LISTENING 1

1. PART 1 – QUESTION 1-8

1. Where is the flight travelling?
A. From Ireland to Spain B. From Spain to New Zealand
C. From Iceland to Spain D. From Spain to Ireland
2. Why does the speaker have a lot of chances to speak Spanish?
A. The speaker is French
B. The speaker went to Spain on a vacation.
C. The speaker has a Spanish-speaking friend.
D. The speaker is Spanish.
3. Which is closet to King’s age?
A. Five years B. Seven years C. Ten years D. Sixteen years
4. What kind of place does person want to sing in?
A. In a theater B. In a restaurant C. In a park D. In a bar
5. What kind of training does the school provide?
A. Business management B. Computer training
C. Teacher training D. Personal training
6. Where should New York passengers board the train?
A. At the bank B. At the front C. In the middle D. Anywhere
7. If you can’t call back, how can you contact the company?
A. Via e-mail B. Send them a fax
C. Write them a letter D. Go to their office
8. What problem can the city expect?
A. Exttemely hot weather B. Flooding
C. An epidemic D. Infestation of insects

2. PART 2 – QUESTION 9-20

Question 9 – 12. Listen to Kieran talking to a friend about a cycling trip.
9. Kieran borrowed a bike that belonged to .
A. Maya B. Maya’s dad C. Paul’s D. Maya’s brother
10. Who went cycling with Kirean?
A. Paul and Max B. Max and Theo C. Theo and Paul D. Theo and his friend
11. Where did Kieran cycle to?
A. The mountains B. The forest C. The countryside D. The lake
12. How much did Kieran pay at the guesthouse?
A. £13.75 B. £16.25 C. £22.50 D. £26.50

Question 13-16. Listen to people talking about escalators.

13. Why were escalators first thought of as toys?

A. They could only move people
B. They were slower than elevators.
C. They were fisrt used at an amusement park.
D. No one had a commercial use for them.
14. How did Charles Seeberger come up with the name “ escalators”?
A. He combined two existing words to make a new word.
B. He had an active imagination.
C. He worked for the Otis elevator company and wanted to associate the two forms of transport.
D. He took a friend’s suggestion.
15. According to the conversation, what incorrect belief do many people have about escalators?
A. That they are all electric.
B. That they are not a patented invention.
C. That they were invented in the mid-20th century.
D. That they were invented by Otis
16. What can be inferred from the conversation?
A. The speakers are studying engineering.
B. Escalators were a topic of discussion in the speaker’s class.
C. The speakers are doing a project for a history class.
D. The speakers are preparing for an exam.

Question 17-20. You are going to hear a conservation about health between a father and his children.
17. Where are the speakers?
A. In a hospital B.In a doctor’s surgery
C. At home D. On a medic TV show
18. Which producedures do the children perform on their dad?
A. They take his blood pressure and his temperature.
B. They give him an injection and an X-ray.
C. They carry out an operation.
D. They are carrying out an artificial respiration.
19. Paul tells his father to .
A. take some pills B. go home and lie down.
C. go to a health centre for some tests D. take a rest
20. Why does Elisa start crying?
A. She doesn’t want to play any longer. B. She imagines her father dying
C. She wants to be a doctor, not a nurse. D. She cries for no reason.

1. PART 3 – QUESTION 21-35

Question 21-25. You will hear someone talking about common phobias.

21. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the most common phobias?
A. Height B. Water C. Tunnels D. Snakes
22. Which of the following is True about phobias?
A. They involve intense fear of a dngerous situation.
B. More women than men have them
C. They usually appear in adulthood.
D. All of the above
23. How many Americans have phobias?
A. One million B. Five million C. Six million D. Ten million
24. What is an example of behavior treatment for a patient with a phobia about water?
A. Talking with a therapist about hia bad experiences with water.
B. Learning to avoid going near water.
C. Repeated trip to a swimming pool
D. None of the above
25. Why does counter- conditioning work?
A. Because a person cannot feel relaxed and afraid at the same time.
B. Because fear is a learned response that can be changed.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Question 26-30. Listen to someone talking about a special place.
26. This talk is about .
A. the Grand Canal, Venice B. a hotel in Las Vegas
C. a tourist attraction in Vegas D. an entertainment center in Venice
27. Compared to other attractions, the Grand Canal Shops are .
A. more insprirational B. more popular
C. the newest D. more authentic
28. What does the speaker think is most impressive about the mall?
A. the accuracy of every element C. the architecture
C. the entertainment on offer D. the atmostphere
29. The speaker implies that St Mark’s Square .
A. is lively and easy to find B. is dark and romantic
C. only has cheap souvenirs D. is where the best designer shops are
30. At the end, the speaker says that .
A. she doesn’t need to go to the real Venice any more.
B. the gondola ride was her favourite part of her visit.
C. she wants to visit the real Venice.
D. everyone ahould visit this mall

Question 31-35. You are going to hear a talk about laughter yoga.
31. When the speaker arrived at her class, she felt .
A. embarrassed because she was late
B. more comfortable than she expected
C. relieved that she found the roon
D. amused and surprised by the group’s behaviour
32. After listening to the instructor talk about laughter yoga, the speaker felt .
A. more open-minded B. embarrassed about her attitude
C. more uncertain about it C. sure that she was right
33. In meditation, one has to .
A. sit silently with/ her eyes closed B. focus on his/her breathing
C. observe his/her thoughts D. do all things mentioned above
34. On Friday, the speaker managed to .
A. solve her problems quickly and easily.
B. strengthen relationships with family and friends.
C. avoid feeling unhappy about her day
D. try a few ideas from Maryanne’s list
35. How id the speaker’s sttitude change during her experience?
A. she realised that simple actions can make you happier.
B. she began wanting to encourage others to try laughters yoga.
C. she realised how much she had to be happy.
D. she started to appreciate people around her more.
 LISTENING 2
2. PART 1 – QUESTION 1-8
1. What do the job offer?
A. Benefits B. Free food C. Good hours D. Possible promotion
2. What time will the group return to their bus?
A. Ten past twelve B. Half past one C. Two o’clock D. Three a’clock
3. Why can’t the girl go to school?
A. Her back hurts B. She has a headache
C. She has a toothache D. She breaks her arm
4. Where is the boy going to work?
A. In an architecture company B. In his uncle’s café
C. In a ticket office D. In a bank
5. How did the speaker’s parents react to the idea of travelling alone for the first time?
A. They were helpful B. They were worried
C. They were angry D. They did not allow him to do so.
6. Why does the speaker want to become a doctor?
A. To help sick people B. To earn lots of money
C. To work in a hospital D. To study at university
7. Which of the following will not be available at the picnic?
A. A barbecue B. Drinks C. Games D. A movie
8. Which of the following takes the longest time to get to the speaker’s workplace?
A. The bike B. The subway C. The bus D. The taxi

2. PART 2 – QUESTION 9-20

Question 9 -12. Listen to the following conservation.
9. What are the speakers mainly discussing?
A. Buying a textbook for class B. Finding a part-time job
C. Passing one of her courses D. Deciding on which course to take
10. Which of the following concerns about the book does the student mention?
A. Price B. Color C. Issue number D. Author
11. Why does the man mention studying?
A. To let her know that he took the same class.
B. To help the student with her money
C. To suggest that the used book will be better
D. To get her to buy a new book
12. What can be infferred from the conversation?
A. The students has a lot of money
B. The man wants to help the student.
C. The woman is very good at using computers.
D. The man wants the woman to use new books.

Question 13-16. Listen to people talking about phobias.

13. What can we infer about phobias from this conversation?
A. They are very common and everyone has a phobia.
B. They create social and physical problems.
C. Phobias are funny and are great for parties.
D. Phobias are not a very severe problem.
14. Why would a person with a phobia change his job?
A. To get better health care B. To be closer to his home
C. To avoid the source of his fear. D. To find a more understanding boss
15. Why is it difficult to treat phobias?
A. Most people are more worried about the mental symptoms.
B. Most doctors don’t ask patients about their fears.
C. There are no good treatments for phobias.
D. There is too much information about treatments for phobias for people to know what to do.
16. Of the phobias mentioned, which are easiest to guess the meanings of?
A. Gynophobia B. Nyctophobia C. Sciophobia D. Electrophobia

Question 17-20. Listen to Olivia and her friends talking about her trip to London.
17. Olivia said that .
A. She learnt a lot about history on the trip
B. She liked the trip more than she expected
C. The Tower of London in her favourite place
D. The trip is not as good as she expected
18. Olivia was pleased that .
A. She didn’t have to wait long to get in B. The visit didn’t last too long
C. She took a guided tour D. She lived in a good hotel
19. Olivia was amazed by .
A. something she heard B. something she saw
C. something she ate D. something she drank
20. Olivia didn’t enjoy the ghost stories because .
A. They affected her after the trip
B. They make her feel afraid for the rest of the visit
C. She thought they were ridiculous
D. She doesn’t believe in ghost

PART 3 – QUESTION 21-35

Questions 21-25. Listen to Joe talking about extreme sports.

21.Joe does extreme sports because
A. he enjoys the danger B. he likes the challenge
C.he wants to stay fit D.he wants to be
famous 22.What is true about Joe?
A. He has practiced some other extreme sports before trying skydiving.
B. He was a professional pilot.
C. He was a professional skydiver.
D. He was a professional
swimmer. 23.Joe chose skydiving
because
A. his friend recommended it to him
B. he thought it would be easier than water sports
C. he wants to be a pilot one day
D. he wants to conquer the sky
24. Why did Joe walk so slowly to the exit door?
A. He was really scared. B. His equipment was heavy.
C.He felt very cold. D. The instructor asked him to do so.
25. What was the best bit of the jump for
Joe? A.The landing
B. After he opened his parachute.
C. When he first jumped.
D. When he fell down through the roaring wind.
Questions 26-30. Listen to the remarkable story of Lydia Nash.
26. Lydia Nash……………
A. spent a year working in an orphanage
B. went to Thailand to pay for her university tuition fees
C. was terrified when she won the prize
D. never wanted to keep all the prize money
27. When talking about her work in Thailand, Lydia said………….
A. disability was seen as a sort of punishment
B. every fourth or fifth child there was a disabled
C. the orphanage was poor but clean
D. there were only two nurses working there
28. Lydia took part in Who Wants To Be A Millionaire……….
A. after she was invited by the programme's producer
B. when her university professor encouraged her
C.a month before she began her university
degree D.two years after returning from Thailand
29. Lydia's team-mate won.........in the show.
A. £64,000 B. £32,000 C. £16,000 D. £2,000
30. Lydia………..
A. impressed many people all over the
UK B.surprised her father with her
decision C.will not have a computer this
year
D. has been given one of the college's computers
Questions 31-35. Listen to the following talk.
31. According to the speaker, why is Ford's life story interesting to many people?
A. Because he was a common man who grew very rich and successful.
B. Because he overcame so many large obstacles.
C. Because he demonstrated how good luck can make anyone healthy.
D. None of the above
32. Which of the following is NOT true of
Ford? A.His parents were immigrants.
B. He had no formal education.
C. He had years of training as an engineer.
D. He designed the Model T himself.
33.What can be inferred about the Model
T?
A.It was highly fuel-efficient. B. It was very popular.
C.It is still in production today. D.It was too expensive for the average
family. 34.According to the lecture, what helped Ford produce cars at lower cost?
A.The assembly line B.A minimum wage
C.Both A and B D.Neither A nor B
35.Which of the following is TRUE of the Ford Motor
Company? A.It was founded with Ford's own money.
B. It was troubled by disagreements with workers.
C. It was under Ford's control until his death.
D. It has been bought by General Motors.
 READING
: Questions 1 – 10

Line

months.

10 364 1/4
refined
they
-

15 accurate

1. What is the topic of the passage?

A. How the months were named.
B. How accurate the modern day calendar is.
C. How the leap year system was developed.
D. How the modern calendar was named and developed.
2. Why is Caesar important in calendar making?
A. He has a month named for him.
B. He extended summer.
C. He altered the number of days in a
year. D. He changed the length of a year.
3. Why is the number 364 1/4 important?
A. It is the length of a planetary year.
B. It was a number randomly chosen by Caesar for his calendar.
C. It is the length of time from the beginning of spring to the end of winter.
D. It is the most accurate number for calendar.
4. Which of the following will be a leap year?
A. 2200 B. 2300 C. 2400 D. 2500
5. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author thinks the names of the months are
.
A. difficult to pronounce B. odd
C. inappropriate D. none of the above
1 12
 6. The word refined in line 11 is closest in meaning to .
A. improved B. invented C. observed D. studied
7. In what order is the information in the passage presented?
A. Name of months, Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian calendar
B. Roman Gods, important festivals, original numbers of months
C. Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian calendar, the modern calendar
D. None of the above
8. Which of the following is TRUE of the Gregorian calendar?
A. It needs major improvements.
B. It copied the Roman calendar’s formula of leap years.
C. It was so well designed, it needs little adjusting
today.
D. None of the above
9. The word they in line 12 refers to .
A. days B. astronomers C. calendars D. years
10. The word accurate in line 15 is closest in meaning to .
A. interesting B. simple C. informative D. correct

– 20

Line Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the
forces that create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared
with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more
than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more
5 than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and
the more distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water
and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote
stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser
10 extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average,
so, in most places, the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the
Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The
tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is
full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and
15 are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line
and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on
the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into
the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon,
and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and
20 Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the
difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the
month.

2 12
11.

12. felt

13.

14. obliterated

15.

16. correspondingly

17.

18. configuration
ter
19.

20.
.
t

– 30

Line hardiest
-

3 12
5 framework
anchors
)
-

10
-

prolonged
dew -
15

ultraviolet

20

encounter
Stalk-

21.

22. hardiest

23. framework

24.
ns

25.

26.

4 12
 27. prolonged

28.

29.

30. encounter

– 40

Line -year-

85-year-

10

15

20

25

5 12
5 12
30

31.

32.
sympathy

33. s

34.

35.

36.

37. .

38.

– 10

Line

wonders -
5

6 12
 Passage 1: Questions 1 – 10

Line One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a
monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C.
Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction make it one of the truly great
wonders of the world. The thirteen-acre structure near the Nile River is a solid mass of stone
5 block covered with limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial
chamber for the pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the
pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east, and west - an incredible
engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshipers and great astronomers, so
computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
10 Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many
intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of
events - past, present, and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to
coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are
currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and
15 this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of
the ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to
any known today?

1. What has research of the base revealed?

A. There are cracks in the foundation.
B. Tomb robbers have stolen the pharaoh’s body.
C. The lines represent important events.
D. A superior race of people built it.
2. The word feat in line 8 is closest in meaning to .
A. festivity B. appendage C. structure D. accomplishment
3. Extraterrestrial beings as mentioned in line 15 are .
A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology D. living beings from other planets
4. The word intersecting in line 11 is closest in meaning to .
A. crossing B. observing C. aligning D. cutting
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architects’ plans for the hidden passages
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
6. In line 13, the word prophesied is closest in meaning to .
A. affiliated B. terminated C. precipitated D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?
Page 1 of 6
 A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
B. Problems with the construction of the Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza
D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement D. Knowledge of the Earth’s surface

9. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?

A. As a solar observatory B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for D. As an engineering feat
10. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the Seven Wonders of the World?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains
many prophecies.
B. It was selected as the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.
C. It was built by a super race.
D. It is very old.
Passage
Line 2: Questions 11 – 20
Look at the stars in the night sky. Do some of them seem to form patterns or
designs? Can you see animals, people, or objects? These patterns are called
constellations.
Constellations are not real animals, people, or objects. We imagine them to help us
5 make a map of the sky. On a dark night, you can see almost 1500 stars. Trying to
distinguish which is which can be difficult. Constellations make it easier for us to
identify stars.
People began seeing patterns in the stars about 6000 years ago. Three of the first
constellations they imagined were a lion, a bull, and a scorpion. In ancient times,
10 farmers used constellations to know which month it was. We can see some
constellations only one season each year. Farmers knew it was time to plant when they
saw a certain constellation. They knew it was time to harvest when they saw a different
one.
People in different countries can look at the same constellation and imagine
15 different things. Someone in China might think a constellation looks like a dragon.
Someone in Australia might think the same pattern is a horse. Each country has its own
ideas. Many constellations get their names from the myths of ancient Greece and
Rome. A constellation called Aquarius is named after a Greek boy who carried water.
A constellation called Taurus is named after a god who came to earth as a bull.
20 Constellations are not stationary. The stars in them are gradually moving. It is difficult
to know the boundaries of many constellations. In 1929, international astronomers,
scientists who study stars, agreed on official boundaries for the 88 constellations that
exist today.

Page 2 of 6
 However, by the time your children grow up, these boundaries could change. We
25 might also find new constellations. We will always use our imaginations to help
understand the world around us.

11. According to the passage, about how many constellations exist today?
A. 90 B. 1000 C. 1500 D. 6000
12. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Constellations have a long history. B. Scientists agree on constellations boundaries.
C. Constellations are groups of stars. D. Constellations never change.

13. What is the most suitable tittle for this passage?

A. The names of constellations B. The history of constellations
C. How to see constellations D. Greek and Roman myths
14. What does the word which in line 6 refer to?
A. Constellations B. Maps C. People D. Stars
15. Which of the following could best replace the word identify as used in line 7?
A. Recognize B. Name C. Count D. Number
16. Based on information in paragraph 2, we can infer that .
A. there are only 1500 stars
B. we can see different numbers of stars depending on how bright the moon is
C. all constellations are animals
D. we need a map of the sky to see the stars
17. What is the meaning of the word ancient in line 9?
A. Old B. Modern C. Prehistoric D. Good
18. The word one in line 13 refers to a .
A. farmer B. star C. season D. constellation
19. Based on the information in paragraph 3, what can we infer about ancient farmers?
A. They were not very intelligent.
B. They did not have calendars.
C. They worked very hard.
D. They grew food.
20. The word boundaries as used in line 24 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Dimensions B. Properties C. Borders D. Shapes

Passage 3: Questions 21 – 30
Line Scientists have discovered that for the last 160,000 years, at least, there has been a
consistent relationship between the amount of carbon dioxide in the air and the average
temperature of the planet. The importance of carbon dioxide in regulating the Earth’s
temperature was confirmed by scientists working in eastern Antarctica. Drilling down
5 into a glacier, they extracted a mile-long cylinder of ice from the hole. The glacier had
formed as layer upon layer of snow accumulated year after year. Thus drilling into the
ice was tantamount to drilling back through time.
The deepest sections of the core are composed of water that fell as snow 160,000

Page 3 of 6
 years ago. Scientists in Grenoble, France fractured portions of the core and measured the
10 composition of ancient air released from bubbles in the ice. Instruments were used to
measure the ratio of certain isotopes in the frozen water to get an idea of the prevailing
atmospheric temperature at the time when that particular bit of water became locked in
the glacier.
The result is a remarkable unbroken record of temperature and of atmospheric
15 levels of carbon dioxide. Almost every time the chill of an ice age descended on the
planet, carbon dioxide levels dropped. When the global temperature dropped 9°F (5°C),
carbon dioxide levels dropped to 190 parts per million or so. Generally, as each ice age
ended and the Earth basked in a warm interglacial period, carbon dioxide levels were
around 280 parts per million. Through the 160,000 years of that ice record, the level of
20 carbon dioxide in the atmosphere fluctuated between 190 and 280 parts per million, but
never rose much higher, until the Industrial Revolution beginning in the eighteenth
century and continuing today.
There is indirect evidence that the link between carbon dioxide levels and global
temperature change goes back much further than the glacial record. Carbon dioxide
25 levels may have been much greater than the current concentration during the
Carboniferous period, 360 to 285 million years ago.
The period was named for a profusion of plant life whose buried remains produced
a large fraction of the coal deposits that are being brought to the surface and burned
today.
21. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Chemical causes of ice ages
B. Techniques for studying ancient layers of ice in glaciers
C. Evidence of a relationship between levels of carbon dioxide and global temperature
D. Effects of plant life on carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere
22. The word accumulated in line 6 is closest in meaning to .
A. spread out B. changed C. became denser D. built up
23. According to the passage, the drilling of the glacier in eastern Antarctica was important because it
.
A. allowed scientists to experiment with new drilling techniques
B. permitted the study of surface temperatures in an ice-covered region of Earth
C. provided insight about climate conditions in earlier periods
D. confirmed earlier findings about how glaciers are formed
24. The phrase tantamount to in line 7 is closest in meaning to .
A. complementary to B. practically the same as
C. especially well suited to D. unlikely to be confused with
25. According to the passage, scientists used isotopes from the water of the ice core to determine
which of following?
A. The amount of air that had bubble to the surface since the ice had formed.
B. The temperature of the atmosphere when the ice was formed.
C. The date at which water had become locked in the glacier.
D. The rate at which water had been frozen in the glacier.
26. The word remarkable in line 14 is closest in meaning to .

Page 4 of 6
 A. genuine B. permanent C. extraordinary D. continuous
27. The word fluctuated in line 20 is closest in meaning to .
A. stayed B. remained C. stabilized D. varied
28. The word link in line 23 is closest in meaning to .
A. tension B. C. attraction D. distance
29. The passage implies that the warmest temperatures among the periods mentioned occurred .
A. in the early eighteenth century B. 160,000 years ago
C. at the end of each ice age D. between 360 and 285 million years ago
30. According to the passage, the Carboniferous period was characterized by .
A. a reduction in the number of coal deposits
B. the burning of a large amount of coal
C. an abundance of plants
D. an accelerated rate of glacier formation
Passage 4: Questions 31 – 40
Line If we believe that clothing has to do with covering the body, and costume with
the choice of a particular form of garment for a particular use, then we can say that
clothing depends primarily on such physical conditions as climate, health, and
textile manufacture, whereas costume reflects social factors such as religious
5 beliefs, aesthetics, personal status, and the wish to be distinguished from or to
emulate our fellows.
The ancient Greeks and the Chinese believed that we first covered our bodies
for some physical reason such as protecting ourselves from the elements.
Ethnologists and psychologists have invoked psychological reasons: modesty in
10 the case of the ancients, and taboo, magical influence and the desire to please for
the moderns.
In early history, costume must have fulfilled a function beyond that of simple
utility, perhaps through some magical significance, investing primitive man with
the attributes of other creatures. Ornaments identified the wearer with animals,
15 gods, heroes or other men. This identification remains symbolic in more
sophisticated societies. We should bear in mind that the theater has its distant
origins in sacred performances, and in all periods children at play have worn
disguises, so as to adapt gradually to adult life.
Costume helped inspire fear or impose authority. For a chieftain, costume
20 embodied attributes expressing his power, while a warrior’s costume enhanced his
physical superiority and suggested he was superhuman. In more recent times,
professional or administrative costume has been devised to distinguish the wearer
and to express personal or delegated authority; this purpose is seen clearly in the
judge’s robes and the police officer’s uniform. Costume denotes power, and since
25 power is usually equated with wealth, costume came to be an expression of social
caste and material prosperity. Military uniform denotes rank and is intended to
intimidate, to protect the body and to express membership in a group. At the
bottom of the scale, there are such compulsory costumes as the convict’s uniform.
Finally, costume can possess a religious significance that combines various

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 30 elements: an actual or symbolic identification with a god, the desire to express this
in earthly life, and the desire to enhance the wearer’s position of respect.

31. The passage mainly discusses costume in terms of its .

A. physical protection B. religious significance
C. social function D. beauty and attractiveness

32. What is the purpose of paragraph 1?

A. To describe the uses of costume
B. To contrast costume with clothing
C. To trace the origins of costume
D. To point out that clothing developed before costume
33. Psychological reasons for wearing garments include .
A. protection from cold B. availability of materials
C. prevention of illness D. wishing to give pleasure
34. The word investing in line 13 could best replaced by .
A. endowing B. creating C. wrapping D. frightening
35. The word ornaments in line 14 is closest in meaning to .
A. garments B. representations C. details D. decorations
36. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that .
A. the function of costume has become very sophisticated
B. children like to identify with other creatures by wearing costumes
C. primitive people wore clothes only for sacred performances
D. costume no longer fulfills a function beyond simple utility
37. Why does the author mention the police officer’s uniform in line 24?
A. To illustrate the aesthetic function of costume
B. To identify the wearer with a hero
C. To suggest that police are superhuman
D. To show how costume signifies authority
38. The word denotes in lines 24 and 26 is closest in meaning to .
A. disguises B. describes C. indicates D. denigrates
39. The word scale in line 28 refers to .
A. symbolic identification B. military rank
C. social position D. the balance
40. Which of the following would most likely NOT be reflected in a person’s costume, as it is
defined in the passage?
A. Having a heart condition B. Playing in a baseball game
C. Working in a hospital D. Participating in a religious ceremony

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