OnlyIASPT252023 (upscmaterial.online)

IDMP TEST SERIES-2023
High Yielding PRELIMS TEST SERIES
Test-25
Environment Revision/Economy
Topic Covered:
 Environment revision
 Basics of Indian economy and national income Economic growth and development
 Planning
 Inflation
IDMP-2023
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Q.1) With reference to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) GDP is arrived at by adding up all expenditures
and Gross National Product (GNP), which of the done in the economy which indicates demand side.
following statements correctly explains the difference 2) While GDP is a good measure in comparative
between them? studies (comparing economies), GVA is a better
1) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the value of all measure to compare different sectors within the
final goods and services produced within the economy
boundary of a nation during a one-year period Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
whereas Gross National Product (GNP) is the GDP a) 1 only
of a country minus its ‘income from abroad’. b) 2 only
2) GDP is a ‘quantitative’ concept, whereas GNP is c) Both 1 and 2
both ‘quantitative’ as well as the ‘qualitative’ d) Neither 1 nor 2
concept.
3) GDP indicates the ‘internal’ as well as the ‘external’ Q.4) Which of the following statements showing the
strength of the economy whereas the GNP of a relation between economic growth and economic
country indicates the ‘internal’ strength of the development are incorrect?
economy. 1) Economic growth is a quantitative term, whereas
4) Private remittances constitute the part of GDP economic development is a qualitative term.
whereas interest on external loans constitute the 2) Higher economic growth automatically brings in
part of GNP higher economic development.
Choose the correct code among the following 3) GDP indicates the economic growth of an economy
a) 1 and 2 only whereas per capita income indicates economic
b) 2 only development
c) 1, 3 and 4 only Choose the correct code among the following
d) 3 and 4 only a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
Q.2) With reference to the calculation of national c) 2 and 3 only
income, which of the following statements are correct d) All of the above
about cost and price in context of national income
counting? Q.5) Which of the following perfectly explains
1) Factor cost is also known as the production cost as meaning of GDP of an economy
it is the ‘input cost’ the producer has to incur in the a) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the value of all
process, whereas ‘market cost’ is derived after final goods and services produced within the
adding the indirect taxes to the factor cost of the boundary of a nation during a one-year period
product adding expenditures on imports not produced in
2) Since January 2015, the CSO has switched over to the nation.
calculate its national income at factor cost so that b) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the value of all
GST can be separately identified. final goods and services produced within the
3) As per the recommendations of National Statistical boundary of a nation during a one-year period
Commission (NSC) base year was revised from removing expenditures of goods and services
2004–05 to 2011–12. produced which are exported, but not sold within
4) Price at base year is current price and it reflects the the country.
impact of present-day inflation in it. c) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the value of all
Select the correct code among the following final goods and services produced within the
a) 1 and 2 only boundary of a nation during a one-year period in
b) 1 and 3 only which government spending and trade balance are
c) 2 and 4 only also added as one of the components.
d) 1, 3 and 4 only d) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the value of all
final goods and services produced within the
Q.3) In context of comparing GDP and GVA, consider boundary of a nation during one year period minus
the following statements national private consumption.
1) Gross value added (GVA) indicates the value
added by various sectors at supply side, whereas
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Q.6) Wear and tear losses (Depreciation) rates of d) 1, 2 and 3

country while counting national income in India are
decided by Q.11) The Plan was a thorough failure in reaching the
a) Ministry of Finance
targets due to unforeseen events - Chinese
b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
c) National Statistical office aggression, Indo-Pak war and severe drought. Due to
d) Cabinet committee on Economic Affairs conflicts the approach during the later phase was
shifted from development to defence & development.
Q.7) Which of the following is written in capital “N”, At its conception, it was felt that the Indian economy
“I” as National Income (NI) of an economy? had entered a “take-off stage”. Therefore, the aim of
a) GDP this Plan was to make India a 'self-reliant' and self-
b) GNP
generating economy. Which of the following plans
c) NDP
d) NNP were referred to in the above lines?
a) Third Plan (1961 - 66)
Q.8) After revision of base year by CSO Headline b) Fourth Plan (1969 - 74)
growth rate will now be measured by c) Second Plan (1956 - 61)
a) GDP at current market prices d) Three Annual Plans (1966-69)
b) GDP at constant market prices
c) GDP at current factor prices
Q.12) The final Draft of this plan was prepared and
d) GDP at constant factor prices
launched by D.P. Dhar in the backdrop of economic
Q.9) Which of the following are the features of Market crisis arising out of run-away inflation fuelled by hike
Economy in oil prices and failure of the Government in takeover
1) Suitable environment (market) determined by the of the wholesale trade in wheat. It proposed to
forces of demand and supply (called the market achieve two main objectives: 'removal of poverty'
forces) is required.
(Garibi Hatao) and 'attainment of self-reliance'
2) Government should follow a policy of laissez faire
3) In a market economy, the market regulates the .Promotion of high rate of growth, better distribution
competition. of significant growth in the domestic rate of savings
Select the correct code among the following: were instruments. Which of the following Plans are
a) 1 and 2 only referred to in the above lines ?
b) 1 and 3 only a) Fourth Plan (1969 - 74)
c) 2 and 3 only b) Fifth Plan (1974-79)
d) All of the above
c) Rolling Plan (1978 - 80)
d) Sixth Plan (1980 - 85)
Q.10) Consider the following statements with respect
to Circular Economy:
Q.13) Consider the following statements regarding
1. The products in the circular economy are more cost
the White revolution :
effective from a consumer point of view.
1. The National Khadi and Village Industries Council
2. Circular Economy solves the problem of disposal of
introduced a new programme named “operation
waste to a large Extent.
flood” in the 1960s to increase the speed of the
3. The circular economy has potential to solve the
white revolution in the country.
problem of air pollution, water pollution etc.
2. The business model of “operation flood” was based
Which of the statements given above are Advantages
on a three tier structure where the District
of Circular Economy?
Cooperative unions are responsible for marketing
a) 1 and 2 only
the fluid milk and products.
b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is /are not
c) 1 and 3 only
correct ?
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a) 1 only b) Laffer Curve

b) 2 only c) Lorentz Curve
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Kuznets Curve
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.18) What are the possible effects of higher inflation
Q.14) Consider the following statements: in an economy?
1. Golden Fibre Revolution and Technology Mission is 1. Nominal wage increases
the government initiative to boost Cotton 2. Beneficial for importers and harmful for exports
production in India. 3. Depreciation of currency
2. The revolution launched in 1986- 1987 to increase 4. Redistribute wealth from debtors to creditors
the production of edible oil, especially mustard and Which of the options given above is/are correct?
sesame seeds to achieve self-reliance is known as a) 1 and 3 only
the Yellow Revolution. b) 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? c) 1, 3 and 4 only
a) 1 only d) All of the above
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Inflation Targetting:
1. It is a monetary policy where the central bank sets a
Q.15) Consider the following statements : specific inflation rate as its goal and adjusts its
1. Disinflation refers to a persistent fall in the general monetary policy to achieve that rate.
level of prices while deflation is a decrease in the rate 2. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and Central
of inflation. government determines the policy interest rate
2. Inflation decreases the value of money whereas the required to achieve the inflation target.
deflation increases its value. 3. It is set by the Reserve Bank of India once every five
Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect? years.
a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?
b) 2 only a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Q.16) What are the possible causes of disinflation in
an economy? Q.20) Which of the following measures can be
1. Drop-in Money Supply adopted to control the increasing inflation?
2. Recession 1. Increase in repo rate and Cash reserve ratio
3. Rise in Unemployment 2. Controlling the money supply
Which of the options given above is/are correct? 3. Lowering income tax rates
a) 1 and 2 only 4. Introducing policies to increase the efficiency and
b) 2 and 3 only competitiveness
c) 1 and 3 only Which of the options given above is/are correct?
d) All of the above a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
Q.17) Which of the following curve defines the best c) 1, 2 and 4 only
relationship between Inflation and Unemployment? d) All of the above
a) Phillips Curve
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Q.21) Consider the following statements WPI 3. It gives the Central Government the power to
(Wholesale Price Index) : constitute a committee for the grant of approval for
1. It is a measure of changes in wholesale prices with the purpose which is prohibited in this Act.
highest weightage given to fuel and power. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. It is compiled and published by the Office of a) 1 and 2 only
Economic Adviser on a monthly basis. b) 2 and 3 only
3. Consumer Price Index (CPI) does not capture c) 3 only
changes in the prices of services but WPI does. d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only Q.25) Which of the following statements is/are
b) 2 only correct regarding the Plastic Waste Management
c) 2 and 3 only (Amendment) Rules, 2021?
d) All of the above 1. It prohibits single-use plastic items which have low
utility and high littering potential, from 1st July 2021.
Q.22) Which of the following factors are responsible 2. The prohibition does not apply to plastic flags, candy
for causing Cost-Push Inflation? sticks, ice-cream sticks, and Thermocol used for
1. Crude oil price fluctuation decoration.
2. Low growth of Agricultural sector 3. In 1998, Sikkim became the first Indian state to ban
3. Increase in direct taxes plastic bags and target single-use plastic bottles.
Which of the options given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 only
e
b) 2 and 3 only b) 3 only
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c) 1 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only
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d) All of the above d) 2 and 3 only
Q.26) Which of the following statements is/are
n
Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding correct about the Water (Prevention and Control of
o
the ‘IPCC’s Sixth Assessment Report’: Pollution) Act,1974?
l.
1. For the first time, the IPCC Report has looked at the 1. It defines both, water pollution and water quality
a
health impacts of climate change. standards.

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2. As per the Report, the wet-bulb temperatures in 2. It provides for maintenance and restoration of
India always exceed 35 degrees C. quality of all types of surface and groundwater.
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3. The Paris Agreement was negotiated on the basis of 3. It authorizes the Department of Water Resources,
the fifth Assessment Report. River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation to
a
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? implement the work for the objectives of the Act.
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a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the codes given

c
b) 1 and 3 only below:

c) 2 and 3 only a) 1 only
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d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only

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c) 2 and 3 only
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Q.24) Consider the following statements regarding d) 1, 2 and 3

the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980:
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1. The State Government can issue orders directing de- Q.27) Which of the following statements is/are
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reservation of the reserved forests. correct regarding the “BUNKER’’ Convention?

2. The State Government can divert a small patch of
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forest for “essential non-forest purposes”.
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1. It is an international treaty listed and administered Q.30) Consider the following statements regarding
by the United Nation convention on laws of the Sea Extended Producer Responsibility and plastic
(UNCLOS). packaging guidelines:
2. It was adopted to ensure that the effective 1. The Guidelines on Extended Producers
compensation is available to the persons who suffer Responsibility on plastic packaging are under
damage caused by spills of oil, when carried as fuel in Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016.
ships' bunkers. 2. The Guidelines provide a framework to strengthen
Select the correct answer using the code given below: the circular economy of plastic packaging waste,
a) 1 only 3. The Guidelines prescribe a framework for levy of
b) 2 only environmental compensation based upon polluter
c) Both 1 and 2 pays principle, with respect to non-fulfilment of
d) Neither 1 nor 2 extended producer responsibility targets by
producers, importers & brand owners.
Q.28) Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the “Wildlife Crime Control Bureau”: a) 1 only
1. It is a non-statutory body that functions in the Indian b) 1 and 3 only
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change c) 3 only
that helps curb organized wildlife crimes in the country. d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It is the designated nodal agency for the Convention
on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Q.31) Consider the following statements regarding
Fauna and Flora (CITES) related enforcement. One Ocean Summit:
e
3. It is mandated to collect and collate intelligence 1. The One Ocean Summit summit was organised by
n
related to the organized wildlife crime activities. France in cooperation with the United Nations and
li
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? the World Bank.
a) 1 and 2 only 2. In the Summit UNESCO has announced that the
n
b) 3 only whole seabed will be mapped by 2030.
o
c) 2 and 3 only 3. The objective of the Summit is to mobilise the
l.
d) 1, 2 and 3 international community to take tangible action
a
towards exploration of deep ocean resources.

ri
Q.29) Which of the following statements is/are Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct regarding the “Convention on the a) 1 only
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Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals b) 2 and 3 only

(CMS)”? c) 3 only
a
1. It is an environmental treaty administered by the d) 1, 2 and 3

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United Nations Environment Programme.

c
2. Currently, Sri Lanka has taken over its Presidency Q.32) Consider the following statements regarding
from India for the next 3 years, till 2023. India’s Climate Hazard and Vulnerability Atlas:
s
3. The Gandhinagar Declaration was adopted during 1. Climate Hazard and Vulnerability Atlas of India is
p
the COP13. launched by the World Meteorological

.u
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Organization.
a) 1 and 2 only 2. Climate vulnerability maps are prepared based on
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b) 1 and 3 only the disaster data from the annual publication of

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c) 2 and 3 only India Meteorological Department “Annual

d) 1, 2 and 3 Disastrous Weather Reports”.
w
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3. A Web version of Climate Hazards and 2. The Financial Support for the project comes from
Vulnerability Atlas of India for the thirteen most Global Environment Facility while technical
hazardous meteorological events is made by using support comes from the Ministry of Environment
Global Positioning System (GPS) tools. Forest and Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Agastamalai in Tamilnadu is notified as Elephant
a) 1 and 2 only Reserve after Singhphan Elephant Reserve in
b) 2 only Jharkhand.
c) 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
d) 2 and 3 only a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
Q.33) Consider the following statements regarding c) 2 and 3 only
the Bonn Climate Change Conference, which recently d) 1, 2 and 3
took place under the UNFCCC meet?
1. In the Bonn Climate Change conference first Q.36) Consider the following statements regarding
technical dialogue of the Global Stocktake was Seabed 2030 Project:
considered. 1. The Seabed 2030 Project is a collaborative project
2. “Global Goal on Adaptation’’ (GGA) which aims to between the Nippon Foundation of Japan and the
reduce vulnerability for the birds especially General Bathymetric Chart of the Oceans (GEBCO).
targeting the endangered vultures was discussed 2. The project aims to collect bathymetric data of the
under the conference. ocean floor for restricted use by the Government
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? of Japan.
e
a) 1 only 3. The project can help in understanding ocean
n
b) 2 only circulation, tides and biological hotspots.
li
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1 and 2 only
n
b) 2 only o
Q.34) Consider the following statements regarding c) 2 and 3 only
l.
"All-Season Ozone Hole": d) 1 and 3 only
a
1. All-season ozone hole is defined as an area of

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ozone loss larger than 75% compared with the Q.37) Consider the following statements regarding
undisturbed atmosphere. UN Ocean Conference:
te
2. Under the Kigali Agreement, India will complete its 1. The UN Ocean conference 2022 is aligned to SDG
phase down of HFCs with cumulative reduction of (Sustainable Development Goals) 14 and stresses
a
50% by 2047. on the critical need for scientific knowledge and

m
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? marine technology to build ocean resilience.
c
a) 1 only 2. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate

b) 2 only Change led the Indian delegation at the UN Ocean
s
c) Both 1 and 2 Conference.

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d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres had

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declared an “ocean emergency” at the UN Ocean

Q.35) Consider the following statements regarding Conference 2022.
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Project Elephant: Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
w
1. Project Elephant is a Centrally Sponsored Schemes a) 1 only

(CSS) launched for the protection of elephants, b) 2 and 3 only
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their habitats and corridors. c) 1 and 3 only
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d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.41) Consider the following statements regarding

Food and Land Use Coalition:
Q.38) Which of the following statements correctly 1. Food and Land Use Coalition is launched by the
explain the United Nation 30×30 Goals? Food and Agriculture Organization to transform
a) Protecting 30% Land and Ocean by 2030 food and land use systems.
b) Reduction of 30% GHGs emissions in next 30 years 2. The Coalition has also partnered with global
c) Restoring 30% degraded forest by 2030 initiatives including Food Systems Dialogues and
d) Reducing 30% wildlife crimes by 2030 Nature4Climate.
3. The State of Food and Agriculture is a report
Q.39) Consider the following statements regarding published by the Food and Land Use Coalition.
Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2001? a) 1 only
1. The act was enacted under the Agreement on b) 2 and 3 only
Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property c) 2 only
Rights (TRIPS). d) 1 and 3 only
2. It is the world’s only IPR legislation which grants
intellectual property rights not only to the plant Q.42) Which of the following statements correctly
breeders but also to the farmers. summaries Biodiversity Intactness Index:
3. Under this act Researchers can use any of the a) It summarises the change in ecological
registered varieties for conducting experiments or communities in response to human pressures.
research. b) It summarises the concentration of Flora and
e
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Fauna in a particular territory
n
a) 1 only c) It summarises the average climate funding
li
b) 2 and 3 only percentage of a country with respect to its G.D.P.
c) 1 and 3 only d) It summaries the biodiversity concentrated in a
n
d) 1, 2 and 3 specific country. o
l.
Q.40) Consider the following statements regarding Q.43) Consider the following statements regarding
a
Plastic Waste Management (Second Amendment) Biological Diversity Amendment Bill 2021:
ri
Rules, 2022: 1. The Bill amends the Biological Diversity Act, 2002
1. The definitions for the term Biodegradable plastics, to simplify compliance requirements for domestic
te
Plastic Packaging and Pre-consumer as well as companies and bring more investment.
post-consumer plastic packaging waste have been 2. The term codified trading knowledge has been
a
notified under amendment rules. defined under the provisions of the Bill.
m
2. The phasing out single-use plastic items from July 3. The Bill seeks to exempt registered AYUSH medical
c
1,2022 does not include wrapping or packaging practitioners but restrict codified traditional
films around sweet boxes, invitation cards, and knowledge from giving prior intimation to State
s
cigarette packets. biodiversity boards for accessing biological

p
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? resources for certain purposes.
.u
a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

b) 2 only a) 1 only
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c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 only

w
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3
w
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Q.44) Consider the following statements regarding 1. The first biofortified staple crop ‘Golden Rice’ was
the 11th World Urban Forum (WUF), 2022: developed to tackle Vitamin C deficiency.
1. The World Urban Forum was established by the UN 2. Bio-fortified Rice is identified by the Copenhagen
to examine rapid urbanization and its impact on Consensus as one of the highest value-for-money
communities, cities, economies, climate change interventions for micronutrient deficiency.
and policies. 3. Bio-fortified Rice has no side-effects.
2. World Cities Report 2022 – Envisaging the Future Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
of Cities said that the global urban population was a) 1 and 3 only
back on track to grow by another 2.2 billion people b) 2 only
by 2050. c) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given d) 1 and 2 only
below:
a) 1 only Q.48) Consider the following statements with respect
b) 2 only to Purchasing Power Parities (PPP):
c) Both 1 and 2 1. It is the rate at which the currency of one country
d) Neither 1 nor 2 would have to be converted into that of another
country to buy the same amount of goods and services
Q.45) Consider the following statements regarding in each country.
Fourth Conference of Parties (COP4) to the Minamata 2. PPP exchange rates are more volatile than market
Convention (MC) on Mercury? exchange rates.
1. Minamata Convention on Mercury, adopted in 3. PPP exchange rates do not consider the different
e
2013 at Geneva, is the world's first non-legally quality of goods among countries.
n
binding treaty to protect human health and Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
li
environment from adverse effects of mercury. a) 1 only
2. India is the founding member of the Minamata b) 1 and 3 only
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Convention. c) 1 and 2 only o
3. The convention develops practical tools and d) 1,2 and 3
l.
notification and information-sharing systems for
a
monitoring and managing trade in mercury. Q.49) Consider the following with reference to
ri
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Nominal effective exchange rate(NEER):
a) 1 and 2 only 1. The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) is an
te
b) 1 only unadjusted weighted average rate at which one

c) 2 and 3 only country’s currency exchanges for a basket of multiple
a
d) 3 only foreign currencies.

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2. The real effective exchange rate (REER) is the

c
Q.46) Which of the statements correctly explain weighted average of a country's currency in relation to
PASIPHAE recently seen in the news? an index or basket of other major currencies and it is
s
a) A newly discovered spider species in the Western adjusted for inflation.

p
Ghats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

.u
b) A sky surveying project a) 1 only

c) A supercomputer built by India b) 2 only
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d) A carbon tracking initiative by Russian c) Both 1 and 2

w
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Bio Fortified Rice:
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Q.50) Consider the following statements regarding a) 1 and 2 only

Gross Domestic Product : b) 2 and 3 only
1. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is that income or c) 3 only
product which accrues to the economic agents who d) 1, 2 and 3
are residents of the country.
2. The income earned by the Non-Resident Indians Q.53) Consider the following statements regarding
(NRIs) will be a part of India's Gross National the difference between Planning Commission and
Product (GNP) NITI Aayog :
Which of the statements given above is /are correct ? 1. NITI Aayog has adopted a bottom-up approach in
a) 1 only planning which is a contrast to the Planning
b) 2 only Commission’s tradition of top-down decision-
c) Both 1 and 2 making.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. NITI Ayog , an advisory body, or a think-tank, has
powers to allocate funds to ministries and state
Q.51) Consider the following statements regarding “ governments.
Net Factor Income from Abroad” with reference to 3. The NITI Aayog council comprises all the state Chief
Indian economy : Ministers, along with the Chief Ministers of Delhi
1. It is the difference between factor income received and Puducherry, Lieutenant Governors of all UTs,
by the residents of India working abroad and the and a vice-chairman nominated by the Prime
factor income paid to the foreign residents for Minister.
working in India. Which of the statements given above is /are not
e
2. The net factor income from abroad is always correct ?
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positive and can never be negative a) 3 only
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3. Net compensation of employees and Net income b) 2 only
from property and entrepreneurship are the only c) 2 and 3 only
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two components of Net Factor Income d) 1 and 3 only o
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
l.
a) 1 only Q.54) Which of the following best describes the
a
b) 1 and 2 only purpose of the ‘Climate Equity Monitor’ seen

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c) 2 and 3 only frequently in news?

d) 1, 2 and 3 a) Its goal is to keep track of how much money Parties
te
are spending to boost forest carbon stocks under

Q.52) Consider the following statements regarding the UN-REDD.
a
the types of Planning: b) Its goal is to keep track of Annex-I Parties'

m
1. Imperative planning is based on the principle of performance under the UNFCCC, based on the
c
decentralization for the operation and execution of climate convention's founding principles.
plans c) Its goal is to increase research and develop new
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2. In Indicative Planning, the planning authority methodologies in order to determine UNFCCC

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decides about every aspect of the economy to the targets.

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minute details, sets targets and administer its d) Its purpose is to keep track of countries' UN-REDD
implementations emission objectives.
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3. In a rolling plan, every year three plans are drawn

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up and they are annual plan, a 5-year plan and a Q.55) Which of the following statements is/are
15-year plan correct regarding the United Nations Framework
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Which of the statements given above is /are correct ?
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Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Conference a) 1 only

of the Parties (COP 26) in Glasgow? b) 2 only
1) The International Mechanism for Loss and Damage c) Both 1 and 2
was established during COP26. d) Neither 1 nor 2
2) India and the United Kingdom created the Beyond
Oil and Gas Alliance (BOGA) to phase out oil and Q.58) Which of the following statements describe the
gas production at the meeting. situation of 'Disinflation’.
3) The Glasgow Climate Pact for the first time a) A fall in the general price level, in the whole
mentioned the need to phase out coal and fossil economy.
fuel subsidies. b) It is a situation of decrease in the rate of inflation
Select the correct answer using the code given below: over successive time periods.
a) 1 only c) It is usually associated with a contraction in the
b) 3 only supply of money and credit, but prices can also fall due
c) 2 and 3 only to increased productivity and technological
d) 1, 2 and 3 improvements.
d) All of the above
Q.56) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below: Q.59) Consider the following statements:
List-I (Revolution) List-II(Aim) 1. Failure of the second five-year plan led to a
A. Black Revolution 1. Related with oil planned holiday in India.
seed production 2. The main objective of three annual plans was to
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B. Silver Revolution 2. Related with egg cater to agricultural crises and food shortages.
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production 3. The government of India restricted rupee
li
C. Pink Revolution 3. Related with Meat devaluation to counter excessive imports.
and poultry production Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
n
D. Yellow Revolution 4. Related with a) 1 only o
petroleum production b) 1 and 2 only
l.
Codes: c) 2 only
a
a) A-1;B-2;C-3;D-4 d) 2 and 3 only

ri
b) A-4;B-2;C-3;D-1
c) A-3;B-1;C-2;D-4 Q.60) Consider the following statements regarding
te
d) A-2;B-3;C-1;D-4 Mahalanobis model:

1. The Mahalanobis model has been constructed in
a
Q.57) Consider the following statements regarding terms of Keynesian aggregates.

m
Incremental Capital Output Ratio (ICOR) : 2. Mahalanobis’ emphasis on basic heavy industries
c
1. The incremental capital output ratio (ICOR) was also due to his objective enabling the economy
explains the relationship between the level of to stop imports of foreign capital equipment and
s
investment made in the economy and the machines.

p
consequent increase in GDP. 3. The plan was devised to enable India to

.u
2. The measure is used predominantly in determining industrialize under conditions of stagnant or slowly
a country's level of production efficiency and a growing exports.
w
higher ICOR is preferred as it indicates a country's Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
w
production is more efficient. a) 1 and 3 only

Which of the statements given above is/are not b) 2 only
w
correct? c) 2 and 3 only
DPP 2023 DAY 174 10


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d) 1, 2 and 3 1. If the recessionary phase lasts for a longer period

of time, then the economy is said to be in a state of
Q.61) The emphasis of this plan was laid on growth a technical recession
with stability and progress towards self-reliance. The 2. During recessions, the central bank typically
government nationalised 14 major Indian Banks and increases interest rates in an effort to Control the
the Green Revolution boosted agriculture. The spending in the economy.
government also introduced the Drought Prone Area Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
Program and Green Revolution to boost agriculture. a) 1 only
a) Mahalanobis model b) 2 only
b) Plan Holidays c) Both 1 and 2 only
c) Gadgil Formula d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Rao Manmohan Model
Q.65) Consider the following statements with
Q.62) The term Stagflation was coined by Iain reference to effects of inflation on the Indian
Macleod, a Conservative Party MP in the United economy.
Kingdom, in November 1965. Which of the following 1. Inflation can distort purchasing power over time for
events are most likely to happen when an economy is recipients and payers of fixed interest rates.
undergoing Stagflation? 2. Inflation can act as a drag on productivity as
1. Rapid increase in growth rate companies are forced to mobilize resources away from
2. High level of unemployment products and services to handle the situations of profit
3. High level of Inflation or price rise and losses from inflation.
e
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 3. The rising prices mean that the factors of production
n
a) 1 and 2 only like labour and raw materials have become cheap,
li
b) 2 and 3 only hence the profit margins of the companies are
c) 1 and 3 only increasing.
n
d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above are correct?
o
a) 1 and 2 only
l.
Q.63) Consider the following statements regarding b) 2 and 3 only
a
Disinflation and Deflation: c) 1 and 3 only

ri
1. Deflation means prices are falling and the inflation d) 1, 2 and 3

rate is in the negative, while disinflation means a
te
slowdown in the rate of inflation while still Q.66) The foreign exchange rate of a country is a
remaining in the positive. window into its economic stability. With reference to
a
2. Some Deflation is good for the economy and the Foreign exchange Rate and inflation consider the
m
markets, but Disinflation can cause the market to following statements.

c
perform poorly because it can signal a recession. 1. If a country's inflation rate is lower than that of
Which of the statements given above is /are not another, its currency will decrease in value.
s
correct? 2. Higher inflation usually results in a devaluation of

p
a) 1 only their currencies in comparison to those of their trading

.u
b) 2 only partners.
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the above statements is/are Incorrect?
w
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1 only

w
b) 2 only
Q.64) Consider the following statements regarding c) Both 1 and 2
w
Recession and Technical Recession: d) Neither 1 Nor 2
DPP 2023 DAY 174 11


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Q.67) Inflation occurs when there is a general increase a) 1 and 2 only

in the price of goods and services and a fall in b) 3 and 4 only
purchasing power. With reference to inflation c) 1, 2 and 4 only
consider the following statements. d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
1.Inflation allows borrowers to pay lenders back with
money worth less than when it was originally Q.70) Consider the following statements regarding
borrowed, which benefits lenders. types of Inflation :
2. Inflation causes higher prices, the demand for credit 1. Inflation that occurs due to increase in aggregate
increases, raising interest rates, which benefits demand is referred to as cost push inflation
borrowers. 2. Price rise in all goods and services except food and
Which of the above statements is/are? energy due to high price fluctuations is headline
a)1 only inflation.
b)2 only Which of the statements given above is /are correct ?
c) Both 1 and 2 a) 1 only
d) Neither 1 Nor 2 b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q.68) Consider the following statements regarding d) Neither 1 nor 2
inflation targeting :
1. The amended Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 Q.71) Consider the following statements regarding
provides for the inflation target to be set by the Chickpea:
Government of India, in consultation with the 1. The Chickpea Pan Genome initiative is led by the
e
Reserve Bank once in every five years. Food and Agriculture Organization.
n
2. The Finance Ministry determines the policy 2. Grown in more than 50 countries, chickpea is the
li
interest rate, repo rate required to achieve the world's third-most cultivated legume.
inflation target. 3. India is the largest producer of Chickpea in the
n
Which of the statements given above is/ are not world. o
correct ? Which of the statements given above are correct?
l.
a) 1 only a) 1 and 2 only
a
b) 2 only b) 2 and 3 only

ri
c) Both 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 only

d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) 1, 2 and 3
te
Q.69) RBI is entrusted with the responsibility of Q.72) Consider the following statements regarding
a
conducting monetary policy in India with the primary Natural Farming:

m
objective of maintaining price stability while keeping 1. It is considered an agroecology-based diversified

c
in mind the objective of growth. It is on the basis of its farming system which integrates crops, trees and
assessment of the monetary policy stance that a livestock with functional biodiversity.
s
central bank calibrates its actions. In which of the 2. It will reduce the government's heavy subsidy
p
following stances , RBI more likely to cut down the burden and also help prevent water pollution.
.u
interest rate ? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Accommodative stance a) 1 only
w
2. Neutral stance b) 2 only

w
3. Hawkish Stance c) Both 1 and 2

4. Calibrated Tightening d) Neither 1 nor 2
w
Select the correct code using the answer given above
DPP 2023 DAY 174 12


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Q.73) What is/are the possible impacts of the rise in Q.76) Consider the following statements regarding
direct tax collection? Aspirational Districts Programme :
1. It will reduce the crowding-out effect. 1. It aims to quickly and effectively transform some of
2. It will increase interest rates and higher GDP growth India's most underdeveloped districts and rank them
rate. for increasing competitiveness.
3. It will not reduce income inequalities and social 2. Each district has a prabhari (in-charge) officer who
inequalities. will work in cooperation with the district
Select the correct answer using the codes given administration.
below: 3. The ranking is based on the incremental progress
a) 1 only made across 5 broad socio-economic themes, launched
b) 2 and 3 only by the Ministry of Home Affairs every month.
c) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
d) All of the above a) 1 only
b) 3 only
Q.74) Which of the following safeguards are provided c) 1 and 3 only
in the constitution to prevent reckless use of d) 1 and 2 only
Preventive Detention?
1. A person may be taken to preventive custody only Q.77) Recently seen in news “EASENext Reforms” is
for 6 months at the first instance. associated with?
2. The detainee is entitled to know the grounds of his a) Improving Trade across Borders and enforcing
detention. contracts
e
3. The detaining authorities must give the detainee the b) Reformation in Infrastructure and logistics Sector
n
earliest opportunities for making a representation c) A reform agenda for Public Sector Banks (PSB’s)
li
against the detention. d) E-governance policy reforms
Which of the statements given above are Correct?
n
a) 1 and 2 only Q.78) Consider the following statements regarding
o
b) 1 and 3 only Exercise “Synergy” :
l.
c) 2 and 3 only 1. It is a Cyber Security Exercise for 13 countries which
a
d) All of the above is hosted by the Indian Computer Emergency Response

ri
Team (CERT-In).
Q.75) Consider the following statements : 2. The exercise was conducted as part of the
te
1. The index of industrial production (IIP) compiled and International Counter Ransomware Initiative-
published monthly by the Department for Promotion Resilience Working Group which is being led by the
a
of Industry & Internal Trade(DPIIT), ministry of United Kingdom.

m
Commerce. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

c
2. Crude Oil has the highest weightage in the eight core a) 1 only
sector industries. b) 2 only
s
3. The index of industrial production (IIP) is the only c) Both 1 and 2

p
measure of the physical volume of production. d) Neither 1 nor 2

.u
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only Q.79) Consider the following statements regarding
w
b) 3 only Rule Curve :

w
c) 1 and 3 only 1. A rule curve or rule level specifies the storage or

d) All of the above empty space to be maintained in a reservoir during
w
different times of the year.
DPP 2023 DAY 174 13


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2. It displays how household expenditure on a 1. It aims to encourage the balanced use of fertilisers in
particular good or service varies with change in conjunction with biofertilizers & organic fertilizers and
household income. bring down the subsidy burden on chemical ferrtilizers.
3. It is part of the “core safety” mechanism in a dam 2. The scheme will have a separate budget in which
and decides the fluctuating storage levels in a 50% of the amount provided under the scheme can be
reservoir. used for asset creation related to the technological
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? adoption of alternate fertilizers.
a) 1 only 3. It is implemented by the Department of Agriculture,
b) 2 only Cooperation & Farmers Welfare (DAC&FW), Ministry of
c) 1 and 3 only Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
d) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?
a) 2 only
Q.80) Consider the following Hydroelectric Projects b) 2 and 3 only
with their associated river: c) 1 and 3 only
1. Vishnugad Pipalkoti Hydroelectric Project : d) None of the above
Alaknanda River
2. Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project (SLHP): Teesta Q.83) Consider the following statements regarding Air
River Independent Propulsion (AIP) technology :
3. Kwar hydroelectric project : Chenab River 1. It is a technology for nuclear submarines that use
How many of the pair/pairs given above is/are diesel-electric engines.
matched correctly? 2. It allows a conventional submarine to remain
e
a) Only one pair submerged for much longer duration.
n
b) Only two pairs 3. India is building 6 Scorpene class advanced
li
c) All three pairs submarines under P-75 (2nd phase) Project which uses
d) None of the above Fuel-Cell based AIP (Air Independent Propulsion)
n
technology. o
Q.81) Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statements given above are correct?
l.
Carbon capture and storage (CCS) : a) 1 and 2 only
a
1. CCS is a way of reducing carbon emissions, which b) 2 and 3 only

ri
could be key to helping to tackle global warming. c) 1 and 3 only

2. Possible storage sites for carbon emissions include d) All of the above
te
saline aquifers or depleted oil and gas reservoirs.

3. The United Kingdom is building the world's first Q.84) Consider the following statements regarding
a
open-access CCS infrastructure on the Atlantic Sea Tuberculosis TB :

m
coast. 1. TB is caused by bacillus Mycobacterium

c
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? tuberculosis which typically affects lungs called
a) 1 and 2 only pulmonary TB.
s
b) 2 and 3 only 2. Many Safe and effective licensed vaccines are

p
c) 1 and 3 only available that provide strong protection against TB

.u
d) None of the above 3. Poly-resistance TB is caused by bacteria that is

resistant to any fluoroquinolone, and at least one
w
Q.82) Consider the following statements regarding of three second-line injectable drugs, in addition to
w
PM PRANAM scheme : multidrug resistance.

Which of the statements given above is/ are not
w
correct ?
DPP 2023 DAY 174 14


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a) 2 only 1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic

b) 2 and 3 only Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA) also
c) 1 only known as Seed Treaty, was adopted by the 31st
d) 1 and 3 only session of the Food and Agriculture Organization
(FAO).
Q.85) Consider the following statements regarding 2. The Treaty is a legally binding international
Anti-Radiation Pills : instrument that aims to establish a global system
1. Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets, contain non- to provide farmers, plant breeders and scientists
radioactive iodine and can help block absorption with access to plant genetic materials.
are known to provide some protection in cases of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
radiation exposure. a) 1 only
2. Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets give a person 100% b) 2 only
protection against all types of radiation. c) Both 1 and 2
3. Potassium Iodide pills are preventive only and d) Neither 1 nor 2
cannot reverse any damage done by radiation to
the thyroid gland. Q.89) Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the statements given above is /are correct ? Zombie Ice:
a) 1 only 1. Zombie Ice is an underground ice shelf in the polar
b) 2 and 3 only regions of the North and South Pole.
c) 1 and 3 only 2. It can raise sea level and can flood low lying coastal
d) 1, 2 and 3 areas.
e
3. Zombie Ice accumulates fresh snow while
n
Q.86) Consider the following statements regarding continuing to be part of the parent ice sheet.
li
Spent nuclear fuel : Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
1. Spent nuclear fuel, occasionally called used nuclear a) 1 and 3 only
n
fuel, is nuclear fuel that has been irradiated in a b) 1 and 2 only o
nuclear reactor usually at a nuclear power plant c) 2 only
l.
2. Spent nuclear fuel contains a mixture of fission d) None of the above
a
products, and long lived radioactive waste which

ri
are neither radioactive nor potentially harmful. Q.90) Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? Shallow Water Mining:
te
a) 1 only 1. Shallow-water mining takes place at depths more

b) 2 only than 200 metres and less than 1000 metres.
a
c) Both 1 and 2 2. It has been touted as more destructive than

m
d) Neither 1 nor 2 terrestrial mining and more risky than mining in Deep-
c
Water Ecosystems.
Q.87) Progress on WASH in Healthcare facilities (2000- 3. Shallow Water Mining is a sustainable substitute for
s
2021) Report is published by? Deep-Sea Mining.

p
a) WHO Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

.u
b) UNDP a) 1 only
c) UNICEF and WHO b) 2 and 3 only
w
d) NITI AAYOG c) 1 and 3 only

w
d) None of the above

w
Seed Treaty:
DPP 2023 DAY 174 15


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Q.91) Consider the following statements regarding Which of the options given above is/are correct?
Indian Nutrition Rating (INR) : a) 1 and 4 only
1. The Bureau of Indian Standards , the National b) 2 and 3 only
Standards Body of India has released a draft c) 1, 2 and 4 only
notification for Indian Nutrition Rating and front- d) All of the above
of-pack labelling.
2. Food such as milk and milk products, whey, butter Q.95) Which of the following statement is/are
oil, ghee, vegetable oil and fat, fresh and frozen Incorrect with respect to the Windfall Tax ?
fruit and vegetables, will have to mandatorily a) It is a tax levied by governments against certain
display the star rating. industries when economic conditions allow those
Which of the statements given above is /are not industries to experience above-average profits.
correct ? b) It is to redistribute excess profits in one area for the
a) 1 only greater social good.
b) 2 only c) it is levied as a one-off tax retrospectively over and
c) Both 1 and 2 above the normal rates of tax.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) None of the above
Q.92) Which of the following are the environmental Q.96) Consider the following statements regarding
impacts of Factory Farming of Animal Products? the ‘World Social Protection Report 2020-22’ :
1. Deforestation at massive level 1. It is released by the World Economic Forum (WEF)
2. Destruction of wild animal habitats and International Labour Organisation (ILO) jointly.
e
3. Land and Water contamination 2. According to the report, Only 24.4 percent of
n
4. Diminishing quality and disturbance of soil Indians, a little higher than Bangladesh, are under any
li
Which of the options given above is/are correct? sort of social protection benefit.
a) 1 and 4 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
n
b) 2 and 3 only a) 1 only o
c) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2 only
l.
d) All of the above c) Both 1 and 2
a
d) Neither 1 nor 2
ri
Q.93) Which of the following UNFCCC conference of

parties (COP), was the first formal acknowledgment of Q.97) Consider the following statements regarding
te
the need to compensate (for Loss and Damages) Dara Shikoh:

developing countries struck by climate disasters? 1. Dara Shikoh was a liberal muslim who created link
a
a) Bali Summit, 2007 between Hinduism and Islam.

m
b) Doha Summit, 2012 2. He was the longest serving Mughal emperor after
c
c) Warsaw Summit, 2013 Akbar.

d) Paris Summit, 2015 3. Majma-ul-Bahrain (Mingling of Two Oceans) and
s
Sirr-i-Akbar (Great Mystery), are his most notable

p
Q.94) Which of the following writings.

.u
protocols/amendments/conventions is related to Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

protection of Ozone Layer? a) 1 and 3 only
w
1. Montreal Protocol b) 2 only

w
2. Vienna Convention c) 3 only

3. Kyoto protocol d) 1, 2 and 3
w
4. Kigali Amendment
DPP 2023 DAY 174 16


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Mandala Art:
1. Mandala Art is influenced by freehand patterns
and devoid of any Geometric configuration.
2. Its origin is rooted in Buddhism and showcases the
Eightfold path in its illustrations.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Annabhau Sathe:
1. Annabhau Sathe is considered as Father of Dalit
literature and has contributed extensively to the
Ambedkarite movement.
2. His major works are ‘Aklechi Goshta,’
‘Stalingradacha Povada, ‘Bangalchi Hak' and 'Geeta
Rahasya'.
3. He was a member of Communist Party of India.
e
Which of the statements given above are correct?
n
a) 1 and 2 only
li
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
n
d) 1, 2 and 3 o
l.
a
Asiatic Caracal:
ri
1. The caracals are slender, medium-sized wild buffalo

with long powerful legs and tufted ears.
te
2. It is listed under ‘schedule I’ of Wildlife Protection

Act,1972 and ‘Critically Endangered’ in IUCN status.
a
3. They are found mostly in Rajasthan, Gujarat and

m
Madhya Pradesh in india.

c
Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
s
b) 3 only
p
c) 1 and 3 only
.u
d) All of the above

w
w
w
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Q.1) Ans: B ● Gross Value Added (GVA) is a measure of total

Exp: output and income in the economy. It provides
the rupee value for the number of goods and
● Statements 1 and 4 are incorrect: Gross services produced in an economy after
Domestic Product (GDP) is the value of all final deducting the cost of inputs and raw materials
goods and services produced within the that have gone into the production of those
boundary of a nation during a one year period. goods and services.
For India, this calendar year is from 1st April to ● It also gives a sector-specific picture like what
31st March. is the growth in an area, industry or sector of
○ GDP is also calculated by adding an economy.
national private consumption, gross ● At the macro level, from a national accounting
investment, government spending and perspective, GVA is the sum of a country’s GDP
trade balance (exports-minus- and net of subsidies and taxes in the economy.
imports). The use of the exports- ● Gross Value Added = GDP + subsidies on
minus-imports factor removes products - taxes on products
expenditures on imports not produced
in the nation, and adds expenditures of
goods and service produced which are Q.2) Ans: B
exported, but not sold within the Exp:
country While calculating national income the issues related to
○ Gross National Product (GNP) is the ‘cost’ and ‘price’ also needs to be decided. Basically,
GDP of a country added with its there are two sets of costs and prices; and an economy
‘income from abroad’. needs to choose at which of the two costs and two
■ Here, the trans-boundary prices it will calculate its national income
e
economic activities of an
n
economy is also taken into ● Statement 1 is correct: Basically, ‘factor cost’
account. The items which are is the ‘input cost’ the producer has to incur in
li
counted in the segment the process of producing something This is also
n
‘Income from Abroad’ are: termed as ‘factory price’ or ‘production
Private Remittances, Interest o
cost/price’. This is nothing but the ‘price’ of the
on External Loans, External commodity from the producer’s side. While
l.
Grants. the ‘market cost’ is derived after adding the
a
indirect taxes to the factor cost of the product,

ri
● Statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is it means the cost at which the goods reach the
incorrect: GDP is a ‘quantitative’ concept and market.
te
its volume/size indicates the ‘internal’ ● Statement 2 is incorrect: India officially used
strength of the economy. But it does not say to calculate its national income at factor cost.
a
anything about the ‘qualitative’ aspects of the Since January 2015, the CSO has switched over
goods and services produced. to calculating it at market price (i.e., market
m
○ GNP is a more exhaustive concept of cost). The market price is calculated by adding
national income than the GDP as it is the product taxes (generally taken as the
c
indicated towards the ‘quantitative’ indirect taxes of the Centre and the States) to
s
as well as the ‘qualitative’ aspects of the factor cost

p
the economy, i.e., the ‘internal’ as ● Statement 3 is correct: The Central Statistics
.u
well as the ‘external’ strength of the Office (CSO), in January 2015, released the new
economy. and revised data. The Base Year was revised
w
from 2004–05 to 2011–12. This was done in

Extra Edge by OnlyIAS accordance with the recommendation of the
w
National Statistical Commission (NSC).

Gross Value Added (GVA) ● Statement 4 is incorrect: Income can be
w
derived at two prices, constant and current.
DPP 2023 DAY 174 18


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The difference in the constant and current According to the Human Development Report 2021-22,
prices is only that of the impact of inflation. India’s rank on the Human Development Index (HDI)
Inflation is considered stand still at a year of has slipped from 130 in 2020 to 132 in 2022.
the past (this year of the past is also known as
the ‘base year’) in the case of the constant
price, while in the current price, present day Q.5) Ans: C
inflation is added. Price at base year is constant
price. Exp:
● Option A incorrect: Gross Domestic Product

Q.3) Ans: C (GDP) is the value of all final goods and services
Exp: produced within the boundary of a nation
Statement 1 is correct: Economic growth is estimated during a one year period removing
using two main methods—demand side and supply expenditures on imports not produced in the
side. nation. Expenditures on imports not produced
● Under supply side, the value-added by the in the nation are removed.
various sectors in the economy (i.e., ● Option B is incorrect: Because expenditures of
agriculture, industry and services) are added goods and services produced which are
up to derive the gross value added (GVA). This exported, but not sold within the country are
way, it captures the income generated by all added to GDP.
economic actors across the country. ● Option C is correct and option D is incorrect:
● Under the demand side, GDP is arrived at by Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the value of
adding up all expenditures done in the all final goods and services produced within
economy. the boundary of a nation during a one year
e
period. For India, this calendar year is from 1st
April to 31st March. It is also calculated by
n
Statement 2 is correct: While GDP is a good measure
in comparative studies (comparing economies), GVA is adding national private consumption, gross
li
a better measure to compare different sectors within investment, government spending and trade
n
the economy. balance (exports-minus-imports). The use of
the exports-minus-imports factor removes
o
expenditures on imports not produced in the
l.
Q.4) Ans: C nation, and adds expenditures of goods and
a
Exp: service produced which are exported, but not

sold within the country.
ri
● Statement 1 is correct: Economic growth is a

te
quantitative term whereas economic

development is a qualitative term. Q.6) Ans: B
a
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Before ensuring Exp:

development we need to assure growth.
m
Higher economic development requires higher ● Option B is correct: Every asset (except human
economic growth. But it does not mean that beings) goes for depreciation in the process of
c
higher economic growth automatically brings their uses, which means they ‘wear and tear’.
s
in higher economic development. The governments of the economies decide and

p
● Statement 3 is incorrect: GDP and per capita announce the rates by which assets depreciate
(done in India by the Ministry of Commerce
.u
income are quantitative terms indicating

economic growth, whereas Human and Industry) and a list is published, which is
used by different sections of the economy to
w
Development Index, gender inequality index

indicates economic development as it focuses determine the real levels of depreciations in
w
upon health, literacy and quality of life. different assets.

w
Extra Edge by OnlyIAS

Q.7) Ans: D
DPP 2023 DAY 174 19

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Exp: produce and at what price to sell (i.e., supply)

● Option D is correct: Net National Product all such decisions depend on these forces.
(NNP) of an economy is the GNP after ● Statement 2 is correct: For efficient operation
deducting the loss due to ‘depreciation’. of economic activities, the government should
The different uses of the concept of NNP are as follow a policy of laissez faire (French word
given below: which means ‘leave it alone’ which is generally
1. This is the ‘National Income’ (NI) of an translated by economists as ‘non-
economy. Though, the GDP, NDP and interference’). Lesser the government, better
GNP, all are ‘national income’ they the economic performance. Here, non-
are not written with capitalized ‘N’ interference by government means many
and ‘I’. different things such as—government playing
2. This is the purest form of the income no or least economic role (producing none of
of a nation. the goods and services), no economic
3. When we divide NNP by the total regulation, no taxes imposed, etc.
population of a nation we get the ‘per ● Statement 3 is incorrect: In market economy,
capita income’ (PCI) of that nation, i.e., its not the market who regulates the
‘income per head per year’. competition, rather competition regulates the
market.
Q 8) Ans: B
Exp:
● Option B is correct: The Central Statistics
Q.10) Ans: D
Office (CSO), in January 2015, released the new
Exp:
and revised data of the National Account.
● All statements are correct: The circular
e
The major changes incorporated in this
revision are as given below: economy is a model of production and
n
● Headline growth rate will now be consumption, which involves sharing, leasing,
li
measured by GDP at constant market reusing, repairing, refurbishing and recycling
n
prices, which will henceforth be existing materials and products as long as
referred to as ‘GDP’ (as is the practice o
possible. In this way, the life cycle of products
internationally). Earlier, growth was
l.
is extended. For example, electrical devices are
measured in terms of growth rate in
designed in such a way that they are easier to
a
GDP at factor cost and at constant

prices. repair. Products and raw materials are also
ri
● Sector-wise estimates of Gross Value reused as much as possible. For example, by

te
Added (GVA) will now be given at basic recycling plastic into pellets for making new
prices instead of factor cost. plastic products. The various advantages of
a
Circular Economy are the products in the

m
circular economy are more cost effective for

Q.9) Ans: A
consumers as they tend to be more efficient,
Exp:
c
Origin of market economy is traced back to the work besides having a longer shelf life. The
s
(An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth Increased Efficiency leads to a reduction in the
p
of Nations, 1776) of the Scottish philosopher- cost of maintenance as well as that of

.u
economist Adam Smith. disposal, which otherwise a consumer has to

incur in a huge amount. Also Millions of Tonnes
w
● Statement 1 is correct: For a market economy

of Waste gets generated in countries. Circular
to operate properly a suitable environment
Economy solves the problem of disposal of
w
(i.e., market) determined by the forces of

demand and supply (called the market forces) waste by converting waste into raw
w
is required. What to produce, how much to materials.Besides the problem of solid waste
DPP 2023 DAY 174 20


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
management, the circular economy also solves Mahalanobis. (Plan is also called Mahalanobis
the problem of air pollution, water pollution, Plan). Second plan was conceived in an
and land pollution.Also, the circular economy atmosphere of economic stability. It was felt
focuses on efficient utilisation of resources agriculture could be accorded lower priority.
which helps industries in earning cash profits The Plan focussed on rapid industrialization-
equivalent to 3-5% of their turnover. heavy & basic industries. Advocated huge
imports through foreign loans. The Industrial
Reference: Policy 1956 was based on the establishment of
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1705 a socialistic pattern of society as the goal of
772 economic policy. Acute shortage of forex led to
pruning of development targets, price rise was
also seen (about 30%) vis-a-vis decline in the
Q.11) Ans: A earlier Plan & the 2nd FYP was only moderately
Exp: successful.
● Option 1 is correct : Third Plan (1961 - 66) ● Option 4 is not correct : Three Annual Plans
Target Growth: 5.6% Actual Growth: 2.8% : At (1966-69) Failure of Third Plan that led to the
its conception, it was felt that the Indian devaluation of rupee (to boost exports) along
economy has entered a “take-off stage”. with inflationary recession led to
Therefore, its aim was to make India a 'self- postponement of Fourth FYP. Three Annual
reliant' and self generating economy. Based Plans were introduced instead. Prevailing crisis
on the experience of the first two plans, in agriculture and serious food shortage
e
agriculture was given top priority to support necessitated the emphasis on agriculture
n
exports and industry. The Plan was a during the Annual Plans. During these plans a
li
thorough failure in reaching the targets due to whole new agricultural strategy was
unforeseen events - Chinese aggression implemented. It involves wide-spread
n
(1962), Indo-Pak war (1965), severe drought distribution of high-yielding varieties of seeds,
o
1965-66. Due to conflicts the approach during extensive use of fertilizers, exploitation of
l.
the later phase was shifted from development irrigation potential and soil conservation.
a
to defence & development.

ri
● Option 2 is not correct : Fourth Plan (1969 - Reference : Indian Economy by Vivek Singh - chapter 6
74) Target Growth: 5.7% Actual Growth: 3.3% : Planning
te
Refusal of supply of essential equipments and

raw materials from the allies during Indo Pak Q.12) Ans: B
a
war resulted in twin objectives of “growth with Exp:

m
stability“ and “progressive achievement of self ● Option 1 is not correct : Fourth Plan (1969 -
c
reliance “ for the Fourth Plan. Main emphasis 74) Target Growth: 5.7% Actual Growth: 3.3% :
was on the growth rate of agriculture to enable Refusal of supply of essential equipments and
s
other sectors to move forward. The plan was raw materials from the allies during Indo Pak
p
considered as a failure war resulted in twin objectives of “growth with

.u
● Option 3 is not correct : Second Plan (1956 - stability“ and “progressive achievement of self
61) Target Growth: 4.5% Actual Growth: 4.3%. reliance “ for the Fourth Plan. Main emphasis
w
Simple aggregative Harrod Domar Growth was on the growth rate of agriculture to enable
w
model was again used for overall projections other sectors to move forward. The plan was
and the strategy for resource allocation to the considered a failure.
w
various sectors was prepared by Prof. PC
DPP 2023 DAY 174 21


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
● Option 2 is correct : Fifth Plan (1974-79) Target development programme initiated by NDDB –
Growth: 4.4% Actual Growth: 4.8% : The final National Dairy Development Board of India.
Draft of fifth plan was prepared and launched ● Statement 2 is correct :The business model of
by D.P. Dhar in the backdrop of economic crisis “operation flood” was based on three tier
arising out of run-away inflation fuelled by hike structure: Village Society: The milk producers
in oil prices and failure of the Govt. takeover of at the village level form village dairy
the wholesale trade in wheat. It proposed to cooperative society (DCS). Any producer can
achieve two main objectives: 'removal of become a DCS member by buying a share and
poverty' (Garibi Hatao) and 'attainment of self committing to sell milk only to the society.
reliance' Promotion of high rate of growth, Each DCS has a milk collection centre where
better distribution of significant growth in the members take milk every day. Each member's
domestic rate of savings were instruments milk is tested for quality with payments based
● Option 3 is not correct : Rolling Plan (1978 - on the percentage of fat and SNF. At the end of
80) : There were 2 Sixth Plans. Janta Govt. put each year, a portion of the DCS profits is used
forward a plan for 1978- 1983 emphasising on to pay each member a patronage bonus based
employment, in contrast to the Nehru Model on the quantity of milk procured. The District
which the Govt criticised for concentration of Union: A District Cooperative Milk Producers'
power, widening inequality & for mounting Union is owned by dairy cooperative societies.
poverty. However, the Govt. lasted only for The Union buys all the societies' milk, then
two years. Congress Govt. returned to power processes and markets fluid milk and
in 1980 and launched a different plan. products. Most Unions also provide a range of
e
● Option 4 is not correct : Sixth Plan (1980 - 85) inputs and services to DCSs and their
n
Target Growth: 5.2% Actual Growth: 5.7% . The members: feed, veterinary care, artificial
li
Plan focussed on Increase in national income, insemination to sustain the growth of milk
modernization of technology, ensuring production and the cooperatives' business.
n
continuous decrease in poverty and Union staff train and provide consulting
o
unemployment. services to support DCS leaders and staff.
l.
● The State Federation: The District Cooperative
a
Reference: Indian Economy by Vivek Singh - chapter 6 milk producers' unions in a state form, a State
ri
Planning Federation, which is responsible for

marketing the fluid milk and products of
te
Q.13) Ans: A member unions. Some federations also

Exp: manufacture feed and support other union
a
● Statement 1 is not correct : During the year activities.

m
1964-1965, the Intensive Cattle Development

c
Programme was introduced in India in which Reference :

the cattle owners were provided with a https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/varanasi/pm
s
package of improved animal husbandry for -modi-to-launch-amul-unit-on-thursday-usher-in-2nd-

p
promoting the white revolution in the country. white-revolution-in-east-

.u
Later on, the National Dairy Development up/articleshow/88438128.cms

Board introduced a new programme named
w
“operation flood” to increase the speed of the

w
white revolution in the country. Operation Q.14) Ans: B

Flood started in the year 1970 and was aimed Exp:
w
to create a nationwide milk grid. It was a rural
DPP 2023 DAY 174 22


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● Statement 1 is not correct : Golden Fibre created many opportunities, and also helped in
Revolution and Technology Mission on Jute covering socio-economic differences in the
and Mesta are two of the government country. The oil production in India was about
initiatives to boost jute production in India. 12 million tonnes when the revolution started
Due to its high cost, it is losing market to which doubled in 10 years to about 24 million
synthetic fibres and packing materials, tonnes. Along with the use of the hybrid seed,
particularly nylon. Jute Packaging Materials various other measures were taken such as the
Act, 1987: Through the Jute Packaging increase in agricultural land to about 26 million
Materials (JPM) Act, the Government is hectares, and the use of modern technological
protecting the interests of about 4 lakh inputs.
workers and 40 lakh farm families. The Act
provides for the compulsory use of jute Reference: https://www.business-
packaging material in the supply and standard.com/article/economy-policy/raw-jute-msp-
distribution of certain commodities in the hiked-by-rs-250-to-rs-4-750-a-quintal-for-2022-23-
interests of production of raw jute and jute season-122032200642_1.html
packaging material, and of persons engaged in
the production thereof, and for matters
connected therewith. As the jute sector Q.15) Ans: A
provides direct employment to 3.70 lakh Exp:
workers in the country and supports the ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Disinflation is defined
livelihood of around 40 lakh farm families, as a decrease in the rate of inflation over a
e
closure of the mills is a direct blow to workers period of time. Simply put, when inflation is
n
and indirectly, to the farmers whose slowing it is called Disinflation. It is used to
li
production is used in the mills. West Bengal, describe situations where the inflation rate has
Bihar and Assam account for almost 99% of decreased marginally over a short period of
n
India’s total production time. Disinflation is the rate of change in the rate
o
● Statement 2 is correct : The revolution of inflation, as opposed to inflation and
l.
launched in 1986- 1987 to increase the deflation, which refer to the direction of prices.A
a
production of edible oil, especially mustard moderate amount of disinflation is required to

ri
and sesame seeds to achieve self-reliance is keep the economy from

known as the Yellow Revolution. Sam Pitroda overheating.Disinflation is a good thing,
te
is Known as the father of the Yellow Revolution especially in a growing economy. For many
in India. Yellow Revolution targets nine developing economies, high inflation is a
a
oilseeds that are groundnut, mustard, problem. For them, managing price levels
m
soybean, safflower, sesame, sunflower, niger, equates to managing inflation. Disinflation is a

c
linseed, and castor.To ensure the success of positive trend for developing economies like
the yellow revolution India launched Oil India, as it is a way out of a high-inflation
s
Technological Mission in 1986. The Yellow position.Deflation is a decrease in general price

p
revolution had the implantation of hybrid levels throughout an economy.Deflation, which

.u
mustard and sesame seeds which significantly is the opposite of inflation, is mainly caused by
increased the production of edible oil which shifts in supply and demand.Deflation slows
w
was also due to the use of improved down economic growth. It normally takes place
w
technology for oil production. The Revolution during times of economic uncertainty when the
marked the beginning of an entirely new era demand for goods and services is lower, along
w
with floating sunflowers in fields of Punjab, with higher levels of unemployment.
DPP 2023 DAY 174 23


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● Statement 2 is correct: Deflation refers to fall of spend, implying a fall in the money supply in the
prices. It may seem like a good thing, but in economy.
reality no economy wants deflation. Deflation
usually accompanies economic slowdowns,
lower productivity and loss of jobs. Inflation Q.17) Ans: A
decreases the value of money, deflation Exp:
increases its value. This incentivises people to • The Phillips curve is an economic concept
save money now, to buy later when things developed by A. W. Phillips. It states that inflation
become cheaper. And this economic behaviour and unemployment have a stable and inverse
leads to further slowing of growth. During relationship. The theory claims that with economic
deflation, the value of money increases and growth comes inflation, which in turn should lead
goods become cheaper. However, your earnings to more jobs and less unemployment. The Phillips
could reduce due to the economic slowdown.A curve states that inflation and unemployment have
positive impact of deflation could be increased an inverse relationship. Higher inflation is
export competitiveness, if most other associated with lower unemployment and vice
economies are experiencing inflation. versa. Understanding the Phillips curve in light of
consumer and worker expectations, shows that the
relationship between inflation and unemployment
Q.16) Ans: D may not hold in the long run, or even potentially in
Exp: the short run.
• Option 1 is correct: Disinflation is a term that • The Laffer Curve states that if tax rates are
e
describes a temporary slowing of price inflation. It increased above a certain level, then tax revenues
n
is used to describe situations where the inflation can actually fall because higher tax rates
li
rate has decreased marginally over a short period discourage people from working. The Curve was
of time. Disinflation can be caused by a drop in developed by economist Arthur Laffer to show the
n
money supply. This can be either by the relationship between tax rates and the amount of
o
government following tighter money policy (fiscal tax revenue collected by governments. Laffer
l.
constraint) or the Reserve Bank of India following Curve states that cutting taxes could, in theory,
a
contractionary monetary policy. lead to higher tax revenues.

ri
• Option 2 is correct: During a recession, company • The Lorenz curve is a way of showing the
competition for customers becomes more severe,
te
distribution of income (or wealth) within an

and retailers are unable to pass on higher prices to economy. It was developed by Max O. Lorenz in
a
their customers. The fundamental reason is that 1905 for representing wealth distribution. The
when the central bank implements a tight Lorenz curve shows the cumulative share of
m
monetary policy, accessing money becomes more income from different sections of the population.
c
expensive, lowering the demand for products and The Lorenz Curve can be used to calculate the Gini
services in the economy. Despite the fact that
s
coefficient – another measure of inequality.

demand for commodities has decreased, supply • The Kuznets Curve is used to demonstrate the
p
has remained unchanged. As a result, prices fall hypothesis that economic growth initially leads to
.u
over time, resulting in disinflation. greater inequality, followed later by the reduction
w
• Option 3 is correct: If unemployment rises faster of inequality. As economic growth comes from the
than the natural rate of growth, the rate of creation of better products, it usually boosts the
w
inflation falls, resulting in disinflation. This occurs income of workers and investors who participate in
because unemployed people have less money to the first wave of innovation. The industrialisation
w
of an agrarian economy is a common example. This
DPP 2023 DAY 174 24


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
inequality, however, tends to be temporary as Exp:

workers and investors who were initially left • Statement 1 is correct: Inflation Targeting is a
behind soon catch up by helping offer either the central banking policy that revolves around
same or better products. This improves their adjusting monetary policy to achieve a specified
incomes. annual rate of inflation. Its principle is based on the
belief that long-term economic growth is best
achieved by maintaining price stability, which is
Q.18) Ans: A achieved by controlling inflation.
Exp: • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Monetary Policy
• Option 1 is correct: Inflation could lead to Committee (MPC) is a statutory and
economic growth as it can be a sign of rising institutionalized framework under the RBI Act,
demand. Inflation could further lead to an increase 1934, for maintaining price stability, while keeping
in costs due to workers' demand to increase wages in mind the objective of growth. It was created in
to meet inflation. This might increase 2016. It was created to bring transparency and
unemployment as companies will have to lay off accountability in deciding monetary policy. MPC
workers to keep up with the costs. determines the policy interest rate required to
• Option 2 is incorrect: Currency depreciation leads achieve the inflation target. Committee comprises
to a decline in the value of a currency making six members where Governor RBI acts as an ex-
exports more competitive(beneficial) and imports officio chairman. Three members are from RBI and
more expensive(harmful).If a country has a higher three are selected by the government.
inflation rate than its competitors, then it's good • Statement 3 is incorrect: There is a flexible
e
will be increasing in price at a faster rate and inflation targeting framework in India (after the
n
therefore, they will become relatively less 2016 amendment to the Reserve Bank of India
li
competitive. (RBI) Act, 1934).The amended RBI Act provides for
• Option 3 is correct: Inflation tends to depreciate a the inflation target to be set by the Government of
n
currency since inflation can be equated with a India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once
o
decrease in a money's buying power. As a result, every five years. The government has kept the
l.
countries experiencing high inflation tend to also inflation-targeting framework (4%, with a
a
see their currencies weaken relative to other tolerance band of +/- 2 percentage points) for the
ri
currencies. Currency depreciation is when a RBI unchanged for the five-year period beginning 1
te
currency falls in value compared to other April 2021.

currencies. Domestic products might become less
a
competitive if inflation within the country is higher.

It can weaken the currency of the country. Q.20) Ans: C
m
• Option 4 is incorrect: One important redistribution Exp:

c
of income and wealth that occurs during • Option 1 is correct: Repo rate is used by
s
unanticipated inflation is the redistribution monetary authorities to control inflation. In

between debtors and creditors. Inflation lowers the event of inflation, central banks increase
p
the real value of nominal assets and liabilities and repo rate as this acts as a disincentive for banks
.u
thereby redistributes wealth from to borrow from the central bank. This
w
lenders(Creditors) to borrowers(Debtors).lenders ultimately reduces the money supply in the

suffer and borrowers benefit out of inflation. economy and thus helps in arresting
w
inflation.When the cash reserve ratio is

minimised, commercial banks will have more
w
Q.19) Ans: B funds and hence, the money supply of the
DPP 2023 DAY 174 25


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
banking system will increase. When there is a and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and
rise in the money supply, excessive funds will Industry, is the WPI's Nodal Office for
result in high inflation. So increasing the cash compilation and release. WPI data is released
reserve ratio will result in lower inflation. on a monthly basis. It gives estimates of inflation
• Option 2 is correct: The money supply is for the entire economy at the wholesale
important because if the money supply grows transaction level. This enables the government
at a faster rate than the economy's ability to to intervene quickly to control inflation,
produce goods and services, then inflation will particularly inflation in vital goods before the
result. Also, a money supply that does not price increase reaches retail prices.
grow fast enough can lead to decreases in ● Statement 3 is incorrect: Wholesale
production, leading to increases in Price Index (WPI) and Consumer Price
unemployment. Therefore, increasing the Index (CPI) are two commonly used
money supply faster than the growth in real measures that are effective in
output will cause inflation. If inflation heats up, determining the inflation in the
raising interest rates or restricting the money country.WPI tracks inflation at the
supply are both contractionary monetary producer level and CPI captures
policies designed to lower inflation. changes in prices levels at the
• Option 3 is incorrect: Higher Income Tax rates consumer level. WPI does not capture
can reduce spending, hence resulting in lesser changes in the prices of services, which
demand and inflationary pressures.The tax CPI does. In WPI, more weightage is
increase lowers demand by lowering given to manufactured goods, while in
e
disposable income.The excessive purchasing CPI, more weightage is given to food
n
power during inflation can be mopped up from items.
li
the community through increased direct taxes.
Option 4 is correct: Introducing policies to Q.22) Ans: A
n
•
increase the efficiency and competitiveness of Exp: o
the economy helps in reducing the long term Option 1 is correct: Cost-push inflation is a
l.
costs and lower inflation further.When it purported type of inflation caused by increases
a
comes to long-term investments, spending in the cost of important goods or services where
ri
money now for investments can allow you to no suitable alternative is available. As businesses
face higher prices for underlying inputs, they are
te
benefit from inflation in the future.

forced to increase prices of their outputs. Crude
oil is a major economic input, so a rise in oil
a
Q.21) Ans: B
Exp: prices contributes to inflation, which measures
m
Statement 1 is incorrect: The wholesale price index is the overall rate of price increases across the
c
an index that measures and tracks the changes in the economy.Higher oil prices contribute to
inflation directly and by increasing the cost of
s
price of goods in the stages before the retail level.WPI

calculates the market price paid by manufacturers and inputs indirectly in different sectors.
p
wholesalers.WPI's current base year is 2011-12. WPI Option 2 is correct: Cost-push inflation is caused
.u
includes three components viz,Manufactured by increases in costs of production, such as raw

materials or wages.Cost-push inflation can
w
products - 64.2%
○ Primary articles - 22.6% occur when higher costs of production decrease
w
○ Fuel and power - 13.1% the aggregate supply (the amount of total
Statement 2 is correct: The Office of Economic production) in the economy. Low growth in the
w
Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry agricultural sector leads to decrease in supply
DPP 2023 DAY 174 26


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
and increases pressure on other sectors that are ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Currently, the wet-
dependent on it. Cost-push inflation is caused bulb temperatures in India rarely exceed 31
due to various reasons such as: degrees C, with most of the country
➢ Increase in price of inputs experiencing maximum wet-bulb
➢ Hoarding and Speculation of commodities temperatures of 25-30 degrees C," said the
➢ Defective Supply chain IPCC Report. The report refers to wet-bulb
➢ Increase in indirect taxes temperature, which accounts for both heat
➢ Depreciation of Currency and humidity, unlike conventional
➢ Crude oil price fluctuation
temperature measurements. It illustrates the
implications of that combination on the
➢ Defective food supply chain
human body's ability to cool down. The term
➢ Low growth of Agricultural sector
"wet bulb" refers to a measurement method in
➢ Food Inflation
which a wet cloth is wrapped around the end
➢ Interest rates increased by RBI
of a thermometer to see how much
Option 3 is incorrect: An indirect tax is a tax on
evaporation can lower the temperature. A
spending such as VAT and excise duty.An
wet-bulb temperature of 31 degrees Celsius is
increase in these types of taxes increases costs
exceedingly harmful to humans, while a
to producers. Since the demand for goods hasn't
temperature of 35 degrees is unsurvivable for
changed, the price increases from production
more than six hours, even for fit and healthy
are passed onto consumers creating cost-push
individuals sitting in the shade. Even at lower
inflation. Indirect taxes make the distribution of
temperatures, the heat can be fatal, especially
income more unequal because of their
e
for the elderly, children, and anyone
regressive effects. The poor will get taxed a
n
performing rigorous physical labour.
higher proportion of their income than the rich,
li
● Statement 3 is correct: The Paris Agreement,
making it a regressive tax. Higher indirect taxes
negotiated on the basis of the Fifth
n
can cause cost-push inflation which can lead to a
Assessment Report, seeks to keep the rise in
o
rise in inflation expectations.
global temperatures “well below” 2°C from the
l.
pre-industrial times, while “pursuing efforts”
Q.23) Ans: B
a
to limit it to 1.5°C. The Sixth Assessment

Exp:
ri
Report, however, has presented lots of

● Statement 1 is correct: The IPCC
evidence to suggest that pursuing a 2°C target
te
(Intergovernmental Panel on Climate

could be disastrous and more ambitious
Change)’s Sixth Assessment Report, for the
actions need to be taken to keep the
a
first time, made an assessment of regional and

temperature rise within 1.5°C.
m
sectoral impacts of climate change. It has

included risks to, and vulnerabilities of, mega-
c
Reference:
cities around the world. Also, for the first time,
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/intergov
s
the IPCC Report has looked at the health

ernmental-panel-on-climate-change-report-global-
p
impacts of climate change. It has found that

warming-7795268/
.u
climate change is increasing vector-borne and

https://www.ipcc.ch/assessment-report/ar6/
water-borne diseases, such as malaria or
w
dengue, particularly in the sub-tropical regions

Q.24) Ans: C
of Asia. The IPCC Reports form the scientific
w
Exp:
basis, on which the countries across the world
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The forest (,
w
build their policy responses to climate change.

conservation) act, 1980 is an act of the
DPP 2023 DAY 174 27


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
parliament of india to provide for the ● Statement 2 is incorrect: The manufacture,

conservation of the forests and for the matters import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of
connected therewith or ancillary or incidental following single-use plastic, including
thereto. Section 2 of the Act have the polystyrene and expanded polystyrene,
provision about the restriction on the State commodities shall be prohibited with effect
Government for de-reservation of the forests. from the 1st July, 2022:-
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Also section 2 of the 1. earbuds with plastic sticks, plastic sticks for
Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 prohibits the balloons, plastic flags, candy sticks, ice-cream
state government on use of the forest land for sticks, polystyrene [Thermocol] for decoration;
non-forest purpose. 2. plates, cups, glasses, cutlery such as forks,
● Statement 3 is correct: Section 3 of the Act spoons, knives, straw, trays, wrapping or
deals with the constitution of the Advisory packaging films around sweet boxes, invitation
Committee. It gives the Central Government cards, and cigarette packets, plastic or PVC
the power to constitute a committee of such banners less than 100 micron, stirrers.
number of persons, as it may deem fit, to ● Statement 3 is correct: The Central Pollution
advise the Government with regard to: (i) the Control Board, in collaboration with the State
grant of approval for the purpose which is Pollution Control Boards / Agencies, will
prohibited in the Section of this Act; or (ii) any monitor the ban, detect violators and levy fines
other matter connected with the conservation in accordance with the Environment
of the forests, which may be referred to it by (Protection) Act, 1986. In 1998, Sikkim
the Central Government. became the first Indian state to ban plastic
e
bags and target single-use plastic bottles.
n
Reference:
li
https://www.mondaq.com/india/trials-appeals- Reference:
compensation/1218464/supreme-court-clarifies-the- Shankar IAS Environment, Chapter 25,
n
meaning-of-forests-under-forest-conservation-act- https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/ban-
o
1980-makes-prior-approval-of-the-central- on-single-use-plastic-items-to-come-into-effect-from-
l.
government-mandatory-for-all-forest-lands july-1-101656415734757.html
a
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1642441/ https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID
ri
=1745433
te
Q.25) Ans: B
Exp:
a
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ministry has Q.26) Ans: B

m
notified the Plastic Waste Management Exp:

c
Amendment Rules, 2021, on 12th August 2021, ● Statement 1 is correct: Water (Prevention and
prohibiting identified single use plastic items, Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 defined terms
s
which have low utility and high littering like pollution, sewage effluent, trade effluent,
p
potential, from 1st July 2022.The Ministry of stream, and boards. It also defines water
.u
Environment, Forest and Climate Change has pollution and water quality standards.
also notified the Guidelines on the Extended ● The Water (Prevention and Control of
w
Producer Responsibility for plastic packaging Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974 to provide
w
vide Plastic Waste Management Amendment for the prevention and control of water
Rules, 2022, on 16th February, 2022. pollution, and for the maintaining or restoring
w
of wholesomeness of water in the country. The
DPP 2023 DAY 174 28


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Act was amended in 1988. The Water ● Statement 2 is correct: The purpose is to adopt
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act uniform international rules and procedures for
was enacted in 1977, to provide for the levy determining questions of liability and
and collection of a cess on water consumed by providing adequate compensation. The
persons operating and carrying on certain Convention covers leakage of that oil and
types of industrial activities. This cess is requires signatories to the Convention to have
collected with a view to augment the resources their ships appropriately insured against such
of the Central Board and the State Boards for leakages. The Convention was adopted to
the prevention and control of water pollution ensure that adequate, prompt, and effective
constituted under the Water (Prevention and compensation is available to persons who
Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. The Act was last suffer damage caused by spills of oil, when
amended in 2003. carried as fuel in ships' bunkers.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Act provides for
maintenance and restoration of quality of all Reference:
types of surface and groundwater. The Act https://www.imo.org/en/About/Conventions/Pages/I
prohibits the disposal of any poisonous, nternational-Convention-on-Civil-Liability-for-Bunker-
noxious, or polluting matter to the flow of Oil-Pollution-Damage-(BUNKER).aspx
water in a stream. However, dumping any
material into a stream for the purpose of
reclamation of land is not considered an Q.28) Ans: C
offense. Exp:
e
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act has the ● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Wildlife Crime
n
following objectives: To prevent and control Control Bureau is a statutory multi-
li
water pollution, To maintain or to restore the disciplinary body established by the
wholesomeness of water, To establish Boards Government of India under the Ministry of
n
for the prevention and control of water Environment, Forests and Climate Change, to
o
pollution. The Central Pollution Control Board curb organized wildlife crime in the country.
l.
and State Pollution Control Board to The Bureau has its headquarter in New Delhi
a
implement the work for the objectives of the and 5 regional offices at Delhi, Kolkata,
ri
Act. Mumbai, Chennai and Jabalpur.

● Statement 2 and statement 3 are correct:
te
Reference: Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is designated

https://cpcb.nic.in/water-pollution/ nodal agency for CITES related enforcement .
a
https://eco-intelligent.com/2019/08/31/water-act- Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, WCCB

m
1974-an-overview/ is mandated to
c
1. collect and collate intelligence related to

Q.27) Ans: B organized wildlife crime;
s
Exp: 2. disseminate the same to State and other

p
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The International enforcement agencies so as to apprehend the

.u
Convention on Civil Liability for Bunker Oil criminals;

Pollution Damage (BUNKER) is an international 3. to establish a centralized wildlife crime data
w
treaty listed and administered by the bank;

w
International Maritime Organization, 4. to coordinate actions by various agencies in

enforced from 2008. connection with the enforcement of the
w
provisions of the Act; assist international
DPP 2023 DAY 174 29


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
organizations & foreign authorities to facilitate conventions and other multilateral

wildlife crime control; environmental agreements, and that their role
5. capacity building of the wildlife crime should be clearly reflected in the post-2020
enforcement agencies; global biodiversity framework
6. assist State Governments to ensure success in
prosecutions related to wildlife crimes; and Reference:
7. advise the Government of India on issues https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID
relating to wildlife crimes. =1602644
https://www.cms.int
Reference:
http://wccb.gov.in/index.aspx
Q.30) Ans: D
Exp:
Q.29) Ans: B ● Statement 1 is correct: Ministry of
Exp: Environment, Forest and Climate Change has
● Statement 1 is correct: The Convention on the notified the Guidelines on Extended Producers
Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Responsibility on plastic packaging under
Animals (CMS) or the Bonn Convention is an Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016. The
environmental treaty of the UNEP: The United guidelines on extended producer responsibility
Nations Environment Programme). It provides coupled with prohibition of identified single
a global platform for the conservation and use plastic items, which have low utility and
e
sustainable use of terrestrial, aquatic and avian high littering potential, with effect from 1st
n
migratory animals and their habitats. July 2022, are important steps for reducing
li
● Statement 2 is incorrect: India hosted the CMS pollution caused due to littered plastic waste
COP for the first time; India assumed the role in the country.
n
of CMS Presidency in 2020 for the next 3 years. o
The theme of the COP13 was, “Migratory Extended producer responsibility:
l.
species connect the planet and together we Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a
a
welcome them home!” policy approach under which producers are

ri
● Statement 3 is correct: COP13 concluded in given a significant responsibility – financial

Gandhinagar with the listing of total 10 and/or physical – for the treatment or disposal
te
migratory species of the world on Appendix I of post-consumer products.

and II of the Convention. Three of the species Assigning such responsibility could in principle
a
listed are from India – The Great Indian provide incentives to prevent wastes at the
m
Bustard; the Mainland Asian Elephant; and the source, promote product design for the
c
Bengal Florican. environment and support the achievement of

● The Gandhinagar Declaration emphasizes that public recycling and materials management
s
improvement of ecological connectivity is the goals.

p
top priority for the Convention on Migratory

.u
Species in the post-2020 global biodiversity ● Statement 2 is correct: The Guidelines provide
framework and that the role of the Convention a framework to strengthen the circular
w
body should be clearly reflected in the post- economy of plastic packaging waste, promote
w
2020 framework. The Declaration also development of new alternatives to plastics

recognizes the importance of synergies and and provide further next steps for moving
w
cooperation among biodiversity-related
DPP 2023 DAY 174 30


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
towards sustainable plastic packaging by https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID

businesses. =1799170
Reuse of rigid plastic packaging material has
been mandated in the guidelines to reduce the
use of fresh plastic material for packaging. Q.31) Ans: A
Exp:
The enforceable prescription of minimum level ● Statement 1 is correct: The One Oceat summit
of recycling of plastic packaging waste was organised by France in Brest, France in
collected under EPR along with use of recycled cooperation with the United Nations and the
plastic content will further reduce plastic World Bank.The summit was addressed by
consumption and support recycling of plastic various other Heads of State and Governments
packaging waste. from countries like Germany, the United
The EPR guidelines will give a boost for Kingdom, South Korea, Japan, Canada among
formalization and further development of the others.
plastic waste management sector. In a ● Statement 3 is incorrect: The goal of the One
significant first, the guidelines allow for sale Ocean Summit is to raise the collective level of
and purchase of surplus extended producer ambition of the international community on
responsibility certificates, thus setting up a marine issues. The objective of the Summit is
market mechanism for plastic waste to mobilise the international community to
management. take tangible action towards preserving and
Hence statement 2 is correct. supporting healthy and sustainable ocean
e
ecosystems
n
● Statement 3 is correct: The implementation of 1. Commitments will be made towards
li
EPR will be done through a customized online combating illegal fishing, decarbonising
platform which will act as the digital backbone shipping and reducing plastic pollution.
n
of the system. 2. Will also focus on efforts to improve
o
The online platform will allow tracking and governance of the high seas and coordinating
l.
monitoring of EPR obligations. international scientific research.
a
The Guidelines prescribe a framework for levy 3. The coalition gathers parties which are
ri
of environmental compensation based upon committed, at the highest political level, to

polluter pays principle, with respect to non- achieve an ambitious outcome of the ongoing
te
fulfilment of extended producer responsibility negotiations on a Treaty of the High Seas (“the
targets by producers, importers & brand implementing agreement on Biodiversity
a
owners. The funds collected shall be utilized Beyond National Jurisdiction”), under the
m
for collection, recycling and end of life disposal auspices of the United Nations.
c
of uncollected plastic waste in an ● Statement 2 is incorrect: On the occasion of

environmentally sound manner. the One Ocean Summit taking place in the
s
These guidelines coupled with prohibition of French city of Brest, UNESCO has announced
p
identified single use plastic items, which have that at least 80% of the seabed will be mapped
.u
low utility and high littering potential are by 2030, compared to 20% currently, in
important steps for reducing pollution caused collaboration with other UN bodies and with
w
due to littered plastic waste in the country the support of its Member States and the
w
private sector. They consist of three axes:

Reference: 1. The mobilization of a fleet of 50 vessels
w
specially dedicated to seabed mapping.
DPP 2023 DAY 174 31


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
2. Intensifying the use of sonar on autonomous ● The World Meteorological

vessels. Organisation publishes an annual
3. The transmission by governments and report on the status of the World
corporations of cartographic data they have Climate.
already archived. Other reports published by the WMO are:
1. Status of World Climate
Reference: 2. Greenhouse Gas Bulletin
https://www.unesco.org/en/articles/one-ocean-
summit-unesco-pledges-have-least-80-seabed- ● Statement 2 is correct: The climate
mapped-2030 vulnerability atlas, based on 14 extreme
weather events and the risks they pose to the
local population, livelihoods and economy of
Q.32) Ans: B each district.
Exp: The atlas features extreme rainfall, drought,
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian coldwave, heatwave, dust storms, hail storm,
Meteorological Department (IMD) launched thunderstorm, cyclones, snowfall, lightning,
India’s 1st Climate Hazards and Vulnerability winds and fog. The hazards and vulnerability
Atlas. It is developed by the scientists at the values have been calculated utilising the Met
Climate Research and Services (CRS) office of department’s historical climate data. Each
the India Meteorological Department (IMD), weather phenomenon’s month-wise hazard
Pune. levels posed to the respective district has been
e
enlisted in this one-of-its-kind atlas.
n
World Meteorological Organization: The atlas provides a range of vulnerability with
li
● The World Meteorological risks ranging from nil, low, moderate, high and
Organization (WMO) is a specialized very high categories for every Indian district.
n
agency of the United Nations Climate vulnerability maps are prepared based
o
responsible for promoting on the disaster data from the annual
l.
international cooperation on publication of India Meteorological
a
atmospheric science, climatology, Department “Annual Disastrous Weather

ri
hydrology and geophysics. Reports” for the climate hazardous events that
● The WMO originated from the cause casualties in terms of death and other
te
International Meteorological losses.

Organization, a nongovernmental
a
organization founded in 1873 as a ● Statement 3 is incorrect: IMD has now

m
forum for exchanging weather data prepared a Web version of Climate Hazards
c
and research. and Vulnerability Atlas of India for the thirteen

● The WMO is made up of 193 countries most hazardous meteorological events, viz.
s
and territories, and facilitates the "free Cold wave, Heat Wave, Flood, Lightning,
p
and unrestricted" exchange of data, Snowfall, Dust Storm, Hail Storm,

.u
information, and research between Thunderstorm, Fog, Strong winds, Extreme

the respective meteorological and rainfall, Drought and Cyclone that cause loss of
w
hydrological institutions of its life, injury or other health impacts, property

w
members. damage, loss of livelihoods and services, social

and economic disruption or environmental
w
damage. The web Atlas is depicted using
DPP 2023 DAY 174 32


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Geographic Information System (GIS) tools and to adapt to the impacts of climate change, was
not Global Positioning System (GPS) tools. discussed and it's not related to protection of
Hence statement 3 is incorrect. endangered species.
Reference: Additional info

https://reliefweb.int/report/india/climate-hazards- Additional work streams included those
and-vulnerability-atlas-india focusing on the gender action plan, the
Koronivia joint work on agriculture and Action
https://www.google.com/amp/s/indianexpress.com/a for Climate Empowerment, which focuses on
rticle/cities/pune/imd-launches-indias-1st-weather- public involvement in climate action.
hazard-and-vulnerability-atlas-7723913/lite/ Vulture Protection Programs:
National:
Q.33) Ans: A 1. The Ministry of Environment, Forests and

Exp: Climate Change (MoEFCC) launched a Vulture
● Statement 1 is correct: The Bonn Climate Action Plan 2020-25 for the conservation of
Change Conference has been the first vultures in the country.
opportunity for all Parties to the UNFCCC to 2. The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) and Bombay
meet since the adoption of the Glasgow Natural History Society (BNHS) also established
Climate Pact at COP26 last year (2021). In the Vulture Conservation Breeding
Glasgow, governments agreed a package of Programme.
e
decisions that paved the way for full 3. A Vulture Care Centre (VCC) was set up at
n
implementation of the Paris Agreement. Pinjore, Haryana in 2001 to study the cause of
li
The UN Climate Change Conference COP27 will deaths of vultures in India.
take place in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt, in The Jatayu Conservation Breeding Centre in
n
November 2022. Pinjore is the world’s largest facility within the
o
Major outcomes of the conference: First state’s Bir Shikargah Wildlife Sanctuary for the
l.
technical dialogue of the Global Stocktake, breeding and conservation of Indian vulture
a
designed to review collective progress towards species.

ri
achieving the Paris Agreement’s goal to limit

global warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius. The International:
te
Global Stocktake is a fundamental component 4. SAVE (Saving Asia’s Vultures from Extinction)
of the Paris Agreement which is used to The consortium of like-minded, regional and
a
monitor its implementation and evaluate the international organizations, created to oversee
m
collective progress made in achieving the and coordinate conservation, campaigning and
c
agreed goals. The Global Stocktake thus links fundraising activities to help the plight of south
implementation of nationally determined Asia’s vultures.
s
contributions (NDCs) with the overarching

p
goals of the Paris Agreement, and has the Reference :

.u
ultimate aim of raising climate ambition. https://unfccc.int/news/bonn-climate-change-

conference-makes-progress-in-several-technical-
w
● Statement 2 is incorrect: “Global Goal on areas-but-much-work-remains

w
Adaptation” (GGA), which aims to reduce

vulnerability, strengthen resilience and
w
increase the capacity of people and the planet Q.34) Ans: C
DPP 2023 DAY 174 33


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Exp: Depleting Substances as per the Montreal

● Statement 1 is incorrect: Ozone (O3) layer is a Protocol Schedule
high ozone concentration region in the Other initiative
stratosphere, protecting life on earth by Vienna Convention on Protection of Ozone
absorbing harmful ultraviolet radiations from Layer 1985, for the promotion of research and
the Sun. Thinning of the ozone layer was monitoring of human activities on the ozone
confirmed in 1985 through the formation of layer.
the ozone hole over the Antarctic during the In 1987, the Montreal Protocol was adopted to
Southern Hemisphere spring. protect the ozone layer by phasing out the
All-season ozone hole is defined as an area of chemicals which deplete it
ozone loss larger than 25% compared with the
undisturbed atmosphere. Scientists revealed a Reference:
large, all-season ozone hole in the lower https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1746
stratosphere over the tropics comparable in- 946
depth to that of the Antarctic hole, but roughly
seven times greater in area.
Q.35) Ans: D
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Paris Agreement to Exp:
mitigate climate change was followed by ● Statement 1 is incorrect : Indian Elephant is an
another major global agreement – Kigali endangered species and it is protected under
Agreement. the prestigious Project Elephant programme.
e
In the 28th meeting of the Parties to the India is home to 55% of the Asian elephant
n
Montreal Protocol, negotiators from 197 population.The South Indian states of
li
nations have signed a historic agreement to Karnataka, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil
amend the Montreal Protocol in Kigali, a Nadu are home to nearly 44% of the elephants
n
capital city of a tiny African country, Rwanda in India. Out of these, the state of Karnataka
o
on 15th October 2016. alone is home to 22% of the elephants in
l.
As per the agreement, these countries are India.The North-eastern states of Assam,
a
expected to reduce the manufacture and use Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Meghalaya, and
ri
of Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by roughly 80- Tripura along with West Bengal account for
85% from their respective baselines, till 2045. 30% of the elephants. Project Elephant was
te
This phase down is expected to arrest the launched in 1992 by the Government of India
global average temperature rise up to 0.5o C Ministry of Environment and Forests for the
a
by 2100. The Kigali agreement is an protection of elephants, their habitats and

m
amendment to the Montreal Protocol. It has corridors.

c
divided the signatory parties into three groups- ● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ministry of
India will complete its phase down of HFCs in Environment, Forest and Climate Change
s
4 steps from 2032 onwards with cumulative provides financial and technical support to
p
reduction of 10% in 2032, 20% in 2037, 30% in wildlife management efforts by states for their
.u
2042 and 85% in 2047. India became a Party to free-ranging populations of wild Asian
the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Elephants. The project aims to ensure the long-
w
Deplete the Ozone Layer on 19 June 1992 and term survival of the population of elephants in
w
since then has ratified the amendments to the their natural habitats by protecting them, their
Montreal Protocol. India has successfully met habitats and migration corridors. Project
w
the phase out targets of all the Ozone elephant is mainly implemented in 16 States /
DPP 2023 DAY 174 34


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
UTs, which includes Andhra Pradesh, It coordinates and oversees the sourcing and
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Jharkhand, Kerala, compilation of bathymetric data from different
Nagaland, Meghalaya, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, parts of the world’s ocean.
Uttar Pradesh, Orissa, Uttaranchal West 1. The Nippon Foundation of Japan is a
Bengal Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh. non-profit philanthropic organisation
active around the world.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Recently, the 2. GEBCO is an international group of
Government of India has announced the mapping experts developing a range of
notification of one more Elephant Reserve (ER) bathymetric data sets and data
Agasthyamalai in TamilNadu during a products. It operates under the joint
programme in the Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary in auspices of the International
Kerala. This will be the 31st Elephant Reserve Hydrographic Organization (IHO) and
in the country after Singphan Elephant Reserve UNESCO's Intergovernmental
(30th)in Nagaland was notified in 2018. Oceanographic Commission (IOC).
● Elephant Reserve in Jharkhand: The ● Statement 2 is incorrect: The project aims to

Singhbhum Elephant Reserve, the first bring together all available bathymetric data to
Elephant Reserve of the Country, was created produce the definitive map of the world ocean
in 2001 under the Project Elephant, comprising floor by 2030 and make it available to all.Hence
an area of 13,440 Sq. Km. in East and West it's not for restricted use.
Singhbhum and Saraikela-Kharsawan Districts
e
(old Singhbhum District) for scientific and ● Statement 3 is correct: Importance of the
n
planned management aimed at conservation Study of the Ocean Floor:
li
of Elephant habitats and viable population of 1. Helps in understanding several natural
wild Asiatic Elephants in Jharkhand. phenomena, including ocean circulation, tides
n
and biological hotspots. o
References: 2. Provides key inputs for navigation, forecasting
l.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife- disasters, exploration for oil and gas projects,
a
biodiversity/centre-notifies-india-s-31st-elephant- building offshore wind turbines, fishing

ri
reserve-in-tamil-nadu-84306 resources, and for laying cables and pipelines.

3. Ensure a better understanding of climate
te
change.
Q.36) Ans: D 4. Climate change has impacted the flow of ocean
a
Exp: currents and has led to sea-level rise.

m
● Statement 1 is correct: The global initiative is a

c
collaboration between Japan’s non-profit Reference:

Nippon Foundation and the General https://seabed2030.org/about-
s
Bathymetric Chart of the Oceans (GEBCO). It is us#:~:text=Seabed%202030%20is%20a%20collaborati

p
the only intergovernmental organisation with ve,make%20it%20available%20to%20all.

.u
a mandate to map the entire ocean floor. The

project was launched at the UN Ocean
w
Conference in 2017, and is aligned with the Q.37) Ans: C

w
UN's Sustainable Development Goal #14 to Exp:

conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas ● Statement 1 is correct: The 5-day UN Ocean
w
and marine resources. Conference took off today with the
DPP 2023 DAY 174 35


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Governments of Kenya and Portugal being the Exp:

co-hosts. Leaders from over 130 countries ● India – as a party to the international
from across the world will deliberate for five Convention on Biological Diversity – recently
days to find an international agreement on expressed its support for a global target known
protecting the world’s oceans, seas and marine colloquially as ’30×30′. Its aim is to protect and
resources. conserve 30% of the world’s terrestrial,
The UN Ocean conference 2022 is aligned to freshwater, coastal and marine ecosystems. By
SDG (Sustainable Development Goals) 14 'life meeting the target, India could also protect its
below water' and stresses on the critical need marine biodiversity, provide food and water
for scientific knowledge and marine security, and promote community-led climate
technology to build ocean resilience. adaptation governance.
30 × 30′ is a global target, which means that
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ministry of Earth parties to the Convention on Biological
Sciences led the Indian delegation at the UN Diversity together, have to protect 30% of the
Ocean Conference not The Ministry of world’s land and sea.
Environment Forest and Climate Change. India Under the global target each country will be
promised to provide science and innovation- left to determine the percentage of its own
based solutions for the implementation of Goal geographical areas that it will allocate towards
14 through partnerships and environmentally meeting this target.
friendly. Areas that will be counted include
area-based conservation measures like marine
e
The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is protected areas and other effective area-based
n
mandated to provide services for weather, conservation measures (OECMs) that are
li
climate, ocean and coastal state, hydrology, established in territorial waters; the EEZ of
seismology, and natural hazards; to explore each country; and parts of the high seas (i.e.,
n
and harness marine living and non-living waters beyond national jurisdiction).
o
resources in a sustainable way and to explore
l.
the three poles (Arctic, Antarctic and Reference:
a
Himalayas). https://science.thewire.in/politics/rights/30x30-
ri
target-india-marine-protected-areas-biodiversity-
● Statement 3 is correct: UN Secretary-General climate-resilience/
te
Antonio Guterres had declared an “ocean

emergency” at the UN Ocean Conference in
a
Lisbon, Portugal, citing threats to the world’s Q.39) Ans: D

m
oceans. Exp:
c
Threats to the oceans include global warming, ● Statement 1 is correct: Protection of Plant
pollution (including plastic pollution), Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001 Act was
s
acidification, marine Heatwaves etc. enacted in 2001 under Article 27(3) (b) of the
p
Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of

.u
Reference: Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1837 The act is in conformity with the International
w
127 Union for the Protection of New Varieties of

w
Plants (UPOV), 1978.

UPOV is an intergovernmental organization, to
w
Q.38) Ans: A provide and promote an effective system of
DPP 2023 DAY 174 36


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
plant variety protection, with the aim of Management Rules, 2016 by adding a second
encouraging the development of new varieties amendment named Plastic Waste
of plants, for the benefit of society Management (Second Amendment) Rules,
2022. The Rules have added some new
● Statement 2 is correct: The Act introduced definitions, such as, biodegradable plastics,
intellectual property protection in Indian end of life disposal, plastic packaging, Plastic
agriculture and is the world’s only IPR Waste Processors, pre-consumer plastic
legislation which grants intellectual property packaging waste, post-consumer plastic
rights not only to the plant breeders but also to packaging waste, recyclers, waste to energy
the farmers. etc.
● Statement 3 is correct: ● Statement 2 is incorrect: The phasing out

Researchers’ Rights single-use plastic items from July 1 include
1. Can use any of the registered varieties under wrapping or packaging films around sweet
the Act for conducting experiment or research. boxes, invitation cards, and cigarette packets,
2. This includes the use of a variety as an initial plastic or PVC banners of less than 100-micron
source of variety for the purpose of developing thickness, stirrers, plastic cutlery, straws,
another variety but repeated use needs prior plastic sticks for balloons and earbuds etc.
permission of the registered breeder.
Other rights under this act Reference:
1. Breeders Rights https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.hindustantime
e
Exclusive rights to produce, sell, market, s.com/india-news/environment-ministry-issues-
n
distribute, import or export the protected/ plastic-waste-management-rules-101657795556481-
li
registered variety. amp.html
Can appoint agent/ licensee and may exercise https://www.scconline.com/blog/post/2022/07/21/us
n
civil remedy in case of infringement of rights. e-of-biodegradable-plastic-has-been-introduced-vide-
o
2. Farmers Rights plastic-waste-management-second-amendment-rules-
l.
A farmer who has evolved or developed a new 2022/
a
variety is entitled for registration and

ri
protection in like manner as a breeder of a Q.41) Ans: C

variety Exp:
te
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Food and Land

References: Use Coalition (FOLU) is a self-governed
a
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j community of more than 60 organizations and

m
&url=https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/policies-and- individuals committed to transforming food

c
schemes/crops-related/protection-of-plant-varieties- and land use for people, nature and climate.

and-rights-of-farmers/protection-of-plant-varieties- The Coalition promotes science-based
s
and-farmers-rights-act-2001&ved solutions to unlock collective, ambitious action

p
that will ensure food and land use systems play

.u
their part in delivering the Sustainable

Q.40) And: A Development Goals (SDGs) and achieving Paris
w
Exp: Agreement targets.

w
● Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of World Research Institute is the secretariat, as

Environment, Forest and Climate Change well as founding member and core partner, of
w
further amended the Plastics Waste Food and Land Use Coalition.
DPP 2023 DAY 174 37


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
However, the Food and Agriculture Goals (SDGs) and the Paris Agreement,
Organization is not related to this coalition. help mitigate the negative effects of
But The Food Coalition is managed in FAO as an climate change, safeguard
“Umbrella Programme” to respond quickly to biodiversity, ensure more healthy
needs and priorities and to deliver in a more diets for all, drastically improve food
agile manner the different contributions security and create more inclusive
received, in line with an overall Programmatic rural economies.
Results Framework developed along the five
Pillars ie Reference:
1. Response to and recovery from global crises . https://www.wri.org/initiatives/food-and-land-use-
2. Advocacy for solutions coalition
3. Support and follow-up to G20 Matera
Declaration
4. Longer-term solutions – developed to
transform agrifood systems Q.42) Ans: A
5. Knowledge sharing and transfer of Exp:
experts/expertise ● The Biodiversity Intactness Index (BII)
summarises the change in ecological
● Statement 2 is correct: The Coalition has also communities in response to human pressures.
partnered with a number of global initiatives, The BII is an estimated percentage of the
including: Food Systems Dialogues; original number of species that remain and
e
Nature4Climate; A Just Rural Transition; the their abundance in any given area, despite
n
United Nations Food Systems Summit; and The human impacts.
li
Food Systems Economics Commission. ● The BII is averaged across areas
Together, FOLU and its partners scale solutions (countries, regions or global) to give
n
already in existence and find innovative new the remaining biodiversity across that
o
ones. area.
l.
Hence statement 2 is correct. ● The PREDICTS (Projecting Responses of
a
Ecological Diversity In Changing

ri
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The State of Food and Terrestrial Systems) project calculates
Agriculture, one of FAO's major annual flagship the BII using data from ecological
te
publications, aims at bringing to a wider studies conducted around the world.

audience balanced science-based assessments This data includes around 54,000
a
of important issues in the field of food and species, encompassing not only birds
m
agriculture. and mammals, the groups most often

c
Hence Statement 3 is incorrect. used in biodiversity indicators, but also

● Growing Better is a Report published plants, fungi and insects.
s
by the Food and Land Use Coalition. ● The BII is derived from combining two
p
The global report from the Food and models. The first model represents
.u
Land Use Coalition (FOLU) proposes a how human activity has influenced the
reform agenda – centred around ten total abundance of species in any one
w
critical transitions – of real actionable area. The second model analyses how
w
solutions. These could deliver the similar each site's ecological

needed change to boost progress community is to the near-undisturbed
w
towards the Sustainable Development sites (this is known as the
DPP 2023 DAY 174 38


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
compositional similarity and includes ordered, organized, classified and categorized

what original species are present and in some manner.”
what species are dominant
● Statement 3 is incorrect:
Reference: The Bill seeks to exempt registered AYUSH
https://www.nhm.ac.uk/our- medical practitioners and people accessing
science/data/biodiversity-indicators/about-the- codified traditional knowledge, among others,
biodiversity-intactness-index.html from giving prior intimation to State
biodiversity boards for accessing biological
resources for certain purposes.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Q.43) Ans: A
Exp: Reference:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Biological Diversity https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-biological-diversity-
Amendment Bill 2021 amends the Biological amendment-bill-2021
Diversity Act, 2002 to simplify compliance
requirements for domestic companies It also
allows for foreign investment in research in Q.44) Ans: C
biodiversity. However, this investment will Exp:
necessarily have to be made through Indian ● Statement 1 is correct: The World Urban
companies involved in biodiversity research. Forum was established in 2001 by the United
e
For foreign entities the approval from the Nations to examine one of the most pressing
n
National Biodiversity Authority is necessary. issues facing the world today: rapid
li
The amendments seek to decriminalise certain urbanisation and its impact on communities,
provisions and bring more foreign investments cities, economies, climate change and policies.
n
in the chain of biological resources, including The first WUF was held in Nairobi, Kenya in
o
research, patent and commercial utilisation, 2002 and has been held around the world ever
l.
without compromising the national interest. since. WUF11 is co-organized by UN-Habitat,
a
These changes were brought in consonance Poland’s Ministry of Development Funds and
ri
with India’s ratification of Nagoya Protocol Regional Policy and the Municipal Office of
(access to generic resources and the fair and Katowice.
te
equitable sharing of benefits arising from their The World Urban Forum is the premier global
utilisation) in 2012. conference on urbanization convened by the
a
United Nations Human Settlements

m
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The term codified Programme (UN-Habitat).

c
traditional knowledge has not been defined. A

broad interpretation might exempt all local ● Statement 2 is correct: The Eleventh Session of
s
traditional knowledge from benefit sharing the World Urban Forum (WUF11) took place in
p
requirements. The Bill removes the direct role Katowice, Poland from 26 to 30 June 2022. The
.u
of local communities in determining benefit theme of WUF11 is Transforming our Cities for
sharing provisions. Generally Codified a Better Urban Future. The transformation of
w
traditional knowledge is “traditional urban futures is at the heart of sustainable

w
knowledge which is in some systematic and development for this and future generations.
structured form, in which the knowledge is World Cities Report 2022: Envisaging the
w
Future of Cities seeks to provide greater clarity
DPP 2023 DAY 174 39


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
and insights into the future of cities based on ● Statement 2 is incorrect: On January 19, 2013,
existing trends, challenges and opportunities, following the fifth, and final, negotiating
as well as disruptive conditions, including the session (held in Geneva) the convention
valuable lessons from the COVID-19 pandemic, manuscript was agreed upon by 147 nations. It
and suggests ways that cities can be better was formally adopted on October 10, 2013,
prepared to address a wide range of shocks and 86 countries signed on the first day. Once
and transition to sustainable urban futures. this convention is ratified by 50 nations, the
World Cities Report 2022 – Envisaging the terms of the Minamata Treaty will enter into
Future of Cities said that the global urban effect. To date, 97 countries have signed the
population was back on track to grow by manuscript. India signed the Minamata
another 2.2 billion people by 2050. Convention in 2014 and ratified it in 2018.
● Statement 3 is correct: it develops practical

Additional info tools and notification and information-sharing
Un habitat systems for monitoring and managing trade in
The United Nations Human Settlements mercury.
Programme (UN-Habitat) is the United Nations Exchange experiences and practices relating to
programme for human settlements and combating illegal trade in mercury, including
sustainable urban development. It was reducing use of mercury in artisanal and small-
established in 1977 as an outcome of the first scale gold mining.
United Nations Conference on Human
e
Settlements and Sustainable Urban Additional info
n
Development (Habitat I) held in Vancouver, Mercury is considered by WHO as one of the
li
Canada, in 1976 top ten chemicals or groups of chemicals of
major public health
n
Reference: concern. It may have toxic effects on nervous,
o
digestive, and immune systems, lungs, kidneys,
l.
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j skin and eyes. India is the second-largest user
a
&url=https://wuf.unhabitat.org/wuf11&ved=2ahUKE of mercury in the world after the US.

ri
wj0xZCCzJn6AhUt-
DgGHYLrB6EQFnoECBUQAQ&usg=AOvVaw2Jf6p24BrV Reference:
te
Rm1J37WflaUw. https://enveurope.springeropen.com/articles/10.118
6/s12302-019-0280-3
a
m
Q.45) Ans: D
c
Exp: Q.46) Ans: B

● Statement 1 is incorrect: Minamata Exp:
s
Convention on Mercury, adopted in 2013 at ● Polar-Areas Stellar-Imaging in Polarisation

p
Geneva, is the world's first legally binding High-Accuracy Experiment (PASIPHAE) is an

.u
treaty to protect human health and international collaborative sky surveying

environment from adverse effects of mercury. project.
w
It is named after the city in Japan that became

w
the epicentre of Minamata disease, a About the PASIPHAE Survey:

neurological disease caused by severe mercury It is an opto polarimetric survey aiming to
w
poisoning, in the 1950s. measure the linear polarization from millions
DPP 2023 DAY 174 40


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
of stars. The survey will use two high-tech carotene, a precursor of vitamin A, in the
optical polarimeters to observe the northern edible parts of the rice. It is intended to
and southern skies, simultaneously. produce a fortified food to be grown and
The survey will be conducted concurrently consumed in areas with a shortage of dietary
from the South African Astronomical vitamin A.
Observatory in Sutherland, South Africa in the Vitamin A deficiency causes xerophthalmia, a
southern hemisphere, and the Skinakas range of eye conditions from night blindness to
Observatory in Crete, Greece, in the north. more severe clinical outcomes such as
It will focus on capturing starlight polarisation keratomalacia and corneal scars, and
of very faint stars that are so far away that permanent blindness. It also increases risk of
polarisation signals from there have not been mortality from measles and diarrhoea in
systematically studied. children. Hence Golden Rice was not
● Carrhotus tholpettyensis, the new species of developed to tackle Vitamin C but Vitamin A
spider was found from the moist deciduous deficiency.
forest of Tholpetty range of the wildlife ● Statement 2 is correct: Biofortification was
sanctuary in Western Ghats, a robust ranked fifth by the Expert Panel at Copenhagen
biodiversity hotspot. Consensus 2008. A diverse diet rich in
● Supercomputing in India began in 1980 when micronutrients is out of reach of many of the
the Indian government set up an indigenous world’s poor. Because foods that are high in
development programme as there were micronutrients such as vegetables, fruits,
several issues to procure supercomputers from dairy, and meats are expensive, resource‐poor
e
abroad. people rely primarily on a few starchy staples
n
The C-DAC mission released the “PARAM” that are rich in energy, but not in
li
series of the supercomputer, it was only in micronutrients. By enhancing the
2015 that the launch of the National micronutrient content of these energy‐rich
n
SuperComputing Mission boosted the Indian staples, micronutrient intakes in general, and
o
supercomputers. NSM announced a seven- among the poor in particular, can be increased.
l.
year programme worth Rs 4,500 crore to install The Copenhagen Consensus Centre is a think
a
73 indigenous supercomputers by 2022. As of tank that researches and publishes the

ri
November 2020, PARAM Siddhi-AI is the smartest solutions to the world's biggest
fastest supercomputer in India and 63rd in the problems.
te
TOP500 list. ● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Issues with the

Fortification of Rice:
a
Reference: 1. Inconclusive Evidence:

m
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explaine Evidence supporting fortification is

c
d-how-pasiphae-will-peep-into-the-unknown-regions- inconclusive and certainly not adequate before

of-the-sky-7357628/lite/ major national policies are rolled out.
s
p
2. Hypervitaminosis:
.u
According to some studies published in the

Q.47) Ans: B medical journal Lancet and in the American
w
Exp: Journal of Clinical Nutrition which show that

w
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Golden Rice is a both anaemia and Vitamin A deficiencies are
variety of rice (Oryza sativa) produced through overdiagnosed, meaning that mandatory
w
genetic engineering to biosynthesize beta- fortification could lead to hypervitaminosis.
DPP 2023 DAY 174 41


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Hypervitaminosis is a condition of abnormally among countries. The same product, for

high storage levels of vitamins, which can lead instance, can have a different level of quality
to various symptoms such as over excitement, and even safety in different countries, and may
irritability, or even toxicity. be subject to different taxes and transport
costs.
3. Toxicity: ● Statement 2 is Incorrect: The PPP exchange
Adding one or two synthetic chemical vitamins rate may not match the market exchange rate.
and minerals will not solve the larger problem, The market rate is more volatile because it
and in undernourished populations can lead to reacts to changes in demand at each location.
toxicity. Also, tariffs and differences in the price of
labour can contribute to longer term
4. Cartelisation: differences between the two rates. One use of
Mandatory fortification would harm the vast PPP is to predict longer term exchange rates.
informal economy of Indian farmers and food Because PPP exchange rates are more stable
processors including local oil and rice mills, and and are less affected by tariffs, they are used
instead benefit a small group of multinational for many international comparisons, such as
corporations who will have sway over a comparing countries' GDPs or other national
Rs.3,000 crore market. income statistics. These numbers often come
According to a report, iron-fortified rice with the label PPP-adjusted.
should no longer be distributed to address
Extra Edge by OnlyIAS
anaemia in places like Jharkhand. These states
e
contain large tribal populations with sickle cell
Additional Information on PPP: The
n
disease, thalassemia, and tuberculosis, all of
World Bank has released new
li
which can be exacerbated by an excess of iron.
Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) for
Reference:
n
reference year 2017, under
https://www.copenhagenconsensus.com/ o
International Comparison Program
https://www.irri.org/biofortification#:~:text=Biofortifi
(ICP), that adjust for differences in the
l.
cation%20of%20staple%20crops%20such,as%20fortifi
cost of living across economies of the
a
ed%20foods%20and%20supplementation.
World. Globally 176 economies
ri
participated in the 2017 cycle of ICP.

te
The International Comparison

Q.48) Ans: B
Program (ICP) is the largest worldwide
Exp:
a
data-collection initiative, under the

● Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The rate at
m
guidance of the UN Statistical

which the currency of one country would have
Commission (UNSC), with the goal of
c
to be converted into that of another country

producing Purchasing Power Parities
to buy the same amount of goods and services
s
(PPPs) which are vital for converting

in each country. . However there are
p
measures of economic activities to be

Drawbacks of PPP: The biggest one is that PPP
.u
comparable across economies. Along

is harder to measure than market-based rates.
with the PPPs, the ICP also produces
The ICP is a huge statistical undertaking, and
w
Price Level Indices (PLI) and other

new price comparisons are available only at
regionally comparable aggregates of
w
infrequent intervals. PPP exchange rates help

GDP expenditure.In 2017, India
with costing but exclude profits and above all
w
retained and consolidated its global

do not consider the different quality of goods
DPP 2023 DAY 174 42


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
country’s currency against each country within

position, as the third largest economy,
the index tells about the weightage of REER.
accounted for 6.7 percent ($8,051
billion out of World total of $119,547
billion) of global Gross Domestic
Q.50) Ans: D
Product (GDP) in terms of PPPs as
Exp:
against China (16.4%) and United
● Statement 1 is not correct : Gross Domestic
States (16.3%), respectively. India is
Product (GDP) and Gross National Product
also the third largest economy in
(GNP) are two of the most commonly used
terms of its PPP-based share in global
measures of a country's economy. Both
Actual Individual Consumption and
represent the total market value of all goods
Global Gross Capital Formation.
and services produced over a certain period.
However, they are calculated in slightly
different ways. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
measures the aggregate/total production of
final goods and services taking place within
the domestic territory of the country during a
Reference: year. But it may be possible that the foreign
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRI nationals working within India have
D=1633594#:~:text=4.,from%2046.67%20duri contributed in that GDP production. GNP is
ng%20same%20period. that income or product which accrues to the
e
economic agents who are residents of the
n
country.Gross domestic product (GDP) is the
Q.49) Ans: C
li
value of the finished domestic goods and
Exp: services produced within a nation's borders.
n
● Statement 1 is correct: The nominal effective On the other hand, gross national product
exchange rate (NEER) is the unadjusted
o
(GNP) is the value of all finished goods and
l.
weighted average rate at which one country's services owned by a country's citizens,
a
currency is exchanged for a basket of foreign whether or not those goods are produced in
currencies. NEER tells about a country’s
ri
that country.
international competitiveness in terms of the ● Statement 2 is not correct : Gross National
te
foreign exchange (forex) market, it is also Product (GNP) is that income or product which
known as the trade-weighted currency index. accrues to the economic agents who are
a
It is impacted by inflation differential between residents of the country. i.e. income earned by
m
the country its trading partners the Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) will not be
● Statement 2 is correct: The real effective
c
part of India's GNP. To calculate GNP, we add

exchange rate (REER) is the weighted average the factor income of Indians from abroad in
s
of a country's currency in relation to an index GDP and subtract the contribution of

p
or basket of other major currencies. REER is foreigners in India's GDP. GNP also measures
.u
regarded as a more accurate measure as it is the output generated by a country's businesses

adjusted for inflation.REER nullifies the located domestically or abroad. It can be
w
impact of inflation differential between defined as a piece of economic statistic that

w
various currencies and focuses on the comprises Gross Domestic Product (GDP), and
exchange rate of differential alone.Also a income earned by the residents from
w
comparison of the relative trade balance of a investments made overseas. Simply put, GNP is
DPP 2023 DAY 174 43


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a superset of the GDP. Many Indians reside and country and factor income earned in that
work in Saudi Arabia. They earn their wages in country's domestic territory by non-residents.
the same country. The wages earned by ● Statement 2 is not correct : Net Factor Income
Indians in Saudi Arabia will be counted in the is defined by the CSO as "income attributable
Saudi Arabia’s GDP. It will not be counted in to factor services rendered by ordinary
the India’s GDP . Similarly, Switzerland firm residents of the country to the rest of the
Nestle produces Maggi in in India. This will be world, minus factor services rendered to them
counted in the Indian’s GDP. Gross national by the rest of the world." It should be noted
Product provides a way to capture the trans that net factor income from abroad can be
boundary economic activity of nationals. For both positive and negative. This is negative
example – Profits earned by Chinese Company when foreigners' income from our country
Xiaomi by selling smartphones in India will not exceeds our income from abroad, and positive
be included in the GNP of India. Similarly, when the former exceeds the latter.
Profits earned by ONGC Videsh from its ● Statement 3 is not correct : Its three main
subsidiaries in different countries will be components are as follows: Net
included in the GNP of India. compensation of employees; Net income
from property and entrepreneurship (rent,
Reference: interest, profit) ; Net retained earnings of
Indian Economy by Shankar Ganesh - chapter 2 - resident companies abroad.
National income
https://www.indiatoday.in/business/story/gdp-of- Reference: Indian Economy by Vivek Singh - Chapter 1
e
india-what-to-expect-from-gross-domestic-product- - Fundamentals of Macro Economy
n
data-today-1918859-2022-02-28
li
Q.52) Ans: C
Exp:
n
Q.51) Ans: A ● Statement 1 is not correct : Economic
o
Exp: planning refers to the planning of subsequent
l.
● Statement 1 is correct : Net Factor Income economic actions through the development of
a
from Abroad: The sum of factor incomes like certain policy measures. These actions are to
ri
rent, wages, interest and profits generated be followed in the future in consonance with
within the domestic country is called domestic predetermined economic objectives.
te
factor income. The domestic factor income Imperative Planning -the planning authority
includes both incomes earned by residents as decides about every aspect of the economy to
a
well as non-residents/foreigners working in the minute details, sets targets and

m
India. At the same time, Indian go abroad to administer its implementations. In imperative
c
work and earn wages, salaries, profits and planning, on the other hand, all economic
rents. Now the Net Factor income abroad is activities are controlled by the state. There is
s
the difference between factor income received complete control of the government over the
p
by the residents of India working abroad and factors of production. Even the private sector
.u
the factor income paid to the foreign residents needs to strictly abide by government policies
for working in India. GNP includes Net Factor and decisions, which are rigid.
w
Income Abroad. Net factor income from ● Statement 2 is not correct :Indicative planning
w
abroad is the difference between factor is based on the principle of decentralization

income earned abroad by the residents of a for the operation & execution of plans. In this
w
type of planning, the private sector is neither
DPP 2023 DAY 174 44


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
completely controlled nor directed to meet the January 1, 2015 with emphasis on ‘Bottom –
targets of the plan. But it is expected to fulfill Up’ approach to envisage the vision of
those targets. Towards that end, the Maximum Governance, Minimum
government facilitates the private sector but Government, echoing the spirit of
does not direct them in any way. ‘Cooperative Federalism’.
● Statement 3 is correct : In a rolling plan, every ● Statement 2 is not correct : Planning
year three plans are drawn up and acted Commission was an advisory body, and so is
upon. One of them is an annual plan, which NITI Aayog. Main difference between
entails the planning for one year;the second is Planning commission and NITI Aayog is that
a 5-year plan;while the third is a 15-year plan while the former had powers to allocate funds
in which broader goals and objectives are to ministries and states, this function is now
listed, which are in consonance with the of finance ministry.
previous year planning. In contrast to the ● Statement 3 is correct : The NITI Aayog council
rolling plan, a fixed plan refers to planning for comprises all the state Chief Ministers, along
a certain period of time — say 4, 5, or 10 years with the Chief Ministers of Delhi and
ahead. It lays down definite goals and Puducherry, Lieutenant Governors of all UTs,
objectives that are to be met in the due course and a vice-chairman nominated by the Prime
of time. Except under an emergency situation, Minister. The NITI Aayog comprises the
the annual objectives are met (those listed in following: With the Prime Minister as the
the fixed plan). Chairperson, a Governing Council composed
of Chief Ministers of all the States and Union
e
territories with Legislatures and lieutenant
n
Reference: Indian Economy by Vivek Singh - Indian governors of Union Territories (except Delhi
li
Economy [1947 – 1991]- 6.6 Economic Reforms of 1991 and Puducherry). Regional Councils composed
(LPG Reforms) of Chief Ministers of States and Lt. Governors
n
of Union Territories in the region to address
o
specific issues and contingencies impacting
l.
Q.53) Ans: B more than one state or a region. Full-time
a
Exp: organizational framework composed of a Vice-

ri
● Statement 1 is correct : NITI Aayog: The Chairperson, four full-time members, two part-
Government of India, in keeping with its time members (from leading universities,
te
reform agenda, constituted the NITI Aayog to research organizations and other relevant
replace the Planning Commission. This was institutions in an ex-officio capacity), four ex-
a
done in order to better serve the needs and officio members of the Union Council of
m
aspirations of the people of India. An Ministers, a Chief Executive Officer (with the
c
important evolutionary change from the past, rank of Secretary to the Government of India)
NITI Aayog acts as the quintessential platform who looks after administration, and a
s
for the Government of India to bring states to secretariat. Experts and specialists in various
p
act together in national interest, and thereby field.

.u
fosters cooperative federalism.NITI Aayog has

adopted a bottom-up approach in planning Reference: http://www.niti.gov.in/content/niti-
w
which is a noteworthy contrast to the governing-council-meetings

w
Planning Commission’s tradition of top-down

decision-making.Planning Commission was
w
replaced by a new institution – NITI Aayog on Q.54) Ans: B
DPP 2023 DAY 174 45


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Exp: together to facilitate the managed phase-out

● The Climate Equity Monitor is an online of oil and gas production. The alliance aims to
dashboard that assesses equity in climate elevate the issue of oil and gas production
action, inequities in emissions, energy and phase-out in international climate dialogues,
resource consumption around the world, and mobilize action and commitments, and create
current climate policies in a number of an international community of practice on this
countries at the international level. The issue.
Climate Equity Monitor is designed to track the ● Statement 3 is correct: The Glasgow Climate
performance of UNFCCC Annex-I Parties Pact was adopted by 196 parties at the
(developed nations) based on the Climate Glasgow climate change conference (COP26)
Convention's basic principles, such as equity on Saturday evening. It aims to limit global
and the idea of shared but differentiated average temperature to well below 2 degree
obligations and respective capabilities (CBDR- Celsius above pre-industrial levels and pursue
RC). Non-Annex-I Parties (developing efforts to limit it to 1.5 degree C above pre-
countries) will also be compared in terms of industrial level. The agreement, for the first
performance and policies. time, also mentions the need to phase out
coal and fossil fuel subsidies. But, the deal is
Reference: very weak on several fronts including climate
https://climateequitymonitor.in finance and loss and damage.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID ● The Paris Agreement is a legally binding
=1768174 international treaty on climate change. It was
e
adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on
n
12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4
li
Q.55) Ans: B November 2016. Its goal is to limit global
Exp: warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5
n
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Warsaw degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial
o
International Mechanism for Loss and levels.
l.
Damage was formed at the United Nations
a
Climate Change Conference, COP19, in Reference:

ri
Warsaw, Poland in 2013. It was linked to https://www.hindustantimes.com/environment/glasg

Climate Change Impacts (Loss and Damage ow-climate-pact-mentions-1-5-degree-goal-but-weak-
te
Mechanism) to address the loss and damage on-equity-and-finance-101636874705773.html

caused by climate change impacts. At the
a
COP19 (November 2013) in Warsaw, Poland, it

m
covers extreme events and slow-onset Q.56) Ans: B

c
disasters in developing nations that are Exp:

particularly vulnerable to the negative Revolutions related to agriculture:
s
consequences of climate change. ● Black Revolution - Related with petroleum

p
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The recently production

.u
concluded UN Climate Change Conference ● Blue Revolution - Related with fish production
(COP 26) in Glasgow, the Beyond Oil and Gas ● Brown Revolution - Related with leather
w
Alliance (BOGA) initiative was launched. It is a production

w
diplomatic initiative led by Denmark and Costa ● Golden Revolution - Related with overall
Rica BOGA is an international alliance of horticulture, honey and fruits productions
w
governments and stakeholders working
DPP 2023 DAY 174 46


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● Green Revolution - Related with agriculture Q.58) Ans: B

production Exp:
● Grey Revolution - Related with fertilizers ● Disinflation is a state when the rate of
● Pink Revolution - Meat and poultry production inflation is diminishing over time, but yet
● Silver Revolution - Related with egg production positive and continues until the rate is equal
● White Revolution - Related with dairy and milk to zero. It is the deceleration in the rate of
production increase in the overall price level in the
● Yellow Revolution - Related with oil seed economy i.e. the prices of goods and services
production are not rising, as they used to rise earlier. The
general price level rises in disinflation, but the
Reference: OnlyIAS Economy Page no.: 24 rate of inflation decreases over the period.
● Deflation is not a sign of a slowing economy,
but it is a deliberate action taken by the
Q.57) Ans: B government to bring down the prices to the
Exp: normal level. It is good for a developing
● Statement 1 is correct : The incremental economy.
capital output ratio (ICOR) is a frequently ● Disinflation is the decrease of inflation.
used tool that explains the relationship ● Deflation is usually associated with a
between the level of investment made in the contraction in the supply of money and credit,
economy and the subsequent increase in the but prices can also fall due to increased
gross domestic product (GDP). ICOR indicates productivity and technological improvements.
e
the additional unit of capital or investment
n
needed to produce an additional unit of Key Differences Between Deflation and Disinflation
li
output. ICOR is a metric that assesses the
marginal amount of investment capital
n
1. Deflation is described as a condition where the
necessary for a country or other entity to o
general price level declines, in the entire
generate the next unit of production. economy. Disinflation is a state when there is a
l.
● Statement 2 is not correct : A lower ICOR is fall in the inflation rate over time.
a
preferred as it indicates a country's

2. A situation when the rate of inflation is positive
ri
production is more efficient. Some critics of

but reducing with time is disinflation. On the
ICOR have suggested that the use of ICOR is
te
other hand, when the inflation rate is negative,

limited as it favors developing countries that
this situation is called deflation.
can increase infrastructure and technology use
a
as opposed to developed countries, which are 3. Deflation is in contrast to inflation, whereas

m
operating at the highest level possible.Overall, disinflation is opposed to reflation.

4. The main cause of deflation is the shift in
c
a higher ICOR value is not preferred because

it indicates that the entity's production is demand and supply of economic output.
s
inefficient. The measure is used Conversely, disinflation is a deliberate policy of

p
predominantly in determining a country's level the government.

.u
of production efficiency. 5. When we talk about employment level,

deflation occurs before 100% employment
w
Reference: Indian Economy by Shankar Ganesh - while disinflation occurs after reaching the
w
chapter 2 - National income stage of 100% employment.

6. In a deflation, the prices fall below the normal
w
level, as there is no limit of fall in prices. As
DPP 2023 DAY 174 47


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
opposed to disinflation, which helps in bringing programs.The economy basically

down the prices to a normal level. absorbed the shocks of the Third Plan
during the Annual Plans, allowing for
planned expansion.
Q.59) Ans: C
3. The Indian government announced a
Exp:
"Rupee Devaluation" to boost the
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The idea of five-year
country's exports.
plans is simple- The Government of India
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
prepares a document with all its income and
expenditure for five years.
Reference:
The budget of the central government and all
https://pendulumedu.com/general-awareness/five-
the state governments is divided into two
year-plans-of-india
parts: non-plan budget and plan budget. In the
Third Five year plan the focus was on
agriculture and improvement in the
Q.60) Ans: D
production of wheat.States were entrusted
Exp:
with additional development responsibilities.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Frame of the
Ex- States were made responsible for
Second Five Year Plan in India was constructed
secondary and higher education.Panchayat
on a theoretical foundation given by Prof. P. C.
elections were introduced to bring democracy
Mahalanobis. The Mahalanobis model has
to the grassroots level.The target growth rate
been constructed in terms of Keynesian
was 5.6% and the actual growth rate only
e
aggregates; national income, investment,
achieved 2.4%.
n
savings, and consumption. Two sectors are
This indicated a miserable failure of the Third
li
considered in the model; production goods
Plan, and the government had to declare "Plan
producing sector (K-sector) and consumption
n
Holidays" (1966-67, 1967-68, and 1968-69).
goods producing sector (C-sector). This
o
The Sino-Indian War and the Indo-Pak War,
sectoral classification is not for an intersectoral
l.
which caused the Third Five Year Plan to fail,
analysis of economy but for analysing an
were the primary causes of the plan holidays.
a
allocation of investment to respective sectors.

ri
Price situation is kept constant in his argument.

● Statement 2 is correct: Three Annual Plans:
And foreign trade is not considered in his
te
Objective: Agriculture's crisis and severe food

model. The fundamental assumptions in the
scarcity demanded attention.
Mahalanobis model are as follows: (a) the
a
Three Annual Plans (1966-69): Features

saving-investment equilibrium is maintained,
m
1. The agricultural crisis and severe food

and b) the production processes in respective
shortages necessitated a focus on
c
sectors are always operated under full

agriculture during the Annual Plans.
capacity.
s
2. To tide over the agricultural output

p
problem, a totally new agricultural

.u
strategy combining the widespread

● Statement 2 is correct: Mahalanobis designed
distribution of High-Yielding Varieties
a four sector model. This time also, he retained
w
(HYVs) of seeds, widespread use of

the emphasis on investment goods, but
fertilizers, exploitation of irrigation
w
divided the other sector into three sub-sectors:

potential, and soil conservation was
(a) industry; (b) agriculture and cottage
w
put into operation during these

industry and (c) services, education and health
DPP 2023 DAY 174 48


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etc. Only one third of the total investment responsibility for the country’s economic
should go to the three sub-sectors as development
mentioned above. Cottage industry, in
particular, was singled out as a major potential Reference:
producer of consumer goods. The fact that https://thejournalofbusiness.org/index.php/site/articl
cottage industry requires little capital and e/download/197/196
labour intensive was highlighted. Of course, for
this very reason one could not expect a great Q.61) Ans: C
deal of savings from cottage industry, which Exp:
would be required for future economic ● The Fourth Five Year Plan was introduced
growth. Heavy industry in the public sector was under the Prime Ministership of Indira Gandhi
considered to be the major item once more, as and attempted to correct the previous
it was the very failures.Based on Gadgil Formula, a great deal
symbol of economic independence and was of emphasis was laid on growth with stability
thought to be crucial for the maintenance of and progress towards self-reliance.The
political independence. Mahalanobis’ government nationalised 14 major Indian
emphasis on basic heavy industries was also Banks and the Green Revolution boosted
due to his objective of meeting the agriculture.The Drought Prone Area
requirements of higher rate of capital Programme was also launched .The basic
accumulation from ‘within the economy and objective of the programme is to minimise the
therefore enabling the economy to stop adverse effects of drought on production of
e
imports of foreign capital equipment and crops and livestock and productivity of land,
n
machines water and human resources ultimately leading
li
to drought proofing of the affected areas. The
● Statement 3 is correct: India’s approach to target growth rate was 5.6%, but the actual
n
rapid industrialization in the mid- Fifties growth rate was 3.3%. o
deserves attention. This approach was devised
l.
to enable India to industrialize under
a
conditions of stagnant or slowly growing Q.62) Ans: B

ri
exports. Under such conditions, foreign Exp:

exchange needed to import capital goods was ● Central banks across the World are trying to
te
not available and consequently the country formulate policies to ensure that Inflation, in
must develop its own capital goods sector. P.C. some advanced economies including the U.S.,
a
Mahalanobis, clearly is cooled without triggering a Recession, since

m
influenced by the Soviet experience, and being some of the experts are seeing Stagflation in
c
believed in the argument of A. G. Feldman the near future.Stagflation means a situation

(1884-1958) 1928 paper that “an increase in characterized by simultaneous increase in
s
the rate of income demands industrialization prices and stagnation of economic growth. The
p
,heavy industry, machine building, term Stagflation was coined by Iain Macleod, a
.u
electrification…” designed an inward-looking Conservative Party MP in the United Kingdom,

industrialization strategy for India’s Second in November 1965. It is described as a situation
w
Five- Year plan that was spearheaded by the in the economy where the growth rate slows
w
development and expansion of the capital down, the level of unemployment remains
goods industries and the government took steadily high and yet the inflation or price
w
level remains high at the same time. It is
DPP 2023 DAY 174 49


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Dangerous for the economy. In a usually low disinflation is good for the economy and the
growth situation, central banks and markets, but deflation can cause the stock
governments try to stimulate the economy market to perform poorly because it can
through higher public spending and low signal a recession. Deflation, which is
interest rates to create demand. These harmful to an economy, can be caused by a
measures also tend to elevate prices and cause drop in the money supply, government
inflation. So, these tools cannot be adopted spending, consumer spending, and corporate
when inflation is already running high, which investment. Central banks will fight
makes it difficult to break out of the low disinflation by expanding its monetary policy
growth-high inflation trap. Stagflation is an and lowering interest rates. Disinflation can be
economic condition when stagnant economic caused by a recession or when a central bank
growth, high unemployment, and high tightens its monetary policy. Disinflation:
inflation combine together. Simply put, Unlike deflation, this is not harmful to the
stagflation is a portmanteau of stagnant economy because the inflation rate is reduced
growth and rising inflation. marginally over a short-term period. Unlike
inflation and deflation, disinflation is the
change in the rate of inflation. Prices do not
drop during periods of disinflation and it does
Q.63) Ans: B not signal an economic slowdown.Disinflation
Exp: isn't necessarily bad for the stock market, as it
● Statement 1 is correct : Deflation means may be during periods of deflation. In fact,
e
prices are falling and the inflation rate is in the stocks can perform well when the inflation rate
n
negative, while disinflation means a drops.
li
slowdown in the rate of inflation while still
remaining in the positive. Deflation is a
n
decrease in general price levels throughout an o
economy, while disinflation is what happens Q.64) Ans: D
l.
when price inflation slows down temporarily. Exp:
a
Deflation, which is the opposite of inflation, is ● Statement 1 is not correct : Economic

ri
mainly caused by shifts in supply and demand. recession is the phase where economic activity
Disinflation, on the other hand, shows the rate is stagnant, contraction in the business cycle,
te
of change of inflation over time. The inflation over-supply of goods compared to its demand,
rate is declining over time, but it remains a higher rate of the jobless situation resulted in
a
positive.Unlike inflation and deflation, lower household savings and lower expenses.
m
disinflation is the change in the rate of Government is unable to cope with a certain
c
inflation. Prices do not drop during periods of economy and cumulation of inflation, higher
disinflation and it does not signal an economic interest rate, the higher commodity pieces,
s
slowdown. While a negative growth rate such higher balance of payment and higher fiscal
p
as -2% indicates deflation, disinflation is deficit that results in economic crisis. When
.u
demonstrated by a change in the inflation the overall output of goods and services,
rate from one year to the next. So disinflation which is typically measured by the Gross
w
would be measured as a change of 4% from Domestic Product (GDP), decreases from one
w
one year to 2.5% in the next. quarter to another, the economy is said to be
● Statement 2 is not correct : Disinflation occurs a phase of a technical recession. If the
w
more commonly than deflation. Some recessionary phase lasts for a longer period of
DPP 2023 DAY 174 50


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time, then the economy is said to be in a state ● Moderate inflation enables labour markets to
of recession. If there is a back to back decline reach equilibrium at a faster pace.
in the GDP for two quarters, the economy is ● Sudden or unpredictable inflation rates are
said to be in a state of a technical recession. harmful to an overall economy. They lead to
Recession lasts for a longer period of time than market instability and thereby make it difficult
the technical recession , which only lasts for a for companies to plan a budget for the long-
shorter period of time. term.
● Statement 2 is not correct : During recessions, ● The effect of inflation is not distributed evenly
the central bank typically slashes interest in the economy. There are chances of hidden
rates in an effort to stimulate the economy. costs for different goods and services in the
This makes it more likely for businesses and economy.
consumers to take out loans and put more
money into the economy to get it back on Statement 3 is incorrect:
track.The most popular, or most ● India has seen a stagnation in industrial growth
recommended, policy for any country to dig in the last few years. The industrial growth for
itself out of recession is expansionary fiscal the month of February 2019 year-on-year was
policy, or fiscal stimulus. This can be usually a merely 0.1%. This is because inflation has
two-pronged approach – tax sops and adversely affected the industrial sector as well.
increased government spending. ● The rising prices mean that the factors of
production like labor and raw materials have
Q.65) Ans: A also become expensive. The profit margins of
e
Exp: the companies are decreasing. And after an
n
Statement 1 is correct: extent, the companies pass on the burden of
li
● Inflation can also distort purchasing power these additional expenses to the final
over time for recipients and payers of fixed consumer. And the entire economy suffers.
n
interest rates. o
● Take pensioners who receive a fixed 5 percent Reference-
l.
yearly increase to their pension. If inflation is https://www.imf.org/external/pubs/ft/fandd/basics/3
a
higher than 5 percent, a pensioner’s 0-inflation.htm

ri
purchasing power falls.

● On the other hand, a borrower who pays a
te
fixed-rate mortgage of 5 percent would benefit Q.66) Ans: A

from 5 percent inflation, because the real Exp:
a
interest rate (the nominal rate minus the ● Statement 1 is incorrect: .If a country's
m
inflation rate) would be zero; servicing this inflation rate is lower than that of another, its
c
debt would be even easier if inflation were currency will increase in value. Changes in
higher, as long as the borrower’s income keeps market inflation have an impact on currency
s
up with inflation. The lender’s real income, of exchange rates. If a country's inflation rate is
p
course, suffers. lower than that of another, its currency will

.u
● To the extent that inflation is not factored into increase in value.

nominal interest rates, some gain and some ● When inflation is low, the rate of increase in
w
lose purchasing power. the price of goods and services is slower. A

w
country's currency appreciates when inflation

Statement 2 is correct: is continuously low, while a country's currency
w
depreciates when inflation is high, which is
DPP 2023 DAY 174 51


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generally accompanied by higher interest

Extra Edge By Only Ias
rates.
● Statement 2 is correct:Higher inflation usually The effects of inflation on different groups of society
results in a devaluation of their currencies in are discussed below:
comparison to those of their trading partners,
as well as higher interest rates. When an (1) Debtors and Creditors
economy has excessive inflation, the central
● During periods of rising prices, debtors gain and
bank will raise interest rates to try to moderate creditors lose. When prices rise, the value of
growing prices and access to cheap credit. money falls. Though debtors return the same
Higher interest rates make a currency more amount of money, but they pay less in terms of
enticing. goods and services. This is because the value of
money is less than when they borrowed the
Q.67) Ans: C money. Thus the burden of the debt is reduced
and debtors gain.
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: (2) Salaried Persons:
● Inflation allows borrowers to pay lenders back
with money worth less than when it was ● Salaried workers such as clerks, teachers, and
originally borrowed, which benefits other white collar persons lose when there is
borrowers. inflation. The reason is that their salaries are
● If wages increase with inflation, and if the slow to adjust when prices are rising.
(3) Wage Earners:
borrower already owed money before the
e
inflation occurred, the inflation benefits the ● Wage earners may gain or lose depending upon
n
borrower. the speed with which their wages adjust to
li
● This is because the borrower still owes the rising prices. If their unions are strong, they may
same amount of money, but now they have get their wages linked to the cost of living index.
n
more money in their paycheck to pay off the In this way, they may be able to protect
debt. This results in less interest for the lender
o
themselves from the bad effects of inflation.
l.
if the borrower uses the extra money to pay off
(4) Fixed Income Group:
a
their debt early.

ri
● The recipients of transfer payments such as

Statement 2 is incorrect: pensions, unemployment insurance, social
te
● When inflation causes higher prices, the security, etc. and recipients of interest and rent
demand for credit increases, raising interest live on fixed incomes. Pensioners get fixed
a
pensions. Similarly the rentier class consisting of

rates, which benefits lenders.
m
interest and rent receivers get fixed payments.

● Inflation can help lenders in several ways,
c
especially when it comes to extending new (5) Equity Holders or Investors:

financing. First, higher prices mean that more
s
people want credit to buy big-ticket items, ● Persons who hold shares or stocks of companies
p
especially if their wages have not increased– gain during inflation. For when prices are rising,
.u
this equates to new customers for the lenders. business activities expand which increase profits
of companies. As profits increase, dividends on
On top of this, the higher prices of those items
w
equities also increase at a faster rate than prices.

earn the lender more interest. But those who invest in debentures, securities,
w
bonds, etc. which carry a fixed interest rate lose

during inflation because they receive a fixed
w
sum while the purchasing power is falling.
DPP 2023 DAY 174 52


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India Act, 1934 provides for the inflation

(6) Businessmen: target to be set by the Government, in
consultation with the RBI, once every five
● Businessmen of all types, such as producers, years.
traders and real estate holders gain during ● Statement 2 is not correct : Monetary Policy
periods of rising prices. Take producers first. Committee : It is a statutory and
When prices are rising, the value of their
institutionalized framework under the Reserve
inventories (goods in stock) rise in the same
proportion. So they profit more when they sell Bank of India Act, 1934, for maintaining price
their stored commodities stability, while keeping in mind the objective of
growth. The Governor of RBI is ex-officio
(7) Government: Chairman of the committee. The Monetary
Policy Committee determines the policy
The government as a debtor gains at the expense of interest rate (repo rate) required to achieve
households who are its principal creditors. This is
the inflation target (4%). An RBI-appointed
because interest rates on government bonds are fixed
and are not raised to offset expected rise in prices. The committee led by the then deputy governor
government, in turn, levies less taxes to service and Urjit Patel in 2014 recommended the
retire its debt. establishment of the Monetary Policy
Committee.
Reference: Indian Economy by Vivek Singh- chapter 2-

Money and Banking
Q.68) Ans: B
e
Exp:
n
Q.69) Ans: A
● Statement 1 is correct : Inflation Targeting: It
li
Exp:
is a central banking policy that revolves around
● Monetary Policy Committee of the Reserve
n
adjusting monetary policy to achieve a
Bank of India meets every two months to take
o
specified annual rate of inflation. Inflation
key decisions on the Monetary Policy of the
targeting is known to bring more stability,
l.
Country. Monetary Policy Committee comes
predictability, and transparency in deciding
a
up with the Monetary Policy statement once in

monetary policy. Strict Inflation Targeting: It is
ri
every two months also known as Bi-Monthly

adopted when the central bank is only
Monetary Policy Statement in which the
te
concerned about keeping inflation as close to a

Committee decides upon the Key Policy Rates
given inflation target as possible, and nothing
such as Bank Rate, Repo Rate, Reverse Repo
a
else. Flexible Inflation Targeting: It is adopted

Rate, Marginal Standing Facility, Cash Reserve
m
when the central bank is to some extent also

Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
concerned about other things, for instance, the
c
● Option 1 is correct : Accommodative: An

stability of interest rates, exchange rates,
accommodative stance means the central bank
s
output and employment.The central bank and

is prepared to expand the money supply to
p
the government agreed in 2015 on a policy

boost economic growth. The central bank,
.u
framework that stipulated a primary objective

during an accommodative policy period, is
of ensuring price stability while keeping in
willing to cut the interest rates. A rate hike is
w
mind the objective of growth. The Flexible

ruled out. The central bank typically adopts an
Inflation Target (FIT) was adopted in 2016. The
w
accommodative policy when growth needs

Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 was amended
policy support and inflation is not the
w
to provide a statutory basis for a FTI

immediate concern.
framework. The amended Reserve Bank of
DPP 2023 DAY 174 53

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
● Option 2 is correct : Neutral: A ‘neutral stance’ formation of demand pull inflation and the
suggests that the central bank can either cut supply side factors result in cost push inflation.
rate or increase rate. This stance is typically Demand pull inflation arises when the
adopted when the policy priority is equal on aggregate demand becomes more than the
both inflation and growth. The guidance aggregate supply in the economy. Cost pull
indicates that the market can expect a rate inflation occurs when aggregate demand
action on either way at any point. remains the same but there is a decline in
● Option 3 is not correct : Hawkish Stance : A aggregate supply due to external factors that
hawkish stance indicates that the central cause rise in price levels .Inflation that occurs
bank’s top priority is to keep the inflation low. due to increase in aggregate demand is
During such a phase, the central bank is willing referred to as demand pull inflation. Inflation
to hike interest rates to curb money supply that results from decline in aggregate supply
and thus reduce the demand. A hawkish policy due to external factors is referred to as cost
also indicates tight monetary policy. When the push inflation.
central bank increases rates or 'tightens' the ● Statement 2 is not correct : The
monetary policy, banks too increase their rate macroeconomic phenomenon of inflation has
of interest on loans to end borrowers which, in multiple forms and impacts. Core inflation and
turn, curbs demand in the financial system. headline inflation are two types of inflation
● Option 4 is not correct : Calibrated Tightening: that are similar yet quite different from each
Calibrated tightening means during the current other. Core Inflation : Price rise in all goods
rate cycle, a cut in the repo rate is off the table. and services except food and energy due to
e
However, the rate hike will happen in a high price fluctuations is core inflation. It is
n
calibrated manner. This means the central calculated as government needs a stable and
li
bank may not go for a rate increase in every true picture of the rate of price rise. It is more
policy meeting but the overall policy stance is stable than headline inflation due to the
n
tilted towards a rate hike. This can happen absence of volatile commodities like food and
o
outside the policy meetings as well if the petroleum. Headline Inflation : This measure
l.
situation warrants. considers total inflation in an economy,
a
including food and energy prices, which are

ri
more volatile.The volatile food and petroleum

Reference: Indian Economy by Vivek Singh- chapter 2- prices are more volatile than the other
te
Money and Banking inflation.

a
Reference: Indian Economy by Vivek Singh- chapter 2-

m
Q.70) Ans: D Money and Banking

c
Exp:
● Statement 1 is not correct : Inflation is
s
referred to as the situation when the price Q.71) Ans: B

p
level of goods and services rise, which leads to Exp:

.u
decline in the purchasing power in the ● Statement 1 is incorrect: A pangenome is the

economy or in other words decreases the entire set of genes from all strains within a
w
buying power of the money. There are two clade , a group of all organisms that share a
w
types of inflation which arise either based on common ancestor.

the demand side or price of inputs in the Researchers from 41 organisations have
w
economy. The demand side factors result in worked together to assemble the pangenome,
DPP 2023 DAY 174 54


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
sequencing the genomes of 3,366 chickpea programme on natural farming along the Ganga,
lines from 60 countries. five kilometres on each side of its banks.Many
The effort was led by researchers from the states like Andhra Pradesh are also scaling up
International Crops Research Institute for natural farming.In India, Natural farming is
Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and not by The promoted as Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Paddhati
Food and Agriculture Organization. Programme (BPKP) under centrally sponsored
A total of 29,870 new genes were identified scheme- Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
along with 1,582 novel ones, which were (PKVY). BPKP is aimed at promoting traditional
previously unreported. indigenous practices which reduce externally
purchased inputs. It is largely based on on-farm
● Statement 2 is correct: Grown in more than 50 biomass recycling with major stress on biomass
countries, chickpea is the world's third-most mulching, use of on-farm cow dung-urine
cultivated legume. It is indispensable to diets in formulations; periodic soil aeration and
many nations and an important source of exclusion of all synthetic chemical inputs.
dietary protein, especially in the Global South. ● Statement 2 is correct: The government’s heavy
ICRISAT led the effort to sequence the first subsidy (80 to 90% subsidy on urea) can be
chickpea genome (a Kabuli line) in 2013 significantly reduced through Natural
Farming.It will also help prevent water pollution
● Statement 3 is correct: Chickpea grain is an due to the overuse of fertilizers.Natural Farming
excellent source of high-quality protein, with a offers a solution to various problems, such as
wide range of essential amino acids , but low in food insecurity, farmers’ distress, and health
e
fat. The crop also fixes relatively large amounts problems arising due to pesticide and fertilizer
n
of atmospheric nitrogen. More than 90% of residue in food and water, global warming,
li
chickpea cultivation area is in South Asia, climate change and natural calamities. It also has
including India. the potential to generate employment, thereby
n
India is the single largest producer of chickpea stemming the migration of rural youth.
o
in the world, accounting for 65% (9.075 million
l.
tonnes) of the total production under chickpea Reference:
a
(Figure 5). Australia is the second leading

ri
country over the world in 14% share. https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/p

recision-farming-needs-to-be-promoted-to-get-more-
te
Reference: output-with-less-exploitation-of-natural-resources-
https://www.en.krishakjagat.org/ag-tech-research- 8131126/
a
news/women-scientists-create-top-3-climate-smart-
m
chickpea-varieties-in-india-for-2022/
Q.73) Ans: A
c
Exp:
s
Q.72) Ans: C ● Direct tax is a tax paid directly to authority

p
Exp: imposing the tax. Under this, incidence and

.u
● Statement 1 is correct: Natural Farming is a impact of taxation fall on the same entity, which
chemical-free alias traditional farming method. cannot be transferred to another person. E.g.
w
It is considered an agroecology-based Income Tax, Capital Gains Tax etc. Central Board
w
diversified farming system which integrates of Direct Taxes (CBDT), under the Department of
crops, trees and livestock with functional Revenue, is responsible for administration of
w
biodiversity. The Government Initiated a major direct taxes in India. Direct taxation can serve as
DPP 2023 DAY 174 55


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a good instrument of anti-inflationary fiscal under the National Security Act, of which
policy designed to maintain the price level at a almost half (241) were either in custody or still
stable level. The excessive purchasing power detained as of the end of 2021.Detention in its
during inflation can be mopped up from the simplest sense means to curb the liberty of an
community through increased direct individual i.e. without the knowledge of that
taxes.Direct taxes are elastic and productive. individual. Preventive detention can however
Revenue from direct taxes increases or be made only on four grounds –
decreases automatically with the change in the ➢ Security of state
national income or wealth of the country. ➢ Maintenance of public order
Usually direct taxation is progressive in effect.
➢ Maintenance of supplies and essential
Since direct taxes can be designed with fine
services and defence
gradation and progressiveness, they can serve as
an important fiscal weapon of reducing the gap ➢ Foreign affairs or security of India
of inequalities in income and wealth. Direct ● Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides
taxes thus lead to the objective of social protection against arrest and detention in
certain cases.
equality.Government uses tax money to support
● Safeguards Provided in Constitution: To
lower income people for improved living
standards. E.g. Health, Education etc. High Tax prevent reckless use of Preventive Detention,
buoyancy (response of tax revenue to changes certain safeguards are provided in the
in national income or GDP) would allow constitution-
government to borrow less from market thus ➢ A person may be taken to preventive
e
keeping interest rates lower and allowing custody only for 3 months at the first
instance. If the period of detention is
n
corporates to borrow at lower rates.so it will
extended beyond 3 months, the case must
li
reduce crowding out effect. The crowding out
effect refers to a phenomenon where increased be referred to an Advisory Board consisting
n
government deficits can lead to a rise in interest of persons with qualifications for
rates.
o
appointment as judges of High Courts. It is
l.
implicit that the period of detention may be
a
Reference: https://www.business- extended beyond 3 months, only on

approval by the Advisory Board. Hence ,
ri
standard.com/article/economy-policy/direct-tax-
collections-may-exceed-budget-targets-cbdt-chief- Statement 1 is incorrect:
te
says-122090101008_1.html ➢ The detainee is entitled to know the

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/direct-tax- grounds of his detention.The state,
a
receipts-continue-to-grow-at-brisk-pace-cbdt- however, may refuse to divulge the grounds

m
11663489851596.html of detention if it is in the public interest to

do so. Needless to say, this power conferred
c
on the state leaves scope for arbitrary

s
Q.74) Ans: C action on the part of the authorities. Hence,

p
Exp: Statement 2 is correct:

.u
● Preventive detentions in 2021 saw a rise of ➢ Thirdly, the detaining authorities must
over 23.7% compared to the year before. Over give the detainee earliest opportunities for
w
1.1 lakh people were placed under preventive making representation against the
w
detention, according to the latest crime detention. Hence Statement 3 is correct:

statistics released by the National Crime
w
Records Bureau.Of these, 483 were detentions
DPP 2023 DAY 174 56


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Reference: infra-sector-growth-hits-six-month-low-in-
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/preven july/2651262/
tive-detentions-in-2021-up-by-237-compared-to-year- https://indianexpress.com/article/business/commodit
before/article65853863.ece ies/core-sector-output-at-6-month-low-crude-natural-
gas-hit-most-8123971/
Q.75) Ans: B
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The index of industrial Q.76) Ans: D
production (IIP) is a composite indicator Exp:
measuring changes in the volume of production ● Statement 1 is correct: Aspirational Districts
of a basket of industrial products over a period, Programme aims to quickly and effectively
with respect to a chosen base period.It is transform the most under-developed districts
compiled and published monthly by the across the country.The broad contours of the
National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of programme are Convergence, Collaboration and
Statistics and Programme Implementation. Competition among districts through monthly
Base Year for IIP is 2011-2012. It is a composite delta ranking.With States as the main drivers,
indicator that measures the growth rate of this program focuses on the strength of each
industry groups classified under: district, identifying low-hanging fruits for
○ Broad sectors, namely, Mining, immediate improvement and measuring
Manufacturing, and Electricity. progress by ranking districts on a monthly basis.
○ Use-based sectors, namely Basic ● Statement 2 is correct: Each district has a
e
Goods, Capital Goods, and prabhari (in-charge) officer -
➢ assigned from the Centre (of
n
Intermediate Goods.
li
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The eight core sector additional secretary or joint secretary
comprise 40.30% of the weight of items included rank)
n
in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).The ➢ assigned from the State (of the rank of
o
eight core sector industries in decreasing order Secretary to State government)
l.
of their weightage: Refinery Products>
a
Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> A prabhari officer will work in cooperation with
the district administration.
ri
Cement> Fertilizers.
● Statement 3 is correct:The index of industrial
te
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Government is

production (IIP) is the only measure of the committed to raising the living standards of its
physical volume of production. It is used by
a
citizens and ensuring inclusive growth for all –

government agencies including the Ministry of “Sabka Saath Sabka Vikas aur Sabka
m
Finance, the Reserve Bank of India, etc, for Vishwas”.The ranking is launched by Niti Aayog
c
policy-making purposes. IIP remains extremely every month.The ranking is based on the
relevant for the calculation of the quarterly and
s
incremental progress made across 49 Key

advance GDP estimates.It is also used
p
Performance Indicators (KPIs) under 5 broad

extensively by financial intermediaries, policy socio-economic themes:
.u
analysts and private companies for various ➢ Health & Nutrition

analytical purposes.
➢ Education
w
➢ Agriculture & Water Resources

w
Reference:
➢ Financial Inclusion & Skill
https://www.financialexpress.com/economy/core-
w
Development
DPP 2023 DAY 174 57


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
➢ Infrastructure Q.78) Ans: A

Exp:
Reference: https://www.niti.gov.in/aspirational- ● Statement 1 is correct: Recently, Computer
districts-programme Emergency Response Team - India (CERT-In)
successfully designed & conducted the Cyber
Security Exercise “Synergy” for 13 Countries as
Q.77) Ans: C part of the International Counter Ransomware
Exp: Initiative.The exercise scenario was derived from
● EASE(Enhanced Access and Service real life cyber incidents, in which a domestic
Excellence) Agenda is aimed at level (limited impact) ransomware incident
institutionalizing CLEAN and SMART escalates to a global cyber security crisis. The
banking.Public Sector Bank’s performance theme of the exercise is based on the Energy
(PSB) has been reviewed under EASENext Sector in which the respective National Cyber
reforms (currently Ease 5.0) (launched in June Crisis Management Teams of the CRI Partner
2022) by the Finance Ministry.The EASE Index Nations will have to deal with a ransomware
will measure the performance of each PSB on attack on multiple electricity distribution
135+ objective metrics across five themes. companies. CERT-In is an organisation of the
EASE 5.0 will focus on digital customer Ministry of Electronics and Information
experience, and integrated & inclusive Technology with the objective of securing Indian
banking, with emphasis on supporting small cyberspace. It is a nodal agency which deals with
businesses and agriculture. It will provide all cybersecurity threats like hacking and phishing.
e
PSB’s a comparative evaluation showing where ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Exercise “Synergy” was
n
banks stand on the basis of the benchmarks hosted by CERT-In on its exercise simulation
li
and among their peers on the reforms agenda. platform. Each State participated as a National
The Index will follow a fully transparent scoring Crisis Management Team having composition
n
methodology, which will enable banks to from different government agencies including
o
identify precisely their strengths as well as National CERTs/CSIRTs, Law Enforcement
l.
areas for improvement. It was launched in Agencies (LEA), Communication & IT/ICT
a
January 2018 jointly by the government and Ministry and Security agencies. It was conducted
ri
PSBs. in August 2022.

➢ Ease 1.0: the resolution of NPA
te
➢ Ease 2.0: Responsible banking, financial ● India’s National Security Council Secretariat
(NSCS) and the UK Government in
a
inclusion and digitalization

➢ Ease collaboration with BAE Systems successfully
m
3.0: Dial-a-loan, Credit@click,

PSBloansin59 minutes.com designed & conducted the Cyber Security
c
Exercise for 26 Countries as part of the

➢ Ease 4.0: 24X7 banking, focus on north-east,
International Counter Ransomware Initiative-
s
bad banks
Resilience Working Group which is being led by
p
➢ Ease 5.0: EASENext reforms

India under the leadership of National Cyber
.u
Security Coordinator (NCSC) The exercise was

Reference:
part of the International Counter Ransomware
w
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID
Initiative (CRI). Resilience Working Group
=1859898
w
which is being led by India under the

leadership of National Cyber Security
w
Coordinator (NCSC). This exercise conducted
DPP 2023 DAY 174 58


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
in September 2022 has been designed to Exp:

support the mission of the CRI, and aims to ● Recently, the World Bank has agreed to look into
allow participating CRI members to test their environmental damage from the under-
capability to respond to a major ransomware construction Vishnugad Pipalkoti Hydro Electric
incident; demonstrates the benefit of sharing Project (VPHEP) on the Alaknanda River in
information and collaborating during a major Uttarakhand.The project is primarily funded by
incident; and provide opportunities for the CRI the World Bank and was sanctioned in 2011.
nations to share their approaches to ● The Subansiri Lower Dam, officially named
countering ransomware. Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project, is an
Reference: under construction gravity dam on the
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID= Subansiri River in NorthEastern India. It is
1855771 located 2.3 km upstream of Subansiri River in
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID Arunachal Pradesh.
=1857243 ● Kwar Hydro-electric project is located on
Chenab River in Jammu & Kashmir Kishtwar
Q.79) Ans: B district.This is part of the Indus basin and would
Exp: be one of the at least four projects coming up in
● Statement 1 is correct: A rule curve or rule level the district, including the 1,000 MWs Pakal Dul
specifies the storage or empty space to be hydroelectric project and 624 MWs run-of-the-
maintained in a reservoir during different times river Kiru hydroelectric project.Under the 1960
of the year. Here the implicit assumption is that Indus Water Treaty (IWT) between India and
e
a reservoir can best satisfy its purposes if the Pakistan, the two countries share the waters of
n
storage levels specified by the rule curve are six rivers in the Indus basin that flow through
li
maintained in the reservoir at different times. India towards Pakistan. Of these, India has
● Statement 2 is incorrect: ENGEL CURVE: It complete rights over three eastern rivers - Sutlej,
n
displays how household expenditure on a Beas and Ravi, while Pakistan has rights over the
o
particular good or service varies with change in western rivers - Chenab, Jhelum, and Indus.India
l.
household income.E.g . As the income of a can, however, build run-of-the-river projects on
a
household increases its expenditure of food as a the western rivers.

ri
percentage declines. However, its expenditure

on status goods increases. Reference: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-
te
● Statement 3 is correct: It decides the fluctuating tech/energy-and-environment/activists-oppose-

storage levels in a reservoir.The gate opening centres-nod-to-select-hydropower-projects-in-
a
schedule of a dam is based on the rule curve.It uttarakhand/article36396604.ece

m
is part of the “core safety” mechanism in a https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/arunachal-

c
dam.Rules curves are used to guarantee the pradesh-dam-wall-collapses-after-massive-landslide-

safety of the reservoir as well as water security 3377114
s
p
Reference:
.u
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil- Q.81) Ans: A

nadu/explained-rule-curve-for- Exp:
w
mullaperiyar/article65836798.ece ● Statement 1 is correct: Carbon capture and

w
storage (CCS) is the procedure of capturing

Carbon Dioxide (CO2) even before entering the
w
Q.80) Ans: B atmosphere, transferring it, and depositing it
DPP 2023 DAY 174 59


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
for decades or millennia (carbon ● Statement 1 is correct:To reduce the use of

sequestration). CO2 is usually gathered from big chemical fertilisers the Government is Planning
point sources like coal fired power plants, to Launch the PM PRANAM (Promotion of
chemical industries, and biomass – based power Alternate Nutrients for Agriculture
plants, and then stored underground in Management Yojana) Scheme. It will encourage
geological formations. The goal is to eliminate the balanced use of fertilisers in conjunction
CO2 emissions from heavy industry in order to with biofertilizers and organic fertilisers.The
mitigate the consequences of climate change. Centre pays subsidy on urea to fertiliser
● Statement 2 is correct: The most basic way to do manufacturers on the basis of cost of production
storage is to bury the gas underground — in at each plant and the units are required to sell
pores of sedimentary rock formations, or in dead the fertiliser at the government-set Maximum
oilfields, that is, in sands that once held oil or gas, Retail Price (MRP).For this purpose, data
or in underground coal seams.Carbon Capture is available on a Fertilizer Ministry dashboard,
a viable option for global leaders to achieve Net IFMS (Integrated Fertilizers Management
zero emission by 2050 as asserted in IPCC report, System) will be used.
to protect the planet from rising temperature ● Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme will have
greater than 2°C. The need is a serious global co- no separate budget and will be financed
operation and co-ordination for feasible through the “savings of existing fertiliser
technology development and affordable access subsidy” under schemes run by the Department
to all, based on principles of Equity and Climate of Fertilizers.50% of subsidy savings will be
Justice. Deep saline aquifers, active or depleted passed on as a grant to the state that saves the
e
oil and gas reservoirs, unmineable deep coal money.70% of the grant provided under the
n
seams and salt domes have been recognized as scheme can be used for asset creation related to
li
the promising sites to implement the CCS the technological adoption of alternate
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Recently Norway is fertilisers and alternate fertiliser production
n
building the world’s first open-access Carbon units at the village, block and district levels. The
o
Capture and Storage (CCS) infrastructure on its remaining 30% grant money can be used for
l.
North Sea coast.This infrastructure will facilitate rewarding and encouraging farmers,
a
each emitter of CO2 capture to supply that panchayats, farmer producing organizations and
ri
captured CO2 to this infrastructure for safe self-help groups that are involved in the
management, transportation and storage. CCS is reduction of fertiliser use and awareness
te
one way to reduce carbon emissions. Apart from generation.

this, there is also another related concept called ● Statement 3 is incorrect:The scheme run by the
a
‘Carbon Capture Utilization and Storage’ Department of Fertilizers,Ministry of Chemicals

m
(CCUS). In this method, instead of storing and Fertilizers.The proposed scheme intends to
c
carbon, it can be reused in industrial processes. reduce the subsidy burden on chemical
fertilisers. This burden, if uneased, is expected to
s
Reference: increase to Rs 2.25 lakh crore in 2022-2023,

p
https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/r which is 39% higher than the previous year’s

.u
enewable/norways-future-co2-cemetery-takes- figure of Rs 1.62 lakh crore.

shape/93991592
w
Reference:
w
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explaine
Q.82) Ans: B d-economics/what-is-the-pm-pranam-scheme-
w
Exp: fertilisers-8160344/
DPP 2023 DAY 174 60


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Q.83) Ans: B but can affect other sites. Most common

Exp: medications used to treat TB include isoniazid,
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Any maritime rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide etc. India
propulsion system that permits a non-nuclear accounts for more than 1 in 4 of all cases of
submarine to function without exposure to active TB diseases, including nearly 1.20 lakh
atmospheric oxygen (by surfacing out or by cases of drug-resistant forms of TB.
utilising a snorkel) is known as an air- ● Statement 2 is not correct: Currently, BCG is
independent propulsion (AIP), or air- the only licensed vaccine available for
independent power. Non-nuclear submarines prevention of TB.A century has passed since
can use AIP to supplement or substitute their the Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine
diesel-electric propulsion technologies. was introduced to combat tuberculosis (TB) on
● Statement 2 is correct: The air-independent 18 July, 1921. The BCG vaccine is currently the
propulsion (AIP) technology enhances the only licensed vaccine for TB and provides
underwater endurance and stealth of moderate protection against severe forms of
conventional submarines who otherwise have to TB in infants and young children.The
come on the surface to use oxygen to recharge formulation of international requirements for
their batteries.Normally, Diesel submarines the manufacture and control of BCG vaccine
need to come to the surface to recharge their was first considered by the WHO Expert
batteries and get a fresh supply of atmospheric Committee on Biological Standardization in its
oxygen. thirteenth report. In its fourteenth report, the
● Statement 3 is correct: P-75 Project is part of the Committee requested WHO to make
e
Indian Navy’s 30-year Plan for indigenous arrangements as soon as possible for the
n
submarine construction- P-75 (1st Phase) and P- formulation of such requirements. These
li
75I (2nd phase). Project 75-I (approved in 2007) requirements were approved by the WHO
is 2nd phase of the Indian Navy’s 30-year Plan Expert Committee on Biological
n
for indigenous scorpene submarine Standardization at its eighteenth meeting and
o
construction with Fuel-Cell based AIP (Air appeared as Annex 1 to its report.
l.
Independent Propulsion) technology. Fuel cell is ● Statement 3 is not correct : Mono-resistance:
a
a technology that converts chemical energy from resistance to one first-line anti-TB drug only;
ri
a fuel as well as an oxidizer into electrical energy. Poly-resistance: resistance to more than one
Fuel cells are distinguished from batteries in that first-line anti-TB drug, other than both
te
they require a constant supply of fuel (like isoniazid and rifampicin ; Multidrug resistance
hydrogen) and oxygen, both of which must be (MDR): resistance to at least both isoniazid and
a
carried in pressurised tanks inside the submarine rifampicin ; Extensive drug resistance (XDR):
m
to keep the chemical reaction going on. resistance to any fluoroquinolone, and at
c
Reference- least one of three second-line injectable drugs

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/submari (capreomycin, kanamycin and amikacin), in
s
ne-tech-that-india-wants-aip-technology-7900043/ addition to multidrug resistance ; Rifampicin

p
resistance (RR): resistance to rifampicin

.u
detected using phenotypic or genotypic

Q.84) Ans: B methods, with or without resistance to other
w
Exp: anti-TB drugs. It includes any resistance to

w
● Statement 1 is correct : Tuberculosis is caused rifampicin, in the form of mono-resistance,

by bacillus Mycobacterium tuberculosis poly-resistance, MDR or XDR.
w
which typically affects lungs (pulmonary TB)
DPP 2023 DAY 174 61


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Reference: gland. Once thyroid gland absorbs radioactive

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/president- iodine, those exposed are at a high risk of
to-launch-pradhan-mantri-tb-mukt-bharat-abhiyaan- developing thyroid cancer.
on-september-9/article65866612.ece
Reference:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explaine
Q.85) Ans: C d-health/anti-radiation-pills-nuclear-emergency-
Exp: zaporizhzhia-ukraine-explained-8122949/
● Statement 1 is correct: With fears of a nuclear https://www.who.int/news-room/questions-and-
disaster at Ukraine’s Zaporizhzhia power plant answers/item/use-of-potassium-iodide-for-thyroid-
growing, the European Union has decided to protection-during-nuclear-or-radiological-
pre-emptively supply 5.5 million Anti- emergencies
Radiation Pills to be distributed among
residents in the vicinity. Potassium Iodide (KI)
tablets, or anti-radiation pills, are known to Q.86) Ans: A
provide some protection in cases of radiation Exp:
exposure. They contain non-radioactive ● Statement 1 is correct : Spent nuclear fuel,
iodine and can help block absorption, and occasionally called used nuclear fuel, is
subsequent concentration, of radioactive nuclear fuel that has been irradiated in a
iodine in the thyroid gland.After a radiation nuclear reactor (usually at a nuclear power
leak, radioactive iodine floats through the air plant). It is no longer useful in sustaining a
e
and then contaminates food, water and soil. nuclear reaction in an ordinary thermal reactor
n
Internal exposure, or irradiation, occurs when and depending on its point along the nuclear
li
radioactive iodine enters the body and fuel cycle, it may have considerably different
accumulates in the thyroid gland. The thyroid isotopic constituents. The term "fuel" is slightly
n
gland, which uses iodine to produce hormones confusing, as it implies a combustion of some
o
to regulate the body’s metabolism, has no way type, which does not occur in a nuclear power
l.
of telling radioactive from non-radioactive plant. Nevertheless, this term is generally
a
iodine. Potassium iodide (KI) tablets rely on accepted.

ri
this to achieve ‘thyroid blocking’ ● Statement 2 is not correct : Spent fuel is

● Statement 2 is not correct : Potassium Iodide dangerous because it contains a mixture of
te
may not give a person 100% protection. KI is fission products, some of which can be long-
most effective if taken shortly before or right lived radioactive waste, and also plutonium
a
after internal contamination with radioactive which is highly toxic. This necessitates remote
m
iodine. The effectiveness of KI also depends on handling and shielding. Spent nuclear fuel is
c
how much radioactive iodine gets into the highly radioactive and potentially very
body and how quickly it is absorbed in the harmful.Spent nuclear fuel, also called used
s
body. KI protects only against radioactive nuclear fuel, is the fuel that has undergone a
p
iodine and does not protect against other reactor campaign and is no longer useful for
.u
types of radiation sustaining the nuclear fission chain reaction in

● Statement 3 is correct : The thyroid becomes a thermal reactor. Spent fuel discharged from
w
full and cannot absorb any more iodine – either a power reactor contains residual 235U and
w
stable or radioactive for the next 24 hours. But converted plutonium, as well as fission-
KI pills are preventive only and cannot reverse product and transuranic wastes.
w
any damage done by radiation to the thyroid
DPP 2023 DAY 174 62


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Reference: Exp:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/spent- ● Statement 1 is correct: The ninth session of the
nuclear-fuel-storage-should-be-worked-out- governing body of the International Treaty on
sc/article65866983.ece Plant Genetic Resources for Food and
Agriculture (ITPGRFA) began in Delhi.
The International Treaty on Plant Genetic
Q.87) Ans: C Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA)
Exp: is known as Plant Treaty or Seed Treaty.The
● UNICEF and WHO released this report to see International Treaty on Plant Genetic
progress on WASH (Water, Sanitation and Resources for Food and Agriculture was
Hygiene) and linkages between WASH and adopted by the Thirty-First Session of the
infection prevention and control (IPC).The Conference of the Food and Agriculture
WHO and UNICEF release progress updates on Organization of the United Nations on 3
WASH in households, WASH in schools and November 2001. ITPGRFA finally entered into
WASH in health care facilities every two force in 2004 after 13 countries deposited their
years.WHO’s WASH Strategy has been instruments of ratification with the Director-
developed in response to the 2030 Agenda for General of the FAO.
Sustainable Development (SDG 3: Good Health
and Well Being, SDG 6: Clean Water And ● Statement 2 is correct:
Sanitation). The Plant/Seed Treaty is a legally-binding
international instrument that aims to:
Key findings:
e
Establish a global system to provide farmers,
➢ Nearly 4 bn people are at risk since
n
plant breeders and scientists with access to
li
over 50% of health facilities in the plant genetic materials; Ensure that recipients
share the benefits that they derive from the
n
world lack basic hygiene services.
➢ Achieving universal access to WASH in use of these genetic materials with the
o
health care facilities requires political countries where they originated; and
l.
will and strong leadership at both recognize the enormous contribution of
a
national and facility levels indigenous people and farmers as traditional

ri
➢ Achieving it is highly cost-effective and custodians of the world’s food crops.

te
would yield substantial health

benefits. Reference:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/pl
a
➢ Universal basic WASH services could

ant-treaty-ways-to-benefit-custodians-of-agricultural-
m
be achieved in 46 least developed

biodiversity-in-focus-84992
countries (LDCs) by 2030 for less than
c
US$10 billion.
s
Reference: Q.89) Ans: A

p
https://www.who.int/publications/i/item/progress- Exp:
.u
on-wash-in-health-care-facilities-2000-2021--special- ● Statement 1 is incorrect: A recent study

focus-on-wash-and-infection-prevention-and-control- published in Nature Climate Change said that
w
(ipc) melting the Greenland ice sheet will inevitably

w
increase global sea levels of at least 10.6 inches

in sea level, regardless of the climate action the
w
Q.88) Ans: C
DPP 2023 DAY 174 63


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
world chooses to take at this time. This is ● Statement 1 is incorrect: A group of researchers
because of the "zombie ice". has suggested that Shallow Water Mining is in
Zombie or doomed ice is ice that is still direct conflict with Biodiversity Conservation
attached to thicker areas of ice, but is no longer and Sustainability Goals, as the activity poses
getting fed by those larger glaciers. That’s severe environmental risks. Shallow-water
because the parent glaciers are getting less mining takes place at depths less than 200
replenishing snow. They can be part of the metres.Shallow-water mining projects are
North or South Pole but these ice shelves are already underway in Namibia and Indonesia, and
not underground. projects have been proposed in Mexico, New
Zealand, and Sweden.
● Statement 2 is correct: According to the study ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Shallow Water Mining
calculations, even if the global temperature is is considered a relatively low-risk and low-cost
equilibrated at the present stages, 3.3% of the option to satisfy the demand for metals and
total ice volume of Greenland will continue to minerals. Also, technology for shallow-water
unfreeze. It is based on the ratio of recharge to mining already exists. It has been touted as less
loss used to evaluate the minimum promised destructive than terrestrial mining and less
ice loss. The melting of the Greenland ice sheet risky than mining in Deep-Water
will inevitably raise the global sea levels by at Ecosystems.Mineral mining alters habitats as
least 10.6 inches or 27 centimetres. well as causes local biodiversity loss and changes
This is because of zombie ice which is certain in species communities.The overall
to melt away from the ice cap and blend into environmental effects of shallow-water mining
e
the ocean. It is bad news for millions that live are similar to those of operations where the
n
in coastal zones. 8 of the world’s 10 largest seafloor is excavated, such as dredging. This
li
cities are near the coast. Low lying coastal means that it can take decades for the
areas will take a harder hit. Rising sea levels will ecosystems to recover.
n
make flooding, high tides and storms more ● Statement 3 is incorrect: Shallow Water Mining
o
frequent and worse as their impact will reach is not a sustainable substitute for Deep-Sea
l.
more inland. Mining.This is because mining metals from the
a
shallow-water ocean floor requires removing

ri
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Also referred to as large amounts of sediment.Removing these

dead or doomed ice, Zombie ice is one that is sediments, which takes thousands of years to
te
not accumulating fresh snow even while accumulate, means jeopardizing organisms that
continuing to be part of the parent ice sheet. call it home.This could trigger local extinctions
a
Such ice is committed to melting away and and changes in species composition. Other
m
increasing sea levels. issues could be the impact on water quality and
c
release of harmful substances from the

Reference: sediment and disturbance from noise and
s
https://www.google.com/amp/s/m.economictimes.co light.As shallow-water ecosystems are already

p
m/news/international/us/zombie-ice-to-drastically- under stress due to pollution, and the impacts

.u
impact-global-sea-levels-read-on-to-find- of climate change.

out/amp_articleshow/93903149.cms
w
Reference: https://www.mining.com/shallow-water-
w
mining-in-direct-conflict-with-sustainability-goals-
Q.90) Ans: D study/
w
Exp:
DPP 2023 DAY 174 64


Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Q.91) Ans: C rition-rating-stars-set-to-appear-soon-on-food-pack-

Exp: labels-8163070/
● Statement 1 is not correct : Recently, the Food
Safety and Standards Authority of India
(FSSAI), the country’s apex food regulator, has Q.92) Ans: D
released a draft notification for Indian Exp:
Nutrition Rating and front-of-pack ● Factory farming of animal products for human
labelling.Food Safety and Standards Authority consumption is fuelling climate change,
of India is a statutory body established under according to a new report. Factory farming
the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, refers to intensive livestock production that
Government of India. The FSSAI has been maximises output at the lowest cost. Across
established under the Food Safety and four major hot spots, the annual consumption
Standards Act, 2006, which is a consolidating of chicken alone creates the same climate
statue related to food safety and regulation in change impact as keeping 29 million cars on
India.This draft notification caters to front-of- the road for a year. Some 69 billion chickens
pack labelling to discourage consumers from and 1.5 billion pigs are factory-farmed each
buying packaged food high in sugar, salt, and year. Factory farming is projected to grow
fat. exponentially across the world in the coming
● Indian Nutrition Rating (INR): The regulation years, with an overall increase in demand for
will require pre-packaged food to carry a star meat. Increasing demand for animal fodders
graphic, ranging from ½ to 5, next to the brand drives deforestation, causing carbon to be
e
name. The unhealthiest food items carry a ½- released into the atmosphere when the trees
n
star rating and the healthiest carry a 5-star are cut down and the soil is disturbed by
li
rating. Criteria for Scoring are Contribution of agriculture. Factory farming is the leading
energy ; Content of saturated fat, sugar, cause of massive forest devastation, which
n
sodium, fruit and vegetables (FV), nuts, eliminates wild animals’ habitats. In Brazil’s
o
legumes, and millets (NLM), dietary fibre, and Amazon Rainforest, for example, animal
l.
protein per 100 gm of solid or 100 ml liquid agriculture is linked to 75% of historic
a
foods ; Solid food with a score of more than 25 deforestation, as ranchers burn forests in
ri
will be given 0.5 stars, and those with a score order to convert them to pasture for beef and
less than minus 11 (-11) will get 5 stars. leather. The use of pesticides and fertilisers in
te
● Statement 2 is not correct: Food such as milk animal feeds results in significant issues with
and milk products, whey, butter oil, ghee, human health and land and water
a
vegetable oil and fat, fresh and frozen fruit contamination. Our lakes, rivers, and
m
and vegetables, fresh and frozen meat, egg, groundwater are being poisoned by pesticide
c
fish, flour, and sweeteners will not have to and fertilizer run-off from animal-feed crops
display the star rating. Carbonated beverages and by the mismanagement of the vast
s
without any energy or sugar will also not be amounts of manure produced by factory
p
eligible for declaring the rating, according to farmed animals. The diminishing quality and
.u
the notification. quantity of our soil are a direct result of our

inherently destructive monoculture crop
w
system. And that system is in large part a

w
Reference: response to the huge quantities of corn and

https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/health/nut soy fed to factory farmed animals. Meat
w
production is one of the primary drivers of
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global warming. Corn and soy, by far the two advocated for creating a new finance facility or
largest GMO crops, are the central feed fund dedicated to loss and damage. The
ingredients of factory farmed animals. Every proposal for loss and damage financing was
time we eat a meal that includes food from a once again rejected by developed countries. A
factory farm, we are putting money directly 2-year Glasgow Dialogue was established at
into the coffers of Monsanto and Syngenta and the COP26. It will discuss possible
supporting the use of destructive monoculture arrangements for loss and damage funding. It
farming as well as the immense amount of was also agreed to operationalise and fund the
herbicide and pesticides that are the backbone Santiago Network on Loss and Damage (SNLD).
of the GMO system.
Reference:
Reference:
https://www.theguardian.com/world/2022/sep/04/p
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-
akistan-floods-reparations-climate-disaster
change/what-is-the-environmental-cost-of-factory-
farmed-meat--84760
https://www.britannica.com/explore/savingearth/ani
mal-factory-farms-an-environmental-catastrophe
Q.94) Ans: C
Exp:
● The Montreal Protocol is an international
Q.93) Ans: C
treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by
Exp:
phasing out the production of numerous
● There is no official definition of ‘Loss and
e
substances that are responsible for ozone
damage‘. Loss generally refers to the complete
n
depletion. It was agreed on 16 September
forfeiture of items like land, ecosystems, or of
li
1987, and entered into force on 1 January
human lives, while damage refers to the harm
1989.The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal
n
to infrastructure and property that could be
Protocol is an international agreement to
o
repaired. The term includes both economic
gradually reduce the consumption and
l.
and non-economic losses. Loss and damage
production of hydrofluorocarbons (HFC’s). It
first appeared in the negotiated outcome of
a
is a legally binding agreement designed to

the UN climate talks in 2007 as part of the Bali
ri
create rights and obligations in international

Action Plan. In 2013, Warsaw International
law.
te
Mechanism (WIM) (CoP 19) was formed to

● The Vienna Convention (1985) is the first
avert, minimise and address loss and damage.
international agreement dedicated to the
a
It was the first formal acknowledgment of the

protection of the ozone layer. The Convention
m
need to compensate developing countries

commits all countries to take measures to
struck by climate disasters.The WIM has been
c
protect human health and the environment

mandated to share knowledge, strengthen
resulting from modifications to the ozone
s
dialogues among stakeholders and mobilise

layer.
p
expertise to enhance action and support to

● The Kyoto Protocol was an international treaty
.u
address loss and damage.Loss and Damage is

which extended the 1992 United Nations
mentioned in Article 8 of the Paris Agreement.
Framework Convention on Climate Change
w
However, there is no reference to provision of

that commits state parties to reduce
finance for climate reparation/compensation
w
greenhouse gas emissions, based on the

in this Article.At COP26 in Glasgow, a large
scientific consensus that global warming is
w
coalition of climate-vulnerable countries
DPP 2023 DAY 174 66


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occurring and that human-made CO₂ emissions Q.96) Ans: D

are driving it. Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Recently, the
Reference: International Labour Organisation (ILO)
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1859 released the World Social Protection Report
829 2020-22.It gives a global overview of recent
developments in social protection systems,
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/new-
including social protection floors, and covers the
updates/world-ozone-day-how-is-the-earths-ozone-
layer-doing-28-years- impact of the COVID-19 pandemic. Based on new
on/articleshow/94240707.cms?from=mdr data, it offers a broad range of global, regional
and country data on social protection coverage,
benefits and public expenditures.The report
Q.95) Ans: D identifies protection gaps and sets out key policy
Exp: recommendations, including in relation to the
● A windfall tax is a tax levied by governments targets of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable
Development.
against certain industries when economic
conditions allow those industries to experience Flagship Reports of ILO are:
above-average profits. Windfall taxes are ➢ Global Wage Report
primarily levied on companies in the targeted ➢ World Employment and Social Outlook
industry that have benefited the most from the (WESO)
economic windfall, most often commodity- ➢ World Social Protection Report
e
based businesses.A windfall tax is a surtax ➢ World of Work Report
n
imposed by governments on businesses or ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Social protection is
li
economic sectors that have benefited from designed to prevent deprivation, give
n
economic expansion.They are called so as the assurance of a basic minimum income and
profits are derived from an external or o
protect the individual from any uncertainties.It
unprecedented event or from something the includes measures related especially to old age,
l.
firm actively did not participate in — for unemployment, sickness, disability, work injury,
a
instance, the energy price-rise as a result of the maternity or the loss of the primary
ri
Russia-Ukraine conflict.Typically, it’s levied as a breadwinner. ILO also released a report specific
te
one-off tax retrospectively over and above the to Asia and the Pacific.
normal rates of tax.In oil markets, price 1. The report notes that Mongolia, New Zealand,
a
fluctuation leads to volatile or erratic profits for Singapore and Australia have 100 per cent
m
the industry. Hence, tax is levied to redistribute social protection net, while in Myanmar and
unexpected gains when high prices benefit Cambodia, the number stands below 10 per
c
producers at the expense of consumers.It can cent.

s
be used to fund social welfare schemes, and as 2. Only 24.4 percent of Indians, even fewer than
p
a supplementary revenue stream for the Bangladesh (28.4 percent), are under any sort
.u
government. of social protection benefit, according to a

latest report on social protection by the
w
Reference: International Labour Organisation (ILO)

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/why-is- 3. According to the report, as of 2020, only 46.9
w
windfall-tax-being-imposed-on-the-energy- percent of the global population was

w
sector/article65857808.ece?homepage=true effectively covered by at least one social

protection benefit, while the remaining 53.1
DPP 2023 DAY 174 67

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per cent as many as 4.1 billion people were left and spiritual texts. He was responsible for
wholly unprotected. Highlighting the inherent bringing Hindu culture and spiritual traditions
gender inequality in the social protection to Europe and the West through his
coverage, the report makes note women’s translations.
coverage lag behind men’s by a substantial 8
percentage points.
Reference: Reference:
https://www.ilo.org/global/research/global- https://indianculture.gov.in/stories/dara-shikoh
reports/world-social-security-report/2020-22/lang--
en/index.htm
Q.98) Ans: B
Q.97) Ans: A Exp:
Exp: ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Mandala Art Literally
● Statement 1 is correct: Shah Jahan's eldest son meaning “circle” or “centre” in Sanskrit. It is
Dara Shikoh lived from 1615 until 1659. He was defined by a geometric configuration that
dubbed a "liberal Muslim" who sought usually incorporates the circular shape in some
common ground between Hindu and Islamic form. It can also be created in the shape of a
traditions. square, a mandala pattern is essentially
In India, he is regarded as a forerunner of the interconnected. Mandalas consist of
academic movement for interfaith geometric designs that often rely on symmetry
e
understanding. He was well knowledgeable around a circle. In various spiritual traditions,
n
about major religions, notably Islam and mandalas are used as an aid in meditation.
Hinduism.In contrast to Aurangzeb, he Though rooted in Buddhism, mandalas soon
li
preferred philosophy and mysticism over became present in Hinduism and other
n
military endeavours. religious practices. o
l.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: After Shah Jahan fell ● There are various types of mandalas found in
a
ill, his father designated him Crown Prince in different cultures and used for a multitude of
ri
1655, but he was defeated by Aurangzeb, his purposes, both artistically and spiritually.
younger brother, in 1657. Below are three main types of mandalas and
te
In a long fight for the throne, he was killed by how they are used.
Aurangzeb on August 30, 1659, when he was 1. Teaching Mandala :- Teaching mandalas are
a
44 years old. symbolic, and each shape, line, and color

m
represents a different aspect of a philosophical

● Statement 3 is correct: Majma-ul-Bahrain or religious system. The student creates his or
c
(Mingling of Two Oceans) and Sirr-i-Akbar her own mandala based on principles of design
s
(Great Mystery), two of his most notable and construction, projecting a visual
p
writings, are committed to the purpose of symbolization of everything they have learned.
.u
creating links between Hinduism and Islam. Teaching mandalas serve as colorful, mental
He learned Sanskrit and Persian, allowing him maps for their creators.
w
to play a significant role in popularising Indian 2. Healing Mandala:- Healing mandalas are more
w
culture and Hindu religious philosophy.From intuitive than teaching mandalas, and they are
Sanskrit to Persian, he translated the made for the purpose of meditation. Healing
w
Upanishads and other major Hindu religious mandalas are intended to deliver wisdom,
DPP 2023 DAY 174 68


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evoke feelings of calm, and channel focus and Wategaon village in Satara district in south
concentration. Maharashtra in a Dalit family.
3. Sand Mandala :- Buddhist monks and Navajo He is widely regarded as the Father of Dalit
cultures have long used sand mandalas as a literature and has contributed extensively to
traditional, religious element. These intricate the Ambedkarite movement.
designs use a variety of symbols made from
colored sand that represent the ● Statement 2 is incorrect:
impermanence of human life. His Work: Several of his works like ‘Aklechi
Goshta,’ ‘Stalingradacha Povada,’ ‘Mazi Maina
● Statement 2 is correct: It is believed to be Gavavar Rahili,’ ‘Jag Badal Ghaluni Ghav’ were
rooted in Buddhism, appearing in the first popular across the state.
century BC in India. Over the next couple Almost six of his novels were turned into films
centuries, Buddhist missionaries travelling and many translated into other languages,
along the silk road took it to other regions. By including Russian. His ‘Bangalchi Hak’ (Bengal’s
the sixth century, mandalas have been Call) on the Bengal famine was translated into
recorded in China, Korea, Japan, Indonesia and Bengali and later presented at London’s Royal
Tibet. In Hinduism, the mandala imagery first Theatre.
appeared in Rig Veda (1500 – 500 BCE). There However Shrimad Bhagvad Gita Rahasya,
are various elements incorporated within the popularly also known as Gita Rahasya or
mandala, each of which has its own meaning. Karmayog Shastra, is a 1915 Marathi language
For instance, the eight spokes of the wheel (the book authored by Indian social reformer and
e
dharmachakra) represent the eightfold path of independence activist Bal Gangadhar Tilak
n
Buddhism (practices that lead to liberation while he was in prison at Mandalay, Burma.
li
from rebirth), the lotus flower depicts balance,
and the sun represents the universe. Facing up, ● Statement 3 is correct: Sathe’s work was
n
triangles represent action and energy, and immensely inspired by the Russian revolution
o
facing down, they represent creativity and and the Communist ideology. He was a
l.
knowledge. member of the Communist Party of India and
a
he was among the few Indian writers whose

ri
Reference: works have been translated into Russian. Sathe

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explaine died in 1969 in Mumbai at the young age of 49.
te
d-culture/mandala-art-history-buddhism-james-brunt-
8101223/lite/ Reference:
a
https://www.invaluable.com/blog/what-is-a- https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.theweek.in/lei
m
mandala/ sure/society/2022/09/16/who-was-annabhau-sathe-
c
whose-statue-unveiled-fadnavis-moscow.amp.html
s
Q.99) Ans: B
p
Exp: Q.100) Ans: B

.u
● Statement 1 is correct: Annabhau Sathe or Exp:

Tukaram Bhaurao Sathe is known as Lok ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Caracal, which was
w
Shaheer in Maharashtra. Lok Shaheer means used by India’s nobility in the sport of coursing
w
people's balladeer. His writing was influenced like the cheetah, is struggling to survive,
by communism and, more so, the Russian although both species had a similar distribution
w
revolution. Sathe was born in 1920 in in the past. The Asiatic caracal is a medium-
DPP 2023 DAY 174 69


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sized and locally threatened cat species, which

has been widely reported to be on the brink of
extinction in India.The caracal was the only
other feline apart from Cheetah which was used
for hunting in India. For instance, Firoz Shah
Tughlaq had many Caracals in his hunting
establishment and Akbar was very fond of using
Caracal for hunting purposes.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Caracal species are
listed under ‘schedule I’ of Wildlife Protection
Act,1972 and ‘Least Concern’ in IUCN status.
Large-scale hunting, illegal trading and loss of
natural habitats are considered significant
threats to the species.In 2021, the National
Board for Wildlife and the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change
included Caracal in the list of Critically
Endangered species under critically endangered
species recovery programme which is one of the
three components of the Integrated
Development of Wildlife Habitats (IDWH).
e
● Statement 3 is correct: They are found mostly in
n
Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh and
li
are located in Kutch, the Malwa Plateau, the
Aravalli range. Besides India, the caracal is found
n
in several dozen countries across Africa, the o
Middle East, Central and South Asia.It occurs in
l.
semi-deserts, steppes, savannah, scrubland, dry
a
forest and moist woodland or evergreen forest.It

ri
prefers open terrain and drier, scrubby, arid

habitats and needs cover.The large amounts of
te
caracal suitable habitats in these states fell

within protected areas thus providing an
a
excellent opportunity for its conservation in the

m
already existing management and conservation

c
setup.
s
Reference:
p
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-
.u
biodiversity/caracal-as-the-cheetah-returns-to-india-
researchers-map-out-most-suitable-areas-for-its-
w
coursing-counterpart-84959
w
w
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IDMP TEST SERIES-2023

High Yielding PRELIMS TEST SERIES

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Q.6) Wear and tear losses (Depreciation) rates of d) 1, 2 and 3

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a) 1 only b) Laffer Curve

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health impacts of climate change. standards.

a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the codes given

b) 1 and 3 only below:

d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only

Q.24) Consider the following statements regarding d) 1, 2 and 3

reservation of the reserved forests. correct regarding the “BUNKER’’ Convention?

forest for “essential non-forest purposes”.

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towards exploration of deep ocean resources.

Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals b) 2 and 3 only

1. It is an environmental treaty administered by the d) 1, 2 and 3

United Nations Environment Programme.

the COP13. launched by the World Meteorological

b) 1 and 3 only the disaster data from the annual publication of

c) 2 and 3 only India Meteorological Department “Annual

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1. All-season ozone hole is defined as an area of

50% by 2047. on the critical need for scientific knowledge and

a) 1 only 2. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate

c) Both 1 and 2 Conference.

d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres had

declared an “ocean emergency” at the UN Ocean

1. Project Elephant is a Centrally Sponsored Schemes a) 1 only

their habitats and corridors. c) 1 and 3 only

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d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.41) Consider the following statements regarding

cigarette packets. biodiversity boards for accessing biological

a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 only

d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) 3 only

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b) 1 only unadjusted weighted average rate at which one

d) 3 only foreign currencies.

2. The real effective exchange rate (REER) is the

a) A newly discovered spider species in the Western adjusted for inflation.

Ghats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

b) A sky surveying project a) 1 only

d) A carbon tracking initiative by Russian c) Both 1 and 2

Bio Fortified Rice:

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Q.50) Consider the following statements regarding a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 2 only purpose of the ‘Climate Equity Monitor’ seen

c) 2 and 3 only frequently in news?

are spending to boost forest carbon stocks under

the types of Planning: b) Its goal is to keep track of Annex-I Parties'

2. In Indicative Planning, the planning authority methodologies in order to determine UNFCCC

decides about every aspect of the economy to the targets.

3. In a rolling plan, every year three plans are drawn

Which of the statements given above is /are correct ?