SSAT MiddleTest5
SSAT MiddleTest5
Middle Level
SSAT Practice Test #5
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booklet by filling in the circle next to the best answer.
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Use our online bubble sheet as you take your paper test!
On a fast-paced test like the SSAT, time management is one of the most critical
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4. Select Score Paper for the first section you’ll be working on.
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Writing Sample Tips
Middle Level SSAT test-takers are given 25 minutes to respond to one of two prompts.
You have the choice between a creative story starter and a personal essay prompt.
Your official SSAT writing sample will not be graded but is sent to the admissions
offices of the schools to which you apply.
Read each prompt carefully and decide which you prefer and think will be easier to
answer. You can then organize what you plan to say before you begin writing. Paper for
outlining your writing sample will be provided at the official exam.
Remember to make sure your penmanship is readable. Stay within the margins of the
answer sheets. If you wish to change something you have written, you may neatly strike
through the words you want to “delete.” You are given two lined pages; however, you do
not need to fill both pages.
If you have time, we recommend that you read over what you have written. Often when
students write quickly, they make careless mistakes. Here are some helpful Test
Innovators reminders:
ü Check to make sure you have not left out any words.
ü Look over your spelling. Are there any words that don’t look right to you?
ü Have you capitalized words in odd places or forgot to capitalize proper nouns?
ü Does your comma use look okay?
ü Have you used complete sentences? Remember not to connect two full sentences
with a comma.
ü If you include dialogue, have you used quotation marks properly?
ü Did you use the correct spelling of homophones such as there/their/they’re,
your/you’re, and two/to/too?
Be your own editor and good luck!
~Test Innovators
SSAT Middle #5 v8.0 - WS www.SSATpracticetest.com
Schools would like to get to know you better through a story you tell or an essay you write. If you
choose to write a story, use the sentence presented in A to begin. Make sure that your story has a
beginning, middle, and end. If you choose to write a personal essay, base your essay on the topic
presented in B.
On the SSAT you will need to fill in the circle (A or B) next to the prompt you choose.
On the SSAT you will have scrap paper that you can use to plan or outline.
A They spoke to her as if they had known her all their lives.
B What is a place that is special to you? What is it like and why is it important to you?
Notes
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Use this page and the next to complete your writing sample.
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QS 2
Section 2
Quantitative (Math) Section
In this section, each question is followed by five answer choices. You may write in the
test booklet. For each answer you choose, fill in the corresponding bubble on your answer
document.
Note: In this section, you can assume that the figures that accompany the questions are
accurately drawn EXCEPT when the question states that a particular figure is not drawn
to scale.
(A) 1,075
(B) 1,083
(C) 1,185
(D) 1,195
(E) 1,243
STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.
Middle #5 v8.0 - QS #1
(C) 7
9
(A) 2b − 5
(D) 3
5
(B) 5 − 2b
23 (C) (2 + b) − 5
(E) 33
(D) 5 − (2 + b)
2. If ■ + 20 + △ = 75, what does ■ equal?
(E) 2(b − 5)
(A) 55
(B) 73 5. If b is an integer and 4 − b < 3, what is the
(C) 77 least possible value of b?
(D) 95 (A) −2
(E) It cannot be determined from the (B) −1
information given.
(C) 1
3. What is the next number in the following (D) 2
sequence?
(E) 7
7. A kitchen table with 4 chairs costs $350. If 9. In the subtraction problem shown below, ∙
additional chairs cost $80 each, how much is which of the following digits?
does the kitchen table cost with 8 chairs?
(A) $430
14 3 2
(B) $510
− 3∙4
(C) $640
∘
(A) 10 1
(B) 2
∘
(B) 25
(C) 2
(C) 30∘ 3
(D) 3
(D) 50∘ 5
9
(E) 55∘ (E) 10
(A) B,A,D,C
(B) D,A,C,B
(C) C,B,A,D
(D) D,A,B,C (A) 36 units
(E) B,C,A,D (B) 42 units
(C) 44 units
(D) 46 units
(E) 48 units
17. 8 20.
Which of the following is equal to 20 ? If the negative number N is multiplied by a
number greater than 1, the answer MUST
(A) 0.04
be
(B) 0.8
(A) less than N
(C) 4%
(B) less than 2N
(D) 8%
(C) between –1 and 0
(E) 40%
(D) between 0 and 1
18. A rectangle has a perimeter of 52 (E) greater than N
centimeters. The width is 4 centimeters
shorter than the length. How many 21. On which day was the difference between
centimeters long is the width? the number of men and the number of
(A) 10 women attending Get Fit Gym the
greatest?
(B) 11
(C) 14
(D) 15
(E) 19
3 2 (A) Sunday
(C) 5 , 55%, 0.58, 3 , 66%, 0.70
(B) Saturday
(D) 3 2
5 , 3 , 55%, 0.58, 66%, 0.70
(C) Friday
(D) Wednesday
(E) Monday
22. How many more men attended the gym on 24. The perimeter of a triangle with sides of
Saturday than Monday? equal length is 12 inches. What is the length
of each side of the triangle?
(A) 48 inches
(B) 36 inches
(C) 6 inches
(D) 4 inches
(E) 3 inches
8
(A) 15
(B) 7
12
(C) 17
13
(D) 7
5
16
(E) 11
(A) 10
(B) 38
(C) 40
(D) 46
(E) 60
RS 3
Section 3
Reading Section
Read each passage carefully and decide on the basis of the passage which one of the five
answer choices best answers each question.
STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.
Middle #5 v8.0 - RS
Questions 1-5
1. According to the passage, night markets 4. The passage is primarily concerned with
are all of the following EXCEPT a(n) (A) illustrating some benefits of
(A) online catalog of goods and services corporate businesses
(B) place where our relationships to one (B) explaining the evolution of shopping
another are shaped malls
(C) location of social interaction (C) explaining the history of formal
markets
(D) hodgepodge of food stalls, craft
vendors, and people (D) summarizing government regulations
(E) dynamic place for economic in urbanized areas
exchange (E) describing some advantages of
informal night markets
2. The author’s attitude about night markets
is one of 5. According to the passage, all of the
following are benefits of night markets
(A) enthusiasm
EXCEPT
(B) hesitance
(A) support to small businesses
(C) indifference
(B) boosts in rates of tourism
(D) speculation
(C) after-hours access to name-brand
(E) concern merchandise
Questions 6-10
6. The passage is primarily concerned with 8. The passage implies that Anna's
explaining hummingbird has been able to extend its
(A) the nutritional benefits of nectar range due to
feeders to hummingbirds in colder (A) environmental change and the birds'
climates. adaptation.
(B) the effect of nighttime temperatures (B) access to higher-protein foods.
along the west coast of the U.S. on (C) environmental sustainability.
Anna's hummingbird.
(D) climate change and the bird's ability
(C) the hibernation habits of Anna's
to gain body weight.
hummingbird.
(E) the artificially sweetened diet
(D) why hummingbirds sometimes fail to provided by well-meaning home
migrate seasonally. owners.
(E) how a particular bird species has
been able to extend its winter range 9. The passage provides information to
into colder climates. answer which question?
(A) What are some ways that Anna's
7. The author implies that hummingbird is well adapted to its
(A) birds are highly vulnerable to environment?
ecological changes.
(B) Why do people with flower gardens
(B) flower nectar is less valuable to birds additionally feed Anna's
than bird feeders installed by hummingbird?
humans.
(C) Why do hummingbirds have such a
(C) hummingbirds are capable of living in high heart rate?
any urban environment. (D) How is Anna's hummingbird able to
(D) birds can be highly adaptable to migrate such long distances up and
environmental change. down the west coast of the U.S.?
(E) Anna's hummingbird is unique in its (E) Prior to 1930, for how many months a
ability for torpor. year was Anna's Hummingbird absent
from the Pacific Northwest?
Questions 11-15
11. The primary purpose of the passage is to 14. The sentence “He paused, breathing
(A) describe a familial relationship. steadily in the falling sunlight” (lines 18 - 19)
is included in order to
(B) warn of a coming crisis.
(A) give the reader a sense of the
(C) settle a historical disagreement. surrounding wildlife.
(D) offer a moral. (B) illustrate the patient character of the
(E) outline a dispute. older monk.
(C) show the older monk’s strong dislike
12. It can be inferred that the younger monk
of the younger monk.
ignored the woman because
(D) explain how the older monk could
(A) it would be difficult to help her across
read the younger monk’s thoughts.
the river.
(E) remind the reader of dawn.
(B) his spiritual tradition advises that
monks have no physical contact with 15. Which is the best summary of a moral of
others. the passage?
(C) of her negative attitude and his (A) Ignore people who treat you
commitment to his monastic vows. unkindly.
(D) she was very wealthy and had many (B) Avoid arguing with family.
helpers.
(C) Thinking is always dangerous.
(E) he was feeling unsocial and stormy.
(D) Don’t fret about the past.
13. As used in the passage, the word “distress” (E) Never break a vow.
(line 9) refers to the lady’s
(A) assistance from her helpers.
(B) silk clothing.
(C) many packages and possessions.
(D) unhappiness over the condition of the
river.
(E) response to the younger monk.
Questions 16-20
Excerpt from The Fish, the Man, and the Spirit by Leigh Hunt, 1836
To a Fish
A Fish Answers
16. The speaker's tone in the fourth stanza can 19. This poem can best be described as
best be described as (A) two sides of an argument between
(A) disbelieving. friends.
(B) disappointed. (B) a fisherman's grievances about his
(C) wary. job.
Questions 21-26
21. Which of the following would be the best 25. Which of the following can be inferred
title for the passage? from the second paragraph?
(A) Why the World Needs Another Tu (A) Tu Youyou found the cure through a
Youyou process of elimination.
(B) The Woman who Beat Malaria (B) Malaria is caused by parasites.
(C) A Turning Point for Traditional (C) The Manual of Clinical Practice and
Medicine Emergency Remedies was widely
(D) Malaria: Symptoms, Treatment, and studied in China in the 1960s.
Prevention (D) Tu named the compound artemisinin.
(E) How to Win a Nobel Prize (E) Plant-based medicines are typically
the most effective.
22. The word “scoured” (line 6) most nearly
means 26. According to the passage, Tu Youyou
tested the compound on herself because
(A) skimmed
(A) she held the most expertise in
(B) borrowed
traditional medicine
(C) rubbed
(B) she felt a personal commitment to
(D) translated fighting malaria
(E) searched (C) she felt a duty as the leader of the
research team
23. As used in line 7, the word “tome” most
nearly means (D) no one else was willing to do so
(B) chapter
(C) letter
(D) scripture
(E) newspaper
Questions 27-30
It seems intuitive that having more options to choose among would result
in greater satisfaction. The evidence is not so clear. It appears that the human
mind does not necessarily work best with abundant options. There is an
Line influential study from 2000 which helps illustrate some of the challenges that
5 choice can present. The study examined how choice can affect people's
purchasing habits.
Imagine you walk into a grocery store and come across a table displaying
sealed bottles of jam and free samples. On one day, there are six different
kinds of jam to choose from. However, on the following day, there are
10 twenty-four different types of jam to sample. How many jams do people taste
and how likely are they to purchase jam on these two different days?
In this study, people sampled the same number of jams regardless of how
many different types were for sale. However, the number of flavors of jam on
display strongly affected whether or not customers actually purchased jam.
15 When there were six different types of jam to choose from, almost a third of
the people who sampled the jam bought at least one jar. However, when
there were twenty-four flavors of jam to choose from, only three percent of
people actually purchased jam.
The human mind can become overwhelmed in the face of too many
20 options. It appears that often the more choices we have to consider, the less
likely we are to choose anything at all. We may just give up and walk away
empty handed.
27. Which can be inferred from the last 29. As used in line 3, “abundant” most nearly
paragraph? means
(A) People are unlikely to purchase a (A) appealing.
product that has no competition. (B) plentiful.
(B) People are easily discouraged when (C) contradictory.
shopping.
(D) challenging.
(C) The human mind becomes easily
overwhelmed when asked to sample (E) similar.
more than one type of jam.
30. The passage supplies information to
(D) Studies on choice and human answer which question?
behavior are used to influence
(A) What is the ideal number of options
consumers.
to choose among?
(E) Having fewer options to choose
(B) Are people most likely to purchase a
among can increase the likelihood
jam they have sampled?
that people will make a choice.
(C) Can the number of variations of a
28. The passage is primarily concerned with product affect whether people will
describing how buy that product?
(A) people select different flavors of jam. (D) How many options does it take to
(B) a greater number of options to overwhelm the average human mind?
choose among leads to increased (E) Why do grocery stores sometimes
satisfaction. offer free samples?
(C) the number of available choices can
affect human decision making.
(D) people who are overwhelmed are
helped by other people making
decisions for them.
(E) customers respond to free samples.
Questions 31-34
31. The word "them" in line 8 refers to 34. In line 4, "the wretched" most nearly means
(A) Parisians. (A) unhappy people.
(B) readers. (B) bad people.
(C) the Parisian underworld. (C) rich people.
(D) the miserable ones. (D) good people.
(E) the main characters in Les Misérables. (E) poor people.
Questions 35-40
35. As used in the passage, the word “derelict” 38. The passage suggests that
(line 14) most nearly means (A) the servant enjoys being alone
(A) abundant
(B) animals have no other place to live
(B) daunting other than the gate
(C) decaying (C) Suzaku Boulevard is a rarely-used
(D) hapless street
(B) explaining why no one came to the 39. Which of the following best describes the
Rashoumon gate after dark mood of the passage?
(C) detailing the backstory of a central (A) Celebratory
character
(B) Intense
(D) giving an overview of Kyoto's history
(C) Pensive
(E) escalating a central conflict
(D) Serene
37. In lines 20-21, the author uses which of the (E) Condescending
following literary devices?
(A) Assonance 40. According to the passage, the servant
VS 4
Section 4
Verbal Section
The Verbal Section contains two different types of questions: synonyms and analogies.
Synonyms
Each question includes a word in uppercase letters followed by five answer choices.
Choose the answer choice that is most nearly the same in meaning as the uppercase word.
(A) drain
(B) party
(C) push
(D) frighten
(E) clean
Analogies
These questions ask you to look for the relationships between words. Choose the answer
that best completes the meaning of the sentence.
STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.
Middle #5 v8.0 - VS
1. RARITY: 5. DISJOINT:
(A) vanity (A) replace
(B) infrequency (B) split
(C) decoration (C) encounter
(D) variety (D) skewer
(E) rawness (E) unwind
2. PRESUME: 6. INSINUATE:
(A) request (A) imply
(B) implore (B) connect
(C) confront (C) mediate
(D) negate (D) comply
(E) assume (E) weave
3. VIRTUOUS: 7. BURDEN:
(A) impressive (A) sanctuary
(B) snobby (B) cyst
(C) grateful (C) casualty
(D) honorable (D) partner
(E) expectant (E) load
4. DOMESTIC: 8. TRIVIAL:
(A) dominant (A) petty
(B) similar (B) focal
(C) familial (C) incumbent
(D) terrestrial (D) compulsory
(E) inclusive (E) optional
27. GREGARIOUS:
(A) introverted
(B) educated
(C) critical
(D) suspicious
(E) outgoing
28. REVERE:
(A) venerate
(B) develop
(C) belittle
(D) scorn
(E) enhance
QS 5
Section 5
Quantitative (Math) Section
In this section each question is followed by five answer choices. You may write in the
test booklet. For each answer you choose, fill in the corresponding bubble on your answer
document.
Note: In this section, you can assume that the figures that accompany the questions are
accurately drawn EXCEPT when the question states that a particular figure is not drawn
to scale.
(A) 1,075
(B) 1,083
(C) 1,185
(D) 1,195
(E) 1,243
STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.
Middle #5 v8.0 - QS #2
1. Which digit in the number 481.35 has the 4. The room is 49 full when it contains 36
(A) 12
(A) 3
(B) 13
(B) 11
(C) 14
(C) 14
(D) 15
(D) 22
(E) 16
(E) 33
1
6. Delaney is planting flowers in the pattern
3. 8÷ 8 = one daisy, one buttercup, one rose, one
(A) 1 marigold, and one petunia. The 52nd flower
64
(A) daisy
(C) 1 (B) buttercup
(D) 16 (C) rose
(E) 64 (D) marigold
(E) petunia
7. A team that plays 20 games in a season has 10. If y is between 0 and 1, which of the
won 9 and lost 4 so far. What is the following expressions has the least value?
greatest number of games the team can 1
(A)
win during the rest of the season to still y
(A) 0
(C) y−1
(B) 1
(D) y+1
(C) 5
1
(D) 7 (E) y
−1
(E) 11
11. The rectangular map shown in the figure
8. What is the word form of the decimal shows a yard that is to be fenced along the
6.2084? dashed line. If the two parts are
rectangular, what will be the ratio of the
(A) sixty-two and eighty-four
perimeter of the fenced yard to the
thousandths
perimeter of the whole yard?
(B) sixty-two and eighty-four ten-
thousandths
(C) six and two hundred eight-four
thousandths
(D) six and two thousand eighty-four
thousandths
(E) six and two thousand eighty-four
ten-thousandths
(A) 1
9. What is the largest integer value of x that 6
(C) 1
2
11
−9 < x < −1 (D) 20
(A) -9 (E) 5
8
(B) -8
(C) -2
(D) -1
(E) 0
i. 3V
ii. V × V
If AB is parallel to CE and the measure of
∘ iii. 2(V + 1)
angle ABC is 35 , what is the measure of
angle BCE? iv. (12/4)V
(A) 30∘
(A) only i and iv
(B) 35∘
(B) only iii and iv
(C) 45∘
(C) only i, ii, iv
(D) 65∘
(D) i, ii, iii, iv
(E) 80∘
(E) It cannot be determined from the
13. If 5n is a whole number, then n could be information given.
16. Which pair of numbers has an average 18. The circle graph indicates what a runner
equal to one half the average of 26 and 54? was doing during a 20-mile run.
(A) 8 and 12
(B) 13 and 17
(C) 14 and 26
(D) 35 and 45
(E) 72 and 88
19. The circle graph indicates what a runner 21. If the positive integer Q is divided by a
was doing during a 20-mile run. number less than 1 and greater than 0, then
the answer MUST be
(A) 0
(B) less than 1
(C) between 0 and 1
(D) greater than 1
(E) less than Q
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 17
(E) 20
23. The circumference of the circle below is 25. If xy = 1, which of the following must be
25.13. Which of the following line segment true?
lengths is the closest approximation of the
longest line that could fit inside the circle?
(A) x=y
1
(B) x= y
(C) x>y
(D) x<y
(E) x = 1 and y = 1
(A) 5
(B) 7.5
(C) 10
(D) 11.3
(E) 15
Section 2
1 A B C D E 6 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 21 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 7 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 22 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 8 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 23 A B C D E
4 A B C D E 9 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 24 A B C D E
5 A B C D E 10 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 25 A B C D E
Section 3
1 A B C D E 9 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 33 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 10 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 34 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 35 A B C D E
4 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 36 A B C D E
5 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 37 A B C D E
6 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 38 A B C D E
7 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 31 A B C D E 39 A B C D E
8 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 32 A B C D E 40 A B C D E
Section 4
1 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 37 A B C D E 49 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 38 A B C D E 50 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 39 A B C D E 51 A B C D E
4 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 40 A B C D E 52 A B C D E
5 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 41 A B C D E 53 A B C D E
6 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 42 A B C D E 54 A B C D E
7 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 31 A B C D E 43 A B C D E 55 A B C D E
8 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 32 A B C D E 44 A B C D E 56 A B C D E
9 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 33 A B C D E 45 A B C D E 57 A B C D E
10 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 34 A B C D E 46 A B C D E 58 A B C D E
11 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 35 A B C D E 47 A B C D E 59 A B C D E
12 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 36 A B C D E 48 A B C D E 60 A B C D E
Section 5
1 A B C D E 6 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 21 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 7 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 22 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 8 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 23 A B C D E
4 A B C D E 9 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 24 A B C D E
5 A B C D E 10 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 25 A B C D E
This page is intentionally blank.
-----How to
4. Click "Score
Paper" for the first
section you would
like to score.
7. Enter the answers from your bubble sheet, then click "End Section".
8. When all sections are complete, click "View Analysis" to see results!
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