aplus Pastpapers 2023

PAST-PAPERS
2023
Eng. Zimba M. W
(MPhi-S.BEng Chemical)
FOUNDATION MATHEMATICS TEST 1
21st JUNE 2023
COURSE CODE: MAP 101
Duration: 2Hrs Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Six (6) and marks are based on each question.
2. Answer all Questions and clearly show your working.
3. Credit will be given for orderly, logical presentation of work.
4. This test is set to assess the Partial Fractions and Matrices Covered.
5. No Communication or cheating is ALLOWED.
6. CALCULATORS ARE NOT ALLOWED
DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
Page 2
1. Decompose the following into partial fractions;
x2 −x−14 2x2 +x−12 8x2 +15x+12
(a) x2 −2x−3
(b) x3 +5x2 +6x
(c) (x2 +4)(3x−4)
2. Prove by decomposition that

9x2 +5x−3 2 1 3 x 1 3
(a) (x+1)2 (x−2)
= x+1 + (x+1)2 + x−2 (b) (x−3)2
= x−3 + (x−3)2
   
2 3 −1 2 1 −1
3. Given that A = −2 2 0  and B = 1 2 0  Determine;
1 −3 1 1 −1 2
(a) (A−B)T (b) AB (c) A−1 (d)Show B is not a SingularMatrix
 
x x 1
4. Solve the singular matrix  1 −x 0 
−2 0 −x
5. Aplus solution centre has three payment(a, b, c) modes for students
tuition fees depending on the number of courses modelled as below.
a + 3b + 2c = 14
2a + b + c = 7
3a + 2b − c = 7
Advise aplus on the best payment mode by solving the systems and
justify your answer.
6. Solve the below system of equations using Cramers Rule.
x−y−z =1
−3x + 4y + 2z = −8
2x + y − 4z = −10
End Of Test
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FOUNDATION MATHEMATICS TEST - 2
13th JULY 2023
LOGARITHMS, EXPONENTIALS AND TRIGONOMETRY
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Ten (10) questions and marks are based on
each question.
2. Answer All Questions and clearly show your working.
4. This test is set to assess the Trig. and Logs Covered.
5. NO COMMUNICATION OR CHEATING IS ALLOWED.
Page 12
1. Convert the following angles to radians; [4 Marks]
(a) 120o (b) 240o (c) −300o (d) 180o
2. Convert the following angles degrees; [4 Marks]
2π
(a) 3 (b) − 4π
5 (c) π
3 (d) − 6π
5 (e) 5
2π
1
3. Find all the trigonometric ratios given that cos θ = 2 and θ is obtuse.
[8 Marks]
4. Use special angles to evaluate the following. [10 Marks]
(a) cos −150o (b) cot 240o (c) sin 120o (d) cos 1260o (e) cot 1110o
5. Determine the Amplitude, Phase shift and Period . Also sketch the
graph in the interval 0o ≤ θ ≤ 360o . [10 Marks]
f (x) = 21 sin(2x − π2 )
6. Solve the following equations for the interval 0o ≤ θ ≤ 360o . [8

Marks]
√
(a) 2 sin2 x − 3 sin x = 0 (b) cos2 θ + 2 cos θ + 1 = 0
7. Prove the following identities; [10 Marks]
(a) 1−cos x
sin x ≡
sin x
cos x+1 (b) cot θ + tan θ ≡ sec θ. csc θ
8. Proved that 1 + log2 (0.5x) = log2 x [4 Marks]
9. solve the following exponential equations: [20 Marks]
(a) 42x − 10(4x ) + 16 = 0 (b) ex + 12e−x − 7 = 0
(c) log2 (x − 2) − log2 (x + 3) = 1 (d) 3x+4 = 729
10. Solve the simultaneous equations [10 Marks]
(a) log(x + y) = 0; and 2 log x = log(y + 1)
(b) 2 log y = log 2 + log x and 2y = 4x
End Of Test
Page 13
MATHEMATICS TEST 1
Date: 7th FEBRUARY 2023 2Hrs Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Six (6) questions and marks are based on
each question.
2. Answer ONLY FOUR (4) Questions.
3. The test is set to assess the work covered on MATRICES, BI-
NOMIAL AND LOGARITHMS therefore do your best.
Page 14
1. Expand the following.
a) (2x − 3)4 (b) (1 + 2x)4 (c) (−3x + 1)3 (d) (1 − x)7
2. Find the Fourth term in the following expansions.
a) (a + 2)5 (b) (1 − x)6 (c) (2x − 1)5 (d) (a + 2c)6
3. Determine the approximate values by using binomial expansion.
√
a) (0.95)3 (b) 1.5 (c) (1.02)5
4. Find the independent terms in the following expansions.
3 6
a) (x − x2 ) (b) ( x2 + 1 6
x2 )
5. Solve the below system of equations using Cramers Rule and
find its Co-factor.
x−y−z =1
−3x + 4y + 2z = −8
2x + y − 4z = −10
6. Solve the following

(a) log5 x + 6 logx 5 = 5
(b) log2 (x − 2) − log2 (x − 3) = 1
(c) 3x+4 = 729
(d) e4x − 6e2x + 8 = 0
(e) ex + 12e−x − 7 = 0
End Of TEST
Page 15
APLUS SOLUTION CENTRE
MATHEMATICS REVISION
10th June 2021
Page 16
1. Factorise the following;
a) 3x3 + 27x (b) x2 − 5x + 6 (c) 9x2 − 25y 2 (d)2x2 + 7x − 15
2. Simplify the following:
a) x6 ÷ x−2 (b) 2x4.5 ÷ 4x−0.025 (c) x1/2 x x3/2 (d)(x1/27 )3/2
3. Factorise completely:
a) 3x2 − x (b) x3 + xy + xy 2 (c) 8xy 2 + 10x2 y (d) x3 y 2 − x2 y 3
4. By method of completing the square, sketch the following graphs
and show all intercepts if any.
a) 2x2 − 5x + 6 (b) −3y 2 + 2y + 3 (c) f (x) = 15 − 6x − 2x2
5. Solve the following inequalities;
x−5 x+2 1 2x 4
i) x+3 ≤ x−4 (ii) x >x (iii) x+3 > x (iv) x3 + x ≤ 2x
6. Expand the following using the theorem. expansion.
a) (x + 2)4 (b) (3x + 1)6 (c) (3 + 4x)1/2 (d) (1 + 2x)−3
dy
7. Using the first principle to find dx .
√ 2x
a) f (x) = x b) f (x) = x2 + 5x − 3 c) f (x) = 3
dy
8. Find dx ;
2
−6
a) y = (2x − x2 )3 (b) y = 3x.ex (c) y = 3x. sin x − 5 cos x
End
Page 17
MATHEMATICS OPEN BOOK TEST 1
Due: 1st NOVEMBER 2022 Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Seven (7) and questions to be answered in
pairs.
2. Answer ALL Questions and clearly show your working.
1. Find all the trigonometric functions given that sin θ = − 35 is a
reflex angle.
2. Use special angles to evaluate the following angles.
(a) cos 150o (b) sin 240o (c) tan −120o (d) sin 300o
3. Sketch by stating the Amplitude, Phase shift and Period in the
interval 0o ≤ θ ≤ 360o ;
a) y = −2 sin(2x − π2 ) b) y = 21 cos(3x + π2 )
4. Solve the following equations for the interval 0o ≤ θ ≤ 360o .
√
(a) 2 sin2 x + 3 sin x = 0 (b) cos2 θ + 3 cos θ + 2 = cos θ + 1
5. Prove the following identities;
1−cos x sin x
(a) sin x ≡ cos x+1 (b) cot θ + tan θ ≡ sec θ.cosecθ
dy
6. Using the first principle to find dx .
√
a) f (x) = x − 2 b) f (x) = x2 + 5x − 3 c) f (x) = cos(x)
dy
7. Find dx ;
2
−6
a) y = (2x−x2 )(1+3x) (b) y = 3x.ex (c) y = 3x. sin x−
5 cos x
x
d) y = 2x2 . sin(3x + 5) (e) y = −4x. sin(3x2 ) (f) y = x2 +1
End Of Test & Happy New Month Nov. 2022
Page 18
MATHEMATICS TEST 1
JANUARY INTAKE
COURSE CODE: MTM 102
Date: 2rd FEBRUARY 2023 Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Two (02) questions and marks are based
on each question.
2. Answer ALL) Questions and clearly explain your answers with
examples where possible.
3. Submit your solutions during by 12Hrs on whatsap or email. chem-
istry class.
4. Late submission of answer scripts WON’T BE ALLOWED
OR MARKED.
5. The test is set to assess the work covered on LIMITS
therefore do further research.
Page 19
1. Evaluate the following limits.
√ 2 2
√ √
(a) lim x+1−2
x2 −9 (b) lim −x +9 x −25
3−x (c) lim x2 −4x−5 (d) lim x+2− 2−x
x
x→3 x→2 x→0 x→0
2. Evaluate the following limits.
√ 2 2
√ √
x+3−2 −4 x+3− 3−x
(a) lim x2 −1 (b) lim x5−x
+5
(c) lim x2x−5x+6 (d) lim x
x→1 x→3 x→2 x→0
End
Page 20
APLUS SOLUTION CENTRE
29th March 2021
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Ten (10) and 10 marks for each .
2. Answer ONLY Eight (8) Questions and clearly show your
working.
1. Submit scanned copy of your answers within 15Minutes after the
test to eng.webby@gmail.com/Whatsap. 0973-318289
4. Communication without permission is Not Allowed.
Information for Aplus Students
1. The test is set to assess what has been covered.
2. Kindly ensure to put in your very best.
Page 21
a) x2 + 4x (b) x2 + 11x + 24 (c) 9x2 − 25y 2 (d)2x2 + 7x − 15
a) x4 ÷ x−3 (b) 2x1.5 ÷ 4x−0.025 (c) x1/2 x x3/2 (d)(x3 )2/3
a) 3x2 + 4x (b) x2 + xy + xy 2 (c) 8xy 2 + 10x2 y (d) x3 y 2 − x2 y 3
4. By method of completing the square, sketch the following graphs
and show all intercepts if any.
a) x2 − 5x + 6 (b) −y 2 + 2y + 3 (c) f (x) = 15 − 6x − 2x2
5. Ms. Chembe N. has a developed a motivation programme for study
connect students called TOGETHER, EACH CAN ACHIEVE MORE
(TEAM) given by the function f (x) = −2x2 − 3x + 5.
a) Express f(x) in form of −a(x + b)2 + c, also state the values of
a, b and c. Hence solve f(x) = 0 and comment on your results
if the programme is effective.
b) Sketch the graph of f (x) and show all the intercepts if any.
6. Given that α + β = 6 and αβ = −1, find the values of:
(i) α3 β + β 3 α+1 (ii) αβ + αβ (iii) α2 + β 2 − 5αβ (iv) (α − β)2 − 6
7. Given that the roots of 3x + 4 = 5x2 are α and β. Find the
equations whose roots are:
(i) α21+1 and β 21+1 (ii) α1 and β1
8. Find the value of K of each quadratic equation subject to given
conditions.
a) (x + k)2 = 2 − 3k, has equal roots.
b) (2k + 2)x2 + (4 − 4k)x + k − 2 = 0, Roots are reciprocals of
each other.
x+5 x−2 1 x 4
i) x−3 ≤ x+4 (ii) x >x (iii) x+3 < x (iv) x4 + 1 ≤ 2
10. Expand the following using the theorem. Part (b) and (c) find the
first three (3) terms in the expansion.
a) (x − 3)4 (b) (2x + 1)5 (c) (1 + 4x)1/2 (d) (1 − 2x)−5
Page 22
End
Page 23
MATHEMATICS OPEN BOOK QUIZ 1
Due: 29th DECEMBER 2022 Marks: 100
Instructions:
each question.
2. Answer ONLY Four (4) Questions that Includes Compulsory
Question Six (6) on Matrices.
3. Send your working for marking to 0950-665899 or eng.webby@gmail.com
by 10:00Hrs.
4. Late submission of answer scripts WON’T BE ALLOWED OR
MARKED.
5. The test is set to assess the work covered on TRIGONOMETRY
AND MATRICES therefore do further research.
Page 24
1. Find all the trigonometric functions given that sin θ = − 35 is a
reflex angle.
2. Use special angles to evaluate the following angles.
(a) cos 150o (b) sin 240o (c) tan −120o (d) sin 300o
3. Sketch by stating the Amplitude, Phase shift and Period in the
interval 0o ≤ θ ≤ 360o ;
a) y = −2 sin(2x − π2 )
4. Solve the following equations for the interval 0o ≤ θ ≤ 360o .
√
(a) 2 sin2 x + 3 sin x = 0
5. Prove the following identities;
1−cos x sin x
(a) sin x ≡ cos x+1 (b) cot θ + tan θ ≡ sec θ.cosecθ
6. Solve the below system of equations using Cramers Rule and
find its inverse.
x−y−z =1
−3x + 4y + 2z = −8
2x + y − 4z = −10
End Of QUIZ & Compliments of the season
Page 25
28th June 2023

Student: Ms. Billy D.
Duration: 1:30Minutes Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Five (5) questions.
2. Answer All Questions and clearly show your working.
4. Communication without permission is Not Allowed.
Information for Aplus Students
1. The test is set to assess what has been covered.
2. Kindly ensure to put in your very best.
Page 26
Quadratics, Co-ordinate Geometry, Circle & Rational
functions
1. Dr. Denise B. has developed a motivation programme for aplus
students called TOGETHER, EACH CAN ACHIEVE MORE (TEAM)
given by the function f (x) = −2x2 − 3x + 5.
2. Find the centre and radius of the following circles.
(i) 2x2 + 4x + 2y 2 − 3y − 5 = 0 (ii) x2 + x + y 2 = 7y − 9
3. Find the equation of the normal and tangent to the curve;
f (x) = −2x2 − 3x + 5 at a point (-1,2) and gradient 3.
4. Find equations of the lines below.
i) A(0,1) & B(-2,3) (ii)A(-5,1) & M = -1 (iii) A(3,-1) and
B(-2,2)
5. State the domain, Range, Vertical and Horizontal asymtotes.Also
sketch the graphs.
x−2 3x−1 2x−5
i) f (x) = x+1 (ii) f (x) = x−3 (iii) f (x) = (x+1)(x+4)
End
Page 27
MATHEMATICS OPEN BOOK QUIZ 1 - Physical Students
Date: 2sd FEBRUARY 2023 Marks: 100
Instructions:
each question.
2. Answer ALL Questions.
3. submit during class or Send your working for marking to 0950-
665899 or eng.webby@gmail.com by Tomorrow 12:00Hrs.
MARKED.
5. The test is set to assess the work covered on BINOMIAL EX-
PANSIONS therefore do further research.
Page 28
1. Use the Pascal Triangle to expand the following.
a) (x − 2)5 (b) (1 + 2x)6 (c) (−x + 3)3 (d) (1 + x)7
2. Use the Binomial theorem to expand the following.
a) (x − 4)4 (b) (1 + 2x)5 (c) (−x + 1)4 (d) (1 + x)8
3. Find the THIRD term in the following expansions.
a) (2x − 1)6 (b) (1 − 2x)6 (c) (x + 3)5 (d) (1 + 2x)7
4. Find the middle term in the following expansions.
a) (2x + 1)4 (b) (1 − 2x)6 (c) (x − 3)2 (d) (a + b)6
5. Determine the approximate values by using binomial expansion.
√
a) (1.02)5 (b) (1.1)4 (c) (0.8)3 (d) 1.5
6. Find the independent terms in the following expansions.
3 6
a) (x − x2 ) (b) ( x2 + 1 6
x2 ) (c) (2x2 − 1 5
x3 )
End Of QUIZ
Page 29
OPEN BOOK MATHEMATICS Test 1
5th January 2023
Student: Mr. Moses Nkosi Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Twelve (12) questions and marks are based
on each question.
2. Answer ONLY Ten (10) Questions.
3. Send your working for marking to 0950-665899 or eng.webby@gmail.com
by 16:00Hrs.
MARKED.
5. The test is set to assess the work covered on SET THEORY,
QUADRATICS AND POLYNOMIALS therefore do further
research.
Page 30
1. Let the universal set U and the sets A, B and C be given by:
U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15} ϵ R

A = {x : 2x +15 = 11 + 3x}
B = {x : x ≥ 10, x ϵ U }
C = {1, 3, 12, 14, 15}
(a) List the elements of A and B.
(b) Find
(i) Ac (ii) Ac ∩ B c (iii) (A – B) U (A – C) (iv) B c ∪
(A ∩ C)c
(c) illustrate the sets U, A, B and C on the venn diagram.
2. Simplify the follow by using set sets Laws:
′ ′ ′
(i) (A − B) − (A ∩ B) (ii) [A ∩ (A ∪ B) ] (iii) A − (A − B)
a) 4x2 − 4x (b) x2 − 6x + 5 (c) 81x2 − 9y 2 (d)2x2 + 7x − 15
a) x5 ÷ x−6 (b) 3x6 ÷ 4x2 (c) x−2 x x3
a) 3x2 +4x (b) x2 y +xy +xy 2 (c) 8xy 2 +10x2 y (d) x3 y 2 −x2 y 3
6. Mr. Moses Nkosi has a developed a study plan given by the func-
tion f (x) = −x2 + 3x + 2.
7. Given that α + β = −1 and αβ = −3, find the values of:
(i) α2 + β 2 -3 (ii) αβ + αβ (iii) α2 + β 2 + 4αβ (iv) (α − β)2 − 6
8. Given that the roots of 2x − 1 = 5x2 are α and β. Find the
equations whose roots are:
(i) α1 and β1
9. Expand the following.
a) (2x − 4)3 (b) (2x + 4)2 (c) (1 + 4x)3
10. Solve and sketch f (x) = 2x3 + 9x2 − 6x − 5.
Page 31
11. Find the value of M if (x − 2) is a factor of f (x) = x3 + x2 − M x − 2
and hence or otherwise sketch.
End
Page 32
MATHEMATICS TEST 1
21st March 2023
Student: Madam. Mercy Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Seven (07) questions and marks are based
on each question.
2. Answer ONLY ALL Questions in 1:30 Minutes.
3. The test is set to assess the work covered on SET THEORY
therefore do your best.
Page 33
1. Let the universal set U and the sets A, B and C be given by:
U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15} ϵ R

A = {x : 2x +15 = 11 + 3x}
B = {x : x ≥ 10, x ϵ U }
C = {1, 3, 12, 14, 15}
(a) List the elements of A and B.
(b) Find
(i) Ac (ii) Ac ∩ B c (iii) (A – B) U (A – C) (iv) B c ∪
(A ∩ C)c
(c) illustrate the sets U, A, B and C on the venn diagram.
2. Given that A = {1, 2, 3,4} and B = {a, b, c}. Find
a) A X B (b) B X (A X A)
3. Simplify the follow by using set sets Laws:
′ ′ ′
(i) (A − B) − (A ∩ B) (ii) [A ∩ (A ∪ B) ] (iii) A − (A − B)
4. Let R be the universal set, A =[0,7] B = (-5,5] and C = [5, 10).
Represent the following sets on the real number line.
′ ′
(i) A ∩ B (ii) A − B (iii) C − (A − B)
√
5. Prove that 2 is a Irrational number.
6. Express the following as rational numbers;
6(1.20)
(i) 3.407 (ii) 1.5 (iii) 02.5
End
Page 34
MATHEMATICS TEST 2
Date: 2sd May 2023 Marks: 100
Student: Dr. Kabelo
Instructions:
1. The Test is set to assess what has been covered on Roots of
quadratics, Inequalities and polynomials therefore ensure to
put in your very best.
2. Duration 1:30Minutes
Ans. all Questions

1. Find the sum and product. Also state the nature of the roots.
−x2 − 5x + 10 = 0 (ii) x2 − 4x + 4 = 0 (iii) x2 + 3x − 3 = 0
2. Given that −2x2 − 5x + 1 = 0 has roots α and β. Find the values
of;
α β
(i) α3 + β 3 (ii) β + α (iii) α2 + β 2 (iv) (α − β)2
3. Find the roots of each quadratic equation subject to given condi-
tions.
a) (x + k)2 = 2 − 3k, has equal roots.
b) (2k + 2)x2 + (4 − 4k)x + k − 2 = 0, Roots are reciprocals of
each other.
i) x2 − 5x + 6 ≤ 0 (ii) x2 − 4x + 4 > 0
Page 35
5. Prove using long division and synthetic method that x − 2 is
a factor of f (x) = 6x3 − 19x2 + 16x − 4
End
Page 36
CHEMISTRY TEST 1
23rd JUNE 2023
Duration: 2 Hrs Marks: 100
Instructions:
each question.
2. Question (08) and (10) are COMPULSORY therefore choose
any other four (4) questions.
4. The test is set to assess the work covered on CHEMICAL BOND-
ING therefore do your best.
5. NO COMMUNICATION OR CHEATING IS ALLOWED
6. CALCULATORS ARE ALLOWED
Page 37
1. Define the following terms:
(i) Chemical bonding (ii) Bond Energy (iii) Lattice Energy
(iv) Hybridization
2. Explain the three (3) types of chemical bonding and give an ex-
ample each.
3. State which compound requires more lattice energy to break.
(a) K2 O or NaF (b) CaF2 or HF (c) KCl or BaS
4. For each of the following draw ONLY five (5) lewis structures.
Also state the electron, molecular geometry and bond angle.
(i) CH2 O (ii) N H4+ (iii) P Cl5 (iv) SF6 (v) H2 O
(vi) N O2−
(vii) N H3 (viii) CO2
5. Draw the resonance structure for the molecules OCN− and CO2
assigning the formal charges and which structure is more stable
and reactive.
6. Determine the Energy ∆H in CH3 N ≡ C(g)⇌ CH3 C ≡ N(g) given
the following Bond Energies (KJ/Mol).
C-H 413
C-N 305
C-C 347
C≡N 891
7. Determine the ionic character of HF2 if the obtained dipole mo-
ment was is 6.5D and bond length 2.5nm.
8. State the number of pi, sigma bonds and type of hybridization at
indicated atoms in the following compounds:
Page 38
9. Describe all the steps involved in the formation of a solid compound
XY using Born Haber cycle.
10. Draw dipole arrows and state if the compound is polar or non -
polar.
Page 39
End
Page 40
Useful Tables
1
1
Periodic Table of the Elements 2
18
H He
Hydrogen Helium
1.008 2 13 14 15 16 17 4.003
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
Lithium Beryllium Boron Carbon Nitrogen Oxygen Fluorine Neon
6.941 9.012 10.811 12.011 14.007 15.999 18.998 20.180
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
Sodium Magnesium Aluminum Silicon Phosphorus Sulfur Chlorine Argon
22.990 24.305 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 26.982 28.086 30.974 32.066 35.453 39.948
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
Potassium Calcium Scandium Titanium Vanadium Chromium Manganese Iron Cobalt Nickel Copper Zinc Gallium Germanium Arsenic Selenium Bromine Krypton
39.098 40.078 44.956 47.88 50.942 51.996 54.938 55.933 58.933 58.693 63.546 65.39 69.732 72.61 74.922 78.09 79.904 84.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
Rubidium Strontium Yttrium Zirconium Niobium Molibdenum Technetium Ruthenium Rhodium Palladium Silver Cadmium Indium Tin Antimony Tellurium Iodine Xenon
84.468 87.62 88.906 91.224 92.906 95.94 98.907 101.07 102.906 106.42 107.868 112.411 114.818 118.71 121.760 127.6 126.904 131.29
55 56 57-71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
Cesium Barium Lanthanides Hafnium Tantalum Tungsten Rhenium Osmium Iridium Platinum Gold Mercury Thallium Lead Bismuth Polonium Astatine Radon
132.905 137.327 178.49 180.948 183.85 186.207 190.23 192.22 195.08 196.967 200.59 204.383 207.2 208.980 [208.982] 209.987 222.018
87 88 89-103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Uut Fl Uup Lv Uus Uuo
Francium Radium Actinides Rutherfordium Dubnium Seaborgium Bohrium Hassium Meitnerium Darmstadtium Roentgenium Copernicium Ununtrium Flerovium Ununpentium Livermorium Ununseptium Ununoctium
223.020 226.025 [261] [262] [266] [264] [269] [268] [269] [272] [277] unknown [289] unknown [298] unknown unknown
57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
Lanthanum Cerium Praseodymium Neodymium Promethium Samarium Europium Gadolinium Terbium Dysprosium Holmium Erbium Thulium Ytterbium Lutetium
138.906 140.115 140.908 144.24 144.913 150.36 151.966 157.25 158.925 162.50 164.930 167.26 168.934 173.04 174.967
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
Actinium Thorium Protactinium Uranium Neptunium Plutonium Americium Curium Berkelium Californium Einsteinium Fermium Mendelevium Nobelium Lawrencium
227.028 232.038 231.036 238.029 237.048 244.064 243.061 247.070 247.070 251.080 [254] 257.095 258.1 259.101 [262]
©2014
Todd Helmenstine
sciencenotes.org
Page 41
Page 42
Page 43
Page 44
Page 45
Page 46
Page 47
CHEMISTRY TEST 1
COURSE CODE: CHM 101
Date: 7th FEBRUARY 2023 Marks: 100
Instructions:
each question.
2. Answer ONLY (7) Questions in 2Hrs and clearly explain your
answers with examples where possible.
3. The test is set to assess the work covered on Chemical Bonding
and Chemical Equilibrium therefore do further research.
Page 48
1. Define the following terms.
i) Chemical Equilibrium (ii) Chemical kinetics (iii)Chemical
Bonding
(iv) Le’chatelier’s Principle (v) Electronegativity (vi) Bond
Energy
2. Determine whether the following reactions are homogeneous or het-
erogeneous, and write equilibrium equation for these reactions:
i) CO2 (g) + C(s) ⇌ 2CO(g)
ii) Hg(l) + Hg2+ (aq) ⇌ Hg2+
2 (aq)
iii) 2Fe(s) + 3H2 O (g) ⇌ Fe2 O3 (s) + 3H2 (g)
3. The equilibrium concentrations for the reaction between carbon

monoxide and molecular chlorine to form COCl2 (g) at 74o C are
[CO] = 0.012M, [Cl2 ] = 0.054M, and [COCl2 ] = 0.14M. Calculate
the equilibrium constants Kc and Kp.
CO(g) + Cl2 (g) ⇌ COCl2 (g)
4. State the factors that can affect the rate of a reaction.

5. Explain the difference between the three (3) types of chemical
bonds with example for each.
6. For each of the following draw a lewis structure;
(i) C2 H2 (ii) N H4+ (iii) O3 (iv) N O2− (v) H2 O
7. Draw the resonance structure for the Chloric acid molecule HClO3
and OCN− assigning the formal charges to each atom in the for-
mula. Also state the most stable and reactive structures.
8. Determine the Energy ∆H in the reaction below:
2C2 H6 + 7O2 ⇌ 4CO2 + 6H2 O
Given the following Bond Energies (KJ/Mol).
C-H 413
H-O 463
C-C 348
O-O 495
C=O 799
9. Determine the Ionic character of HF2 if the observed dipole mo-
ment is 8.5D and bond length 3.5nm.
Page 49
10. Predict the shape by using the Molecule geometry, Electron geom-
etry and Bond angle of the following compounds.
(i) O3 (ii) N H4+ (iii) P Cl5 (iv) CO2 (v) H2 O
End
Page 50
Useful Tables
1
1
18
H He
Hydrogen Helium
1.008 2 13 14 15 16 17 4.003
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012 10.811 12.011 14.007 15.999 18.998 20.180
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
22.990 24.305 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 26.982 28.086 30.974 32.066 35.453 39.948
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
39.098 40.078 44.956 47.88 50.942 51.996 54.938 55.933 58.933 58.693 63.546 65.39 69.732 72.61 74.922 78.09 79.904 84.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
84.468 87.62 88.906 91.224 92.906 95.94 98.907 101.07 102.906 106.42 107.868 112.411 114.818 118.71 121.760 127.6 126.904 131.29
55 56 57-71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
132.905 137.327 178.49 180.948 183.85 186.207 190.23 192.22 195.08 196.967 200.59 204.383 207.2 208.980 [208.982] 209.987 222.018
87 88 89-103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
138.906 140.115 140.908 144.24 144.913 150.36 151.966 157.25 158.925 162.50 164.930 167.26 168.934 173.04 174.967
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
227.028 232.038 231.036 238.029 237.048 244.064 243.061 247.070 247.070 251.080 [254] 257.095 258.1 259.101 [262]
©2014
Todd Helmenstine
sciencenotes.org
End
Page 51
CHEMISTRY OPEN BOOK TEST 1
Date: 29th DECEMBER 2021 Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Eleven (11) questions and marks are based
on each question.
2. Answer ALL Questions and clearly explain your answers with
3. Send your Scanned/captured working for marking to 0950-665899
or eng.webby@gmail.com by 17:15Hrs.
MARKED.
ING therefore do further research.
Page 52
(i) Bonding (ii) Electronegativity (iii) Lattice Energy (iv) Bond
Energy
3. State the type of bond that exist in the following compounds.
(i) N a2 SO4 (ii) H2 O (iii) HF2 (iv) N H3
5. Explain the following;
(a) Resonance Structures
(b) What do the letters VSEPR stand for?
(c) Describe the main features of the VSEPR theory
2C2 H6 + 7O2 ⇌ 4CO2 + 6H2 O
C-H 413
H-O 463
C-C 348
O-O 495
C=O 799
Page 53
9. State the number of pie, sigma bonds,Steric number and type of
hybridization at indicated carbon numbers in the following com-
pounds:
10. Draw and State the steric number, pie and sigma bonds in the
following structures.
i) C2 H6 (ii) C4 H8 (iii) C2 H2 (iv) C2 H5 OH
End
Page 54
Useful Tables
1
1
18
H He
Hydrogen Helium
1.008 2 13 14 15 16 17 4.003
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012 10.811 12.011 14.007 15.999 18.998 20.180
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
22.990 24.305 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 26.982 28.086 30.974 32.066 35.453 39.948
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
39.098 40.078 44.956 47.88 50.942 51.996 54.938 55.933 58.933 58.693 63.546 65.39 69.732 72.61 74.922 78.09 79.904 84.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
84.468 87.62 88.906 91.224 92.906 95.94 98.907 101.07 102.906 106.42 107.868 112.411 114.818 118.71 121.760 127.6 126.904 131.29
55 56 57-71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
132.905 137.327 178.49 180.948 183.85 186.207 190.23 192.22 195.08 196.967 200.59 204.383 207.2 208.980 [208.982] 209.987 222.018
87 88 89-103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
138.906 140.115 140.908 144.24 144.913 150.36 151.966 157.25 158.925 162.50 164.930 167.26 168.934 173.04 174.967
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
227.028 232.038 231.036 238.029 237.048 244.064 243.061 247.070 247.070 251.080 [254] 257.095 258.1 259.101 [262]
©2014
Todd Helmenstine
sciencenotes.org
Page 55
1 18
1 2
1 H He
2.1 2 13 14 15 16 17 --
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2 Li Be B C N O F Ne
1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 --
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
3 Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
0.9 1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 1.5 1.8 2.1 2.5 3.0 --
CHEMISTRY: A Study of Matter

19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
4 K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
0.8 1.0 1.3 1.5 1.6 1.6 1.5 1.8 1.8 1.8 1.9 1.6 1.6 1.8 2.0 2.4 2.8 3.0
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
© 2004, GPB
5 Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
5.3
0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 1.9 2.2 2.2 2.2 1.9 1.7 1.7 1.8 1.9 2.1 2.5 2.6
55 56 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Page 56
*
6 Cs Ba Lu Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
0.7 0.9 1.3 1.3 1.5 1.7 1.9 2.2 2.2 2.2 2.4 1.9 1.8 1.8 1.9 2.0 2.2 2.4
Table of Electronegativities
87 88 ** 103
7 Fr Ra Lr
0.7 0.9 --
* 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
6 La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb
1.1 1.1 1.1 1.1 1.1 1.2 1.1 1.2 1.1 1.2 1.2 1.2 1.3 1.1
** 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102
7 Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No
1.1 1.3 1.5 1.4 1.4 1.3 1.3 1.3 1.3 1.3 1.3 1.3 1.3 1.3
Molecular Geometry Chart
# of Electron Number of Electron Pair Molecular Geometry Approximate
Groups Lone Pairs Arrangement Bond Angles
2 0 linear 180o 180°
0 trigonal planar 120°

120o
1 bent <120°
3
<120o
0 tetrahedral 109.5°
109.5o
1 trigonal pyramid <109.5° (~107°)
<109.5o
4
2 bent <109.5°(~105°)
<109.5o
0 trigonal 90o
90°, 120°
bipyramidal
120o
1 see-saw <90o <90°, <120°

<120o
2 T-structure <90°
<90o
5
3 linear 180°
180o
0 octahehral 90o 90°, 90°
90o
6 1 square pyramidal 90°, <90°
90o
<90o
2 square planar 90°

90o
Page 57
CHEMISTRY QUIZ 1
ACIDS & BASE EQUILIBRIA
Date: 18th April 2023 Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Eleven (11) questions and marks are based
on each question.
2. Answer All Questions in 1:30Minutes and clearly explain your
answers with examples where possible. .
4. The test is set to assess the work covered on Acids and Bases
therefore do your best.
Page 58
1. Define an Acid and Base according to;
i) Lewis theory
ii) Arrihenius theory
iii) Bronsted - Lowry theory
2. Explain the following terms.
i) Buffer solution (ii) Solubility (iii) Conjugate acid-base pairs
(iv) PH
(v) Auto-ionazation of water
3. State whether the following statements are True or False.
i) Acids and bases come in pairs therefore every acid can lose a
proton to become a base and every base can accept a proton
to become an acid.
ii) Water can behave both as an acid and a base.
iii) Bronsted - Lowry theory has limitation in defining acids and
bases.
iv) Water is both acid and base because of Auto-ionization.
4. Calculate the PH of a solution with the following concentration:
i) 0.01M [H+ ] (ii) 0.23M [OH− ] (iii) Concentration of a solution
with POH 7.8
5. A solution of 8.5 M formic acid (HCHO2 ) is 0.63% ionized in
water. Calculate the Ka value for formic acid.
6. Calculate the volume of 0.35M NaOH required to neutralize 10mL
of 0.2M HCl.
7. Calculate the PH of a 2.3 M solution of ammonia (N H3 ). (Kb =
1.810–5 )
8. What is the pH of a buffer solution that is 0.65 M acetic acid
(HC2 H3 O2 ) and 0.95 M sodium acetate (N aC2 H3 O2 )? The Ka for
acetic acid is (Ka = 1.810–5 ).
9. A buffer solution was prepared using 0.40 M N H3 and 0.38 M
N H4 Cl and (pKa = 9.25)
(a) Determine the pH of the buffer.
(b) What is the pH after the addition of 25.0 mL of 0.040 M
NaOH to 75.0 mL of the buffer solution?
10. Find the Ksp of 3.5M of Sodium carbonate ((N a2 CO3 )
Page 59
11. Find the solubility of Calcium carbonate (CaCO3 ) with Ksp
0.65.
End
Page 60
CHEMISTRY QUIZ 2
Date: 2rd FEBRUARY 2023 Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Five (05) questions and marks are based
on each question.
2. Answer ALL) Questions and clearly explain your answers with
3. Submit your solutions during by 12Hrs on whatsap or email. chem-
istry class.
4. Late submission of answer scripts WON’T BE ALLOWED
OR MARKED.
5. The test is set to assess the work covered on SOLUBIL-
ITY AND SOLUTIONS therefore do further research.
Page 61
i) Solubility (ii)Solution (iii) Molality and Molarity
(iv) Solute (v) Saturated and Unsaturated solutions (vi) Sol-
ubility constant
2. Suppose 10g of Salt (NaCl) is dissolved into 180g of water at
30o C and vapour pressure 300 atm to make a 250mL salt solution.
Kb = 0.56o C and Kf = 0.57o C. Determine
a) Osmotic pressure (b) Vapour pressure lowering (c)Boiling
and freezing point of this solution.
3. Suppose 15g of Nitric Acid (HNO3 ) is dissolved into 200g of wa-
ter at 50o C and vapour pressure 100 atm to make a 100mL salt
solution. Kb = 0.86o C and Kf = 0.70o C. Determine
4. Find the Ksp of 3.5M of Sodium carbonate ((N a2 CO3 )
5. Find the solubility of Calcium carbonate (CaCO3 ) with Ksp
0.65.
End
Page 62
CHEMISTRY TEST 1
Date: 28th October 2022 Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Eighteen (18) questions. Also marks are
based on each question.
2. Answer Only Ten (10) Questions and clearly explain your an-
swers with examples where possible.
4. The test is set to assess the work covered on ATOMIC STRUC-
TURE, QUANTUM NUMBERS AND PERIODIC TRENDS
therefore put in your very best.
Page 63
1. State the four quantum numbers, then explain the possible values
they may have and what they actually represent.
2. State the Paulis Exclusion principle, Aufbau’s and Hund’s Rule.
3. Explain the photoelectric effect and draw the spectrum.
4. Explain the dual nature of light.
5. In an experiment, red light with a wavelength of 700 nm falls on a
metal plate in a vacuum tube to which a voltage has been applied.
At this wavelength no electrons are expelled from the plate. When
yellow light (wavelength 580 nm is used then electrons are ex-
pelled from the plate and a current detected, but no electrons are
expelled at a wavelength only very slightly longer.
a) What is this experiment called and what does it prove about
the nature of light?
(b) In the photoelectric effect, the threshold frequency of mag-
nesium metal is 6.55 Ö 101 4 s–1 . Calculate the wavelength (in
nm) of light with this frequency.
(c) Will green light (λ = 500 nm) be able to expel electrons from
Mg? And very bright green light? Explain.
(d) What is the work function (W) of Mg (in J)?
(e) Calculate KEmax (in J) and the velocity (v) of electrons ex-
pelled from Mg by blue light (450 nm)
6. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron (m = 9.109 Ö 10−31 kg)
is 2.30 Ö 10−10 m. Determine the momentum and kinetic energy of
the electron [J = 1 kg m2 s−2 . Also what happens to the de Broglie
wavelength of an electron if its momentum is doubled? Explain
7. What is the maximum number of orbitals with the following sets
of quantum numbers. Identify the orbital that they describe (e.g.,
3s). If not permissible, explain why not.
Set 1: n = 4, l = 1
Set 2: n = 2, l = 2
Set 3: n = 3, l = 2
Set 4: n = 5, l = 1, ml = -1
8. An element X has the ground state electronic configuration of
1s2 2s2 2p4 . Which group does this element belong and name the
element?
Page 64
9. How many valence electrons does an element with 18 electrons
possess?
10. Which of the quantum number or numbers do 2s and 2p orbitals
have in common and state the numbers orbitals we find in 4s and
4p?
11. How many electrons can the second energy level hold?
12. Write the electronic configuration for the following elements.
(a) Ca (b) Cu (c) K (d) Cd (e) S
13. Explain briefly on the Bohr’s Model and how atoms move in energy
levels.
14. Calculate the energy required by a proton to emit light with wave-
length 150nm.
15. In the Bohr model for the hydrogen atom, what is the wavelength
of the light produced by an electron falling from the state, n = 3,
to the ground level, n = 1?
16. From its position in the periodic table, determine which atom in
each pair is more electronegative:
(a) N or P (b) N or Ge (c) S or F (d) Cl or S (e) H or C (f) Se or
P (g) C or Si
17. From their positions in the periodic table, arrange the atoms in
each of the following series in order of increasing electronegativity:
(a) C, F, H, N, O
(b) Br, Cl, F, H, I
(c) F, H, O, P, S
(d) Al, H, Na, O, P
(e) Ba, H, N, O, As
18. From their positions in the periodic table, arrange the atoms in
each of the following series in order of increasing electronegativity:
(a) As, H, N, P, Sb
(b) Cl, H, P, S, Si
(c) Br, Cl, Ge, H, Sr
(d) Ca, H, K, N, Si
End
Page 65
CHEMISTRY TEST 1
23rd JUNE 2023
Duration: 2 Hrs Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Nine (09) questions and marks are based
on each question.
2. Question (08) and (09) are COMPULSORY therefore choose
any other four (4) questions.
ING therefore do your best.
Page 66
(i) Chemical bonding (ii) Bond Energy (iii) Lattice Energy
(iv) Hybridization
2. Explain the three (3) types of chemical bonding and give an ex-
ample each.
3. State which compound requires more lattice energy to break.
(a) K2 O or NaF (b) CaF2 or HF (c) KCl or BaS
4. For each of the following draw ONLY five (5) lewis structures.
Also state the electron, molecular geometry and bond angle.
(i) CH2 O (ii) N H4+ (iii) P Cl5 (iv) SF6 (v) H2 O
(vi) N O2−
(vii) N H3 (viii) CO2
5. Draw the resonance structure for the molecules OCN− and CO2
assigning the formal charges and which structure is more stable
and reactive.
6. Determine the Energy ∆H in CH3 N ≡ C(g)⇌ CH3 C ≡ N(g) given
the following Bond Energies (KJ/Mol).
C-H 413
C-N 305
C-C 347
C≡N 891
7. Determine the ionic character of HF2 if the obtained dipole mo-
ment was is 6.5D and bond length 2.5nm.
8. State the number of pi, sigma bonds and type of hybridization at
indicated atoms in the following compounds:
Page 67
9. Draw dipole arrows and state if the compound is polar or non -
polar.
Page 68
End
Page 69
Useful Tables
1
1
18
H He
Hydrogen Helium
1.008 2 13 14 15 16 17 4.003
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012 10.811 12.011 14.007 15.999 18.998 20.180
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
22.990 24.305 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 26.982 28.086 30.974 32.066 35.453 39.948
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
39.098 40.078 44.956 47.88 50.942 51.996 54.938 55.933 58.933 58.693 63.546 65.39 69.732 72.61 74.922 78.09 79.904 84.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
84.468 87.62 88.906 91.224 92.906 95.94 98.907 101.07 102.906 106.42 107.868 112.411 114.818 118.71 121.760 127.6 126.904 131.29
55 56 57-71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
132.905 137.327 178.49 180.948 183.85 186.207 190.23 192.22 195.08 196.967 200.59 204.383 207.2 208.980 [208.982] 209.987 222.018
87 88 89-103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
138.906 140.115 140.908 144.24 144.913 150.36 151.966 157.25 158.925 162.50 164.930 167.26 168.934 173.04 174.967
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
227.028 232.038 231.036 238.029 237.048 244.064 243.061 247.070 247.070 251.080 [254] 257.095 258.1 259.101 [262]
©2014
Todd Helmenstine
sciencenotes.org
Page 70
CHEMISTRY TEST 1
Date: 7th FEBRUARY 2023 Marks: 100
Instructions:
each question.
2. Answer ONLY (7) Questions in 2Hrs and clearly explain your
answers with examples where possible.
3. The test is set to assess the work covered on Chemical Bonding
and Chemical Equilibrium therefore do further research.
Page 71
i) Chemical Equilibrium (ii) Chemical kinetics (iii)Chemical
Bonding
(iv) Le’chatelier’s Principle (v) Solubility (vi) Bond Energy
2. Suppose 20g of Salt (NaCl) is dissolved into 200g of water at
50o C and vapour pressure 400 atm to make a 350mL salt solution.
Kb = 0.56o C and Kf = 0.57o C. Determine
3. The equilibrium concentrations for the reaction between carbon
monoxide and molecular chlorine to form COCl2 (g) at 74o C are
[CO] = 0.012M, [Cl2 ] = 0.054M, and [COCl2 ] = 0.14M. Calculate
the equilibrium constants Kc and Kp.
CO(g) + Cl2 (g) ⇌ COCl2 (g)
4. State the factors that can affect the rate of a reaction.

2C2 H6 + 7O2 ⇌ 4CO2 + 6H2 O
C-H 413
H-O 463
C-C 348
O-O 495
C=O 799
Page 72
End
Page 73
Useful Tables
1
1
18
H He
Hydrogen Helium
1.008 2 13 14 15 16 17 4.003
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012 10.811 12.011 14.007 15.999 18.998 20.180
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
22.990 24.305 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 26.982 28.086 30.974 32.066 35.453 39.948
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
39.098 40.078 44.956 47.88 50.942 51.996 54.938 55.933 58.933 58.693 63.546 65.39 69.732 72.61 74.922 78.09 79.904 84.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
84.468 87.62 88.906 91.224 92.906 95.94 98.907 101.07 102.906 106.42 107.868 112.411 114.818 118.71 121.760 127.6 126.904 131.29
55 56 57-71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
132.905 137.327 178.49 180.948 183.85 186.207 190.23 192.22 195.08 196.967 200.59 204.383 207.2 208.980 [208.982] 209.987 222.018
87 88 89-103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
138.906 140.115 140.908 144.24 144.913 150.36 151.966 157.25 158.925 162.50 164.930 167.26 168.934 173.04 174.967
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
227.028 232.038 231.036 238.029 237.048 244.064 243.061 247.070 247.070 251.080 [254] 257.095 258.1 259.101 [262]
©2014
Todd Helmenstine
sciencenotes.org
End
Page 74
PHYSICS TEST 1
27th JUNE 2023
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Eight (8) and marks are based on each
question.
2. Answer ALL Questions and clearly show your working.
4. This test is set to assess the MECHANICAL PROPERTIES
OF MATTER Covered.
5. No Communication or cheating is ALLOWED.
Page 75
1. Define the following principles and give atleast an example each.
(a) Fluid (b) Pascal’s Law (c) Reynold’s (d) Archimede’s
2. Explain the the three (3) types of fluid flow.
3. In an experiment at aplus centre, a student was found to have a
mass of 50 kg in air and an apparent mass of 38 kg when completely
submerged in the swimming pool with lungs empty. Determine;
(a) Explain why the mass reduced in relation to Archimedes’ prin-
ciple
(b) What mass of water was displaced?
(c) The student volume and density
(d) If the student lung capacity is 2.75 L, is the student able to
float without treading water with lungs filled with air?
4. A 500-cm tall glass is filled with water to a depth of 230 cm.
a) What is the gauge pressure at the bottom of the glass?
b) What is the total pressure exerted on an objected submerged
350cm in water.
5. The small piston of a hydraulic lift has an area of 0.25 m2 . A car
weighing 1.5 x 104 N sits on a rack mounted on the large piston.
The large piston has an area of 0.90 m2 . How large force must be
applied to the small piston to support the car?
6. Dr. Vennesa observed the patient to have blood pressure BP 19kpa
systolic over 10.7kpa diastolic before using HYDRALAZINE -
INJECTION syringe with a bevel(tip) radius 1mm.
a) Convert the systolic and diastolic values to Millimeter Mer-
cury(mmHg) and state your conclusion on the patient BP?
b) if the blood flow in the vein with radius 5cm is 0.6m/s. At what
rate should the medication in the syringe be administered by
the Doc?
Page 76
7. Dr. Mutale B. observed that the patients Blood flowing in an
artery with diameter 0.3cm and 85cm long experiences a blood
pressure drop of 7kpa. Use Viscosity and Density of Blood
To Determine;
a) Velocity of blood in the artery.
b) Mass and volumetric flowrate of this blood.
c) State also the type of blood flow happening.
8. A string 6mm in radius has original length 3m. The string to a
mass of 20 Kg. If the final length of the spring is 2.02 m, determine:
(a) Stress (b) Strain (c) Young’s modulus
End
Page 77
Page 78
Page 79
Page 80
Page 81
Page 82
Page 83
PHYSICS TEST 1
COURSE CODE: PHY 101
Date: 28th October 2022 Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of (11) questions and marks are based on each
question.
2. Answer only Seven (07) questions
4. The test is set to assess the work covered on Momentum, Rota-
tion Dynamics/Circular Motion and Torques therefore do
further research.
Page 84
1. Dr. Namakau throws a 0.015 kg marble sliding to the right at 22.5
cm/s on a frictionless surface makes an elastic head-on collision
with a .015 kg marble moving to the east at 18 cm/s.
(a) Find the velocities of the marble after the collision.
(b) Calculate the change in kinetic energy before and after the
collision.
2. A 5kg ball is moving in east direction with the velocity of 6m/s
and strikes a ball with mass of 3kg that is initially at rest, now
after collision a 3kg ball moves at angle of 65o with respect to the
horizontal and a 5kg ball goes 37o below the x-axis .calculate their
final speeds.
3. A 80kg stone with radius 30cm is pushed as below. Find its Linear
velocity, Angular speed and rotational kinetics when it reaches the
ground.
4. An helicopter blade has an angular speed of 7.50 rev/s and an

angular acceleration of 1.50 rev/s2 .Find the blade magnitude of
(a) the tangential speed and (b) the tangential acceleration.
5. A wheel rotates with a constant angular acceleration of 3.50rad/s2 .
If the angular speed of the wheel is 2.0 rad/s at t1 = 0.
(a) through what angle does the wheel rotate in 2.00 s?
(b) what is the angular speed at t = 2.00 s?
Page 85
6. Calculate the tension in the biceps of Dr. veronica’s hand below.
7. A floppy disc in a computer rotates from rest up to an angular

speed of 31.4 rad/s in a time of 0.892 s.
(a) What is the angular acceleration of the disc, assuming the
angular acceleration is uniform?
(b) How many rotations does the disc make while coming up to
speed?
(c) If the radius of the disc is 4.45 cm, find the final linear speed
of a microbe riding on the rim of the disc.
(d) What is the tangential acceleration of the microbe at this
time?
8. Suppose a 200.0 N mass is hanged in such a way that it makes a
0o angle with Tension (T1 ) and 30o with Tension (T2 ). Find T1
Page 86
and T2 .
if Tension (T1 ) is 80 N with an angle of 30o , find T2 and θ2 .
Page 87
9. Suppose a 15kg son and 60kg father are sitted on the see saw as
below. Calculate the distance required by the father so that it
balances.
10. A 1500kg car moving at 20m/s in a circular path with radius 2m.
Page 88
Find
(a) The centripetal force required to keep the car in the path.
(b) The coefficient of friction and angle of the car.
11. Suppose Dr. Tegere T.T with mass 65kg stands 1.5m from pivot
on a 20kg beam as the diagram below. find the tension in the cable
supporting the beam.
End
Page 89
PHYSICS OPEN BOOK QUIZ 1
Date: 30th December 2022 Marks: 100
Student: Mr. Nkosi Moses

Instructions:
each question.
2. Answer ONLY 7 Questions as your preparations for the test
next week.
3. This Quiz will assess the work covered on Measurements,Vectors,Motion
in one dimension therefore put in your very best.
DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL TOLD.
Page 90
1. State the seven (7) physical quantities and their units.
2. Convert the following;
a) 200nm → µm (b) 300 Km
h →
m
s (c) 4mm→ m
3. State the number of significant figures for below.
a) 0.03040
b) 2.507
c) 1000.
d) 0.300
4. Explain the difference between a Vector and Scalar quantity. Give
atleast three (3) examples for each.
5. Dr.Nkosi walks 3 km due east and then 2 km due north when
coming to aplus.What is his displacement vector and direction?
6. Forces are vector quantities therefore if F1 = 100N at 30o East of
North, vector F2 = 250N at 15o South of West and F3 = 200N at
65o North of West. Find the resultant force and direction. Also
indicate your answer on the diagram.
7. Mr. Nkosi travelled 200km due east then 50km at 60o North of East
when going to chipata. Find the resultant distance and direction
of this trip.
8. A plane starts from rest and accelerates uniformly along a straight
runway before takeoff. If the plane moves 1km in 10 s, then find:
(a) the acceleration (b) the speed at the end of the 10 s period,
(c) the distance moved in the first 20 s.
9. A stone is thrown straight upward and it rises to a height of 20m.
with what speed was it thrown? suppose its initial speed is 34m/s,
what is its maximum height?
10. A stone is thrown straight upward with a speed of 30m/s and
caught on its way down at a point 5.0m above where it was thrown.
(a) How fast was it going when it was caught? (b) How long did
the stone take to reach the ground.
End
Page 91
PHYSICS QUIZ 1
FORCES ,WORK, ENERGY & POWER
Instructions:
each question.
2. Answer ALL Questions in 1 Hour and clearly explain your
5. This Quiz will assess the work covered on Forces, Work, Energy
& Power therefore put in your very best.
Page 92
1. Define the following terms and state their formulas, also units.
(i) Force & Friction force (ii) Work & Energy (iii) Power
2. Explain the term force, state the types and give two (2) examples
for each.
3. State the three (3) newton laws of motion and their applications.
4. Suppose Dr. Rejoice K. pulls a 30 kg box with a rope that makes
an angle of 60o with the horizontal. If she applies a force of 220 N
and a coefficient of friction 0.3 is present, calculate the acceleration
of the box.
5. A 25kg traffic light is hanged using two strings at 45o and 60o
respectively. Explain what is meant by the term
(a) Equilibrium and State the two conditions for Static Equilib-
rium.
(b) Find the tension in the strings supporting the traffic light
above.
6. A horizontal force of 150 N is used at 60o to push a 40kg crate over
a distance of 6m on a rough horizontal surface with a coefficient
of friction 0.2. Find
(a) The work done (b) acceleration (c) velocity of the crate
End
Page 93
PHYSICS TEST 1
FORCES ,WORK, ENERGY & POWER
Instructions:
each question.
2. Answer ALL Questions in 1 Hour and clearly explain your
5. This Quiz will assess the work covered on Forces, Work, Energy
& Power therefore put in your very best.
Page 94
1. Define the following terms and state their formulas, also units.
(i) Force & Friction force (ii) Work & Energy (iii) Power
2. Explain the term force, state the types and give two (2) examples
for each.
3. State the three (3) newton laws of motion and their applications.
4. Suppose Dr. Rejoice K. pulls a 30 kg box with a rope that makes
an angle of 60o with the horizontal. If she applies a force of 220 N
and a coefficient of friction 0.3 is present, calculate the acceleration
of the box.
5. A 25kg traffic light is hanged using two strings at 45o and 60o
respectively. Explain what is meant by the term
(a) Equilibrium and State the two conditions for Static Equilib-
rium.
(b) Find the tension in the strings supporting the traffic light
above.
6. A horizontal force of 150 N is used at 60o to push a 40kg crate over
a distance of 6m on a rough horizontal surface with a coefficient
of friction 0.2. Find
(a) The work done (b) acceleration (c) velocity of the crate
End
Page 95
PHYSICS OPEN BOOK TEST 1
Date: 6th January 2023 Marks: 100
Student: Mr. Nkosi Moses

Instructions:
each question.
2. Answer ONLY 8 Questions as your preparations for the test
next week.
3. This Quiz will assess the work covered on Measurements,Vectors,Motion
in one dimension therefore put in your very best.
Page 96
1. Define Physics and State atleast four (4) applications.
Km m
a) 540nm → µm (b) 600 min → h (c) 4cm→ Km
a) 0.03040
b) 2.507
c) 1000.
d) 0.300
atleast two (2) examples for each.
5. Dr.Nkosi ran 6km due west and then 4 km due north when going
to Taxila University. Determine his displacement (Metres) and
direction?
North, vector F2 = 200N at 25o North of West and F3 = 100N at
30o South to West. Find the resultant force and direction. Also
7. Mr. Nkosi moved 100km east then 60km at 65o North of East.
Find the resultant distance and direction of this trip.
8. A Train starts from rest and accelerates uniformly. If the train
moved 3km in 40 seconds, then find:
(a) the acceleration (b) the speed at the end of the 10 s period,
(c) the distance moved in the first 20 s.
9. A stone is thrown straight upward and it rises to a height of 40m.
with what speed was it thrown? suppose its initial speed is 30m/s,
what is its maximum height?
End
Page 97
PHYSICS TEST 1
Date: 22sd December 2021 Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Ten(10) questions and marks are based on
each question.
2. Answer All Questions and clearly explain your answers with ex-
amples where possible.
4. The test is set to assess the work covered on Rotation Dynam-
ics/Circular Motion, Forces and Temperature therefore do
further research.
Page 98
1. Define force and state two (2) types of forces.
2. A horizontal force of 140N is needed to pull a 60Kg box across the
floor at a constant speed. find the acceleration.
3. A 70kg object is to be given an acceleration of 0.67m/s2 . How
large an unbalanced force must act upon it?
4. An helicopter blade has an angular speed of 7.50 rev/s and an
angular acceleration of 1.50 rev/s2 .Find the blade magnitude of
(a) the tangential speed and (b) the tangential acceleration.
5. A wheel rotates with a constant angular acceleration of 3.50rad/s2 .
If the angular speed of the wheel is 2.0 rad/s at t1 = 0.
(a) through what angle does the wheel rotate in 2.00 s?
(b) what is the angular speed at t = 2.00 s?
6. A centrifuge at aplus laboratory rotates at an angular speed of
3200 rev/min. When switched off, it rotates through 60 revolutions
before coming to rest. Find the constant angular acceleration of
the centrifuge.
7. A floppy disc in a computer rotates from rest up to an angular
speed of 31.4 rad/s in a time of 0.892 s.
(a) What is the angular acceleration of the disc, assuming the
angular acceleration is uniform?
(b) How many rotations does the disc make while coming up to
speed?
(c) If the radius of the disc is 4.45 cm, find the final linear speed
of a microbe riding on the rim of the disc.
(d) What is the tangential acceleration of the microbe at this
time?
Page 99
8. Suppose a 15kg son and 60kg father are sited on the see saw as
below. Calculate the distance required by the father so that it
balances.
9. A 1500kg car moving at 20m/s in a circular path with radius 2m.
Page 100
Find
(a) The centripetal for force required to keep the car in the path.
(b) The coefficient of friction and angle of the car.
10. Liquid nitrogen has a boiling point of 195.8o C at atmospheric pres-
sure. Express this temperature in;
(a) degrees Fahrenheit and (b) kelvins.
End
Page 101
PHYSICS TEST 1
Date: 21st March 2023 Marks: 100
Student: Madam Mercy

Instructions:
on each question.
2. Answer ALL Questions in 1:30Minutes.
3. This Test will assess the work covered on Measurements,Vectors
and Motion in one dimension therefore put in your very best.
Page 102
1. Define Physics and State the seven (7) basic units.
Km m
a) 0.03040
b) 2.507
c) 1000.
d) 0.300
atleast Three (3) examples for each.
5. Madam Mercy ran 6km due west and then 4 km due north when go-
ing to Cavendish University. Determine her displacement in (Me-
tres) and direction?
7. Derive the three (3) linear equations of motion in x axis.
8. A ball is kicked at 30o with a speed of 4m/s from a players hand
2m from the ground. Determine the timetaken and how far the
ball will fall.
End
Page 103
PHYSICS TEST 1
Date: 21st March 2023 Marks: 100
Student: Madam Mercy

Instructions:
on each question.
2. Answer ALL Questions in 1:30Minutes.
3. This Test will assess the work covered on Measurements,Vectors
and Motion in one dimension therefore put in your very best.
Page 104
1. Define Physics and State the seven (7) basic units.
Km m
a) 0.03040
b) 2.507
c) 1000.
d) 0.300
atleast Three (3) examples for each.
5. Madam Mercy ran 6km due west and then 4 km due north when go-
ing to Cavendish University. Determine her displacement in (Me-
tres) and direction?
7. Derive the three (3) linear equations of motion in x axis.
8. A ball is kicked at 30o with a speed of 4m/s from a players hand
2m from the ground. Determine the timetaken and how far the
ball will fall.
End
Page 105
PHYSICS TEST 2
2Hrs: 17th September 2020. Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Eight (8) questions and marks are based
on each question.
2. Answer ONLY Five (5) Questions and Question ONE is COM-
PULSORY
3. The test will assess the work covered on Circular motion, oscil-
lations, Waves and sound, Mechanical properties of mat-
ter.
4. No any form of communication is ALLOWED without
permission thus observe Examination Rules.
DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU TOLD.
Page 106
1. Explain the following terms:
a) Simple Harmonic Motion(SHM)
b) Wave Motion (Pulse and Periodic waves)
c) Transverse and Longitudinal Waves.
d) Superposition
e) Sound
f) Doppler effect
g) Pascal’s Law
h) Compressible and In-compressible fluid.
i) Constructive and Destructive interference.
j) Node and Anti-node
k) Stress, Strain, Young and Bulk Modulus
2. Dr.Mulenga E. rides his bicycle with the wheels rotating at an
angular speed of 350 rev/min and makes 50 revolutions before
coming to rest at aplus centre. Find the constant angular and
tangential acceleration of the bicycle.
3. A metal rod with length 5m and diameter 0.02m. When a force
of 30N is applied, its length increased to 650cm. Determine the
Stress, strain and young modulus of the metal rod.
4. A 200 g mass attached to a horizontal spring oscillates at a fre-
quency of 2.0 Hz. At t = 0 s, the mass is at x = 5.0 cm and has
vx = -30 cm/s. Determine:
(a) The period. (b) The angular frequency. (c) The amplitude.
(d) The phase constant. (e) The maximum speed. (f) The max-
imum acceleration.
(g) The total energy. (h) The position at t = 0.40 s.
5. Dr. Gwen plays a trumpet at a sound level of 75 dB. Three equally
loud trumpet players join in. What is the new sound level?
6. An ambulance moving at 45m/s emits sound frequency of 1200 Hz.
What frequency will you hear if you are at rest and car moves (a)
toward you, and (b) away from you?
7. Dr. Njeru wants to stabilize a patient with high blood pressureBP
20kpa systolic over 15kpa diastolic by using HYDRALAZINE -
INJECTION syringe with a bevel(tip) radius 0.01m.
Page 107
a) Convert the systolic and diastolic values to Millimeter Mer-
cury(mmHg) and state your conclusion on the patient BP?
b) if the blood flow in the vein with radius 0.15m is 0.03m/s. At
what rate should the medication in the syringe be adminis-
tered?
8. The small circular piston of an hydraulic lift has a diameter of
25cm. A car weighing 2.2 x 103 N sits on a rack mounted on the
large piston. The large piston has diameter of 40cm. How large
force must be applied to the small piston to support the car?
End
Page 108
BIOLOGY OPEN BOOK QUIZ 1
Student: Ms. Belina
Date: 2sd February 2023 Marks: 100
Instructions:
each question.
amples where possible. Send your working for marking to 0950-
665899 or aplusc8@gmail.com by tomorrow 10Hrs.
MARKED.
4. The test is set to assess the work covered on GENETICS there-
fore do further research.
Page 109
1. Define the following genetic terms:
a) Gene
b) Chromosome
c) Allele
d) Dominant allele
e) Recessive allele
f ) Heterozygous
g) Homozygous
h) Heredity
i) Genotype
j) Phenotype
k) Locus
L) P-generation and F2 Generation
m) Monohybrid cross
n) Dihybrid cross
o) Test cross and Back Cross
p) True Breed and Hybridization
2. Explain atleast three (3) experimental conclusion by Mendel’s and
why he choose Pisum Sativum - Pea plants for his experiments.
3. Explain the seven (7) characteristic mendel experiment covered.
4. Gene interaction brings about modification of mendelian ratios for
dihybrid ratio. State the three (3) modifications that can occur
and their ratios.
5. State Mendel’s principle of segregation and law of independent
assortment.
6. Suppose a heterozygous plant is crossed with homozygous recessive
plant and 100 offsprings produced. illustrate this cross and state
the possible genotype and phenotype number of the offspring.
End
Page 110
BIOLOGY OPEN BOOK QUIZ 1 - Mr. Nkosi Moses
COURSE CODE: BIO 101
Date: 04th January 2023 Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Three (3) Sections and marks are 20 Each.
2. Answer All Questions in Section A [MCQs] and B. Section
C Chose Only Two Questions.
4. The test is set to assess the work covered on CELL THEORY
AND BIOMOLECULES therefore do your very best.
Page 111
SECTION A - [20 Marks]
1. Cell theory was proposed by:
(a) Schleiden and Schwann (b) Watson and Crick (c) Mendel
and Morgan
(d) Robert and Hookes
2. Which of the following is the exception to the cell theory.
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi (c) Lichen (d) Virus
3. Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells differ by;
(a) Cell wall (b) Nuclear Membrane (c) Ribisome (d) None
of these
4. The cell organelles are found in which cells?
(a) Bacteria cells (b) Cyanobacterial cells (c) prokaryotic cells
(d) Eukaryotic
5. Cytosomes are found in?
(a) Chroloplast (b)Bacteria (c) Mitochondria (d) None of
these
6. The inherent capacity of cells to regenerate a new who organism
is called?
(a) Ontogenis (b) Zotipotencis (c) Phycogeous (d) Differen-
tiation
7. Which of the following is found more than 1/2 in the cell.
(a) Water (b) Mineral salts (c) Proteins (d) Carbohydrates
8. The main difference between plant and animal cell is?
(a) Animal cells lack cell wall
(b) Plant cells has no cell wall
(c) Animal cells have rigid cell walls
(d) Plant cells lack cell membrane
9. Which of the following is not a cell organelle:
(a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosome (c) Golgi complex (d) Mi-
crosome
10. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar.
(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose (c) Maltose (d) Lactose
Page 112
11. The linkage bond between two monosacharides is called .
(a) Ionic (b) Covalent (c) Hydrogen (d) Glycosidic
12. In a protein molecule, various amino acids are linked together by
which bond.
(a) Peptide (b) α - Glycosidic (c) Dative (d) β - glycosidic
13. The general formula for monosacharides is.
(a) (CH2 O)n (b) Cx (H2 O)y (c) Cn H2 On (d) Both A and B
14. A polysacharides containing all same type of monosacharides is
called.
(a) Oligosacharide (b) Glycogen (c) Homoglycan (d) hetero-
glycan
15. Which of the following is a reducing sugar.
16. Dead cells can regenerate into new cells? [True/False]
SECTION B - [1O Marks]
1. Define the following terms -
i) Hypertonic and isotonic solutions
ii)Active transport
iii) Exocytosis
iv) Monomer and polymer
v) Isomer
2. Explain if or not viruses are living.
3. Explain difference between condensation and hydrolysis reactions.
SECTION C - Question 2. Compulsory [30 Marks]
1. Discuss the principles of cell theory and state their limitations.
2. Draw and label all organelles of a cell and explain their functions.
3. With an aid of diagram, describe how larger PROTEINS are made
from amino acids monomers.
4. Explain the properties of a Zwitterion ion.
End
Page 113
BIOLOGY OPEN BOOK QUIZ 1
Student: Ms. Belina
Date: 2sd February 2023 Marks: 100
Instructions:
each question.
665899 or aplusc8@gmail.com by tomorrow 10Hrs.
MARKED.
Page 114
a) Gene
b) Chromosome
c) Allele
d) Dominant allele
e) Recessive allele
f ) Heterozygous
g) Homozygous
h) Heredity
i) Genotype
j) Phenotype
k) Locus
m) Monohybrid cross
n) Dihybrid cross
why he choose Pisum Sativum - Pea plants for his experiments.
3. Explain the seven (7) characteristic mendel experiment covered.
and their ratios.
assortment.
6. Suppose a heterozygous plant is crossed with homozygous recessive
plant and 100 offsprings produced. illustrate this cross and state
the possible genotype and phenotype number of the offspring.
End
Page 115
BIOLOGY TEST 1
Due: 12th March 2021 Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of Three (3) Sections and marks are 20 Each.
2. Answer All Questions in Section A [MCQs] and B. Section
C Chose Only Three Questions.
4. The test is set to assess the work covered on CELL THEORY,
WATER AND BIOMOLECULES therefore do your very best.
Page 116
SECTION A - [20 Marks]
1. Cell theory was proposed by:
(a) Schleiden and Schwann (b) Watson and Crick (c) Mendel
and Morgan
(d) Robert and Hookes
2. Which of the following is the exception to the cell theory.
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi (c) Lichen (d) Virus
3. Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells differ by;
(a) Cell wall (b) Nuclear Membrane (c) Ribisome (d) None
of these
4. The cell organelles are found in which cells?
(a) Bacteria cells (b) Cyanobacterial cells (c) prokaryotic cells
(d) Eukaryotic
5. Cytosomes are found in?
(a) Chroloplast (b)Bacteria (c) Mitochondria (d) None of
these
6. The inherent capacity of cells to regenerate a new who organism
is called?
(a) Ontogenis (b) Zotipotencis (c) Phycogeous (d) Differen-
tiation
7. Which of the following is found more than 1/2 in the cell.
(a) Water (b) Mineral salts (c) Proteins (d) Carbohydrates
8. The main difference between plant and animal cell is?
(a) Animal cells lack cell wall
(b) Plant cells has no cell wall
(c) Animal cells have rigid cell walls
(d) Plant cells lack cell membrane
9. Which of the following is not a cell organelle:
(a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosome (c) Golgi complex (d) Mi-
crosome
10. Which of the following statement is not correct.
(a) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg white.
Page 117
(b) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood
clotting.
(c) Denaturation makes the proteins more active
(d) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of the human body.
11. The glycosidic linkage between glucose molecule in maltose is:
(a) Beta 1,4 (b) Alpha 1,2 (c) Alpha 1,4 (d) Beta 1,2
12. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar.
13. Which of the following is an epimeric pair.
(a) D-glucose and D-mannose
(b) D-glucose and D-galactose
(c) D-glucose and L-glucose
(d) Both A and B
14. The correct size of the plasma membrane is.
(a) 7.5 - 10nm
(b) 3.5 - 6.5nm
(c) 7.5 - 8nm
(d) 8 - 10nm
15. The linkage bond between two monosacharides is called .
(a) Ionic (b) Covalent (c) Hydrogen (d) Glycosidic
16. In a protein molecule, various amino acids are linked together by
which bond.
(a) Peptide (b) α - Glycosidic (c) Dative (d) β - glycosidic
17. The general formula for monosacharides is.
(a) (CH2 O)n (b) Cx (H2 O)y (c) Cn H2 On (d) Both A and B
18. A polysacharides containing all same type of monosacharides is
called.
(a) Oligosacharide (b) Glycogen (c) Homoglycan (d) hetero-
glycan
19. Which of the following is a reducing sugar.
20. How are cells arranged into tissues? Give four examples of tissues.
Page 118
SECTION B - [1O Marks]
1. Define the following terms -
i) Hypertonic and isotonic solutions
ii)Active transport
iii) Exocytosis
iv) Monomer and polymer
v) Isomer
2. Explain if or not viruses are living.
3. Explain difference between condensation and hydrolysis reactions.
4. Describe the breakdown of starch to maltose by an enzyme.
SECTION C - Question 2. Compulsory [30 Marks]

1. Discuss the principles of cell theory and state their limitations.
2. Draw and label all organelles of a cell and explain their functions.
a)What is cell differentiation and what are its advantages?
b) How are cells arranged into tissues? Give four examples of
tissues.
c) Explain how are tissues arranged into organs? Give four ex-
amples of organs.
d) How are organs arranged into organ systems? Give four exam-
ples of organ systems.
3. Draw a water molecule and explain its properties.
4. With an aid of diagram, describe how larger carbohydrates are
made from monosacharide monomers.
5. Explain the functions of proteins and name the bonds found in
quatenery structure.
End
Page 119
BIOLOGY OPEN BOOK TEST 1
COURSE CODE: ABI 101
Date: 02sd January 2022 (3 Hrs) Marks: 100
Instructions:
1. This paper consist of fourteen (14) questions and marks are
based on each question.
665899 or aplusc8@gmail.com.
MARKED.
Page 120
a) Gene
b) Chromosome
c) Allele
d) Dominant allele
e) Recessive allele
f ) Heterozygous
g) Homozygous
h) Heredity
i) Genotype
j) Phenotype
k) Locus
m) Monohybrid cross
n) Dihybrid cross
q) Epistasis, Epistatic and Hypostatic genes.
(r) Gene Linkage and Polygenic inheritance.
why he choose Pisum Sativum plants for his experiments.
and their ratios.
assortment. Also illustrate these laws in detail by Using (R) for
round and (r) for wrinkled in your genetic diagram.
5. Explain the exception to the law of independent assortment
6. A plant heterozygous for two independently assorting genes, AaBb,
is self-fertilized. Among the offspring, predict the frequency of; (a)
AABB individuals (b) aabb individuals (c) AaBb individuals
7. Explain with examples the difference between incomplete domi-
nance and co-dominance.
8. Mr. Aplus with blood group AB requires a blood transfusion.
Advise on the suitable donor.
Page 121
9. Explain the difference between Antigen and Antibodies.
10. A baby with blood type B was born into a family whose wife is
type O and whose husband AB. Determine whether the husband
is the biological father of the baby and give your reason.
11. Mrs. Aplus with blood type A gave birth to a baby boy called
Solution from Zimba’s hospital in Lusaka and later on began to
suspect that the child may have been accidentally switched at the
hospital. Blood tests were made from the father Mr. Aplus and
found to be type O and the son was type B.
a) What are the possible genotype of Mr. and Mrs Aplus?
b) What are the possible genotypes of the baby Solution?
c) Is it possible that a mix-up occurred at Zimba’s hospital? Ex-
plain your answer.
12. Explain in detail how the condition Ethroblastosis Fetalis come
about.
13. Name and state the functions of the three components of the an
operon.
14. Explain the operation of the lac operon and state why it is consid-
ered as an inducible system while trp operon as repressible system.
End
Page 122
BIOLOGY QUIZ 1 - MR. NKOSI MOSES
Instructions: Answer All Questions in 2 Hrs.
04/01/2023
Page 123
BIOLOGICAL MOLECULES
1. What are biological molecules?
2. Explain the difference between Monomers and Polymers. Also give
one examples of each.
3. Explain the difference between condensation reaction and hydrol-
ysis reaction.
CARBOHYDRATES
4. What is the general formula of carbohydrates and explain how
larger carbohydrates can be made from monosaccharide monomers.
5. What is the difference in structure between Adoses and Ketoses.
6. What is the general formula of triose sugar and give two (2) ex-
amples.
7. What is an isomer and Draw the isomers of glucose.
8. What is the general formula of Hexose Sugars and state the three
(3) types.
9. Which carbon number in glucose reacts with carbon number 1 and
state the reason.
10. What are the functions of carbohydrates? Also State the reasons
why glucose is soluble in water.
LIPIDS
11. What are lipids?
12. Name the three types of lipids and Describe their functions.
13. illustrate how a triglyceride is formed.
14. Explain the following terms:
i) Saturated fatty acids
ii) Unsaturated fatty acids
15. What is the difference between a triglyceride and a phospholipid
with reference to structure?
16. How does the length of the fatty acid hydrocarbon chain affect
fluidity of cell membranes?
Page 124
End
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PAST-PAPERS

21st JUNE 2023

COURSE CODE: MAP 101

Duration: 2Hrs Marks: 100

2. Answer all Questions and clearly show your working.

3. Credit will be given for orderly, logical presentation of work.

5. No Communication or cheating is ALLOWED.

6. CALCULATORS ARE NOT ALLOWED

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

2. Prove by decomposition that

13th JULY 2023

LOGARITHMS, EXPONENTIALS AND TRIGONOMETRY

Duration: 2Hrs Marks: 80

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

6. Solve the following equations for the interval 0o ≤ θ ≤ 360o . [8

Date: 7th FEBRUARY 2023 2Hrs Marks: 100

6. Solve the following

10th June 2021

Duration: 2Hrs Marks: 100

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Due: 1st NOVEMBER 2022 Marks: 100

End Of Test & Happy New Month Nov. 2022

COURSE CODE: MTM 102

Date: 2rd FEBRUARY 2023 Marks: 100

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

FOUNDATION MATHEMATICS TEST 1

29th March 2021

Duration: 2Hrs Marks: 100

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Due: 29th DECEMBER 2022 Marks: 100

End Of QUIZ & Compliments of the season

28th June 2023

COURSE CODE: MTM 101

Duration: 1:30Minutes Marks: 100

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Date: 2sd FEBRUARY 2023 Marks: 100

5th January 2023

COURSE CODE: MTM 101

Student: Mr. Moses Nkosi Marks: 100

U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15} ϵ R

21st March 2023

COURSE CODE: MTM 101

Student: Madam. Mercy Marks: 100

U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15} ϵ R

Date: 2sd May 2023 Marks: 100

Student: Dr. Kabelo

Ans. all Questions

23rd JUNE 2023

Duration: 2 Hrs Marks: 100

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

COURSE CODE: CHM 101

Date: 7th FEBRUARY 2023 Marks: 100

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

3. The equilibrium concentrations for the reaction between carbon

4. State the factors that can affect the rate of a reaction.

COURSE CODE: CHM 101

Date: 29th DECEMBER 2021 Marks: 100

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

CHEMISTRY: A Study of Matter

0 trigonal planar 120°

1 trigonal pyramid <109.5° (~107°)

1 see-saw <90o <90°, <120°

0 octahehral 90o 90°, 90°

6 1 square pyramidal 90°, <90°