GUJARAT GAUN SEVA EXAM FOR

PHYSIOTHERAPIST 2016

PHYSIOTHERAPY
COMPETITIVE EXAM
PAPER 2(PART 1)
Solved MCQs
By - PhysioAcademy
Dr. Shraddha Dhameliya
(Physiotherapist)
Preface

This book has collection of multiple-choice question asked

in Gujarat gaun seva exam for the post of physiotherapy in

2016. Here are 40 MCQs with their answer.

This questions will help physiotherapy students to

prepare for MPT Entrance exam or physiotherapist for any

competitive exam related to physiotherapy.

PhysioAcademy

Dr.Shraddha dhameliya

(Physiotherapist)

2020

1
Dr.Shraddha Dhameliya
(Physiotherapist)
- working in Physiotherapy institute,India
- six years of experience in physiotherapy field
- having two youtube channel
'PhysioAcademy' and 'Shraddha Dhameliya'

2
Physiotherapy competitive exam paper 2(PART 1) 3

1) Percentage of impairment in case of unilateral above knee

amputee is:
A) 85%
B) 80%
C) 75%
D) 70%
Ans: A) 85%

2) Fine motor and function is:

A) Grasp
B) Pinch
C) Proprioception
D) Protection
Ans: B) Pinch

3) Which group of athletes is more prone for sternoclavicular joint

sprain?
A) Cricketers
B) Wrestlers
C) Tennis Players
D) Swimmers
Ans: B) Wrestlers

4) When held in supported standing, a 12months old spastic

diplegic child on the tiptoes with toes curled up. This position is
characteristic of…………..
A) Moro reflex
B) Planter grasp reflex
C) Traction response
D) Proprioceptive placing reaction
Ans: B) Planter grasp reflex
Physiotherapy competitive exam paper 2(PART 1) 4

5) A handicapped person is eligible for concession if he or she

has:
A) 40% disability
B) Not less than 40% disability
C) 50% disability
D) A combined total of 60% or 40% in individual disabilities
whichever is more
Ans: B) Not less than 40% disability

6) Heberden’s nodes are present in:

A) Wrist
B) Subcutaneous tissue
C) DIP joint
D) Shine of tibia
Ans: C) DIP joint

7) A patient is diagnosed with herniated disc at L4. Which of the

following will have the most weakness?
A) Knee flexion
B) Knee extension
C) Ankle dorsi flexors
D) Hip flexion
Ans: C) Ankle dorsi flexors

8) Microwaves are absorbed mostly in………

A) Fat and fibrous tissues
B) Bone
C) Blood vessels
D) Nerves
Ans: C) Blood vessels
Physiotherapy competitive exam paper 2(PART 1) 5

9) Which is better electrotherapy modality for stress

incontinence?
A) Tens
B) Faradic stimulation
C) IFT
D) I.D.C
Ans: C) IFT

10) Pulleys are used to

A) Make the work easy
B) Alter the direction of motion
C) Gain mechanical efficiency
D) All of the above
Ans: D) All of the above

11) Pulsus Paradoxus can occur due to following condition

Except………
A) Asthma
B) Pericardial Effusion
C) Upper airway obstruction
D) Pneumonia
Ans: D) Pneumonia

12) The principle of frenkle’ s co-ordination exercises is/are……..

A) Precision
B) Attention
C) Repetition
D) All of the above
Ans: D) All of the above
Physiotherapy competitive exam paper 2(PART 1) 6

13) Which therapeutic effect will differentiate between cold and

heat treatments?
A) Relieving pain
B) Reduction of spasticity
C) Reduction of spasm
D) None of the above
Ans: B) Reduction of spasticity

14) A person had head injury 3 months before. At present, he can

understand and wants to talk to people but can’t. which is this
aphasia called?
A) Receptive
B) Expressive
C) Global
D) None
Ans: B) Expressive

15) It is not sign of injury to lower motor neuron:

A) Hypertonia
B) Reduced tendon reflexes
C) Flexor planter response
D) Fasciculation
Ans: A) Hypertonia

16) Green stick fracture is seen in ……….

A) Adult
B) Children
C) At any age
D) Elderly
Ans: B) Children
Physiotherapy competitive exam paper 2(PART 1) 7

17) A patient with ORIF for left hip fracture. On 5th day post-
operative PT treatment, patient develops a large Ecchymosis
on right hip. Most likely the patient has developed…….
A) Deep vein thrombosis
B) A hematocele
C) A hemangioma
D) A complication of anticoagulant therapy
Ans: D) A complication of anticoagulant therapy

18) Good posture

A) Save energy
B) Aesthetically good
C) Prevents musculoskeletal complication
D) All of the above
Ans: D) All of the above

19) IFT can be effectively used for the treatment of:

A) Stress incontinence
B) Sports injuries
C) Raynaud’s disease
D) All of the above
Ans: D) All of the above

20) In interferential therapy for pain relief a frequency of………is

used.
A) 1 – 100 Hz rhythmic
B) 80 - 100 Hz rhythmic
C) 1 - 100 Hz constant
D) 15 - 40 Hz rhythmic
Ans: B) 80 - 100 Hz rhythmic
Physiotherapy competitive exam paper 2(PART 1) 8

21) A 37 years lady recently became obese, she has developed

symptoms of tingling - numbness sensation and weakness in
thumb and index finger with difficulty in holding objects in
kitchen. You suspect positive carpal tunnel syndrome. Which
test you will perform for clinical conclusion?
A) Phalanges test
B) Phantom test
C) Phalen test
D) Positive test
Ans: C) Phalen test

22) A person was playing volley ball, during the play while
smashing the ball, he got blunt injury on his right middle finger.
It was too painful and he couldn’t extend his last phalanx.
Which is this deformity?
A) Torn finger
B) Trigger finger
C) Millet finger
D) Mallet finger
Ans: D) Mallet finger

23) A 38year old lady with Rheumatoid arthritis came to your

clinic for paraffin wax bath and exercises. Due to chronic
inflammation in finger joints she has hyperextended PIP and
hyper flexed DIP joints. What is the name of this deformity?
A) Dog neck
B) Swan neck
C) Butterfly
D) Wryneck
Ans: B) Swan neck
Physiotherapy competitive exam paper 2(PART 1) 9

24) A man met with an accident and injured spinal cord at C5

level. After 24 hours, he has no reflexes, sensation and
voluntary motor activity. These findings are indicative of………
A) A lower motor neuron lesion
B) Presence of spasticity
C) Decerebrate rigidity
D) Spinal shock
Ans: D) Spinal shock

25) Majority of strokes are due to:

A) Cerebral infarction
B) Haemorrhage
C) Head injury
D) Idiopathic
Ans: A) Cerebral infarction

26) The Physiology of force expiratory technique is based on……….

A) Decreased followed by increased airway pressure
B) Equal pressure point on the air way
C) Change of volume of ventilation leads to increased
pressure in the airway.
D) None of the above.
Ans: B) Equal pressure point on the air way

27) Stereognosis is:

A) Ability to recognize objects by feel and manipulation
B) Ability to hear
C) Ability to move joints
D) All of the above
Ans: A) Ability to recognize objects by feel and manipulation
Physiotherapy competitive exam paper 2(PART 1) 10

28) A patient came to your clinic with a history of falling from a

tree and caught hold of a branch with a stretch between trunk
and over head arm on right side with a strong over pull on
lower brachial plexus C8 T1. This is……….
A) Erb’ s palsy
B) Median N palsy
C) Klumpke’ s palsy
D) Radial N. palsy
Ans: C) Klumpke’ s palsy

29) A full time plumber wishes to discontinue physiotherapy and

go back to work. He gets workers compensation benefits. PT
should not discontinue the treatment, if he has pain which
includes prolonged………
A) Sitting
B) Standing
C) Squatting
D) Walking on uneven surface
Ans: C) Squatting

30) A patient with Bil. Fracture femur and with head injury
requires instruction for lower limb exercises. To plan the most
effective teaching methods, what would be most critical to
assess at initial visit?
A) Short term memory capacity
B) Auditory and visual status
C) Comprehension of written, spoken and demonstrated
instructions
D) Personality changes compared to pre morbid status
Ans: C) Comprehension of written, spoken and demonstrated
instructions
Physiotherapy competitive exam paper 2(PART 1) 11

31) In a patient with Osteoarthritis knee the modification of the

toilet should be
A) Indian style toilet
B) Western commode
C) Bench toilet seat
D) Bed pan
Ans: B) Western commode

32) A Patient calls therapist and complains of dull pain in the

treated area of back which is persistent for 3 hours, following
spinal mobilization. The therapist should…………..
A) Refer the patient to the physician.
B) Inform the patient that this reaction is normal.
C) Add strengthening exercises in the home program.
D) Consider a possible neurological lesion.
Ans: B) Inform the patient that this reaction is normal.

33) A patient developed arthritis in unilateral subtalar joint after an

injury. While ambulating, it is most likely that the patient will
experience the least pain………..
A) At push off on involved side.
B) Going up on an inclined plane.
C) At heel strike on involved side.
D) On an uneven terrain.
Ans: B) Going up on an inclined plane.
Physiotherapy competitive exam paper 2(PART 1) 12

34) All of the following statement are correct except:

A) Impairment leads to disability.
B) All impairment lead to disability.
C) Relationship between impairment and disability is bi-
directional.
D) Some disabilities leads to impairment.
Ans: B) All impairment lead to disability.

35) Consequence of disuse of muscle in Geriatric population is

A) Increase in Muscle fiber cross section area
B) Atrophy
C) Decrease in fatigability
D) Dystrophy
Ans: B) Atrophy

36) A pregnant women wants to continue aerobic exercise. What

is your advice?
A) Exercises in a water pool
B) Exercises in supine
C) Exercises in side lying
D) No exercises after 5 months of pregnancy
Ans: A) Exercises in a water pool

37) What is the role of Physical therapy in geriatric rehabilitation?

A) Bed Bound Exercises
B) Group Exercise
C) Maintenance Exercise
D) Postural Exercises
Ans: B) Group Exercise
Physiotherapy competitive exam paper 2(PART 1) 13

38) A spastic diplegic child has bilateral hip and knee

contractures. The best ambulatory device that can keep
patient in upright position during walking is………
A) An anterior rolling walker
B) A posterior rolling walker
C) Offset crutches
D) Bilateral small based quads canes
Ans: B) A posterior rolling walker

39) In CBR, the rehabilitation professional mainly plays a role in:

A) Training
B) Providing medical care
C) Refferal service
D) Identifying handicap
Ans: A) Training

40) Nonambulant person with poliomyelitis making waz candies

is an example of:
A) Sheltered workshop
B) Open employment
C) Co-operatives
D) Home based employment
Ans: D) Home based employment
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