BANARAS HINDU UNIVERSITY PET (LL.M.) idealism and abstractions cone! a + Man turns wee Saaae 'S and positive facts, Power. Disillusioned he back agair we leaks gain to ideals and metaphysical The above statement is of: (a) Wayne Morrison (b) W. Friedmann (©) Hegel (@) Immanuel Kant 2, Which of the following statement is correct? (@) There is only one positivism in legal theory which is called analytical itivism. (®) There is only one positivism in legal theory which is ‘called functional positivism. () There are two types of positivism in legal theory which is called analytical and functional or pragmatic positivism. (@ There is no difference between positivism and idealism. 4, ‘Where there is law, there human conduct js made in some sense non-optional or obligatory’. The above statement is of: (@) John Austin ) HLA. Hart (Q Hans Kelsen (@) Joseph Raz 4, Which of the following book is the work of Jeremy Bentham published by Prof. Everett? (@) The limits of Jurisprudence defined (The province of Jurisprudence determined (9 The concept of low (@) Theory of Fictions {Which of the following statement is Correct regarding ‘rule of recognition’ and ‘Fundnorm? (@) Rule of recognition is a rule of positive law grundnorm is a meta-legal juristic hy is. ,» 2014 10. 12. 541 . The term “L (b) Rule Of recognition is a meta-legal waistic hypothesis, grundnorm is a rile of positive law, (©) Rule of Tecognition and \dnorm a i aa poe juristic Fyporhests, ion both are rule °F postive ine a 1 ” ‘ OE oe ‘Was coined by: (b) Roscoe Pound (0) Salmond (@) W. Friedmann Effectiveness” is the element of: (a) Sovereignty (©) Volkgeist (©) Grundnorm (4) Primary Rule Who has viewed “Justice” as irrational (@) Jeremy Bentham (b) Hans Kelsen (©) Herebert Spencer (d) John Rawls . Who has divided the Legal Realists in two groups of Skeptic’? (@) John Chipman Gray (b) Karl Llewellyn (©) Jerome Frank (4) OW. Holmes Who authored the book “Bramble Bush”? (a) Karl Llewellyn (b) Jerome Frank (0) Roscoe Pound (@) Ihering ‘Fact Skeptic’ and ‘Rule - Thibaut's proposal for codification on the lines of Napoleonic Code was ‘opposed by: (a) Hobbes (b) Savigny (c) John Locke (d) Karl Marx Who defined jurisprudence as “philosophy of positive law”? (a) Holland (b) Kelsen(©) Hart (d) Austin 13. The concept of “integrative Jurisprudence” was proposed by: (a) CK. Allen (b) Jerome Kall (©) Julius Stone (d) Paton 14. The ‘Principles of Respect’ and the ‘Principles of Participation’ were given by: (a) Immanuel Kant (b) Stammler () Kohlar (4) John Finnis 15. “The history of natural law is a tale of the ‘Search of mankind for absolute justice and of its failure.” The above statement is of (a) John Locke (&) Hobbes (©) Stammler (a) W. Friedmann 16. Reason is superior to will. Only in God are will and reason one, This statement is essence of: (a) St. Thomas Acquinas (b) Dans Scotus (©) Hugo Grotius (a) John Austin 17. While emphasizing upon the coercive nature of law, who said that ‘a legal rule without compulsion is like a fire wt does not burn, a light that does not shin (a) John Austin m (b) Hans Kelsen (©) HLL.A. Hart (d) Ihering 18. Which of the following statement is not correct about legal positivism? (a) Laws are commands. (b) Purpose guides juridical thinking, (C) Moral judgments cannot be defended by rational arguments. (d) There is a strict separation between “is” and “ought”, 19. Who has given the term “the Skeptical Movement” for legal realism? (a) Jerome Frank (b) Oliphant (c) Professor Corbin (d) John Dickinson 21. 2: 24. 8 25. 8 Solved Papers of LLM. Entrance Ep i Which of the following, Stat "tion, jural postulates is not correct aay (@) Jural postulates are cong values, ideals and the neege one a particular time and place, ™n 4 ) Jura postulates are workin ‘a Jural postulates are ae LyPothes sacrosanct. te ang id) Jural postulates are rationay. w Laine of the members of ation of society. Wilize New States may be formed under (a) Article 2 of the Constitution (b) Article 3 of the Constitution (0) Article 368 of the Constitution | (a) Article 4 of the Constitution Following is not the functio Commission of India? a) Superintendence, direct Oe Eeaiatian of acta a (b) Conduct of election | () Advising the President Of the Election a ON question, of disqualification of Mi Parliament ae (a) Requisition of staff of non, bodies —, (a) Election to Lok Sabha can be called in question before the Supreme Court, (b) Election to Lok Sabha can be called in question before the Authority provided. (©) Election to Lok Sabha can be called in question before the President of India (4) Validity of law relating to delimitation of constituencies can’ be called in question before the court Which of the following is not true? (a) The Legislature of a State may be law impose tax on goods imported from other state. (b) The Legislature of a State may impose reasonable restrictions with previous sanction of the President The legislature of a State may be lw impose tax on goods imported from other State but not to discriminate between goods. (d) Parliament may be law authorise discrimination to deal with scarcity of goods. There are a total of: : (@) 395 Articles and XII Schedules i Constitution of India . Which of the following is true? | (csersity (LLM.), 2014 artides and X Schedules in o Session of India Go artcles and. X Schedules in 6 Prstittion of India Ce asties and XI Schedules in (@ Zonstitation of India i sin Ui AC cooper v. Union of India is commonly #5 Reyn 98? ey Purse case (9) Pr mental Right case Nationalization case “ial Commission case sje 245 has been interpreted on the @ s , ine of Territorial Nexus () Deine of colourable legislation : Doctrine of severability trine of Pith and substance (d) Doct 5 owing does not fall under Article 21 of Constitution ? 4 Right of release of bonded labour against cruel and unusual (@ Right to education (@) Right to privacy the law made by, 2 State if found to Mie inconsistent with the law made by Patiament with respect to the same subject matter, shall be. @) Void (@) In-operative (a) Eclipsed “{) Void to the extent of inconsistency @) A. Goemor of a State may promulgate _Grfinances under the following Article. — @) 123 ~ 213 (9 321 ~ d) 312 iin which one of the following cases ' “the decision of the Supreme Court has Giminalized the homosexual behaviour? (a) TR. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu 1) Suresh Kausal v. Union of India 7 Naz Foundation v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi eer for Homosexual Rights v- | Union of India the Indian Constitution, on American m has the following right in India: Right to vote Right to freedom of speech & expression Right to equality Right to freedom of Trade & Business 33. 35, 36. 37. 38. 39. 543 In which case, the Supreme Court has held that fundamental duties must be used 2° a too! to control State action drifting from constitutional values? (a) AIMS Students Union v. AIMS (b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (©) Sackidanand Pandey v. State of W-B- (a) LK. Kotwal v. State of Rajasthan In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India invalidated clause (4) and (5) of Article 368 as violative of the basic structure of the constitution? (a) Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala (b) Mineroa Mills v. Union of India (©) M. Nagraj v. Union of India (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab The doctrine of ‘Prospective Overruling’ was first evolved by Chief Justice Subba Rao in: (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (©) Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala (d) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India Which one of the following Amendments. inserted the words “Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment made under this article in Article 368”? (a) Forty-second Amendment Act (b) Forty-fourth Amendment Act (©) Twenty-fourth Amendment Act (d) Twenty-second Amendment Act In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India declared that Article 21A includes primary and secondary education? (a) T.M. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka (b) Islamic Academy of Education v. State of Karnataka () AB. Christian Medical Education Society y. State of AP. (a) State of Maharashtra v. Sant Gyaneshwoar Education Collage ‘2G’ Case stands for: (a) Centre for Public Interest Litigation v. Union of India (b) Special reference No 1 of 1998 (©) Special reference No. 1 of 1964 (4) Dr. M. Ismail Farugui v. Union of India Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection ‘of Children) Act, 2000 Is a small step in reaching the goal enshrined by Article 44 of the Constitution. This observation was made by the Supreme Court in:4. 42, 43. (@) Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (b) Lily Thomas v. Union of India (©) John v. Union of India (4) Sabnam Hasmi v. Union of India . In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has said that ‘Righi to ‘seek for mercy under Article 72/161 of the Constitution is a Constitutional right and Not discretion or whims of the executive’? (a) Centre for Public Interest Litigation v. Union of India (b) Sabnam Hasmi v. Union of India (©) Kehar Singh v. Union of india (4) Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India A contract creates: (a) Only obligations and no rights (a) Only rights and no obligations (a) Right in rem (a) Right in personam Which of the following sections of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 were repealed by the Sale of Goods Act, 1930? (@) 100 to 123 () 76 to 239 (©) 76 to 123 (4) 239 to 266 ‘A master asks his servant to sell his cycle to him at less than the market price. This contract can be avoided by the servant on the ground of: (@) Coercion (b) Fraud () Mistake () Undue influence |. Which one of the following is correct? (@) Past consideration is no consideration. (b) Future consideration is no consideration. (©) Promise to perform a legal duty is no consideration. (a) A promise not to do something is no consideration. ‘A and B make a contract grounded on the erroneous belief that a particular debt is boli by the law of limitation. The contract s: (@) Void (b) Voidable (©) Not Voidable (a) None of the above ‘A’ contracts to Pay to ‘B’ house is burnt, This is a: (a) Contingent contract (b) Wagering contract Rs. 1,000 if B's 47. 49. 51. 52. Solved Papers of LL.M. Entrance Scam “ons (0) Voidable contract (d) None of the above Power to set aside a contract jn Fidue influence is mentioned jn ma by (a) Section 19 on: (b) Section 19A (c) Section 16 (d) None of the above ‘A’ agrees to sell to ‘B’ one Enos of rice at a price to be rousand ‘¢’. The agreement is: by (@) Valid (b) Void (©) Voidable (@) Unlawful Jamal v. Moola Dawood Sons and Co, ig, case on: (@) Impossibility of contract (&) Measure of damages (©) Performance of contract (d) Offer and acceptance In which case public policy has been characterized as unruly horse: (@) Mohori Bibi v. Dharmodas Ghosh (b) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Bail Co, (0) Brahm Dutt Sharma v. LIC of india (@) Richardson v. Mellish Damages allowed under section 73 of the Indian Contract Act are: (@) Liquidated damages (©) Compensatory damages (©) Panel damages (a) None of the above ‘A person who finds goods belonging to another, takes them into his custody, liable in respect of goods: @) as a bailee (b) as an agent (c) as a creditor (a) asa surety . A owes ‘B’ Rs. 6000. ‘A’ pays to ‘B’ Rs. 3000 and ‘B’ accepts it in satisfaction of whole claim on ‘A’ here: (a) whole debt is discharged (©) no debt is discharged (©) a part of debt is discharged (d) none of the above . Which one of the following is not correct in respect of quasi contract? (a) obligation between parties is created by Ww. (b) obligation between parties is created by contract,University (LLM.), 2014 nd qreation of obligation consent of (0 vrties is not necessary. Mention of the parties has ng @ portance wich. of the following section of Indian rs oo tract ‘Act defines “immorality”? Peas n © vrone of the above vg ‘tight to redeem’ has .Pavmers "ihder which section ae mer contract Act, 1872? Section 176 Section 177 (g, section 178 (section 174 Geath of surety discharges him from s the liability in: fp every guarantee ; f) continuing guarantee as to future transaction (0) ordinary guarantee {@) none of these 4. uizenv. Nicolls is a leading case on: (a) Quasi contract () Pledge (0) Bailment _— @) Indemnity 44 which of the following is not correct in respect of standard form of contract: (a) It is called contract of adhesion (a) Itis called compulsory contract -§@) Itis called private legislation (a) Its called contract implied in law ) 1 The doctrine of frustration of contract @ (@) only in case of executed contract (b) only in case of executory contract (Q inboth executed and executory contract (@) none of the above is correct 4i, Word ‘Tort’ is derived from latin term: (@) Wrong (b) Delict () Tortum (@) Rectum, "Writ Trespass and Writ of Trespass on “wheal available in England at shop _ 0) Officina Coffinium (©) Officina Brevium 67. 68. Toft of Nuisance is~ (a) Tort actionable per se. (b) Tort actionable on proof of no loss. (©) Tort actionable on proof of violation of statutory rights. (d) Tort actionable on proof of damage. Joint Tort-feasors and Several Tort feasors are differentiated on the basis of: (a) Mental concurrence (b) Physical concurrence (c) Mental and physical concurrence (4) Neither by mental nor by physical concurrence Rule laid down in Merryweather v. Nixan (1799) 8 TR 186 is related with: (@) Contribution between Joint Tort-feasors. (b) Contribution between Several Tort- feasors. (©) Contribution between both joint and Several Tort-feasors. (d) None of the above. . Following cases are matched (1) Geddis v. Propritors of Bann Reservoir sum Statutory Authority (2) Haynes v. Harwood Rescue cases (3) Fordon v. Harcourt Rivington um Conditional Authority (4) Greenock Corporation v. Caledonian Railway sous ViS Major Correct match is: (a) @), @) and (3) (b) (1), (2) and (4) (©) (2), (3) and (4) (a) (1), (3) and (4) In Rule of Strict Liability which element was added by Lord Cairns? (a) Thing collected must be dangerous thing. (b) Thing collected has escaped. (c) Non-natural user of land. (d) Alll of the above. ‘Absolute Liability Rule laid down in M.C. ‘Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 965 is applicable for imposition of liability on: (a) Enterprises engaged in hazardous activities. (b) Enterprises engaged in non-hazardous activities. (©) Enterprises engaged in contractual activities. (d) Enterprises engaged in any activities.2 & 74, 75. 76. . “Egg-shell Skul’ is related to: (a) Apportionment of damages (b) Contribution of damages (0) Set off of damages (4) Remoteness of damages In case of ‘novus actus intervenience’ Consequences are considered proximate when: (@) Intervention snaps chain of causation (a) Intervention acts like conduit pipe (a) Intervention causes substantial loss (a) Intervention causes negligible loss - In which case it was decided that for false imprisonment total restraint is essential? Requirement— (@) Ashby v. White (b) Leanse v. Egerton (©) Brown v. Kendal (@) Bird v. Jones Tort of Defamation is related to— (@) Injury to reputation (b) Injury to disposition (©) Injury to character (d) Injury to motive Statement made in Innuendo is: (@) Prima facie defamatory, use of explanatory statement is not needed. (b) Prima facie innocent, use of explanatory statement is needed. (©) Both of the above (d) None of the above Jus tertii is defence available for: (a) Tort of False imprisonment (b) Tort of defamation (0) Tort of Conversion (d) Tort of Assault Neighbourhood theory was given in the case of: (a) Blyth v, Brimingham Waterworks Co. (b) Donoghue v. Stevenson ‘4 Palsgraf v. Long Island Railroad Co (@) Ashby v. White ‘Res Ipsa Loquitur’ rule: (a) Shifts onus of proof (b) Shifts onus of damages (©) Set of damages (@) Increases damages (a) Rescue cases (©) Statutory authority (©) Vicarious liability (a) Composite liability 78. ae Solved Papers of LLM. Entrance Examinatg, Contemptuous damages are awardeg when? 5 (a) Plaintiff has technically a legal cain but there is no moral justification for j (b) Plaintiff has sustained no loss but th, is infringement of absolute right, (c) Plaintiff has suffered loss accordingly he is compensated, (d) Plaintiff has suffered loss but damages is awarded to punish and deter the defendant. and 79, In law of Torts Maintenance and Champerty 80. 81. 82. + (Qui tacit per alium facit per sp’ is related 83. with: are related to: (a) Maintenance of wife (b) Maintenance of Child (c) Maintenance of Parents (d) Maintenance by money by a thing person to either party to a suit ‘Derry v. Peek’ case is related with: (a) Tort of Nuisance (b) Tort of Deceit (c) Tort of conversion (d) Rescue cases Find out incorrect response— The provisions of the Indian Penal Code shall apply, under extension of code to extra territorial offences, to any offence committed by: (a) any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India (©) any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever it may be (c) any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India (d) any citizen in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India Which one of the following sections excludes the operation of the indian Penal Code in those cases where separate Provisions have been made by any Act or Special or local laws? (a) Section 5 (b) Section 4 (©) Section 3 (a) Section 2 For which one of the following chapters Ht the code, section 6, IPC clriies that ‘very definition or penal provision and Svery illustration of every such definition or penal provision shall be under Subject to the provisions of that chapter? idnda Unicersty LLM.) 2014 Chapter 3, LP.C. Chapter 4, LP.C. apter 6, LP.C. (Chapter 9 IPC. 4 out correct statement af ‘a collector exercising jurisdiction in a @ suit under Act 10 of 1859, is nota judge, JA magistrate exercising jurisdiction ©) 5) respect of a charge on which he has power tO sentence to fine or imprisonment with or without appeal, jg not a judge. oA member of panchayat which has ower, under Regulation VII, 1816, of the Madras code, to try and determine suit, is not judge. (@ A magistrate exercising Jurisdiction in respect of a charge on which he has power only to commit for trial to another court, is not a judge. ‘A municipal commissioner is: ‘ (@) A public servant (b) Not a public servant (9 Common man of municipality only {d) None of the above | gg. ‘Movable property’ means— (@) Corporeal property of every description (b) Land and things attached to the earth (9 Permanently fastened to anything which is attached to the earth (@) Stones and precious jewels imbedded in the earth ff, Find out incorrect statement: (@) A cheque upon, a banker is document () A power-of-attomey is a document (9 A map or plan which is intended to be used @ @ (@) A writing containing directions or instruction is not document 8. Which one of the following cases was decided for the first time relating to the "application of section 34, LP.C.? | @) Mahboob Shah v. Emperor ©) Kirpal Singh v. State of U.P. __®) Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. King Emperor (a) Khacheru Singh v. State of U.P. ' Section 528 was inserted under the code by which one of the following Criminal Law Amendment Act? (8) Act VII of 1930 a () Act X of 2009 © Act vit of 1942 ©) Act vit of 1913 _—_————————— 547 80. Which one of the following punishments 91. 92, 95. Was substituted for ‘Transportation’ ? (a) Death (b) Imprisonment for life (©) Imprisonment (d) Fine ‘Act done by misfortune’ is a defence from criminal responsibility under which one of the following sections of the code? (a) Section 76 (b) Section 78 (©) Section 80 (d) Section 82 ‘A’ a surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient his opinion that be can not live. The patient dies in consequence of the shock. ‘A’ has committed: (a) an offence of culpable homicide (b) an offence of murder (6) no offence (a) death by negligence 1. The right of private defence of body extends, under the restrictions mentioned in the code, to the voluntary causing of death under which one of the following circumstances ? (@) anassault with the intention of wrongful restraint (b) an assault as may reasonably cause the apprehension of simple hurt (©) an assault with the intention of use of criminal force. (d) an act of throwing acid which may reasonably cause the apprehension grievous hurt. Which one of the following sections of the code defines ‘Abuttor’? (a) Section 107 (b) Section 108 (©) Section 109 (d) Section 110 ‘A’ Instigates ‘B’ to murder to do so. ‘A’ commits: (a) no offence (b) offence of abetment (0) offence of criminal conspiracy (d) attempt to murder The case of Bimbdhar Pradhan v. State of Orissa is related to: (a) Section 107 read with Section 409 and 477A, IPC. (b) Section 1208 read with Section 34, LP.C. (©) Section 120B read with Section 409 and 477A, LPC. (@) None of the above ‘B’ refuses548. 97. A member of an unlawful assembly shall be punished with: (a) a description for a term which may extend to six months only (b) a description for a term which may extend to one year only (©) a description for a term which may extend to six months or with fine or with both a description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine or with (a) 98. Which one of the following sections is inserted under the Indian Penal Code by the No. 13 of the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 20137 (a) Section 124A (b) Section 354A (©) Section 498A (2) None of the above 99. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code provides ‘the principles of vicarious liability’ under the criminal Law? (a) Sections 34 and 149 (b) Sections 154, 155 and 156 (©) Sections 107 and 109 (d) Sections 120A and 120B 100. ‘A’ Cheats by pretending to be ‘B’ a person who is deceased. ‘A’ is liable under which one of the following sections of the code? (a) Section 417 (b) Section 419 (©) Section 420 (d) None of the above 101. Hunting of following animal is permissible under Wild Life Protection Act, 1972? (a) Elephant (b) Tiger (©) Vermin (a) Deer 102. The Wild Life (Protection) Act was enacted by Parliament under Article: (a) 253 (b) 248 (c) 252 (a) 250 103. In which case, the Supreme Court iterated the importance of the Doctrine of Public Trust in maintaining Sustainable Development which has been declared as inalienable human right by UN General ‘Assembly: (a) Intellectuals Forum, Tirupathi v. State of A.P. and others () Hinchlal Titoari v. Kamla Devi and others 104. 105. 107. 108. 109, . Environment (Protection) Act, 1995 Sole Papers of LM. Entrance Ey ~ ‘ ing (0) MC. Mehta v. Kamal Nath | (d) Subhas Kumar v. State of Bihap The National Tiger Conservation a, was Constituted by an Amendment” to the Wild Life (Protection) ace yee the year. $72 iy (@) 2011 (b) 2006 (©) 2007 (a) 2010 The Central Government has notifieg to regulate and control Plastic Waste Wes rule Is known as: The | a) Plastic Waste (Manager (©) Mandling) Rules, 2010 emt Plastic Waste (Mana o Handling) Rules, 2010" (6) Plastic Waste (Management Handling) Rules, 2009 (@) Plastic “Waste (Management Handling) Rules, 2008 ang and and and been described as a Cobra that is seem fierce but has no venom in its fangs, iy because of: (@) Section 24(1)_of Environmen (Protection) Act, 1986 : (b) Section 23 of Environment (Protect Act, 1986 2 (© Section 242) of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (d) Section 19 of Environment (Protection) ‘Act, 1986 Central Board Constituted under Water Pollution Act, 1974 can act as a State Board under following circumstances: (a) Non compliance of Direction of Central Board by State Board (b) State Board has failed to perform its function If grave emergency exists Non compliance of direction of Central Board by State Board and as a result of such default grave emergency exists The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 provides for establishment of: (a) National Board (b) State Board (c) National Board and State Board (d) Wild Life Advisory Board Who may, by notification declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule | and Part Il of Schedule Il to be vermin for any area and for such period a5 may be specified therein. (c (a) =ind university (LL.M.), 2014 1 central Government @ ernment tate GOV © ational Board te Board is the Chairperson of National Green |) Justice Ranjana Desai f jostce Swatantra Kumar (gJstice Gyan Sudha Mishra sme Weter_ (Prevention and Control of itt. TH tion) Cess Act, 1977 was enacted by fotfament under Article ofthe Constitution . of india: (@) 28 2, In which, case, the Supreme Court of India fi MMqued directions to Gram Panchayat nd other local authorities for protection of (ater bodies (Tank & Ponds). (@) MC. Mehta v. Union of India (t) Jagpal v. State of Punjab (0) $. Jagannath v. Union of India (@) AP. Pollution Control Board v. Prof. M.V. Nayude 118, The State Government may empower the Chief Wild Life Warden to order payment of reward to be paid to a person who renders assistance in detection of offence relating to wild life. {@) Notexceeding the Five thousand rupees (b) Not exceeding the Ten thousand rupees (0 Not exceeding the Twenty thousand rupees (@) Not exceeding the Fifteen thousand rupees | In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court relied upon the Directive Principles of State Policy Contained in Atticle 48 of the Constitution of India to uphold a State law which was challenged 48 a violation of fundamental right to feligious freedom ? @) State of Gujarat v. Mirazapur Moti Qureshi Kasab Jamat (b) P.A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra (0) Forum for Prevention of Environmental and Sond Pollution v. Union of India (@) Rural Litigation and entitlement Kendra v. State of ULP. 115, 116, 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 549 Identify the Case, decided by the Supreme Court of India which is related of offence committed by a company? (a) M.C. Mehta v. Kamalnath (b) Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (©) UP. Pollution Control Board v. Mohan Meakins Ltd. (4) Dethi Bottling Co. Pot. Ltd. v. CPCB Who among, the following is associated with the theory of coordination? (a) Sir Gerald Fitzmaurice (b) Kelsen (a) Triepel (d) Anzilotti Which of the following cases relates to “protective principle”? (a) Attorney General of the Government of Israel vy. Eichrnann (b) Western Sahaoa Case (0) The Lotus Case (d) The Nicaragua Case The Monroe Doctrine is about: (a) recognition of new states (b) non-intervention in the Continent (c). equality of states (d) maintaining friendly relations among nations UN security Council consists of: (a) 15 members states (b) 25 members states (c) 18 members states (d) 12 members states Permanent Court of International Justice was established in: (a) 1920 (b) 1933 () 1919 (a) 1929 “International law is part of our law, and must be ascertained and administered by the courts of Justice of appropriate Jurisdiction”. The above observations were made in: (a) The Lotus case (b) The Jamora (©) Paquete Habana (d) Corfu Channel case Members of the International Court of Justice are elected by: (a) The General Assembly (b) The Security Council American:(c) The General Assembly and Security Council (d) The Economic and Social Council The members of the International Court of Justice are elected: (a) for six years (b) for years (©) for five years (a) for nine years Which one of the following statement is true? (a) Eachmember of the United Nations shall havenot more than three representatives in the General Assembly. Each member of the United Nations shall have not more than five representatives in the General Assembly, Each member of the United Nations shall have not more than nine representatives in the General Assembly. Each member of the United Nations shall have not more than six representatives in the General Assembly. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) was adopted in: (a) 1986 (b) 1966 (c) 1983 (d) 1976 Second optional Protocol to the International Covenant on Civil and political Rights is related to: (a) individual petition (b) inter-state complaint procedure (c) abolition of death penalty (d) none of the above Human Rights Council was established In: (a) 1996 (b) 1999 (©) 2006 (d) 2008 Permanent Court of established in: (a) 1900 (b) 1909 () 1914 (d) 1919 Kyoto protocol to the United Nations Framework Convention on climate Change (the UNFCCC) was adopted in: (a) 1993 (b) 1994 (c) 1997 (a) 1992 123, 124, ) ©) @ 125. 126. 127. 128. Arbitration was 129. 130. 131. 132. 135. & 136. Solved Papers of LLM. Entrance Exam: Rome statute establishin oe triminal court entered into Terese elon (a) 1998 E | (b) 1945 | (Q) 2002 ! (d) 1946 | The provisions relating to the 4, of proof have been made in the | Evidence Act under— | (a) Sections 91-100 (b) Sections 61-90 (c) Sections 101-1144 (d) Sections 115-117 Section 6 of the Indian Eviden with: Ice Act deals (@) Relevancy of facts forming part of samy transaction (b) Admission (©) Opinion of Experts (d) Conclusive proof Cases in which statement of relevant by person who is dead or cannot be found is relevant: (@) When it does not relate to cause of death (b) When it relates to cause of death (©) When it is not made in the course of business (4) When it is not against the interest of maker Uren "dian, In which section of the Indian Evidence Act “presumption as to dowry death” is proved ? (a) Section 111A (0) Section 113A (©) Section 1138 (4) Section 122 Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act is related to— (@) Accomplice (b) Number of witness (©) Oral evidence (4) Relevancy of Facts 'X’ ways in the presence of ‘Y’ and ‘Zr “| have married myself to ‘W'", who is absent. On the information reaching ‘W', she says, “I have accepted”. (a) This constitutes a valid marriage. (b) This does not constitute a valid — marriage, as there has been no propostl made by or on the behalf of one patty to marriage.ind Univesity (LLM), 2014 his does not constitute a vali co com t when W accepts. Krone of the above. | a Muslim woman, _ 191.) married to the defendant. She ven nant, a fact of which her husband was aware. Five inonths later, she delivered a fully developed child. The marriage was summated. The plaintiff sued her and for recovery of her dower. The husband was liable since the concealment of pregnancy by the plaintiff did not render the marriage invalid. (p) The husband was not liable (@) The wife is guilty of fraud (a) None of the above Unlike Hindu law, there is no prohibition in @ ws @ {38- Miuslim law for the marriage: {@) Of two cousins (b) With a brother's widow {@) With a pre-deceased wife's mother (a) Both (a) and (b) {9 Where it Is not settled at the time of tnarriage whether the dower is to be prompt Or deferred, then according to Shia law: (a) Half is prompt and half is deferred (b) The whole is prompt {@) The whole is deferred (@) It has to be regulated by custom or status of the parties 10, X, a Muslim has given triple talak to his wife. He wants to many her again. He can do so: (@) With any restriction (b) Only on request of such wife {&) Only if such woman marries another man, the marriage is consummated, and he has divorced her. (d) None of the above 1, Which court is empowered to appoint guardians: (a) District court (b) High Court (9 District court and High Court (@) District Magistrate’s court 1.40 years old Hindu male adopts a gir! of 21 years. According to the Hindu Adoptions -~ Maintenance Act, 1956 such adoption (@) Valid (b) Invalid () Void (4) Voidable 143. 144, 145. 146. 147. 149. 150. 551 Under which of the following section of the Adoption arid Maintenance Act, 1956, tam Hindu can take a son or daughter in adoption: (a) Section 8 (b) Section 7 (c) Section 4 (d) Section 3 In which of the following section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the daughter in included under the coparcenary (a) Section 2 (b) Section 4 (©) Section 6 (4) Section 8 Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applies to: (a) Movable property (b) Immovable property (c) Neither movable immovable nor property (@) Movable and immovable property both ‘A Hindu widow inherited property from her mother. Widow dies intestate. She left behind her one brother and parents of her husband. His property will devote to: (a) Her brother (b) Her husband's father () Her husband’s mother (d) Equal distribution to all above Restitution of conjugal Rights can be demanded by: (a) Husband (b) Wife (c) Husband and wife both (a) Any relation of husband or wife . Marriage with deceased wife’s mother is: (a) Invalid (b) Valid () Void (d) Voidable In which of the following case it was held that a Hindu husband converting to Islam and marrying again will be guilty of bigamy: (a) Dastane v. Dastane (b) Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (c) T. Sareetha v. Venkat Subbeih (d) Saroj Rani v. Sudershan Kumar Under which section of the Hindu Marriage ‘Act, 1955, maintenance, pendente lite has been provided: (a) Section 25 (b) Section 24 (0) Section 23 (d) Section 22