PHẦN A.

MỘT SỐ ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP VÀ THAM KHẢO

PRACTICE TEST 1
Time allotted: 60 min.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. skink B. spine C. knife D. sigh
Question 2. A. affixes B. complexion C. unexpected D. exquisite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. dramatist B. improvement C. watercraft D. alcohol
Question 4. A. particular B. community C. apparatus D. comparison
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. By the end of this week, we ______ on this project for more than 6 weeks.
A. will work B. will be working
C. will have worked D. will have been working
Question 6. He said he had not discussed the matter with her. ______, he had not even contacted
her.
A. Furthermore B. Nevertheless C. However D. Whereas
Question 7. Thanks to the extensive promotion of the book, the ______ has received many orders
throughout the country.
A. publish B. publishing C. publisher D. publishable
Question 8. When a volcano ______, it throws out a lot of hot melted rock called lava, as well as
ash and steam.
A. erupts B. exposes C. exceeds D. explores
Question 9. – “Will my son be all right soon, doctor?”
– “Well, he ______ be, if he takes these tablets.”
A. may B. must C. should D. can
Question 10. The small, ______ farms of New England were not appropriate for the Midwest.
A. self-support B. they supported themselves
C. self-supporting D. supporting themselves
Question 11. The social services are chiefly _________ with the poor, the old and the sick.
A. influenced B. related C. suffered D. concerned
Question 12. There weren't enough computers for everyone in the class to have one, so they had
to ______ each other.
 A. divide into B. join in C. add to D. share with
Question 13. My cousin, who had been driving all day, suggested ______ at the next town.
A. to stop B. stopping C. stop D. being stopped
Question 14. If you often consult others, you will do everything successfully; if you ______
stubbornly ______ your own view, you will get into trouble everywhere.
A. focus … on B. hold … out C. adhere … to D. replace…with
Question 15. Greater effort to increase agricultural production must be made if food shortage
______ avoided.
A. is to be B. can be C. will be D. has been
Question 16. Similar elements in the prehistoric remains from both areas suggest that Indians and
their neighbours had maintained distant but real connections ______ before 1500 BC.
A. ever B. even C. never D. still
Question 17. Part of Jane Colden’s work involved collecting plant specimens, cataloging plants,
and ______ with other botanists.
A. exchanging correspondence B. he exchange of correspondence
C. correspondence exchanging D. correspondence was exchanged
Question 18. The job of a demographer is to investigate ______ in specific locations.
A. how people are there B. how many people are there
C. how many people there are D. there are how many people
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Australian aborigines are dark skinned people whose descendants came to the
continent from Asia about 25,000 years ago.
A. predecessors B. relatives C. offspring D. children
Question 20. Despite the fact that she is a nice person and has many good qualities, she still gets
on my nerves and I find it hard to like her.
A. concerns B. irritates C. admires D. examines
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. Being the second child of three, he tends to admire his elder brother and despise his
younger sister.
A. look up to B. make over C. make up to D. look down on
Question 22. There is ample rain and intense sunlight in tropical climates; consequently, plant life
is luxuriant and varied.
A. detrimental B. abundant C.continuous D. little
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 23. – “What a great haircut, Lucy.” – “______”
A. You think so? I think it a bit too short.
B. It’s my pleasure.
C. Oh, yes. That’s right.
D. Thanks. It’s very kind of you to say so.
Question 24. – “Do you feel like going to the concert this weekend?”
– "______.”
A. You’re welcome B. That would be great
C. Yes, of course D. I don't agree, I'm afraid
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that
best fits each of the blanks from 25 to 29.
Jakarta is the capital city of Indonesia. Today Jakarta has much to offer, ranging from
museums, art and (25) ______ markets, first class shopping to accommodations and a wide variety
of cultural activities. Jakarta’s most famous (26) ______, the National Monument or Monas is a
137m obelisk topped with a flame sculpture coated with 35 kg of gold. Among other places one
can mention the National museum that holds an extensive collection of ethnographic artifacts and
relics, the Maritime Museum that (27) ______ Indonesia’s seafaring traditions, including models
of sea going vessels.
Jakarta has a distinctly cosmopolitan flavor. Tantalize your taste buds with a gastronomic spree
around the city’s many eateries. Like French gourmet dining, exotic Asian cuisine, American fast
food, stylish cafes, restaurants all (28) ______ to find a way into your heart through your stomach.
The taste of Indonesia’s many cultures can be found in (29) ______ any corner of the city: hot and
spicy food from West Sumatra, sweet tastes of Dental Java, the tangy fish dishes of North
Sulawesi.
(Source: https://en-ege.sdamgia.ru/test?theme=28)
25. A. ancient B. aged C. antique D. historic
26. A. landmark B. marker C. objective D. sight
27. A. presents B. reveals C. expresses D. exhibits
28. A. compete B. participate C. fight D. join
29. A. most B. almost C. mostly D. utmost
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 30 to 34.
The popularity of organic foods can be traced to many people’s nostalgia for a simpler, more
pioneer-like life style. And many people believe that organic foods are safer than foods produced
on a large scale by traditional methods. Many people also believe that these organic foods contain
more and better nutrients than conventional food.
 In fact, plants absorb all their food directly from the soil in inorganic form, no matter where
the nutrients may originally have come from. Experiments in Michigan and in England that went
on for twenty-five years were unable to find any difference in plants raised organically and plants
raised with chemical fertilizers. Things that do affect nutrient content are climate, time of harvest,
and genetics - but no difference results when plants are grown organically.
Neither are organically grown plants free from chemicals such as pesticides. Some pesticides
leave traces in the soil for years; these traces may be absorbed by the plant that is “organically”
grown. Rainfall may wash pesticides from neighboring farms onto “organic” fields, and sprays or
other applications of chemicals may drift and cause the same problem.
Furthermore, all foods – whether grown conventionally or organically - may contain toxic
substances to some degree; the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) maintains constant checks
to ensure that these substances are kept at a harmless level. But aflatoxin, a mold that causes cancer,
may grow on crops such as peanuts, or be present in milk. Lead and arsenic are sometimes present
in bone meal or seafood. And many vegetables contain poisonous compounds such as oxalic acid
and nitrite compounds. The point is, all these toxins may be present in a given food, no matter how
the food was grown and cultivated. Toxic substances in food do not necessarily have to come from
fertilizers or chemical sprays.
(https://www.english.com.tw › forum › the-article-about-org...)
Question 30. This passage is mainly about ______.
A. the rise in demand for organic food in the last decade
B. how organic plants are grown in different kinds of soil
C. the toxic substances contained in both organically and inorganically grown food
D. the numerous fallacies that exist about organically grown foods
Question 31. The popularity of organic foods can be traced to all of the following EXCEPT
______.
A. people’s longing for a simpler life style
B. people’s fear of eating more and more food
C. people’s belief that organic foods are safer
D. people’s belief that plants grown traditionally are not as nutritious
Question 32. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?
A. There is some risk of toxic substances in all types of food grown in the earth.
B. Organic foods are more expensive because of the expense of growing them.
C. Organic foods are more nutritious, though more expensive.
D. The FDA strongly recommends organically grown foods.
Question 33. “Organic food” in the passage can be used interchangeably with ______.
A. Traditional food B. Popular food
C. Ethnic food D. Natural food
Question 34. The writer’s tone in the passage is ______.
A. critical B. neutral C. negative D. positive
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 35 to 42.
One of Aesop's fables describing a thirsty crow which was able to drink from a half-full pitcher
after raising the water level by adding pebbles may have had a basis in real life.
Scientists have found that rooks – a member of the crow family – were able to figure out how
to raise the water level in a laboratory container by dropping stones inside to retrieve a tasty worm
floating on the surface.
The only other animal shown to be able to perform the same task is the orang-utan, which was
able to grasp a floating peanut by spitting water into a tube. Scientists believe the demonstration
shows that, in many respects, rooks and crows have comparable intelligence to primates when it
comes to the use of tools.
"We have performed a large number of studies on both corvids (members of the crow family)
and apes, and have found that the crow's performance is on a par or often superior to apes.
However, it is not particularly useful to say that one species is more or less intelligent than another
because often the playing fields aren't even," said Nathan Emery of Queen Mary, University of
London, who carried out the work with Christopher Bird at Cambridge.
"This (study) suggests that they can not only think through complex problems requiring the
use of tools, but imagine the consequences of their actions without trial-and-error learning, and
create novel solutions to these problems that have never been encountered before," Dr Emery said.
"This has only ever been shown in the great apes and humans and is more surprising because
the birds have brains the size of walnuts and these birds do not use tools in the wild."
"We believe that intelligence in rooks and other crows evolved primarily to solve social
problems, as almost all crow species live in large social groups, but they also mainly form pair
bonds, like human marriages, and some of their cognitive abilities appear to have evolved to help
them predict what others are going to do next – so-called mind reading," Dr Emery said.
"This may have developed into understanding about the psychological properties of unseen
forces that are important in using and making tools."
(www.independent.co.uk › News › Science)
Question 35. According to the passage, an ape is a kind of animal that ______.
A. can get a tasty worm in a container
B. can grasp a floating nut in a bottle
C. has the intelligence different from crows
D. can satisfy his needs by using some tools
Question 36. The underlined phrase “figure out” in the passage probably means ______.
A. carry out B. arrive at C. find a solution D. make a call
Question 37. To which are crows in the passage compared in the use of tools?
A. Rooks B. Corvids C. Apes D. Walnuts
Question 38. According to the passage, we learn that ______.
A. apes are sure to be cleverer than crows
B. crows and apes can find a way out only after trying
C. crows and apes can think through hard problems by using tools
D. crows and apes have thought of the result before action
Question 39. The underlined word “that” in the passage refers to ______.
A. consequences B. actions C. solutions D. problems
Question 40. It can be inferred from the passage that the intelligence in crows ______.
A. develops from their cognitive abilities
B. makes them live in pairs
C. is generally their born quality
D. comes from their predicting ability
Question 41. The underlined word “evolved” in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.
A. developed gradually B. changed suddenly
C. remained unchanged D. diminished rapidly
Question 42. What’s the author’s purpose of writing this passage?
A. To introduce the research discovery.
B. To compare crows and apes.
C. To describe an Aesop’s story.
D. To help readers understand the crow family.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43. When Tony drove into Germany, the customs men searched for his car.
A B C D
Question 44. In artifacts from as early as the Stone Age, mathematics and art can
A B
be seen to have fused in the geometric patterns decorate pottery and carpentry.
C D
Question 45. All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic,
A B
political, and the technological institutions if they are to preserve the environment.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 46. Having seen that film before, she wants to see a different one.
A. As she has seen a different film before, she can see this film.
B. Because she’s seen that film before, she wants to go to different one.
C. As she’d seen that film before, she wanted to see a different one.
D. Because she wants to see that film, she can watch it.
Question 47. The teacher exclaimed that I had written such a beautiful piece of writing.
A. “How beautiful is the piece of writing written by you!”
B. “It is good that you have written a beautiful piece of writing.”
C. “What a beautiful piece of writing you have written.”
D. “What you have done is such a beautiful piece of writing.”
Question 48. No matter how hard he tried to reach the apple on the tree, he didn’t succeed.
A. He tried very hard to reach the apple on the tree, and succeeded.
B. He did not even try hard to reach the apple on the tree, although he could.
C. It’s hard for him to reach the apple on the tree because he never succeeded.
D. However hard he tried, he couldn’t reach the apple on the tree.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 49. She saw a dog run in front of her. She fell off her bike.
A. When she saw a dog run in front of her, she stopped and fell off her bike.
B. She saw a dog in front of her, so she fell off her bike.
C. She saw a dog in front of her, but she fell off her bike.
D. She saw a dog in front of her which caused her to fall off her bike.
Question 50. The United Nations was founded in 1945. It aims to solve global issues such as
climate change and civil war.
A. The United Nations, which was founded in 1945, aims to solve global issues such as climate
change and civil war.
B. The United Nations was founded in 1945, but it aims to solve global issues such as climate
change and civil war.
C. To be founded in 1945, the United Nations aims to solve global issues such as climate
change and civil war.
D. The United Nations aims to solve global issues such as climate change and civil war as it
was founded in 1945.