1. What are tiny units that help make up a living organism?

a) Cytoplasm

b) Cell COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

c) Nucleus

2. A cell is constituted of how many major parts?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4
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3. A thin outer layer of cell is called.............

a) cytoplasm

b) cell membrane

c) nucleus

4. A spherical structure located at the centre of the cell called

a............
a) cytoplasm

b) mitochondria

c) nucleus
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5. A jelly-like substance that surrounds a nucleus called the...........

a) protoplasm

b) cytoplasm

c) cell wall

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6. Organisms that are made up of just one cell are called

Unicellular organisms. Which of the following is not an example
of it?
a) Amoeba

b) Monkey

c) Fish
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7. All human beings, plants and animals are .................... organisms.

a) single celled

b) multicellular

c) unicellular
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8. The mode of taking food by an organism and its utilisation by

the body is called....................

a) respiration

b) digestion

c) nutrition

9. Organisms that make food themselves are called .............

a) hetrotrophs

b) autotrophs

c) saprotrophs
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10. Plants are an example of ................................ as they make their

own food using carbon dioxide, water and light energy.
a) hetrotrophs

b) autotrophs

c) saprotrophs
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11. Organisms that rely on others and usually take in ready-made

food made by the autotrophs are called ....................

a) hetrotrophs
b) autotrophs
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c) saprotrophs

12. Animals and human beings are an example of ......................... as

they depend on plants in many ways for their food

a) hetrotrophs

b) autotrophs

c) saprotrophs
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13. Photosynthesis is the process of synthesis of food by green

plants.

a) True

b) False

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14. What are tiny cellular structures inside a cell and perform
specific functions that are important for the cell?

a) Tissues
b) Organelles

c) Organs

15. Organelles are found in the cytoplasm of a cell.

a) True

b) False

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16. Name the cell organelle that carries out photosynthesis?

a) Chromoplast

b) Nucleus

c) Chloroplast
17. Which part of the plant is called Food Factory?

a) Stem

b) Roots COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

c) Leaves

18. Which gas is taken in through tiny pores on the leaves called
stomata?

a) Oxygen

b) Carbon Dioxide

c) Nitrogen
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19. Chlorophyll helps the leaves use the energy from the sunlight
to prepare food using the..................

a) carbon dioxide

b) water

c) minerals

d) all of the above

20. Which gas is released as a by-product of Photosynthesis?

a) Nitrogen

b) Oxygen

c) Carbon Dioxide

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21. Soils need to be enriched with which nutrients regularly?

a) Nitrogen

b) Phosphorus

c) Potassium
d) All of the above

22. Most important nutrients for plants are ...........

a) 16
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b) 17

c) 18

23. Out of the total nutrients how many nutrients are called
macronutrients.

a) 4

b) 5

c) 6

24. Macronutrients are required in ................ quantities while

micronutrients are required in very ............. quantities.

a) large, small

b) small, large

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25. Organisms that live together and share their shelter and
nutrients are said to be in a symbiotic relationship.

a) True

b) False

26. Rhizobium is a type of bacteria that convert atmospheric

..................... gas into a soluble form that can be utilised by plants.

a) Oxygen

b) Carbon Dioxide

c) Nitrogen
27. The process by which nitrogen is converted into a form that
can be used by plants and other living organisms is
called nitrogen fixation.

a) True
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b) False

28. A parasite is a .................... that completely depends on

another organism for its food.
a) hetrotrophs

b) autotrophs
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c) saprotrophs

29. The organism to which the parasite latches onto is called

the...............

a) vector

b) host

c) bacteria

30. Organisms which rely on dead and decaying matter for their
food are called ............................
a) hetrotrophs

b) autotrophs

c) saprotrophs
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31. Mode of nutrition in Fungi is..............

a) hetrotrophic

b) autotrophic

c) saprotrophic

32. The pitcher plant, Venous flytrap are examples of...........

a) hetrotrophs

b) autotrophs

c) insectivorous plants
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33. Organisms which prepare food for themselves using simple

naturally available raw materials are referred to as

(a) heterotrophs

(b) autotrophs

(c) parasites

(d) saprophytes

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34. In the absence of which of the following will photosynthesis

not occur in leaves?

(a) Guard cells

(b) Chlorophyll

(c) Vacuole

(d) Space between cells

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35. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) All green plants can prepare their own food.

(ii) Most animals are autotrophs.

(iii) Carbon dioxide is not required for photosynthesis.

(iv) Oxygen is liberated during photosynthesis.

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

(a) (i) and (iv)

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(b) (ii) only

(c) (ii) and (iii)

(d) (i) and (ii)

36. Pitcher plant traps insects because it.................

(a) is a heterotroph.

(b) grows in soils which lack in nitrogen.

(c) does not have chlorophyll.

(d) has a digestive system like human beings.

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37. The term that is used for the mode of nutrition in yeast,
mushroom and bread-mould is ................

(a) autotrophic

(b) insectivorous

(c) saprophytic

(d) parasitic

38. When we observe the lower surface of a leaf through a

magnifying lens we see numerous small openings. Which of the
following is the term given to such openings?

(a) Stomata COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

(b) Lamina

(c) Midrib

(d) Veins

39. Two organisms are good friends and live together. One
provides shelter, water, and nutrients while the other prepares
and provides food. Such an association of organisms is termed
as

(a) saprophyte

(b) parasite

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(c) autotroph

(d) symbiosis

40. Which of the following raw material is available in the air for
photosynthesis?

(a) Oxygen

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Nitrogen

(d) Hydrogen

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41. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) Plants that feed on insects are called autotrophs.

b) These plants are green and carry out photosynthesis.

c) They grow in nitrogen-deficient soils. So, in order to get

nitrogen, they feed on insects.

d) These insectivorous plants have their parts modified for

attracting and catching insects.

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THANK YOU
JAI HIND
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CLASS 7
SCIENCE
NUTRITION IN ANIMALS
1. The nucleus is surrounded by a
jelly-like substance called………
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a) centrosome
b) nucleoplasm
c) cytoplasm
d) vacoule
2. The finger-like outgrowths of Amoeba helps to ingest
food. However, the finger-like outgrowths of human
intestine helps to

(a) digest the fatty food substances

(b) make the food soluble
(c) absorb the digested food
(d) absorb the undigested food
3. The swallowed food moves downwards in the
alimentary canal because of
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(a) force provided by the muscular tongue
(b) the flow of water taken with the food
(c) gravitational pull
(d) the contraction of muscles in the wall of foodpipe
4. The stomach is a thick –walled bag of
shape

a. V- shape
b. J-shape
c. X- shape
d. Z- shape
5. An amoeba ingests food with the help of
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(a) Cilia
(b) Tentacles
(c) Pseudopedia
(d) Buccal Cavity
6. The largest gland in the human body is
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a. Oesophagus
b. Salivary gland
c. Liver
d. Villi
7. Which of the following pair of teeth differ in
structure but are similar in function?
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(a) Canines and incisors

(b) Molars and premolars
(c) Incisors and molars
(d) Premolars and canines
8. The walls of large intestine absorb
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(a) water
(b) proteins
(c) cellulose
(d) roughage
9. The process of digestion taking place in grass- eating
animals is called

a. Egestion
b. Rumination
c. Assimilation
d. Absorption
10. Diarrhoea is caused due to
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a. Infection
b. Indigestion
c. Poisoning
d. All of the above
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
11. Read carefully the terms given below. Which of the
following set is the correct combination of organs that
do not carry out any digestive functions?

(a) Oesophagus, large Intestine, rectum

(b) Buccal cavity, oesophagus, rectum
(c) Buccal cavity, oesophagus, large intestine
(d) Small intestine, large intestine, rectum
12. The acid present in the stomach
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(a) kills the harmful bacteria that may enter along with
the food
(b) protects the stomach lining from harmful
substances
(c) digests starch into simpler sugars
(d) makes the medium alkaline
13. Grass is rich in ________ a special kind of
carbohydrate which can only be digested by ruminants.

(a) Glucose
(b) Cellulose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Fructose
14. Bile juice is stored in
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(a) liver
(b) pancreas
(c) gall bladder
(d) stomach
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15. Plenty of boiled water mixed with a pinch of
salt and sugar dissolved in it is called

a. An Acid
b. A base
c. An indicator
d. Oral Rehydration solution
16. Which of the following is not a part of
nutrition?
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(a) digestion
(b) absorption
(c) assimilation
(d) excretion
17. Single celled organism among the following
is

a. Human being
b. Yeast
c. Cow
d. Amoeba
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18. Which of the following is a ruminant?

(a) buffalo
(b) camel
(c) goat
(d) all of these
19. Which of the following do not
have teeth
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(a) rats
(b) birds
(c) snakes
(d) elephants
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20. Amylase enzyme is present in

(a) bile juice
(b) saliva
(c) gastric juice
(d) pancreatic juice
21. Length of small intestine is
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a. 10.5m long
b. 40m long
c. 23.4m long
d. 7.5m long.
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
22. The function of the digestive juices present
in the stomach is to breakdown

a. the proteins into simpler substances b. Starch

into sugars
c. Fats into juices
d. Food into gases
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
23. The set of teeth that exists in the mouth
during the period from six to eight years of a
human being are called

a. Permanent teeth
b. Premolar teeth
c. Molar teeth
d. Milk teeth
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24. The pointed teeth in the buccal

cavity are called:
(a) incisors
(b) canines
(c) premolars
(d) molars
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(25) Fat is completely digested in the

(i) stomach
(ii) mouth
(iii) small intestine
(iv) large intestine
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26. Water from the undigested food is absorbed mainly

in the

(i) stomach
(ii) foodpipe
(iii) small intestine
(iv) large intestine
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27. Match the column..

1
28. Which part of the digestive canal is involved in:
SMALL INTESTINE
(i) absorption of food ________________.

TEETH
(ii) chewing of food ________________.
 HCl
(iii) killing of bacteria ________________.

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(iv) complete digestion of food ________________.

SMALL INTESTINE

LARGE INTESTINE
(v) formation of faeces ________________.
29. Match the column..
3

6
30. The breakdown of complex components of
food into simpler substances is called
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a. Digestion
b. Nutrition
c. Breathing
d. Respiration
1. The rearing of silkworms for obtaining
silk is called

(a) cocoon
(b) silk
(c) sericulture
(d) silviculture
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2. Which of the following is not a type of silk?

(a) Mulberry silk

(b) Tassar silk
(c) Mooga silk
(d) Moth silk
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3. Paheli wanted to buy a gift made of animal fibre
obtained without killing the animal. Which of the
following would be the right gift for her to buy?

(a) Woollen shawl

(b) Silk scarf
(c) Animal fur cap
(d) Leather jacket
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4. Silk fibre is obtained from

(a) fleece of sheep

(b) cotton ball
(c) cocoon
(d) shiny jute stalk
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5. Wool fibre cannot be obtained from
which of the following?

(a) Goat
(b) Llama
(c) Alpaca
(d) Moth
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6. Selective breeding is a process of

(a) selecting the offsprings with desired properties.

(b) selecting the parents with desired properties.
(c) selecting an area for breeding.
(d) selecting fine hair for good quality wool.

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7. The general process that takes place at a sheep
shearing shed is

(a) removal of fleece.

(b) separating hair of different textures.
(c) washing of sheep fibre to remove grease.
(d) rolling of sheep fibre into yarn.

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8. The term sericulture is used for

(a) culture of bacteria.

(b) rearing of silkworm.
(c) making silk fabric from silk yarn.
(d) production of sarees.
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9. Reeling of silk is

(a) a process of making silk reels.

(b) spinning of silk fibres.
(c) weaving of silk cloth.
(d) the process of taking silk threads from
cocoon.
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10. Silkworms secrete fibre made of

(a) fat
(b) cellulose
(c) protein
(d) nylon
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11. Fill in the blanks in the following statements.

(a) _______ and _______ fibres are obtained from

animals.

(b) Silk fibres come from _________ of silk _________.

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(c) Wool yielding animals bear _________ on
their body.

(d) Hair trap a lot of _________, which is a poor

_________ of heat.
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 12. Which word complete the given
correlation? Silk: Cocoon, Wool: ____

A) Hair of rabbit
B) Cotton plant
C) Fleece of sheep
D) Jute of hemp
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13. _____type of wool is commonly
available in the market

a. Sheep wool
b. Yak wool
c. Angora wool
[Link]
Camel wool
"MCQ NCERT" YOUTUBE CHANNELCOPYRIGHT "M
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14. Find from the following where Silk Industry
began

a. India
b. China
c. Tibet
d. Africa
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15. Pashmina shawls are found in

a. South America
b. Kashmir
c. South Africa
d. Gujarat
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16. Silk fibre obtained from silk moth is_________

a. Carbohydrate
b. Fat
c. Protein
d. Sugars

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17. Woollen clothes are made from

a. Animals
b. Plants
c. Insects
d. Bacteria
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18. Which of the following materials is/are used
for clothing in ancient times?

A) Animal skins
B) Leaves
C) Vines
D) All of these
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19. For how long do the caterpillars eat
mulberry leaves?

a. 10 to 15 days
b. 20 to 30 days
c. 25 to 30 days
d. 5 to 10 days
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20. The rearing of silkworms to obtain silk is
called

a. Sericulture
b. Horticulture
c. Agriculture
d. Aqua-culture
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21. Clothes does not protect us from which
of the following condition?

A) Heat
B) Cold
C) Blood pressure
D) Dust and germs
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22. Food of the caterpillar in case of silk moth is

a. Mulberry leaves
b. Neem leaves
c. Tulsi Leaves
d. Pudina leaves
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23. The process of removing the fleece of sheep
along with a thin Layer of skin is called

a. Rearing
b. Shearing
c. Sorting
d. Scouring
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1. A reliable measure of the ……………….. of

an object is its temperature.

a) hotness
b) coldness
c) both a & b
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2. Temperature is measured by a
device called ………….

a) speedometer
b) thermometer
c) clinometer
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3. The thermometer that measures our
body temperature is called a ……….

a) clinical thermometer
b) lab thermometer
c) both a & b
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 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
4. A clinical thermometer consists of a long,
narrow, uniform glass tube. It has a bulb at one
end. This bulb contains ……………

a) silver
b) mercury
c) iron
5. A clinical thermometer reads
temperature from………..
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a) 35°C to 42°C
b) -10 to 110°C
c) 0 to 100°C
6. The jerks on clinical thermometer will
bring the level of mercury ………
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a) up
b) down
c) stable
7. The normal temperature of
human body is …………..
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a) 37°F
b) 37°C
c) 37 K
8. We should not use a ………. thermometer
for measuring the temperature of any
object other than the human body.
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a) lab
b) clinical
c) both a & b
9. The maximum and minimum temperatures of the previous
day, reported in weather reports, are measured by a
thermometer called the ……………….
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a) maximum -minimum thermometer
b) laboratory
c) clinical
10. Range of a laboratory thermometer is
generally from …………………
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a) 35°C to 42°C
b) -10°C to 110°C
c) 0°C to 100°C
11. ……….. prevents mercury level from
falling on its own.
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a) metal
b) kink
c) glass
12. There is a lot of concern over the use of
……….. in thermometers because it is a toxic
substance and is very difficult to dispose off if a
thermometer breaks.
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a) glass
b) mercury
c) aluminium
13. Heat flows from a hotter object to
a colder object.
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a) True
b) False
14. The process by which heat is transferred
from the hotter end to the colder end of an
object is known as …………..
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a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
15. The materials which allow heat to pass
through them easily are …….. of heat.
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a) insulators
b) conductors
c) semi-conductors
16. Which of the following is poor
conductors of heat?
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a) aluminum
b) iron
c) copper
d) plastic
17. Poor conductors of heat are
known as…………
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a) insulators
b) conductors
c) semi-conductors
18. When water is heated, the water near the flame
gets hot. Hot water rises up. The cold water from the
sides moves down towards the source of heat. It is
phenomenon of……..
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a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
20. The air from the sea is called
the …………
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a) ocean breeze
b) sea breeze
c) land breeze
21. At night, the water cools down more slowly
than the land. So, the cool air from the land
moves towards the sea. This is called the….…..
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a) land breeze
b) sea breeze
c) both a & b
23. From the sun the heat comes to us
by process known as ………..
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a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
24. Transfer of heat by ……… does
not require any medium.
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a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
25. Land breeze and sea breeze are the
examples of which form of heat transfer?
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a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
26. When the heat falls on some object, a
part of it is …………….
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a) reflected
b) absorbed
c) transmitted
d) all of above
27. Temperature of the object increases
due to the ………….. part of the heat.
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a) reflected
b) absorbed
c) transmitted
d) all of above
28. ……………. coloured clothes reflect most of
the heat that falls on them and, therefore, we
feel more comfortable wearing them in the
summer.
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a) Dark
b) Light
c) Both light & dark
29. A cold steel spoon is dipped in a cup of
hot milk. Heat is transferred to its other
end by the process of ______________.
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a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
30.
D

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1. The substances that taste sour are

generally …..…..

a) Acids
b) Bases
c) Salts
2. Substances which are bitter in taste and
feel soapy on touching are known as
…………
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a) Acids
b) Bases
c) Salts
3. Substances which are used to test whether a
substance is acidic or basic are known as
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a) colours
b) salts
c) indicators
4. Turmeric, litmus, China rose petals are some
of the …………..
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a) natural indicators
b) artificial indicators
c) none of the above
6. Litmus is extracted from
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a) Lichens
b) Bacteria
c) Virus
7. The solutions which do not change the colour
of either red or blue litmus are ….
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a) acidic solutions
b) basic solutions
c) neutral solutions
8. The reaction between an acid and a base
is known as
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a) Neutralisation
b) Decomposition
c) Displacement
9. In neutralisation reaction, heat is always……………..
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a) absorbed
b) released
c) none of the above
10. To relieve indigestion, we take an
antacid such as milk of magnesia, which
contains
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a) calcium hydroxide
b) magnesium hydroxide
c) potassium hydroxide
11. Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate is also
called………..
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a) Washing Soda
b) Common Salt
c) Baking Soda
12. When an ant bites, it injects
the…………….. into the skin.

a) formic acid
b) acetic acid
c) nitric acid
13. Organic matter (compost) releases
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a) Salts
b) Acids
c) Bases
14. The correct way of making a solution of acid
in water is to
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(a) add water to acid.
(b) add acid to water.
(c) mix acid and water simultaneously.
(d) add water to acid in a shallow container.
15. Products of a neutralisation reaction
are always
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(a) an acid and a base.
(b) an acid and a salt.
(c) a salt and water.
(d) a salt and a base.
16. Turmeric is a natural indicator. On adding its paste
to acid and base separately, which colours would be
observed
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(a) Yellow in both acid and base.
(b) Yellow in acid and red in base.
(c) Pink in acid and yellow in base.
(d) Red in acid and blue in base.
17. Phenolphthalein is a synthetic indicator and its
colours in acidic and basic solutions, respectively are
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(a) red and blue.
(b) blue and red.
(c) pink and colourless.
(d) colourless and pink
18. When the soil is too basic, plants do not grow well in it. To
improve its quality what must be added to the soil?
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(a) Organic matter
(b) Quick lime
(c) Slaked lime
(d) Calamine solution
19. ‘Litmus’, a natural dye is an extract of which
of the following?
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(a) China rose (Gudhal)
(b) Beetroot
(c) Lichen
(d) Blue berries (Jamun)
20. Neutralisation reaction is a
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(a) physical and reversible change.
(b) physical change that cannot be reversed.
(c) chemical and reversible change.
(d) chemical change that cannot be reversed.
21. A solution changes the colour of turmeric
indicator from yellow to red. The solution is
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(a) basic
(b) acidic
(c) neutral
(d) either neutral or acidic
22. Which of the following set of
substances contain acids?
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(a) Grapes, lime water
(b) Vinegar, soap
(c) Curd, milk of magnesia
(d) Curd, vinegar
23. Which of the following is an acid-base
indicator?
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(a) Vinegar
(b) Lime water
(c) Turmeric
(d) Baking soda
24. TRUE / FALSE

(i) Nitric acid turn red litmus blue. f

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(ii) Sodium hydroxide turns blue litmus red. F

(iii) Sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid neutralise
each other and form salt and water. T

(iv) Indicator is a substance which shows different

colours in acidic and basic solutions. T
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(v) Tooth decay is caused by the presence of a base. F
24- b. Identify acid bases and salts among the following.

A A A
A
Hydrochloric acid, Sulphuric acid, Nitric acid, Acetic
acid,
B B B

Sodium hydroxide, Ammonium hydroxide, Calcium

hydroxide, Sodium Chloride.
S

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24 c) Fill in the blanks….
BASE
ACID
1) …………….. turn blue litmus red and ……………. turn red
litmus blue.
BASE
2) When the solution is ……….., phenolphthalein gives a
pink colour. On the other hand, when the solution is
ACID
……………………, it remains colourless.

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25) Complete the reaction…

Hydrochloric acid (HCl) + Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) →

NaCl + H2O

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 Class 7 SCIENCE
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MCQ

CHEMICAL AND PHYSICAL CHANGES

1. Classify the changes involved in the following processes as
physical or chemical changes:
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(a) Photosynthesis c
(b) Dissolving sugar in water P
(c) Burning of coal C
(d) Melting of wax P
(e) Beating aluminium to make aluminium foil P

(f ) Digestion of food C
2. Properties such as …………….of a substance are
called its physical properties.
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a) shape
b) size
c) colour
d) state
e) all of the above
3. A ………. change is generally reversible. In such
a change no new substance is formed.
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a) physical
b) chemical
c) both a & b
d) NOTA
4. Which of the following is a physical
change?
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(a) Rusting of iron
(b) Combustion of magnesium ribbon
(c) Burning of candle
(d) Melting of wax
5. A chemical change may involve –
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(a) change in colour only
(b) change in temperature only
(c) evolution of gas only
(d) any or all of the above
6. If you leave a piece of iron in the open for
some time, it acquires a film of …….. substance.
This substance is called rust and the process is
called rusting.
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a) Yellow
b) Green
c) Brown
 Burning of Magnesium Ribbon

Get a small piece of a thin strip or

ribbon of magnesium. Clean its tip with
sandpaper. Bring the tip near a candle
flame. It burns with a brilliant white light
7. Magnesium hydroxide is substance formed by mixing
magnesium oxide with ………...
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a) Water
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon Dioxide
d) Hydrogen
8. …….. is also called blue vitriol.
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a) Copper sulphate
b) Iron Sulphate
c) Zinc Sulphate
d) Magnesium Sulphate
9. Which of the following is/are true when milk changes into curd?
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(i) Its state is changed from liquid to semi solid.
(ii) It changes colour.
(iii) It changes taste.
(iv) The change cannot be reversed.

Choose the correct option from below :

(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) to (iv) are correct
10. Which of the following statement is incorrect
for a chemical reaction?
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(a) Heat may be given out but never absorbed.
(b) Sound may be produced.
(c) A colour change may take place.
(d) A gas may be evolved.
11. The changes that you notice are
due to a reaction between copper
sulphate and iron is a …… change.

a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) both a & b
12. Which of the following is a chemical change?
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a) Twinkling of stars
b) Cooking of vegetables
c) Cutting of fruits
d) Boiling of water
13. Colour of the solution from blue to ……. is due to
the formation of iron sulphate, a new substance. The
brown deposit on the iron nail is copper, another new
substance.
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a) red
b) yellow
c) green
14. When ………. is passed through lime
water, calcium carbonate is formed, which
makes lime water milky.
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a) Oxygen
b) Carbon Dioxide
c) Nitrogen
15. The turning of lime water into
milky is a standard test of…….
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a) carbon dioxide
b) oxygen
c) nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
16. A change in which one or more
new substances are formed is called a
………. change.
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a) chemical
b) physical
c) both a & b
17. We have seen that one or more new substances are produced in a chemical
change. In addition to new products, the following may accompany a chemical
change:
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a) Heat, light or any other radiation (ultraviolet, for example) may be given
off or absorbed.
b) Sound may be produced.
c) A change in smell may take place or a new smell may be given off.
d) A colour change may take place, a gas may be formed.
e) All of above
18. Burning of coal, wood or leaves is
also a ………. change.
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a) chemical
b) physical
c) both a & b
19. A man painted his main gate made up of iron, to

(i) prevent it from rusting.

(ii) protect it from sun.
(iii) make it look beautiful.
(iv) make it dust free.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) only (ii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
 20. Iron pillar near the Qutub Minar in Delhi is famous for the
following facts. Which of these facts is responsible for its long
stability?
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a) It is more than 7 metres high.
b) It weighs about 6000 kg.
c) It was built more than 1600 years ago.
d) It has not rusted after such a long period.
21. Burning is always accompanied by
production of………..

a) heat
b) sound
c) light
d) smoke
 22. Explosion of a firework, neutralisation
of an acid with a base is a ..……change.
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a) chemical
b) physical
c) both a & b
 23. Ozone layer in our atmosphere. It protects
us from the harmful ………. radiation which come
from the sun.
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a) ultraviolet
b) infrared
c) x-rays
d) NOTA
24. For rusting, the presence of …….. is essential.

a) oxygen
b) water
c) both oxygen & water
d) carbon dioxide
 25. If the content of moisture in air is high,
which means if it is more humid, rusting
becomes ……….
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a) slower
b) faster
c) remains same
d) NOTA
 26. The process of depositing a layer of
…….. on iron is called galvanisation.
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a) Magnesium
b) Zinc
c) Chromium
d) Silver
27. The salt water makes the process
of rust formation ……..
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a) slower
b) faster
c) remains same
28. Stainless steel is made by mixing iron
with carbon and metals like……..
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a) chromium
b) nickel
c) manganese
d) all of above
29. Large crystals of pure substances can be
formed from their solutions, this process is
called crystallisation which is an example of a……
change.
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a) chemical
b) physical
c) both a & b
d) NOTA
30. Galvanisation is a process used to
prevent the rusting of ……………
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a) Iron
b) Zinc
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
31. True or false.
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(a) Cutting a log of wood into pieces is a chemical change. F

(b) Formation of manure from leaves is a physical change. F

c) Iron pipes coated with zinc do not get rusted easily. T

(d) Iron and rust are the same substances. F

(e) Condensation of steam is not a chemical change. F

32. Fill in the blanks.
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(a) When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to the
CaCO3
formation of _________.
SODIUM BICARBONATE
(b) The chemical name of baking soda is _________.
PAINTING
GALVANISATION
(c) Two methods by which rusting of iron can be prevented are ____ and _____.
PHYSICAL
(d) Changes in which only _________ properties of a substance change are called
physical changes.
CHEMICAL
(e) Changes in which new substances are formed are called _________changes.
COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
33. Fill in the blanks
PHYSICAL
a) Making sugar solution is a ____________ change.

REVERSIBLE
b) A physical change is generally____________.
PHYSICAL
c) Grinding of wheat grain changes its size. It is a ____________
change.
RUSTED
CHEMICAL
d) Iron benches kept in lawns and gardens get___. It is a ____
SUBSTANCE
change because a new ______ is formed.
 34. Paheli’s mother made a concentrated sugar syrup
by dissolving sugar in hot water. On cooling, crystals of
sugar got separated. This indicates a……….
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(a) physical change that can be reversed.
(b) chemical change that can be reversed.
(c) physical change that cannot be reversed.
(d) chemical change that cannot be reversed.
 35. Salt can be obtained by the
evaporation of…….
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a) sea water
b) distilled water
c) river water
d) potable water
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THANK YOU
JAI HIND
 TOP MCQ
CLASS 7 SCIENCE
Weather, Climate and Adaptation
of Animals to Climate
NCERT & EXEMPLAR BASED
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1. Humidity, as you might know, is a
measure of the moisture in air.
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a) mass
b) volume
c) moisture
2. ……reports are prepared by the
Meteorological Department of the
Government.
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a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Weather
3. Rainfall is measured by an instrument
called the……….. It is basically a measuring
cylinder with a funnel on top to collect
rainwater.
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a) Anemometer
b) Barometer
c) Rain Gauge
4. The day to-day condition of the atmosphere at a
place with respect to the temperature, humidity,
rainfall, windspeed, etc., is called the ……….. at that
place.
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a) Climate
b) Weather
c) Both Climate & Weather
5. All changes in the weather are
caused by the……..
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a) sun
b) moon
c) planets
6. The average weather pattern taken over
a long time, say …… years, is called the
climate of the place.

a) 15
b) 25
c) 35
7. If there is high temperature with heavy
rainfall on most of the days in the same place,
then we can say that the climate of that place
is…….
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a) hot
b) wet
c) hot & wet
8) Rajasthan has ……. temperature
during most part of the year.

a) low
b) high
c) moist
 9. ………. India receives rain for a
major part of the year.
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a) North East
b) North West
c) Western
Countries that belong to the polar regions are Canada,
Greenland, Iceland, Norway, Sweden, Finland, Alaska
in U.S.A. and Siberian region of Russia.
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Examples of some countries where the tropical

rainforests are found are India, Malaysia, Indonesia,
Brazil, Republic of Congo, Kenya, Uganda, and Nigeria.
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10. What is true about Polar bears?

a) They have white fur so that they are not easily visible in the snowy
white background which protects them from predators.
b) They have a layer of fat under their skin. In fact, they are so well-
insulated that they have to move
slowly and rest often to avoid getting overheated.
c) They are good swimmer because there paws are wide and large, which
help it not only to swim well but also walk with ease in the snow.
d) all of the above
11. What is true about penguins?
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a) It is white and merges well
with the white background.
b) It also has a thick skin and a lot
of fat to protect it from cold
which help to keep warm.
c) Their bodies are streamlined
and their feet have webs, making them good swimmers.
d) all of the above
12. Bharatpur bird sanctuary is
situated at…..
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a) Rajasthan
b) Haryana
c) Madhya Pradesh
13. What is true about the tropical region?
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a) It has generally a hot climate because of its
location around the equator.
b) Even in the coldest month the temperature is
generally higher than about 15°C.
c) During hot summers, the temperature may cross
40°C.
d) Days are longer than nights throughout the year.
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Tropical rainforests are found in
Western Ghats and Assam in India,
Southeast Asia, Central America
and Central Africa.
14. Large ears of the elephant
help it to hear even very ….. sounds.

a) loud
b) shrill
c) soft
15. Name the elements that determine
the weather of a place.
MERCURY

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16. When are the maximum and

minimum temperatures likely to occur
during the day?
COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
17. Fill in the blanks:
CLIMATE
(i) The average weather taken over a long time is called ___________.

(ii) A place receives very little rainfall and the temperature is high throughout
the year, the climate of that place will be ___________
DRY and ___________
HOT .

(iii) The two regions of the earth with extreme climatic conditions are
___________
POLAR and __________.
TROPICAL
COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
18. Indicate the type of climate of the following areas:

(a) Jammu and Kashmir: _________________________________

WET, MODERATE

HOT, HUMID
(b) Kerala: ____________________________________________

(c) Rajasthan: __________________________________________

HOT, DRY

(d) North-east India: _____________________________________

WET, MODERATE
COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

19. Which of the two changes

frequently, weather or climate?
20. A carnivore with stripes on its body moves
very fast while catching its prey. It is likely to be
found in…….
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(i) polar regions
(ii) deserts
(iii) oceans
(iv) tropical rainforests
21. Which features adapt polar bears to live in
extremely cold climate?

(i) A white fur, fat below skin, keen sense of smell.

(ii) Thin skin, large eyes, a white fur.
(iii) A long tail, strong claws, white large paws.
(iv) White body, paws for swimming, gills for
respiration.
 22. The maximum and minimum temperature displayed daily in
the weather bulletin refer to the –
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(a) highest day temperature and lowest night temperature of the
day.
(b) highest day temperature and highest night temperature of
the month.
(c) temperature recorded at 12 noon and at mid night (00.00
hrs).
(d) average highest temperature of day and average lowest
temperature of night.
 23. Out of the given definitions, which is the
most appropriate definition of climate?
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(a) Changes in weather conditions in a year.
(b) Average weather pattern of many years.
(c) Change in weather pattern in a few years.
(d) Weather conditions during summer.
 24. Which of the following briefly describes
the desert climate?
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(a) Hot and humid
(b) Dry and humid
(c) Hot and dry
(d) Hot and wet
COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

25. Paheli went to a wildlife sanctuary where she saw dense

vegetation of trees, shrubs, herbs and also a variety of animals
like monkeys, birds, elephants, snakes, frogs, etc. The most likely
location of this sanctuary is in the –

(a) temperate region

(b) tropical region
(c) polar region
(d) coastal region
 26. Given below are some adaptive features of animals:
(i) Layer of fat under the skin
(ii) Long, curved and sharp claws
(iii) Slippery body
(iv) Thick white fur.
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Which of them are the adaptive features of a polar bear?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii), and (iv) only
 27. Which of the following statement is
incorrect for penguins?
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(a) They huddle together
(b) They cannot swim
(c) They have webbed feet
(d) They have streamlined body
 28. Read the following environmental conditions of tropical rain forests.
(i) Hot and humid climate
(ii) Unequal lengths of day and night
(iii) Abundant rain fall
(iv) Abundant light and moisture.
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Identify the conditions from the above list that are responsible for the
presence of large number of plants and animals in tropical rain forests.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
29. The coldest region on earth is the –

(a) polar region

(b) tropical region
(c) temperate region
(d) coastal region
 30. Choose the odd one from the following
options :
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(a) Thick layer of fat under the skin
(b) White fur
(c) Long grasping tail
(d) Wide and large feet with sharp claws
 31. Give one example of an animal that can live
both in water and on land. SNAKE

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32. Name two animals each that live in Polar
region and Tropical rain forests. PENGUIN, TIGER
 33. State whether the following statements are True or False.
Correct the false statements.
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(a) It is easy to predict weather rather than climate. F
(b) Since very few prey are available, polar bear does not need to
have strong sense of smell. F
(c) Penguins stick together to fight the cold polar climate. T
(d) Tropical rain forests are cool and humid throughout the year
because of heavy rains all the time. F
 34. Sultanpur bird sanctuary is
situated at…..
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a) Rajasthan
b) Haryana
c) Madhya Pradesh
COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

A
New world monkey
THANK YOU
JAI HIND
 Top 60 MCQ & Questions

Class 7 Science

Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Most Important Questions

1. Orissa was hit by a cyclone with wind speed
of 200 km/h on 18 October………..

a) 1997
b) 1998
c) 1999
d) 2000
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2. Moving air is called the……….

a) wind
b) cyclone
c) tornado
d) willies
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3. It is due to this ……… that the leaves of
trees, banners, or flags flutter when the wind
is blowing.

a) density
b) pressure
c) temperature
d) none of the above
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4. The pressure of air inside the can
decreases than the pressure exerted by the
air from outside the can. As a result the can
gets …………

a) expanded
b) compressed
c) both expanded & compressed
d) neither expanded & compressed
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5. The increased wind speed is, indeed,
accompanied by a …….. air pressure.

a) increased
b) reduced
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6. Air moves from the region where the air
pressure is ……… to the region where the
pressure is ……….

a) high, low
b) low, high
c) high, high
d) low, low
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7. The ………. the difference in pressure, the
faster the air moves.

a) greater
b) smaller
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8. On ……….. the air expands and occupies
…………. space.

a) cooling, more
b) heating, less
c) cooling, less
d) heating, more
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9. The diagram shown
represents shows that
air rises on cooling.

a) True
b) False
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10. Assertion- The hot smoke rises up.
Reason- The warm air is lighter than the cold air.

a) Both Assertion & reason are correct and reason is

correct explanation of Assertion
b) Both Assertion & reason are correct and reason is
incorrect explanation of Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
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11. WIND CURRENTS ARE GENERATED DUE
TO UNEVEN HEATING ON THE EARTH

a) True
b) False

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12. Statement 1- The winds would have flown in the north-
south direction from north to south, or from south to north.
Statement 2- A change in direction is however, caused by the
rotation of the earth.

a) Only 1 is correct
b) Only 2 is correct
c) Both 1 & 2 are correct
d) Both 1 & 2 are incorrect

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13. The word monsoon is derived from the
………. word ‘mausam’, which means ‘season’.

a) Greek
b) Arabic
c) Latin
d) Persian
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14. In which of the following, the direction of
wind flow gets reversed and it flows from the
land to the ocean?

a) winter
b) summer
c) spring
d) autumn
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15. The monsoon winds carry water and it
rains.

a) True
b) False

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16. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) Thunderstorms develop in hot, humid tropical areas

like India very frequently.
b) The rising temperatures produce strong upward rising
winds.
c) These winds carry water droplets upwards, where
they freeze, and fall down again.
d) The swift movement of the falling water droplets
along with the rising air create lightning and sound. It is
this event that we call a cyclone.
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17. The centre of a cyclone is a calm area. It is
called the …… of the storm.

a) nose
b) ear
c) eye
d) mouth
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18. Cyclone is known by different names in
different parts of the world. It is called a
‘hurricane’ in the ……….. continent.

a) Asian
b) American
c) African
d) Europe
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19. In which of the following country, cyclone
is called a ‘typhoon’?

a) Philippines
b) Japan
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
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20. An anemometer for measuring the ………..
of wind.

a) pressure
b) temperature
c) speed
d) humidity
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21. Equators are the region of _______
pressure while pole are regions of _______
pressure.

a) High, low
b) Low, High
c) Low, Low
d) High, High
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22. The eye of the cyclone is _________

a) Cloudy and highly stormy

b) Full of strong winds
c) Calm and Cloudless
d) Site with high atmospheric pressure.
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23. The paper ball kept near the mouth of a plastic bottle will
be pushed out because

a) the air pressure inside the bottle is same as that at the

mouth
b) the air pressure inside the bottle is more than that at the
mouth
c) the air pressure inside the bottle is less than that at the
mouth
d) the pressure inside and outside the bottle same.
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24. Air moves faster between two places
when the pressure difference between the
place is ______

a) Less
b) More
c) Zero
d) Equal to atmospheric pressure
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25. A cyclone is called ________ in the
American continent

a) Hurricane
b) Typhoon
c) Tornado
d) Thunderstorm
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26. Which of the following is the best thing to
do during heavy lightning?

a) Lying on the ground in an open place

b) Going into the nearest water body
c) Staying indoors away from metallic doors or
windows
d) Standing under a tall tree
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27. During the formation of rain, what
happens when water vapor changes to rain
drops?

a) Heat is absorbed.
b) Heat is released.
c) Heat is first absorbed and then released.
d) There is no exchange of heat.
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28. The winds on the earth do not flow in the
exact "north to south" or "south to north"
directions. Why?

a) Due to the seasons of the earth

b) Due to the shape of the earth
c) Due to the rotation of the earth
d) All of the above
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29. What is the best thing to do when strong
winds blow over a hut having a weak
thatched roof?

a) Open the doors and windows

b) Close all the doors and windows
c) Make holes in the roof
d) Burn wood inside
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30. Which of the following has the highest
pressure?

a) Soft drink in a straw

b) The air
c) Soft drink in a glass
d) A closed bottle
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31. Which one of the following place is
unlikely to be affected by a cyclone?

(a) Chennai
(b) Mangaluru (Mangalore)
(c) Amritsar
(d) Puri
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32. Which of the statements given below is correct?

(a) In winter the winds flow from the land to the ocean.
(b) In summer the winds flow from the land towards the
ocean.
(c) A cyclone is formed by a very high-pressure system
with very high-speed winds revolving around it.
(d) The coastline of India is not vulnerable to cyclones.
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33. Factors on which atmospheric pressure
depends are:

(a) altitude
(b) temperature
(c) water vapour
(d) all of these
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34. The speed of which is measured by:

(a) wind vane

(b) anemometer
(c) barometer
(d) hygrometer
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What are monsoon winds?

Ans) In summer, near the equator the land warms up

faster and most of the time the temperature of the land
is higher than that of water in the oceans.

The air over the land gets heated and rises.

This causes the winds to flow from the oceans towards

the land. These are monsoon winds (Fig. 8.9).
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Q) Describe Cyclone in detail.

Ans) The centre of a cyclone is a calm area. It is called the eye of the storm.

A large cyclone is a violently rotating mass of air in the atmosphere, 10 to 15 km high.

The diameter of the eye varies from 10 to 30 km (Fig. 8.11).

It is a region free of clouds and has light winds.

Around this calm and clear eye (Fig. 8.12), there is a cloud region of about 150 km in size.

In this region there are high-speed winds (150–250 km/h) and thick clouds with heavy rain.

Away from this region the wind speed gradually decreases.

The formation of a cyclone is a very complex process

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Define Tornadoes in detail.

Ans) In our country they are not very frequent.

A tornado is a dark funnel shaped cloud that reaches from the
sky to the ground (Fig. 8.16).
Most of the tornadoes are weak. A violent tornado can travel
at speeds of about 300 km/h.
Tornadoes may form within cyclones.
The whole coastline of India is vulnerable to cyclones,
particularly the east coast.
The west coast of India is less vulnerable to cyclonic storms
both in terms of intensity and frequency of the cyclones.
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Q) EFFECTIVE SAFETY MEASURES DURING CYCLONES.

Ans) A cyclone forecast and warning service.

Rapid communication of warnings to the Government

agencies, the ports, fishermen, ships and to the general
public.

Construction of cyclone shelters in the cyclone prone

areas, and Administrative arrangements for moving
people fast to safer places.
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When we blow into the mouth of the bottle,
the air near the mouth has higher speed.

This decreases the pressure there.

The air pressure inside the bottle is higher

than near the mouth.

The air inside the bottle pushes the ball out.

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Regions close to the equator get maximum heat from the Sun.
The air in these regions gets warm.
The warm air rises, and the cooler air from the regions in the 0–30
degrees latitude belt on either side of the equator moves in.
These winds blow from the north and the south towards the equator. At
the poles, the air is colder than that at latitudes about 60 degrees. The
warm air at these latitudes rises up and the cold wind from the polar
regions rushes in, to take its place. In this way, wind circulation is set up
from the poles to the warmer latitudes, as shown in Fig. 8.8.

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Before cloud formation, water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change into
vapour.
When water vapour changes back to liquid form as raindrops, this heat is released to
the atmosphere.
The heat released to the atmosphere warms the air around.
The air tends to rise and causes a drop in pressure.
More air rushes to the centre of the storm. This cycle is repeated.
The chain of events ends with the formation of a very low-pressure system with very
high-speed winds revolving around it.
It is this weather condition that we call a cyclone. Factors like wind speed, wind
direction, temperature and humidity contribute to the development of cyclones.

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Cyclones can be very destructive. Strong winds push water towards the shore even if
the storm is hundreds of kilometres away.
These are the first indications of an approaching cyclone. The water waves produced
by the wind are so powerful that a person cannot overcome them.
The low pressure in the eye lifts water surface in the centre. The rising water may be
as high as 3–12 metres Fig. 8.11 Formation of a cyclone (Fig. 8.13).
It appears like a water-wall moving towards the shore. As a result, the seawater
enters the low-lying coastal areas, causing severe loss of life and property.
It also reduces the fertility of the soil. Continuous heavy rainfall may further worsen
the flood situation.
High-speed winds accompanying a cyclone can damage houses, telephones and
other communication systems, trees, etc., causing tremendous loss of life and
property.

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Action on the part of the people

We should not ignore the warnings issued by the

meteorological department through TV, radio, or newspapers.

We should — make necessary arrangements to shift the

essential household goods, domestic animals and vehicles, etc.
to safer places; avoid driving on roads through standing water,
as floods may have damaged the roads; and keep ready the
phone numbers of all emergency services like police, fire
brigade, and medical centres.
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Some other precautions, if you are staying in a cyclone hit area —

Do not drink water that could be contaminated.

Always store drinking water for emergencies.

Do not touch wet switches and fallen power lines.

Do not go out just for the sake of fun.

Do not pressurise the rescue force by making undue demands.

Cooperate and help your neighbours and friends.

Cyclone alert or Cyclone watch is issued 48 hours in
advance of any expected storm and a Cyclone warning is
issued 24 hrs in advance.

The message is broadcast every hour or half hour when

a cyclone is nearer the coast.

Several national and international organisations

cooperate to monitor the cyclone-related disasters.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Wind is ………………. air.

2. Winds are generated due to ……………… heating on the earth.

3. Near the earth’s surface ……………….. air rises up whereas …………….. air
comes down.

4. Air moves from a region of ………………….. pressure to a region of

…………….. pressure.

5. ………………. winds are called storms.

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 TOP MCQ/VSQ
CLASS 7 SCIENCE
SOILS
NCERT / EXEMPLAR BASED
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1. Soil is one of the most
important…..
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a) natural resource
b) artificial resource
c) man-made resource
2. Agriculture provides us…..
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a) food
b) Clothing
c) Shelter
d) all of the above
3. The rotten dead matter in the
soil is called……
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a) humus
b) clay
c) nutrients
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

4. Identify the incorrect one.

a) Polythene bags and plastics pollute the soil. They also kill the organisms
living in the soil.
b) Monomer of polyethene is ethane.
c) Other substances which pollute the soil are a number of waste products,
chemicals and pesticides.
d) Waste products and chemicals should be treated before they are released
into the soil. The use of pesticides should be minimised.
5. The breaking down of rocks by the action of
…… process is called weathering.
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a) wind
b) water
c) climate
d) wind, water & climate
6. The nature of any soil depends upon the rocks
from which it has been formed and the type of
vegetation that grows in it.
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a) True
b) False
7. A vertical section through different
layers of the soil is called the……
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a) soil profile
b) soil structure
c) soil divisions
8. Each layer of soil referred to as horizons
differs by…….
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a) texture
b) colour
c) depth
d) chemical composition
e) all of the above
9. Soil profile can also be seen while
digging a well or laying the foundation
of a building.
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a) True
b) False
10. Which horizon is generally dark in
colour as it is rich in humus and minerals.
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a) lowermost
b) middle
c) uppermost
11. Which layer of soil is generally soft,
porous and can retain more water?
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a) bedrock
b) topsoil
c) subsoil
12. B-horizon or the middle layer…….
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a) Has a lesser amount of humus but more of
minerals.
b) is generally harder
c) is more compact
d) all of above
13. The third layer is the C-horizon, is made
up of small lumps of rocks with cracks and
crevices.
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a) True
b) False
14. Identify the incorrect.
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a) Bedrock is hard and difficult to dig with a

spade.
b) The mixture of rock particles and humus
is called the soil.
c) Bedrock is soft and easy to dig with a
spade.
15. If soil contains greater proportion
of big particles it is called ……… soil.
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a) clayey
b) loamy
c) sandy
16. If the proportion of fine particles is
relatively higher, then it is called ……
soil.
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a) clayey
b) loamy
c) sandy
17. If the amount of large and fine particles
is about the same, then the soil is called
…….
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a) clayey
b) loamy
c) sandy
18. Identify the incorrect statement about sandy soil.

a) Particles in sandy soils are quite large.

b) Particles can’t fit closely together, so there are large
spaces between them which are filled with air.
c) Sandy soil is not well aerated.
d) Water can drain quickly through the spaces between
the sand particles. So, sandy soils tend to be light, well
aerated and rather dry.
19. Identify the incorrect.
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a) Clay particles, being much smaller, pack tightly
together, leaving little space for air.
b) Water can be held in the tiny gaps between the
particles of clay so they have little air.
c) They are heavy as they hold more water than the
sandy soils.
d) NOTA
20. The best topsoil for growing plants
is loamy soil which is a mixture of……..
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a) sand and silt

b) clay and silt
c) both sand & clay
21. Identify the incorrect statement about silt.
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a) Silt occurs as a deposit in river beds.

b) The size of the silt particles is between those
of sand and clay.
c) Particles of silt are bigger than sand particles.
22. It took 20 minutes for 200 mL to
percolate. Find the rate of percolation.
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a) 0.2 ml/min
b) 0.1 ml/min
c) 0.01 ml/min
d) 4000 ml/min
23. Identify the incorrect one.
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a) Percolation rate of water is different in

different types of soil.
b) Percolation is highest in the sandy soil and
least in the clayey soil.
c) Percolation is least in the sandy soil and
highest in the clayey soil.
24. ……… soil is used to make pots, toys
and statues.
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a) Clayey
b) sandy
c) loamy
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

25. Soil is affected by wind, rainfall,

temperature, light and humidity.

a) True
b) False
26. Which soil is suitable for growing cereals like
wheat, and gram because they are good at
retaining water?
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a) Clayey
b) Loamy
c) both clayey and loamy
27. Identify the correct one.
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a) For paddy, soils rich in clay and organic matter and having a good capacity
to retain water are ideal.
b) For lentils (masoor) and other pulses, loamy soils, which drain water easily,
are required.
c) For cotton, sandyloam or loam, which drain water easily.
d) Crops such as wheat are grown in the fine clayey soils, because they are
rich in humus and are very fertile.
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
28. Identify the wrong statement.

a) The removal of land surface by water, wind or ice is known as

erosion.
b) Plant roots firmly bind the soil. In the absence of plants, soil
becomes loose.
c) Wind and flowing water doesn’t causes soil erosion.
d) Erosion of soil is more severe in areas of little or no surface
vegetation, such as desert or bare lands.
29. In addition to the rock particles, the soil
contains…..
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(i) air and water

(ii) water and plants
(iii) minerals, organic matter, air and water
(iv) water, air and plants
30. The water holding capacity is the
highest in…….
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(i) sandy soil

(ii) clayey soil
(iii) loamy soil
(iv) mixture of sand and loam
COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
32. The microorganisms present in the soil require
moisture (water) and nutrients for growth and survival.
Choose from the options below the habitat (place)
where the soil has plenty of water and nutrients.
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(a) Desert
(b) Forest
(c) Open field
(d) Cricket ground
33. Availability of water and minerals in the soil
for maximum absorption by roots is in the –
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(a) B-horizon
(b) C-horizon
(c) A-horizon
(d) surface of soil
34. Soil conservation measures are mainly
aimed at protecting which of the following?
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(a) Plants
(b) Top soil
(c) Sub soil
(d) Soil organisms
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
35. Read the following statements with reference to soil.
(i) Weathering is a very fast process of soil formation.
(ii) Percolation of water is faster in sandy soils.
(iii) Loamy soil contains only sand and clay.
(iv) Top soil contains the maximum amount of humus.

Choose the correct statements from the above.

(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

36. Soil has particles of different sizes. Arrange

the words given below in increasing order of
their particle size.

Rock, Clay, Sand, Gravel, Silt

 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

37. The components of loamy soil

are ______, ______ and ______.
38. Read the following statements and give the appropriate
terms for each of them.

(a) The process of breakdown of rocks by the action of wind,

water, sunlight.
(b) Removal of top soil during heavy rains or strong winds.
(c) Accumulation of wastes in the soil generated by human
activity which alter the features of soil.
(d) The process of movement of water into deeper layers of soil.
THANK YOU
JAI HIND
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

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 T
T
T
F
T

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TRACHEA
RIBS
DIAPHRAGM
STOMATA
SPIRACLES
LUNGS
NOSTRILS
YEAST
ANT

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 F

F
T

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AIR SOIL

FLOOR

STOMATA

TRACHEA

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 TOP MCQ

CLASS 7 SCIENCE

TRANSPORTATION IN PLANTS AND

ANIMALS
1. All organisms need…………..
a) food
b) water COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
c) minerals
d) all of the above

2. Heart and the blood vessels functions to transport substances and together form the …..
system.
a) circulatory
b) digestive
c) respiratory

3. Heart transports substances like digested food from the small intestine to the other parts of
the body.
a) True COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
b) False

4. Heart of bird has ……….. chambers

a) 2
b) 3 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
c) 4

5. The fluid part of the blood is called ……………

a) Platelets
b) Cells
c) Plasma

6. Which blood cells contain a red pigment called haemoglobin.

a) White
b) red COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
c) yellow

7. What binds with oxygen and transports it to all the parts of the body and ultimately
to all the cells?

a) WBC

b) Platelets

c) Haemoglobin

8. The presence of haemoglobin makes blood appear……….

a) pink
b) red COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
c) white

9. The blood ……………. which fight against germs that may enter our body.
a) RBC
b) WBC
c) Platelets
10. The clot is formed because of the presence of another type of cells in the blood,
called……
a) RBC
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b) Plasma
c) Platelets

11. During inhalation a fresh supply of …………. fills the lungs.

a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon Dioxide

12. So, two types of blood vessels, arteries and veins are present in the body.
a) True
b) False

13. The blood picks up the waste materials including carbon dioxide from the cells.
This blood has to go back to the heart for transport to the lungs for removal of carbon dioxide
a) True
b) False COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

14. Identify the incorrect statement

a) Arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to all parts of the body.
b) Since the blood flow is rapid and at a high pressure,
c) The arteries have thin elastic walls.

15. This throbbing is called the pulse and it is due to the blood flowing in the………..
a) Capillaries
b) Veins
c) Arteries

16. The number of beats per ……… is called the pulse rate.
a) second
b) hour COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
c) minute

17. A resting person usually has a pulse rate between ………… beats per minute.
a) 52-55
b) 62-68
c) 72-80

18. Identify the incorrect statement

a) Pulmonary artery carries blood from the heart, so it is called an artery and not a vein.
b) Pulmonary artery carries carbon dioxide-rich blood to the lungs.
c) Pulmonary vein carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart.
d) Pulmonary artery carries oxygen rich blood to the lungs.

19. The evaporation of water from leaves generates a suction pull which can pull water to
great heights in the tall trees.
a) True
b) False COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
20. Which organ beats continuously to act as a pump for the transport of blood, which carries
other substances with it.
a) Lungs
b) Heart
c) Kidneys

21. The heart is located in the chest cavity with its lower tip slightly tilted towards the……...
a) right
b) left

22. Heart is roughly the size of your fist.

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a) True

b) False

23. To avoid blood rich in oxygen and the blood rich in carbon dioxide mix with each other,
the heart has ………….. chambers.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4

24. The two upper chambers are called the atria (singular: atrium) and the two lower
chambers are called the ventricles
a) True
b) False

25. The partition between the chambers helps to avoid mixing up of blood rich in oxygen
with the blood rich in carbon dioxide.
a) True COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
b) False

26. Identify the correct statement.

a) The walls of the chambers of the heart are made up of muscles.
b) These muscles contract and relax rhythmically.
c) This rhythmic contraction followed by its relaxation constitutes a heartbeat.
d) all of the above

27. The doctor feels your heartbeats with the help of an instrument called a
a) barometer
b) stethoscope
c) Sphygmomanometer

28. Identify the incorrect statement.

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a) Stethoscope as a device to amplify the sound of the heart
b) It consists of a chest piece that carries a sensitive diaphragm,
c) It also has two ear pieces and a tube joining the parts.
d) It also has four ear pieces and a tube joining the parts

29. ……….. is removed as waste from the body through the lungs during exhalation.
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon Dioxide
c) Nitrogen

30. Undigested food is removed during …………….

a) Respiration
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b) Digestion
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c) Egestion

31. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) When our cells perform their functions, certain waste products are released which are toxic
and hence need to be removed from the body.
b) The process of removal of wastes produced in the cells of the living organisms is called
excretion.
c) The parts involved in excretion forms the circulatory system.
d) The parts involved in excretion forms the excretory system.

32. The waste which is present in the blood has to be removed from the body from a
mechanism to filter the blood is required which is done by the blood capillaries in the……..
a) lungs
b) heart
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c) kidneys

When the blood reaches the two kidneys, it contains both useful and harmful substances. The
useful substances are absorbed back into the blood.

33. The wastes dissolved in water are removed as ……...

a) Carbon Dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Urine COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

34. Animals such as sponges and Hydra do not posses any circulatory system.
a) True
b) False

35. Who discovered the circulation of blood?

a) Mendel
b) Harvey
c) Darwin

36. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) From the kidneys, the urine goes into the urinary bladder through tube-like ureters.
b) Urine is stored in the bladder and is passed out through the urinary opening at the end of a
muscular tube called urethra.

c) The kindeys, ureters, bladder and urethra form the excretory system.

d) An adult human being normally passes about 1.8 L of urine in 24 hours.

e) The kindeys, ureters, bladder and urethra form the circulatory system.

37) The urine consists of …………… percent water, 2.5% urea and 2.5% other waste
products.
a) 75 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
b) 85
c) 95

38) Identify the correct statement.

a) In summer, white patches are formed on our clothes, especially in areas like underarms.
b) These marks are left by salts present in the sweat.
c) This is because the water evaporates from the pores of the pot, which causes cooling.
d) all of the above
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39) Identify the incorrect statement.
a) The way in which waste chemicals are removed from the body of the animal depends on
the availability of water.
b) Aquatic animals like fishes, excrete cell waste as ammonia which directly dissolves in
water.
c) Some land animals like birds, lizards, snakes excrete a semi-solid, white coloured
compound (uric acid).
d) The major excretory product in humans is urea.

40) Due to kidney failure, waste products start accumulating in the blood. Such persons
cannot survive unless their blood is filtered periodically through an artificial kidney. This
process is called dialysis.
a) True
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b) False

41) In plants, water is transported through

(i) xylem
(ii) phloem
(iii) stomata
(iv) root hair

42) Water absorption through roots can be increased by keeping the plants
(i) in the shade
(ii) in dim light COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
(iii) under the fan
(iv) covered with a polythene bag

43) The muscular tube through which stored urine is passed out of the body is called –

(a) kidney

(b) ureter
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(c) urethra

(d) urinary bladder

44) They are pipe-like, consisting of a group of specialised cells. They transport substances
and form a two-way traffic in plants. Which of the following terms qualify for the features
mentioned above?

(a) Xylem tissue

(b) Vascular tissue

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(c) Root hairs

(d) Phloem tissue

45. The absorption of nutrients and exchange of respiratory gases between blood and tissues
takes place in –

(a) veins
(b) arteries

(c) heart
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(d) capillaries

46. In which of the following parts of human body are sweat glands absent?

(a) Scalp

(b) Armpits

(c) Lips

(d) Palms COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

47. In a tall tree, which force is responsible for pulling water and minerals from the soil?

(a) Gravitational force

(b) Transportation force

(c) Suction force

(d) Conduction force

48. Aquatic animals like fish excrete their wastes in gaseous form as

(a) Oxygen

(b) Hydrogen COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

(c) Ammonia

(d) Nitrogen

49) Fill in the blanks.

(i) The blood from the heart is transported to all parts of the body by the………..
(ii) Haemoglobin is present in………. cells.
(iii) Arteries and veins are joined by a network of ………….
(iv) The rhythmic expansion and contraction of the heart is called………..
(v) The main excretory product in human beings is ………...
(vi) Sweat contains water and ………………
(vii) Kidneys eliminate the waste materials in the liquid form called………….
(viii) Water reaches great heights in the trees because of suction pull caused by……….

50. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) Plants take water and mineral nutrients from the soil through the roots and transport it to
the leaves.
b) The leaves prepare food for the plant, using water and carbon dioxide during
photosynthesis.
c) Food is the source of energy and every cell of an organism gets energy by the breakdown
of glucose.
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d) The cells use this energy to carry out vital activities of life hence food must be made
available to every cell of an organism.

51.
a) The root hair increase the surface area of the root for the absorption of water and mineral
nutrients dissolved in water.
b) The root hair is in contact with the water present between the soil particles
c) Plants have pipe-like vessels to transport water and nutrients from the soil.
d) The vessels are made of special cells, forming the vascular tissue.

52. …….. is a group of cells that perform specialised function in an organism.

a) cell
b) tissue
c) organ COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

53. The vascular tissue for the transport of water and nutrients in the plant is called the xylem
The xylem forms a continuous network of channels that connects roots to the leaves through
the stem and branches and thus transports water to the entire plant leaves synthesise food.

54. The food has to be transported to all parts of the plant which is done by the vascular
tissue called the …………...
a) Xylem
b) phloem
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55. Identify the incorrect statement.
a) Xylem and phloem transport substances in plants.
b) Plants absorb mineral nutrients and water from the soil.
c) Both a & b

56. The water evaporates through the …………. present on the surface of the leaves by the
process of transpiration.
a) stems
b) xylem
c) stomata COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

57. Transpiration ……….. the plant.

a) heats
b) cools
c) heats and cools
d) neither heats nor cools

THANK YOU
JAI HIND
 TOP MCQ
CLASS 7 SCIENCE
REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS
BASED ON NCERT AND
EXEMPLAR
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1. The production of new individuals
from their parents is known as…….

a) reproduction
b) nutrition
c) excretion
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2. Which of the following is/are vegetative parts
of a plant?

a) roots
b) stems
c) leaves
d) all of the above
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3. Mango trees flowering in …..
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a) summer
b) winter
c) spring
4. The ………. perform the function
of reproduction in plants.
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a) leaf
b) flower
c) seed
5. A flower may have either the
male part or the female part or
both male and female parts.
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a) True
b) False
6. In asexual reproduction plants can give
rise to new plants without seeds, whereas
in sexual reproduction, new plants are
obtained from seeds.
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a) True
b) False
7. In which type of asexual reproduction, new
plants are produced from roots, stems, leaves
and buds.
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A) Spore formation
b) budding
c) Vegetative propagation
Apart from flower buds, there are buds in the
axil (point of attachment of the leaf at the node)
of leaves which develop into shoots. These buds
are called vegetative buds
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8. A ……… consists of a short stem around which
immature overlapping leaves are folded.
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a) seed
b) flower
c) bud
9. Bryophyllum has buds in the margins
of……
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a) roots
b) fruits
c) leaves
10. Slimy green patches in ponds, or in other
stagnant water bodies are called……….
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a) algae
b) fungi
c) mushroom
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11. When water and nutrients are available

algae grow and multiply rapidly by…….……

a) budding
b)spore formation
c) fragmentation
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12. ………. on a bread piece grow from

spores which are present in the air.

a) algae
b) virus
c) fungi
Identify the correct statement.

a) The spores are asexual reproductive bodies.

b) Each spore is covered by a hard protective coat to withstand
unfavourable conditions such as high temperature and low
humidity.
c) They can survive for a long time. Under favourable conditions,
a spore germinates and develops into a new individual.
d) Plants such as moss and ferns also reproduce by means of
spores.
ALL ARE CORRECT
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

13. The …….. are the male reproductive

part and the …… is the female reproductive
part.

a) pistil, stamen
b) stamen, pistil
c) carpel, stamen
14. Identify the incorrect statement.
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a) The flowers which contain either only the pistil or

only the stamens are called unisexual flowers.
b) The flowers which contain both stamens and pistil
are called bisexual flowers.
c) Corn, papaya and cucumber produce bisexual
flowers,
d) Mustard, rose and petunia have bisexual flowers.
15. Identify the incorrect statement.
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a) Anther contains pollen grains which produce male
gametes.
b) A pistil consists of stigma, style and ovary.
c) The ovary contains one or more ovules.
d) The female gamete or the egg is formed in an ovule
e) In sexual reproduction a male and a female gamete
fuse to form an egg.
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
16. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) Pollen grains have a tough protective coat which prevents

them from drying up.
b) Since pollen grains are light, they can be carried by wind or
water.
c) Insects visit flowers and carry away pollen on their bodies.
d) Some of the pollen lands on the stigma of a flower of the
same kind.
e) NOTA
17. Identify the incorrect statement.
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a) The transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of a
flower is called pollination.
b) If the pollen lands on the stigma of the same flower it is called
self-pollination.
c) When the pollen of a flower lands on the stigma of another
flower of the same plant, or that of a different plant of the same
kind, it is called cross-pollination
d) all of the above
NONE OF THE ABOVE
18. The cell which results after fusion
of the gametes is called a ………
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a) ova
b) foetus
c) zygote
19. The process of fusion of male and
female is called fertilisation. The zygote
develops into an ……….
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a) foetus
b) embryo
c) egg
20. Identify the incorrect statement.
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a) After fertilisation, the ovary grows into a fruit and
other parts of the flower fall off.
b) The seed is the ripened ovary.
c) The seeds develop from the ovules.
d) The seed contains an embryo enclosed in a
protective seed coat
21. Plants benefit by seed dispersal by………
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a) It prevents competition between the plant and its
own seedlings for sunlight, water and minerals.
b) It also enables the plants to invade new habitats for
wider distribution.
c) Seeds and fruits of plants are carried away by wind,
water and animals
d) all of the above
22. Seed dispersal is aided by………
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a) wind
b) water
c) animals
d) all of the above
23. Seed dispersal helps the plants to….
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(i) prevent overcrowding,

(ii) avoid competition for sunlight, water
and minerals
(iii) invade new habitats
d) all of the above
24. The reproductive part of a plant is
the……..
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(i) leaf
(ii) stem
(iii) root
(iv) flower
25) The process of fusion of the male
and the female gametes is called…….

(i) fertilisation
(ii) pollination
(iii) reproduction
(iv) seed formation
26) Mature ovary forms the……
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(i) seed
(ii) stamen
(iii) pistil
(iv) fruit
27) A spore producing plant is…….

(i) rose
(ii) bread mould
(iii) potato
(iv) ginger
28) Bryophyllum can reproduce by
its……….
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(i) stem
(ii) leaves
(iii) roots
(iv) flower
29. Match the column.
30. Which of the following parts of a plant take part in sexual reproduction?
(i) Flower
(ii) Seed
(iii) Fruit
(iv) Branch
Choose the correct answer from below.
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(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
31. Lila observed that a pond with clear water was covered up
with green algae within a week. By which method of
reproduction did the algae spread so rapidly?
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(a) Budding
(b) Sexual reproduction
(c) Fragmentation
(d) Pollination
32. Seeds of drumstick and maple are carried to long
distances by wind because they possess……….

(a) winged seeds

(b) large and hairy seeds
(c) long and ridged fruits
(d) spiny seeds
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33. The ‘eye’ of the potato plant is what…………
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(a) the root is to any plant.
(b) the bud is to a flower.
(c) the bud is to Bryophyllum leaf.
(d) the anther is to stamen
34. The ovaries of different flowers may
contain………………
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(a) only one ovule

(b) many ovules
(c) one to many ovules
(d) only two ovules
35. Which of the following statements is/are true for sexual reproduction in
plants?
(i) Plants are obtained from seeds.
(ii) Two plants are always essential.
(iii) Fertilisation can occur only after pollination.
(iv) Only insects are agents of pollination.
Choose from the options given below.
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(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) only
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL

36. Pollination refers to the……….

(a) transfer of pollen from the anther to the ovary.

(b) transfer of male gametes from the anther to stigma.
(c) transfer of pollen from the anther to stigma.
(d) transfer of pollen from the anther to the ovule.
37. In the diagram of a bisexual flower given as Figure, draw the missing part
and label the parts marked (a), (b) and (c).
Also, label the missing part that you draw.

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38. Fill in the blanks:

(a) Production of new individuals from the vegetative part of parent is

called_________.

(b) A flower may have either male or female reproductive parts. Such a flower is
called________.

(c) The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same or of
another flower of the same kind is known as _________.

(d) The fusion of male and female gametes is termed as _____________.

(e) Seed dispersal takes place by means of ___________ and _________

THANK YOU
JAI HIND
 TOP MCQ
CLASS 7
MOTION
NCERT, EXEMPLAR BASED
1. Motion could be along a…….
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a) straight line
b) circular
c) periodic
d) any of the above
2. ………… is the total distance covered
divided by the total time taken.
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a) time
b) volume
c) speed
3. If the speed of an object moving
along a straight line keeps changing, its
motion is said to be……….
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a) uniform
b) non-uniform
c) periodic
4. An object moving along a straight
line with a constant speed is said to be
in ………..
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a) uniform
b) non-uniform
c) periodic
5. The time between one sunrise
and the next was called a
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a) minute
b) hour
c) day
6. Motions of bob in a simple
pendulum is an example of……..
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a) linear
b) circular
c) periodic
7. A ……….. consists of a small metallic ball or a
piece of stone suspended from a rigid stand by a
thread. The metallic ball is called the bob of the
pendulum.
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a) simple pendulum
b) sun dial
c) sand dial
8. The to and fro motion of a simple
pendulum is an example of a……..
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a) linear
b) circular
c) periodic
9. The time taken by the pendulum to
complete one oscillation is called
its……
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a) time period
b) frequency
c) amplitude
10. The basic unit of time is a……
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a) Metre
b) Second
c) m/s
11. The symbols of all units are
written in……
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a) singular
b) plural
c) both singular & plural
12. The pulse of a normal healthy adult at
rest beats about ……. times in a minute.
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a) 60
b) 72
c) 120
13. Sundials, water clocks and sand
clocks are some devices to measure…
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a) distance
b) time
c) speed
14. The smallest time interval that can be
measured with commonly available clocks
and watches is…….
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a) one second
b) one minute
c) one hour
15. ……….. measures speed directly
in km/h.
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a) Speedometer
b) odometer
c) accelerometer
16. ……measures the distance moved
by the vehicle.
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a) Speedometer
b) odometer
c) accelerometer
17. If the distance-time graph is a straight
line, it indicates that the object is moving
with a……….
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a) constant speed
b) variable speed
c) zero speed
NCERT EXERCISE
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
1. Classify the following as motion along a straight line, circular or oscillatory motion:

(i) Motion of your hands while running.

(ii) Motion of a horse pulling a cart on a straight road.

(iii) Motion of a child in a merry-go-round.

(iv) Motion of a child on a see-saw.

(v) Motion of the hammer of an electric bell.

(vi) Motion of a train on a straight bridge.

 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
2. Which of the following are not correct?

(i) The basic unit of time is second.

(ii) Every object moves with a constant speed.

(iii) Distances between two cities are measured in kilometres.

(iv) The time period of a given pendulum is not constant.

(v) The speed of a train is expressed in m/h.

3. A simple pendulum takes 32 s to complete 20
oscillations. What is the time period of the pendulum?

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4. The distance between two stations is 240 km. A train takes 4
hours to cover this distance. Calculate the speed of the train.

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5. The odometer of a car reads 57321.0 km when the clock shows the time 08:30 AM.
What is the distance moved by the car, if at 08:50 AM, the odometer reading has
changed to 57336.0 km? Calculate the speed of the car in km/min during this time.
Express the speed in km/h also.

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6. Salma takes 15 minutes from her house to reach her school on a bicycle. If the
bicycle has a speed of 2 m/s, calculate the distance between her house and the
school.

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7. Which of the following relations is correct?

(i) Speed = Distance × Time

(ii) Speed =Distance/Time
(iii) Speed = Time / Distance
(iv) Speed = 1/ (Time x Distance)

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8. A car moves with a speed of 40 km/h for 15 minutes
and then with a speed of 60 km/h for the next 15
minutes. The total distance covered by the car is:
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(i) 100 km
(ii) 25 km
(iii) 15 km
(iv) 10 km
COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
EXEMPLAR
1. Which of the following cannot be used
for measurement of time?
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(a) A leaking tap.
(b) Simple pendulum.
(c) Shadow of an object during the day.
(d) Blinking of eyes.
COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
3. A bus travels 54 km in 90 minutes. The
speed of the bus is…..
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(a) 0.6 m/s

(b) 10 m/s
(c) 5.4 m/s
(d) 3.6 m/s
4. The time period of a simple pendulum is the time taken by it to travel from

(a) A to B and back to A.

(b) O to A, A to B and B to A.
(c) B to A, A to B and B to O.
(d) A to B.

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5. Time taken by the bob to move from A to C is t1 and from C to O is t2. The
time period of this simple pendulum is……..

(a) (t1 + t2 )
(b) 2 (t1 + t2 )
(c) 3 (t1 + t2 )
(d) 4 (t1 + t2 )

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6. The correct symbol to represent the
speed of an object is…..

(a) 5 m/s
(b) 5 mp
(c) 5 m/s
(d) 5 s/m
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7. Boojho walks to his school which is at a distance of 3 km from his home in 30 minutes. On
reaching he finds that the school is closed and comes back by a bicycle with his friend and
reaches home in 20 minutes. His average speed in km/h is…..

(a) 8.3
(b) 7.2
(c) 5
(d) 3.6

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8. A spaceship travels 36,000 km in one hour. Express
its speed in km/s.
THANK YOU
JAI HIND
 CLASS 7 SCIENCE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
ELECTRIC CURRENT AND ITS EFFECT
CHAPTER 14
NCERT BASED
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1. Symbol for the electric …………. , is a longer
line and a shorter but thicker parallel line.

a) Resistance
b) Bulb
c) Cell
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2. The wires used to connect the various
components in a circuit are represented by ………

a) lines
b) zigzag
c) circle
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3. The positive terminal of one cell is connected to the
negative terminal of the next cell. Such a combination
of two or more cells is called a ……
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a) rheostat
b) ammeter
c) battery
4. Where can the key or switch be placed in the circuit?
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(a) Left side of the battery
(b) Right side of the battery
(c) Can be placed anywhere in the circuit
(d) Near the positive terminal of the bulb
5. The circuit is then said to be ……….. when the
current flows throughout the circuit instantly.
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a) opened
b) closed
c) off
6. When the switch is in the ……… position, the
circuit is incomplete or pen. No current flows
through any part of the circuit.
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a) ON
b) OFF
7. In the bulb there is a thin wire, called the
filament, which glows when an ……….. passes
through it.
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a) heat
b) current
c) light
8. When the bulb gets fused, its ……….. is
broken.
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a) glass
b) filament
c) holder
9. Electric room heater or an electric heater used for
cooking. All these contain a coil of wire. This coil of wire
is called an…………..
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a) element
b) compound
c) atom
10. Electrical appliances, such as immersion
heaters, hotplates, irons, geysers, electric
kettles, hair dryers, have elements inside them.
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a) True
b) False
11. The amount of heat produced in a wire depends on
its……………..
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a) material
b) length
c) thickness
d) all of the above
12. Which mark ensures that the appliance is safe and wastage
of energy is minimum. Before buying bulbs or tubes, or CFLs,
look for this mark of the Bureau of Indian Standards.
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a) ISI Mark
b) Ag Mark
c) Hall Mark
13. The steel wool is commonly used for
cleaning utensils and is available in grocery
shops.
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a) True
b) False
14. Wires made from some special materials
melt quickly and break when ………. electric
currents are passed through them. These wires
are used for making electric fuses.
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a) large
b) small
c) no
 COPYRIGHT MCQ NCERT YOUTUBE CHANNEL
15. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) There is a maximum limit on the current which can safely flow through a
circuit.
b) If by accident the current exceeds this safe limit, the wires may become
overheated and may cause fire.
c) If a proper fuse is there in the circuit, it will blow off and break the circuit.
d) A fuse is thus a safety device which prevents damages to electrical circuits
and possible fires.
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16. Identify the correct statement.

a) Miniature circuit breakers (MCBs) are increasingly

being used in place of fuses.
b) These are switches which automatically turn off
when current in a circuit exceeds the safe limit.
c) You turn them on and the circuit is once again
complete.
17. Needle of a compass is a tiny magnet, which
points in ………………. direction.
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a) east-west
b) north-east
c) south-west
18. When we bring a ………….. close to magnetic
compass, the needle gets deflected.
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a) cell
b) magnet
c) heat
19. Compass needle gets deflected when
the ………… flows in a nearby wire.
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a) heat
b) current
c) light
20. …………….. was the first person who noticed the
deflection of compass needle every time the current
was passed through the wire.
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a) Maxwell
b) Oersted
c) Tesla
21. When electric current passes through a wire,
it behaves like a ………….
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a) motor
b) magnet
c) generator
22. An electric current can be used
to make magnets.
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a) True
b) False
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23. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) A coil behaves like a magnet when electric current flows

through it.
b) When the electric current is switched off, the coil generally
loses its magnetism. Such coils are called
electromagnets.
c) The electromagnets can be made very strong and can lift very
heavy loads.
24. Identify the incorrect statement.
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a) The electromagnets are also used to separate magnetic
material from the junk.
b) Doctors use tiny electromagnets to take out small pieces of
magnetic material that have accidentally fallen in the eye.
c) Many toys also have electromagnets inside them.
25. Electric bell convert ….…..
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a) sound to electrical
b) electrical to sound
c) sound to mechanical
26. Fill in the blanks:

(a) Longer line in the symbol for a cell represents its … terminal.

(b) The combination of two or more cells is called a ………..

(c) When current is switched ‘on’ in a room heater, it

produces………..

(d) The safety device based on the heating effect of electric

current is called a …………...
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27. Mark ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if it is false:

(a) To make a battery of two cells, the negative terminal of one cell is connected to the
negative terminal of the other cell.

(b) When the electric current through the fuse exceeds a certain limit, the fuse wire
melts and breaks.

(c) An electromagnet does not attract a piece of iron.

(d) An electric bell has an electromagnet.

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28. When an electric current flows through a copper wire AB as shown in
Figure, the wire

(a) deflects a magnetic needle

placed near it.
(b) becomes red hot.
(c) gives electric shock.
(d) behaves like a fuse.

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29. Choose the statement which is not correct in the case of an electric fuse.

(a) Fuses are inserted in electric circuits of all buildings.

(b) There is a maximum limit on the current which can safely flow through the
electric circuits.
(c) There is a minimum limit on the current which can safely flow in the
electric circuits.
(d) If a proper fuse is inserted in a circuit it will blow off if current exceeds the
safe limit.

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30. Three bulbs A, B, C are connected in a
circuit as shown in Figure. When the
switch is ‘ON’………

(a) bulb C will glow first.

(b) bulb B and C will glow
simultaneously and bulb A
will glow after some time.
(c) all the bulbs A,B and C will
glow at the same time.
(d) the bulbs will glow
in the order A, B and C.

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31. When a switch is in OFF position,
(i) circuit starting from the positive terminal of the cell stops at the switch.
(ii) circuit is open.
(iii) no current flows through it.
(iv) current flows after some time.

Choose the combination of correct answer from the following.

(a) all are correct

(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) only (iv) is correct
(d) only (i) and (ii) are correct
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32. Which of the following precautions need not be taken while using electric
gadgets/appliances/circuit?

(a) We should never touch a lighted electric bulb connected to the mains.
(b) We should never experiment with the electric supply from the mains or a
generator or an inverter.
(c) We should never use just any wire or strip of metal in place of a fuse.
(d) We should never turn the switch in ON position

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33. Which property of a conducting wire is utilised in
making electric fuse?

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34. Name the device used these days in place of
electric fuses in electrical circuits.
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35. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Our body is a ________________ of electricity.

ii) An electric cell produces electricity from the ______________ in it.

(iii) In an electric circuit a fuse is a ____ ____ to prevent possible fire.

(iv) A combination of two or more cells is called a ______.

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36. The credit for the invention of the
electric bulb is usually given to…..….

a) Rutherford
b) Alva Edison
c) Graham Bell
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37. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) Electric cell has one positive terminal and two negative terminals.
b) Longer line represents the positive terminal and the thicker, shorter line represents
the negative terminal inside the battery compartment of any device.
c) There is usually a thick wire or a metal strip connecting the positive terminal of one
cell to the negative terminal of the next cell.
d) In order to help you to place the cells correctly in the battery compartment,
‘+’ and ‘–’ symbols are usually printed there.
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38. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) The wires used for making electric circuits do not normally become hot.
b) Elements of some electric appliances become so hot that they are easily
visible.
c) The filament of an electric bulb gets heated to such a high temperature
that it starts glowing.
d) If a small current passes through a wire, the wire may become so hot that
it may even melt and break.
39. Identify the correct statement.
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a) An electric bulb is used for light but it also gives heat which is
not desirable.
b) Electric bulbs results in the wastage of electricity. This
wastage can be reduced by using fluorescent tube lights in place
of the bulbs.
c) Compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) also reduce wastage and
can be fixed in the ordinary bulb holders.
40. Reason for excessive currents in electrical circuits is the direct touching of
wires which may happen if the insulation on the wires has come off due to
wear and tear. This condition is called………..

a) Short Circuit
b) Overloading
c) Earthing
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THANK YOU
JAI HIND
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TOP MCQ & EXPLANATION

CLASS 7 SCIENCE
CHAPTER 15 LIGHT
NCERT & EXEMPLAR BASED
1. Light travels along a …… path.
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a) curved
b) straight
c) elliptical
2. An image formed by a plane mirror is………
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a) same size
b) erect
c) virtual
d) all of the above
3. In the side mirror of a scooter or a car the
images of all the objects appear ………. than the
objects themselves.
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a) larger
b) smaller
c) equal
4. On which side of spoon, the image appears erect and larger
in size and if you increase the distance of the spoon from your
face, you may see your image inverted?

a) inner side of the spoon

b) outer side of spoon
c) both inner and outer side of spoon

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5. Speed of light in vacuum is.... lakhs km/s.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
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6. The inner surface of a spoon acts like a ……….
mirror, while its outer surface acts like a …………
mirror.
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a) concave, concave
b) concave, convex
c) convex, concave
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7. The image of an object formed by a plane

mirror cannot be obtained on a screen.

a) True
b) False
8. An image formed on a screen is called a
…….. image.
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a) real
b) erect
c) virtual
9. Image formed by a plane mirror could not
be obtained on a screen. Such an image is
called a ………….. image.
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a) real
b) inverted
c) virtual
10. Which of the following is/are uses of concave
mirror?
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a) examining eyes, ears, nose and throat.
b) by dentists to see an enlarged image of the teeth
c) in the reflectors of torches, headlights of cars and
scooters are concave in shape
d) all of the above
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11. Mirrors used as side mirrors in
automobiles…………..
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a) concave
b) convex
c) both convex and concave
12. Identify the incorrect statement.
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a) Convex mirrors used as side mirrors in

automobiles.
b) Convex mirrors can form images of objects
spread over a small area.
c) Convex mirror help the drivers to see the
traffic behind them.
13. The magnifying glass is a …….. lens.
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a) convex
b) concave
c) either concave or convex
14. Lenses which feel thicker in the middle
than at the edges are ………… lenses.
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a) convex
b) concave
c) neither convex nor concave
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15. A ………. lens converges (bends inward) the light

generally falling on it it is called a converging lens.

a) concave
b) convex
c) both concave and convex
16. A concave lens diverges (bends outward)
the light and is called a diverging lens.
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a) True
b) False
17. Lenses are widely used in ……………….
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a) spectacles
b) telescope
c) microscope
d) all of the above
18. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) A concave mirror can form a real and inverted image.

b) In a Concave mirror, when the object is placed very close to the mirror, the
image formed is virtual, erect and magnified.
c) Image formed by a convex mirror is erect, virtual and smaller in size than the
object.
d) A concave lens can form real and inverted image.
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19. Image formed by a concave lens is
always……..
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a) virtual
b) erect
c) smaller in size
d) all of the above
20. Sunlight consists of …………. colours.
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a) 3
b) 1
c) 7
21. The sunlight is said to be ………. light.
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a) grey
b) yellow
c) white
22. A prism splits ……. light into seven colours.
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a) grey
b) yellow
c) white
 23. In an image formed by a mirror, the left side of the
object is seen on the right side in the image, and right
side of the object appears to be on the left side in the
image. This is called………
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a) virtual image
b) lateral inversion
c) real image
24. Identify the correct statement.
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a) Any polished or a shining surface acts as a

lens.
b) An image which can be obtained on a
screen is called a virtual image.
c) An image which cannot be obtained on a
screen is called a real image.
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25. Fill in the blanks:

(a) An image that cannot be obtained on a screen is called ____________.

(b) Image formed by a convex __________ is always virtual and smaller in size.

(c) An image formed by a __________ mirror is always of the same size as that of
the object.

(d) An image which can be obtained on a screen is called a _________ image.

(e) An image formed by a concave ___________ cannot be obtained on a screen.

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26. Mark ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if it is false:

(a) We can obtain an enlarged and erect image by a convex mirror. (T/F)

(b) A concave lens always form a virtual image. (T/F)

(c) We can obtain a real, enlarged and inverted image by a concave mirror. (T/F)

(d) A real image cannot be obtained on a screen. (T/F)

(e) A concave mirror always form a real image. (T/F)

27. Virtual image larger than the object can
be produced by a……….
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(i) concave lens
(ii) concave mirror
(iii) convex mirror
(iv) plane mirror
28. David is observing his image in a plane mirror. The distance
between the mirror and his image is 4 m. If he moves 1 m
towards the mirror, then the distance between David and his
image will be………….
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(i) 3 m
(ii) 5 m
(iii) 6 m
(iv) 8 m
29. The rear view mirror of a car is a plane mirror. A driver is reversing
his car at a speed of 2 m/s. The driver sees in his rear view mirror the
image of a truck parked behind his car. The speed at which the image of
the truck appears to approach the driver will be…………
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(i) 1 m/s
(ii) 2 m/s
(iii) 4 m/s
(iv) 8 m/s
30. Match the following.
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31. When the disc is rotated fast, the colours get mixed together and the disc
appears to be whitish. Such a disc is popularly known as ………… disc.

a) Joule’s
b) Newton’s
c) Einstein’s
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32. Boojho and Paheli were given one mirror each by their teacher. Boojho found his
image to be erect and of the same size whereas Paheli found her image erect and
smaller in size. This means that the mirrors of Boojho and Paheli are, respectively

(a) plane mirror and concave mirror.

(b) concave mirror and convex mirror.
(c) plane mirror and convex mirror.
(d) convex mirror and plane mirror.
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33. Which of the following can be used to form a

real image?

(a) Concave mirror only.

(b) Plane mirror only.
(c) Convex mirror only.
(d) Both concave and convex mirrors.
34. If an object is placed at a distance of 0.5 m in front
of a plane mirror, the distance between the object and
the image formed by the mirror will be………..
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(a) 2 m
(b) 1 m
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 0.25 m
35. You are provided with a concave mirror, a convex mirror, a concave
lens and a convex lens. To obtain an enlarged image of an object you can
use either…………
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(a) concave mirror or convex mirror.
(b) concave mirror or convex lens.
(c) concave mirror or concave lens.
(d) concave lens or convex lens
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36. A rainbow can be seen in the sky……….

(a) when the sun is in front of you.

(b) when the sun is behind you.
(c) when the sun is overhead.
(d) only at the time of sun rise.
37. An erect and enlarged image can be formed by…….
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(a) only a convex mirror.
(b) only a concave mirror.
(c) only a plane mirror.
(d) both convex and concave mirrors.
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38. You are provided with a convex mirror, a concave mirror, a convex
lens and a concave lens. You can get an inverted image from……….

(a) both concave lens and convex lens.

(b) both concave mirror and convex mirror.
(c) both concave mirror and convex lens.
(d) both convex mirror and concave lens
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39. An image formed by a lens is erect. Such an image could be

formed by a…………..

(a) convex lens provided the image is smaller than object.

(b) concave lens provided the image is smaller than object.
(c) concave lens provided the image is larger than object.
(d) concave lens provided the image is of the same size.
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40. The image formed by a lens is always virtual, erect

and smaller in size for an object kept at different
positions in front of it. Identify the nature of the lens.
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41. Fill in the blanks:

(a) The inner surface of a steel spoon acts as a _______ mirror.

(b) The outer surface of a flat steel plate acts as a _____ mirror.

(c) The outer shining surface of a round bottom steel bowl acts as a
_____ mirror.

(d) The inner surface of the reflector of a torch acts as a ______ mirror.
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42. State whether the following statements are True or False.

(a) A concave lens can be used to produce an enlarged and erect image.

(b) A convex lens always produces a real image.

(c) The sides of an object and its image formed by a concave mirror are
always interchanged.

(d) An object can be seen only if it emits light.

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43. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) The rainbow is seen as a large arc in the sky with many colours.
b) There are eight colours in a rainbow, though it may not be easy to
distinguish all of them.
c) Seven colours in a white light is red, orange, yellow, green, blue,
indigo and violet.
d) When light is reflected from the surface of a Compact Disk (CD), you
see many colours.
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44. Identify the incorrect statement.

a) The curved shining surface of a spoon acts as a

mirror.
b) The most common example of a curved mirror is a
spherical mirror.
c) If the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is
concave, it is called a concave mirror. If the reflecting
surface is convex, then it is a convex mirror
THANK YOU
JAI HIND
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1. Which of the following serve as green
lungs? COPYRIGHT "MCQ NCERT" YOUTUBE CHANNEL

(a) Green pigment of the plants

(b) Forests
(c) Kitchen gardens
(d) Greenhouse gases
2. Boojho visited a forest near his town with his
classmates and his teacher. As they were entering
the forest, their class teacher told them not to
make noise in the forest as noise could disturb
the…….
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(a) birds
(b) animals
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) plants
3. Which among the following forests
animals is the smallest?
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(a) Fox
(b) Boar
(c) Bison
(d) Porcupine
4. Which of the following has the
strongest stem?
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(a) A tree
(b) A creeper
(c) A climber
(d) A bush
5. Which of the following is not prepared
from the wood obtained from forest?
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(a) Paper
(b) Thermocol
(c) Matchsticks
(d) Plywoodf
6. Which of the following is not the name
of a tree?
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(a) Teak
(b) Sal
(c) Porcupine
(d) Kachnar
7. Pick the option which gives the names of a tree
and an animal respectively from the following.

(a) Semal and hornbill

(b) Sal and khair
(c) Chinkara and blue bull
(d) Neem and palash
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8. Which of the products is not obtained
from a forest?
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(a) Honey
(b) Catechu
(c) Gum
(d) Ginger
9. The branchy part of a tree above the
stem is know as……….
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(a) Crown
(b) Canopy
(c) Sapling
(d) Humus
10. Forests are not responsible for………..
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(a) providing medicinal plants

(b) maintaining the flow of water into the
streams
(c) creating flood conditions
(d) absorbing rainwater and maintaining
water table
11. Identify the incorrect statement.
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(a) Forest influence climate, water cycle and air
quality.
(b) In a forest, trees form the uppermost layer,
followed by herbs. The shrubs form the lowest
layer of vegetation.
(c) The forest keeps on growing and changing and
can regenerate.
(d) Forest depletes the soil from erosion.
12. Branchy part of a tree above the stem is
known as the crown of the tree.

a) True
b) False
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13. Micro-organisms feed upon the dead plant and
animal tissues and convert them into a dark coloured
substance called humus.

a) mucus
b) humus
c) fertilizer
d) manure
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14. The micro-organisms which convert the dead
plants and animals to humus are known as
decomposers.
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a) autotrophs
b) parasites
c) decomposers
d) all of the above
15. Identify the correct statement.

a) plants release carbon dioxide through the process of

photosynthesis.
b) The plants help to provide oxygen for animal
respiration.
c) They also maintain the balance of oxygen and carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere.
d) Forests are called lungs.
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16. Trees take in water from their roots and
release water vapour into the air through
evaporation.
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a) sublimation
b) evaporation
c) decantation
d) condensation
17. Forests serve as green lungs and water
purifying systems in nature”
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a) Ocean
b) Forest
c) Rivers
d) Mountains
18. Consider the two statements and identify the incorrect statement.

1) Decomposers help in maintaining the supply of nutrients to the

growing plants in the forest.
2) The forest is a ‘dynamic living entity’ — full of life and vitality.

a) Only 1 is correct
b) Only 2 is correct
c) Both 1 & 2 are correct
d) Both 1 & 2 are incorrect
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19. Paheli wrote a food chain in the
following way:
Frog —> Eagle —> Insects Grass Snake
The chain is not in the correct order. Help
her to write the food chain correctly.
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20. Fill in the blanks:

(a) The insects, butterflies, honeybees and birds help flowering

plants in …………

(b) A forest is a purifier of ………… and …………

(c) Herbs form the …………….. layer in the forest.

(d) The decaying leaves and animal droppings in a forest enrich

the ……………..
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THANK YOU
JAI HIND
1. Which of the following is wastewater?
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(a) Water trickling from a damaged tap.

(b) Water coming out of a shower.
(c) Water flowing in a river.
(d) Water coming out of a laundry.
2. Sewage is mainly a
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(a) liquid waste

(b) solid waste
(c) gaseous waste
(d) mixture of solid and gas.
3. Which of the following is/are products
of wastewater treatment?
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(a) Biogas
(b) Sludge
(c) Both biogas and sludge
(d) Aerator
4. Open drain system is a breeding place
for which of the following?
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(a) Flies
(b) Mosquitoes
(c) Organisms which cause diseases
(d) All of these
5. Water polluted by various human activities
causes a number of water borne diseases.
Which of the following is not a water borne
disease?
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(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Asthma
(d) Dysentry
6. Pick from the following one chemical
used to disinfect water.
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(a) Chlorine
(b) Washing soda
(c) Silica
(d) Coal
7. The system of a network of pipes used for
taking away wastewater from homes or public
buildings to the treatment plant is known as……….
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(a) sewers
(b) sewerage
(c) transport system
(d) treatment plant.
8. Which of the following is a part of
inorganic impurities of the sewage?
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(a) Pesticides
(b) Urea
(c) Phosphates
(d) Vegetable waste
9. In a filtration plant water is filtered
using layers of……….
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(a) sand and clay

(b) clay and fine gravel
(c) sand and fine gravel
(d) sand, fine gravel and medium gravel.
10. Which of the following is not a source
of waste water?
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(a) Sewers
(b) Homes
(c) Industries
(d) Hospitals
11. World Water Day is celebrated on ………
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a) 22 march
b) 22 April
c) 22 May
d) 22 June
12. the General Assembly of the United
Nations proclaimed the period ………… as the
International Decade for action on “Water for
life”.
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a) 2001-2011
b) 2002-2012
c) 2004-2014
d) 2005-2015
13. This process of wastewater treatment is
commonly known as “Sewage Treatment”.

a) True
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14. Vibrio cholera : cholera
salmonella paratyphi : …………..
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a) jaundice
b) dengue
c) typhoid
d) AIDS
15. Which of the following removes the
floatable solids like oil and grease?
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a) Sand
b) Silt
c) Gravel
d) Skimmer
16. Read Assertion and reason and mark the answer.

Assertion- It has been suggested that we should plant eucalyptus trees all along
sewage ponds.
Reason- These trees absorb all surplus wastewater rapidly and release pure water
vapour into the atmosphere.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
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17. In which year , the Government of India has initiated a new
mission known as “Swachh Bharat” under which a lot of drives
such as proper sewage disposal and providing toilets for
everyone have been started?
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a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017
18. Vermi-processing toilet is a toilet in which
humans excreta is treated by ……….. has been
tested in India.
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a) leeches
b) earthworms
c) insects
d) mosquitoes
19. Diseases such as Cholera, typhoid, polio,
meningitis, hepatitis and dysentery are the
examples of………….
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a) air borne
b) water borne
c) soil borne
d) insect borne
20. Fill in the blanks:

(a) Cleaning of water is a process of removing ____________.

(b) Wastewater released by houses is called ____________.

(c) Dried ____________ is used as manure.

(d) Drains get blocked by ____________ and ____________.

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21. State whether the following statements are True or False. In
case a statement is false, write the correct statement.

(a) Sewage is a solid waste which causes water pollution and soil
pollution.

(b) Used water is wastewater.

(c) Wastewater could be reused.

(d) Where underground sewerage systems and refuse disposal

systems are not available, the high-cost on-site sanitation system
can be adopted.
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22. A mixture (x) in water contains
suspended solids, organic impurities,
inorganic impurities (a), nutrients (b),
disease-causing bacteria and other
microbes. Give names for (x), (a) and (b)?
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22) What is sewage? Explain why it is harmful to
discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas.

Ans) Wastewater released by houses is called sewage.

Untreated sewage should not be discharged into the sea

because sewage consists of pollutants and harmful
microorganisms which will contaminate water causing
disease in people using contaminated water.
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23) Why should oils and fats be not
released in the drain? Explain.

Ans) Oils and fats should not be released

in the drain because drains get blocked
by cooking oil and fats.
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24) What is sludge? Explain how it is treated.

Ans) Solids like faeces settle at the bottom while treating

sewage, and this material is called sludge.

Sludge can be treated as follows:

Sludge is removed using a skimmer and then transferred
to a tank where it is decomposed by anaerobic bacteria
to produce biogas.
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25. Name two chemicals used to
disinfect water

Ans) Chlorine and Ozone are used to

disinfect water.
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26. Explain the function of bar screens in
a wastewater treatment plant.

Ans) Bar screen removes large objects

like rags, sticks, cans, plastic packets and
napkins.
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27. Explain the relationship between
sanitation and disease.

Ans) Sanitation and disease are

interrelated as lack of sanitation leads to
illness and good sanitation practices
prevent the diseases.
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28. Untreated human excreta is a health hazard. Explain.

Untreated human excreta is a health hazard because it

consists of various disease-causing microorganisms
and pollutants that will contaminate the soil and water
resource from where people draw water for drinking and
domestic purposes.

When people use water contaminated with human

excreta, they get diseases like Cholera, Typhoid,
Dysentry and Hepatitis.
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29. Name two inorganic impurities
present in sewage.

Ans) Two inorganic impurities present in

sewage are phosphate and nitrate.
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30. Explain sewage treatment method.

Ans) The sewage is treated to destroy the germs and reduce the
contaminants.

In wastewater treatment, wastewater is passed through sedimentation tank,

in which organic materials settle down and are removed with scraper. This
is called sludge.

In separate tank, sludge is acted upon by anaerobic bacteria which

produces methane, carbon dioxide, and biogas by process known as
digestion.

Therefore, both sludge and biogas are products of wastewater treatment.

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1. Wastewater is passed through bar
screens. Large objects like rags, sticks,
cans, plastic packets, napkins are
removed.

2. Water then goes to a grit and sand

removal tank. The speed of the
incoming wastewater is decreased to
allow sand, grit and pebbles to settle
down.
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3. The water is then allowed to settle in a large tank which is sloped towards the
middle.
Solids like faeces settle at the bottom and are removed with a scraper. This is the
sludge.
A skimmer removes the floatable solids like oil and grease. Water so cleared is called
clarified water (Fig. 18.5).
The sludge is transferred to a separate tank where it is decomposed by the anaerobic
bacteria. The biogas produced in the process can be used as fuel or can be used to
produce electricity.

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4. Air is pumped into the clarified water to help aerobic
bacteria to grow. Bacteria consume human waste, food waste,
soaps and other unwanted matter still remaining in clarified
water.

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THANK YOU
JAI HIND
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